Electrical Objective Questions

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1. One coulomb of electrical charge is contributed by how many electrons?

A. 0.625 × 10 . 19
B. 1.6 × 10 . 19
C. 10 .
19
D. 1.6 × 10 . 12
Electrical charge of one electron is – 1.6 × 10 – 19

coulomb, hence one
coulomb implies
1 / | – 1.6 × 10 – 19
| or 0.625 × 10 number of electrons.
19
2. 5 × 10 electrons pass across the section of a conductor in 1 minutes and

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20 seconds. The current is flowing

A. 0.1 mA.
B. 1 mA.
C. 10 mA.
D. 100 mA.
The charge of an electron is – 1.6 × 10 coulomb. Therefore total negative
-19
charge passes across the section of a conductor in 1 minute and 20

seconds is 5 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 = 8 × 10 . Therefore, charge passes
16 -19 –3
across the section in one second, is 8 × 10 –3

coulomb / 80 second = 10 –
4
coulomb/second (or Amp) = 0.1 mA.
3. An current of 6 A is same as
A. 6 Joule / second.
B. 6 Coulomb / second.
C. 6 Watt / second.
D. none of the above.
Current is the rate of charge transferred per second. A current of 6 ampere
implies 6 coulomb charge transferred through a cross section of conductor
per second. Therefore 6 ampere = 6 coulomb / second.
4. Ampere – second is the unit of

A. conductance.
B. power.
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C. energy.
D. charge.
Electric current is nothing but rate of flow of charge per second. Therefore,
ampere = coulomb / second. Hence coulomb = ampere × second =
ampere – second.
5. The current in a circuit follows the relation i = 100sinωt. If frequency is 25

Hz, how long will it take for the current to rise to 50 A ?
A. 1 ms.
B. 3.33 ms.
C. 10 ms.
D. 20 ms.
Let, at t second the instantaneous value of current, i = 50 A.
6. The equation of a current is given by i = I sin2ωt. The frequency of

m
thecurrent in Hz is
A. ω ⁄ 2π.
B. ω ⁄ 2.
C. 2ω ⁄ π.
D. ω ⁄ π.
The general equation of a current wave is,
Where, f is the frequency of the current wave. Here, the given equation is
3
Comparing, (1) and (2) we get, 2ωt = 2πft or, ω = πf or, f = ω ⁄ π.
7. The equation of alternating current is i = 42.4sin628t. Then the average

value of current is
A. 42.42 A.
B. 27 A.
C. 38 A.
D. 22 A.
The relation between average value and peak value of a sinusoidal
waveform is given by
Here, I = 42.4 A. Therefore, I = 0.636 × 42.4 = 26.97 A.

m 0
8. If 1 A current is flowing through a series circuit having 100 resistors of

each having resistance of 1 Ω. What will be the current in the circuit where,
these 100 resistors are connected in parallel?
A. 10 A.
B. 100 A.
C. 1000 A.
D. 10000 A.
9. In the figure shown, what will be the current passing through 2 Ω resistor?
A. 0.25 A.
B. 0.75 A.
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C. 0.5 A.
D. 1 A.
According to current division law, required current,
10. A copper conductor of one square millimeter can safely carry an currentof
A. 100 A.
B. 50 A.
C. 25 A.
D. 10 A.
It is rating of copper conductor. For 1 sq mm safe current is 10 A. In case of
1.5 sq mm the safe current is 15 A.
11. For carrying an current of 75 A an aluminium conductor should have a

minimum cross-section of
A. 25 mm . 2
B. 10 mm . 2
C. 15 mm . 2
D. 20 mm . 2
The current carrying capacity of aluminium conductor is near about 3 A /

mm .2
12. A copper wire of length l and diameter d has potential difference V applied
across its two ends. The drift velocity is V . If the diameter of the wire is
d
made d / 2, then the drift velocity becomes

A. V.d
B. 4V . d
C. V / 4.
d
D. V / 2.
d
The drift velocity is a basic property of conductor material and hence it

does not depend upon the length or diameter of the conductor.
13. Mass of a proton is how many times greater than mass of an electron?
A. 184000.
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B. 18400.
C. 1840.
D. 184.
Mass of a proton is 1840 times greater than mass of an electron.
14. On which factors does the severity of electric shock depends ?

A. Only on pathway through the body.
B. Only on the type of supply ac/dc.
C. Only on magnitude of voltage.
D. All of above.
The severity and effects of an electrical shock depends on a number of
factors, such as the pathway through the body, the amount of current, the
length of time of the exposure, whether the skin is wet or dry, magnitude
of voltage, and type of supply AC or DC.
15. Five coulomb of electrical charge is contributed by how many electrons?

A. 3.125 × 10 . 19
B. 1.6 × 10 . 19
C. 10 .
19
D. 1.6 × 10 . 12
Electrical charge of one electron is – 1.6 × 10 , hence five coulomb implies

– 19
5 / | – 1.6 × 10 – 19
| or 3.125 × 10 numbers of electrons.
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16. The transient current in a series AC circuit is given by
Find the initial current ?

A. 2 Amp.
B. 1 Amp.
C. 0 Amp.
D. 8734 Amp.
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17. Alternating current is found most suitable for

A. arc welding.
B. resistance welding.
C. gas welding.
D. electric arc welding.
Alternating current can provide any desired combination
of voltageand current by means of transformer. So, resistance welding can
be suitably controlled using alternating current.
18. The rms value of a half wave rectified symmetrical square wave currentof
2 A is given by
A. 0.707 A.
B. 1 A.
C. 1.414 A.
D. 1.732 A.
19. How many coulombs of charge flows through a circuit carrying 5 A in 5

min?
A. 1500.
B. 150.
C. 15.
D. 1.
The current means the rate of charge transfer per second. That
means current I = Q / t.
Here, I = 5 A, and t = 5 minutes = 5 × 60 = 300 sec. Therefore, total
charge flows during 5 minutes is 5 × 300 = 1500 coulomb.
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1. The flow of current in solids is due to

A. electrons and ions
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B. electrons.
C. atoms.
D. nucleus.
All electric currents consist of charges in motion. The charge is carried
entirely by electrons. Electrons are free to move from atom to atom that
enables the current to flow in a solid conductor.
2. Ampere second could be the unit of

A. power.
B. conductance.
C. charge.
D. energy.
A unit of electrical charge is equal to the amount of charge that can be
transferred by an current of 1 ampere in 1 second.
3. The drift velocity of electrons is

A. very small as compared to speed of light.
B. equal to speed of light.
C. almost equal to speed of light.
D. greater than speed of light.
The drift velocity of the electrons is the order of millimeters per second and
the speed of the speed of light is the order of million meters per second,
which is approximately 300 million meters per second. That is why the drift
velocity of the electrons is very small compared to speed of the light.
4. The charge on an electron is known to be 1.6 × 10 coulomb. In a circuit

-19
the current flowing is 1 A. How many electrons will be flowing through the
circuit in a second?
A. 1.6 × 10 . 19
B. 1.6 × 10 . -19
C. 0.625 × 10 . 19
D. 0.625 × 10 . 12
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We know that the number of electrons in one coulomb is the ratio of one
coulomb to the charge on one electron.
Thus, the number of electrons in a second is equals to 0.625 × 10 . 19
5. In gases the flow of current is due to

A. electrons only.
B. positive ions only.
C. negative ions only.
D. electrons, positive ions and negative ions only.
Basically, the current in gases consists of a flow of positive ions in one
direction and it together with a flow of negative ion in that opposite
direction. Then, the positive charge should have the same magnitude of
the negative charge and it must be included as a contribution of the total
current. The flow of current is referred to the flow of electrons.
6. An current of 5 A is same as
A. 5 J / C.
B. 5 C / Sec.
C. 5 V / C.
D. 5 W / C.
The flow of charge per second of time is same as the current which flows
through the circuit. So, ampere and charge / second are same.
7. An instrument which detects current is known as

A. voltmeter.
B. wattmeter.
C. galvanometer.
D. rheostat.
Voltmeter and wattmeter cannot be used to measure the current and
rheostat would be used to resist the current in electrical circuits. The
galvanometer is used to detect the electric current. Because, the
galvanometer has a coil that energizes by current and according to that
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current, needle is actuated. Since, it is used to detect some micro

ampere current only. To measure the high rating currents, it has to be
modified as an ammeter.
8. Current flows in a circuit when

A. a switch is opened.
B. a switch is closed.
C. the switch is either open or closed.
D. there is no voltage.
While a switch is closed in any circuits, which would make a pathway to
flow the current into the circuit.
9. Eight-tenths coulomb passes a point in 4 s. The current in amperes is

A. 1.6 A.
B. 2 A.
C. 16 A.
D. 0.2 A.
The given terms are, Q = 8 / 10 Coulomb and T = 4 Sec.
We know that current I is given by,
10. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure

A. voltage.
B. current.
C. resistance.
D. reluctance.
Ammeter is a tool that is designed to measure the flow of current in a
circuit.
11. The rate of flow an electric charge is known as

A. current.
B. voltage.
C. conductance.
D. power.
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The rate of flow of an electric charge is referred as the movement of

electric charges in coulombs per second of time. This coulomb / sec is
another unit of current.
12. The minimum requirement for causing flow of current are

A. A voltage source, a resistor and a switch.
B. A voltage source and a conductor.
C. A power source an bulb.
D. A voltage source, a conductor, an ammeter and switch.
We know that, V = IR ⇒ I = V / R. So, any conductor would have their own
resistance, because of its resistivity. While a voltage source is applied in
this conductor, according to the above expression ancurrent flows through
the circuit.
13. Which of the following current is considered dangerous to the human body
A. 1 mA.
B. 50 mA.
C. 0.5 mA.
D. 25 mA.
Refer to the table below,
CURRENT
LEVEL(MILLI
AMPERES) P R O B A B L E E F F E C T O N H U M A N B O DY
Perception level. Slight tingling sensation.

1mA Still dangerous under certain conditions.
Slight shock felt, not painful but disturbing.

Average individual can let go. However,
strong involuntary reactions to shocks in
5mA this range may lead to injuries.
Painful shock, begin to lose muscular

10mA – control. Commonly referred to as the
30mA freezing current or let-go range.
30mA – Extreme pain, respiratory arrest, severe

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muscular contractions. Individual cannot let

99mA go. Death is possible.
Ventricular fibrillation (uneven,

uncoordinated pumping of the heart.)
100mA – Muscular contraction and nerve damage
2,000mA begins to occur. Death is likely.
Cardiac arrest, internal organ damage, and

> 2,000mA severe burns. Death is probable.
14. The ratio of voltage and electrical current in a closed circuit
A. increases.
B. varies.
C. falls.
D. remain constant.
The ratio of voltage to the current is referred as the resistance. If the
resistance remains constant in an electrical circuit, then the ratio
ofvoltage to the current should be constant at all time. Theoretically, the
resistance of any electrical circuit would be constant.
15. Current velocity through the copper conductor is

A. nearly 3 × 10 m/sec.
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B. independent of the current strength.

C. the same as propagation velocity of electrical energy.
D. of order of few micro m/s.
The velocity of current through a conductor is given by;
Where,
V = Velocity of the current ( m / s)
I = Current (Amps)
n = Number of electrons per cubic meter (8.5 × 10 per m for copper)
28 3
A = Cross sectional area of conductor (m ) 2
Q = Charge on a single electron (Coulombs)

If we use this above expression with some practical values, we would get
some fraction of nano or pico meter per second of current velocity. It’s too
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less. Although the drift velocity of electrons is so less but

actually current travels at a speed of nearly 3 × 10 m/sec that is the speed
8
of light.
16. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter.
B. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter.
C. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter.
D. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter.
Basically, galvanometers are ammeters only. In electrical circuits,
ammeters are connected in series. If the resistance is very low, then it
could allow more current to the load without as much as power loss in that
resistance.
17. An electric bulb can be worked from

A. AC supply only.
B. DC supply only.
C. battery supply only.
D. all of these.
In electric bulb, an current would flow through the filament wire and
thereby it can be worked. So, we can use any of the power supply source to
glow a bulb, because all the power supply would producecurrent while it is
connected with source.
18. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

A. magnetic effect.
B. thermal effect.
C. luminius effect.
D. all of above.
If an current passes through the inductor or electromagnet, it would create
magnetic effect. If an current passes through the furnace, it would create
thermal effect and if an current passes through the electric bulbs, then it
would create luminous effect. Thus, an electrical energy can be converted
into any kind of energy very easily.
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19. When current passes through a metallic conductor, it temperature rises.

This is due to
A. collisions between conduction electrons and atoms.
B. the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms.
C. mutual collisions between metal atoms.
D. mutual collisions between conducting electrons.
When an electric field is applied through a metallic conductor, due to drift
velocity, the electrons can be moved to opposite direction of the field,
because of their negative charge. This gives the flow of current. The
collisions between conduction electrons and atoms are correspondence to
the resistance of the metallic conductor. If the collision between conduction
electrons and atoms is high, then the resistance value is also high. Due to
the presence of resistance, heat is raised in that conductor.
20. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

A. increases in the branch of the lowest resistance.
B. increases in each branch.
C. is zero in all branches.
D. is zero in the highest resistive branch.
If the main line of any circuit is opened, then there is no way to flow the
current. Thus, the current is all connected branches with that parallel
circuit would be zero.
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1. A conductor of length L has carrying current I passing through it, when it

is placed parallel to strong magnetic field. The force experienced by the
conductor will be
A. BIL.
B. BL I. 2
C. BI L.
2
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D. zero.
The force can be found with the given expression F = I × L × B × sinθ and
θ is the angle between I and B. When that current carrying conductor is
placed parallel to the magnetic field, then the angle
between current and magnetic field is zero. So, sinθ = sin0° = 0. Hence,
the force experienced by the conductor is zero.
2. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional

to
A. radius of conductors.
B. current in one conductor.
C. product of current in two conductors.
D. distance between the conductors.
If the current is flowing through the two different conductors with the
distance of ‘d’ at the same direction of the current flow on that conductor,
then the force between the two conductors is directly proportional to the
product of the currents and inversely proportional to the distance between
the two conductors.
3. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents

A. voltage.
B. current.
C. magnetic field.
D. direction of force on the conductor.
Thumb finger represents the direction of force, Fore finger represents the
direction of magnetic field, middle finger represents the direction of
current.
4. A wire carrying current is bent in the form of a circular loop. Then

themagnetic field around each portion of the wire will be
A. parallel to the plane of the wire.
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B. perpendicular to the circumference of the wire.

C. parallel to half portion and perpendicular for the other half.
D. none of above.
Suppose the straight wire is bent in the form of a circular loop, currentflows
through every point on the wire that would give rise to themagnetic
field appearing as straight lines at the center of the circular loop. By
applying the right hand rule, it is easy to check that every section of the
wire contributes to the magnetic field lines in the same direction within the
loop.
5. Cork Screw rule is used to find

A. direction of current.
B. direction of magnetic field.
C. direction of electric field.
D. direction of emf.
The direction in which the head of the cork screw rotates that would give
the direction of the magnetic field or magnetic force of lines. The shape of
this magnetic field is circular and the direction of magnetic field is clock-
wise.
6. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated
by 20 mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor will be
A. 100 N.
B. 10 N.
C. 1 N.
D. 0.01 N.
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Given data: Current I and I = 100 Amps; Distance = 20 mm = 20 × 10 m;

1 2
-3
Force = ?
We know that the force is found by the following expression.
7. The field at any point on the axis of a current carrying coil will be
A. parallel to axis.
B. perpendicular to the axis.
C. at angle of 45° with the axis.
D. zero.
A continuous current in a current carrying coil is divided into
multiplecurrent elements. Using the superposition principle and the Biot-
Savart’s law, each discrete element generates its own magnetic fieldand
when it is integrated with each field that produces a resultant field and it is
aligned parallel to the axis of the coil.
8. Two straight parallel conductors carry equal currents in opposite direction.

The force between them is
A. repulsive.
B. attractive.
C. zero.
D. none of above.
When two current carrying conductors are placed parallelly, there will be a
force acting between them. The force is attractive if direction of currents in
the conductor is same and it is repulsive if the direction of the currents is
opposite. This can easily be explained by right hand rule.
9. While comparing magnetic field and electric circuits, the point of

dissimilarity exists while considering
A. mmf and emf.
B. reluctance and resistance.
C. flux and current flow.
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D. permeance and conductance.

Flow of current in an electric circuit involves continuous expenditure of
energy but energy is needed in a magnetic circuit only creating the flux
initially but not for maintaining it.
10. A wire 2.5 m long is bent into a square. An current of 100 A flowing
through the wire will produce a magnetizing force at the center of the
square, equal to
A. 72 AT / m.
B. 144 AT / m.
C. 196 AT / m.
D. 222 AT / m.
Given data : Wire length ‘L’ = 2.5 m; Current ‘I’ = 100 A; Magnetizing force
‘H’ = ?. In square, length of each side; 2a = L / 4 ⇒ a = 2.5 / 8 = 0.3125
11. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by

A. heating.
B. hammering.
C. by inductive action of another magnet.
D. by all above methods.
The above all methods could destroy the strength of the magnet.
12. The change of cross sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will
affect
A. reluctance of conductor.
B. resistance of conductor.
C. (A) and (B) both in the same way.
D. none of above.
We know that the cross sectional area is inversely proportional to the
resistance of the conductor. In magnetic circuits, reluctance is analogues to
the resistance. Hence, the resistance and reluctance would affect in the
same way.
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13. Substance having permeability less than the permeability of free space,
are known as
A. diamagnetic.
B. bipolar.
C. paramagnetic.
D. ferromagnetic.
Diamagnetic material creates a magnetic field in opposition to an
externally applied magnetic field and it is not a permanent magnet. Hence,
its magnetic permeability is less than the permeability of free space.
14. A point pole has a strength of 4π × 10 weber. The force in newtons on a

-4
point pole of 4π × 1.5 × 10 weber placed at a distance of 10 cm from it

-4
will be
A. 20 N.
B. 15 N.
C. 7.5 N.
D. 3.75 N.
Given data: Pole strength m = 4π × 10 Weber; m = 4π × 1.5 × 10 ; r =
1
-7
2
-4
10 cm.
We know that the force is found by the below expression,
15. Susceptibility is positive for

A. non magnetic substances.
B. diamagnetic substances.
C. ferromagnetic substances.
D. none of above.
Magnetic susceptibility is the degree of magnetization of a material
response to an applied magnetic field. If magnetic susceptibility is positive
then the material can be paramagnetic, ferromagnetic or anti
ferromagnetic. Alternatively, if the magnetic susceptibility is negative, then
the material is diamagnetic.
16. Biot-Savart’s law states the relation between magnetic intensity and
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A. filament current only.

B. surface current only.
C. volume current only.
D. (A), (B), and (C) are all correct.
Biot-Savart’s law states that the differential magnetic field intensity dH
produced at a point P by the differential current element Idl. This is the only
one law is available to relate the magnetic intensity and the different type
of current distribution. The given equations show the different relations
between the magnetic intensity and the currents.
17. The bar magnet has

A. the dipole moment.
B. monopole moment.
C. (A) and (B) both.
D. none of above.
Under construction.
18. The magnetisation and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are related
A. sinusoidally.
B. linearly.
C. non linearly.
D. parabolically.
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When a ferromagnetic material is magnetized in one direction, it will not

come back to zero magnetization even the magnetizing field is removed.
That is why the material follows a non-linear magnetization curve when the
magnetization starts from zero field value.
19. Temporary magnets are used in

A. loud speakers.
B. generators.
C. motors.
D. all of above.
Temporary magnets are nothing but the electromagnets. Those magnets
are used in lots of electrical appliance such as alternator, synchronous
motors, etc. Because, for a large system, we could not create a permanent
magnet and even if we create the permanent magnet, the life of that
magnet is very less. That is why we usually use the electromagnet for that
application.
20. A degaussing is the process of

A. removing gases from materials.
B. removal of magnetic impurities.
C. demagnetising metallic parts.
D. remagnetising metallic parts.
Degaussing is the process of de-magnetizing or eliminating an
unwanted magnetic field. Due to magnetic hysteresis, it is generally not
possible to reduce a magnetic field completely to zero. But degaussing
typically induces a very small known field to eliminate the
unwanted magnetic field.
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1. Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the

A. protons.
B. electrons.
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C. neutrons.
D. nucleus.
Basically the nucleus is surrounded by electrons. The nucleus contains
protons and neutrons, which are about 2000 times more massive than the
electrons outside the nucleus. That is why most of the mass of the atoms
are concentrated in nucleus.
2. All ions of an element have the same

A. atomic number.
B. number of electrons.
C. number of protons.
D. both option A. and C.
Each of the ions of an element must have same number of protons.
Actually, an ion may lose or gain the electrons further. Also atomic number
of an element is defined by the number of protons present in the nucleus of
that element.
3. The mass of the atom is determined by

A. proton.
B. electrons.
C. neutron and proton.
D. electron and proton.
The mass of the atom is the summation of total mass of neutrons and
protons. We do not consider the electrons since the mass of an electron is
about 1 / 1800 times the mass of a proton or neutron.
4. The absolute charge of an electron is

A. - 1.6 × 10 C. -19
B. + 1.6 × 10 C. -19
C. 1.6 × 10 C.-19
D. none of above.
The electrons have always negative charge. Thus, the absolute charge of
an electron is – 1.6 × 10 C. -19
5. The fixed circular paths around the nucleus are called

22
A. orbits.
B. orbitals.
C. mesons.
D. nucleus.
We can call the circular path around the sun as an orbit. Like that only,
nucleus is surrounded by electrons as circularly. That is why we are calling
that fixed circular path as an orbit, too.
6. According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or losses energy only by

A. moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit.
B. jumping from one allowed orbit to another.
C. being completely removed from an atom.
D. jumping from one atom to another atom.
As per Bohr model, the electrons can only travel in special orbits at certain
discrete set of distances from the nucleus. It is does not lose energy while
they travel. They can only gain and lose energy by jumping from one
allowed orbit to another.
7. The number of rings in the Bohr model of any element is determined by

what?
A. Column number on periodic table.
B. Atomic mass.
C. Row number on periodic table.
D. Atomic number.
Each electron shell can hold certain number of electrons. For example,
ELECTRON SHELL NO OF ELECTRON
1 2
2 8
23
3 8
4 18
5 18
6 32
7 32
As per this table, there were seven electron shells which contain some
number of electrons. The orbit is nothing but rings. The number of rings in
the Bohr model of any element is determined by row number on periodic
table.
8. How many valence electrons would be found in an atom with the atomic
number of 51?
A. 5.
B. 51.
C. 8.
D. none of above.
Antimony element has the atomic number of 51. The valence electrons are
referred as the free electrons which are available at the last orbit. In
antimony, the total electron shells are 5. They have the following number
of electrons with them.
First energy level : 2
Second energy level : 8
Third energy level : 18
Fourth energy level : 18
Fifth energy level : 5
Thus, the number of valance electron is 5.
9. The Bohr model of the atom

A. explained the color lines in the hydrogen spectrum.
B. could not explain the line spectrum of atoms larger than
hydrogen.
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C. had some made-up rules without explanations.

D. all of the above.
The Bohr model is a relatively primitive model of the hydrogen atom,
compared to the valence shell atom. As a theory, it can be derived as a
first-order approximation of the hydrogen atom using the broader and
much more accurate quantum mechanics.
10. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l = 3 and n = 4 is

A. 10.
B. 14.
C. 20.
D. 8.
According to the Pauli’s exclusion principle, the maximum number of
electrons in a given sub-shell is 2( 2l + 1 ). Hence, 2( 2l + 1 ) = 2( ( 2 × 3)
+ 1 ) = 14. So, the number of electrons in that sub-shell is 14.
11. Which of the following statements is not part of Dalton’s atomic theory?
A. All matter is composed of atoms.
B. Atoms can combine to form compounds.
C. Atoms of different elements are quite different.
D. An atom contains a dense central nucleus.
The Dalton’s atomic theory is not dealing with dense central nucleus.
12. Atoms with fewer than 4 valence electrons are

A. insulator.
B. semi-conductor.
C. conductor.
D. none of these.
Atoms with less than 4 valence electrons will lose electrons to revert back
to the previous full energy level of electrons. This happens in conductors
only.
13. Atoms have no electric charge because they

A. have an equal number of charged and non charged particles.
B. have neutrons in their nuclei.
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C. have an equal number of neutrons and protons.

D. have an equal number of electrons and protons.
Because, equal number of negative electrons and positive protons would
give a result as neutral. That is why an atom does not have electric charge.
14. Two different isotopes of an element have different

A. numbers of neutrons.
B. numbers of electrons.
C. atomic number.
D. numbers of protons.
Two different isotopes have different neutrons and they have same number
of protons. Thus, they have different mass numbers. This means that they
differ in the number of neutrons but being the same element.
15. What is the mass number of an element that has 19 protons, 19 electrons,
and 20 neutrons?
A. 19.
B. 39.
C. 38.
D. 20.
The mass number of an element is equal to the addition of the number of
protons and neutrons.
16. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. A s orbital can hold two electrons.
B. A d orbital can hold ten electrons.
C. A f orbital can hold three electrons.
D. A p orbital can hold six electrons.
An atomic orbital is the concept used to describe the behavior of electrons
in the atom. It is commonly used to determine where an electron can be
found as it surrounds the nucleus of the atom. Each of the four orbital holds
a varied number of electrons. The S orbital holds 2 electrons, the P orbital
holds 6 electrons, the D orbital holds 10 electrons and the F orbital holds
14 electrons.
26
17. The drawback of Dalton’s atomic structure is that, it says

A. the atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
B. unique nature of atom.
C. most of the volume of an atom is empty space.
D. none of these.
The Dalton’s atomic theory deals with chemical reactions. During chemical
reactions, an atom can neither be created nor be destroyed. But, in radio
active reaction, new atoms can be created by dividing other atoms. Thus,
this is the very big drawback of this method.
18. The electron configuration of copper is

A. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s 4p .
2 2 6 2 6 8 1 2
B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s .
2 2 6 2 6 10 1
C. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s .
2 2 6 2 6 9 2
D. none of above.
Copper has totally 29 electrons. The electron configuration is 2 + 8 + 18 +
1 = 29. We can write as 2 +(2 + 6) + (2 + 6 + 10) + 1.
19. Silicon has

A. four valence electrons.
B. eight valence electrons.
C. two valence electrons.
D. none of above.
A semi conductor has 4 valence electrons. Silicon is semi-conductor. So,
the valence electrons of Silicon are 4.
20. The electron configuration of sulfur atom is

A. 2, 8, 6.
B. 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p .
2 2 6 2 6
C. 2, 8, 2.
D. none of these.
1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p is the electron configuration of sulfur atom. Then 2, 8, 6
2 2 6 2 4
would match the 2 electrons in level 1, the 8 electrons in level 2 and the 6
electrons in level 3.
27
01 02030405
01 02030405
1. The electron is lighter than a proton by a factor of about

A. 18.4.
B. 184.
C. 1840.
D. 18400.
The mass of electron is 9.109 × 10 – 31
Kg,
whereas the mass of a proton is 1.672 × 10 – 27
Kg.
2. The charge of an electron is

A. - 1.602 × 10 – 19
Coulombs.
B. - 1.675 × 10 – 27
Coulombs.
C. - 1.672 × 10 – 27
Coulombs.
D. - 9.109 × 10 – 31
Coulombs.
The charge of an electron is – 1.602 × 10 - 19
Coulombs.
3. The mass of a proton is

A. 1.675 × 10 – 27
Kg.
B. 1.672 × 10 – 27
Kg.
C. 1.602 × 10 – 19
Kg.
D. 1.609 × 10 – 31
Kg.
A proton carries a positive charge and its mass is 1.672 × 10 – 27
Kg.
4. The mass of a neutron of atom is

A. 1.675 × 10 – 27
Kg.
B. 1.672 × 10 – 26
Kg.
C. 1.602 × 10 – 19
Kg.
D. 1.609 × 10 – 31
Kg.
A neutron carries no charge and its mass is 1.675 × 10 – 27
Kg.
28
5. In Bohr’s model of atomic structure, the nucleus consists of

A. electrons.
B. electrons and protons.
C. protons and neutrons.
D. protons.
As per Bohr’s planetary model of atom, the mass of an atom is

concentrated in a central nucleus which mainly consists of protons and
neutrons.
6. The atomic radius in case of face centered cubic lattice is

A. a.
B. a / 2.
C. a / 3.
D. a / 4.
The unit cell for the simple cubic structure contains one-eighth portions of
eight corner atoms to make one complete atom, molecule or ion in each
unit cell. Given the radius of the atom or ion the edge length is just; edge
length (a) = 2r; where r is the radius of the atom or ion.
7. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions
are called
A. isotropic.
B. isentropic.
C. inelastic.
D. visco elastic.
Isotropy is uniformity in all orientations; it is derived from the Greek isos
( equal ) and tropos ( manner ).
8. Which of the following is the heaviest?

A. Molecule.
B. Atom.
C. Electron.
29
D. Proton.
Molecule contains atom, atom contains electrons and protons.
9. Germanium has
A. ionic bond.
B. covalent bond.
C. molecular bond.
D. metallic bond.
A covalent bond is the chemical bond that involves the sharing of pairs of
electrons between atoms. In the electronic configuration of germanium
crystals there are four valence electrons. These four electrons will form
covalent bonds, with the neighboring electrons of the germanium atoms.
Each covalent bond is formed by sharing each electron from the each
atom. After bond formation, no free electron will remain in the outermost
shell of the germanium semi conductor.
10. Energy gap of conductor is

A. 1 – 2 eV.
B. 0 eV.
C. 5 – 8 eV.
D. 8 eV.
Energy gap is the gap between conduction band and valance band. Energy
gap E of conductor is 0 eV since it has overlapped valance and conduction
g
band.
11. Energy gap of semiconductor is approx

A. 1 eV.
B. 0 eV.
C. 5 – 8 eV.
D. > 8 eV .
Energy gap is the gap between conduction band and valance band. Energy
gap E of the semiconductor is relatively small around 1 eV.
g
Measurements Instruments Objective Questions with Answers: part-8
MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH

ANSWERS
30
[1] The most preferred material for the control spring is

(a) German silver
(b) Platinum silver
(c) Silicon bronze
(d) Phosphor bronze
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A moving coil instrument is used as an ohmmeter. The indicating scale of the
meter will be
(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Logarithmic
(c) Linear
(d) Inverse linear
Ans: A
Answer
[3] For high accuracy the meter has
(a) Supporting mirror
(b) Hand drawn scale
(c) Printed scale
(d) Scale with sharp pointer
Ans:B
Answer
[4] Among the voltages to various electrodes in a CRT the voltage is the highest
on
(a) Aquadag
(b) Focusing anode
(c) Deflection plates
(d) PD anode
Ans: D
Answer
[5] In a free running oscilloscope the horizontal deflection system is driven by
a ........ waveform
(a) Step
(b) Impulse
31
(c) Ramp
(d) DC
Ans: C
Answer
[6] A Lissajous patterns are used to measure
(a) Voltage and frequency
(b) Frequency and Phase shift
(c) Frequency and amplitude distortion
(d) Amplitude and flux
Ans:B
Answer
[7] The shunt used in milliammeter
(a) will extend the range and reduce the meter resistance
(b) will extend the range and increase the meter resistance
(c) will decrease the range and meter resistance
(d) will not affect the meter
Ans: A
Answer
[8] The electrostatic instruments can be used without serious loss of accuracy
upto ......... frequency
(a) 100Hz
(b) 100kHz
(c) 1 MHz
(d) 10MHz
Ans:B
Answer
[9] In the case of PMMC rectifier type instruments, the deflecting torque is
proportional to
(a) Average value of AC current
(b) RMS of AC
(c) Instantaneous value
(d) Peak value
Ans: A
32
Answer
[10] Inductance and capacitance in the electrostatic system of units has the
dimensions of
(a) mass
(b) mass-time
(c) mass length/time
(d) length
Ans: D
Answer
[11] For the indicating instrument the preferred damping condition is
(a) Critically damped
(b) a damping coefficient of 0.8 to 1
(c) Overdamped
(d) Underdamped
Ans: B
Answer
[12] One international ohm is equal to
(a) 1.00049 absolute ohm
(b) 0.99951 absolute ohm
(c) 0.969 absolute ohm
(d) 1.049 absolute ohm
Ans: A
Transformers Objective Questions: Part-9
TRANSFORMERS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] High frequency transformers sometimes make use of ferrite cores because it has
A. High specific gravity
B. High resistance
C. High hysteresis
D. low permeability
33
Ans:B
Answer
[2] Harmonics in transformer result in
A. Increased core losses
B. Increased I2R losses
C. Magnetic interference with communication circuits
D. All of the above
Ans:D
Answer
[3] The full load copper loss of a transformer is 1600W. At half-load the copper loss will
be
A. 6400W
B. 1600W
C. 800W
D. 400W
Ans:D
Answer
[4] Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
A. No load
B. Half load
C. Near full load
D. 10% overload
34
Ans: C
Answer
[5] Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance which results
A. Short-circuiting of the secondaries
B. Power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging
C. Transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
D. Loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings.
Ans:D
Answer
[6] The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of
atmospeheric temperature during day and night is taken care of by which part of
transformer?
A. Conservator
B. Breather
C. Bushings
D. Buchholz relay
Ans:A
Answer
[7] The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
A. Mica strip
B. Thin coat of varnish

35
C. Paper
D. Any of the above
Ans:B
Answer
[8] Which type of winding is used in 3 phase shell type transformer?
A. Circular type
B. Sandwich type
C. Cylindrical type
D. Rectangular type
Ans: B
Answer
[9] During open circuit test of a transformer
A. Primary is supplied rated voltage
B. Primary is supplied full load current
C. Primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
D. Primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: A
Answer
[10] Which of the following is not standard voltage for power supply in India
A. 11kV
B. 33kV
36
C. 66 kV
D. 122 kV
Ans: D
Answer
[11] The low voltage winding of a 400/230 volt, 1-phase, 50Hz transformer is to be
connected to a 25Hz supply in order to keep the magnetization current at the same level
as that for normal 50Hz supply at 25Hz the voltage should be [Gate 1997]
a) 230V
b) 460V
c) 115V
d) 65V
Ans: C
Answer
[12] The primary current in the current transformer is dictated by [Gate 1997]
a) The secondary burden
b) The core of the transformer
c) The load current
d) None of the above
Ans:A
Answer
37
Electrical Machine - DC Motor Objectives: Part 7
[1] The basic requirement of a dc armature winding is that it must be

(a) A closed one
(b) A lap winding
(c) A wave winding
(d) Either b or c
(e) None of the above
Ans: A
Answer
[2] The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to
(a) Increase output voltage
(b) Reduce sparking at brushes
(c) Provide smoother output
(d) Convert the induced ac into dc
Ans: D
Answer
[3] In small DC machines, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but are skewed,
results in
(a) Quieter operation
(b) Slight decrease in losses
(c) Saving of copper
(d) Both a and b
Ans:D
Answer
[4] The critical resistance of the dc generator is the resistance of
(a) Armature
(b) Field
(c) Load
(d) Brushes
38
Ans: B
Answer
[5] In a dc generator, the generator, the generated emf is directly proportional to the
(a) Field current
(b) Pole flux
(c) Number of armature parallel paths
(d) Number of dummy coils
Ans: B
Answer
[6] The commutation process in a dc generator basically involves
(a) Passage of current from moving armature to a stationary load
(b) Reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA
(c) Conversion of ac to dc
(d) Suppression of reactance voltage
Ans: B
Answer
[7] The essential condition for stable parallel operation of two dc generators having
similar characteristics is that they should have
(a) Same kilowatt output ratings
(b) Dropping voltage characteristics
(c) Same percentage regulation
(d) Same no load and full load speed
Ans: B
Answer
[8] An ideal dc generator has .......... voltage regulation.
(a) Low
(b) Zero
(c) Positive
(d) Negative
39
Ans: B
Answer
[9] Which generator has poorest voltage regulation
(a) Series
(b) Shunt
(c) Compound
(d) High
Ans:A
Answer
[10] The voltage regulation of an over compound dc generator is always
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) High
Ans: B
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part9 Exam Objective Questions
Basic Electrical Engineering Solved Objective Questions from Competitive Exams

[1] Consider the following statements: [IES2010]
Piezoelectric materials serve as
1. A source of ultrasonic waves
2. When electric field is applied, the mechanical dimensions of the substances
are not at all altered.
3. Converts electrical energy to mechanical and vice versa
4. Converts thermal energy to electrical energy
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
40
Answer: C
[2]The current through the 2KΩ resistance in the circuit shown is [GATE2009]
A. 0 mA
B. 1 mA
C. 2 mA
D. 6 mA
Answer: A
[3] Out of the following plant categories

1.Nuclear
2.Run-of-river
3.Pump storage
4.Diesel
the base load power plants are [GATE2009]
A.1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C.1,2 and 4
41
D.1, 3,and 4
Answer: A
[4] The following circuit has a source voltage Vs as shown in the graph. The
current through the circuit is also shown
The element connected between a and b could be [GATE 2009]
Answer: A
Each Question Carries Two Marks Each

[5] The following circuit has R= 10kΩ , C=10μF. The input voltage is a sinusoid at
50Hz with an rms value of 10V. Under ideal conditions, the current is from the
source is [GATE 2009]
42
A. 10π mA leading by 90°
B. 20π mA leading by 90°
C. 10π mA leading by 90°
D. 10πmA lagging by 90°
Answer: A
[6] In the figure shown, all elements used are ideal. For time t<0, S 1 remained
closed and S2 open. At t=0, S 1 is opened and S2 is closed. If the voltage
Vc2 across the capacitor C2 at t=0 is zero, the voltage across the capacitor
combination at t=0+ will be [GATE 2009]
A. 1V
B. 2V
C. 1.5V
D. 3 V
Answer: D
[7] Transformer and emitter follower can both be used for impedance matching at
the output of an audio amplifier. The basic relationship between the input power
Pin and output power Pout in both the cases is [GATE 2009]
43
A. Pin = Pout for both transformer and emitter follower
B. Pin > Pout for both transformer and emitter follower
C. Pin < Pout for transformer and Pin = Pout for emitter follower
D. Pin = Pout for transformer and Pin < Pout for emitter follower
Answer: None of the above

[8] The equivalent capacitance of the input loop of the circuit shown is [GATE
2009]
A. 2μF
B. 100μF
C. 200μF
D. 4μF
Answer:A
[9] An UJT exhibits negative resistance region
(a) Before the peak point
(b) Between peak and valley points
(c) After the valley point
(d) Both (a) and (c)
OPTIONS:
1) B only
2) A, C
3) C only
4) D only
5) None of the above options
Answer: 1
[10] In an UJT, maximum value of charging resistance is associated with
44
(a) Peak point

(b) Valley point
(c) Any point between peak and valley points
(d) After the valley point
OPTIONS:
1) A only
2) A, B
3) C only
4) D only
Answer: 1
[11] When an UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave shape of the voltage
obtained from UJT circuit is
(a) Sine wave
(b) Saw-tooth wave
(c) Tapezoidal wave
(d) Square wave
Answer: B
[12] In a LVDT, the secondary voltages [Gate 1997]
a) Are independent of the core position
b) Vary unequally depending on the core position
c) Vary equally depending on the core position
d) Are always in phase quadrature
Answer: B
[13] In a microprocessor, the address of the next instruction could be executed, is
stored in [Gate 1997]
(a) Stack pointer
(b) Address latch
(c) Program counter
(d) General purpose register
Answer: C
[14] If a diode is connected in anti parallel with a SCR, then [Gate 1997]
45
(a) Both turn off power loss and turn off time decrease
(b) Turn off power loss decreases, but turn off time increases
(c) Turn off power loss increases, but turn off time decreases
(d) The arrangement works as a triac
Answer: D
Solution Hint:
[2] Redraw the circuit as follows
Here R1R4 = R2R3 = 1
ie, it is a balanced bridge, so I = 0mA
[6] For t < 0, S1 is closed and S2 is opened so the capacitor C1 will

charged upto 3 volt.
VC1(0+ ) = 3 Volt
Now when switch positions are changed, by applying charge

conservation
VC2(0+ ) = 3 Volt
[7] Remember that

For transformer, power will be same in input and ouput side. Only
voltage/current will be steped up or down.
ie, Pin = Pout

46
So options B, C will not be applicable.
For emitter follower,
voltage gain = 1 and current gain >1
Pout = [voltage gain] x [current gain] x [Pin]
So option A is correct
[8] Apply KVL to the input loop
v1 - i1(1+1)x103 - [1/jωC](i1+49i1) = 0
Rearrange the above equation for v1
Devide it to get input impedance [Z = v1/i1] = 2x103 + [1/jωC/50]
Ceq = C/50 =100μF/50 = 2μF
Power Electronics Objective Questions with Answers: Part 1
[1] " Six MOSFETs connected in a bridge configuration (having no other power device)
MUST be operated as a Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) ". This statement is [GATE-
2007]
A. True, because being majority carrier devices, MOSFETs are voltage driven
B. True, because MOSFETs have inherently anti parallel diodes
C. False, because it can be operated both as current source Inverter (CSI) or a VSI
D. False, because MOSFETs can be operated as excellent constant current sources in the
saturation region
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A single phase full - wave half controlled bridge converter feeds an inductive load.
The two SCRs in the converter are connected to a common DC bus. The converter has to
have a free wheeling diode [GATE-2007]
47
A. because the converter inherently does not provide for free wheeling
B. Because the converter does not provide for free wheeling for high values of triggering
angles
C. Or else the free wheeling action of the converter will cause shorting of the AC supply
D. Or else if a gate pulse to one of the SCRs is missed, it will subsequently cause a high
load current in the other SCR
Ans: B
Answer
[3] The power electronic converter shown in the figure has a single pole double throw
switch. the pole P of the switch is connected alternately to throws A and B. The
converter shown is a [GATE-2010]
A. Step down chopper( buck converter)

B. Half- wave rectifier
C. Step Up chopper ( boost converter)
D. Full wave converter
Ans: A
Answer
[4] Figure shows a composite switch consisting of a power transistor (BJT) in series with
a diode. Assuming that the transistor switch and the diode are ideal, the I-V
characteristic of the composite switch is [GATE-2010]
48
Ans: C
Answer
[5] The fully controlled thyristor converter in the figure is fed from a single-phase source.
When the firing angle is 0°, the dc output voltage of the converter is 300 V. What will be
the output voltage for a firing angle of 60°, assuming continuous conduction? [GATE-
2010]
(A) 150V
(B) 210V
(C) 300V
(D) 100πV
Ans: A
Answer
49
[6] The manufacturer of a selected diode gives the rate of fall of the diode current di/dt
= 20 A/ms, and a reverse recovery time of trr =5 ms. What is value of peak reverse
current?
Ans: 44.72A
The peak reverse current is given as:
The storage charge QRR is calculated as Qrr = (1/2)*(di/dt)* SQU.(trr)

= 1/2 X 20A/uS X 5u X 5u = 50uC.
substitute the Qrr value in Irr equation.
[7] A three phase current source inverter used for the speed control of an induction
motor is to be realized using MOSFET switches as shown below. Switches S1 to S6 are
identical switches [GATE2011]
The proper configuration for realizing switches S1 to S6 is

50
Ans: C
Answer
[8] Circuit turn-off time of an SCR is defined as the time [GATE2011]

A. Taken by the SCR to turn off
B. Required for SCR current to become zero
C. For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
D. For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding current
Ans: C
Answer
[9] A single phase fully controlled thyristor bridge ac-dc converter is operating at a firing
angle of 25 degree, and an overlap angle 10 degree with constant dc output current of
20A. The fundamental power factor ( displacement factor) at input ac mains is
[GATE2007]
A. 0.78
B. 0.827
C. 0.866
D. 0.9
Ans:A
Answer
[10] A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line commutated
inverter to feed 50 KW power at 420 V DC to a three phase 415V(line), 50Hz as mains.
51
Consider Dc link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is

[GATE2007]
A. 119.05A
B. 79.37A
C. 68.73A
D. 39.68A
Ans:D
Answer
Basic Electrical objective type questions: Part-13
Electrical Objective Questions with Answers:
[1] In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotentials [Gate 1997 ]
a) Are parallel to one another
b) Intersect at 45 deg
c) Intersect at 30 deg
d) Are orthogonal
Ans:D
Answer
[2] For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn
ratio from primay to secondary are respectively
(a) ferrite; 20:1
(b) laminated iron; 1:1
(c) ferrite; 1:1
(d) powdered iron; 1:1
Ans: C
Answer
[3] The capacitance of a reverse biased junction of a thyristor is 20 picofarad.
52
The charging current of this thyristor is 4mA. The limiting value

of dv/dt is .....V/uS
Ans:200
Answer
[4] When the induction motor runs at synchronous speed the voltage induced in
the rotor of it is
(a) Very near input voltage to stator
(b) Slip time the input voltage
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above
Ans:C
Answer
[5] Chopper control for the DC motor provides variation in
(a) Input voltage
(b) Frequency
(c) None of the above
Ans: A
Answer
[6] While comparing SCR with BJT, which of the following is true
(a) SCR requires turn off circuit while BJT does not
(b) The voltage drop of SCR is less than BJT
(c) SCR requires a continuous gate current
(d) BJT draws continuously base current
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) a only
(2) d only
(3) a, d
(4) b, d
Common Data Questions: 7 & 8
In the 3-phase inverter circuit shown, the load is balanced and the gating scheme
is 180°-conduction mode.All the switching devices are ideal
53
Ans: 3
Answer
[7] The rms value of load phase voltage is [GATE2012]
a. 106.1V
b. 141.4V
c. 212.2V
d. 282.8V
Ans: B
Answer
[8] If the dc bus voltage Vd=300V, the power consumed by 3-phase load
is [GATE2012]
a. 1.5kW
b. 2.0kW
c. 2.5kW
d. 3.0kW
Ans: D
54
Answer
[9] The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20A thyristor
is [GATE 2012]
a. 5.0
b. 2.0
c. 1.0
d. 0.5
Ans: B
Answer
[10] A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is
operated at a firing angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of
cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is [GATE 2012]
a. 1/2
b. (1-α/π)
c. α/2π
d. α/π
Ans: D
Answer
[11] For power factor correction of power systems which one is used:
(a) capacitor
(b) inductor
(c) resistors
Ans: A
Answer
[12] Which type of motor used in home ceiling fan:
55
(a)capacitor motor
(b)shaded pole motor
(c) universal motor
(SPLIT PHASE CAPACITOR MOTOR)
Ans: A
Answer
[13] Op-amp (operational amplifier) input resistance:
(a)Zero
(b)Infinity
(c)Relative resistance
(d) Same output resistance
Ans:B
Answer
[14] For an inverter op-amp, what will be the equivalent output resistance?
(a)Zero
(b)Infinity
(c)Relativeforwardresistance
(d) Same as the input resistance
Ans: A
Answer
Basic electronics Multiple Choice Questions: Part-6
BASIC ELECTRONICS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: PART-6
[1] A network designed to pass signals with all frequencies except those between
two specified cut-off frequencies is called a
(a) low-pass filter
(b) high-pass filter
(c) band-pass filter
(d) band-stop filter
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A low-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has an inductance of
56
200mH in each of its series arms and a capacitance of 0.5 μF in its shunt arm.
The cut-off frequency of the filter is
(a) 1007 Hz
(b) 251.6 Hz
(c) 711.8 Hz
(d) 177.9 Hz
Ans: C
Answer
[3] A low-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section has an inductance of
200mH in its series arm and capacitances of 400 pF in each of its shunt arms.
The cut-off frequency of the filter is
(a) 25.16 kHz
(b) 6.29 kHz
(c) 17.79 kHz
(d) 35.59 kHz
Ans:A
Answer
[4] A high-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section has capacitances of 400
nF in each of its series arms and an inductance of 200mH in its shunt arm. The
cut-off frequency of the filter is
(a) 1592 Hz
(b) 1125 Hz
(c) 281 Hz
(d) 398 Hz
Ans:D
Answer
[5] A high-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section has a capacitance of 5000
pF in its series arm and inductances of 500 μH in each of its shunt arms. The cut-
off frequency of the filter is
(a) 201.3 kHz
(b) 71.18 kHz
(c) 50.33 kHz
(d) 284.7 kHz
Ans:B
57
Answer
[6] A network designed to pass signals at frequencies above a specified cut-off
frequency is called a
(a) low-pass filter
Ans: B
Answer
[7] A network designed to pass signals at frequencies below a specified cut-off
frequency is called a
(a) low-pass filter
Ans: A
Answer
[8] A network designed to pass signals with frequencies between two specified
cut-off frequencies is called a
(a) low-pass filter
Ans: C
Answer
The following refers to questions 9 and 10.

A filter section is to have a nominal impedance of 620 and a cut-off frequency of
2 MHz.
[9] A low-pass T-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of

(a) 98.68 μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm
(b) 49.34 μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm
(c) 98.68 μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm
(d) 49.34 μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm
58
Ans: B
Answer
[10] A low-pass π-connected symmetrical filter section is comprised of
(a) 98.68 μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm
(b) 49.34 μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm
(c) 98.68 μH in each series arm, 256.7 pF in shunt arm
(d) 49.34 μH in each series arm, 128.4 pF in shunt arm
Ans: A
Answer
Electrical Machine Competitive Questions: Part-11
ELECTRICAL MACHINE COMPETITIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] A field excitation of 20A in a certain alternator results in an armature current of

400A in short circuit and a terminal voltage of 2000V on open circuit. The
magnitude of the internal voltage drop within the machine at a load current of
200A is [GATE2009]
(a) 1V
(b) 10V
(c) 100V
(d) 1000V
Ans:D
Answer
[2] Figure shows the extended view of a 2 pole dc machine with 10 armature
conductors.Normal brush positions are shown by A and B, placed at the
interpolar axis. If the brushes are now shifted, in the direction of rotation, to A'
and B' as shown, the voltage waveform VA'B' will resemble. [GATE]
59
Ans: A
Answer
[3]A 220V,50Hz,single-phase induction motor has the following connection
diagram and winding orientations shown.MM' is the axis of the main stator
winding(M1M2) and AA' is that of the auxiliary winding (A1A2). Directions of the
winding axes indicate direction of flux when currents in the windings are in the
directions shown. Parameters of each winding are indicated. When switch S is
closed, the motor [GATE]
60
(a) Rotates clockwise
(b) Rotates anticlockwise
(c) Does not rotate
(d) Rotates momentarily and comes to a halt
Ans:C
Answer
[4] The electromagnetic torque Te of a drive, and its connected load torque T l are
as shown below. Out of the operating points A,B, C and D, the stable ones
are [GATE 2007]
Ans:C
Answer
[5] In a transformer, zero voltage regulation at full load is [GATE 2007]
(a) Not possible

61
(b) Possible at unity Power factor load
(c) Possible at leading Power factor load
(d) Possible at lagging Power factor load
Ans:C
Answer
[6] The DC motor, which can provide zero speed regulation at full load without
any controller is [GATE 2007]
(a) Series
(b) Shunt
(c) Cumulative Compound
(d) Differential Compound
Ans:B
Answer
[7] A single phase 10kVA, 50 Hz transformer with 1kV primary winding draws
0.5A and 55W, at rated voltage and frequency, on no load. A second transformer
has a core with all its linear √2 times the corresponding dimensions of the first
transformer. The core material and lamination thickness are the same in both
transformers. The primary windings of both the transformers have the same
number of turns. If a rated voltage of 2kV at 50Hz is applied to the primary of the
second transformer, then the no load current and power, respectively,
are [GATE2012]
(a) 0.7 A,77.8W
(b) 0.7A,155.6 W
(c) 1A,110W
(d) 1A,220W
62
Ans:B
Answer
[8] The locked rotor current in a 3-phase, star connected 15kW, 4-pole, 230V,
50Hz induction motor at rated conditions is 50A. Neglecting losses and
magnetizing current, the approximate locked rotor line current drawn when the
motor is connected to a 236V, 57Hz supply is [GATE2012]
(a) 58.5A
(b) 45.0A
(c) 45.7A
(d) 55.6A
Ans: B
Answer
[9] A 220V, 15kW,1000rpm shunt motor with armature resistance of 0.25Ω, has a
rated line current of 68A and a rated field current of 2.2A. The change in field flux
required to obtain a speed of 1600 rpm while drawing a line current of 52.8A and
a field current of 1.8A is [GATE2012]
(a) 18.18% increase
(b) 18.18% decrease
(c) 36.36% increase
(d) 36.36% decrease
Ans: D
Answer
[10] In 8 - pole wave connected motor armature, the number of parallel paths are
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
63
Ans: C
Answer
Electrical Machines: Part 6
[1] In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at

(a) Unity p.f.
(b) Leading p.f.
(c) Lagging p.f.
(d) Zero p.f. leading.
Answer: B
[2] In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(a) Can be precisely controlled.
(b) It cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(c) The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(d) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Answer: A
[3] The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(a) Low at light load only.
(b) Low at heavy load only.
(c) Low at light and heavy load both.
(d) Low at rated load only.
Answer: A
[4] The generation voltage in India is usually
(a) Between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(b) Between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(c) Between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: A
[5] When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper
winding produces
(a) Damping torque.
(b) Eddy current torque.
(c) Torque aiding the developed torque.
64
(d) No torque.
Answer: D
[6] If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its
output voltage will be
(a) A square wave.
(b) A sine wave.
(c) A triangular wave.
(d) A pulse wave.
Answer: A
[7] A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is
switched off. The motor will
(a) Come to stop.
(b) Continue to run at synchronous speed.
(c) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(d) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Answer: B
[8] The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor
at full load speed is about
(a) 50 Hz.
(b) 20 Hz.
(c) 2 Hz.
(d) Zero.
Answer: C
[9] The speed of a dc motor can be controlled by varying
(a) Its flux per pole
(b) Resistance of armature circuit
(c) Applied voltage
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
[10] Regarding Ward-Leonard system of speed control which statement is false?
(a) It is usually used where wide and very sensitive speed control is required
(b) It is used for motors having ratings from 750kW to 4000kW
65
(c) Capital outlay involved in the system is right since it uses two extra machines
(d) It gives a speed range of 10:1 but in one direction only
(e) It has low overall efficiency especially at light loads
Answer: D
[1] A stepper motor is

(a) A dc motor.
(b) A single-phase ac motor.
(c) A multi-phase motor.
(d) A two phase motor.
Answer: D
Stepper motor works on 1-phase-ON or 2-phase –ON modes of operation
[2] A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading
power factors is the
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor.
(b) Wound rotor induction motor.
(c) Synchronous motor.
(d) DC shunt motor.
Answer: C
[3] The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(a) At no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(b) It will fail to start.
(c) It will not develop high starting torque.
(d) All are true.
Answer: A
[4] The ‘sheath’ is used in cable to
(a) Provide strength to the cable.
(b) Provide proper insulation.
(c) Prevent the moisture from entering the cable.
(d) Avoid chances of rust on strands.
66
Answer: A
The sheath in underground cable is provided to give mechanical strength.
[5] The drive motor used in a mixer-grinder is a
(a) DC motor.
(b) Induction motor.
(d) Universal motor.
Answer: D
The universal motor is suitable for AC & DC both supply systems.
[6] A balanced three-phase, 50 Hz voltage is applied to a 3 phase, 4 pole,
induction motor. When the motor is delivering rated output, the slip is found to be
0.05. The speed of the rotor m.m.f. relative to the rotor structure is
(a) 1500 r.p.m.
(b) 1425 r.p.m.
(c) 25 r.p.m.
(d) 75 r.p.m.
Answer: D
NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm
N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425
Relative speed = 1500 – 1425 = 75 rpm
[7] The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V,
60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(a) 3.6 V.
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V.
(d) 6.0 V.
Answer: C
[8] The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load
circuit through
(a) Slip rings.
(b) Commutator segments.
(c) Solid connections.
(d) Carbon brushes.
67
Answer: C
[9] In a 3 – phase induction motor the maximum torque
(a) Is proportional to rotor resistance r2 .
(b) Does not depend on r2 .
(c) Is proportional to square root of r2 .
(d) Is proportional to square of r2 .
Answer: B
[10] In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
(a) Stationary w.r.t. armature.
(b) Rotating w.r.t. field.
(c) Stationary w.r.t. field.
(d) Rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Answer: C

(a) A dc motor.
Answer: D
(d) DC shunt motor.
Answer: C
68

(d) All are true.
Answer: A
Answer: A
(a) DC motor.
Answer: D
(a) 1500 r.p.m.
(b) 1425 r.p.m.
(c) 25 r.p.m.
(d) 75 r.p.m.
Answer: D
NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm
N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425
(a) 3.6 V.
69
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V.
(d) 6.0 V.
Answer: C
circuit through
(a) Slip rings.
(d) Carbon brushes.
Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: C
SUNDAY, SEPTEMBER 9, 2012

(a) A dc motor.
70
Answer: D
(d) DC shunt motor.
Answer: C
(d) All are true.
Answer: A
Answer: A
(a) DC motor.
Answer: D
71
(a) 1500 r.p.m.
(b) 1425 r.p.m.
(c) 25 r.p.m.
(d) 75 r.p.m.
Answer: D
NS = 120f /P = 120 x 50 /4 =1500rpm
N = NS ( 1-s) = 1500 (1-0.05) = 1425
(a) 3.6 V.
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V.
(d) 6.0 V.
Answer: C
circuit through
(a) Slip rings.
(d) Carbon brushes.
Answer: C
Answer: B
72
Answer: C
Posted by Elangovan Palaniappan
[1]The size of the feeder is determined primarily by

(a) The current it is required to carry.
(b) The percent variation of voltage in the feeder.
(c) The voltage across the feeder.
(d) The distance of transmission.
Answer: A
[2] The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(a) Is in phase with the flux.
(b) Lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(c) Leads the flux by 90 degree.
(d) Is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Answer: C
[3] The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady
state operation is zero for a
(a) DC machine.
(b) 3 phase induction machine.
(c) Synchronous machine.
(d) Single phase induction machine.
Answer: all options are correct

[4] As the voltage of transmission increases, the volume of conductor
(a) Increases.
(b) Does not change.
(c) Decreases.
(d) Increases proportionately.
73
Answer: C
Due to skin effect
[5] In a 3-phase synchronous motor
(a) The speed of stator MMF is always more than that of rotor MMF.
(b) The speed of stator MMF is always less than that of rotor MMF.
(c) The speed of stator MMF is synchronous speed while that of rotor MMF is zero.
(d) Rotor and stator MMF are stationary with respect to each other.
Answer: D
Motor is magnetically locked into position with stator, the rotor poles are engaged with
stator poles and both run synchronously in same direction.
[6] An alternator is delivering rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-factor
lagging case. If it is required to deliver rated current at rated voltage and 0.8 power-
factor leading, the required excitation will be
(a) Less.
(b) More.
(c) More or less.
(d) The same.
Answer: B
Over excitation gives leading power factor and under excitation gives lagging p.f .
[7] Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of
supply frequency is
(a) Electric arc heating
(b) Induction heating
(c) Electric resistance heating
(d) Dielectric heating
Answer: C
[8] In a capacitor start single-phase induction motor, the capacitor is connected
(a) In series with main winding.
(b) In series with auxiliary winding.
(c) In series with both the windings.
(d) In parallel with auxiliary winding.
74
Answer: B
To make single phase motor self start. We split the phases at 90 degree. Hence,
motor behaves like a two phase motor.
[9] A synchro has
(a) A 3-phase winding on rotor and a single-phase winding on stator.
(b) A 3-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
(c) A 3-phase winding on stator and a single-phase winding on rotor.
(d) A single-phase winding on stator and a commutator winding on rotor.
Answer: C
The basic synchro unit called a synchro transmitter. It’s construction similar to that of a
Three phase alternator.
[10] A ceiling fan uses
(a) Split-phase motor.
(b) Capacitor start and capacitor run motor.
(c) Universal motor.
(d) Capacitor start motor.
Answer: D
[1] The torque-speed characteristics of an a.c. operated universal motor has

a ______characteristic and it______ be started under no-load condition.
(a) Inverse, can
(b) Nearly inverse, can
(c) Inverse, cannot
(d) Nearly inverse, cannot
Answer: C
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N direct proportional to 1/ T
[2] In the heating process of the ________type a simple method of temperature control
is possible by means of a special alloy which loses its magnetic properties at a
particular high temperature and regains them when cooled to a temperature below this
value.
(a) Indirect induction over
(b) Core type induction furnace
(c) Coreless induction furnace
(d) High frequency eddy current
Answer: D
Magnetic property of alloy changes with change of the temperature and Heat is
produced due to eddy current = Square(i) * R and i proportional to square(f)
[3] In order to reduce the harmful effects of harmonics on the A.C. side of a high
voltage D.C. transmission system ______are provided.
(a) Synchronous condensers
(b) Shunt capacitors
(c) Shunt filters
(d) Static compensators
Answer: C
Xc= 1/ωC
76
[4]An a.c. tachometer is just a ________with one phase excited from the
carrier frequency.
(a) Two-phase A.C. servomotor
(b) Two-phase induction motor
(c) A.C. operated universal motor
(d) Hybrid stepper motor.
Answer: D
It is a special purpose machine. It's stator coil can be energized by

electronically switched current.
[5] The rotor frequency for a 3 phase 1000 RPM 6 pole induction motor with a slip
of 0.04 is________Hz
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 2
Answer: D
f = N P/ 120 = 1000* 6/120 = 50 Hz
Rotor frequency fr=s * f = 0.04 * 50= 2.0 Hz
[6] The speed-torque characteristics of a DC series motor are approximately similar

to those of the _________motor.
77
(a) Universal
(b) Synchronous
(c) DC shunt
(d) Two-phase
Answer: A
Universal motor has same characteristics as DC series motor
It is known as an a.c series motor.
[7]In case of a universal motor, torque pulsation is minimized by _________.
(a) Load inertia
(b) Rotor inertia
(c) Both rotor and load inertia
Answer: C
[8] A hysteresis motor
(a) Is not a self-starting motor.
(b) Is a constant speed motor.
(c) Needs dc excitation.
(d) Can not be run in reverse speed.

78
Answer: B
[9] The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(a) A dc series motor.
(b) A dc shunt motor.
(c) An ac two-phase induction motor.
(d) An ac series motor.
Answer: B
[10] The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(a) Operating voltage.
(b) Power factor.
(c) Current to be carried.
(d) Type of insulation used.
Answer: C
Electrical machines: Part 2
[1] In a DC motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of

a. Brushes
b. Commutator
c. End-plates
d. Both a and b
79
Answer: D
[2] The counter emf of dc motor
a. Often exceeds the supply voltage
b. Aids the applied voltage
c. Helps in energy conversion
d. Regulates its armature voltage
Answer: C
[3] The Eb/V ratio of a dc motor is an indication of its
a. Efficiency
b. Speed regulation
c. Starting torque
d. Running Torque
Answer: A
[4] The induced emf in the armature conductors of a dc motor is
a. Sinusoidal
b. Trapezoidal
c. Rectangular
d. Alternating
Answer: A
[5] A dc motor can be looked upon as dc generator with the power flow
a. Reduced
b. Reversed
c. Increased
d. Modified
Answer:B
[6] A series motor is best suited for driving
a. Lathes
b. Cranes and hoists
c. Shears and punches
d. Machine tools
80
Answer: B
[7]The Ta/Ia graph of a dc series motor is a
a. Parabola from no load to overload
b. Straight line throughout
c. Parabola throughout
d. Parabola upto full load and a straight line at overloads
Answer: D
[8] When load is removed, .......motor will run at the highest speed.
a. Shunt
b. Cumulative - compound
c. Differential compound
d. Series
Answer: D
a. Low at light loads only
b. Low at heavy loads only
c. Low at light and heavy loads both
d. Low at rated load only
Answer: A
[10] The synchronous speed of a linear induction motor does not depend on
a. Width of pole pitch
b. Number of poles
c. Supply frequency
d. Any of the above
Answer: B. See the comment for explanation.
Electrical Machine: Part 1
Electrical Machines Questions and Answers

[1] A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched
81
off. The motor will

(a) Come to stop.
(b) Continue to run at synchronous speed.
(c) Continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(d) Continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Answer: B
[2] The emf induced in the primary of a transformer

(a) Is in phase with the flux.
(b) Lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(c) Leads the flux by 90 degree.
(d) Is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Answer: C
[3] The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at
full load speed is about
(a) 50 Hz.
(b) 20 Hz.
(c) 2 Hz.
(d) Zero.
Answer: C
[4] The two windings of a transformer is

(a) Conductively linked.
(b) Inductively linked.
(c) Not linked at all.
(d) Electrically linked.
Answer : B
82
(d) All are true.
Answer: A
[6] Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply
frequency is
(a) Electric arc heating
(b) Induction heating
(c) Electric resistance heating
(d) Dielectric heating
Answer: C
[7] In a stepper motor the angular displacement

(a) Can be precisely controlled.
(b) It cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(c) The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(d) It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Answer: A
[8] The generation voltage is usually
(a) Between 11 KV and 33 KV.

(b) Between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(c) Between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: A
[9] When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper
winding produces
(a) Damping torque.
83
(b) Eddy current torque.

(c) Torque aiding the developed torque.
(d) No torque.
Answer: D
[10] A hysteresis motor
(a) Is not a self-starting motor.
(b) Is a constant speed motor.
(c) Needs dc excitation.
(d) Can not be run in reverse speed.
Answer: B
[11] If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, its
output voltage will be
(a) A square wave.
(b) A sine wave.
(c) A triangular wave.
(d) A pulse wave.
Ans: A
(a) Low at light load only.
(b) Low at heavy load only.
(c) Low at light and heavy load both.
(d) Low at rated load only.
Answer: A
Answer: C
[14] In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
84
(a) Unity p.f.

(b) Leading p.f.
(c) Lagging p.f.
(d) Zero p.f. leading.
Answer: B
[15] The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60
Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(a) 3.6 V.
(b) 2.5 V.
(c) 3.0 V.
(d) 6.0 V.
Answer: C
[16] The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady
state operation is zero for a
(a) DC machine.
(b) 3 phase induction machine.
(c) Synchronous machine.
(d) Single phase induction machine.
Answer: All are correct

circuit through
(a) Slip rings.
(d) Carbon brushes.
Ans: C
85
(d) DC shunt motor.
Answer: C
[19] The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(a) A dc series motor.
(b) A dc shunt motor.
(c) An ac two-phase induction motor.
(d) An ac series motor.
Answer: B
[20] The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(a) Operating voltage.
(b) Power factor.
(c) Current to be carried.
(d) Type of insulation used.
Answer: C
Electrical Machines - Alternators : Part 8
[1] Squirrel cage bars placed in the rotor pole faces of an alternator help reduce hunting
(a) Above synchronous speed only
(b) Below synchronous speed only
(c) Above and blow synchronous speeds both
Ans: C
Answer
[2] The stationary alternator should not be connected to live bus-bars because it
(a) Is likely to run as synchronous motor
(b) Will get short - circuited
(c) Will decrease bus - bar voltage though momentarily
(d) Will disturb generated emf's of other alternators connected in parallel.
Ans:B
86
Answer
[3] With a unity load p.f, the effect of armature reaction on the main field flux of an
alternator is
(a) Distortional
(b) Magnetising
(c) Demagnetising
(d) Nominal
Ans: A
Answer
[4] At lagging loads, armature reaction in an alternator is
(a) Cross-magnetising
(b) Demagnetising
(c) Non-effective
(d) Magnetising
Ans:D
Answer
[5] The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at
1800 rpm is
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 7200 Hz
(c) 120 Hz
(d) 450 Hz
Ans: A
Answer
[6] The main disadvantages of using short pitch winding in alternators is that it
(a) Reduces harmonics in the generated voltage
(b) Reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
(c) Produces asymmetry in the three phase windings
(d) Increases Cu of end connections.
Ans: B
Answer
[7] Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to find its
87
(a) Efficiency
(b) Voltage regulation
(c) Armature resistance
(d) Synchronous impedance
Ans: B
Answer
[8] Armature reaction in an alternator mainly affects
(a) Rotor speed
(b) Terminal voltage per phase
(c) Frequency of armature current
(d) Generated voltage per phase
Ans: D
Answer
[9] The effect of increasing air gap length in the induction motor will increase the
(a) Power factor
(b) Speed
(c) Magnetising current
(d) Air gap flux
Ans: C
Answer
[10] The principle of operation of a 3 phase induction motor is most similar to that of a
(a) Synchronous motor
(b) Repulsion start induction motor
(c) Transformer with a shorted secondary
(d) Capacitor start, induction run motor
Ans: C
Answer
...........................................................
88
Electronics Devices Objective Type Questions: Part-6
ELECTRONICS DEVICES OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
[1] A Zener diode is used for
a) Voltage Regulation
b) Rectification
c) Noise Suppression
d) Blocking A.C
Ans: Voltage Regulation
Answer
[2] An SCR is a device having
a) Three layers with four junctions
b) Three layers with two junctions
c) Four layers with three junctions
d) Two layers with three junctions
Ans: Four layers with three junctions
Answer
[3] An amplifier has a gain of 10,000 expressed in decibels the gain is
a) 10
b) 40
c) 80
d) 100
89
Ans: 100
Answer
[4] An emitter follows has
a) High input impedance and high output impedance.
b) High input impedance and low output impedance.
c) Low input impedance and high output impedance.
d) Low input impedance and low output impedance.
Ans:High input impedance and low output impedance.
Answer
[5] Semi-conductor diode time constant is equal to
a) The value of majority carrier life time
b) The life time of minority carrier
c) The diffusion capacitance time constant
d) Zero
Ans: The value of majority carrier life time
Answer
[6] To prepare a P type semiconducting material the impurities to be added to silicon are
a) Boron, Gallium
b) Arsenic, Antimony
c) Gallium, Phosphorous
d) Gallium, Arsenic
90
Ans:Boron, Gallium
Answer
[7] FET is a good signal chopper because
a) It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain current
b) It occupies less space in integrated form
c) It is less noisy
d) It has got high input impedance
Ans: It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain current
Answer
[8] In Bipolar Junction transistors, the type of configuration which will give both voltage
gain and current gain is
a) CC
b) CB
c) CE
d) None
Ans: CE
Answer
[9] To increase the input resistance and decrease the output resistance in negative
feedback, the type used is
a) Voltage Shunt
b) Current Series
c) Voltage Series
d) Current Shunt
91
Ans: Voltage Series
Answer
[10] A series capacitance used in a filter circuit represents
a) Low-Pass
b) Band-Pass
c) High-Pass
d) None
Ans: High-Pass
Answer
[11] An ideal power supply is characterized by
a) Very large output resistance
b) Very small output resistance
c) Zero internal resistance
d) Infinite internal resistance
Ans: C
Answer
[12] An ideal diode should have
a) Zero resistance in the forward bias as well as reverse bias
b) Zero resistance in the forward bias and an infinitely large resistance in reverse bias
c) Infinitely large resistance in reverse bias
d) Infinitely large resistance in forward as well as reverse bias

92
Ans: B
Answer
[13] One coulomb-per-second is equal to one:
a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Volt
d) Ampere
Ans:D
Answer
[14] Which of the following is one of the functions performed by a diode?
a) Filter
b) Amplifier
c) Rectifier
d) Inverter
Ans: C
Answer
[15] What is the “power factor”?
a) Ratio of true power to apparent power
b) Peak power times 0.707
c) Sin of the phase difference between E and I
d) Cos of the phase angle between true power and apparent power
Ans:A
93
Answer
Electron Devices Objective Type Questions with Answers: part -5
ELECTRON DEVICES OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1.When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature
to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
Ans: D
Answer
2.When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at
room temperature then?
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
Ans:D
94
Answer
3.When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the
admissible poles for the function would be?
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
Ans:B
Answer
4.A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre=20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms.
The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW
Ans:B
Answer
5.Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port
network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements?
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
95
Ans: D
Answer
6.A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = βIC
b) IC= βIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB
Ans:B
Answer
7.In a JFET gates are always?
a) Forward biased
b) Reverse biased
c) Unbiased
d) None
Ans: C
Answer
8.In schotty barrier diode current flows because of?
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None
96
Ans:B
Answer
9.The early voltage of a BJT is VA = 75V. The minimum required collector current, such
that the output resistance is at least r0 = 200kΩ, is
(a) 1.67mA
(b) 5mA
(c) 0.375mA
(d) 0.75mA
Ans: C
Answer
10.TVS diode is used for
(a) Voltage protection

(b) Current protection
(c) ESD protection
Ans: A
Answer
[11] The amplifier is which current is proportional to the signal voltage, independent of
source load resistance is called
a) Current Amplifier
b) Voltage Amplifier
c) Transresistance amplifier
d) Transconductance amplifier
Ans: C
97
Answer
[12] Alternatively the characteristic impedance is called
a) Surge Impedance
b) Match Impedance
c) Alternative Impedance
d) Reflected Impedance
Ans: A
Answer
[13] In an RL circuit after a very long time of application of step voltage the inductance L
is represented in its equivalent circuit as Incorrect!
a) Open Circuit
b) Short Circuit
c) L / 2
d) 2L
Ans: B
Answer
[14] By passing a triangular wave through a differentiating circuit the output wave shape
is
a) Spikes
b) Squarewave
c) Sawtooth
d) Sinewave
Ans: A
Answer
[15] Clipper circuits are used to obtain any one of the following waveforms
98
a) Sharper
b) Rectified
c) Fast Rising
d) Smaller Amplitude
Ans: D
Answer
Solution Hint:
[1] When the temperature increases, the resistance of
conductor(copper) decreases and resistance of
semiconductor(germanium) increases
[7] In the FET, the gate terminal is electrically isolated from the
channel. ie, it is always unbiased.
[10] TVS stands for Transient Voltage suppressor. It is used for
transient voltage protection.
[15] The clipper circuit will clip part of the waveform. so it can be
used for smaller amplitude of the waveform.
Electronic Devices Objective Questions with Answers: Part-4
ELECTRONIC DEVICES OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
[1] For harmonic generation the amplifier used is

a)Audio Amplifier
b)Class-A Amplifier
c)RC Amplifier
d)class-C Turned Amplifier
Ans:D
Answer
[2] Zener diodes semiconductors are
a)Lightly Doped
b)Heavily Doped
c)Medium Doped
d)Not at all Doped
Ans: B
99
Answer
[3] In FET amplifiers, input is Incorrect!
a)A current signal
b)A voltage signal
c)Either a current or voltage signal
d)None of these
Ans: B
Answer
[4] H-parameters of a transistor
a)Are constant
b)Vary with temperature
c)Are dependent upon collector current
d)None of these
Ans:C
Answer
[5] In a voltage series feedback
a)Output resistance increases while input resistance decreases
b)Output and input resistances are reduced
c)Output and input resistances are increased
d)Output resistance decreases while input resistance increases
Ans: B
Answer
[6]In a saturated transistor
a)B-E junction is forward biased with C-B junction is reverse biased
b)Both the junctions are forward biased
c)B-E junction is reverse biased with C-B junction is forward biased
d)Both the junctions are reverse biased
Ans: B
Answer
[7]For an ideal noise free amplifier, the noise figure is
a)Zero
b)Zero dB
100
c)Infinity
d)1 dB
Ans: B
Answer
[8]When a junction is formed between a metal and a semiconductor, the depletion layer
is
a)More on the side of the metal
b)Equal on both sides
c)Less on the side of the metal
d)Less on semiconductor side
Ans: C
Answer
[9] The impurity commonly used for realizing the base region of a silicon NPN transistor
is ______
A) Gallium
B) Indium
C) Boron
D) Phosphorus
Ans: C
Answer
[10] A MOS capacitor made using P-type substrate is in the accumulation mode. The
dominant charge in the channel is due to the presence of
A) Holes
B) Electrons
C) Positively charged ions
D) Negatively charged ions
Ans: B
Answer
[11] A Zener diode works on the principle of ______
A) Tunneling of charge carriers across the junction
B) Thermionic emission
101
C) Diffusion of charge carriers across the junction

D) Hopping of charge carriers across the junction
Ans: A
Answer
[12] A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region if______
A) Both the junctions are reverse biased
B) Base-emitter junction is reverse biased & base-collector junction is forward biased
C) Base-emitter junction is forward biased & base-collector junction is reverse biased
D) Both the junctions are forward biased
Ans: D
Answer
[13] To obtain very high input & output impedances in a feedback amplifier, the topology
used is
A) Voltage-Series
B) Current-Series
C) Voltage-Shunt
D) Current-Shunt
Ans: C
Answer
[14] Cut off frequency of a bipolar transistor ____
A) Increase with the increase in base width
B) Increase with the increase in emitter width
C) Increase with the increase in the collector width
D) Increase with the decrease in the base width
Ans: D
Answer
[15] Negative feedback in amplifiers
A) Improves the signal to noise ratio at the input
B) Improves the signal to noise ratio at the output
C) Does not affect the signal to noise ratio at the output
D) Does not affect the signal to noise ratio at the input
Ans: B
102
Answer
Electronic Devices: Part-3 Objective Questions
[1] In order for a BJT to conduct under the conditions of no signal input, the bias
must be
(a) In the reverse direction at the E-B junction, sufficient to cause forward
breakover.
(b) In the reverse direction at the E-B junction, but not sufficient to cause
avalanche effect.
(c) Such that the application of a signal would cause the transistor to go into a
state of cutoff.
(d) Such that the application of a signal would cause the transistor to go into a
state of saturation.
(e) Such that the application of a signal would cause the transistor to become
nonlinear.
Answer: A
[2] The high input impedance of a MOSFET makes this type of device ideal for
use in
(a) Weak-signal amplifiers
(b) High-power oscillators
(c) High-current rectifiers
(d) Antenna tuning networks
(e) Graphic equalizers
Answer: A
[3] The drain of a JFET is the analog of the
(a) Plate of a vacuum tube
(b) Emitter of a BJT
(c) Cathode of diode

103
(d) Positive electrode in a solar cell
(e) Substrate of a MOSFET
Answer: A
[4] One of the technical limitations of capacitive proximity sensors is the fact that
they
(a) Are not very sensitive to objects that are poor electrical conductors.
(b) Are insensitive to objects that reflect light.
(c) Are insensitive to metallic objects.
(d) Cannot be used with oscillators
(e) Require extreme voltages in order to function properly
Answer: A
[5] The power factor in an ac circuit is defined as
(a) The actual power divided by the maximum power the circuit can handle.
(b) The ratio of the real power to the imaginary power.
(c) The ratio of the apparent power to the true power.
(d) The ratio of the true power to the apparent power.
(e) The ratio of the imaginary power to the apparent power.
Answer: D
[6] The amount of current that a silicon photodiode can deliver in direct sunlight
depends on
(a) The forward breakover voltage.
(b) The thickness of the substrate.
(c) The surface area of the P-N junction.
(d) The applied voltage.
(e) The reverse bias.

104
Answer: C
[7] In an amplifier that employs a P-Channel JFET, the device can usually be
replaced with an N-channel JFET having similar specifications, provided that
(a) All the resistors are reversed in polarity for the circuit in question
(b) The power supply polarity is reversed for the circuit in question
(c) The drain, rather than the source, is placed at signal ground
(d) The output is taken from the source, rather than from the drain.
Answer: B
[8] Secondary breakdown occurs in
(a) MOSFET but not in BJT
(b) Both MOSFET and BJT
(c) BJT but not in MOSFET
(d) None of these
Answer: C
[9] In a transistor
(a) β = α/ (α +1)
(b) β = α/ (1- α)
(c) α = β/ (β-1)
(d) α = (β+1)/β
Answer: C
[10] The interbase resistance of a UJT is
(a) Less than forward biased PN diode
(b) Higher than a FET
(c) Of the order of 1K an less
(d) In the range of 5K to 10K

105
Answer: D
[11] The VI characteristics of emitter of a UJT is
(a) Similar to CE with a linear and saturation region
(b) similar to FET with a linear and saturation region
(c) Similar to tunnel diode in some respects
(d) Linear between the peak point and vally point
Answer: C
[12] An UJT used for triggering as SCR has the supply voltage VBB = 25V. The
intrinsic stand off ratio n = 0.75. The UJT will conduct when the bias voltage VE is
(a) 25V
(b) >=18.75V
(c) 33.3V
(d) >=19.35V
Answer: D
[13] The Oscillator which is not dependent on phase shift is
(a) Wien Bridge
(b) Clapp
(c) Relaxation
(d) Crystal
Answer: C
[14] For an UJT to function, the load line must extend

106
(a) from saturation region to ohmic region
(b) from saturation to peak value of emitter voltage
(c) from valley point to peak point
(d) within valley and peak points in the negative resistance region
Answer: D
Solution Hint:
[12] VE = η.VBB + 0.6 =0.75 x 25 +0.6 =19.35
ELECTRONIC DEVICES: Part-2 Solved Objective Questions
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM ELECTRONIC DEVICES:
[1] In forward mode npn BJT, if the voltage Vcc is increased then the collector current
will increase
A. Due to ohm's law, higher Vcc causes higher current
B. Due to base width decrease less carrier recombine in the base region
C. As the gradient of the minority carriers in the base region becomes steeper
D. Due to both the B and C
Ans: D
Answer
[2] The barrier voltage present in a junction diode is the effect of
A. The P side and N side of the junction forming a battery
B. The emf required to move the holes fast enough to have the mobility equal to that of
the electrons
C. The recombination of charge carriers across the junction leaving behind the opposite
charged ions
107
D. The voltage needed to make the semiconductor material behave as a conductor
Ans: C
Answer
[3] Compare to BJT the FET has
A. High input impedance

B. High gain bandwidth product
C. Better current controlled behaviour
D. High noise immunity
Ans: A
Answer
[4] An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero temperature
A. Has a large number of holes

B. Behaves like an insulator
C. Behaves like a metallic conductor
D. Has few holes and same number of electrons
Ans: A
Answer
[5] For the operation of a depletion type N-MOSFET, the gate voltage has to be
A. Low positive
B. High positive
C. High negative
D. Zero
Ans:D
Answer
[6] An emitter follower has high input impedance because
A. Large emitter resistance is used
B. Large biasing resistance is used
C. There is negative feedback in the base emitter circuit
108
D. The emitter base junction is highly reverse biased
Ans: C
Answer
[7] In a differential amplifier an ideal CMRR is
A. Infinity
B. Zero
C. -1
D. +1
Ans: A
Answer
[8] In a PNP circuit, the collector
A. Has a arrow pointing inward
B. Is positive with respect to the emitter
C. Is biased at a small fraction of the base bias
D. Is negative with respect to the emitter
Ans:D
Answer
[9] A PNP transistor can be replaced with an NPN device and the circuit will do the same
thing, provided that
A. The power supply or battery polarity is reversed
B. The collector and emitter leads are interchanged
C. The arrow is pointing inward
D. A PNP transistor can never be replaced with NPN transistor
Ans: A
Answer
[10] A BJT has
A. Three PN junctions
B. Three semiconductor layers
109
C. Two N type layers around a P type layer

D. A low avalanche voltage
Ans: B
Answer
[11] The band gap of silicon at room temperature is________

A) 1.3 eV
B) 0.7 eV
C) 1.1 eV
D) 1.4 eV
Ans: C
Answer
[12] The primary reason for the widespread use of Silicon in semiconductor device
technology is
A) Abundance of silicon on the surface of the earth
B) Larger bandgap of silicon in comparison to germanium
C) Favorable properties of silicon-dioxide (SiO2)
D) Lower melting Point
Ans: C
Answer
[13] The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of
A) CC-CB
B) CE-CB
C) CB-CC
D) CE-CC
Ans: B
Answer
[14] In a multi-stage RC coupled amplifier the coupling capacitor______________
A) Limits the low frequency response
B) Limits the high frequency response
C) Does not affect the frequency response
D) Block the DC component without affecting the frequency response
110
Ans: A
Answer
Electronic Devices, Amplifiers Solved Objectives: Part-1
ELECTRONIC DEVICES OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS:
[1] The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can be represented as a
A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled Voltage source
C. Voltage controlled Voltage source
D. Voltage controlled Current source
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a differential amplifier
A. Affects the difference mode gain Ad
B. Affects the common mode gain Ac
C. Affects both Ad and Ac
D. Does not effect either Ad and Ac
Ans:B
Answer
[3] Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the
A. Internal Capacitance of the device

111
B. Coupling capacitor at the input
C. Skin effect
D. Coupling capacitor at the output
Ans: A
Answer
[4] In a common emitter, unbypassed resistor provides
A. Voltage shut feedback
B. Current series feedback
C. Negative voltage feedback
D. Positive current feedback
Ans: C
Answer
[5] A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits gives an o/p of 1.4V at the
signal frequency of 3.89kHz. At the frequency of 4 kHz, the o/p voltage will be
A. 1 V
B. 2 V
C. 1.4 V
D. 2.8 V
Ans: B
Answer
[6] Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to
A. Get maximum effeciency

112
B. Remove even harmonics
C. Overcome a crossover distortion
D. Reducing collector dissipation
Ans: C
Answer
[7] The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on
A. Q-factor of the tuned O/P circuit
B. Q-factor of the tuned I/P circuit
C. Quiescent operating point
D. Q-factor of the O/P and I/P circuits as well as quiescent operating point
Ans: A
Answer
[8]Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of
its
A. Input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristics
B. High voltage gain
C. High input resistance
D. High CMMR
Ans: D
Answer
[9] Negative feedback in an amplifier
A. Reduces gain
B. Increase frequency and phase distortion

113
C. Reduces bandwidth
D. Increase Noise
Ans: A
Answer
10] A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30V and a full-load voltage of 25V at full-
load current of 1A. Its output resistance and load regulation respectively are
A. 5Ω & 20%
B. 25Ω & 20%
C. 5Ω &16.7%
D. 25Ω & 16.7%
Ans: B
Answer
Synchronous Motor Objective Questions - Part 9
SYNCHRONOUS MOTOR OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] In a synchronous motor, damper winding is provided to

A. Stabilize rotor motion
B. Suppress rotor oscillations
C. Develop necessary starting torque
D. Both B and C
Ans: D
Answer
[2] Synchronous capacitor is
A. An ordinary static capacitor bank
B. An over excited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
114
C. An over excited synchronous motor running without mechanical load

D. None of the above
Ans:C
Answer
[3] A synchronous machine is called as doubly excited machine because
A. It can be over excited
B. It has two sets of rotor poles
C. Both its rotor and stator are excited
D. It needs twice the normal exciting current
Ans: C
Answer
[4]If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
A. Lagging
B. Leading
C. Unity
D. More than unity
Ans: A
Answer
[5] The direction of rotation of a synchronous motor can be reversed by reversing
A. Current to the field winding
B. Supply phase sequence
C. Polarity of rotor poles
Ans: B
Answer
[6]A synchronous motor connected to infinite busbars has at constant full-load,
100% excitation and unity pf. On changing the excitation only, the armature
current will have
A. Leading pf with under-excitation
B. Leading pf with over excitation
C. Lagging pf with over excitation
D. No change of pf
115
Ans: B
Answer
[7] The maximum value of torque angle a in a synchronous motor is.......degrees
electrical
A. 45
B. 90
C. Between 45 and 90
D. Below 60
Ans: B
Answer
[8] The angle between the synchronous rotating stator flux and rotor poles of a
synchronous motor is
A. Synchronizing angle
B. Torque angle
C. Power factor angle
D. Slip angle
Ans:B
Answer
[9] In a synchronous machine when the rotor speed becomes more than the
synchronous speed during hunting, the damping bars develop
A. Synchronous motor torque
B. DC motor torque
C. Induction motor torque
D. Induction generator torque
Ans: D
Answer
[10] When load on a synchronous motor is increased its armature current is
increased provided it is
A. Normally excited
B. Over excited
C. Under exciter
D. All of the above
Ans:D
116
Measurements Instruments Objective Questions with Answers: part-8
MEASUREMENTS AND INSTRUMENTS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH

ANSWERS
[1] The most preferred material for the control spring is

(a) German silver
(b) Platinum silver
(c) Silicon bronze
(d) Phosphor bronze
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A moving coil instrument is used as an ohmmeter. The indicating scale of the
meter will be
(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Logarithmic
(c) Linear
(d) Inverse linear
Ans: A
Answer
[3] For high accuracy the meter has
(a) Supporting mirror
(b) Hand drawn scale
(c) Printed scale
(d) Scale with sharp pointer
Ans:B
Answer
[4] Among the voltages to various electrodes in a CRT the voltage is the highest
on
(a) Aquadag
(b) Focusing anode
(c) Deflection plates
(d) PD anode
117
Ans: D
Answer
[5] In a free running oscilloscope the horizontal deflection system is driven by
a ........ waveform
(a) Step
(b) Impulse
(c) Ramp
(d) DC
Ans: C
Answer
[6] A Lissajous patterns are used to measure
(a) Voltage and frequency
(b) Frequency and Phase shift
(c) Frequency and amplitude distortion
(d) Amplitude and flux
Ans:B
Answer
[7] The shunt used in milliammeter
(a) will extend the range and reduce the meter resistance
(b) will extend the range and increase the meter resistance
(c) will decrease the range and meter resistance
(d) will not affect the meter
Ans: A
Answer
[8] The electrostatic instruments can be used without serious loss of accuracy
upto ......... frequency
(a) 100Hz
(b) 100kHz
(c) 1 MHz
(d) 10MHz
Ans:B
Answer
[9] In the case of PMMC rectifier type instruments, the deflecting torque is
proportional to
118
(a) Average value of AC current

(b) RMS of AC
(c) Instantaneous value
(d) Peak value
Ans: A
Answer
[10] Inductance and capacitance in the electrostatic system of units has the
dimensions of
(a) mass
(b) mass-time
(c) mass length/time
(d) length
Ans: D
Answer
[11] For the indicating instrument the preferred damping condition is
(a) Critically damped
(b) a damping coefficient of 0.8 to 1
(c) Overdamped
(d) Underdamped
Ans: B
Answer
[12] One international ohm is equal to
(a) 1.00049 absolute ohm
(b) 0.99951 absolute ohm
(c) 0.969 absolute ohm
(d) 1.049 absolute ohm
Ans: A
Answer
Measurements Instrumentation Objective Questions Answers: Part-7
MEASUREMENTS INSTRUMENTATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

WITH ANSWERS
119
[1] A mulliammeter can be used as

(a) Voltmeter and ammeter
(b) Wattmeter
(c) Ohmmeter
(d) Frequency meter
Ans:A
Answer
[2] Which instrument has identical calibration for ac as well as dc values?

(a) Hot wire type
(b) Moving coil type
(c) Induction type
(d) Moving iron type
Ans: A
Answer
[3] An instrument to be used for measurement and control should preferably have
(a) Dead zone and dead time
(b) Linear output and fast response
(c) Non-linear output
(d) A highly damped response
Ans:B
Answer
[4] The current coil of a wattmeter is connected to the CT of R-phase. The

potential coil is connected across Y and B phases. The wattmeter measures
(a) Active power in R phase
(b) Active power of Y phase
(c) Reactive power of R phase
(d) Power proportional to 3 phase power if the load is balanced
Ans: C
Answer
120
[5] The problem of Electro-static coupling in a transformer is acute at

(a) Low frequencies
(b) Power frequencies
(c) High frequencies
(d) High load on the transformer
Ans: C
Answer
[6] Which meter is suitable for the measurement of 10mV at 50MHz?

(a) Moving iron voltmeter
(b) VTVM
(c) Moving coil voltmeter
(d) CRO
Ans:D
Answer
[7] It can be stated that

(a) CT operates at almost the same flux density as a PT
(b) CT operates with a higher flux density than PT
(c) CT operates with considerably lower flux density than a PT
(d) no generalisation can be made with regard to the flux densities in CT and PT
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The thermocouple instruments do not have

(a) High sensitivity
(b) Absence of frequency error
(c) Independence of ambient temperature
(d) High degree of measuring accuracy
Ans: D
Answer
[9] Some wire- wound resistors have bifilar winding. This type of winding is used
121
to
(a) Increase the thermal stability
(b) Reduce the tolerance
(c) Reduce the inductance of winding
(d) Double the power rating of the resistor
Ans: C
Answer
[10] Wien bridge is useful for measuring

(a) Very high frequency
(b) Low frequency
(c) Medium frequency
(d) High frequency
Ans: D
Answer
[11] A megger is usually
(a) Moving iron type instrument

(b) Electro-static type instrument
(c) Hot-wire type instrument
(d) Moving coil type instrument
Ans: D
Answer
[12] A moving iron ammeter may be compensated for frequency errors by

(a) a shunt resistance
(b) a series inductance
(c) shunt capacitance
(d) series resistance
Ans: C
Answer
122
[13] Ryall crest voltmeter is used for measurement of

(a) AC voltage of any form
(b) Low frequency voltage
(c) High DC voltage
(d) High AC voltage
Ans:D
Answer
[14] Jewels are used in instruments for the purpose of

(a) Damping
(b) Torque control
(c) Suppressing noise
(d) Bearing
Ans: D
Answer
[15] The thermocouple instrument will measure

(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Flux
Ans: D
Answer
MCQ in Electrical Measurements and Instrumentation
[1] A 10MHz CRO has

(a) 5MHz sweep
(b) 10MHz vertical oscillator
(c) 10MHz horizontal oscillator
(d) 10MHz supply frequency
Ans: C
123
Answer
[2] Which of the following instruments can be used to measure AC current only?
(a) Permanent Magnet Type ammeter
(b) Induction type ammeter
(c) Moving iron voltmeter
(d) Moving iron ammeter
Answers:
1. D only
2. B only
3. A, B, D
4. B and D only
Ans: 2
Answer
[3] An oscilloscope indicates
(a) Peak to peak value of voltage
(b) DC value of voltage
(c) RMS value
(d) Average value
Ans: A
Answer
[4] In a ballistic galvanometer, the deflecting torque is proportional to
(a) the current through coil
(b) square of current through coil
(c) square-root of current through coil
(d) sine of measured
Ans:A
Answer
[5] The error of an instrument is normally given as a percentage of
(a) measured value
(b) full-scale value
(c) mean value
(d) rms value
Ans: B
124
Answer
[6] If the instrument is to have a wide range, the instrument should have
(a) Linear scale
(b) Square-law scale
(c) Exponential scale
(d) Logarithmic scale
Ans:D
Answer
[7] The resistance can be measured most accurately by
(a) Voltmeter-ammeter method
(b) bridge method
(c) multimeter
(d) Megger
Ans: B
Answer
[8] The repeat accuracy of an instrument can be judged from its
(a) static error
(b) linearity error
(c) dynamic error
(d) standard deviation of error
Ans: D
Answer
[9] Which of the following meters has a linear scale?
(a) Thermocouple meter
(b) Moving iron meter
(c) Hot wore meter
(d) Moving coil meter
Ans: D
Answer
[10] No eddy current and hysteresis losses occur in
(a) Electrostatic instruments
(b) PMMC instruments
(c) Moving iron instruments
(d) Electrodynamo meter instruments
125
Ans: A
Answer
[11] Two voltmeters have the same range 0-400V. The internal impedance are
30,000 Ohms and 20,000 Ohms. If they are connected in series and 600V be
applied across them, the readings are
(a) 360V and 240V
(b) 300V each
(c) 400V and 200V
(d) one of the meters out of the range and other 100V
Ans: A
Answer
[12] The full-scale deflection current of an ammeter is 1 mA and its internal
resistance is 100Ohm. If this meter is to have full deflection at 5A, what is the
value of the shunt resistance to be used?
(a) 49.99 Ohms
(b) 1/49.99 ohms
(c) 1 Ohm
(d) 2 Ohms
Ans: B
Answer
[13] The full-scale deflection current of an ammeter is 1 mA and its internal
resistance is 100Ohm. This is to have full deflection when 100V is measured.
What is the value of series resistor to be used?
(a) 99.99 K ohms
(b) 100 K ohms
(c) 99.99 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: A
Answer
[14] Why is a MISC meter not recommended for DC measurement?
(a) The meter is calibrated for AC and it's error for DC would be high
(b) The meter does not respond to DC signals
126
(c) The error is high due to hysteresis effect

(d) The error is high due to eddy current effect
Ans: C
Answer
[15] The EMF of Weston standard cell is measured using
(a) Moving- iron meter
(b) Moving-coil meter
(c) Digital Volt meter
(d) Potentiometer
Ans: D
Answer
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM MEASUREMENTS INSTRUMENTATION
[1] A CRO can display

(a) AC signals
(b) DC signals
(c) Both AC and DC signals
(d) Time invariant signals
Ans: C
Answer
[2] The internal resistance of an ammeter should be
(a) Very small
(b) medium
(c) High
(d) Infinity
Ans: A
Answer
[3] A galvanometer has
(a) air friction damping
(b) fluid friction damping
127
(c) Spring coil damping

(d) Eddy current damping
Ans:D
Answer
[4] Electrostatic instruments are normally used for
(a) Low current measurements
(b) High current measurements
(c) Low voltage measurements
(d) High voltage measurements
Ans:D
Answer
[5] In a moving coil instrument, the deflecting torque is proportional to
(a) Current
(b) Square of the current
(c) Squareroot of the current
(d) sine of the measurand
Ans:A
Answer
[6] The absolute measurement of resistance is done by
(a) Ohm's law method
(b) Bridge Method
(c) Rayleigh method
(d) Lorenz method
Ans: D
Answer
[7] To measure the flux, devices used are based on
(a) Voltaic effect
(b) Piezo-electric effect
(c) Hall effect
(d) Photo-voltaic effect
Ans:C
Answer
[8] The form factor in AC is the ratio of
(a) peak value to average value
128
(b) peak value to rms value

(c) rms value to average value
(d) rms value to peak value
Ans:C
Answer
[9] PMMC type instruments normally use
(a) Air friction damping
(b) Fluid friction damping
(c) Eddy current damping
Ans: C
Answer
[10] In a moving iron meter, the deflecting torque is proportional to
(a) Current through the coil
(b) Square of the current through the coil
(c) Sine of the measurand
(d) Squareroot of the measurand
Ans: B
Answer
[11] In a gravity controlled instrument, the deflection angle is proportional
(a) Measurand
(b) Square of the measurand
(c) sine inverse of measurand
(d) sine of the measurand
Ans: C
Answer
[12] Ampere is one of the
(a) Supplementary units
(b) Derived units
(c) Base units
(d) Units used to measure charge
Ans: C
Answer
[13] Direct method is used to measure
129
(a) Length
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Voltage
Ans: A
Answer
Measurements Instrumentation Objective Questions: Part-4
[1] A hot-wire ammeter
A. Can measure ac as well as dc
B. Registers current changes very fast
C. Can indicate very low voltages
D. Measures electrical energy
Ans: A
Answer
[2] The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is
A. Electrometer
B. Galvanometer
C. Voltmeter
D. Coulometer
Ans: B
Answer
[3] A watt-hour meter measures
A. Voltage
130
B. Current
C. Energy
D. Power
Ans: C
Answer
[4] A voltmeter should have
A. Low internal resistance
B. High internal resistance
C. Electrostatic plates
D. A sensitive amplifier
Ans:B
Answer
[5] An average-reading digital multimeter reads 10V when fed with a triangular
wave, symmetric about the time-axis.For the same input an rms-reading meter
will read [GATE]
A. 20/√3
B. 10/√3
C. 20√3
D. 10√3
Ans: A
Answer
[6] The figure shows a three-phase delta connected load supplied from a
400V,50Hz,3-phase balanced source. The pressure coil(PC) and current coil(CC)
of a wattmeter are connected to the load as shown,with the coil polarities suitably
selected to ensure a positive deflection. The wattmeter reading will be [GATE]
131
A. 0
B. 1600Watt
C. 800Watt
D. 400Watt
Ans: C
Answer
[7] The probes of a non-isolated, two channel oscilloscope are clipped to points
A,B and C in the circuit of the adjacent figure. Vin is a square wave of a suitable
low frequency. The display on Ch1 and Ch2 are as shown on the right. Then the
"signal" and "ground" probes S1, G1 and S2, G2 of Ch1 and Ch2 respectively
are connected to points [GATE 2007]
A. A, B, C, A
132
B. A, B, C, B
C. C, B, A, B
D. B, A, B, C
Ans: B
Answer
[8] An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting
of 20kΩ, it reads 440V and-with a multiplier setting of 80kΩ it reads 352V. For a
multiplier setting of 40kΩ,voltmeter reads [GATE2012]
A. 371V
B. 383V
C. 394V
D. 406V
Ans: D
Answer
[9] The rate at which charge carriers flow is measured in
A. Coulombs
B. Amperes
C. Watt-hour
D. Watts
Ans: B
Answer
[10] The main problem with bar-graph meters is that
A. They are not very sensitive

133
B. They are unstable
C. They cannot give very precise readings
D. They can display only peak values
Ans: C
Answer
[11] A dynamometer type wattmeter responds to the [Gate 1997]
(a) Average value of the active power
(b) Average value of reactive power
(c) Peak value of the active power
(d) Peak value of the reactive power
Ans: A
Answer
[12] A transfer instrument employed in the standardization of a polar type ac
potentiometer is [Gate 1997]
(a) An electrostatic instrument
(b) A thermal instrument
(c) A dynamometer instrument
(d) A moving coil instrument
Ans: C
Measurements Competitive Objective Questions
COMPETITIVE EXAMS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM MEASUREMENTS:
[1] Consider the following statements:

1. The main shortcomings of diaphragms are that they are prone to shock vibrations.
2. Diaphragms have the advantages of high accuracy and good dynamic response
134
3. Selection of material for diaphragms mainly depends upon temperature range and
chemical nature of fluid coming in contact with diaphragm during pressure
measurement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? [IES2010]
A. 1,2 and3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Ans:A
Answer
[2] If reflection coefficient for voltage be 0.6, the voltage standing wave ratio(VSWR) is
[IES2010]
A.0.66
B.4
C.1.5
D.2
Ans:B
Answer
[3] A resistance strain gage with gage factor (S f) of 2 is bonded to a steel member,which
is subjected to a strain of 1 x 10 -6.The original resistance value of this strain gage is
120Ω.The change in resistance due to the applied strain is [IES2010]
A. 60Ω
B. 240 x 10-6 Ω
C. 240Ω
D. 60 x 10-6 Ω
Ans: B
Answer
[4] Consider the following statements: [IES2010]
135
Piezoelectric materials
1. Crystal can be shown as electrical equivalent circuit similar to an inductor and a
capacitor(Tank circuit).
2. Quartz,Rochelle salt,tourmaline.
3. Used in voltage stabilizers.
4. This exhibits the reverse effect of electrostriction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans:D
Answer
[5] Consider the following units for the measurement of pressure directly: [IES2010]
1. Rolta meter
2. Bourdon tube
3. Planti meter
4. Vanes
Of these, the pressure can be measured by
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans: C
Answer
[6] The measurement of Hall coefficient of a semiconductor with one type of charge
carrier gives the information about [IES2010]
A. Sign of charge carrier

B. Density of charge carrier
136
C. Both sign and density of charge carrier

D. Mass of the charge carrier
Ans:C
Answer
[7] A piezoelectric crystal has a thickness of 2.5mm and a voltage sensitivity of

0.05Vm/N. The piezoelectric crystal is subjected to an external pressure of 1.6 x
106N/m2,then the corresponding output voltage is, [IES2010]
A. 200V
B. 3.2 x 109V/m of thickness
C. 0.07 x 10-9V/(m3/New)
D. 200m V
Ans: A
Answer
[8]The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode,
the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with its
major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can be
made from this. [GATE2009]
A. The signals are not sinusoidal
B. The amplitudes of the signals are very close but not equal
C. The signals are sinusoidal with their frequencies very close but not equal
D. There is a constant but small phase difference between the signals
Ans:D
Answer
[9]The pressure coil of a dynamo meter type wattmeter is [GATE2009]
A. Highly inductive
B. Highly resistive
137
C. Purely resistive
D. Purely inductive
Ans:B
Answer
[10]The measurement system shown in the figure uses three sub systems in cascade
whose gains are specified as G1, G2 and 1/G3. The relative small errors associated with
each respective subsystem G1, G2,G3 are ε1,ε2 and ε3.The error associated with the
output is [GATE2009]
A. ε1+ε2+1/ε3
B. (ε1.ε2)ε3
C. ε1+ε2-ε3
D. ε1+ε2+ε3
Ans:C
Answer
Instrumentation: Part-2 Objective Questions
SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM MEASUREMENTS &

INSTRUMENTATION:
[1] An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate
A. Frequency
B. Peak signal voltage

138
C. Energy
D. Wave shape
Ans: C
Answer
[2] In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows
zero reading, then it can be concluded that
A. Power factor is unity
B. Power factor is zero
C. Power factor is 0.5 lagging
D. Power factor is 0.5 leading
Ans: C
Answer
[3] voltmeters should generally have
A. High internal resistance
B. Low internal resistance
C. The ability to withstand large currents
D. The greatest possible sensitivity
Ans:A
Answer
[4] To measure the applied power supply voltage to the electrical circuit, the voltmeter
should be placed
A. In series with the circuit that works from the supply
B. Between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
139
D. In parallel with the circuit that works from the supply
Ans:D
Answer
[5] Which will not normally cause a large error in an ohmmeter reading?
A. A slight change in switchable internal resistance
B. A small voltage between points under test
C. A small change in the resistance to be measured
D. A slight error in the range switch position
Ans:C
Answer
[6] Which is not function of the fuse?
A. To ensure there is enough current available for and appliance to work right
B. To make sure the current drawn by an appliance can not exceed a certain limit
C. To limit the amount of power that a device can draw from the electrical circuit
D. To make it impossible to use appliances that are too large for a given circuit
Ans: A
Answer
[7] The utility meter’s motor speed depends directly on
A. The number of watt hours being used at the time
B. The number of ampere hours being used at the time
C. The number of watts being used at the time
D. The number of kilowatt hours being used at the time
Ans: C
140
Answer
[8] A typical frequency counter
A. Works by indirectly measuring voltage
B. Is accurate to six digits or more
C. Works by indirectly measuring current
D. Has an analog readout
Ans: B
Answer
[9] A VU meter is never used to get a general indication of
A. Sound intensity
B. Visible light intensity
C. Power in an audio amplifier
D. Decibels
Ans:D
Answer
[10] An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10k/volt. The galvanometer used in

constructing the instrument will produce a full scale deflection when the current passed
through it is
(a) 10 mA
(b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA
(d) 100 μA
Ans: D
Answer
141
[11] Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on a dual-trace
oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and
the starting point of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are
separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two signals in degrees is
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
Ans: A
Answer
[12] Transient signals can be observed using
(a) Storage oscilloscope
(b) Sampling oscilloscope
(c) Wave analyzer
(d) Spectrum analyzer
Ans: A
Answer
[13] The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the screen when
(a) The sweep is triggered.
(b) The sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) The sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) There is no weep.
Ans: C
Answer
142
[14] In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) Low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) Low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) High frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) High frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
Ans: D
Answer
[15] The meter movement in an illumination meter directly measures
A. Current
B. Power
C. Voltage
D. Energy
Ans:A
Answer
Instrumentation Part-1 Objective Questions
SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM MEASUREMENTS &

INSTRUMENTATION:
[1] The major advantage of electromagnet type meter over a permanent magnet meter
is
A. The electromagnet meter costs much less
B. The permanent magnet meter has a more sluggish coil
C. The electromagnet meter need not be aligned with the earth’s magnetic field
D. The electromagnet meter is more rugged

143
Ans:D
Answer
[2] A thermocouple
A. Gets warm when dc flows through it
B. Is a thin, straight, special wire
C. Generates ac when heated
D. Generates dc when exposed to visible light
Ans:A
Answer
[3] If the readings of the two watt meters in the 2 watt meter method of power
measurement are 4.5 kW and 3.5 kW respectively and the latter reading has been
obtained after reversing the current coil of the watt meter. What will be the total power
in kW?
A. 1
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 8
Ans:A
Answer
[4]The major advantage of an electrostatic meter is
A. It can handle large currents
B. It measures very small currents
C. It can detect and indicate ac voltages as well as dc voltages
D. It draws a large current from a power supply.
Ans: C
144
Answer
[5] The change in the direction of a compass needle, when a current carrying wire is
brought near, is called
A. Electromagnetic deflection
B. Electroscopic force
C. Magnetic force
D. Electrostatic force
Ans:A
Answer
[6] Ammeter shunts are useful because
A. They prevent overheating of the meter movement
B. They make a meter more physically rugged
C. They allow for measurement of large currents
D. They increase meter sensitivity
Ans: C
Answer
[7] Suppose a certain current in a galvanometer causes the compass needle to deflect by
20 degree, then this current is doubled while the polarity stays the same. The angle of
the needle deflection will
A. Reverse direction
B. Stay the same
C. Increase
D. Decrease
Ans:C
Answer
145
[8] The major advantage of FETVM over a conventional voltmeter is that FETVM
A. Can withstand higher voltages safely
B. Draws less current from the circuit under test
C. Can measure lower voltages
D. Is sensitive to ac voltage as well as to dc voltage
Ans:B
Answer
[9] The attraction or repulsion between two electrically charged objects is called
A. Electromagnetic deflection
B. Electrostatic force
C. Electroscopic force
D. Magnetic force
Ans:B
Answer
[10] A utility meter’s reading indicates
A. Current
B. Power
C. Voltage
D. Energy
Ans:D
Answer
[11] When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following

instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
146
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
Ans: B
Answer
[12] The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity,
linearity and resolution is?
a) An incremental encoder
b) An absolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) A strain gauge
Ans: C
Answer
[13] When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the
counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be?
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.
Ans: B
Answer
[14] One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is ?
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
147
Ans: D
Answer
[15] Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements, while analog
multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units, while analog multimeters
are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
Ans: B
Answer
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Opamp Objective Questions & Answers: Part 3
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM OPAMP
[1] An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled Voltage source
C. Voltage controlled Voltage source
D. Voltage controlled Current source
Ans: C
Answer
[2] A 741-Type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwith product of 1MHz. A non-inverting
amplifier using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db
bandwidth of
148
A. 50KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17KHz
D. 1000/7.07KHz
Ans: A
Answer
[3] An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/sec has a gain of 40db.If
this amplifier has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20KHz without
introducing any slew-rate induced distortion, then the input signal level exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795mV
D. 39.5mV
Ans: C
Answer
[4] The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics
A. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=0
B. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=0
C. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=∞
D. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=∞
Ans: A
Answer
[5] The approximate input impedance of the opamp circuit which has Ri=10k,
Rf=100k, RL=10k
A. ∞
149
B. 120k
C. 110k
D. 10k
Ans: C
Answer
[6] An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine wave o/p voltage possible
at a frequency of 1MHz is
A. 10 V
B. 5 V
C. 5V
D. 5/2 V
Ans: A
Answer
[7] Assume that the op-amp of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is a triangular wave, then V0
will be
A. Square wave
B. Triangular wave
C. Parabolic wave
D. Sine wave
Ans: D
Answer
[8] A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all op-amps. This is
done basically to provide the op-amps with a very high
A. CMMR
150
B. Bandwidth
C. Slew rate
D. Open-loop gain
Ans: C
Answer
[9] A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMMR=80dB. The
common mode gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D.0
Ans: C
Answer
[10] In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a
differential amplifier are 48db & 2db respectively, then its common mode rejection
ratio is
A. 23dB
B. 25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
Ans: B
Answer
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151
Op-Amp Objective Questions: Part - 2
OPAMP OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] Which of the following amplifier is used in a digital to analog converter?

(a) Non inverter
(b) Voltage follower
(c) Summer
(d) Difference amplifier
Ans: C
Answer
[2] Differential amplifiers are used in
(a) Instrumentation amplifiers
(b) Voltage followers
(c) Voltage regulators
(d) Buffers
Ans:A
Answer
[3] For an ideal op-amp, which of the following is true?
(a) The differential voltage across the input terminals is zero
(b) The current into the input terminals is zero
(c) The current from output terminal is zero
(d) The output resistance is zero
Ans: C
Answer
[4] The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled as
a) High and low
b) Positive and negative
c) Inverting and non inverting
d) Differential ans non differential
Ans:C
Answer
[5] When a step-input is given to an op-amp integrator, the output will be
(a) A ramp.
152
(b) A sinusoidal wave.

(c) A rectangular wave.
(d) A triangular wave with dc bias
Ans: A
Answer
[6] For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is
given by
A. Av + Ac
B. Av / Ac
C. 1 + [Av / Ac]
D. Ac / Av
Ans:B
Answer
[7] Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger, because
A. Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances.
B. Effects of temperature would be compensated.
C. Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation.
D. It would prevent noise from causing false triggering.
Circuit for questions 8 & 9
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The output voltage Vo of the above circuit is
(a) -6V
153
(b) -5V
(c) -1.2V
(d) -0.2V
Ans: B
Answer
[9] In the above circuit the current ix is
(a) 0.6A
(b) 0.5A
(c) 0.2A
(d) 1/12A
Ans: B
Answer
[10] Op-amp circuits may be cascaded without changing their input output relationships
(a) True
(b) False
Ans: A
Answer
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OP AMP - part 1
The OPAMP related objective questions are given in this post with answers.
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1. A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit generally has a gain factor
A. Less than one
B. Greater than one
C. Of zero
D. Equal to one
Ans: B. For non inverting amplifier the gain is A = [1 + (Rf/Rin)]. So it will be always more
than one
2. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting op-amp, the (–) terminal will
A. Not need an input resistor
B. Be virtual ground
C. Have high reverse current
D. Not invert the signal
Ans: B. Other options are not suitable.

3. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equal to
A. The ratio of the input resistance to feedback resistance
B. The open-loop voltage gain
C. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
D. The input resistance
Ans: C
4. When a number of stages are connected in parallel, the overall gain is the product of
the individual stage gains
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
5. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

a) Current controlled Current source
b) Current controlled voltage source
c) Voltage controlled voltage source
d) voltage controlled current source
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Ans: C. The ideal Opamp output voltage is maintained constant. It is controlled by input
voltage.
6. The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics.
a) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=0
b) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=0
c) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
d) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
Ans: A.
7.Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5kΩ and C1 =
0.05μF
A. 1.273kHz
B. 12.73kHz
C. 127.3 kHz
D. 127.3 Hz
Ans: A.
Hint: low pass filter cut off frequency f = 1/(2πRC)
8. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Ans:D. The output voltage of inverting amplifier is Vout = (-Rf/Rin)Vin. By keeping 1

inverting amplifier and three no of sources (V1, V2, V3) in series corresponding input
resistors(R1, R2, R3), we can get this equation.
9. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation Vo = V1
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
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Ans: D. The voltage follower which has one opamp has the output of Vo = Vin
10. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/μ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage possible at a
frequency of 1 MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts
C. 5/ volts
D. 5/2 volts
Ans: D
Hint: Slew rate is defined as the max. rate of change of output voltage. Its unit is V/μS.
Time period = 1/f = 1/1MHz = 1μS
V= Vm. sin(ωt) = Vm. sin(2πf.t)
slew rate = dV/dt = d(Vm. sin(2πf.t)/ dt=Vm. 2πf. cost...

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Power Electronics Objective Type Questions: Part-13
Power Electronics Multiple Choice Questions
[1] During forward blocking state, the SCR has

(a) Low current, medium voltage
(b) Low current, large voltage
(c) Medium current, large voltage
(d) Large current, low voltage
Answer: B
[2] Once SCR starts conducting a forward current, its gate loses control over
(a) Anode circuit current only
(b) Anode circuit voltage only
(c) Anode circuit voltage and current
(d) Anode circuit voltage, current and time
Answer: C
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[3] In a SCRs
(a) Both Latching current and holding current are associated with turn-off process
(b) Latching current is associated with turn-off process and holding current with
turn on process
(c) Holding current is associated with turn-off process and Latching current with
turn-on process
(d) Both Latching current and holding current are associated with turn on process
Answer: C
[4] The SCR can be termed as
(a) DC switch
(b) AC switch
(c) Square-wave switch
(d) Either A or B
Answer: A
[5] In a thyristor, the magnitude of anode current will
(a) Increase if gate current is increased
(b) Increase if gate current is decreased
(c) Decrease if gate current is decreased
(d) Not change with any variation in gate current
Answer: D
[6] Turn on time of an SCR can be reduced by using a
(a) Rectangular pulse of high amplitude and narrow width
(b) Rectangular pulse of low amplitude and wide width
(c) Triangular pulse
(d) Trapezoidal pulse
Answer: A
[7] Turn off time of an SCR in series with RL circuit can be reduced by
(a) Increasing circuit resistance R
(b) Decreasing circuit resistance R
(c) Increasing circuit inductance L
(d) Decreasing circuit inductance L
Options:
1) B, C
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2) A, D
3) B, D
4) D only
Answer: 4
[8] A forward voltage can be applied to an SCR after its
(a) Anode current reduces to zero
(b) Gate recovery time
(c) Reverse recovery time
(d) Anode voltage reduces to zero
Answer: B
[9] Turn-off time of an SCR is measured from the instant
(a) Anode current becomes zero
(b) Anode voltage becomes zero
(c) Anode voltage and anode current become zero at the same time
(d) Gate current becomes zero
Answer: A
[10] In an SCR, anode current flows over a narrow region near the gate during
(a) Delay time td
(b) Rise time tr and spread time tp
(c) td and tp
(d) td and tr
Answer: D
[11] Gate characteristic of a thyristor
(a) Is straight line passing through origin
(b) Is of the type Vg = a + bIg
(c) Is a curve between Vg and Ig
(d) Has a spread between two curves of Vg-Ig
Answer: D
[12] Surge current rating of an SCR specified the maximum

(a) Repetitive current with sine wave
(b) Non-repetitive current with rectangular wave
(c) Non-repetitive current with sine wave
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(d) Repetitive current with rectangular wave
Answer: C
[13] The di/dt rating of an SCR is specified for its
(a) Decaying anode current
(b) Decaying gate current
(c) Rising gate current
(d) Rising anode current
Answer: D
[14] For an SCR, dv/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(a) RL in series with SCR
(b) RC across
(c) L in series with
(d) RC in series with
Answer: B
[15] For an SCR, di/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(a) R in series with SCR
(b) RL in series with SCR
(c) L in series with SCR
(d) L across SCR
Answer: C
Solution Hint:
[4] SCR will allow current flow in one direction only. So the ideal SCR
is similar to DC switch
[7] By the decreasing the Inductor L value, the di/dt is increasing. ie,
fast turn off process
[14] Snubber circuit ( RC circuit across device) is used for dv/dt
protection
[15] Inductor will oppose sudden change in current (di/dt). For
inductor, series resistance is not required. But in snubber circuit, R is
mandatory for dissipating the stored energy in the capacitor.
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Power Electronics Multiple Choice Questions: Part-12
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS BASED ON POWER ELECTRONICS AND DRIVES
[1] When a line commutated converter operates in the inverter mode

(a) It draws both real and reactive power from the AC supply
(b) It delivers both real and reactive power to the AC supply
(c) It delivers real power to the AC supply
(d) It draws reactive power from the AC supply
Answer: C
[2] A chopper operating at a fixed frequency is feeding an RL load. As the duty
ratio of the chopper is increased from 25% to 75%, the ripple in the load current
is
(a) Remains constant
(b) Decreases, reaches a minimum at 50% duty ratio and then increases
(c) Increases, reaches a maximum at 50% duty ratio and then decreases
(d) Keeps on increasing as the duty ratio is increased
Answer: A
[3] To turn off a SCR, the reverse bias should be applied for a period ....... the
turn-off time of the SCR
(a) Equal to
(b) Longer than
(c) Less than
(d) Irrespective of
Answer: B
[4] In class A and class B commutation the resonating circuit has to be
(a) Over damped
(b) Critically damped
(c) Under damped
(d) Negatively damped
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Answer: C
[5] In phase controlled rectification power factor (PF)
(a) Remains unaffected
(b) Improves with increase of firing angle α
(c) Deteriorates with increase of α
(d) Is unrelated to α
Answer: C
[6] Comparing with the full wave rectifier using two diodes, the four diode bridge
rectifier has the dominant advantage of
(a) Higher current carrying
(b) Lower peak inverse voltage requirement
(c) Lower ripple factor
(d) Higher efficiency
Answer: B
[7] A SCR is rated at 75A peak, 20A average. The greatest possible delay in the
trigger angle if the dc is at rated value is
(a) 47.5°
(b) 30° to 45°
(c) 74.5°
(d) 137°
Answer: B
[8] The applied sine voltage to a SCR is VM=200V and R=10Ohm. If the gate
trigger lags the ac supply by 120°, the average load current is
(a) 15/π A
(b) 5/π A
(c) -5/π A
(d) -15/π A
Answer: A
[9] A sine voltage of 200Vrms, 50Hz is applied to an SCR through 100ohm
resistor. The firing angle is 60°. Consider no voltage drop. The output voltage in
rms is
(a) 89.7 V
(b) 126.7 V
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(c) 166.7 V
(d) 200√2 V
Answer: B
[10] A 100VDC is applied to the inductive load through a SCR. The SCR's
specified latching current is 100mA. The minimum required width of gating pulse
to turn on the SCR is
(a) 100μS
(b) 100S
(c) 1mS
(d) 50μS
Answer: A
[11] A cycloconverter is a
(a) Frequency changer from higher to lower frequency with one-state conversion
(b) Frequency changer from higher to lower frequency with two-stage conversion
(c) Frequency changer from lower to higher frequency with one-stage conversion
(d) Either a or c
Answer: D
[12] The cycloconverter require natural or forced commutation as under
(a) Natural commutationin bothstep-up and step down cycloconverter
(b) Forced commutation in both step-up and step-down cycloconverter
(c) Forced commutation in step-up cycloconverter
(d) Forced commutation in step-down cycloconverter
Answer: C
[13] In synchronized UJT triggering of an SCR, voltage VC across capacitor
reaches UJT threshold thrice in each half cycle so that there are three firing
pulses during each half cycle. The firing angle of the SCR can be controlled
(a) Once in each half cycle
(b) Thrice in each half cycle
(c) Twice in each half cycle
(d) Four times in each half cycle
Answer: A
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[14] In a GTO, anode current begins to fall when gate current

(a) Is negative peak at time t=0
(b) Is negative peak at t = storage period tS
(c) Just begins to become negative at t = 0
(d) Is negative peak at t = (tS + fall time)
Answer: B
[15] The SCR can be turned on by
(a) Applying anode voltage at a sufficiently fast rate
(b) Applying sufficiently large anode voltage
(c) Increasing the temperature of SCR to a sufficiently large value
(d) Applying sufficiently large gate current
OPTIONS:
1) A, B
2) C, D
3) B, C
4) A, B, C, D
Answer: 4
Solution Hint:
[2] VL= V[(Ton/(Ton+Toff)]
=V. f .Ton
There are two ways to vary VL. Either by varying f or Ton. Here f is
fixed and Ton is varied. As the frequency is kept constant ripple
remains constant.
[6] The PIV of diodes used in the full wave rectifier using two diodes is
2 times that of the four diode bridge rectifier
[7] RMS Current/ Average Current = Form Factor

164
[8] Idc = [Vm/2πR](1+cosα)
α = delay angle
[15] a= dv/dt triggering, b = forward voltage triggering, c=

temperature triggering, d = gate triggering. So all are correct

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Objective Type Questions on Power Electronics: Part-11
POWER ELECTRONICS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS: PART-

11
[1] In a SCR,
(a) Gate current is directly proportional to forward breakover voltage
(b) As gate current is raised, forward breakover voltage reduces
(c) Gate current has to be kept on continuously for conduction
(d) Forward breakover voltage is low in the forward blocking state.
Answer: B
[2] In a SCR, at switch on, there is a sudden increase of current, then
(a) The tolerance limit of di/dt varies from 3 to 30A/us
(b) di/dt upper limit is 3A/us
(c) di/dt rating can be increased by having an inductive load
(d) di/dt rating can be increased by a resistive load
(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b
Answer: 1
[3] The following PNPN device has a terminal for synchronising purpose
(a) SUS
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(b) DIAC
(c) TRIAC
(d) Schmitt trigger
Answer: A
[4] In single phase full wave controlled rectifier, maximum output voltage is
obtained at conduction angle....and minimum at conduction angle...
(a) 0°, 180°
(b) 180°, 0°
(c) 0°, 0°
(d) 180°, 180°
Answer: A
[5] A thyristor is triggered by a pulse train of 5kHz. The duty ratio is 0.4. If the
allowable average power is 100W the maximum allowable gate drive power is
(a) 100√2 W
(b) 50 W
(c) 150 W
(d) 250 W
Answer: D
[6] The consequence of introducing inductance in the load circuit of SCR is
(a) Anode current through SCR rises slowly
(b) Anode current reached is more than without it
(c) SCR has to be derated for anode current
(d) SCR's current rating can be raised
(1) a, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, d
Answer: 4
[7] When a SCR is in the forward blocking state,
(a) All the 3 junctions are reverse biased
(b) The anode and cathode junctions are forward biased but the gate junction is
reverse biased
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(c) The anode junction is forward biased but the cathode and gate junctions are
reverse biased
(d) The anode and gate junctions are forward biased but the cathode junction is
reverse biased
Answer: B
[8] When we need to drive a dc shunt motor at different speeds in both directions
( forward and reverse) and also to brake it in both the directions, which one of the
following would you use?
(a) A half-controlled SCR bridge
(b) A full controlled thyristor bridge
(c) A dual converter
(d) A diode bridge
Answer: C
[9] The frequency of the ripple present in the output voltage of the 3 phase half
controlled bridge rectifier depends on the
(a) Firing angle
(b) Load inductance
(c) Load resistance
(d) Supple frequency
Answer: D
[10] A fully controlled thyristor bridge drives a DC motor. The system is capable of
(a) Motoring and braking in both directions
(b) Only motoring in both directions, no braking
(c) Motoring in forward direction and braking in reverse direction
(d) Only motoring in forward direction, no braking
Answer: D
[11] Three-phase to three-phase cycloconverter employing 18 SCRs and 36
SCRs have the same voltage and current ratings for their component thyristors.
The ratio of VA rating of 36 SCR device to that of 18 SCR device is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
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Answer: C
[12] Three phase to three phase cycloconverter employing 18 SCRs are 36
SCRs have the same voltage and current ratings for their component thyristors.
The ratio of power handled by 36 SCR device to that handled by 18 SCR device
is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Answer: A
[13] The number of SCRs required for single phase to single phase
cycloconverter of the mid point type and for three phase to three phase type
cycloconverter are respectively
(a) 4, 6
(b) 8, 18
(c) 4, 18
(d) 4, 36
Answer: C
[14] For dynamic equalizing circuit used for series connected SCRs, the choice of
C is based on
(a) Reverse recovery characteristics
(b) Turn-on characteristics
(c) Turn-off characteristics
(d) Rise-time characteristics
OPTIONS:
1) A
2) B, C
3) D
4) A, B, C, D
Answer: 1
[15] The function of connecting zener diode in an UJT circuit, used for the
triggering of SCRs, is to
168
(a) Expedite the generation of triggering pulses

(b) Delay the generation of triggering pulses
(c) Provide a constant voltage to UJT to prevent erratic firing
(d) Provide a variable voltage to UJT as the source voltage changes.
OPTIONS:
1) B, C
2) C
3) A
4) D
Answer: 2
Solution Hint:
[4] When the conduction angle is 0, it will not suppress any part of the
input, whereas during 180 degree conduction angle, it will suppress
entire input waveform.
[5] PMAX >= Pavg/(f.TON)
Duty cycle D =TON/T = f.TON
PMAX >= Pavg/D =100/0.4 =250W
[7] When a SCR is in the forward blocking state, outer junctions (j1 &
j3) are forward biased and middle junction(j2) is reverse biased
[15] Remember that the use of zener diode in a circuit is to provide
voltage regulation ( constant voltage)
Power Electronics Part- 10 Objective Questions with Answers
POWER ELECTRONICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS: PART-10
1. SCR is the solid state equivalent of

(a) Transistor
(b) Thyratron
(c) Vacuum diode
(d) Crystal diode
Answer: B
2. With gate open, if the supply voltage exceeds the breakover voltage of SCR,
then SCR will conduct
(a) False
169
(b) True
(c) For DC
(d) For AC
Answer: B
3. The SCR is turned off when the anode current falls below
(a) Forward current rating
(b) Break over voltage
(c) Holding current
(d) Latching current
Answer: C
4. In a SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by changing
(a) Anode voltage
(b) Anode current
(c) Forward current rating
(d) Gate current
Answer: D
5. The normal way to close a SCR is by appropriate
(a) Gate current
(b) Cathode current
(c) Anode current
(d) Forward current
Answer: A
6. An SCR has ......PN junctions
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
Answer: C
7. If gate current is increased, the anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes
is.....
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
170
(c) Maximum
(d) Least
Answer: B
8. A conducting SCR can be opened by reducing ..... to zero
(a) Supply voltage
(b) Grid voltage
(c) Grid current
(d) Anode current
Answer: A
9. With gate open, a SCR can be turned-on by making supply voltage....
(a) Minimum
(b).Reverse
(c) Equal to cathode voltage
(d) Equal to breakover voltage
Answer: D
10. If firing angle in a SCR rectifier is increased, output is....
(a) Increased
(b) Maximum
(c) Decreased
(d) Unaffected
Answer: C
11. A SCR is a ...switch
(a) Two directional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Three directional
(d) Four directional
Answer: B
12. The anode of SCR is always maintained at........potential with respect to
cathode
(a) Positive
(b) Zero
(c) negative
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(d) Equipotential
Answer: A
13. IF the chopper switching frequency is 200Hz and Ton time is 2ms, the duty
cycle is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
Answer: A
14. Speed control of induction motor can be effected by varying
(a) Flux
(b) Voltage input to stator
(c) Keeping rotor coil open
Answer: B
15. In a Dc motor if the field coil gets opened, the speed of the motor will
(a) Decrease
(b) Come to stop
(c) Increase
Answer: C
Solution Hint:
[11] SCR will conduct in one direction only. So it act as
a unidirectional switch.
[13] T=1/f, D = TON/T

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Power Electronics Part- 10 Objective Questions with Answers
POWER ELECTRONICS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS: PART-10
1. SCR is the solid state equivalent of

(a) Transistor
(b) Thyratron
(c) Vacuum diode
(d) Crystal diode
Answer: B
2. With gate open, if the supply voltage exceeds the breakover voltage of
SCR, then SCR will conduct
(a) False
(b) True
(c) For DC
(d) For AC
Answer: B
3. The SCR is turned off when the anode current falls below
(a) Forward current rating
(b) Break over voltage
(c) Holding current
(d) Latching current
Answer: C
4. In a SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by changing
(a) Anode voltage
(b) Anode current
(c) Forward current rating
(d) Gate current
Answer: D
5. The normal way to close a SCR is by appropriate
(a) Gate current
(b) Cathode current
(c) Anode current
(d) Forward current
173
Answer: A
6. An SCR has ......PN junctions
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
Answer: C
7. If gate current is increased, the anode-cathode voltage at which SCR
closes is.....
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Maximum
(d) Least
Answer: B
8. A conducting SCR can be opened by reducing ..... to zero
(a) Supply voltage
(b) Grid voltage
(c) Grid current
(d) Anode current
Answer: A
9. With gate open, a SCR can be turned-on by making supply voltage....
(a) Minimum
(b).Reverse
(c) Equal to cathode voltage
(d) Equal to breakover voltage
Answer: D
10. If firing angle in a SCR rectifier is increased, output is....
(a) Increased
(b) Maximum
(c) Decreased
(d) Unaffected
174
Answer: C
11. A SCR is a ...switch
(a) Two directional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Three directional
(d) Four directional
Answer: B
12. The anode of SCR is always maintained at........potential with respect
to cathode
(a) Positive
(b) Zero
(c) negative
(d) Equipotential
Answer: A
13. IF the chopper switching frequency is 200Hz and Ton time is 2ms, the
duty cycle is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
Answer: A
14. Speed control of induction motor can be effected by varying
(a) Flux
(b) Voltage input to stator
(c) Keeping rotor coil open
Answer: B
15. In a Dc motor if the field coil gets opened, the speed of the motor will
(a) Decrease
(b) Come to stop
(c) Increase
175
Answer: C
Solution Hint:
[11] SCR will conduct in one direction only. So it act as
a unidirectional switch.
[13] T=1/f, D = TON/T
ower Electronics: Part-8 Solved Objective Questions
POWER ELECTRONICS SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ASKED IN

COMPETITIVE EXAMS(GATE, IES)
[1] An SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because [GATE 2009]
(a) It can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse
(b) It conducts only during one half-cycle of an alternating current wave
(c) It can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse
(d) It can be turned ON only during one half-cycle of an alternating voltage wave
Ans:C
Answer
[2] The current Source Inverter shown in figure is operated by alternatively

turning on thyristor pairs(T1,T2) and (T3,T4). If the load is purely resistive, the
theoretical maximum output frequency obtainable will be [GATE]
176
(a) 125kHz
(b) 250kHz
(c) 500kHz
(d) 50kHz
Ans: C
Answer
[3] In the chopper circuit shown, the main thyristor(T M) is operated at a duty ratio
of 0.8 which is much larger the communication interval. If the maximum allowable
reapplied dv/dt on TM is 50V/μs,what should be the theoretical minimum value of
C1? Assume current ripple through L0 to be negligible. [GATE]
(a) 0.2μF
(b) 0.02μF
(c) 2μF
(d) 20μF
Ans: A
Answer
177
[4] Match the switch arrangements on the top row to the steady-state V-I
characteristics on the lower row.The steady state operating points are shown by
large black dots. [GATE]
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Ans: C
Answer
[5] " Six MOSFETs connected in a bridge configuration (having no other power
device) MUST be operated as a Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) ". This statement
is [GATE 2007]
(a) True, because being majority carrier devices, MOSFETs are voltage driven
(b) True, because MOSFETs have inherently anti parallel diodes
(c) False, because it can be operated both as current source Inverter (CSI) or a
VSI
(d) False, because MOSFETs can be operated as excellent constant current

sources in the saturation region
Ans:D
Answer
178
[6] A single phase full - wave half controlled bridge converter feeds an inductive
load. The two SCRs in the converter are connected to a common DC bus. The
converter has to have a free wheeling diode [GATE 2007]
(a) Because the converter inherently does not provide for free wheeling
(b) Because the converter does not provide for free wheeling for high values of
triggering angles
(c) Or else the free wheeling action of the converter will cause shorting of the AC
supply
(d) Or else if a gate pulse to one of the SCRs is missed, it will subsequently
cause a high load current in the other SCR
Ans:B
Answer
[7] A single phase fully controlled thyristor bridge ac-dc converter is operating at a
firing angle of 25 degree, and an overlap angle 10 degree with constant dc output
current of 20A. The fundamental power factor ( displacement factor) at input ac
mains is [GATE 2007]
(a) 0.78
(b) 0.827
(c) 0.866
(d) 0.9
Ans: A
Answer
[8] A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line
commutated inverter to feed 50KW power at 420V DC to a three phase
415V(line), 50Hz as mains. Consider DC link current to be constant. The RMS
current of the thyristor is [GATE 2007]
(a) 119.05A
(b) 79.37A
(c) 68.73A
(d) 39.68A
179
Ans: D
Answer
Statement for Linked Answer Questions:9 & 10 [GATE2012]
The transfer function of a compensator is given as GC(s)=[(s+a)/(s+b)]
[9] GC(s) is a lead compensator if

(a) a=1, b=2
(b) a=3, b=2
(c) a=-3, b=-1
(d) a=3, b=1
Ans: A
Answer
[10] The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at
(a) √2 rad/s
(b) √3 rad/s
(c) √6 rad/s
(d) √1/3 rad/s
Ans: A
Answer
[11] A three phase to single phase conversion device employs a 6 pulse bridge
cycloconverter. For an input voltage of 200V/phase, the fundamental rms value of
output voltage is
(a) 600/π V
(b) 300√3/π V
(c) 300/π V
(d) 600√3 /π V
180
Ans: A
Answer
[12] A three phase to single phase cycloconverter consists of positive and
negative group of converters. In this device one of the two component converters
would operate as a
(a) Rectifier if the output voltage VO and output current IO have the same polarity
(b) Inverter if VO and IO have the same polarity
(c) Rectifier if VO and IO are of opposite polarity
(d) Inverter if VO and IO are of opposite polarity
Options:
1) A, D
2) A
3) D
4) C, D
Ans: 1
Answer
[13] A 3 phase to 3 phase cycloconverter requires
(a) 18 SCRs for 3-pulse device
(b) 18 SCRs for 6-pulse device
(c) 36 SCRs for 3-pulse device
(d) 36 SCRs for 6-pulse device
Options:
1) A
2) A, D
3) B, D
4) D
Ans: 2
Answer
[14] Which of the following statements are correct for cycloconverter?
(a) Step down cycloconverter works on natural commutation
(b) Step up cycloconverter requires forced commutation
(c) Load commutated cycloconverter works on line commutation
(d) Load commutated cycloconverter requires a generated emf in the load circuit.
Options:
1) B, D
2) A, B, C
181
3) B, C
4)A, B, D
Ans:4
Answer
[15] The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate-cathode circuit and
a zener diode across gate-cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate
circuit from
(a) Over voltages, over currents
(b) Over currents, over voltages
(c) Over currents, noise signals
(d) Noise signals, over voltages
Ans: B
Answer
Power Electronic Circuits: Part-7 Solved Objective Questions
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM POWER ELECTRONICS CIRCUITS
[1] Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET
increases
A. The mobility decreases
B. The transconductance increases
C. The drain current increases
Ans: A
Answer
[2] The ripple frequency from a full wave rectifier is
A. Twice that from a half wave circuit
B. The same as that from a half wave circuit
C. Half that from a half wave circuit
D. 1/4 that from a half wave circuit
Ans:A
Answer
[3] In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes,Vdc & Vm are the dc & peak
values of the voltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the peak
182
inverse voltage of the diode,then the appropriate relationships for the rectifier is
A. Vdc=Vm/π,PIV=2Vm
B. Vdc=2Vm/π,PIV=2Vm
C. Vdc=2Vm/π,PIV=Vm
D. Vdc=Vm/π,PIV=Vm
Ans:B
Answer
[4] The output of a rectifier circuit without filter is

A. 50 Hz AC
B. Smooth DC
C. Pulsating DC
D. 60 hz AC
Ans: C
Answer
[5] An advantage of full wave bridge rectification is
A. It uses the whole transformer secondary for the entire ac input cycle
B. It costs less than other rectifier types
C. It cuts off half of the ac wave cycle
D. It never needs a filter
Ans: A
Answer
[6] The best rectifier circuit for the power supply designed to provide high power
at low voltage is
A. Half wave arrangement
B. Full wave, center tap arrangement
C. Quarter wave arrangement
D. Voltage doubler arrangement
Ans: B
Answer
[7] If a half wave rectifier is used with 165Vpk AC input, the effective dc output
voltage is
A. Considerably less than 165V
B. Slightly less than 165V
183
C. Exactly 165V
D. Slightly more than 165V
Ans:A
Answer
[8] If a full wave bridge circuit is used with a transformer whose secondary
provides 50Vrms, the peak voltage that occurs across the diodes in the reverse
direction is approximately
A. 50 Vpk
B. 70 Vpk
C. 100 Vpk
D. 140 Vpk
Ans: B
Answer
[9] The main disadvantage of voltage doubler power supply circuit is
A. Excessive current
B. Excessive voltage
C. Insufficient rectification
D. Poor regulation under heavy loads
Ans: D
Answer
[10] A source follower using an FET usually has a voltage gain which is
A. Greater than +100
B. Slightly less than unity but positive
C. Exactly unity but negative
D. About -10
Ans: A
Answer
[11] A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is used for protecting

(a) Gate circuit against overcurrents
(b) Gate circuit against overvoltages
(c) Anode circuit against overcurrents
(d) Anode circuit against overvoltages
OPTIONS:
184
1) A
2) A, B
3) C, D
4) D
Ans: 4
Answer
[12] In a dual converter, the circulating current [Gate 1997]
(a) Allows smooth reversal of load current, but increases the response time
(b) Does not allow smooth reversal of load current, but reduces the response
time
(c) Allows smooth reversal of load current with improved speed of load response
(d) Follows only if there is no interconnecting inductor
Ans: C
Answer
[13] The snubber circuit connected across an SCR is to
(a) Suppress dv/dt
(b) Increase dv/dt
(c) Decrease dv/dt
(d) Keep transient overvoltage at a constant value
Ans: A
Answer
[14] The object of connecting resistance and capacitance across gate circuit is to
protect the SCR gate against
(a) Overvoltages
(b) dv/dt
(c) Noise signals
(d) Over currents
Ans: C
Answer

185
date=false#ixzz3LBw1GqIG
Power Semiconductors Solved Objective Questions: Part-I
[1] Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Thyristor is current driven device
2. GTO is current driven device
3. GTR is current driven device
4. SCR is a pulse triggered device
(a) 1 and 2
(b)1, 2, 3
(c) All
(d) 4 only
Ans:C
Answer
1. GTO is a pulse triggered device

2. MOSFET is uni-polar device
3. SCR is a bipolar device
4. Continuous gate signal is not required to maintain the SCR to be in ON state
(a) 1, 2, 4 only
(b) 1, 2 only
(c) 4 only
(d) All
Ans: D
Answer
[3] Which of the following is not a fully controlled semiconductor device?
186
(a) MOSFET
(b) IGBT
(c) IGCT
(d) SCR
Ans: D . Only turn on of the SCR can be controlled whereas in other

devices we can control both turn on and turn off
Answer
[4] Which of the following is not associated with p-n junction
(a) Junction capacitance
(b) Charge storage capacitance
(c) Depletion capacitance
(d) Channel length modulation
Ans: D
Answer
[5] In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is
maximum at
(a) The edge of the depletion region on the P-side
(b) The edge of the depletion region on the N-side
(c) The P-N junction
(d) The center of the depletion region on the N-side
Ans: C
Answer
[6] An n-channel JFET has IDSS=2mA, and Vp=-4V. Its transconductance gm=(in
mA/V) for an applied gate to source voltage VGS=-2V is
187
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.75
(d) 1
Ans: B
Answer
[7] The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to
(a) Resistor
(b) Inductor
(c) Capacitor
(d) Battery
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases with
increase in
(a) Gate voltage
(b) Drain voltage
(c) Source voltage
(d) Body voltage
Ans:B
Answer
[9] The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by
(a) Fast turn - on
(b) Fast turn - off
(c) Large collector - base reverse bias
(d) Large emmiter - base forward bias
Ans: C
188
Answer
[10] MOSFET can be used as a
(a) Current controlled capacitor
(b) Voltage controlled capacitor
(c) Current controlled inductor
(d) Voltage controlled inductors
Ans: B
Answer
[11] The number of PN junctions in a SCR is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: C
Answer
[12] In the SCR, when the anode terminal is positive with respect to cathode
terminal, the number of blocked PN junctions is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: A
Answer
[13] In the SCR, when the cathode terminal is positive with respect to anode
terminal, the number of blocked PN junctions is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: B
Answer
[14] In the SCR, the anode current is made up of
(a) Electrons only
(b) Electrons or holes
189
(c) Electrons and holes

(d) Holes only
Ans:C
Answer
[15] When the SCR is triggered, it will change from forward blocking state to
conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to
(a) Peak repetitive off-state forward voltage
(b) Peak working off-state forward voltage
(c) Peak working off-state reverse voltage
(d) Peak non-repetitive off-state forward voltage
Ans: B
Answer

date=false#ixzz3LBwHii38
[1]which of the following statements are true about VI characteristic of SCR?

A. Holding current is more than Latching current
B. SCR will trigger if the applied voltage exceeds forward break over voltage
C. SCR can be triggered without gate current
D. When the SCR is in reverse biased, small leakage current will flow
Options:
a. A, B and C
b. All are true
c. B, C, D
d. C, D
Ans:C
Answer
[2] which of the following statements are true about BJT?
(i) It has more power handling capability than MOSFET
(ii) Has higher switching speed than IGBT and MOSFET
(iii) Has low on state conduction resistance
190
(iv) Has second breakdown voltage problem

Options:
a. All are true
b. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
Answer
[3] For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain
current
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. First decreases and then increases
Ans:C
Answer
[4] n-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because
a. They have higher input impedance
b. They have high switching time
c. They consume less power
d. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
Ans: D
Answer
[5] Which of the following is true about the diodes
a. During forward biased small amount of voltage drop will appear across anode
and cathode
b. If the reverse voltage exceed VRRM the diode will destroy
c. trr is depends on softness factor
d. schottky diodes have low trr
Options:
(i) All are true
(ii) A, B, D
(iii) A, B,C
(iv) B,C, D
191
Ans: (iii)
Answer
The feature of schottky diode is low forward voltage drop, not low trr.
[6] The MOSFET has

(i) Higher Power handling capability than BJT
(ii) Faster switching speed than BJT
(iii) High on state resistance
(iv) Secondary breakdown voltage problem
which of the above statements are incorrect?
Options:
a. (i), (iii), (iv)
b. (ii), (iii)
c. All of the above
d. (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans:A
Answer
[7] Which of the following is called as uncontrolled semiconductor device?
a. Diode
b. Thyristor
c. GTO
d. MOSFET
Ans: A
Answer
[8] Which of the following is a half controlled semiconductor device?
a. MOSFET
b. GTO
c. MCT
d. SCR
Ans:D
Answer
In SCR only turn on of the device an be controllable by the gate signal.

192
[9]Which of the following abbreviation is not a power semiconductor device?
a. SIT
b. SITH
c. MCT
d. IGCT
Options:
1. a and d
2. a only
3. a, b, d
4. All are power semiconductor device
Ans: 4
Answer
SIT – Static Induction Transistor
SITH – Static Induction Thyristor
MCT - MOS Controlled Thyristor
IGCT – Integrated Gate Commutated Thyristor
a. IGBT is current driven device
b. IGCT is voltage driven device
c. MOSFET is voltage driven device
d. GTO is minority carrier device
Options:
193
1. a, b, c
2. b, c, d
3. All are correct
4. None are correct
Ans: 2
Answer

date=false#ixzz3LBwVBJWm
Power Electronics Solved Objective Problems
[1] A 240V, 50Hz supply feeds a highly inductive load of 50 Ohm resistance through a
half controlled thyristor bridge. When the firing angle α=45°, the load power is
a) 418 W
b) 512 W
c) 367 W
d) 128 W
Ans:B
Answer
Exp: Vav = (Vm/π) (1 + cosα) = [(√2*240)/(π) ) ( 1 + cos45)] = 184.4 V
Iav = Vav / R = 184.4/50 =3.69A
= 3.69 * √[(180 -45)/180]

= 3.2A
P = 3.2 * 3.2 *50 = 512 W
........................................................................................................................................
[2] A d.c. to d.c. chopper operates from a 48 V battery source into a resistive load of
24Ohm. The frequency of the chopper is set to 250Hz. When chopper on-time is 1 ms
the load power is
194
a) 6W
b) 12W
c) 24W
d) 48W
Ans:C
Answer
Exp: Vavg = V* f * Ton = 48 x 250 x (10 - 3) = 12V

Iav = Vav/R = 12/24 = 0.5A
Vrms= V* Square root (Ton) * f = 48 * Square root (0.25) = 24V
Irms = Vrms/R = 24/24 = 1A
P = Irms * Irms * R = 1 * 24 = 24W
..............................................................................................................................
[3] A thyristor half wave controlled converter has a supply voltage of 240V at 50Hz and a
load resistance of 100 Ohm. when the firing delay angle is 30 the average value of load
current is
a) 126A
b) 2.4A
c) 126mA
d) 24 A
Ans:C
Answer
Exp:We know the output wave form of the half wave rectifier For any delay angle alpha,
the average load voltage is given by
solving,
195
substituting the values in the above equation,
Vav = (√2*240) / (2π) * [ 1 + cos30 ] = 100.8 V
Iav = Vav/R = 100.8/100 = 126 mA
....................................................................................................................................
[4] A full-wave fully controlled bridge has a highly inductive load with a resistance of 55
Ohm, and a supply of 110V at 50Hz. The value of load power for a firing angle α=75° is
a) 10W
b) 11W
c) 10.5W
d) 10.9W
Answer : D
Exp:
Vav = [2Vm/(π)]cosα]
= [(2 *√(2*110)/ 3.14 ] * cos 75
= 99 cos 75
= 25.6V
Iav = Vav / R
= 25.6/55
196
= 0.446A = Irms
P = Irms * Irms * R
= 0.446 * 0.446 * 55
=10.9W
...................................................................................................................................
[5] A d.c. to d.c. chopper operates from a 48 V source with a resistive load of 24Ohm.
The chopper frequency is 250Hz. When Ton= 3 ms, the rms current is
a) 1.5A
b) 15mA
c) 1.73A
d) 173mA
Ans:C
Answer
Exp: Vav = V *f * Ton = 48 * 250 * 3 *(10 - 3) = 36V

Iav = Vav/R = 36/24 = 1.5 A
Vrms = V* Square root (Ton) * f = 48 * √0.75 = 41.6V
Irms = Vrms/R = 41.6/24 = 1.73A
.......................................................................................................................................
[6] A 240V, 50Hz supply feeds a highly inductive load of 50 Ohm resistance through a
thyristor full control bridge. when the firing angle α= 45°, load power is
a) 456 W
b) 466 W
c) 732 W
d) 120 W
Ans:B
Answer
Exp: Vav = (2Vm/π) * cosα = [(2 * 339)/3.14] cos 45 = 152.6V
197
Iav = Vav/R = 152.6 / 50 = 3.05A = Irms

P = Square of Irms * R = 3.04 * 3.04 * 50 = 466W

date=false#ixzz3LBwg5Ac8
Power Electronics Objective Questions with Answers: Part-3
[1] The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse
biased condition is called
(a) Avalanche breakdown
(b) Zener breakdown
(c) Breakdown by tunneling
(d) High voltage breakdown
Ans: A
Answer
[2] For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behave as
(a) Voltage controlled resistor
(b) Current controlled current source
(c) Voltage controlled current source
(d) Current controlled resistor
Ans: C
Answer
[3] In a full wave rectifier without filter, the ripple factor is
(a) 0.482
(b) 1.21
(c) 1.79
(d) 2.05
Ans:A
Answer
[4] Space charge region around a P-N junction
a. Does not contain mobile carries
198
b. Contains both free electrons and holes

c. Contains one type of mobile carriers depending on the level of doping of the P
or N regions
d. Contains electrons only as free carriers
Ans: A
Answer
[5] In a JFET, at pinch-off voltage applied on the gate
a. The drain current becomes almost zero
b. The drain current begins to decrease
c. The drain current is almost at saturation value
d. The drain to source voltage is close to zero volts
Ans: C
Answer
[6] The value of ripple factor of a half wave rectifier without filter is approximately
a. 1.2
b. 0.2
c. 2.2
d. 2.0
Ans:A
Answer
[7] In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi-level is
a. Closer to the valence band
b. Midway between conduction and valence band
c. Closer to the conduction band
d. Within the valence band
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The transformer utilization factor of a half wave rectifier is approximately
a. 0.6
b. 0.3
c. 0.9
199
d. 1.1
Ans:B
Answer
[9] Transistor is a
a. Current controlled current device
b. Current controlled voltage device
c. Voltage controlled current device
d. Voltage controlled voltage device
Ans: A
Answer
For ex, the output current Ic depends on the input current Ib
[10] If the output voltage of a bridge rectifier is 100V, the PIV of diode will be
a. 100√2 V
b. 200/π V
c. 100π V
d. 100/2 V
Ans: D
Answer
Peak Inverse Voltage = Max Secondary Voltage = Vdc= 2Vm/π = 100
Vm = 100π/2
[11] The thyristor can be brought to forward conducting state with gate-circuit
open when the applied voltage exceeds
(a) The forward breakover voltage
(b) Reverse breakdown voltage
(c) 1.5V
(d) Peak non-repetitive off-state voltage
Ans: A
Answer
[12] In a SCR, the holding current is
(a) More than latching current
(b) Less than latching current
200
(c) Equal to latching current

(d) Very small
Ans: B
Answer
[13] When a SCR gets turned on, the gate drive
(a) Should not be removed as it will turn off the SCR
(b) May or may not be removed
(c) Should be removed
(d) Should be removed in order to avoid increased losses and higher junction
temperature.
Ans:D
Answer
[14] For the normal SCR, the turn on time is
(a) Less than turn-off time
(b) More than turn-off time
(c) Equal to turn-off time
(d) Half of turn-off time
Ans: A
Answer
[15] The forward voltage drop during SCR ON state is 1.5V. This voltage drop
(a) Remains constant and is independent of load current
(b) Increases slightly with load current
(c) Decrease slightly with load current
(d) Varies linearly with load current
Ans: B
Answer

date=false#ixzz3LBwsFF6t
201
Power Electronics Competitive Questions with Answers: Part 2
[1] The average output voltage(Vdc) of the full wave diode bridge rectifier is
(a) Vm/2
(b) 2Vm/π
(c) 3Vm/π
(d) 4Vm/π
Ans: B
Answer
[2] The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20A thyristor is [GATE
-2011]
(a) 5.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: B
Answer
[3] A half controlled single phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated
at a firing angle (alpha) and load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the
freewheeling diode conducts is [GATE -2011]
(a) 1/2
(b) [1-( α/π)]
(c) α/2π
(d) α/π
Ans: D
Answer
Common Data for Questions [4] & [5]

In the 3 phase inverter circuit shown, the load is balanced and the gating scheme is 180
degree conduction mode. All the switching devices are ideal , Vd = 300V
202
[4] The rms value of load phase voltage is [GATE -2011]

(a) 106.1V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 212.2 V
(d) 282.8V
Ans: B
Answer
Hint: VL = √(2/3) * Vs
[5] If the dc bus voltage Vd = 300v, the power consumed by 3 phase load is [GATE -2011]
(a) 1.5kW
(b) 2.0 kW
(c) 2.5 kW
(d) 3.0 kW
Ans:D
Answer
Hint: P = 3 * [(Vph * Vph)/Rph]
Common Data for Question 6 & 7:
10V Pulse Transformer (PT) is used to trigger the SCR in the adjacent figure. The SCR is
rated at 1.5KV, 250A with IL=250mA, IH=150mA, and IGmax= 150mA, IGmin=100mA.
The SCR is connected to an inductive load, where L=150mH in series with a small
resistance and the supply voltage is 200V dc. The forward drops of all transistors/ diodes
and gate- cathode junction during ON state are 1.0V.
203
[6] The resistance R should be
(a) 4.7K Ohm
(b) 470 Ohm
(c) 47 Ohm
(d) 4.7 Ohm
Ans:C
Answer
[7] The minimum approximate volt-second rating of the pulse transformer suitable for
triggering the SCR should be: ( volt-second rating is the maximum of product of the
voltage and the width of the pulse that may be applied
(a) 2000 μV-s
(b) 200 μV-s
(c) 20 μV-s
(d) 2.0 μV-s
Ans: A
Answer
[8] For an SCR with turn-on time of 5 μS, an ideal trigger pulse should have
(a) Short rise time with pulse width = 3 μS
(b) Long rise time with pulse width = 6 μS

204
(c) Short rise time with pulse width = 6 μS
(d) Long rise time with pulse width = 3μS
Ans: C
Answer
[9] Turn-on time for an SCRs is 10μS. If an inductance is inserted in the anode
circuit, then the turn on time will be
(a) 10μS
(b) less than 10μS
(c) More than 10μS
(d) About 10μS
Ans: C
Answer
[10] On-state voltage drop across a thyristor used in a 250V supply system is of
the order of
(a) 100 - 110V
(b) 240 - 250V
(c) 1 - 1.5V
(d) 0.5 - 1V
Ans: C
Answer
[11] In a SCR, ratio of latching current to holding current is
(a) 0.4
(b) 1.0
205
(c) 2.5
(d) 6.0
Ans: C
Answer

date=false#ixzz3LBx68OPC
[1] " Six MOSFETs connected in a bridge configuration (having no other power device)
MUST be operated as a Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) ". This statement is [GATE-
2007]
A. True, because being majority carrier devices, MOSFETs are voltage driven
B. True, because MOSFETs have inherently anti parallel diodes
C. False, because it can be operated both as current source Inverter (CSI) or a VSI
D. False, because MOSFETs can be operated as excellent constant current sources in the
saturation region
Ans: D
Answer
[2] A single phase full - wave half controlled bridge converter feeds an inductive load.
The two SCRs in the converter are connected to a common DC bus. The converter has to
have a free wheeling diode [GATE-2007]
A. because the converter inherently does not provide for free wheeling
B. Because the converter does not provide for free wheeling for high values of triggering
angles
C. Or else the free wheeling action of the converter will cause shorting of the AC supply
D. Or else if a gate pulse to one of the SCRs is missed, it will subsequently cause a high
load current in the other SCR
206
Ans: B
Answer
[3] The power electronic converter shown in the figure has a single pole double throw
switch. the pole P of the switch is connected alternately to throws A and B. The
converter shown is a [GATE-2010]
A. Step down chopper( buck converter)

B. Half- wave rectifier
C. Step Up chopper ( boost converter)
D. Full wave converter
Ans: A
Answer
[4] Figure shows a composite switch consisting of a power transistor (BJT) in series with
a diode. Assuming that the transistor switch and the diode are ideal, the I-V
characteristic of the composite switch is [GATE-2010]
207
Ans: C
Answer
[5] The fully controlled thyristor converter in the figure is fed from a single-phase source.
When the firing angle is 0°, the dc output voltage of the converter is 300 V. What will be
the output voltage for a firing angle of 60°, assuming continuous conduction? [GATE-
2010]
(A) 150V
(B) 210V
(C) 300V
(D) 100πV
Ans: A
Answer
[6] The manufacturer of a selected diode gives the rate of fall of the diode current di/dt
= 20 A/ms, and a reverse recovery time of trr =5 ms. What is value of peak reverse
current?
Ans: 44.72A
The peak reverse current is given as:
208
The storage charge QRR is calculated as Qrr = (1/2)*(di/dt)* SQU.(trr)

= 1/2 X 20A/uS X 5u X 5u = 50uC.
substitute the Qrr value in Irr equation.
[7] A three phase current source inverter used for the speed control of an induction
motor is to be realized using MOSFET switches as shown below. Switches S1 to S6 are
identical switches [GATE2011]
The proper configuration for realizing switches S1 to S6 is
Ans: C
Answer
[8] Circuit turn-off time of an SCR is defined as the time [GATE2011]

A. Taken by the SCR to turn off
B. Required for SCR current to become zero

209
C. For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
D. For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding current
Ans: C
Answer
[9] A single phase fully controlled thyristor bridge ac-dc converter is operating at a firing
angle of 25 degree, and an overlap angle 10 degree with constant dc output current of
20A. The fundamental power factor ( displacement factor) at input ac mains is
[GATE2007]
A. 0.78
B. 0.827
C. 0.866
D. 0.9
Ans:A
Answer
[10] A three phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line commutated
inverter to feed 50 KW power at 420 V DC to a three phase 415V(line), 50Hz as mains.
Consider Dc link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
[GATE2007]
A. 119.05A
B. 79.37A
C. 68.73A
D. 39.68A
Ans:D
Answer
210
TRANSFORMERS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] High frequency transformers sometimes make use of ferrite cores because it has
A. High specific gravity
B. High resistance
C. High hysteresis
D. low permeability
Ans:B
Answer
[2] Harmonics in transformer result in
A. Increased core losses
B. Increased I2R losses
C. Magnetic interference with communication circuits
D. All of the above
Ans:D
Answer
[3] The full load copper loss of a transformer is 1600W. At half-load the copper loss will
be
A. 6400W
B. 1600W
C. 800W
D. 400W
211
Ans:D
Answer
[4] Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
A. No load
B. Half load
C. Near full load
D. 10% overload
Ans: C
Answer
[5] Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance which results
A. Short-circuiting of the secondaries
B. Power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging
C. Transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
D. Loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings.
Ans:D
Answer
[6] The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of
atmospeheric temperature during day and night is taken care of by which part of
transformer?
A. Conservator
B. Breather
212
C. Bushings
D. Buchholz relay
Ans:A
Answer
[7] The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
A. Mica strip
B. Thin coat of varnish
C. Paper
D. Any of the above
Ans:B
Answer
[8] Which type of winding is used in 3 phase shell type transformer?
A. Circular type
B. Sandwich type
C. Cylindrical type
D. Rectangular type
Ans: B
Answer
[9] During open circuit test of a transformer
A. Primary is supplied rated voltage
B. Primary is supplied full load current

213
C. Primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
D. Primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: A
Answer
[10] Which of the following is not standard voltage for power supply in India
A. 11kV
B. 33kV
C. 66 kV
D. 122 kV
Ans: D
Answer
[11] The low voltage winding of a 400/230 volt, 1-phase, 50Hz transformer is to be
connected to a 25Hz supply in order to keep the magnetization current at the same level
as that for normal 50Hz supply at 25Hz the voltage should be [Gate 1997]
a) 230V
b) 460V
c) 115V
d) 65V
Ans: C
Answer
[12] The primary current in the current transformer is dictated by [Gate 1997]
a) The secondary burden
b) The core of the transformer

214
c) The load current
d) None of the above
Ans:A
Answer
Read more: http://electricalobjectivequestion.blogspot.com/search/label/Transformers?max-

results=1#ixzz3LBxjEGsj
[1] The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a transformers

depends on
A. Tightness of clamping
B. Gauge of laminations
C. Size of laminations
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Answer
[2] The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually........percent of the full-load
current?
A. 0.2 to 0.5 %
B. 2 to 5%
C. 12 to 15 %
D. 20 to 30 %
Ans:B
Answer
[3] The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be
A. 1kV
B. 33kV
C. 100kV
D. 330 kV
215
Ans: B
Answer
[4] During the short-circuit test on a small transformer the frequency is increased from
50-200Hz. The copper losses will increase by a factor of
A. 16
B. 4
C. 1
D. 1/4
Ans:A
Answer
[5] No-load current in a transformer
A. Lags behind the voltage by about 75 deg
B. Leads the voltage by about 75
C. Lags behind the voltage by about 15
D. Leads the voltage by about 15
Ans:A
Answer
[6] While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short
circuited
A. High voltage side
B. Low voltage side
C. Primary side
D. Secondary side
Ans: B
Answer
[7] The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
A. Ionizing air
B. Absorbing moisture
C. Cleansing the transformer oil
D. Cooling the transformer oil
Ans:B
216
Answer
[8] If a pump motor is run on 2/3rd of its supply voltage, it will
A. Continue to deliver same power
B. Burn
C. Stall
D. Continue to run at lower speed
Ans:C
Answer
[9] An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The
statement is
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Answer
[10] The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic force, is termed
as
A. Magnetostriction
B. Boo
C. Hum
D. Zoom
Ans:C
Answer
Read more: http://electricalobjectivequestion.blogspot.com/search/label/Transformers?

updated-max=2013-08-17T22:26:00-07:00&max-results=1&start=1&by-
date=false#ixzz3LBxuQOB0
[1] During light loads, the transformer efficiency is low because
A. Secondary output is low

B. Transformer losses are high
217
C. Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output

D. Cu loss is small
Ans: C
Answer
[2] The open circuit test is carried out in a transformer to find the
A. Cu loss
B. Core loss
C. Total loss
D. Insulation resistance
Ans: B
Answer
[3] The equivalent resistance of the primary of the transformer having K = 5, R1 = 0.1
ohm when referred to secondary becomes .....ohm
A. 0.5
B. 0.02
C. 0.004
D. 2.5
Ans:D
Answer
[4] A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Leading
D. Lagging
Ans: C
Answer
218
[5] A transformer has 1000 primary turns, connected to 250V ac supply. To get 400V
secondary voltage the no of secondary turns should be
A. 1600
B. 250
C. 400
D. 1250
Ans: A
Answer
[6] The iron loss of the transformer is negligible during short circuit test because
A. The entire input is just sufficient to meet Cu losses only
B. Flux produced is a small fraction of the normal flux
C. Iron core becomes fully saturated
D. Supply frequency is held constant
Ans: B
Answer
[7] In operating a 400hz transformer at 50Hz

A. Only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
B. Only KVA rating is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
C. Both voltage and KVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as frequency
Ans: B
Answer
[8] When a 400Hz transformer is operated at 50Hz its KVA rating is

A. Reduced to 1/8
B. Increased 8 times
219
C. Unaffected
D. Increased 64 times
Ans: A
Answer
[9] Which of the following does not change in a transformer?

A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. All of the above
Ans: C
Answer
[10] In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is

A. Zero
B. 1Ω
C. 1000 Ω
D. Infinite
Ans:D
Answer
Transformers Solved Objective Questions: Part-6
TRANSFORMERS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
[1] A transformer core is laminated to

A. Reduce hysteresis loss
B. Reduce eddy current losses
C. Reduce copper losses
D. Reduce all above losses
Ans: B
Answer
[2] While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short-
220
circuited
A. High voltage side
B. Low voltage side
C. Primary side
D. Secondary side
Ans:B
Answer
[3] Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
A. 90% load
B. Zero load
C. 25% load
D. 50% load
Ans: D
Answer
[4] A transformer oil must be free from
A. Sludge
B. Odour
C. Gases
D. Moisture
Ans:D
Answer
[5] The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
A. Reduces weight per KVA
B. Reduces iron losses
C. Reduces copper losses
D. Increases part load efficiency
Ans:A
Answer
[6] In a transformer the toppings are generally provided on
A. Primary side
B. Secondary side
221
C. Low voltage side

D. High voltage side
Ans: C
Answer
[7] Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?
A. Conservator
B. Breather
C. Buchholz relay
D. Exciter
Ans:D
Answer
[8] The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have
A. High resistance
B. High reluctance
C. Low resistance
D. Low reluctance
Ans:D
Answer
[9] In case there are burrs on the edges of the laminations of the transformer, it is likely
to result in
A. Vibrations
B. Noise
C. Higher eddy currents loss
D. Higher hysteresis loss
Ans: C
Answer
[10] Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces
a. Hysteresis loss
b. Eddy current losses
c. Copper loss
d. All of the above
222
Ans: A
Answer
TRANSFORMERS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
[1] In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary?

A. Through cooling coil
B. Through air
C. By the flux
Ans: C
Answer
[2] Which loss is not common between a transformer and rotating machines?
A. Eddy current loss
B. Copper loss
C. Windage loss
D. Hysteresis loss
Ans: A
Answer
Note: Refer comments for explanation.
[3] No load test on a transformer is carried out to find
A. Copper loss
B. Magnetising current
C. Magnetising current and loss
D. Efficiency of the transformer
Ans:C
Answer
[4] Sumpner's test is conducted on transformers to find
A. Temperature
B. Stray losses
223
C. All-day efficiency
Ans: A
Answer
[5] The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
A. Copper losses = hysteresis losses
B. Hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
C. Eddy current losses = copper losses
D. Copper losses = iron losses
Ans: D
Answer
[6] The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to
A. Provide support to windings
B. Reduce hysteresis loss
C. Decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
D. Reduce eddy current losses
Ans: C
Answer
[7] The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is
A. 33kV
B. 66kV
C. 132kV
D. 400kV
Ans:D
Answer
[8] The function of conservator in a transformer is
A. To protect against internal fault
B. To reduce copper as well as core losses
C. To cool the transformer oil
D. To take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of
temperature of surroundings
224
Ans: D
Answer
[9] The core used in high frequency transformer is usually
A. Copper core
B. Cost iron core
C. Air core
D. Mid steel core
Ans: C
Answer
[10] Cross over windings are used in
A. Low voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
B. Current transformers
C. High voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
D. High voltage side of low kVA rating transformers
Ans: D
Answer
Objective Questions From Transformers: Part-4
TRANSFORMERS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS:
[1] A Buchholz relay can be installed on

A. Auto-transformers
B. Air-cooled transformers
C. Welding transformers
D. Oil cooled transformers
Ans: D
Answer
[2] The chemical used in breather is
A. Asbestos fibre
B. Silica sand
C. Sodium chloride
D. Silica gel
225
Ans: D
Answer
[3] Material used for construction of transformer core is usually
A. 0.4mm to 0.5 mm
B. 4mm to 5 mm
C. 14mm to 15 mm
D. 25mm to 40 mm
Ans:D
Answer
[4] Helical coils can be used on
A. Low voltage side of high kVA transformers
B. High frequency transformers
C. High voltage side of small capacity transformers
D. High voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: A
Answer
[5] The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of
A. Volts
B. Amperes
C. kW
D. kVA
Ans: D
Answer
[6] The value of flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer is
A. RMS value
B. RMS value
C. Maximum value
D. Instantaneous value
Ans: C
Answer
[7] The main advantage of auto transformer over a two winding transformer is
226
A. Hysteresis losses are reduced

B. Saving in winding material
C. Copper losses are negligible
D. Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans:B
Answer
[8] During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
A. The current on secondary side is negligible
B. The voltage on secondary side does not vary
C. The voltage applied on primary side is low
D. Full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: C
Answer
[9] Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable in the material for
transformer core?
A. Mechanical strength
B. Low hysteresis loss
C. High thermal conductivity
D. High permeability
Ans: C
Answer
[10] The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be
A. Fluctuating load
B. Poor insulation
C. Mechanical vibrations
D. Saturation of core
Ans: D
Answer
227
Transformers Solved Objective Questions from Competitive Exams(Gate, IES)

Each Question Carries Two Marks:
Common Data for Questions 1 and 2: [GATE 2009]
The star-delta transformer shown above is excited on the star side with a balanced,4-
wire,3-phase,sinusoidal voltage supply of rated magnitude. The transformer is under no
load condition.
[1] With both S1 and S2 open, the core flux waveform will be [GATE 2009]
A. A sinusoidal at fundamental frequency
B. Flat-topped with third harmonic
C. Peaky with third-harmonic
D. None of these
Ans:B
Answer
[2] With S2 closed and S1 open, the current waveform in the delta winding will be [GATE
2009]
A. A sinusoidal at fundamental frequency
B. Flat-topped with third harmonic
C. Only third-harmonic
D. None of these
Ans:C
Answer
Common Data for Questions 3 and 4:
The circuit diagram shows a two-winding, losses transformer with no leakage flux,
228
excited from a current source,i(t),whose waveform is also shown. The transformer has a
magnetizing inductance of 400/ πmH.
[3] The peak voltage across A and B, with S open is [GATE 2009]
A. 400/ πV
B. 800 πV
C. 4000/π V
D. 800/ πV
Ans: D
Answer
[4] If the waveform of i(t) is changed to i(t)= 10 sin(100πt)A, the peak voltage across A
and B with S closed is [GATE 2009]
A. 400V
B. 240V
C. 320V
D. 160V
Ans: A
Answer
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 5 and 6: [GATE 2009]

229
The figure above shows coils 1 and 2, with dot markings as shown, having 4000 and
6000 turns respectively. Both the coils have a rated current of 25A. Coil 1 is excited with
single phase, 400V, 50Hz supply.
[5] The coils are to be connected to obtain a single phase, 400/1000V, auto-transformer
to drive a load of 10kVA. Which of the options given should be exercised to realize the
required auto-transformer? [GATE 2009]
A. Connect A and D; Common B
B. Connect B and D; Common C
C. Connect A and C; Common B
D. Connect A and C; Common D
Ans: A
Answer
[6] In the autotransformer obtained in Question 57, the current in each coil is [GATE
2009]
A. Coil-1 is 25A and Coil-2 is 10A
B. Coil-1 is 10A and Coil-2 is 25A
C. Coil-1 is 10A and Coil-2 is 15A
D. Coil-1 is 15A and Coil-2 is 10A
Ans: A
Answer
[7]The single phase, 50Hz iron core transformer in the circuit has both the vertical arms
of cross sectional area 20cm2 and both the horizontal arms of cross sectional area
10cm2. If the two windings shown were wound instead on opposite horizontal arms, the
mutual inductance will [GATE 2009]
230
A. Double
B. Remain same
C. Be halved
D. Become one quarter
Ans:C
Answer
Solution Hint:
Vertical arms A = 20cm2
Horizontal arms A = 10cm2
Wound in the horizontal arms means, Area reduces from 20cm 2 to
10cm2.... So Inductance will be halved.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM TRANSFORMERS:
[1] The ordinary two winding transformer's primary and secondary windings always have
A. Different no of turns
B. Same size of copper wire
C. A common magnetic circuit
D. Separate magnetic circuits
Ans: C
Answer
[2] No load test on a transformer is carried out to find
A. Copper loss
B. Magnetising current
231
C. Magnetising current and no load loss
D. Efficiency of the transformer
Ans:C
Answer
[3] Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW because
A. Load power factor is often not known
B. KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load power factor
C. Total transformer loss depends on volt ampere
D. It has become customary
Ans: C
Answer
[4] Transformer cores are laminated in order to
A. Simplify its construction
B. Minimise eddy current loss
C. Reduce cost
D. Reduce hysteresis loss
Ans: B
Answer
[5] A step up transformer increases
A. Voltage
232
B. Current
C. Power
D. Frequency
Ans: A
Answer
[6] In a two winding transformer, the primary and secondary induced emf E1 & E2 are
always
A. Equal in magnitude
B. Anti phase with each other
C. In phase with each other
D. Determined by load on transformer secondary
Ans:C
Answer
[7] In a transformer, the leakage flux of each winding is proportional to the current in
that winding because
A. Ohm's law applies to magnetic circuits
B. Leakage paths do no saturate
C. The two windings are electrically isolated
D. Mutual flux is confined to the core
Ans: B
Answer
233
[8] In a two winding transformer, the emf /turn in secondary winding is always......the
induced emf power turn in primary
A. Equal to k times
B. Equal to 1/k times
C. Equal
D. Greater than
Ans:C
Answer
[9] In transformer terminology, the ratio 20:1 indicates that
A. There are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
B. Secondary voltage is 1/20th of the primary
C. Primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary current
D. For every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on secondary
Ans: B
Answer
[10] In performing the short circuit test of a transformer
A. High voltage is usually short circuited
B. Low voltage side is usually short circuited
C. Any side is short circuited with preference

234
Ans: B
Answer
Transformers Objective Questions Part:1
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM TRANSFORMERS
[1] A transformer transforms
A. Frequency
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. Voltage and current
Ans: D
Answer
[2] Which is not the basic element of the transformer?
A. Core
B. Primary winding
C. Secondary winding
D. Mutual flux
Ans: D
Answer
[3] In an ideal transformer
A. Windings have no resistance
B. Core has no losses

235
C. Core has infinite permeability
D. All of the above
Ans:D
Answer
[4] The frequency of the secondary voltage of a transformer will be.....
A. Less than frequency of the primary voltage
B. Equal to the primary voltage
C. Greater than the frequency of the primary voltage
D. Much greater than the frequency of the primary voltage
Ans:B
Answer
[5] The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when
A. It runs at half full load
B. It runs at full load
C. Its Cu loss equal iron loss
D. It runs over load
Ans:C
Answer
[6] A step-up transformer increases
A. Voltage
236
B. Current
C. Power
D. Frequency
Ans:A
Answer
[7] Which type of loss is not common to transformer and rotating machines?
A. Eddy current loss
B. Copper loss
C. Hysteresis loss
D. Windage loss
Ans:D
Answer
[8] The transformer core is laminated to
A. Reduce the copper losses
B. Reduce the core losses
C. Reduce the eddy current losses
Ans:C
Answer
[9] Transformer cores are built up from laminations rather than from solid metal so that
237
A. Oil penetrates the core more easily
B. Eddy current loss is reduced
C. Less lamination is required for the windings
D. Turn ratio is higher than voltage ratio
Ans:B
Answer
[10] The main purpose of using core in a transformer is to
A. Decrease iron losses
B. Prevent eddy current loss
C. Eliminate magnetic hysteresis
D. Decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit
Ans: D
Answer
Control System Competitive Questions with Answers: Part-4
CONTROL SYSTEM SOLVED COMPETITIVE QUESTIONS:
[1] An open loop system represented by the transfer function G(s) = (s-1) / (s+2)
(s+3) is
(a) Stable and of the minimum phase type
(b) Stable and of the non-minimum phase type
(c) Unstable and of the minimum phase type
(d) Unstable and of the non-minimum phase type
Ans:B
238
Answer
[2] The open loop transfer function G(s) of a unity feedback control system is
given as,
G(s) = [ k(s+2/3) / s2(s+2) ]
From the root locus, it can be inferred that when k tends to positive infinity,
(a) Three roots with nearly equal real parts exist on the left half of the s-plane
(b) One real root is found on the right half of the s-plane
(c) The root loci cross the jω axis for a finite value of k; k≠0
(d) Three real roots are found on the right half of the s-plane
Ans:A
Answer
[3] Given that
then the value of A3 is [GATE2012]
(a) 15A+12I
(b) 19A+30I
(c) 17A+15I
(d) 17A+21I
Ans:B
Answer
[4] The matrix [A]=
239
is decomposed into a product of a lower triangular matrix [L] and an upper

triangular matrix [U]. The properly decomposed[L] and [U] matrices respectively
are............The options A,B,C,D are given below.
240
Ans: none of the above

Answer
[5] The input x(t) of a system are related as y(t) = ∫t-∞ x(τ)cos(3τ)dτ. The system
is [GATE2012]
(a) Time-invariant and stable
(b) Stable and not time-invariant
(c) Time-invariant and not stable
(d) Not time-invariant and not stable
Ans: B
Answer
[6]The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when [GATE2012]
(a) k=2 and a=0.75
(b) k=3 and a=0.75
(c) k=4 and a=0.5
(d) k=2 and a=0.5

241
Ans: A
Answer
[7] The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H(jω) = (2cosω)(sin2ω)/ω. The value
of h(0) is [GATE2012]
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The state variable description of an LTI system is given by
where y is the output and u is the input.The system is controllable

for, [GATE2012]
(a) a1≠0,a2=0,a3≠0
(b) a1=0,a2=0,a3≠0
(c) a1=0,a2=0,a3=0
(d) a1≠0,a2≠0,a3=0
Ans:D
242
Answer
[9] The state transition diagram for the logic circuit shown is [GATE2012]
Ans: D
Answer
[10] Given that
then the value of A3 is [GATE2012]
(a) 15A+12I
(b) 19A+30I
(c) 17A+15I
(d) 17A+21I
243
Ans: B
Answer
[11] The differentiator has a transfer function whose [Gate 1997]
(a) Phase increases linearly with frequency
(b) Amplitude remains constant
(c) Amplitude increases linearly with frequency
(d) Amplitude decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: A
Answer
[12] Introduction of integral action in the forward path of a unity feedback system
results in a [Gate 1997]
(a) Marginally stable system
(b) System with no steady state error
(c) System with increase stability margin
(d) System with better speed of response
Ans: A
Answer
Control System: Part-3 Objective Questions with Answers
CONTROL SYSTEM OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM COMPETITIVE EXAMS

(GATE, IES)
[1] The first two rows of Routh’s tabulation of a third order equation are as
follows.
s3 2 2
s2 4 4
This means there are [GATE 2009]
(a) Two roots at s =± j and one root in right half s-plane
(b) Two roots at s =± j2 and one root in left half s- plane
(c) Two roots at s = ±j2 and one root in right half s-plane
244
(d) Two roots at s =± j and one root in left half s-plane
Ans:D
Answer
[2] The asymptotic approximation of the log magnitude vs frequency plot of a

system containing only real poles and zeros is shown. Its transfer function
is [GATE 2009]
(a) [10(s+5)]/[s(s+2)(s+25)]
(b) [1000(s+5)]/[s2(s+2)(s+25)]
(c) [100(s+5)]/[s(s+2)(s+25)]
(d) [80(s+5)]/[s2(s+2)(s+25)]
Ans:B
Answer
[3] The trace and determinant of a 2x2 matrix are known to be -2 and -35
respectively. Its eigen values are [GATE 2009]
(a) -30 and -5
(b) -37 and -1
(c) -7 and 5
(d) 17.5 and -2
Ans:C
Answer
245
[4] A Linear Time Invariant system with an impulse response h(t) produces
output y(t) when input x(t) is applied. When the input x(t-τ) is applied to a system
with impulse response h(t-τ), the output will be [GATE 2009]
(a) y(t)
(b) y(2(t-τ))
(c) y(t-τ)
(d) y(t-2τ)
Ans:D
Answer
[5] For the Y-bus matrix of a 4-bus system given in per unit, the buses having
shunt elements are [GATE 2009]
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 4
Ans:C
Answer
[6] The unit step response of a unity feedback system with open loop transfer
function G(s) = K / ((s+1)(s +2)) is shown in the figure. The value of K is [GATE
2009]
246
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: D
Answer
[7] For the driving point impedance function, Z(s)=[as2+7s+3]/[s2+3s+b], the
circuit realization is shown below. The values of 'a' and 'b' respectively
are [IES2010]
(a) 4 and 5
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2 and 1
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: C
Answer
[8] For the following driving point impedance functions, which of the following
statements is true? [IES2010]
Z1(s)=(s+2)/(s2+3s+5)
Z2(s)=(s+2)/(s2+5)
Z3(s)=(s+2)/(s2+2s+1)
247
Z4(s)=(s+2)(s+4)/(s+1)(s+3)
(a) Z1 is not positive real
(b) Z1 is positive real
(c) Z3 is positive real
(d) Z4 is positive real
Ans: D
Answer
[9] The steady state error of a unity feedback linear system for a unit step input is
0.1. The steady state error of the same system, for a pulse input r(t) having a
magnitude of 10 and a duration of one second, as shown in the figure is
[GATE2011]
(a) 0
(b) 0.1
(c) 1
(d) 10
Ans:A
Answer
[10] A point z has been plotted in the complex plane, as shown in figure below
[GATE2011]
248
The plot of the complex number y=1/z is...........The options A,B,C,D are given
below.
249
250
Ans:D
Answer
Control Systems: Part2 Objective Questions
[1] The system represented by the input-output relationship y(t)= 5t∫-∞ x(τ)dτ, t>0 is
(a) Linear and casual
(b) Linear but not casual
(c) Casual but not linear
(d) Neither linear nor casual
Ans: B
Answer
[2] For the system 2/(s+1), the approximate time taken for a step response to
reach 98% of its final value is
(a) 1s
(b) 2s
(c) 4s
(d) 8s
Ans: C
Answer
[3] Given the finite length input x[n] and the corresponding finite length output y[n]
of an LTI system as shown below, the impulse response h[n] of the system is
251
(a) h[n]={1,0,0,1}
(b) h[n]={1,0,1}
(c) h[n]={1,1,1,1}
(d) h[n]={1,1,1}
Ans:C
Answer
[4] The frequency response of G(s)=1/[s(s+1)(s+2)] plotted in the complex G(jω)

plane (for 0< ω<∞) is....Options A, B, C, D are given below
A.
252
253
Ans:A
Answer
[5] The system x=Ax+Bu with
A=
B=
is
(a) Stable and controllable

254
(b) Stable but uncontrollable
(c) Unstable but controllable
(d) Unstable and uncontrollable
Ans: C
Answer
[6] The characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is a(s+1)

(s+3)+k(s+2)=0,k>0. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Its roots are always real
(b) It cannot have a breakaway point in the range -1<Re[s]<0
(c) Two of its roots tend to infinity along the asymptotes Re[s]=-1
(d) It may have complex roots in the right half plane
Ans:C
Answer
[7] The frequency response of a linear system G(jω) is provided in the tabular
form below
|G(jω)| 1.3 1.2 1.0 0.8 0.5 0.3
∠G(jω) -130° -140° -150° -160° -180° -200°
(a) 6dB and 30°
(b) 6dB and -30°
(c) -6dB and 30°
(d) -6dB and -30°
Ans:A
255
Answer
[8] An openloop system represented by the transfer function G(s) = [(s+1)/(s+2)

(s+3)] is
a) Stable and of the minimum phase type
b) Stable and of the non-minimum phase type
c) Unstable and of the minimum phase type
d) Stable and of the non-minimum phase type
Ans:D
Answer
[9] The open loop transfer function G(s) of a unity feedback control system is
given as, G(s)=[ k(s+2/3) / s2(s+2) ] From the root locus, it can be inferred that
when k tends to positive infinity.
(a) Three roots with nearly equal real parts exist on the left half of the s-plane
(b) One real root is found on the right half of the s-plane
(c) The root loci cross the jω axis for a finite value of k; k not equal to 0
(d) Three real roots are found on the right half of the s-plane
Ans:A
Answer
[10] The response h(t) of a linear time invariant system to an impulse δ(t), under
initially relaxed condition is h(t) = e-t+e-2t. The response of this system for a unit
step input u(t) is
(a) u(t)+e-t+e-2t
(b) (e-t+e-2t) u(t)
(c) (1.5-e-t-0.5e-2t) u(t)

256
(d) e-tδ(t)+e-2tu(t)
Ans:C
Answer
Control System Objective Questions: Part-1
CONTROL SYSTEM OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM COMPETITIVE EXAMS
[1] A system is described by the following state and output equations

[dx1(t)/dt] =-3x1(t)+x2(t)+2u(t)
[dx2(t)/dt]=-2x2(t)+u(t)
y(t)=x1(t)
where u(t) is the input and y(t) is the output. The system transfer function is
[GATE 2009]
(a) (s+2)/(s2+5s-6)
(b) (s+3)/(s2+5s+6)
(c) (2s+5)/(s2+5s+6)
(d) (2s-5)/(s2+5s-6)
Ans: C
Answer
[2] A two-port network is defined by the relation: [IES 2010]
I=5V1+3V2
I2=2V1-7V2. The value of Z12 is
A. 3
B. -3
C. 3/41
D. 2/31
Ans:C
Answer
[3] The Z-transform of x(K) is given by [IES 2010]
x(Z)= {(1-e-T)z-1} / {(1-z-1)(1-e-Tz-1)}
The initial value of x(0) is
257
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Ans: A
Answer
[4] Consider the following statements with reference to the phase plane:
1. They are general and applicable to a system of any order.

2. Steady state accuracy and existence of limit cycle can be predicted.
3. Amplitude and frequency of limit cycle if exists can be evaluated.
4. Can be applied to discontinuous time system.
Which of the above statements are correct? [IES2010]
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2,3 and 4 only
Ans: B
Answer
[5] For the circuit shown below, the natural frequencies at port 2 are given by
s+2=0 and s+5=0,without knowing which refers to open-circuit and which to
short-circuit. Then the impedences Z11 and Z22 are given respectively by
[IES2010]
A. K1{(s+5)/(s+2)}, K2{(s+2)/(s+5)}
B. K1{(s+2)/(s+5)}, K2{(s+5)/(s+2)}
258
C. K1{(s)/(s+2)}, K2{(s+2)/(s+5)}
D. K1{(s+2)/(s+5)}, K2{(s+2)/(s+5)}
Ans:C
Answer
[6] Consider the following statements in connection with two-position controller:
1. If the controller has a 4% neutral zone,its positive error band will be 2% and
negative error band will be 8%.
2. The neutral zone is also known as dead band.
3. The controller action of a two-position controller is very similar to that of a pure
on-off controller.
4. Air-conditioning system works essentially on a two-position control basis.
Which of the above statements are correct? [IES2010]
A. 1,2 and 3 only.
B. 2,3 and 4 only.
C. 2 and 4 only.
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans:B
Answer
[7] The polar plot of an open loop stable system is shown below. The closed loop
system is [GATE 2009]
A. Always stable
B. Marginally stable
C. Unstable with one pole on the RH s-plane
D. Unstable with two poles on the RH s-plane
259
Ans:C
Answer
[8] The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by G(s)
=(e-0.1s)/s.The gain margin of this system is
[GATE 2009]
A. 11.95 dB
B. 17.67 dB
C. 21.33 dB
D. 23.9 dB
Ans: D
Answer
Electrical Circuits Objective Qustions: Part-3
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM CIRCUIT THEORY:
[1] A balanced RYB-sequence,Y-connected(Star Connected) source with

VRN=100 volts is connected to a Δ-connected (Delta connected) balanced load of
(8+j6) ohms per phase.Then the phase current and line current values
respectively,are[IES2010]
(a) 10A;30A
(b) 10√3A;30A
(c) 10A;10A
(d) 10√3A;10√3A
Answer: B
[2] Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which
maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is [GATE2012]
260
(a) 0.8Ω
(b) 1.4Ω
(c) 2Ω
(d) 2.8Ω
Answer:A
[3] The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is [GATE2012]
(a) |Av| ≈200
(b) |Av|≈100
(c) |Av|≈20
(d) |Av|≈10
261
Answer:D
[4] If VA-VB=6V, then VC-VD is [GATE2012]
(a) -5V
(b) 2V
(c) 3V
(d) 6V
Answer:A
Solution Hint:
As Va-Vb =6 => I = V/R = 6/2 = 3A
entering current = leaving current [ KCL]
so current from Vd to Vc is same as 3A
convert the current source to voltage source
V = IR =2 x 1 = 2V
Vd = Vc + 2V + (3x1)V = Vc + 5V
Vc-Vd = -5V
[5]The circuit shown is a [GATE2012]

262
(a) Low pass filter with f3db=[1/(R1+R2)C] rad/s
(b) High pass filter with f3db=[1/(R1C)] rad/s
(c) Low pass filter with f3db=[1/(R1C)] rad/s
(d) High pass filter with f3db=[1/(R1+R2)C] rad/s
Answer:B
[6] In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S operated at 100kHz with a duty ratio or
50%. Given thatΔic 1.6A peak-to-peak and I0 is 5A dc, the peak current in S
is [GATE2012]
(a) 6.6A
(b) 5.0A
(c) 5.8A
(d) 4.2A

263
Answer:C
Solution Hint:
Δic = 1.6A peak-to-peak
The positive peak = Δic /2
The current flows through the switch has a peak of = Io + Δic /2
For your information...The current waveform is like this
The lowest point will be 5A....highest point will be 5+ 0.8
[7] The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are
i={ [ V- 0.7 /500]A, V > or = 0.7 V
0A, V< 0.7 V
The current in the circuit is [GATE 2012]
(a) 10 mA
(b) 9.3 mA
(c) 6.67 mA
264
(d) 6.2 mA
Answer: D
Solution Hint:
we have to find v and then apply in ct. equ...
KVL...10 = 1K * i + v
10 = 1000i +v = 1000(v-0.7/500) + v
solve it ....v= 0.8...
[8] In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to
12V before the ideal switch S is closed at t=0. The current i(t) for all t is [GATE
2012]
(a) Zero
(b) A step function
(c) An exponentially decaying function
(d) An impulse function
Answer: D
Solution Hint:
If it is RC ckt...ie any Resistance in series with capacitor, it will be an
exponentially decaying function....here no resistance...so charge instantly....ie
impulse function...
[9] The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is [GATE 2012]
265
(a) 50 Ω
(b) 100 Ω
(c) 5 KΩ
(d) 10.1 KΩ
Answer: A
[10] In the circuit given below,the current through the inductor is [GATE 2012]
266
(a) (2/1+j)A
(b) (-1/1+j)A
(c) (1/1+j)A
(d) 0A
Answer: A
Solution Hint: consider top half of the circuit
R & L are in parallel with ct. source....other end connected to low potential...ie
GND... convert ct. to V source...
Circuit Theory Objective Questions: Part2
ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM COMPETITIVE EXAMS:
[1] A reactance network in the Foster's I form has poles at ω=∞(infinity). The
element in box-1 in the above network is [IES2010]
(a) A capacitor
(b) An inductor
(c) A parallel LC circuit
267
(d) A series LC circuit

Ans: D
Answer
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 2 and 3: [GATE 2009]
[2] For the circuit given above, the Thevinin's resistance across the terminals A
and B is [GATE 2009]
(a) 0.5kΩ
(c) 1kΩ
(d) 0.11kΩ
Ans: B
Answer
[3] For the circuit given above, the Thevenin's voltage across the terminals A and
B is
[GATE 2009]
(a) 1.25V
(b) 0.25V
(c) 1V
(d) 0.5V
Ans:D
268
Answer
[4] For the circuit shown, find out the current flowing through the 2Ω resistance.
Also identify the changes to be made to double the current through the 2Ω
resistance. [GATE]
(a) (5A; Put Vs=20V)
(b) (2A; Put Vs=8V)
(c) (5A; Put Vs=10A)
(d) (7A; Put Vs=12A)

Ans: B
Answer
[5] The common emitter forward current gain of the transistor shown is 100. The
transistor is operating in [GATE 2007]
269
(a) Saturation Region

(b) Cutoff Region
(c) Reverse active region
(d) Forward active region
Ans: D
Answer
[6] The three – terminal linear voltage regulator is connected to a 10 ohm load
resistor as shown in the figure. If Vin is 10V, what is the power dissipated in the
transistor [GATE 2007]
(a) 0.6W
(b) 2.4W
(c) 4.2W
(d) 5.4W
Ans: B
Answer
LINKED ANSWER QUESTIONS: Q.7 to Q.8
Carry Two Marks Each Statement for Linked Answer Questions:7 & 8
In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V1=220V, V2=122V,
V3=136V
270
[7] The power factor of the load is [GATE2012]
(a) 0.45
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.55
(d) 0.60
Ans: A
Answer
[8] If RL=5Ω, the approximate power consumption in the load is [GATE2012]
(a) 700W
(b) 750W
(c) 800W
(d) 850W
Ans:B
Answer
Common Data Questions: 9&10
With 10V dc connected at port A in the linear nonreciprocal two-port network

shown below,following were observed:
(1)1Ω connected at port B draws a current of 3A

271
(2) 2.5Ω connected at port B draws a current of 2A
[9] For the same network, with 6V dc connected at port A, 1Ω connected at port B
draws 7/3 A. If 8V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B
is [GATE2012]
(a) 6V
(b) 7V
(c) 8V
(d) 9V
Ans: C
Answer
[10] With 10V dc connected at port A, the current drawn 7Ω connected at port B
is [GATE2012]
(a) 3/7A
(b) 5/7A
(c) 1A
(d) 9/7A
Ans:C
Answer
Circuit Theory Objective Questions: Part-1
ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT THEORY SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ASKED

IN GATE, IES:
[1] The period of the signal x(t) = 8 sin (0.8πt + π /4) is [GATE 2010]
272
A. 0.4πs
B. 0.8πs
C. 1.25s
D. 2.5s
Ans:D
Answer
[2] The switch in the circuit has been closed for a long time. It is opened at t=0. At
t=0+,the current through the 1μF capacitor is [GATE 2010]
A. 0A
B. 1A
C. 1.25A
D. 5A
Ans: B
Answer
[3] The second harmonic component of the periodic waveform given in the figure
has an amplitude of [GATE 2010]
273
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2/π
D. √5
Ans:A
Answer
[4] As shown in the figure, a 1 resistance is connected across a source that has a
load line v+i=100. The current through the resistance is [GATE 2010]
A. 25A
B. 50A
C. 100A
D. 200A
Ans: B
Answer
[5] If the electrical circuit of figure (b) is an eqiuvalent of the coupled tank system
of figure (a), then [GATE 2010]
274
A. A,B are resistances and C,D capacitances
B. A,C are resistances and B,D capacitances
C. A,B are capacitances and C,D resistances
D. A,C are capacitances are and B,D resistances
Ans:D
Answer
[6] If the 12Ω resistor draws a current of 1A as shown in the figure, the value of
resistance R is [GATE 2010]
A. 4Ω
B. 6Ω
C. 8Ω
D. 18Ω
Ans: B
Answer
[7] The two-port network P shown in the figure has ports 1 and 2, denoted by
terminals (a,b) and (c,d), respectively. It has an impedence matrix Z with
parameters denoted by Zij. A 1Ω resistor is connected in series with the network
at port 1 as shown in the figure. The impedance matrix of the modified two-port
network (shown as a dashed box) is [GATE 2010]
275
276
Ans:C
Answer
[8] The Maxwell's bridge shown in the figure is at balance.The parameters of the
inductive coil are [GATE 2010]
A. R=R2R3/R4, L=C4R2R3
B. L=R2R3/R4, R=C4R2R3
C. R=R4/R2R3, L=1(C4R2R3)
D. L=R4/R2R3, R=1/(C4R2R3)
Ans:A
Answer
Statement for Q9 & Q10:

277
The L-C circuit shown in the figure has an inductance L=1mH and a
capacitance C=10μF
Question [9]: The initial current through the inductor is zero, while the initial
capacitor voltage is 100V. The switch is closed at t=0. The current i through the
circuit is: [GATE 2010]
A. 5cos(5x103t)A
B. 5sin(104t)A
C. 10cos(5x103t)A
D. 10sin(104t)A
Ans: D
Answer
Question [10]: The L-C circuit of statement is used to commutate a thyristor,

which is initially carrying a current of 5A as shown in the figure below. The values
and initial conditions of L and C are the same as in statement. The switch is
closed at t=0. If the forward drop is negligible, the time taken for the device to
turn off is [GATE 2010]
A. 52μs
B. 156μs
C. 312μs
278
D. 26μs
Ans: A
Answer
[11] The voltage applied to a circuit is 100√2 cos(100πt) volts and the circuit
draws a current of 10√2sin(100πt +π/4) amperes. Taking the voltage as the
reference phasor, the phasor representation of the current in amperes is [GATE
2011]
A. 10√2∠- π/4
B. 10∠- π/4
C. 10∠+ π/4
D. 10√2∠+ π/4
Ans:A
Answer
Digital Electronics objective Questions: Part 1
[1] It is required to construct a counter to count upto 100(decimal). The minimum

number of flipflops required to construct the counter is
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
Ans:A
Answer
[2] The gate that assumes the 1 state, if and only if the input does not take a 1 state is
called........
279
a) AND gate
b) NOT gate
c) NOR gate
d) Both b and c
Ans: D
Answer
[3] For NOR circuit SR flip flop the not allowed condition is....
a) S=0, R=0
b) S=0, R=1
c) S=1, R=1
d) S=1, R=0
Ans: C . When S=R=1 the output is subject to unpredictable behaviour

when S and R return to 0 simultaneously.
Answer
[4] A bistable multivibrator is a
a) Free running oscillator
b) Triggered oscillator
c) Saw tooth wave generator
d) Crystal oscillator
Ans: B
Answer
[5] For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behave as
280
a) Voltage controlled resistor

b) Current controlled current source
c) Voltage controlled current source
d) Current controlled resistor
Ans: C
Answer
[6] When a step input is given to an op-amp integrator, the output will be
a) a ramp
b) a sinusoidal wave
c) a rectangular wave
d) a triangular wave with dc bias
Ans: A
Answer
[7] In a full-wave rectifier without filter, the ripple factor is
a) 0.482
b) 1.21
c) 1.79
d) 2.05
Ans: A
Answer
[8] Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger, because
a) Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitance
b) Effects of temperature would be compensated
c) Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation
d) It would prevent noise from causing false triggering
Ans:C
Answer
[9] For a 10-bit DAC, the Resolution is defined by which of the following
a) 1024
b) 1/1024
c) 10
d) None
281
Ans:B
Answer
[10] SRAM full form is
a) Serial Read Access Memory
b) Static Random Access Memory
c) Static Read-only Access memory
Ans: B
Answer
[11] What are the minimum number of 2 to 1 multiplexers required to generate a 2 input
AND gate and a 2 input Ex-OR gate?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 1
d) 2 and 2
Ans:A
Answer
[12]The output of a logic gate is ‘1’ when all its inputs are at logic ‘0’. Then gate is either
a) A NAND or an EX-OR gate
b) A NOR or an EX-NOR gate
c) An OR or a EX-NOR gate
d) An AND or an Ex-OR gate
Ans: B
Answer
[13] A PLA can be used
a) As a microprocessor
b) As a dynamic memory
c) To realise a sequential logic
d) To realise a combinational logic
Ans: D
Answer
[14] A dynamic RAM consists of
282
a) 6 Transistors
b) 2 Transistors and 2 Capacitors
c) 1 Transistor and 1 Capacitor
d) 2 Capacitor only
Ans:C
Answer
[15] When a CPU is interrupted, it
a) Stops execution of instructions
b) Acknowledges interrupt and branches of subroutine
c) Acknowledges interrupt and continues
d) Acknowledges interrupt and waits for the next instruction from the interrupting
device.
Ans: B
Answer
Basic Electrical objective type questions: Part-13
Electrical Objective Questions with Answers:
[1] In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotentials [Gate 1997 ]
a) Are parallel to one another
b) Intersect at 45 deg
c) Intersect at 30 deg
d) Are orthogonal
Ans:D
Answer
[2] For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn
ratio from primay to secondary are respectively
(a) ferrite; 20:1
(b) laminated iron; 1:1
(c) ferrite; 1:1
(d) powdered iron; 1:1
Ans: C
283
Answer
[3] The capacitance of a reverse biased junction of a thyristor is 20 picofarad.
The charging current of this thyristor is 4mA. The limiting value
of dv/dt is .....V/uS
Ans:200
Answer
[4] When the induction motor runs at synchronous speed the voltage induced in
the rotor of it is
(a) Very near input voltage to stator
(b) Slip time the input voltage
(c) Zero
Ans:C
Answer
[5] Chopper control for the DC motor provides variation in
(a) Input voltage
(b) Frequency
Ans: A
Answer
[6] While comparing SCR with BJT, which of the following is true
(a) SCR requires turn off circuit while BJT does not
(b) The voltage drop of SCR is less than BJT
(c) SCR requires a continuous gate current
(d) BJT draws continuously base current
(1) a only
(2) d only
(3) a, d
(4) b, d
Common Data Questions: 7 & 8
In the 3-phase inverter circuit shown, the load is balanced and the gating scheme
is 180°-conduction mode.All the switching devices are ideal
284
Ans: 3
Answer
[7] The rms value of load phase voltage is [GATE2012]
a. 106.1V
b. 141.4V
c. 212.2V
d. 282.8V
Ans: B
Answer
[8] If the dc bus voltage Vd=300V, the power consumed by 3-phase load
is [GATE2012]
a. 1.5kW
b. 2.0kW
c. 2.5kW
d. 3.0kW
Ans: D
285
Answer
[9] The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20A thyristor
is [GATE 2012]
a. 5.0
b. 2.0
c. 1.0
d. 0.5
Ans: B
Answer
[10] A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is
operated at a firing angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of
cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is [GATE 2012]
a. 1/2
b. (1-α/π)
c. α/2π
d. α/π
Ans: D
Answer
[11] For power factor correction of power systems which one is used:
(a) capacitor
(b) inductor
(c) resistors
Ans: A
Answer
[12] Which type of motor used in home ceiling fan:
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(a) capacitor motor

(b) shaded pole motor
(c) universal motor
(SPLIT PHASE CAPACITOR MOTOR)
Ans: A
Answer
[13] Op-amp (operational amplifier) input resistance:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Relative resistance
(d) Same output resistance
Ans:B
Answer
[14] For an inverter op-amp, what will be the equivalent output resistance?
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Relative forward resistance
(d) Same as the input resistance
Ans: A
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part-12
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
[1] Power is defined as
a) The rate at which current flows in a circuit
b) The product of voltage and resistance in a circuit
c) The rate at which energy is radiated or dissipated
d) The accumulation of energy over time
e) The amount of heat generated in a circuit.
Ans:C
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Answer
[2] At the exact moment a 60Hz ac sine wave is at its positive peak voltage, the
instantaneous rate of change in the voltage is
a) Large and positive
b) Small and negative
c) Large and negative
d) Small and negative
e) Zero
Ans: E
Answer
[3] A flute sounds different than a violin, even if the two instruments are played at the
same pitch, because of a difference in the
a) Phase
b) Chamber length
c) Frequency
d) Waveform
e) Bias
Ans:D
Answer
[4] A common-collector transistor circuit is often used
a) To provide high gain and sensitivity over a wide range of frequencies
b) To match a high impedance to a low impedance
c) As a high-fidelity audio power amplifier
d) As an oscillator at microwaves frequencies

288
e) As the rectifier in a dc power supply.
Ans: B
Answer
[5] The internal conductance of an ammeter is generally
a) Low
b) Directly proportional to the current
c) Inversely proportional to the current
d) High
e) Any value. It doest matter
Ans: D
Answer
[6] A steady magnetic field can be produced by
a) A straight wire carrying a constant direct current.
b) A loop of wire carrying a constant direct current.
c) A coil of wire carrying a constant direct current.
d) A constant-intensity stream of protons in free space, moving in a straight line.
e) Any of the above.
Ans:E
Answer
[7] The output wave of a common-gate amplifier circuit with a pure sine-wave input
a) Is in phase with the input wave.
b) Lags the input wave by 90° of phase.
c) Leads the input wave by 90° of phase.
d) Is 180° out of phase with the input wave.

289
e) Is inverted with respect to the input wave.
Ans:A
Answer
[8] Which of the following capacitor types is polarized?
a) Electrolytic
b) Paper
c) Ceramic
d) Mica
e) Air variable
Ans: A
Answer
[9] when a non zero net reactance exists in an ac circuit, the apparent power is
a) Zero
b) Equal to the true power
c) Less than the true power
d) Greater than the true power
e) Infinite
Ans: D
Answer
[10] The gauss is a unit of
(a) Charge carrier flow speed.
(b) Magnetic flux density.
(c) Electrostatic field strength.
(d) Electromagnetic field intensity.

290
(e) Electrical charge quantity.
Ans:B. Exp: In SI system the unit is tesla(T). In CGS system the unit is
Gauss
Answer
[11] An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated
in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude
100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be ?
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
Ans:B
Answer
[12] A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The
maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is
a) 11
b) 33
c) 22
d) 44
Ans: B
Answer
[13] Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) It is an indirect semiconductor
(b) It is a covalent semiconductor
(c) It is an elemental semiconductor
(d) Of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Ans:D
Answer
[14] Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The
resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm
(b) 5/3 Ohm
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(c) 10/3 Ohm

(d) 3/5 Ohm
Ans: C
Answer
[15] The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak
value Im is
(a) Im / 1
(b) Im / v2
(c) Im / 2
(d) Im v3
Answer: c)
Ans: C
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part-11
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
[1] The unit which indicates the rate at which energy is expended?
A. Watt
B. Ampere-hour
C. Coulomb
D. Volt
Ans:A
Answer
[2] The peak voltage in an ac wave is always
A. Greater than the average voltage
B. Less than the average voltage
C. Greater than or equal to average voltage
D. Less than or equal to the average voltage
Ans: C
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Answer
[3] When an electrical charge exists but there is no flow of current, the charge is said to
be
A. Ionizing
B. Electronic
C. Static
D. Atomic
Ans: C
Answer
[4] As the number of turns in a coil that carries ac increases without limit, the current in
the coil will
A. Eventually become very large
B. Stay the same
C. Decrease, approaching zero
D. Be stored in the core material
Ans: C
Answer
[5] As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance at a constant frequency
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Is stored in the core material
Ans:A
Answer
[6] In an RL circuit, as the ratio of inductive reactance to resistance (XL/R) decreases, the
phase angle
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Becomes alternately positive and negative
Ans: B
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Answer
[7] The best filter for a power supply is
A. A capacitor in series
B. A choke in series
C. A capacitor in series and a choke in parallel
D. A capacitor in parallel and a choke in series
Ans: D
Answer
[8] Voltage regulation can be achieved by a zener diode connected in
A. Parallel with the filter output, forward biased
B. Parallel with the filter output, reverse biased
C. Series with the filter output, forward biased
D. Series with the filter output, reverse biased
Ans:B
Answer
[9] A current surge takes place when a power supply is first turned on because
A. The transformer core is suddenly magnetized
B. The diodes suddenly start to conduct
C. The filter capacitor must be initially charged
D. Arching takes place in the power switch
Ans: C
Answer
[10] A dc electromagnet
A. Has constant polarity
B. Requires an air core
C. Cannot be used to permanently magnetize anything
D. Does not attract or repel permanent magnet
Ans: A
Answer
[11] In a multi-stage RC coupled amplifier the coupling capacitor______________
A) Limits the low frequency response

294
B) Limits the high frequency response
C) Does not affect the frequency response
D) Block the DC component without affecting the frequency response
Ans: A
Answer
[12] It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 deg C to 15000 deg c.
The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be?
a) Chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) Chromel - alumel
d) Platinum- rhodium
Ans: D
Answer
[13] Telemetering is a method of?
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
Ans: C
Answer
[14] A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load. If the
converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current
drawn from the source will be?
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A
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Ans: C
Answer
[15] The location of lighting arrestor is?
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
Ans: D
Answer
Electrical DC Circuits Objective Questions: Part-10
ELECTRICAL DC CIRCUITS OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS:
[1] Suppose Double the voltage in a simple dc circuit and cut the resistance in
half , then the current will
(a) Become four times as great
(b) Become twice as great
(c) Stay the same as it was before
(d) Become half as great
Ans: A
Answer
[2] If four resistors are connected in series, each with a value of 4Kohm, the total
resistance is
(a) 1kΩ
(b) 4 kΩ
(c) 8 kΩ
(d) 16 kΩ
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Ans: D
Answer
[3] Three resistors each with a value of 0.069M ohm are in parallel. The total
resistance is
(a) 23 Ω
(b) 23 KΩ
(c) 204 Ω
(d) 0.2 mΩ
Ans:B
Answer
[4] Proper biasing in an amplifier circuit
(a) Causes it to oscillate
(b) Prevents an impedance match
(c) Can be obtained using a voltage divider network
(d) Maximizes current flow
Ans: C
Answer
[5] A transistor can be protected from needless overheating by
(a) A current-limiting resistor
(b) Bleeder resistors
(c) Maximizing the drive
(d) Shorting out the power supply when the circuit is off
297
Ans: C
Answer
[6] A bleeder resistor
(a) Is connected across the capacitor in a power supply
(b) Keeps a transistor from drawing too much current
(c) Prevents an amplifier from being over driven
(d) Optimizes the efficiency of an amplifier
Ans: B
Answer
[7] An advantage of rheostat over a potentiometer is
(a) Rheostat can handle higher frequencies
(b) Rheostat is more precise
(c) Rheostat can handle more current
(d) Rheostat works better with dc
Ans: A
Answer
[8] The average power delivered to an impedance (4 - j3)Ω by a current
5cos(100πt + 100π)A is [GATE 2012]
(a) 44.2W
(b) 50W
(c) 62.5W
(d) 125W
Ans: B
298
Answer
[9] A periodic voltage waveform observed on an oscilloscope across a load is
shown. A permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) meter connected across the
same load reads [GATE 2012]
(a) 4 V
(b) 5 V
(c) 8 V
(d) 10 V
Ans: A
Answer
[10]The bridge method commonly used for finding mutual inductance is
[GATE 2012]
(a) Heaviside Campbell bridge
(b) Schering bridge
(c) De Sauty bridge
(d) Wien bridge
Ans: A
Answer
Solution Hint: Heaviside-campbell equal ratio bridge is used for measuring self-
inductance in terms of mutual inductance. Schering bridge = used for measuring
capacitance and dielectric loss of a capacitor. De Sauty bridge = used for
299
comparing the capacitances of two capacitors. Wien bridge = used for audio-
frequency measurement of capacitors over a wide range.
[11] An ideal voltage source will charge an ideal capacitor[Gate 1997]
(a) In infinite time

(b) Exponentially
(c) Instantaneously
Ans:C
Answer
[12] A practical current source is usually represented by[Gate 1997]
(a) A resistance in series with an ideal current source
(b) A resistance in parallel with an ideal current source
(c) A resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source
Ans: B
Answer
[13] Energy stored in a capacitor over a cycle, when excited by an ac source
is[Gate 1997]
(a) The same as that due to a dc source of equivalent magnitude
(b) Half of that due to a dc source of equivalent magnitude
(c) Zero
Ans: C
Answer
[14] A major advantage of the active filters is that they can be realized without
using[Gate 1997]
(a) Opamps
(b) Inductors
(c) Resistors
(d) Capacitors
Ans: B
Answer
[15] The computer program which converts statements written in high level
300
language to object code is known as [Gate 1997]

(a) Assembler
(b) Operating system
(c) Object oriented software
Ans: A
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part8 Objective Questions
SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM BASIC ELECTRICAL

ENGINEERING
[1] At resonance, the RLC series circuit behaves as a

A. Purely resistive circuit
B. Purely inductive circuit
C. Capacitive circuit
D. Reactive Circuit
Answer: A
[2] The demand factor for the electrical system is the ratio of
A. Maximum demand to connected load
B. Maximum demand to average load
C. Average power to maximum power
D. Relative power to total power
Answer: A
[3] When a low resistance is connected in parallel with a high resistance, the
combined resistance is
A. Always more than the high resistance
B. Always less than the low resistance
C. Always between the high resistance & low resistance
D. Either lower of higher than low resistance depending on the value of high
resistance
Answer: B
[4] In RLC circuit, the phase of current with respect to the circuit voltage will be
A. Leading
301
B. Same
C. Lagging
D. Depends on L & C values
Answer: D
[5] The superposition theorem is based on the concept of
A. Duality
B. Linearity
C. Reciprocity
D. Non - Linearity
Answer: B
[6] Which of the following is same is all part of the series circuit?
A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Power
D. Resistance
Answer = B
[7] An electric machine will have high efficiency when
A. Input/output ratio is low

B. Reactive power is more
C. KWh consumption is low
D. Losses are low
Answer: D
[8] In a PNP circuit, the collector
A. Has a arrow pointing inward
B. Is positive with respect to the emitter
C. Is biased at a small fraction of the base bias
D. Is negative with respect to the emitter
Answer: D
[9] A PNP transistor can be replaced with an NPN device and the circuit will do
the same thing, provided that
A. The power supply or battery polarity is reversed
302
B. The collector and emitter leads are interchanged

C. The arrow is pointing inward
D. A PNP transistor can never be replaced with NPN transistor
Answer: A
[10] The form factor of a ac voltage is
A. RMS value/ Average value
B. Average Value/ RMS Value
C. Instantaneous Value/ Average value
D. Average value/ Instantaneous value
Answer: A
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part7
SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM BASIC ELECTRIC ENGINEERING
[1] Which of the following is not a general characteristic of ac wave?
(a) The wave shape is identical for each cycle
(b) The polarity reverses periodically
(c) The electrons always flow in the same direction
(d) There is a definite frequency
Answer: C
[2] All sine waves
(a) Have similar general appearance
(b) Have instantaneous rise and fall times
(c) Are in the same phase as cosine waves
(d) Rise instantly, but decay slowly
Answer: A
303
[3] The derivative of a sine wave
(a) Is shifted in phase by ½ cycle from the sine wave
(b) Is the rate of change in the instantaneous value
(c) Has instantaneous rise and decay times
(d) Rise instantly, but decays slowly
Answer: B
[4] A phase difference of 180deg in the circular motion model of a sine wave
represents
(a) ¼ revolution
(b) ½ revolution
(c) A full revolution
(d) Two full revolution
Answer: B
[5] We can add or subtract a ….degrees of phase to or from a wave, and end up
with exactly the same wave again
(a) 90
(b) 180
(c) 270
(d) 360
Answer: D
[6] A wave has a frequency of 300kHz. One complete cycle takes…..seconds
(a) 1.3000
304
(b) 0.00333
(c) 1/3000
(d) 3.33 X 10-6
Answer: D
[7] A wave has a frequency of 440Hz, how long does it take for 10⁰ of a cycle to
occur?
(a) 0.00273s
(b) 0.0000273s
(c) 0.0000631s
(d) 0.00000631s
Answer: C
[8] One waveform has a peak value of ±3V and the other has peak value of ±5V.
These two waves are in phase coincidence. The resultant has voltages of
(a) ±8Vpk, in phase with the composites
(b) ±2 Vpk, in phase with the composites
(c) ±8Vpk, in phase opposition with respect to the composites
(d) ±2 Vpk, in phase opposition with respect to the composites
Answer: A
[9] Two pure sine waves that differ in phase by 180⁰ can be considered to
(a) Be offset by two full cycles
(b) Be in phase opposition
(c) Be separated by less than ¼ cycle

305
(d) Have a frequency of ½ cycle
Answer: B
[10] A BJT has
(a) Three PN junctions

(b) Three semiconductor layers
(c) Two N type layers around a P type layer
(d) A low avalanche voltage
Answer: B
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part-6 Objective Questions
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING:
[1] In ac circuit, the ratio of kW/kVA is

A. Power factor
B. Form factor
C. Load factor
D. Diversity factor
Ans: A
Answer
[2] Suppose that two ac waves have the same frequency but differ in phase by exactly
1/20 of a cycle. What is the phase difference between these two waves?
A. 18°
B. 20°
C. 36°
D. 5.73°
Ans: A
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Answer
[3] The unit of inductance is
A. Mho
B. Hendry
C. Ohm
D. Farad
Ans:B
Answer
[4] What is the angular frequency of the ac signal having a frequency of 1770Hz
A. 1770 rad/s
B. 11,120 rad/s
C. 282 rad/s
D. Data insufficient
Ans: B
Answer
[5] Thevenin's equivalent circuit consists of
A. Series combination of Rth, Eth, Rl

B. Series combination of Rth, Eth
C. Parallel combination of Rth, Eth, Rl
D. Parallel combination of Rth, Eth
Ans: B
Answer
[6] The frequency of DC supply is
A. 16 2/3 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 50 Hz
D. 0 Hz
Ans:D
307
Answer
[7] Load factor is defined as the ratio of
A. Max demand/ Average demand
B. Average demand/ Connected load
C. Average demand/ Max. demand
D. Connected load/ Max demand
Ans: C
Answer
[8] Q factor of an inductive coil is given by
A. 2π fL/R
B. 2π fr/R
C. R/Z
D. lr/l
Ans: A
Answer
[9] The rms value of sinusoidal 100V peak to peak is
A. 100 V
B. 50/√2 V
C. 50 V
D. 100/√2 V
Ans: D
Answer
[10] Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?
A. 220V, 60W
B. 220V, 100W
C. 115V, 60W
D. 115V, 100W
Ans: D
Answer
308
Solution Hint:
[2] One cycle = 360°.
1/20 of cycle is 360/20 = 18°
[4] Angular frequency ω = 2πf (rad/s)
[7] Some of the important terms in power system:

Demand factor = maximum demand / Connected load
Diversity factor = Sum of individual max. demands / Max. demand on
power station
The ratio of average load to the maximum demand during a given
period is known as load factor.
Load Factor = Average Load / maximum demand
[8] Quality factor is the ratio of reactive power to average power (Q/P)
Qs = [I2XL]/[I2R]
Qs = XL/R
Qs = ωL/R
Qs =2π fL/R
[9] Vrms = Vm/√2

SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FROM BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING:
[1] The wire is stretched to double its length, then its resistance R will become
(a) R/2
(b) 4R
(c) 2R
(d) R/4
Ans: B
Answer
[2] The power drawn by the circuit whose input is 20KVA and p.f is 0.8 lagging
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 8
309
Ans: C
Answer
[3] The combined resistance of two equal resistors connected in parallel is equal to
(a) One half the resistance of one resistor

(b) Twice the resistance of one resistor
(c) Four times the resistance of one resistor
(d) One fourth the resistance of one resistor
Ans: A
Answer
[4] The superposition theorem is applicable to circuits only having ............ elements
(a) Non-linear
(b) Passive
(c) Resistive
(d) Linear bilateral
Ans:D
Answer
[5] The Q-factor of a coil is given by
(a) Its power factor
(b) Ratio of max. energy stored & energy dissipated per cycle.
(c) Reciprocal of its power factor
(d) Ratio R/Z
Ans:C
Answer
[6] The power factor at resonance in RLC circuit is
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) 0.5 lagging
(d) 0.5 leading
Ans:B
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Answer
[7] Cells are connected in parallel to
(a) Increase the available voltage

(b) Reduce the cost of wiring
(c) Increase the available current
(d) Reduce the time required to fully charge them after use
Ans: C
Answer
[8] The power factor of a purely resistive circuit is
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Lagging
(d) Leading
Ans: B
Answer
[9] Which of the following has minimum running cost?
(a) Hydro electric station

(b) Nuclear power station
(c) Thermal power station
(d) Diesel power station
Ans:A
Answer
[10] The color code of a resistor 2.7Kohm with the tolerance of 10% is
(a) Red, violet, red and silver

(b) Red, violet, yellow and gold
(c) Red, violet, orange, silver
(d) Red, violet, red, gold
Ans:A
311
Answer
[1] In a 117Vrms utility circuit, the peak-to-peak voltage is approximately

A. 82.7 V
B. 165 V
C. 234 V
D. 331 V
Ans: D
Answer
[2] Watt hour is the unit of
A. Electric power
B. Electric capacity
C. Electric energy
D. Electric charge
Ans:C
Answer
[3] In India,electrical power is transmitted by
A. 1-phase ac system
B. 3-wire dc system
C. 3-phase 3-wire ac system
D. 2 wire dc system
Ans: C
Answer
[4] If two perfect sine waves have the same frequency and the same phase, the
composite wave
A. Is a sine wave with an amplitude equal to the difference between the

amplitude of the waves
312
B. Is a sine wave with an amplitude equal to the sum of the amplitudes of the
two original waves
C. Is not a sine wave, but has the same frequency as the two input waves
D. Has zero amplitude (ie, it does not exist) because the two input waves cancel
each other out.
Ans: B
Answer
[5] In a ac circuit the product of voltage and current is known as

A. Power
B. Real Power
C. Resistive power
D. Apparent power
Ans:D
Answer
[6] The advantage of AC over DC in utility applications is
A. AC is easier to transform from one voltage to another
B. AC is transmitted with lower loss in wires
C. AC can be easily obtained from dc generators
D. AC can be generated with less dangerous by products
Ans: A
Answer
[7] A network that does not have either voltage or current source is called
......network
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Resistive
D. Dummy
Ans: B
Answer
313
[8] The sixth harmonic of a ac wave whose period is 1 Milli second has a
frequency of
A. 0.006Hz
B. 167.0 Hz
C. 7.0 kHz
D. 6 kHz
Ans: D
Answer
[9] A degree of phase represents
A. 6.28 cycles
B. 57.3 cycles
C. 1/60 of a cycle
D. 1/360 of a cycle
Ans: D
Answer
[10] A battery is source of
A. DC voltage
B. 1 phase AC voltage
C. 3 phase ac voltage
D. ac or dc voltage
Ans: A
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part-3 Solved Objective
[1] The power plant having highest efficiency is
A. Hydro
314
B. Thermal
C. Nuclear
D. Diesel
Ans:C
Answer
[2] As the spacing between plates in a capacitor is made smaller
A. The capacitance increases
B. The capacitance decreases
C. The capacitance does not change
D. The resistance increases
Ans: A
Answer
[3] The relationship between frequency and time period of ac waveform is
A. f = T
B. f = 1/ T2
C. f = 1/T
D. f = T2
Ans:C
Answer
[4] The five 0.050uF capacitors are connected in parallel. The equivalent capacitance is
A. 0.010 uf
B. 0.25 uf
C. 0.50uf
D. 0.025uf
Ans: B
315
Answer
[5] The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
A. Transistor capacitance
B. High current effects in the base
C. Parasitic inductive elements
D. The early effect
Ans:A
Answer
[6] If two perfect sine waves have the same frequency and the same amplitude, but are
in opposite phase, the composite wave
A. Has twice the amplitude of either input wave alone
B. Has half the amplitude of either input wave alone
C. Is complex, but has the same frequency as the originals.
D. Has zero amplitude ( that is, it does not exist) because the two input waves cancel
each other out.
Ans: D
Answer
[7] Three capacitors are connected in series having capacitance of 8uF, 32uF, 16uF, the
total capacitance is
A. 32/7 uF
B. 7.32 uF
C. 56 uF
D. 32 uF
Ans:A
Answer
316
[8] Which one of the following does not affect the power output available from a
particular ac generator?
A. The strength of the magnet
B. The number of turns in the coil
C. The type of natural energy source used
D. The speed of rotation of the coil or magnet
Ans:C
Answer
[9] Which of the following are active components
(a) Resistor and inductor
(b) Diode, BJT, FET
(c) Opamp, BJT, thermionic triode
(d) Capacitor, Inductor
Ans: B
Answer
[10] The energy required to charge a 10 uF capacitor to 100V is
(a) 0.10 J
(b) 0.05 J
(c) 5 X 10-9 J
(d) 10 X 10-9 J
Ans: B
Answer
[11] The current in a inductor changes from 0 to 200mA in 4ms and induces a voltage of
100mV. The value of inductor is
317
(a) 2mH
(b) 0.5mH
(c) 8mH
(d) 4mH
Ans: A
Answer
[12] A battery has a short-circuit current of 30A and an open circuit voltage of 24V. If the
battery is connected to an electric bulb of resistance 2 ?, the power dissipated by the
bulb is
(a) 80W
(b) 1800W
(c) 112.5W
(d) 228W
Ans: C
Answer
[13] Which of the following is ferromagnetic material?
(a) Copper
(b) Palladium
(c) Silver
(d) Cobalt
Ans:D
Answer
[14] A complex wave form made up frequency components 1 Hz, 3 Hz, 5 Hz, 7 Hz and 9
Hz. Its fundamental frequency is
318
(a) 9 Hz
(b) 12.5 Hz
(c) 1 Hz
(d) Indeterminate
Ans: 1 Hz
Answer
[15] If a 175V dc source were connected in series with the utility mains from a standard
wall outlet, the result would be
(a) Smooth dc at a constant voltage
(b) Pure ac with equal peak voltages
(c) Ac with one peak voltage greater than the other
(d) Fluctuating dc
Ans:D
Answer
Basic Electrical Engineering: Part-2 Solved Objective
[1] The main advantage of air as a dielectric material for capacitors is
A. Has a high dielectric constant
B. Is not physically dense
C. Has low loss
D. Allows for large capacitance in a small volume
Ans:C
Answer
319
[2] Which of the following is a polarized capacitor?
A. Paper
B. Mica
C. Inter electrode
D. Electrolytic
Ans:D
Answer
[3] In a 117Vrms utility circuit, the positive peak voltage is approximately
A. 82.7V
B. 165V
C. 234V
D. 331V
Ans:B
Answer
[4] If a capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient then
A. Its capacitance decreases as the temperature rises
B. Its capacitance increases as the temperature rises
C. Its capacitance does not change with temperature
D. It will not work if the temperature is below freezing
Ans: A
Answer
[5] Inductors in series, assuming there is no mutual inductance, combine
A. Like resistors in parallel

320
B. Like resistors in series
C. Like batteries in series with opposite polarities
D. In a way unlike any other type of component
Ans:B
Answer
[6] The five 0.050 μF capacitors are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is
A. 0.010 μf
B. 0.25 μf
C. 0.50 μf
D. 0.025 μf
Ans: A
Answer
[7] A material with a high dielectric constant
A. Acts to increase capacitance per unit volume
B. Acts to decrease capacitance per unit volume
C. Has no effect on capacitance
D. Causes a capacitor to become polarized
Ans:A
Answer
[8] In a perfect sine wave, the peak to peak amplitude is equal to
A. Half the peak amplitude

321
B. The peak amplitude
C. 1.414 times the peak amplitude
D. Twice the peak amplitude
Ans: D
Answer
[9] A triangular wave exhibits
A. An instantaneous rise and a defined decay
B. A defined rise and an instantaneous decay
C. A defined rise and a defined decay, and the two are equal
D. An instantaneous rise and an instantaneous decay
Ans:C
Answer
[10] The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the sequence: yellow,
violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KΩ± 47 KΩ
(b) 470 KΩ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KΩ± 10 %
(d) 47 KΩ± 5 %
Ans: C
Answer
[11] If 120°C of charge passes through an electric conductor in 60 sec, the current in the
conductor is
(a) 0.5A
(b) 2A
(c) 3.33mA
(d) 0.3mA
Ans:B
322
Answer
[12] The energy required to move 120 coulomb through 3V is
(a) 25mJ
(b) 360J
(c) 40J
(d) 2.78mJ
Ans:B
Answer
[13] The current carrying capacity of a 1W, 4MΩ resistor used in radio receiver is
(a) 0.5kA
(b) 2kA
(c) 2mA
(d) 0.5mA
Ans: D
Answer
[14] A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2mA and results in a voltage increase
of 12V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is
(a) 0.75mF
(b) 1.33mF
(c) 0.6mF
(d) 1.67mF
Ans: D
Answer
[15] Three phase ac supply
A. Has sawtooth waves that add together in phase
B. Consists of three sine waves in different phases
C. Is a sine wave with exactly three harmonics
D. Is of interest only to physicists
Ans: B
Answer
323
Basic Electrical Objective Questions: Part 1
[1] Which of the following can vary with ac, but never with dc?
A. Power
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. Amplitude
Ans: C
Answer
[2] If all other factors are kept constant, the inductance of the air-core coil is not
affected by
A. The frequency
B. The number of turns
C. The diameter of the coil
D. The length of the coil
Ans: A
Answer
[3] The length of time between a point in one cycle and the same point in the next
cycle of an ac wave is the
A. Frequency
B. Magnitude
C. Period
D. Polarity
Ans: C
324
Answer
[4] Capacitance acts to store electrical energy as
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. A magnetic field
D. An electric field
Ans: D
Answer
[5] On a spectrum analyzer, a ac signal having only one frequency component

looks like
A. A single pip
B. A sine wave
C. A square wave
D. A sawtooth wave
Ans:A
Answer
[6] A ferromagnetic core is place in the inductor to
A. Increase the current carrying capacity
B. Increase the inductance
C. Limit the current
D. Reduce the inductance
Ans:B
Answer
325
[7] The period of a ac wave, in seconds is
A. The same as the frequency in hertz
B. Not related to the frequency in any way
C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency in hertz
D. Equal to the peak amplitude in volts divided by the frequency in hertz
Ans: C
Answer
[8] An inductor works by
A. Charging a piece of wire
B. Storing energy as a magnetic field
C. Choking off dc
D. Introducing resistance into a field
Ans:B
Answer
[9] As capacitor plate area increases
A. The capacitance increases
B. The capacitance decreases
C. The capacitance does not change
D. The current handling ability decreases
Ans: A
Answer
[10] In a small inductance
A. Energy is stored and released slowly

326
B. The current flow is always large
C. The current flow is always slow
D. Energy is stored and released quickly
Ans: D
Answer
Basic Interview Questions on Induction Motors:
[Q] How does the Induction motor work? (OR) Why does the Rotor rotate?
 When the 3 phase stator windings are fed by 3 phase supply, a magnetic
flux of constant magnitude which is rotating at synchronous speed is set up.
 The flux passes through the air-gap and sweeps past the rotor surface
thus it cuts the rotor conductors.
 Due to the relative speed between the rotating flux and the stationary rotor
conductors, an emf is induced in the stationary rotor conductors as per the
Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.
 The frequency of the induced emf is the same as the supply frequency.
 Its magnitude is proportional to the relative velocity between the flux and
the conductors.
 Its direction will be as per Fleming's right hand rule.
 Since the rotor conductors form a closed circuit the rotor current is
produced.
 This current's direction will oppose the very cause producing it ( as per
Len's law)
 Here the cause is the relative velocity between the rotating flux of the
stator and the stationary rotor conductors.
 Hence, in order to reduce the relative speed, the rotor begins to rotate in
the same direction as that of the rotating magnetic flux and tries to catch up with
the rotating flux. Thus the rotor of induction motor starts to rotate.
[Q] What is the general working principle of Induction motor?
 The conversion of electrical power into mechanical power takes place in
the rotating part of an electric motor.
327
 In DC motors the electrical power is conducted directly to the armature

through brushes and commutator.
 Thus the DC motor can be called as conduction motor. But in case of AC
motors, the rotor receives electric power, not by conduction but by induction.
 This is exactly in the same way as the secondary of two winding
transformer receives its power from the primary.
 That is why such motors are known as induction motors.
 Thus an induction motor is also known as rotating transformer ( ie, one in
which primary winding is stationary and the secondary is free to rotate)
[Q] What is the advantage of skewed stator slots in the rotor of Induction motors?
In the induction motor design, the rotor slots are purposely made with a slight
skew arrangement. It will not be parallel to the shaft.
This is for the purpose of reducing magnetic locking or reducing magnetic

attraction between stator and rotor teeth.
In addition to that this arrangement will help to reduce the magnetic hum and
noise.
[Q] What is meant by cogging in the Induction motor? How to prevent the
cogging?
When the number of teeth in stator and rotor are equal, the stator and rotor teeth
have a tendency to align themselves exactly opposite to each other, since this
corresponds to minimum reluctance position. In such case the rotor may refuse
to accelerate. This phenomenon is called as magnetic locking or cogging.
This problem can be prevented by proper choice of stator and rotor slots and
also by skewing the rotor slots by one slot pitch.
[Q] What are the various methods of measuring slip?
1. By actual measurement of rotor speed
2. By measurement of rotor frequency
3. Stroboscopic method
328
[Q] What are the various methods of speed control in three phase induction
motors?
(i) Control from stator side
1. By changing the supply frequency
2. By changing the number of stator poles
3. By changing the supply voltage
(ii) Control from rotor side
1. By inserting resistance in rotor circuit
2. By various ways of cascade connection
3. By injecting EMFs in the rotor circuit.
[Q] What is meant by crawing in the induction motor?
In induction motors, particularly squirrel cage type induction motors, sometimes

exhibit a tendency to run stably at speeds as low as one-seventh of their
synchronous speed Ns. This phenomenon is known as crawling of an induction
motor and the speed is called as crawling speed.
Alternators related Interview Questions with Answers
Frequently Asked Interview Questions on Alternators

In this post we had given few Alternators related Interview questions with
solutions. We believe that it will be helpful for your interview preparation. Please
leave your comments in comments section.
[Q] What is meant by synchronising the alternators?

The process of connecting two or more alternators in parallel for supplying a
common load is called synchronising.
329
[Q] What are the conditions to be satisfied for proper synchronising of

alternators?
(i) The terminal voltage of the incoming alternator must be the same as bus-bar
voltage.
(ii) The speed of the incoming alternator must be such that its frequency equals
to the bus-bar frequency
(iii) The phase sequence of the incoming alternator must be the same as that of
the other alternators or busbars.
[Q] What are the advantages of Parallel operation of alternators?

(i) It ensures continuity of power supply to consumers in case of breakdown of an
alternator in an generation station.
(ii) This is economical and improves the efficiency of the generating station.
(iii) When the demand of power increases, new alternators can be installed to
operate in parallel.
(iv) It is not possible to built single large size alternator to meet the requirement.
[Q] What are types of rotors used in alternators?

There are two types of rotors used in alternators namely
(i) Salient pole rotor
(ii) Smooth cylindrical type rotor
[Q] What are the advantages of providing damper winding?

The damper winding is useful in preventing the hunting ( momentary speed
fluctuations) in generators.
The damper winding also used to maintain balanced 3 phase voltage under
unbalanced load conditions.
[Q] What are the various methods to determine the voltage regulation of the large
alternators?
In case of small machines, the regulation can be found by direct loading.
For large alternators, to find the voltage regulation indirect methods are used.
They are
(i)Synchronous Impedance Method.
(ii) The Ampere-turn method.
(iii) Zero power factor or Pointer Method.
330
[Q] What is the basic principle of alternators?

Alternators is noting but a AC generators. They operate on the fundamental
principle of electromagnetic induction as dc generators.
ie, when the rotor rotates, the emf is induced in the stator.
[Q] Which type of rotor is suitable for low speed alternators? salient pole type or
cylindrical type rotor?
Salient pole type alternators are suitable for low and medium speed alternators. It
has large number of projecting poles. It has large diameters and short axial
lengths.
[Q] What is meant by turbo alternators?

High speed alternators are called as Turbo alternators.
As it runs at very high speed, salient pole rotors are not used. Smooth cylindrical
type rotor is suitable for turbo alternators.
Power Electronics Graduate Trainee Interview [BGR Energy]
These questions were asked in Power Electronics Graduate Trainee Interview conducted
by BGR Energy Systems Company at MIT Chennai.
[1] Draw and Explain the SCR V-I characteristic?

331
Vak = +ve & Vg = 0

(i) When a positive voltage is applied to anode with respect to cathode, the junctions J1
and J3 are forward biased, but the junction J2 is reverse biased.
(ii) The SCR is in its forward blocking state. At this time the Gate signal is not applied.
(iii) As shown in figure a small amount of forward leakage current is flows through the
device.
Vak = + & Vg = +ve

(i) When the small amount of positive voltage is applied, while positive voltage is applied
to anode with respect to cathode, the junction J3 becomes forward biased.
(ii) Thus the SCR conducts a large value of forward current with small voltage drop. With
the application of gate signal the SCR changed from forward blocking state to forward
conducting state. It is called as latching.Without gate signal it happens at forward
breakdown voltage (Vfbd).
(iii) When the gate signal value is increased, the latching happens for low Vak voltages as
mentioned in the figure. In the presence of forward current (i.e. after the thyristor is
turned on by a suitable gate voltage) it will not turn off even after the gate voltage has
been removed.
(iv) The thyristor will only turn off when the forward current drops below holding
current. The holding current is defined as the minimum current required to hold the SCR
in the forward conduction state.
Vak = -ve
(i) When a negative voltage is applied to anode with respect to cathode, the junctions J1
and J3 are reversed biased, but the junction J2 is forward biased. The SCR is in its reverse
blocking state.
332
(ii) As shown in figure a small amount of reverse leakage current flows through the
device.
If the applied voltage is more than reverse breakdown voltage, the device will collapse
and the large amount of current flows through it.
[2] Explain Buck topology
(i) When the switch is ON condition (ie, T ON), the input provides energy to inductor and
output.
(ii) The difference between the input and output voltage is applied to inductor as shown
in the below waveform.
(iii) When the switch is turned off, the inductor current will flow in the same direction to
load. It is inductor property to maintain the current flow in the same direction.
(iv) The freewheeling diode D1 is forward biased at this time and completes the inductor
current path.
333
The output of the buck converter with continuous output current is
Vout = D*VIN
D = Duty cycle = TON / [TON + TOFF]
[3] Compare MOSFET and BJT

BJT MOSFET
More Power handling Capability Less Power handling capability
Low switching speed Fast switching speed
High On state resistance Low on state resistance
Has second breakdown voltage problem No second breakdown voltage problem

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Electrical Objective Questions

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1

1. One coulomb of electrical charge is contributed by how many electrons?

Electrical charge of one electron is – 1.6 × 10 – 19

2. 5 × 10 electrons pass across the section of a conductor in 1 minutes and

20 seconds. The current is flowing

charge passes across the section of a conductor in 1 minute and 20

across the section in one second, is 8 × 10 –3

4. Ampere – second is the unit of

5. The current in a circuit follows the relation i = 100sinωt. If frequency is 25

6. The equation of a current is given by i = I sin2ωt. The frequency of

Comparing, (1) and (2) we get, 2ωt = 2πft or, ω = πf or, f = ω ⁄ π.

7. The equation of alternating current is i = 42.4sin628t. Then the average

Here, I = 42.4 A. Therefore, I = 0.636 × 42.4 = 26.97 A.

8. If 1 A current is flowing through a series circuit having 100 resistors of

11. For carrying an current of 75 A an aluminium conductor should have a

The current carrying capacity of aluminium conductor is near about 3 A /

made d / 2, then the drift velocity becomes

The drift velocity is a basic property of conductor material and hence it

14. On which factors does the severity of electric shock depends ?

15. Five coulomb of electrical charge is contributed by how many electrons?

Electrical charge of one electron is – 1.6 × 10 , hence five coulomb implies

16. The transient current in a series AC circuit is given by

Find the initial current ?

17. Alternating current is found most suitable for

19. How many coulombs of charge flows through a circuit carrying 5 A in 5

1. The flow of current in solids is due to

2. Ampere second could be the unit of

3. The drift velocity of electrons is

4. The charge on an electron is known to be 1.6 × 10 coulomb. In a circuit

Thus, the number of electrons in a second is equals to 0.625 × 10 . 19

5. In gases the flow of current is due to

7. An instrument which detects current is known as

current, needle is actuated. Since, it is used to detect some micro

8. Current flows in a circuit when

9. Eight-tenths coulomb passes a point in 4 s. The current in amperes is

10. An ammeter is an electrical instrument used to measure

11. The rate of flow an electric charge is known as

The rate of flow of an electric charge is referred as the movement of

12. The minimum requirement for causing flow of current are

Perception level. Slight tingling sensation.

Slight shock felt, not painful but disturbing.

Painful shock, begin to lose muscular

30mA – Extreme pain, respiratory arrest, severe

muscular contractions. Individual cannot let

Ventricular fibrillation (uneven,

Cardiac arrest, internal organ damage, and

15. Current velocity through the copper conductor is

B. independent of the current strength.

A = Cross sectional area of conductor (m ) 2

Q = Charge on a single electron (Coulombs)

less. Although the drift velocity of electrons is so less but

16. Which of the following statements is true?

17. An electric bulb can be worked from

18. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

19. When current passes through a metallic conductor, it temperature rises.

20. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

1. A conductor of length L has carrying current I passing through it, when it

2. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional

3. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents

4. A wire carrying current is bent in the form of a circular loop. Then

B. perpendicular to the circumference of the wire.

5. Cork Screw rule is used to find

Given data: Current I and I = 100 Amps; Distance = 20 mm = 20 × 10 m;