Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M ODEL TEST-83

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

r’s
For decades, lawmakers and immigrant advocates in New York City have
pushed for legislation that would allow legal residents who are not citizens to
vote in municipal elections, a right they had in school board elections until the
boards were abolished in the early 2000s.Now city lawmakers are moving to make
noncitizen voting a reality — over the objections of Mayor Bill de Blasio. The City
ha
Council is planning to approve a bill that would allow more than 800,000 noncitizen
New Yorkers to register as members of political parties and vote in municipal
elections, provided they are green card holders or have the right to work in the
United States. The measure is expected to be approved on Dec. 9 by a veto-proof

E
margin. It would allow noncitizens to vote in local elections, and would not apply
to federal or state contests. But the measure raises longstanding questions about
d
who should be allowed to participate in the country’s democratic process.
Supporters maintain that immigrants, who reside in the city legally, pay taxes,
send their children to public schools and rely on city services should have some
ee

say in who becomes mayor or represents them on the City Council. Opponents
say the bill would weaken the voting rights of citizens and discourage immigrants
from trying to become citizens.Mr. de Blasio, speaking at a news conference on
Tuesday, said he would not veto the legislation. But he expressed concern that
C
the bill would undermine the “value of citizenship” if it dissuaded residents from
seeking it. Mr. de Blasio, a Democrat, also said he believes only the State
Sr

Legislature can grant noncitizens the right to vote — a view many experts dispute.
A leading opponent, Joseph Borelli, a Republican councilman who represents
Staten Island, went further, saying the bill would “weaken” citizens’ votes.“Someone
who has lived here for 30 days will have a say in how we raise our taxes, our debt
and long-term pension liabilities,” he said. “These are things people who are
temporary residents should not have a say in.”The push to allow noncitizens to
vote in New York City comes as an increasingly polarized country is dealing with
C
a swath of new laws to restrict voting, as well as the economic problems caused
by declining immigration. Voters in Alabama, Colorado and Florida passed ballot
measures last year stipulating that only U.S. citizens could vote, joining Arizona
and North Dakota in specifying that noncitizens could not vote in state and local
elections. On the other side of the issue, several towns in Maryland and Vermont
already grant noncitizens some municipal voting rights, and noncitizens can vote
in school board elections in San Francisco. Other municipalities in California,
Maine, Illinois and Massachusetts are weighing similar legislation.
1. According to supporters, who should have some opinion in electing mayor or the
one who represents them in the City Council?
1) political leaders who pay taxes and support government policies
2) Local people send their children to public schools and rely on city services
3) Natives who reside in the city legally.
4) Immigrants, who reside in the city legally, pay taxes, send their children to
public schools and rely on city services
5) None

1
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

2. What is the idea of opponents on this bill?

1) the bill would weaken the voting rights of citizens and discourage immigrants
from trying to become citizens.
2) The bill would strengthen the voting rights of citizens and encourage immigrants
from trying to become citizens.
2) The bill allows the political leaders to commit the corruption due to election
time
4) It provokes the native people for their patriotism
5) None

r’s
3. Who will approve the bill by Dec.9?
1) National Defense Authorization Act
2) Wide-ranging defense policy 3) A veto-proof margin
4) The House Republican leadership 5) None
4. What is the argument of Mr. de Blasio?
ha
1) The bill would “weaken” citizens’ votes.
2) Someone who has lived here for 30 days will have a say in how we raise our
taxes, our debt and long-term pension liabilities
3) Concern that the bill would undermine the “value of citizenship

5.
4) 1, 2&3

E 5) None
Why would city council planning for bill?
d
1) To provide right to vote for noncitizen
2) To provide green cards for noncitizens
ee

3) To vote in only municipal elections

4) To allow native people participating in other country political parties
5) None
6. What is the push to allow noncitizens to vote in New York City?
C
1) Several towns in Maryland and Vermont already grant noncitizens some
Sr

municipal voting rights,

2) A swath of new laws to restrict voting, as well as the economic problems caused
by declining immigration
3) Lawmakers are moving to make noncitizen voting a reality
4) The measure raises longstanding questions about who should be allowed to
participate in the country’s democratic process.
5) None
C
7. Which areas in America objecting the right to vote for noncitizens?
1) Theatre district and bowery
2) Tribeca, central park south and nolita 3) Noho and Hudson
4) Alabama, Colorado and Florida  5) None
Directions (8-12): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
8. I am hardly pressed/ (A) for time,/ (B) I can not/ (C) accompany you. / (D) No
error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
9. Even so great a poet/ (A) like Shakespeare/ (B) has his/ faults. (C) / (D) No error
(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

2
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

10. I have great pleasure/ (A) to move/ (B) this resolution/(C) for your consent. / (D)
No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
11. No sooner the bell rang/ (A) than the teacher entered the class. (B) (C) / (D) No
error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
12. The price/ (A) of his car is/ (B) higher/ (C) than your car. / (D) No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

r’s
Directions (13-17): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully.
13. NaQuan had a terrible habit of boasting so much about his smallest accomplishments
that his _______ became renowned throughout the small college campus.
ha
1) vainglory 2) timidity 3) diffidence 4) tempestuousness 5) mockery
14. Only a small number of people in the audience laughed at the comic’s _________
sense of humor, while the rest found him to be too sarcastic.
1) consequential
4) dauntless

E 2) avaricious
5) mordant
3) venturous
d
15. He has long been a(n) ________ of year-round school, believing it would signi?cantly
improve learning and ease the burden on working parents.
ee

1) advocate 2) levity 3) detractor 4) epiphany 5) connoisseur

16. Tired of hearing the child whine for more candy, the babysitter finally _______ and
offered him a piece of chocolate.
C
1) relented 2) abated 3) rendered 4) placated 5) enumerated
17. Dogs growl and show their teeth in an attempt to ___________ the animal or person
Sr

they perceive as a threat.

1) bolster 2) waylay 3) cow 4) exacerbate 5) appease
Directions (18-20): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
C
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
18. Column-I
A. cotton served as an ideal medium of exchange in
B. During the middle ages, it was exported
C. This was followed by the establishment of
Column-II
D. to Eastern and European markets.
E. cotton mills by imperial powers in the modern period.
F. the barter economy during the ancient period.
1) A-F & B-D 2) B-F & A-D 3) C-D,B-E & A-F 4) ONLY A-F 5) None of these

3
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

19. Column-I
A. A macroeconomic term referring to the sum of the economic activity undertaken
B. The circular flow model offers a graphical representation,
C. This increased interest in the SME sector is advantageous
Column-II
D. showing the flow of money and resources in a nation.
E. by a nation’s households and firms in the product and resource market in a
year.
F. for Oman not just because of the contribution it can make to the country’s

r’s
economy.
1) A-D ,B-E & C-F 2) ONLY A-D 3) C-F & B-E
4) B-D & C-F 5) None of these
20. Column-I
A. Our research aimed to identify what research was out there
ha
B. The chemical compounds used in these products, however, can enter
C. It is already understood that UV-filter compounds
Column-II

E
D. have toxic effects on marine organisms. 
E. and what gaps we had in our knowledge.
d
F. the environment at the points of manufacture as well as through use by the
consumer.
1) C-D & A-E 2) C-D & B-E 3) B-E, C-D & A-F 4) ONLY A-D 5) None of these
ee

Directions (21-23): The question consists of 6 sentences of a passage. S1 and S6

represent the first and last sentences of a passage respectively. Arrange the
sentences P, Q, R. and S between S1 and S6 to form a complete meaningful
C
passage.
21. S1. A great deal of this is attributable to the prevailing belief
Sr

P. that winning elections is the sine qua none of democratic politics,

Q. and the raison deter for any political party to exist.
R. India’s leading political party, which currently holds power at
S. the Centre and a majority of States, has converted this into a fine art,
S6. and makes no secret of its determination to pursue this path.
1) RSQP 2) PQRS 3) SQPR 4) QSRP 5) RPSQ
22. S1. The events in Puducherry highlight, yet again, the absurdity
C
P. for a no-confidence motion to succeed.
Q. of the anti-defection law. In what has now become the
R. the treasury benches resigned, lowering the numbers required
S. standard operating procedure, several MLAs from
S6. This formula has been seen recently in other States such as Madhya Pradesh
and Karnataka.
1) RSQP 2) PQRS 3) SQPR 4) QSRP 5) RPSQ
23. S1. the hesitancy to available vaccines among health-care workers,
P. 45 with comorbidities will behave strikingly different
Q. cannot be overlooked. Whether the elderly and those above
R. or take a cue from health-care workers and prefer to
S. who are one of the most informed and also at greater risk of infection,
S6. wait before queuing up for a vaccine remains to be seen.
1) RSQP 2) PQRS 3) SQPR 4) QSRP 5) RPSQ

4
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

Directions (24-27): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
24. Business is good so the company is taken on extra staff
1) took fo 2) takes on 3) taking on
4) look for 5) No correction required
25. We expected Deepak to come but he didn’t shown up.
1) showing to 2) show up. 3) showed off
4) shown of 5) No correction required
26. It’s always wise to shopping among before buying anything.

r’s
1) shopped around 2) shopped among 3) shop around
4) shops around 5) No correction required
27. By high school, Sallie is lending her parents money to fix the furnace when it
gave out.
1) is lending of 2) was lending 3) has lending
4) is lending for
ha
5) No correction required
Directions (28-30): Choose the word which expresses nearly the similar meaning
of the BOLD word in the given sentence.
28. However good her underlying motivations, she still lied, tricked and betrayed
him.

E
d
1) necessary 2) basic 3) bottom-line 4) critical 5) secondary
29. Vamps, chairs, the floor— all disintegrated at its touch.
1) in pieces 2) split 3) rent 4) collapsed 5) hurt
ee

30. The body is then exhumed in a family ceremony with a priest.

1) unbury 2) uncharnel 3) disclose 4) bury 5) disentomb
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
C
2
31. A and B together can finish a piece of work in 10 days. B and C together can
Sr

7
1
finish the same piece of work in 13 days. B is 25% more efficient than C. In how
3
many days A and C together can finish the same piece of work ?
4 7 5
1) 4 13 2) 5 13 3) 11 1 4 4) 7 113 5) 6 13

32. Sum of present ages of Ria and Abby is 48 years. At present, Abby is 4 years older
C
to Sue. Respective ratio of present ages of Ria and Sue is 4 : 7, What was Abby’s
age 2 years earlier ?
1) 38 years 2) 28 years 3) 32 years 4) 30 years 5) 36 years
33. A boat can travel 2.75 km upstream in 11 minutes. The respective ratio of speed
of the stream and speed of the boat downstream is 1 : 7. If the boat takes 52
minutes to travel from point A to B (downstream), what is the distance between
point A and B ? (in km)
1) 18.2 2) 192 3) 19.6 4) 17.8 5) 18.4
34. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a square whose diagonal is 12 6
m. If the difference between length and breadth of the rectangle is 6 m., what is
the perimeter of the rectangle ? (in m.)
1) 96 2) 76 3) 72 4) 84 5) 88

5
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

35. An equal amount of money is invested, in Scheme A for 6 years and Scheme B for
8 years, both -offering 8% Simple Interest per annum. Difference in the interest
earned from both the schemes is Rs. 1280. For how many years should the same
amount of money be invested to earn the same amount of interest as in Scheme
A, at 12% Simple Interest per annum ?
1) 4.5 years 2) 4.2 years 3) 5 years 4) 3 years 5) 4 years
36. A dealer offers 25% discount on the Marked Price of an article and thereby makes
a loss of 10%. If the marked Price of the item was Rs. 4,800. How much discount
should he offer on the Marked Price so as to make a profit of Rs. 440 on the item ?

r’s
1) 8% 2) 7% 3) 7.25% 4) 8.5% 5) 7.5%
37. In a 40 litres mixture of milk and water, percentage of water is only 15%. The
milkman gave 10 litres of this mixture to a customer and then added 12.5 litres of
water in the remaining mixture. What is the respective ratio of milk and water in
the new mixture ?
1) 3 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 5 : 3 4) 12 : 7 5) 5 : 4
38.
ha
A bag contains 4 white balls, 4 red balls and 2 green balls. If two balls are picked
at random, what is the probability that at least one ball is green ?
1) 11/45 2) 19/45 3) 26/45 4) 28/45 5) 17/45
39.

E
A man gives 20% of his monthly salary to his one daughter and one son in the
respective ratio of 3 : 2. Twice the amount he gave to his daughter, he invested in
d
1
LIC. Of the remaining amount he gave 4 th to his wife. If he is left with Rs.
ee

16,800, how much did he invest in LIC ?

1) Rs. 12,600 2) Rs. 12,400 3) Rs. 9,600 4) Rs. 9,400 5) Rs. 9,200
40. A, B and C invest in a business and the share of their investment is in the
C
respective ratio of 0.125 : 0.75 : 0.25. After 8 months from the start of the business.
A invests twice his investment and C withdraws half of his investment. At the
Sr

end of the year profit recorded was Rs. 6,900. How much was B’s profit share ?
1) Rs. 4,460 2) Rs. 5,600 3) Rs. 5,650 4) Rs. 4,600 5) Rs. 4,200
Direction(41-45) : Study the following table carefully to answer the given question
Number of flights cancelled by five different airlines in six different years

Airlines P Q R S T
C
Year
2014 240 450 305 365 640
2015 420 600 470 446 258
2016 600 680 546 430 610
2017 160 208 708 550 586
2018 140 640 656 250 654
2019 290 363 880 195 483
41. Number of flights cancelled by airlines-P and R together in the year 2016 was
approximately what percentage of number of flights cancelled by airlines-S in the
year 2014 ?
1) 356 2) 340 3) 265 4) 314 5) 280
6
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

42. What was the approximate percent increase in number of flights cancelled by
airlines S in the year 2017 as compared to previous year ?
1) 127 2) 27 3) 150 4) 45 5) 117
43. What was the difference between the highest number of flights cancelled by
airlines-Q and the lowest number of flights cancelled by airlines-T out of all the
six years ?
1) 446 2) 456 3) 432 4) 442 5) None
44. What was the average number of flights cancelled by the airlines P, R, S and T in
the year 2017 ?

r’s
1) 501 2) None 3) 551 4) 405 5) 442
45. If 40 percent of flights in the year 2019 by airlines-R were cancelled due to bad
weather conditions and rest were cancelled due to technical fault. What was the
number of flights cancelled due to technical fault ?
ha
1) None 2) 528 3) 548 4) 568 5) 468
Directions (46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.

E
In a class 200 students are there.
1
5
th of the total students passed in only
d
1 1
Hindi. th of the total students passed in only English and th of the total
8 4
ee

students passed in only Sanskrit. The number of students who passed in Hindi
and English but failed in Sanskrit is equal to the number of students who passed
in English and ‘Sanskrit but failed in Hindi, which is equal to 10% of total number
C
of students. Number of students who passed in Hindi and Sanskrit but failed in
English is 15% of total number of students. Every student passed in at least one
Sr

subject.
46. How many students passed in exactly one subject?
1)115 2)185 3)100 4)85 5) 118
47. How many students passed in all three subjects?
1)12 2)15 3)20 4)30 5) 24
48. How many students passed in at least two subjects?
C
1)115 2)185 3)100 4)85 5) 96
49. How many students passed in at most two subjects?
1)115 2)185 3)100 4)85 5) 96
50. What is the difference between number of students passed in Hindi and number
of students passed in English?
1)15 2)20 3)25 4)30 5) 35
Direction(51-55):In this question a number series is given in which one number
is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
51. 9 36 82 144 225 324 441
1) 36 2) 324 3) 82 4) 225 5) 144
52. 363 360 352 345 333 318 300
1) 352 2) 345 3) 318 4) 333 5) 360

7
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

53. 14 29 45 62 79 99
1) 62 2) 29 3) 45 4) 79 5) 99
54. 145 109 88 68 59 55 54
1) 59 2) 88 3) 109 4) 68 5) 55
55. 5 17 41 90 185 377 761
1) 185 2) 17 3) 377 4) 41 5) 90
Direction(56-58) : The question consists of a question and two statements I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question Read both the statements and choose the

r’s
appropriate option:
56. Ram mixed two types of rice for selling the mixture in his shop. What is the
quantity (in kg) of first type of rice in the mixture ?
(I) The price of first type of rice is Rs. 24/- per kg. Ram earned a profit of 15% by
selling the mixture @ Rs. 23/- per kg.
ha
(II) The price of second type of rice is Rs. 14/-per kg
1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

E
2) The data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
d
question.
3) The data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
ee

4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.
5) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
C
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
57. What is the speed of the train ? (in kmph)
Sr

(I) The car takes 5 hours more than the train to cover a distance of 462 km.
(II) The train moves 35 kmph faster than the car.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question
C
3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
58. What is the area of the circle ? (in sq cm)
(I) The diameter of the circle is 60 cm less than its circumference
(II) The diameter of the circle is equal to the side of a square whose area is 784 sq
cm
1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

8
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

3) The data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
4) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Directions (59-65): What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions.
?2 + 511 = 282 +

r’s
59. 256
1) 25 2) 17 3) 19 4) 11 5) 13
2
60. 725 ÷ ? + 42% of 800 = 19
1) 17 2) 15 3) 29 4) 34 5) 48
61. (43% of 5100 + 13% of 1400) ÷ 5 + 25 =?
1) 400 2) 500
ha 3) 600 4) 650 5) 700
5 5 1
62. 4 +9 – 7 =?
6 12 6

E
d
1 1 1 1 1
1) 6 2) 6 3) 7 4) 7 5) 7
12 6 6 12 4
ee

63. 1414 + 23% of 300 + 134 -1571 =?

1) 40 2) 44 3) 46 4) 48 5) 52
64. 2197 – 3947 + 1569 + 1049 =?
C
1) 784 2) 884 3) 841 4) 848 5) 868
2
65. 1256 + 14 – 45% of 160 =?
Sr

1) 1140 2) 1250 3) 1380 4) 1460 5) 1530

REASONING
Direction(66-70): Read the given information to answer the given questions :
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in
such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row I, D, E,
F, G and H are seated and all of them are facing North. In row II, Q, R, S, T and U
are seated and all of them are facing South. Thus in the given arrangement each
C
member of a row faces another member of the other row.
S sits second to the right of U. U does not sit at an extreme end of the row.
Only two people sit between F and the person facing S. As many people sit to the
right of F as to the left of G. The one who faces T sits third to the right of G.
Neither S nor T faces D. Q sits to the immediate left of the person facing E.
66. Four of the following rive are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement
and so form a group. Which one of them does not belong to the group?
1) F 2) E 3) Q 4) R 5) G
67. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate right of H ?
1) E 2) G 3) The one who faces U
4) The ono who faces Q 5) No one
68. Who amongst the following faces R ?
1) F 2) H 3) E 4) G 5) D
69. How many people sit to the left of Q as per the given arrangement ?
1) None 2) Four 3) Two 4) Three 5) One

9
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

70. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement ?
1) Only one person sits between H and G
2) None of the given statements is true 3) D faces Q
4) T sits at an extreme end of the row
5) R is an immediate neighbour of S
Direction(71-75): Study the following information and answer the questions :
Eight people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, ond H live on eight different floors of a
building. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one obove that
is numbered two ond so on till the top most floor is numbered eight.
E lives on the floor numbered four. Only two people live between E and B. D

r’s
lives immediately above B. Only four people live between D and G. As many people
live between E and G as between D and A. H lives on one of the floors below A. F
does not live on the topmost floor.
71. H lives on which of the following floor numbers ?
1) One 2) Five 3) Seven 4) Three 5) Two
72.
ha
How many people live between C and F ?
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) More than three 5) None
73. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement ?

E
1) Only three people live between D and H.
2) G lives on floor numbered seven.
d
3) As many people live below C as above B.
4) All the given statements are true
5) A lives immediately above E.
ee

74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement
and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
1) D - Floor numbered five 2) B - Floor numbered two
C
3) F- Floor numbered three 4) E - Floor numbered seven
5) G - Floor numbered four
Sr

75. If in the given arrangement all the people are made to live as per the English
alphabetical order from top to bottom, then the floor of stay of how many people
will remain unchanged
1) More than three 2) Three 3) Two 4) None 5) One
Direction(76-79): Read the given information to answer the given questions :
Six persons viz. J, K, L, M, N and O are of different heights. K is taller than
M and O but shorter than L. L is shorter than J. J is not the tallest. O is not the
C
shortest. The height of the third tallest person is 167cm. The height of the second
shortest person is 124cm.
(Note: The height of each person is in whole numbers only)
76. Who amongst the following is taller than N ?
1) L 2) M 3) No one, as N is the tallest person
4) N 5) J
77. With respect to the height of the given persons, if J + O = 294 cm and L + N = 348
cm, then N + J =_____cm.
1) 337 2) 305 3) 291 4) 351
5) None of those given as options
78. How many people are taller than J ?
1) Cannot be determined 2) Two 3) Four
4) one 5) Three
79. What is the possible height of K ? (in cm)
1) 121 2) 117 3) 152 4) l75 5) 180

10
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

80. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
English alphabetical order and thus form a group, which one of the following does
not belong to that group ?
1) ROU 2) FDH 3) IGK 4) LJN 5) TRV
81. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'DISPLAY', each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
1) None 2) More than three 3) Two 4) Three 5) One
Direction(82-86): Study the given arrangement carefully to answer the given

r’s
questions:
7  2 $ # 1 8 6  3 ^8 5  7 8 @ 4 & 6 3 % 2 5  1 * 3
82. What will be the sum of the third, the eighth and the twelfth elements from the
left end of the qiven arrangement ?
ha
1) 20 2) 16 3) 13 4) 18 5) 14
83. Which of the following is the eighth element to the right of the fifteenth element
from the right end of the given arrangement ?
1) 3 2) % 3) @ 4) 2 5) 8
84.

E
Which of the following represents the eleventh element from the left end and the
d
fourteenth element from the right end (respectively) of the given arrangement ?
1) ^ and @ 2) 6 and & 3) ^ and 7 4)  and 7 5) 3 and 
85. Which of the following is the fourth element to the left of '  ' in the given
ee

arrangement ?
1) 3 2) 4 3) ^ 4) @ 5) 6
86. How many such even numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which
C
is immediately followed by a symbol ?
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) More than four
Sr

Direction(87-89): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions :
Point M is 13m to the East of Point L. Point J is 8m to the South of Point M.
Point J is 5m to the West of Point N. Point K is 20m to the North of Point N. Point
P is 18m to the West of Point K.
87. In which direction is point K with respect to point M ?
C
1) North-West 2) West 3) South 4) South-West 5) North-East
88. Point X is 12m to the South of Point K. How for and in which direction is point M
with respect to point X ?
1) 8m towards West 2) 13m towards East
3) 8m towards North 4) 5m towards West 5) 5m towards East
89. What is the distance between Points P and L ?
1) 20m 2) 13m 3) 8m 4) 12m 5) 5m
Direction(90-94): Read the given information to answer the given questions :
Seven boxes are kept one above the other in a stack. Box Q is kept
immediately above box T. Only three boxes are kept between box T and box V.
Only one box is kept between box V and box P. Box R is kept immediately below
box P. Box S is kept at one of the positions below box R but above box U.
90. How many boxes are kept between box U and box Q ?
1) One 2) None 3) Two 4) Four 5) Three

11
Sreedhar’s CCE RB I A SST - SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T-83

91. If all the boxes are kept in alphabetical order from bottom to top, the position/
s of how many boxes will remain unchanged as compared to their original
position/s ?
1) One 2) Two 3) None
4) Three 5) More than three
92. How many boxes are kept below box S ?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One 5) Five
93. Which of the following boxes is kept immediately above box Q ?
1) Box R 2) Box U 3) Box V 4) Box S

r’s
5) None of those given as options
94. As per the given arrangement box T is related to box U in a certain way. Similarly,
box Q is related to box S. To which boxes is box V related in the same way ?
1) None of those given as options 2) Box T 3) Box P
4) Box R ha 5) Box Q
Direction(95-100):Read the given information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code language :
‘grade pay to increase’ is coded as ‘ya ko cv dl’
‘increase the pay now’ is coded as ‘dl le mu ya’

E
‘now arrange for pay’ is coded as ‘jb dl le sn’
d
‘try for better grade’ is coded as ‘gr cv tx jb’
(Note : All the codes are two letter codes only)
95. What is the code for ‘increase for’ in the given code language ?
ee

1) le jb 2) mu le 3) ko mu 4) ya ko 5) jb ya
96. What is the code for ‘now’ in the given code language ?
1) jb 2) di 3) le 4) mu 5) sn
C
97. What may the code ‘vf dl’ stand for in the given code language ?
1) join now 2) pay better 3) to highest 4) pay highest 5) now pay
Sr

98. In the given code language, if ‘try the dress’ is coded as ‘wz gr mu’, then how will
‘better arrange dress’ be coded as in the same code language ?
1) jb di wz 2) wz jb sn 3) sn wz tx 4) di tx wz 5) tx sn di
99. What does the code “cv” stand for in the given code language?
1) increase 2) the 3) either ‘to’ or ‘for’ 4) grade
5) either ‘increase’ or ‘now’
100. In which of the following expressions does the expression “ I  D” to deffinitely
C
hold true?
1) K  I  R = P < S  D 2) U  D  M = F  A  I
3) I  C  Q  B = N  D
4) G  I = A < B  S  D 5) D  E = G  W = Y  I

KEY
1.4 2.1 3.3 4.4 5.1 6.2 7.4 8.1 9.1 10.2 11.1 12.4 13.1
14.5 15.1 16.1 17.3 18.1 19.4 20.1 21.2 22.4 23.3 24.3 25.2 26.3
27.2 28.2 29.4 30.3 31.3 32.4 33.1 34.4 35.5 36.5 37.2 38.5 39.1
40.4 41.4 42.2 43.5 44.1 45.2 46.1 47.2 48.4 49.2 50.3 51.3 52.1
53.4 54.2 55.5 56.3 57.5 58.4 59.2 60.3 61.2 62.4 63.3 64.5 65.3
66.2 67.5 68.1 69.4 70.4 71.4 72.1 73.1 74.2 75.5 76.3 77.4 78.4
79.3 80.1 81.5 82.2 83.2 84.3 85.1 86.2 87.5 88.4 89.4 90.2 91.2
92.1 93.2 94.3 95.5 96.3 97.4 98.3 99.4 100.3

12