QT Merged

QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES FOR BUSINESS – I
1. Which one of the following is not a function of statistics?

(a) To simplify complexities (b) To compare data with respect to time and date
(c) To forecast the future (d) To pass a bill
2. Statistical methods are
(a) Collection of data (b) Analysis of data
(c) Classification of data (d) All of these
3. In _______ sense, statistics refers to a set of methods and techniques used for
collection, tabulation, analysis and interpretation of statistical data.
(a) Normal (b) Singular
(d) Plural (d) Varied
4. Which branch of statistics is used to make generalisation about the population based
on the samples?
(a) Descriptive Statistics (b) Inferential Statistics
(c) Empirical Statistics (d) General Statistics
5. Statistics can
(a) Prove anything (b) Disprove anything
(c) Neither prove nor disprove anything: but is a tool (d) solve everything
6. Statistical results are
(a) Absolutely correct (b) Universally Correct
(c) True on an average (d) Not correct
7. Distrust of statistics arises on account of
(a) Lack of Knowledge and limitation of its uses (b) Science of statistics
(c) Collection of data by skilled persons (d) Complete disclosure of data collected
8. Which one of the following is not true?
(a) Statistics does not study the individual cases
(b) Statistical results are true only an average
(c) Statistics reveal the entire story of the problem
(d) Statistics are only one of the methods of studying a problem
9. Primary data as compared to secondary data are
(a) less reliable (b) equally reliable
(c) not actual data (d) more reliable
10. Data collected from “The Hindu” newspaper is an example of
(a) Primary data (b) Secondary data
(c) Continuous data (d) None of these
11. _________ is a suitable method of collecting data in cases where the informants are
literate and spread over a vast area
(a) Mailed Questionnaire (b) Direct personal Interview
(c) Observation Method (d) Schedule method
12. The data collected on the height of a group of students after recording their heights
with a measuring tape are
(a) Primary data (b) Secondary data
(c) Discrete data (d) Continuous data
13. If all the units of the universe under study are considered for data collection, this
method of data collection is called
(a) Sampling method (b) Survey method
(c)Primary method (d) Census method
14. Which method of data collection is suitable when data to be collected are
confidential?
(a) Mailed Questionnaire (b) Direct personal Interview
(c) Observation Method (d) Schedule method
15. Data originally collected for an investigation is called
(a) Discrete data (b) Secondary data
(c) Primary data (d) Continuous data
16. Which one of the following is not true about census method?
(a) It is suitable when population is heterogeneous
(b) Census method possess high degree of accuracy
(c) Census method helps in intensive study of a problem
(d) It is cheap and is less time consuming
17. The technique of inspecting or studying only a selected representative and adequate
fraction of the population and drawing conclusions based on the study for the entire
universe is called..
(a) Sampling (b) Survey
(c)Primary method (d) Census
18. The listing of all units in the population under study is called
(a)List (b) stub
(c)Frame (d) Caption
19. Ton, kilogram, Rupees, hour etc are examples of
(a) Simple units (b) Composite units
(c) Primary unit (d) Complex units
20. Primary Data are in the nature of __________ from which the investigator draws
conclusions by applying statistical methods for analysis and interpretations
(a) Raw materials (b) Finished products
(c) Work in progress (d) Closing stock
21. Secondary data are in the nature of ____________ as they have already passed
through the statistical machine.
(a) Raw materials (b) Finished products
(c) Work in progress (d) Closing stock
22. Which type of data goes through further analysis and changes its shape in the course
of its use?
23. Which type of data requires less precaution at the time of collection but more at the
time of analysis?
24. Which one of the following is not a method of primary data collection?
(a) Observation Method (b) Schedules sent through enumerators
(c) Indirect oral investigation (d) Publications of Trade associations
25. The group of individuals under study is known as
(a) Sample (b) Data
(c) Population (d) None of the above
26. Which method of data collection is free from sampling errors?
(a) Census Method (b) Sample Survey
(c) Non random sampling (d) None of the above
27. Which method of sampling uses random selection to generate representative samples
from population?
(a) Non – Probability Sampling (b) Non random sampling
(c) Probability sampling (d) None of the above
28. Which one of the following is not a method of simple random sampling?
(a) Lottery Method (b) Table of random numbers
(c) Grid System (d) Quota Sampling
29. Which one of the following is not a method of Non Probability Sampling?
(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Quota Sampling
(c) Snowball Sampling (d) Cluster Sampling
30. ______________ is a method of stratified sampling in which selection within strata is
non-random.
(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Quota Sampling
(c) Snowball Sampling (d) Cluster Sampling
31. Presenting numerical facts in rows and columns is known as
(a) Classification (b) Coding
(c) Editing (d) Tabulation
32. In this type of interview the interviewer does not follow any list of pre-determined
questions
(a) Structured (b) Unstructured
(c) Depth (d) focused
33. A population containing definite number of object is called
(a) Finite Population (b) Infinite Population
(c) Destructive Population (d) Universe
34. Random sampling under restricted sampling technique is called
(a) Lottery method (b) Cluster sampling
(c) Complex random sampling (d) Random number method
35. Under this method samples are drawn stage by stage.
(a) Cluster sampling (b) Multi stage sampling
(c) Random sampling (d) Judgement sampling
36. Table numbers are given for identification and __________
(a) Attractiveness (b) Promptness
(c) Future reference (d) Brevity
37. _________ refers to the techniques, procedures and methods used for checking and
adjusting data for omissions, errors, consistency and legibility.
(a) Coding (b) Tabulation
(c) Editing (d) Classification
38. ________ is an analytical process in which data, both in quantitative form or
qualitative form are categorised to facilitate analysis.
39. The process of arranging the data in groups or classes according to resemblances and
similarities in order to make the data clear and meaningful is called ____________.
40. Column headings are called
(a) Stubs (b) Captions
(c) Source Note (d) Head Note
41. Row headings are known as
(a) Stubs (b) Captions
(c) Source Note (d) Head Note
42. In tabulation source of the data, if any, is shown in the
(a) Footnote (b) Body
(c) Stub (d) Caption
43. The primary data are collected by
(a) Interview Method (b) Schedule
(c) Observation (d) All of these
44. Investigator’s knowledge about the population is the basis in
(a) Purposive Sampling (b) Stratified Sampling
(c) Random Sampling (d) Systematic Sampling
45. Sampling errors are present only in
(a) Complete enumeration survey. (b) Sample Survey
(c) Both sample and census surveys (d) None of the above
46. Sampling errors can be reduced by

(a) Convenient Sampling (b) Increasing the sample Size
(c) Decreasing the sample Size (d) None of the above
47. In chronological classification data are classified on the basis of
(a) Attributes (b) Class intervals
(c) Time (d) Locations
48. What is the difference between the upper limit and lower limit of the class known as?
(a) Class Limit (b) Class Frequency
(c) Class Interval (d) Class mark
49. Under which method of forming class intervals, the upper limit of one class interval is
the lower limit of the next class?
(a) Exclusive method ` (b) Inclusive method
(c) Statistical series (d) None of the above
50. A collection of items, which cannot be exactly measured, but placed within certain
limits is called _________
(a) Continuous series (b) Discrete series
(c) Individual series (d) Class limits
51. The methods of finding out the average value of a statistical series is called measures
of ___________
(a) Dispersion (b) Frequency
(d) Central Tendency (d) Positions
52. Which one of the following is not a positional average?
(a) Median (b) Quartiles
(c) Mode (d) Harmonic Mean
53. Which one of the following is not a mathematical average?
(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Median
(c) Geometric mean (d) Harmonic mean
54. The arithmetic mean of observations 14,13,32,41 and 55 is:
(a) 23 (b) 25
(c) 31 (d) 32
55. Which of the following is not affected by extreme values?

56. Which one of the following is a positional average?
57. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Mean is rigidly defined (b) Mean is not affected due to sampling fluctuations
(c) Mean has some mathematical properties
(d) Mean is not affected by extreme values
58. For averaging the speed of a vehicle the best average is
59. Quartiles divide the given data into
(a) Four equal parts (b) Two equal parts
(c) Five equal parts (d) Ten Equal parts
60. Median can be determined graphically by using
(a) Histogram (b) Frequency Polygon
(c) Ogive (d) Pie Diagram
61. Median from the observations (15, 13, 3, 18, 21, 2) is
(a) 14 (b) 21 (c) 3 (d) 18
62. Mode of the observations (5, 12, 13, 11, 2, 5, 12, 7, 5)
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 7 (d) 5
63. Which of the following cannot be calculated if any observation is Zero?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Harmonic Mean
(c) Geometric Mean (d) Median
64. Mean of 3 items is 20. The first two items are 25 and 15. What is the third item?
(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 25 (d) 18
65. Mean and median of a series are 20. What is mode?

(a) 40 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) Cannot identify
66. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Median = 3 Mode – 2 Mean
(b) Mean = 3 Median – 2 Mean
(c) Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median
(d) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
67. If mode is 10, the highest value of the observation is increased by 5. What will be the
new mode?
(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 5
68. Which of the measure of central tendancy based on all the observations
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Quartile
69. For determination of mode, the class intervals should be
(a) Uniform (b) Maximum
(c) Minimum (d) None
70. The value of a set of observation that occurs most is called
(a) Mean (b) Median
71. Second quartile is also known as
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Percentile
72. When 10 is added to all the observations in a series, then mean is
(a) Increased by 10 (b) Decreased by 10
(c) Same (d) Zero
73. For a moderately asymmetrical distribution, which of the following relationship is
correct?
(a) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median)
(b) Mean – Mode = 3 (Median – Mean)
(c) Mean – Median = 3 (Mean – Median)
(d) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mode – Median)
74. If median is 20 and mean is 22.5 in a moderately skewed distribution, then compute
approximate value of mode?
(a) 21 (b) 15
(c) 22.5 (d) 20
75. Mutually exclusive classification
(a) Excludes both the class limits
(b) Exclude the upper class limit but includes the lower class limit
(c) Includes the upper class limit but excludes the upper class limit
(d) Either (b) or (c)
76. Mode of a distribution can be obtained from
(a) Histogram (b) Less than type ogives
(c) More than type ogives (d) Frequency polygon
77. Median of a distribution can be obtained from
(a) Frequency polygon (b) Histogram
(c) Less than type ogives (d) None of these
78. The number of observations falling within a class is called
(a) Density (b) Frequency
(c) Class Size (d) Class Interval
79. Difference between the maximum and minimum value of a given data is called
(a) Width (b) Size
(c) Range (d) None of the above
80. Class: 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Frequency: 5 10 11 6 2
What is the cumulative frequency of the class 20-30?
(a)11 (b) 15
(c)34 (d) 26
81. Find the arithmetic mean of the following distribution(10,15,20,25,30,35)
(a) 20 (b) 22.5
(c)25 (d) 17.5
82. The point of intersection of the ‘less than’ and ‘more than’ ogives corresponds to
(a) Median (b) Mode
(c) Mean (d) Percentile
83. In a symmetrical distribution mean is _________median and mode.
(a) Greater than (b) Less than
(c) Equal to (d) greater than or equal to
84. __________ is the reciprocal of the arithmetic average of the reciprocal of values of
various items in the variable.
(a) Geometric Mean (b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Harmonic Mean (d) Median
85. If in a moderately asymmetrical frequency distribution, the values of the median and
arithmetic mean are 72 and 78 respectively, estimate the value of the mode.
(a) 74 (b) 76
(c) 78 (d) 60
86. ___________ is defined as the N th root of the product of N items.
(a) Geometric Mean (b) Arithmetic Mean
87. Q2, second quartile is better known as
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Percentile
88. The sum of the deviations of the items from the arithmetic mean, taking into account
plus and minus signs, is always
(a) Positive (b) negative
(c) Zero (d) Greater than 1
89. Which type of average is usually used to calculate growth rates like population growth
or interest rates.
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Geometric Mean
90. Which measures are also called averages of the ‘second order’?
(a) Measures of Dispersion (b) Measures of Frequency
(d) Measures of Central Tendency (d) Measures of Positions
91. ____________ indicates the extent to which the individual values fall away from the
average or central value.
(a) Dispersion (b) Frequency
(d) Central Tendency (d) Positions
92. Dispersion is the measure of __________ of the items
(a) Average (b) Normality
(c) Position (d) Variation
93. Which of the following is not correct about measure of dispersion?
(a) It is capable of algebraic treatment
(b) It indicates degree of variations
(c) It helps in comparison
(d) It is affected by extreme values
94. Relative measures of dispersion is also known as?
(a) Co-efficients of dispersion (b) Absolute dispersion
(c) Cumulative dispersion (d) None of the above
95. Which of the following measures of dispersion is not a positional measure?
(a) Range (b) Inter Quartile Range
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Mean Deviation
96. Which of the following measures of dispersion is a positional measure?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Quartile Deviation
(c) Standard Deviation (d) Lorenz Curve
97. Which of the following is/are algebraic measures of dispersion?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Standard Deviation
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
98. The difference between the two extreme values of a series is called?
(a) Frequency (b) Range
(c) Mean Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
99. Which of the following measures of dispersion is a graphic method based on
cumulative frequency?
(a) Range (b) Median
(c) Mean deviation (d) Lorenz Curve
100. From the following distribution ascertain the value of range?
Days: Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Price: 200 280 150 400 500
(a) 300 (b) 350
(b) 500 (d) 500
101. From the following series determine the value of range?
Marks: 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
No of students 3 5 7 8 1 5 1
(a)7 (b) 8
(c) 70 (d) 60
102. _________ is defined as the difference between the two extreme quartiles of a series
(c) Inter Quartile Range (d) Quartile Deviation
103. Inter Quartile range represents the difference between the third quartile and
(a) First Quartile (b) Second Quartile
(c) Range (d) Fourth Quartile
104. _________ is defined as the average of the difference between the two extreme
quartiles of a series
(c) Inter Quartile Range (d) Quartile Deviation
105. Semi Inter Quartile Range is also called by the name
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
106. Quartile deviation gives the average amount by which the two quartiles differ from the
_____________.
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Median (d) Mode
107. What is defined as the arithmetic average of the deviations of items of a series taken
from its central value ignoring the plus and minus sign?
(a) Range (b) Mean Deviation
(c)Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
108. Mean deviation can be calculated from which of the following measures of central
tendency?
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) All of the above
109. The square root of the arithmetic average of the squares of deviation taken from the
arithmetic average of a series is called?
(c)Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
110. Which measure of dispersion is also known as ‘root-mean-square deviation’?
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
111. Standard deviation can be calculated from which of the following measures of central
tendency?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) All of the above
112. Mean deviation is based on simple average of the sum of
(a) Absolute deviations (b) Squared Deviations
(c) Positive Deviations (d) Negative deviations
113. Standard deviation is based on simple average of the sum of
(a) Absolute deviations (b) Squared Deviations
(c) Positive Deviations (d) Negative deviations
114. The ratio of Standard deviation to actual mean expressed in percentage is called
(a) Co-efficient of Mean (b) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
(c) Co-efficient of Variation (d) None of the above
115. ______________ is the mean of the squares of deviations of all observations of a
series from their mean.
(a) Co-efficient of Variation (b) Variance
(c) Range (d) Standard deviation
116. The square of standard deviation is called
(a) Coefficient of Variation (b) Mean
(c) Variance (d) Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
117. The graphical method of showing deviation of size of items from the average is called
(a) Histogram (b) Ogive
(c) Polygon (d) Lorenz Curve
118. The extend of symmetry or asymmetry in a distribution is called
(a) Kurtosis (b) Moments
(c) Skewness (d) Variance
119. In a series with positive skewness
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean is negative
(c) Mean > Median > Mode (d) Mean < Median < Mode
120. In a series with negative skewness
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean is negative
(c) Mean > Median > Mode (d) Mean < Median < Mode
121. If the value of mean is greater than mode, skewness will be
(a) Symmetric (b) Positive
(c) Negative (d) Zero
122. If the value of mean is less than mode, skewness will be
(a) Symmetric (b) Positive
123. The arithmetic average of a certain power of deviations of the items from their
arithmetic mean is called as ____________.
(a) Moments (b) Skewness
(c) Kurtosis (d) Variance
124. The first central moment will be always
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) One (d) Zero
125. _____________ means the degree of the extent of peakedness of a distribution
compared to a normal distribution.
(a) Moments (b) Skewness
(c) Kurtosis (d) Variance
126. What is called for a frequency curve which is more peaked than the normal curve?
(a) Leptokurtic (b) Mesokurtic
(c) Platykurtic (d) Isokurtic
127. A normal curve which is neither too peaked nor too flat is called
128. When a frequency curve is more flat topped than the normal curve, it is called as
129. Measures of dispersion means measurement of
(a) Scatterness of data (b) Concentration of data
(c) Similarity of data (d) Both (a) and (b)
130. Measurement based on extreme values in the series is ;
(a) Range (b) Standard deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) All of these
131. Sum of the deviations from mean is;
(a) Negative (b) Least
(c) Positive (d) Zero
132. Which of the following measure is considered for comparison of two or more set of
observations?
(a) Mean Deviation (b) Standard Deviation
(c) Coefficient of variation (d) All of these
133. Which of the following measure is based on all the observations?
(a) Range (b) Inter Quartile Range
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Standard Deviation
134. The range of the observation, 20, 31, 15,8, 39, 42 is;
(a) 34 (b) 24
(c) 26 (d) 15
135. Standard deviation of a set of observation is 8. If all the observations are multiplied by
5, then the new standard deviation would be,
(a) 13 (b) 40
(c) 8 (d) 3
136. The degree to which numerical data tend to spread about an average value is called;
(a) Variation (b) Dispersion
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) None of these
137. When Q1 is 15 and Q3 is 24, the value of quartile deviation is:
(a) 9 (b) 19.5
(c) 4.5 (d) 12
138. Range of a set of values is 12 and its highest value is 35, then its lowest value is
(a) 23 (b) 15
(c) 47 (d) 11.5
139. The less the co-efficient of variation of a distribution, the ___________ is the
consistency.
(a) Less (b) More
(c) zero (d) Minimum
140. A distribution is said to be symmetric when its:
(a) Mean = Median = Mode (b) Mean = Median + Mode
(c) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean (d) Mean, median and mode are not equal
141. Skewness refers to:
(a) Peakedness (b) Asymmetry
(c) Symmetry (d) Flatness
142. For a symmetric distribution the value of skewness is ________
(a) One (b) Greater than 1
143. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness is based on ___________
(a) Quartiles (b) Mode
(c) Range (d) None of these
144. If each of the items of a series is multiplied by a common factor, the value of standard
deviation is;
(a) Unaffected (b) decreased
(c) Increased (d) Zero
145. Two basic statistical laws concerning a population are
(a) The law of statistical irregularity and the law of inertia of large numbers
(b) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of large numbers
(c) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of small numbers
(d) The law of statistical irregularity and the law of inertia of small numbers
146. The __________ the size of a sample more reliable is the result.
(a) Medium (b) Smaller
(c) Larger (d) none
147. The more the mean moves away from the mode, the larger the
(a) Symmetry (b) Kurtosis
(c) Median (d) Skewness
148. Which of the following is not true about skewness?
(a) It refers to lack of symmetry
(b) Skewness will be always positive
(c) It is always used as a relative measure
(d) It studies the concentration of the data either in lower or higher values
149. The absolute measure of skewness is based on the difference between
(a) Mean and Mode (b) Mean and Median
(c)Median and Mode (d) None
150. Relative measure of skewness is also known as
(a) Mean Variation (b) Co-efficient of skewness
(c) Coefficient of Variance (d) Kurtosis
151. Bowley’s Co-efficient of skewness is also known as
(a) Range co-efficient of skewness (b) Percentile Co-efficient of skewness
(c) Mean co-efficient of skewness (d) Quartile Co-efficient of skewness
152. _________ refers to the insertion of an intermediate value is a series of items.

(a) Interpolation (b) Extrapolation
(c) Moments (d) None
153. __________ refers to the projection of a value for the future
154. ___________ helps us in forecasting.
155. ____________ gives us the missing link.
156. Name the statistical technique used for estimating the population of 2012, if
population of 2010 and 2015 is known?
157. ___________ refers to estimating values for future period.
158. Statistics is an art as well as
(a) Average (b) Theory
(c) Science (d) None
159. ________ is the most commonly used measure of central tendency?
(a) Mean (b) Median
160. When the distribution is of open end classes which average may be appropriate?
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None
161. Geometric mean is useful in
(a) Finding average % increase in sales, production (b) Finding index numbers
(c) Both (d) None
162. The formula for finding Quartile Deviation is
(a) (Q3-Q1)/2 (b) (Q2-Q3)/2
(c) (Q2-Q1)/2 (d) (Q3 + Q1)/2
163. Standard Deviation was first introduced by
(a) Karl Pearson (b) Horas Secrist
(c) Lorance (d) Spearman
164. Moments are used to find a measure of
(a) Central tendency (b) Dispersion
(c) Skewness (d) All these
165. Statistical methods are most dangerous tools in the hands of
(a) Expert (b) Inexpert
(c)Business man (d) All of them
166. __________ is used whenever the relative importance of the items in a series differs.
(a) Simple arithmetic mean (b) Weighted arithmetic mean
(c) Geometric mean (d) None
167. Median is a _________ average.
(a) Mathematical (b) Neutral
(c) Arithmetical (d) Positional
168. Which of the following is not a mathematical average?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Harmonic Mean
(c) Geometric Mean (d) Mode
169. __________ divides the data into four equal parts?
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Quartiles (d) Median
170. Which of the following cannot be computed from an open ended distribution?
(a) Range (b) Mean
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
171. Measures of dispersion are statistical devices to measure the _______ in a series.
(a) Variability (b) Convertibility
(c) Flexibility (d) None
172. Squares of __________ is known as variance
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean
(c) Mean Deviation (d) Median
173. In standard deviation, deviations are measured from
(a) Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None
174. A measure of dispersion is an average of
(a) Variance (b) Skewness
(c) Median (d) Deviation
175. When first quartile (Q1) is 20 and third quartile (Q3) is 40, What will be the quartile
deviation?
(a) 5 (b) 30
(c) 10 (d) 25
176. If the range of a series is 20 and its lowest value is 10. What will be the highest value
in the series?
(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 200
177. Statistics is defined in terms of numerical data in
(a) Singular sense (b) Plural sense
(c) Both (d) None
178. Measures of central tendency is also known as measures of
(a) Central calculation (b) Central location
(c) Central information (d) Central data
179. Short cut method for calculating arithmetic mean also known as
(a) Assumed average method (b) Assumed variable method
(c) Assumed mean method (d). Arithmetic variable method
180. There are equal numbers of observation on the right and on the left of _______ value.
(a) mean (b) median
(c) mode (d) 1st Quartile
181. _________ is the percentage variation in mean.
(a) Variance (b) S.D
(c) Co-efficient of variation (d) M.D
182. Which of the following is an absolute measure of dispersion?
(a) Co-efficient of variation (b) Standard deviation
(c) Co-efficient of quartiles (d) Co-efficient of mean deviation
183. Standard deviation is always _________ than mean deviation.
(a) Smaller (b) greater
(c) Negative (d) Nuetral
184. Average is a measure of _________________ .
(a) Correlation (b) Dispersion
(c) Central Tendency (d) Skewness
185. In kurtosis, the normal curve is termed as __________.
(c) Platokurtic (d) None
186. Lorenz curve is a geometric method of measuring
(a) Variability (b) flexibility
(c) Normality (d) Skewness
187. ______ percentage of values of a series are less than Q1.
(a) 10 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 15
188. Random sampling is also referred to as __________ sampling
(a) Probability (b) Non Probability
(c) Purposive (d) Easy
189. Classification is the _______ step in tabulation.
(a) Final (b) First
(c) Second (c) Third
190. Harmonic mean is the _______ of the arithmetic mean of the values.
(a) Square (b) negative
(c) Opposite (d) Reciprocal
191. The sum of squares of deviations is least when measured from
(a) Median (b) Mean
(c) Mode (d) Zero
192. The quartile deviation includes the
(a) First 50% (b) Last 50 %
(c) Central 50 % (d) None
193. According to Bowely, “Statistics may rightly be called the science of
(a) Numbers (b) Figures
(c) Averages (d) Arithmetics
194. Which sampling provides separate estimate for population means for different
segments and also an overall estimate?
(a) Multistage sampling (b) Stratified Sampling
(c) Simple Random Sampling (d) Systematic Sampling
195. Which sampling is subjected to the discretion of the sampler?
(a) Systematic Sampling (b) Purposive Sampling
(c) Quota Sampling (d) Random Sampling
196. Determine the value of median from the following items
Runs : 110, 115, 140, 117, 109, 113, 120
(a) 140 (b) 117
(c) 115 (d) 120
197. Which of the following is not a partition value?
(a) Quartiles (b) Percentiles
(c) Deciles (d) Mode
198. The value of median is 141 and mean is 140 in a moderately assymmetrical
distribution. Find the value of mode?
(a) 140 (b) 141
(c) 142 (d) 143
199. Which of the following is not a characteristic of measure of dispersion?

(a) It is capable of algebraic treatment (b) It indicates degree of variation
(c) It is affected by extreme values (d) It Helps in comparison
200. Which measure is based on only the central fifty percent of the observations?
(a) Standard Deviation (b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation (d) Range
Answers
1. (d) To pass a bill
2. (d) All of these
3. (b) Singular
4. (b) Inferential Statistics
5. (c)Neither prove nor disprove anything: but is a tool
6. (c) True on an average
7. (a) Lack of Knowledge and limitation of its uses
8. (c) Statistics reveal the entire story of the problem
9. (d) more reliable
10. (b) Secondary data
11. (a) Mailed Questionnaire
12. (a) Primary data
13. (d) Census method
14. (b) Direct personal Interview
15. (c) Primary data
16. (d) It is cheap and is less time consuming
17. (a) Sampling
18. (c)Frame
19. (a) Simple units
20. (a) Raw materials
21. (b) Finished products
22. (c) Primary data
23. (b) Secondary data
24. (d) Publications of Trade associations
25. (c) Population
26. (a) Census Method
27. (c) Probability sampling
28. (d) Quota Sampling
29. (d) Cluster Sampling
30. (b) Quota Sampling
31. (d) Tabulation
32. (b) Unstructured
33. (a) Finite Population
34. (c) Complex random sampling
35. (b) Multi stage sampling
36. (c) Future reference
37. (c) Editing
38. (a) Coding
39. (d) Classification
40. (b) Captions
41. (a) Stubs
42. (a) Footnote
43. (d) All of these
44. (a) Purposive Sampling
45. (b) Sample Survey
46. (b) Increasing the sample Size
47. (c) Time
48. (c) Class Interval
49. (a) Exclusive method
50. (a) Continuous series
51. (d) Central Tendency
52. (d) Harmonic Mean
53. (b) Median
54. (c) 31
55.(b) Median
56.(b) Median
57.(d) Mean is not affected by extreme values
58.(d) Harmonic mean
59.(a) Four equal parts
60.(c) Ogive
61.(a) 14
62.(d) 5
63.(b) Harmonic Mean
64.(a) 20
65.(c) 20
66.(d) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
67.(c) 10
68.(a) Mean
69.(a) Uniform
70.(c) Mode
71.(b) Median
72.(a) Increased by 10
73.(a) Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median)
74.(b) 15
75.(b) Exclude the upper class limit but includes the lower class limit
76.(a) Histogram
77.(c) Less than type ogives
78.(b) Frequency
79.(c) Range
80.(d) 26
81.(b) 22.5
82.(a) Median
83.(c) Equal to
84.(c) Harmonic Mean
85.(d) 60
86.(a) Geometric Mean
87.(b) Median
88.(c) Zero
89.(b) Geometric Mean
90.(a) Measures of Dispersion
91.(a) Dispersion
92.(d) Variation
93.(d) It is affected by extreme values
94.(a) Co-efficients of dispersion
95.(d) Mean Deviation
96.(b) Quartile Deviation
97.(c) Both (a) and (b)
98.(b) Range
99.(d) Lorenz Curve
100. (b) 350
101. (d) 60
102. (c) Inter Quartile Range
103. (a) First Quartile
104. (d) Quartile Deviation
105. (c) Quartile Deviation
106. (c) Median
107. (b) Mean Deviation
108. (d) All of the above
109. (d) Standard Deviation
111. (a) Arithmetic Mean
112. (a) Absolute deviations
113. (b) Squared Deviations
114. (c) Co-efficient of Variation
115. (b) Variance
116. (c) Variance
117. (d) Lorenz Curve
118. (c) Skewness
119. (c) Mean > Median > Mode
120. (d) Mean < Median < Mode
121. (b) Positive
122. (c) Negative
123. (a) Moments
124. (d) Zero
125. (c) Kurtosis
126. (a) Leptokurtic
127. (b) Mesokurtic
128. (c) Platykurtic
129. (a) Scatterness of data
130. (a) Range
131. (d) Zero
132. (c) Coefficient of variation
134. (a) 34
135. (b) 40
136. (c) Both (a) and (b)
137. (c) 4.5
138. (a) 23
139. (b) More
140. (a) Mean = Median = Mode

141. (b) Asymmetry
142. (d) Zero
143. (a) Quartiles
144. (c) Increased
145. (b) The law of statistical regularity and the law of inertia of large numbers
146. (c) Larger
147. (d) Skewness
148. (b) Skewness will be always positive
149. (a) Mean and Mode
150. (b) Co-efficient of skewness
151. (d) Quartile Co-efficient of skewness
152. (a) Interpolation
153. (b) Extrapolation
158. (c) Science
159. (a) Mean
160. (b) Median
161. (c) Both
162. (a) (Q3-Q1)/2
163. (a) Karl Pearson
164. (d) All these
165. (b) Inexpert
166. (b) Weighted arithmetic mean
167. (d) Positional
168. (d) Mode
169. (c) Quartiles
170. (c) Both (a) and (b)
171. (a) Variability
172. (a) Standard Deviation
173. (a) Mean
174. (d) Deviation
175. (c) 10
176. (b) 30
177. (a) Singular sense
178. (b) Central location
179. (c) Assumed mean method
180. (b) median
181. (c) Co-efficient of variation
182. (b) Standard deviation
183. (b) greater
184. (c) Central Tendency
185. (b) Mesokurtic
186. (a) Variability
187. (b) 25
188. (a) Probability
189. (b) First
190. (d) Reciprocal
191. (b) Mean
192. (c) Central 50 %
193. (c) Averages
194. (b) Stratified Sampling
195. (b) Purposive Sampling
196. (c) 115
197. (d) Mode
198. (d) 143
199. (c) It is affected by extreme values
200. (c) Quartile Deviation
Business Research Methods-104
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above
2. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
3. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability
(B) Usability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above
4. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
5. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal
statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning
6. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) Spirit of free enquiry
(B) Reliance on observation and evidence
(C) Systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) All the above
7. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data
8. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
9. An appropriate source to find out descriptive information is................ .

(A) Bibliography
(B) Directory
(C) Encyclopedia
(D) Dictionary
10. “Controlled Group” is a term used in.............. .

(A) Survey research
(B) Historical research
(C) Experimental research
(D) Descriptive research
11. Testing hypothesis is a

(A) Inferential statistics
(B) Descriptive statistics
(C) Data preparation
(D) Data analysis
12. The method that consists of collection of data through observation and experimentation,
formulation and testing of hypothesis is called
(A) Empirical method
(B) Scientific method
(C) Scientific information
(D) Practical knowledge
(E)
13. Information acquired by experience or experimentation is called as
(A) Empirical
(B) Scientific
(C) Facts
(D) Scientific evidences
14. “All living things are made up of cells. Blue whale is a living being. Therefore blue whale is
made up of cells”. The reasoning used here is
(A) Inductive
(B) Deductive
(C) Both A and B
(D) Hypothetic-Deductive
15. The reasoning that uses general principle to predict specific result is called
(A) Inductive
(B) Deductive
(C) Both A and B
(D) Hypothetic-Deductive
16. All research process starts with

(A) Hypothesis
(B) Experiments to test hypothesis
(C) Observation
(D) All of these
17. The quality of a research study is primarily assessed on:
(A) The place of publication.
(B) The ways in which the recommendations are implemented
(C) The rigor with which it was conducted
(D) The number of times it is replicated.
18. Which of the following is not an appropriate source for academic research?
(A) An online encyclopedia
(B) A government-based research organization database
(C) A peer reviewed journal article
(D) A text book
19. 'Research methodology' refers to:

(A) The sampling technique
(B) The tools that the researcher use
(C) The chain of association between the research question and the research design
(D) Qualitative methods
20. A researcher should:

(A) Be constrained by the research of others
(B) Use even anonymous sources if they appear relevant
(C) Use only sources that appear credible
21. Research is
(A) A purposeful, systematic activity
(B) Primarily conducted for purely academic purposes
(C) Primarily conducted to answer questions about practical issues
(D) A random, unplanned process of discovery
22. When conducting a review of literature on a particular subject, the researcher should
(A) Read all available material on the subject
(B) Read the whole journal article and then decide whether or not it is useful
(C) Read strategically and critically
(D) Read fully only those texts that appear to agree with his/her point of view
23. The two main styles of research are

(A) Data collection and data coding
(B) Surveys and questionnaires
(C) Sampling and recording
(D) Qualitative and quantitative
24. Qualitative research is:
(A) Not as rigorous as quantitative research
(B) Primarily concerned with the collection and analysis of numerical data
(C) Primarily concerned with in-depth exploration of phenomena
(D) Primarily concerned with the quality of the research
25. Quantitative research involves

(A) Interviewing people to find out their deeply held views about issues
(B) Collecting data in numerical form
(C) More rigor than qualitative research
(D) Interviewing every member of the target population
26. What is the basis of the scientific method

(A) To test hypothesis in conditions that are conducive to its success
(B) To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis
(C) To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions
that challenge the hypothesis
(D) To test hypothesis and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely
27. Of all the steps in the research process, the one that typically takes the most time is
(A) Data collection
(B) Formulating the problem
(C) Selecting a research method
(D) Developing a hypothesis
28. The concepts in a hypothesis are stated as

(A) Variables
(B) Theories
(C) Indices
(D) Ideas
29. In order for a variable to be measured, a researcher must provide a

(A) Operational definition
(B) Hypothesis
(C) Theory
(D) Scale
30. Which of the following was not identified as a major research design?
(A) secondary research
(B) Surveys
(C) Field Research
(D) ethnography
31. When a number of researchers use the same operational definition to measure a variable and
achieve the same results, the measure is said to be
(A) Instrumental
(B) Reliable
(C) Valid
(D) Factual
32. There are various types of research designed to obtain different types of information. What
type of research is used to define problems and suggest hypotheses?
(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Primary research
(C) Secondary research
(D) Causal research
33. What type of research would be appropriate in the following situation?

Nestlé wants to investigate the impact of children on their parents' decisions to buy
breakfast foods.
(A) Quantitative research.
(B) Qualitative research
(C) Secondary Research
(D) Mixed methodology
34. What type of research would be appropriate in the following situation?

A college or university bookshop wants to get some insights into how students feel about the
shop's merchandise, prices and service.
(A) Secondary data
(B) Qualitative research
(C) Focus groups
(D) Quantitative research
35. The Internet is a powerful mechanism for conducting research. However it does have its
drawbacks. Which of the following signify these drawbacks?
(A) The possible inclusion of individuals not being targeted, that could skew the results
(B) Lack of information about the population responding to the questionnaire.
(C) Eye contact and body language, (two useful research indicators) are excluded from the
analysis
36. _____________ research is the gathering of primary data by watching people.

(A) Experimental
(B) Causal
(C) Informative
(D) Observational
37. Which is the best type of research approach for gathering causal information?
(A) Observational
(B) Informative
(C) Experimental
(D) Survey
38. The outcome of what is being measured is termed:

(A) Independent Variable
(B) Dependent Variable
(C) Predictor variable
(D) Hypothetical Variable
39. Which of the following would occur in a longitudinal study:

(A) Measures are taken from different participants over an extended period of time
(B) Participation is expected to last for a minimum of 24 hours
(C) Measures are taken from same participants on different occasions usually over
extended period of time
(D) Measures are taken from participants in at least 6 different countries
w
40. Endeavors to explain, predict, and/or control phenomena are the goal of
(A) Scientific method
(B) Tradition
(C) Inductive logic
(D) Deductive logic
41. Ms. Casillas has been coordinating the Halloween Festival at her school for the last several
years. She wants to be sure the students and parents enjoy the festival again this year. On which
source is she LEAST likely to rely when making decisions about what to do?
(A) Tradition
(B) Research
(C) Personal experience
(D) Expert opinion
42. The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is more
(A) Reliable
(B) Systematic
(C) Accurate
(D) All of these
43. Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the researcher
reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has yet to be resolved?
(A) Describe the procedures to collect information
(B) Identify a topic.
(C) Analyze the collected information
(D) State the results of the data analysis
44. Which of the following is the LEAST legitimate research problem? The purpose of this study
is to
(A) understand what it means to be a part of a baseball team at a high school known for its
championship teams.
(B) study whether physical education should be taught in elementary parochial schools.
(C) examine the relationship between the number of hours spent studying and students test scores
(D) examine the effect of using advanced organizers on fifth grade students reading
comprehension
45. The research process is best described as a

(A) Method to select a frame of reference
(B) Set of rules that govern the selection of subjects
(C) Series of steps completed in a logical order
(D) Plan that directs the research design
46. A research proposal is best described as a

(A) Framework for data collection and analysis
(B) Argument for the merit of the study
(C) Description of how the researcher plans to maintain an ethical perspective during the study
(D) Description of the research process for a research project
47. The purpose of a literature review is to:

(A) Use the literature to identify present knowledge and what is unknown
(B) Assist in defining the problem and operational definition
(C) Identify strengths and weaknesses of previous studies
48. The statement 'To identify the relationship between the time the patient spends on the
operating table and the development of pressure ulcers' is best described as a research:
(A) Objective
(B) Aim
(C) Question
(D) Hypothesis
49. An operational definition specifies

(A) The data analysis techniques to be used in the study
(B) The levels of measurement to be used in the study
(C) How a variable or concept will be defined and measured in the study
(D) How the outcome of the research objectives for the study will be measured
50. A statement of the expected relationship between two or more variables is known as the:
(A) Concept definition
(B) Hypothesis
(C) Problem statement
(D) Research question
51. There is no difference in the incidence of phlebitis around intravenous cannulae changed
every 72 hours and those changed at 96 hours' is an example of a:
(A) Null hypothesis
(B) Directional hypothesis
(C) Non-directional hypothesis
(D) Simple hypothesis
52. Which of the following statements meets the criteria for a researchable question?
(A) Is the use of normal saline to cleanse wounds harmful to patients?
(B) Do generalist registered nurses meet the mental health needs of general patients?
(C) Do palliative care patients have spiritual needs?
(D) What are the patients perceptions of the effectiveness of pre-operative education for
total hip replacement?
53. The researcher needs to clearly identify the aim of the study; the question to be answered; the
population of interest; information to be collected, and feasibility in order to decide on the
research
(A) Design and method
(B) Design and assumptions
(C) Purpose and data analysis
(D) Purpose and assumptions
54. A variable that changes due to the action of another variable is known as the
(A) Independent variable
(B) Extraneous variable
(C) Complex variable
(D) Dependent Variable
55. When planning to do social research, it is better to

(A) Approach the topic with an open mind
(B) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) Be familiar with the literature on the topic
(D) Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking
56. Which comes first, theory or research?

(A) Theory because otherwise you are working in the dark
(B) Research because that is only the way you can develop a theory
(C) It depends on your point of view
(D) The question is meaningless, because you cannot have one without the other
57. We review the relevant literature to know

(A) What is already known about the topic
(B) What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic
(C) Who are the key contributors to the topic
58. A deductive theory is one that:

(A) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
(B) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
(C) Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
(D) Uses qualitative methods whenever possible
59. Which of the following is not a type of research question?

(A) Predicting an outcome
(B) Evaluating a phenomenon
(C) Developing good practice
(D) A hypothesis
60. Because of the number of things that can go wrong in research there is a need for:
(A) Flexibility and Perseverance
(B) Sympathetic supervisors
(C) An emergency source of finance
(D) Wisdom to know the right time to quit
61. __________ research seeks to investigate an area that has been under researched with
preliminary data that helps shape the direction for future research.
(A) Descriptive
(B) Exploratory
(C) Explanatory
(D) Positivist
62. Research questions in qualitative studies typically begin with which of the following words?
(A) Why
(B) How
(C) What
63. Qualitative researchers seek to analyze which of the following?

(A) Numerical data derived from the frequency of particular behaviors
(B) Statistical associations between variables
(C) The social meaning people attribute to their experiences and circumstances
64 . Which of the following is not a qualitative research methodology?

(A) Randomized control trial
(B) Ethnography
(C) Grounded Theory
(D) Phenomenology
65. Which of the following data collecting methods is not normally used in qualitative research?
(A) Participant observation
(B) Focus groups
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Semi-structured interview
66. The following journal article would be an example of --------- research.

“ The benefits of florescent lighting on production in a factory setting”
(A) Applied
(B) Basic
(C) Interview
(D) Stupid
67. The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is more
(A) Reliable
(B) Systematic
(C) Accurate
68. Quantitative researcher’s preoccupation with generalization is an attempt to:

(A) Develop the law like findings of the natural sciences
(B) Boost their chances of publication
(C) Enhance the internal validity of the research
(D) Demonstrate the complex techniques of statistical analysis
69. What is the basis of the scientific method?
(A) To test hypotheses in conditions that are conducive to its success
(B) To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis
(C) To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions
that challenge the hypothesis
(D) To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely
70. A literature review requires

(A) Planning
(B) Clear writing
(C) Good writing
71. The facts that should be collected to measure a variable, depend upon the
(A) Conceptual understanding
(B) Dictionary meaning
(C) Operational definition
72. Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis?

(A) Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than students not
taking these quizzes
(B) Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students
(C) Students taught in a cooperative group setting should do better than students in a
traditional class
(D) Students using laptops will do well
73. Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question?
“What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of brand B”?
(A) The new advertising campaign will impact brand B image
(B) The new advertising campaign will impact brand B image trial
(C) The new advertising campaign will impact brand B usage at the expense of brand C
(D) The new advertising campaign will impact brand B’s market penetration
74. Qualitative and quantitative research are the classifications of research on the basis of
(A) Use of the research
(B) Time dimension
(C) Techniques used
(D) Purpose of the research
75. Rationalism is the application of

(A) Research Solution
(B) Logic and arguments
(C) Reasoning
(D) Previous findings
76. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

(A) To give your dissertation a proper academic appearance with lots of references
(B) Because without it, you could never reach the required word count
(C) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
(D) To help in your general studying
77. The application of the scientific method to the study of business problems is called
(A) Inductive reasoning
(B) Deductive reasoning
(C) Business research
(D) Grounded Theory
78. An operational definition

(A) One that bears no relation to the underlying concept
(B) An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept
(C) A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures
(D) One that refers to opera singers and their work
79. According to empiricism, which of the following is the ultimate source of all our concepts
and knowledge?
(A) Perceptions
(B) Theory
(C) Sensory experiences
(D) Logics and arguments
80. Which of the following is most beneficial to read in an article?

(A) Methods
(B) Introduction
(C) Figures
(D) References
81. Which of the following is not a function of clearly identified research questions?
(A) They guide your literature search
(B) They keep you focused throughout the data collection period
(C) They make the scope of your research as wide as possible
(D) They are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
82. Hypothesis refers to

A. The outcome of an experiment
B. A conclusion drawn from an experiment
C. A form of bias in which the subject tries to outguess the experimenter
D. A tentative statement about the relationship
83. Statistics is used by researchers to

A. Analyze the empirical data collected in a study
B. Make their findings sound better
C. Operationally define their variables
D. Ensure the study comes out the way it was intended
84. A literature review is based on the assumption that

A. Copy from the work of others
B. Knowledge accumulates and learns from the work of others
C. Knowledge disaccumulates
D. None of the above option
85. A theoretical framework

A. Elaborates the researchers among the variables
B. Explains the logic underlying these researchers
C. Describes the nature and direction of the researchers
D. All of the above
86. Which of the following statement is not true?

A. A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
B. A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully conducting
the proposed research project
C. A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project
D. A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the research
Project
87. Preliminary data collection is a part of the

A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Applied research
D. Explanatory research
88. Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating

A. Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Qualitative data
D. None of the above
89. After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
Theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is
A. To conduct surveys
B. To generate the hypothesis
C. To focus group discussions
D. To use experiments in an investigation
90. The appropriate analytical technique is determined by

A. The research design
B. Nature of the data collected
C. Nature of the hypothesis
D. Both A & B
91. Discrete variable is also called……….

A. Categorical variable
B. Discontinuous variable
C. Both A & B
92. “Officers in my organization have higher than average level of commitment” Such a
hypothesis is an example of……….
A. Descriptive Hypothesis
B. Directional Hypothesis
C. Relational Hypothesis
D. All of the above
93. ‘Science’ refers to……….
A. A system for producing knowledge
B. The knowledge produced by a system
C. Both A & B
94. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of scientific method?
A. Deterministic
B. Rationalism
C. Empirical
D. Abstraction
95. The theoretical framework discusses the interrelationships among the……….

A. Variables
B. Hypothesis
C. Concept
D. Theory
96. ………research is based on naturalism.

A. Field research
B. Descriptive research
C. Basic research
D. Applied research
97. Rationalism is the application of which of the following?

A. Logic and arguments
B. Research solution
C. Reasoning
D. Previous findings
98- On which of the following, scientific knowledge mostly relies?

A. Logical understanding
B. Identification of events
C. Prior knowledge
D. All of the given options
99- Which of the following refers to research supported by measurable

evidence?
A. Opinion
B. Empiricism
C. Speculation
D. Rationalism
100. Research method is applicable in all of the following fields, EXCEPT;
A. Health care
B. Religion
C. Business
D. Government offices
101. All of the following are true statements about action research, EXCEPT;
A. Data are systematically analyzed
B. Data are collected systematically
C. Results are generalizable
D. Results are used to improve practice
102.Which of the following is characteristic of action research?

A. Variables are tightly controlled
B. Results are generalizable
C. Data are usually qualitative
D. Results demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships
103. “Income distribution of employees” in a specific organization is an example of which of

following type of variable?
A. Discontinuous variable
B. Continuous variable
C. Dependent variable
D. Independent variable
104.“There is no relationship between higher motivation level and higher efficiency” is an

example of which type of hypothesis?
A. Alternative
B. Null
C. Co relational
D. Research
105. Which of the following is not a role of hypothesis?

A. Guides the direction of the study
B. Determine feasibility of conducting the study
C. Identifies relevant and irrelevant facts
D. Provides framework for organizing the conclusions
106. Which of the following is not the source for getting information for exploratory
research?
A. Content analysis
B. Survey
C. Case study
D. Pilot study
107. Which of the following is the main quality of a good theory?

A. A theory that has survived attempts at falsification
B. A theory that is proven to be right
C. A theory that has been disproved
D. A theory that has been falsified
108. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is known as:
A. Discontinuous variable
B. Dependent variable
C. Independent variable
D. Intervening variable
109. Internal validity refers to.

a. Researcher’s degree of confidence.
b. Generalisability
c. Operationalization
d. All of the above
110. In ___________, the researcher attempts to control and/ or manipulate the variables in
the study.
a. Experiment
b. Hypothesis
c. Theoretical framework
d. Research design
111. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect
produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable
112. A measure is reliable if it provides consistent ___________.

a. Hypothesis
b. Results
c. Procedure
d. Sensitivity
113. ______ is the evidence that the instrument, techniques, or process used to measure
concept does indeed measure the intended concepts.
a. Reliability
b. Replicability
c. Scaling
d. Validity
114. Experimental design is the only appropriate design where_________ relationship can
be established.
a. Strong
b. Linear
c. Weak
d. Cause and Effect
115. In which one of the following stage researcher consult the literature?
a. Operation test
b. Response analysis survey
c. Document design analysis
d. Pretest interviews
116. Two variables may be said to be causally related if

a.they show a strong positive correlation.
b.all extraneous variables are controlled, and the independent variable creates consistent
differences in behavior of the experimental group.
c.they are observed to co-vary on many separate occasions.
d.they have been observed in a laboratory setting.
117. Theories explain results, predict future outcomes, and

a.rely only on naturalistic observations.
b.guide research for future studies.
c.rely only on surveys.
d.rely only on case studies.
118. Characteristics of the scientific method include

a. anecdotal definition.
b. controlled observation.
c. analysis formulation.
d. adherence to inductive thinking or common sense reasoning.
119. A scientific explanation that remains tentative until it has been adequately tested is called
a(n)
a.theory.
b.law.
c.hypothesis.
d.experiment.
120. The phrase "a theory must also be falsifiable" means

a.researchers misrepresent their data.
b.a theory must be defined so it can be disconfirmed.
c.theories are a rich array of observations regarding behavior but with few facts to support them.
d.nothing.
121. The products of naturalistic observation are best described in terms of

a.explanation.
b.theory.
c.prediction.
d.description.
122. A psychologist watches the rapid eye movements of sleeping subjects and wakes them to
find they report that they were dreaming. She concludes that dreams are linked to rapid eye
movements. This conclusion is based on
a.pure speculation.
b.direct observation.
c.deduction from direct observation.
d.prior prediction.
123. We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning. We compare test scores of
students who study to music with those who study in silence. Which of the following is an
extraneous variable in this experiment?
a.the presence or absence of music
b.the students' test scores
c.the amount of time allowed for the studying
d.silence
124. An experiment is performed to see if background music improves learning. Two groups
study the same material, one while listening to music and another without music. The
independent variable is
a.learning.
b.the size of the group.
c.the material studied.
d.music.
125. The most powerful research tool is a (an)

a.clinical study.
b.experiment.
c.survey.
d.correlational study.
126. A major disadvantage of the experimental method is that

a.private funding can never be obtained.
b.APA Ethical Review Committees often do not approve of the research techniques.
c.there is a certain amount of artificiality attached to it.
d.subjects are difficult to find for research projects.
127. In the traditional learning experiment, the effect of practice on performance is investigated.
Performance is the __________ variable.
a.independent
b.extraneous
c.dependent
d.control
128. Collection of observable evidence, precise definition, and replication of results all form the
basis for
a.scientific observation.
b.the scientific method.
c.defining a scientific problem.
d.hypothesis generation.
129. Which of the following is not characteristic of qualitative data?

a. Rich descriptions
b. Concise
c. Voluminous
d. Unorganized
130. An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an

unstructured and natural manner is a ----------
a. Depth Interview
b. Case Study
c. Focus Group
d. None of the above
131. Which of the following is not a longitudinal study?

a. Cohort Study
b. Trend Study
c. Panel Study
d. Census Study
132. A measure is reliable if it provides consistent --------

a. Hypothesis
b. Results
c. Procedure
d. Sensitivity
133. Following are the characteristics of the research except:

a. Systematic
b. Data Based
c. Subjective Approach
d. Scientific Inquiry
134. Which of the following similarity is found in qualitative research and survey research?
a. Examine topics primarily from the participant’s perspectives
b. They are guided by predetermined variables to study
c. They are descriptive research methods
d. Have large sample sizes
135. As a researcher you need not to:

a. Master the literature
b. Take numerous detailed notes
c. Create a bibliography list
d. Learn your findings
136. The final step in the research process is to:

a. Conduct a statistical analysis of data
b. Report the research results
c. Dismantle the apparatus
d. Clean the laboratory
137. The two functions of a research design are
(A) theory testing and model building.

(B) exploratory data collection and hypothesis testing
(C) hypothesis testing and theory testing
(D) exploratory data collection and model building
138. __________ involves evaluating potential explanations for observed behavior
(A) Exploratory data collection
(B) Data analysis
(C) Theory testing
(D) Hypothesis testing
139. In a __________ relationship, changes in one variable produce changes in another..
(A) causal
(B) correlational
(C) confounded
(D) unidirectional
140. The two defining characteristics of experimental research are:
(A) measuring predictor and criterion variables.
(B) random assignment of participants and measuring dependent variables
(C) manipulation of independent variables and control over extraneous variables
(D) random assignment of participants and control over extraneous variables
141. In an experiment on the effects of noise on problem solving, you have some participants
solve a problem while being exposed to noise, whereas other participants do the same problems
while not being exposed to noise. In this example, exposing or not exposing participants to the
noise constitutes a(n).
(A) independent variable
(B) dependent variable
(C) extraneous variable
(D) correlational variable.
142. In an experiment on visual perception, you make sure that your laboratory is the same
temperature and has the same level of lighting throughout the experiment. This is an example of:.
(A) holding extraneous variables constant.
(B) manipulating an independent variable
(C) randomly assigning participants to conditions
(D) ignoring extraneous variables
143 According to your text, extraneous variables can be dealt with in an experiment by.
(A) holding their values constant across conditions
(B) random assignment of subjects to condition
(C) increasing the power of your independent variables
(E) Both a and b
144. which of the following is the greatest strength of the experimental approach?
(A) the ability to study relationships under naturally occurring conditions
(B) the ability to identify and describe causal relationships
(C) the ability to generalize results beyond the original research situation
145. A disadvantage of the experimental approach is that
(A) you cannot adequately control extraneous variables.
(B) causal relationships among variables cannot be established
(C) your results may have limited generality
146. If your experimental design measures what it is intended to measure, we say that the design
has a high level of:
(A) reliability.
(B) internal validity.
(C) ecological validity.
(D) external validity
147. Alternative explanations for the findings of a study that may become viable because of
flaws in the design are termed:
(A) rival hypotheses
(B) experimental hypotheses
(C) theoretical possibilities
(D) goofs
148. Which of the following was listed in your text as a factor affecting external validity?
(A) history
(B) reactive testing
(C) statistical regression
149. you would be most concerned with external validity if you were conducting
(A) applied research
(B) basic research
(C) a demonstration
150. Power of the test of significance means probability of what?
(a) Incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis

(b) Correct rejection of the null hypothesis
(c) Incorrect acceptance of the null hypothesis
(d) Correct acceptance of the null hypothesis.
151. In evaluating the significance of the research problem, an important social consideration is
(a) The genuine interest of the researcher in the problem.

(b) Practical value of the findings to educationists, parents and social workers, etc.
(c) Necessary skills, abilities and background of knowledge of the researcher.
(d) Possibility of obtaining reliable and valid data by the researchers.
152. Thinking analogously about hypothesis, a researcher should
(a) First bet and then roll the dice.

(b) First roll the dice and then bet.
(c) Change his bet after the data are in.
(d) Have no bets, but dice only.
153. Why is research in education important for teachers?
(a) It adds to their academic qualifications.
(b) It makes them wiser
(c) It makes them better teachers
(d) It enables them to make best possible judgments about what should be taught and how.
154. Action research is ordinarily concerned with problems
(a) Of general nature.
(b) Constituting universal truths.
(c) Are of immediate concern and call for immediate solutions.
(d) Have long-range implications.
155. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) A test can be reliable without being valid

(b) A test cannot be valid without being reliable
(c) A test can be reliable and valid both
(d) A test can be valid without being reliable.
156. Projective technique is used for measuring
(a) Individual’s need for self-actualization.

(b) Individual’s inventoried interests.
(c) Individual’s dominant feelings, emotions, conflicts, needs which are, generally,
repressed by the individual and are stored up in the unconscious mind.
(d) Individual’s value-system.
157.. Which of the following is not a projective technique?
(a) Rorschach
(b) T.A.T.
(c) Sentence-Completion Test
(d) Maudsley Personality Inventory (MPI).
158. Which of the following is not measured by the T.A. T. test?
(a) Personality needs

(b) Emotions
(c) Personality adjustment.
(d) Reasoning ability.
159. Which is a projective test?
(a) Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS)
(b) Allport Vemon-Lindzey Study of Values.
(c) Rorschach Test
(d) Minnesotta Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).
160. What is a research describing developmental changes in personality characteristics by
studying the same group at different age- levels?
(a) Developmental study
(b) Trend study
(c) Longitudinal growth study
(d) Cross-sectional growth study.
161. What is studying different groups of children of different ages simultaneously and
describing their developmental characteristics?
(a) Longitudinal growth study
(b) Trend study
(c) Time series study
(d) Cross-sectional growth study.
162. When is type-I error increased?
(a) When alpha-level decreases
(b) When alpha-level increases
(c) When the sample size increases
(d) When the sample size decreases.
163. What is the modern method of acquiring knowledge?
(a) Authority
(b) Personal experience
(c) Scientific method
(d) Expert opinion
164. What is NOT the goal of scientific method of acquiring knowledge?
(a) Explanation
(b) Fact-finding
(c) Control
(d) Prediction.
165. Theory, as an aspect of research, does not
(a) Serve as a tool for providing a guiding framework for observation and discovery.
(b) Describe the facts and relationships that exist.
(c) Serve as a goal providing explanation for specific phenomena with maximal probability and
exactitude.
(d) Discard facts, specific and concrete observations.
166. “Theory” helps the researcher in
(a) Understanding the research procedure.
(b) Identifying the facts needed to be considered in the context of the research problem.
(c) Understanding the technical terms used in research.
(d) Determining how to make or record observations.
167. Exploratory investigation of management question adapts the following approaches except
a. Films, photographs, and videotape
b. In-depth interviewing
c. Document analysis
d. Street ethnography
e. Survey method
168. ------------ are Questions the researcher, must answer to satisfactory arrive at a conclusion
about the research question.
a) Investigate questions
b) Research question
c) Measurement question
d) Fine-tuning the research question
169. research should be _________________

a) accessible
b) transparent
c) transferable
d) all of the above
170. A ___________________ is conducted to detect weaknesses in research instrument’s
design
a) Pilot study
b) Questionnaire
c) Interview
d) Sampling
171. What are the two types of arguments

a) deduction and induction
b) exploratory and deductive
c) dejection and injection
d) none of the above
172. What are the qualities of a good hypothesis

a) adequate for the purpose
b) testable
c) better than its rivals
d) all of the above
173. Data collection that focuses on providing an accurate description of the variables in a
situation forms the basis of which type of study
a) exploratory study
b) descriptive study
c) causal study
d) All of the above
174. A condition that exists when an instruments measures what it is supposed to measure is
called
a) validity
b) accuracy
c) reliability
d) none of the above
175. The major disadvantage with in depth interviews is that because of their time consuming
nature it is usually only possible to carry out a relatively small number of such interviews and
as such the results are likely to be highly ____________
a) subjective
b) objective
c) questionable
d) objectionable
176. A critical review of the information, pertaining to the research study, already available in
various sources is called
a) Research review
b) Research design
c) Data review
d) Literature review
177. ____________________ presents a problem, discusses related research efforts, outlines the
data needed for solving the data and shows the design used to gather and analyze the data.
a.) Research Question

b.) Research Proposal
c.) Research Design
d.) Research Methodology
178. The purpose of __________________ research is to help in the process of developing a
clear and precise statement of the research problem rather than in providing a definitive answer.
a.) Marketing
b.) Causal
c.) Exploratory
d.) Descriptive
179. A systematic, controlled, empirical, and critical investigation of natural phenomena guided
by theory and hypothesis is called _____________
a.) Applied Research

b.) Basic Research
c.) Scientific Research
d.) None Of The Above
180. __________________ is the determination of the plan for conducting the research and as
such it involves the specification of approaches and procedures..
a.) Strategy
b.) Research Design
c.) Hypothesis
d.) Deductive
181. A proposal is also known as a:
a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) Draft plan
e) All of the above
182. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic sections. They are:
a) Research question and research methodology

b) Research proposal and bibliography
c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography
183. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except
a) Stimulus
b) Manipulated
c) Consequence
d) Presumed Cause
184. The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except
a) Presumed effect
b) Measured Outcome
c) Response
d) Predicted from…
185. Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?
a. It requires the collection of new data

b. It is reiterative
c. It requires reasoned arguments to develop conclusions
d. It aims to increase understanding
186. How many stages are there to the research process?

a.5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
187. What would NOT be a consideration during the research design stage?
a. The availability of literature
b. The availability of participants
c. The type of methods that would be used
d. The type of analysis that would take place
188. Your conceptual framework is normally developed?

a. Before your literature review
b. During your literature review
c. After data collection
d. After data analysis
190. When assessing a research question, which is not an element of ‘CAFÉ’?

a. Control
b. Access
c.Facilities and resources
d. Expertise
191. What should not be included in a research proposal?

a. A summary of existing work in the area
b. The proposed methods to collect data
c. The results that will be obtained
d. An acknowledgement of any ethical issues
192. Reliability in quantitative research refers to

a. The consistency of any measure
b. The suitability of any measure
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
193. Reliability in qualitative research refers to

a. The consistency of any measure
b. The consistency of the methods used to collect data
c. The suitability of the measure used
d. All of these
194. An experimental research design normally involves
a. Manipulating the independent variable
b. Manipulating the dependent variable
c. A number of repeated measures
d. Data collected over an extended time period
195. Which of the following are not normally a requirement for experimental research design?
a. Demonstrating co variation
b. Demonstrating time order
c. Demonstrating repeated measures
d. Demonstrating non spuriousness
School of Distance Education
UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT
SCHOOL OF DISTANCE EDUCATION
(B Com IV Semester)
COMPLEMENTARY COURSE (2019 ADMISSION)
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUESN FOR BUSINESS
QUESTION BANK
1. The techniques which provide the decision maker a systematic and powerful means of
analysis to explore policies for achieving predetermined goals are called.................
a. Mathematical techniques b. Correlation technique
c. Quantitative techniques d. . None of the above
2. Programming techniques are generally known as ...................................
a. Statistical techniques b. Mathematical techniques
b. Operation research techniques d. None of these
3. ............................. is the reverse process of differentiation
a. Differential equation b. Integration
c. Determinant d. None of these
4. .............................. is a powerful device developed over the matrix algebra.
a. Integration b. Differentiation
b. Determinants d. None of these
5. ...............................is an operation research technique which resembles a real life
situation.
a. Decision theory b. Simulation
c. Game theory d. Queuing theory
6. Queuing theory is also called ........................................
a. Linear programming technique b. Waiting line theory
d. Game theory d. None of these
7. C.P.M. stands for..........................................................
a. Critical Process Method b. Critical Performance Measurement
c. Critical Path Method d. Critical Programme Method
8. The word correlation usually implies.............................
a. Cause and effect relationship b. Mutual interdependence
c. Both d. None of the above
9. Correlation analysis is a ............................analysis.
a. Univariate analysis b. Bivariate analysis
c. Multivariate analysis d. Both b and c
10. When the values of two variables move in the same direction, correlation is said to be
..........
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Linear d. Non-linear
11. When the values of two variables move in the opposite direction, correlation is said to be
........................
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Linear d. Non-linear
Question Bank
167.A _________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions
and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and
utility.
a. Decision tree
b. Graphs
c. Trees
d. Neural Networks
168.What is Decision Tree?
a. Flow-Chart
b. Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch
represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
c. Flow-Chart & Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute,
each branch represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
d. None of the mentioned
169.Choose from the following that are Decision Tree nodes?
a. Decision Nodes
b. End Nodes
c. Chance Nodes
d. All of the above
170. Decision Nodes are represented by ------
a. Disks
b. Squares
c. Circles
d. Triangles
171. Chance Nodes are represented by __________
a. Disks
b. Squares
c. Circles
d. Triangles
172.End Nodes are represented by __________
a. Disks
Question Bank
b. Squares
c. Circles
d. Triangles
173.Which of the following are the advantage/s of Decision Trees?
a. Possible Scenarios can be added
b. Use a white box model, If given result is provided by a model
c. Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios
d. All of the above
174.----- are the whose values are to be determined from the solution of the LPP
a. Objective function
b. Decision variables
c. Constrains
d. Opportunity cost
175.------------ specifies the objective or goal of solving the LPP
b. Decision variables
c. Constraints
d. Opportunity cost
176.Objective function is expressed in terms of the --------------
a. Numbers
b. Symbols
c. Decision variables
d. None of the above
177.---------- are the restrictions or limitations imposed on the LPP
a. Variables
b. Cost
c. Profit
d. Constraints
178.The type of constraints which specifies maximum capacity of a resource is ------ or equal
to constraints.
a. Less than
Question Bank
b. Greater than
c. Less than or greater than
179.In linear programming ---------- represents mathematical equation of the limitations
imposed by the problem.
b. Decision variable
c. Redundancy
d. Constraints
180.Region of feasible solution in LPP graphical method is called
a. Infeasible region
b. Unbounded region
c. Infinite region
d. Feasible region
181.When it is not possible to find solution in LPP, it is called as case of ---------
a. Unknown solution
b. Unbounded solution
c. Infeasible solution
d. Improper solution
182.When the feasible region is such that the value of objective function can extended to
infinity, it is called a case of ------------
b. Alternate optimal
c. Unbounded solution
d. Unique solution
183.When the constraints are a mix of ‘less than’ and ‘greater than’ it is called a problem
having
a. Multiple constraints
b. Infinite constraints
c. Infeasible region
d. Mixed constraints
184. In case of an ----------- constraints, the feasible region is a straight line
Question Bank
a. Less than or equal to

b. Greater than or equal to
c. Mixed
d. Equal to
185.In linear programming, unbounded solution means --------------
b. Degenerate solution
c. Infinite solution
d. Unique solution
Question Bank
QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS QN ANS
1 C 19 D 37 B 55 A 73 B 91 A 109 A 127 A 145 C 163 A
2 C 20 C 38 A 56 B 74 A 92 B 110 B 128 A 146 A 164 C
3 B 21 B 39 A 57 B 75 B 93 A 111 C 129 A 147 A 165 D
4 C 22 C 40 C 58 C 76 A 94 B 112 B 130 B 148 C 166 C
5 B 23 C 41 C 59 B 77 B 95 C 113 B 131 B 149 D 167 A
6 B 24 C 42 C 60 B 78 B 96 A 114 B 132 C 150 C 168 C
7 C 25 A 43 B 61 C 79 A 97 D 115 A 133 A 151 C 169 D
8 C 26 B 44 A 62 B 80 A 98 D 116 B 134 B 152 B 170 B
9 D 27 B 45 A 63 A 81 C 99 C 117 D 135 A 153 A 171 C
10 A 28 A 46 A 64 D 82 B 100 B 118 B 136 B 154 C 172 D
11 B 29 B 47 C 65 B 83 C 101 D 119 C 137 D 155 B 173 D
12 C 30 D 48 B 66 C 84 A 102 C 120 D 138 B 156 C 174 B
13 A 31 B 49 B 67 C 85 B 103 C 121 A 139 A 157 D 175 A
14 B 32 B 50 C 68 A 86 B 104 A 122 B 140 A 158 B 176 C
15 B 33 C 51 B 69 B 87 B 105 D 123 A 141 A 159 D 177 D
16 B 34 A 52 B 70 C 88 A 106 B 124 A 142 C 160 A 178 A
17 C 35 A 53 C 71 C 89 A 107 C 125 C 143 C 161 A 178 D
18 A 36 C 54 A 72 B 90 C 108 A 126 B 144 B 162 A 180 D
181 C 182 C 183 D 184 D 185 C
Quantitative techniques for business-question bank

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Operations research is the application of ____________methods to arrive at the optimal

Solutions to the problems.
A. economical
B. scientific
C. a and b both
D. artistic
2. In operations research, the ------------------------------are prepared for situations.

A. mathematical models
B. physical models diagrammatic
C. diagrammatic models
3. Operations management can be defined as the application of -----------------------------------

-------to a problem within a system to yield the optimal solution.
A. Suitable manpower
B. mathematical techniques, models, and tools
C. Financial operations
4. Operations research is based upon collected information, knowledge and advanced study
of various factors impacting a particular operation. This leads to more informed -----------
--------------------------.
A. Management processes
B. Decision making
C. Procedures
5. OR can evaluate only the effects of --------------------------------------------------.

A. Personnel factors.
B. Financial factors
C. Numeric and quantifiable factors.
True-False
6. By constructing models, the problems in libraries increase and cannot be solved.
A. True
B. False
7. Operations Research started just before World War II in Britain with the establishment of
teams of scientists to study the strategic and tactical problems involved in military
operations.
A. True
B. False
8. OR can be applied only to those aspects of libraries where mathematical models can be
prepared.
A. True
B. False
9. The main limitation of operations research is that it often ignores the human element in
the production process.
A. True
B. False
10. Which of the following is not the phase of OR methodology?

A. Formulating a problem
B. Constructing a model
C. Establishing controls
D. Controlling the environment
11. The objective function and constraints are functions of two types of variables,
_______________ variables and ____________ variables.
A. Positive and negative
B. Controllable and uncontrollable
C. Strong and weak
12. Operations research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to ____
A. Battle field
B. Fighting
C. The opponent
D. Both A and B
13. Who defined OR as scientific method of providing execuitive departments with a

quantitative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control?
A. Morse and Kimball (1946)
B. P.M.S. Blackett (1948)
C. E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg
14. OR has a characteristics that it is done by a team of

A. Scientists
B. Mathematicians
C. Academics
D. All of the above
15. Hungarian Method is used to solve
A. A transportation problem
B. A travelling salesman problem
C. A LP problem
D. Both a & b
16. A solution can be extracted from a model either by

A. Conducting experiments on it
B. Mathematical analysis
C. Both A and B
D. Diversified Techniques
17. OR uses models to help the management to determine its _____________

A. Policies
B. Actions
C. Both A and B
18. What have been constructed from OR problems an methods for solving the models that
are available in many cases?
A. Scientific Models
B. Algorithms
C. Mathematical Models
19. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as
profit maximization or cost reduction under certain constraints?
A. Quailing Theory
B. Waiting Line
C. Both A and B
D. Linear Programming
20. What enables us to determine the earliest and latest times for each of the events and
activities and thereby helps in the identification of the critical path?
A. Programme Evaluation
B. Review Technique (PERT)
C. Both A and B
D. Deployment of resources
21. OR techniques help the directing authority in optimum allocation of various limited
resources like_____________
A. Men and Machine
B. Money
C. Material and Time
D. All of the above
22. The Operations research technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service
costs is
A. Queuing Theory
B. Decision Theory
C. Both A and B
UNIT II
LINEAR PROGRAMMING PROBLEMS
23. What is the objective function in linear programming problems?

A. A constraint for available resource
B. An objective for research and development of a company
C. A linear function in an optimization problem
D. A set of non-negativity conditions
24. Which statement characterizes standard form of a linear programming problem?

A. Constraints are given by inequalities of any type
B. Constraints are given by a set of linear equations
C. Constraints are given only by inequalities of >= type
D. Constraints are given only by inequalities of <= type
25. Feasible solution satisfies __________

A. Only constraints
B. only non-negative restriction
C. [a] and [b] both
D. [a],[b] and Optimum solution
26. In Degenerate solution value of objective function _____________.

A. increases infinitely
B. basic variables are nonzero
C. decreases infinitely
D. One or more basic variables are zero
27. Minimize Z = ______________

A. –maximize(Z)
B. -maximize(-Z)
C. maximize(-Z)
D. none of the above
28. In graphical method the restriction on number of constraint is __________.
A. 2
B. not more than 3
C. 3
29. In graphical representation the bounded region is known as _________ region.

A. Solution
B. basic solution
C. feasible solution
D. optimal
30. Graphical optimal value for Z can be obtained from

A. Corner points of feasible region
B. Both a and c
C. corner points of the solution region
31. In LPP the condition to be satisfied is

A. Constraints have to be linear
B. Objective function has to be linear
C. none of the above
D. both a and b
State True or False:

32. Objective function in Linear Programming problems has always finite value at the
optimal solution-TRUE
33. A finite optimal solution can be not unique- FALSE
34. Feasible regions are classified into bounded, unbounded, empty and multiple: TRUE
35. Corner points of a feasible region are located at the intersections of the region and
coordinate axes: TRUE
36. Identify the type of the feasible region given by the set of inequalities
x - y <= 1
x - y >= 2
where both x and y are positive.
A. A triangle
B. A rectangle
C. An unbounded region
D. An empty region
37. Consider the given vectors: a(2,0), b(0,2), c(1,1), and d(0,3). Which of the following
vectors are linearly independent?
A. a, b, and c are independent
B. a, b, and d are independent
C. a and c are independent
D. b and d are independent
38. Consider the linear equation

2 x1 + 3 x2 - 4 x3 + 5 x4 = 10
How many basic and non-basic variables are defined by this equation?
A. One variable is basic, three variables are non-basic
B. Two variables are basic, two variables are non-basic
C. Three variables are basic, one variable is non-basic
D. All four variables are basic
39. The objective function for a minimization problem is given by

z = 2 x1 - 5 x2 + 3 x3
The hyperplane for the objective function cuts a bounded feasible region in the space
(x1,x2,x3). Find the direction vector d, where a finite optimal solution can be reached.
A. d(2,-5,3)
B. d(-2,5,-3)
C. d(2,5,3)
D. d(-2,-5,-3)
40. The feasible region of a linear programming problem has four extreme points: A(0,0),
B(1,1), C(0,1), and D(1,0). Identify an optimal solution for minimization problem with
the objective function z = 2 x - 2 y
A. A unique solution at C
B. A unique solutions at D
C. An alternative solution at a line segment between A and B
D. An unbounded solution
41. Degeneracy occurs when

A. Basic variables are positive but some of non-basic variables have negative values
B. The basic matrix is singular, it has no inverse
C. Some of basic variables have zero values
D. Some of non-basic variables have zero values
42. Linear programming is a

(a) Constrained optimization technique
(b) Technique for economic allocation of limited resources.
(c) Mathematical techniques
(d) All of the above
43. Constraints in an LP model represents

(a) Limitation
(b) Requirements
(c) Balancing limitations and requirements
44. The distinguished feature of an LP model is

(a) Relationship among all variable is linear
(b) It has single objective function and constraints
(c) Value of decision variables is non-negative
45. Alternative solution exist of an LP model when

(a) One of the constraints is redundant
(b) Objective function equation is parallel to one of the
(c) Two constrains are parallel
46. In the optimal simplex table,

Cj -Zj value indicates
(a) Unbounded solution
(b) Cycling
(c) Alternative solution
(d) None of these
47. For a maximization problem, objective function coefficient for an artificial variable is
(a) + M
(b) -M
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
48. If an optimal solution is degenerate, then

(a) There are alternative optimal solution
(b) The solution is infeasible
(c) The solution is use to the decis ion maker
(d) None of these
49. If a primal LP problem has finite solution, then the dual LP problem should have
(a) Finite solution
(b) Infeasible solution
(c) Unbounded solution
(d) None of these
50. The degeneracy in the transportation problem indicates that

(a) Dummy allocation needs to be added
(b) The problem has no feasible solution
(c) The multiple optimal solution exists.
(d) (a) and (b) only
51. When the total supply is not equal to total demand in a transportation problem then it is
called
(a) Balanced
(b) Unbalanced
(e) Degenerate
(d) None of these
52. The solution to a transportation problem with m-rows and n-columns is feasible if number
of positive allocations are
(a) m + n
(b) m *n
(c) m+n-l
(d) m+n+l
GAME THEORY
53. A firm that considers the potential reactions of its competitors when it makes a decision
A. is referred to as a price leader.
B. is engaged in strategic behaviour.
C. is engaged in collusion.
D. is referred to as a barometric firm.
54. Which of the following is an example of strategic behaviour?

A. A firm builds excess capacity to discourage the entry of competitors.
B. A firm adopts the pricing behaviour of a dominant firm under the assumption that
other firms will do likewise.
C. Firms in an industry increase advertising expenditures to avoid losing market share.
D. All of the above are examples of strategic behaviour.
55. Which one of the following is a part of every game theory model?
A. Players
B. Payoffs
C. Probabilities
D. Strategies
56. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is
referred to as
A. the dominant strategy.
B. the game-winning choice.
C. super optimal.
D. a gonzo selection.
57. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?
A. All firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy.
B. All firms have a dominant strategy, but only some choose to follow it.
C. All firms have a dominant strategy, and none choose it.
D. None of the above is correct.
58. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?

A. A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists.
B. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the
choices of every other firm.
C. Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage.
D. All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits.
59. A prisoners' dilemma is a game with all of the following characteristics except one.
Which one is present in a prisoners' dilemma?
A. Players cooperate in arriving at their strategies.
B. Both players have a dominant strategy.
C. Both players would be better off if neither chose their dominant strategy.
D. The payoff from a strategy depends on the choice made by the other player.
60. Which of the following legal restrictions, if enforced effectively, would be likely to solve
a prisoners' dilemma type of problem for the firms involved?
A. A law that prevents a cartel from enforcing rules against cheating.
B. A law that makes it illegal for oligopolists to engage in collusion.
C. A law that prohibits firms in an industry from advertising their services.
D. All of the above would be likely to solve a prisoners' dilemma for the firms.
61. Until recently, medical doctors and lawyers have been prohibited from engaging in
competitive advertising. If the prisoners' dilemma applies to this situation, then the
presence of this restriction would be likely to
A. increase profits earned by individuals in these professions.
B. reduce profits earned by individuals in these professions.
C. have no effect on the profits earned by individuals in these professions.
D. increase the profits of some and reduce the profits of other individuals in these
professions.
62. Which one of the following conditions is required for the success of a tit-for-tat strategy?
A. Demand and cost conditions must change frequently and unpredictably.
B. The number of oligopolists in the industry must be relatively small.
C. The game can be repeated only a small number of times.
D. Firms must be unable to detect the behavior of their competitors.
63. A firm may decide to increase its scale so that it has excess production capacity because,
by doing so, it is able to
A. minimize its average cost of production.
B. establish a credible deterrent to the entry of competing firms.
C. take advantage of a dominant strategy in a prisoners' dilemma.
D. attain a Nash equilibrium and avoid repeated games.
64. Game theory is concerned with

A. predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette.
B. the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations.
C. utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets.
D. the migration patterns of caribou in Alaska.
65. Which of the following is an example of a game theory strategy?

A. You scratch my back and I’ll scratch yours.
B. If the shoe fits, wear it.
C. Monkey see, monkey do.
D. None of the above.
66. In game theory, a situation in which one firm can gain only what another firm loses is
called a
A. nonzero-sum game.
B. prisoners’ dilemma.
C. zero-sum game.
D. cartel temptation.
67. Which of the following is a nonzero-sum game?

A. Prisoners’ dilemma
B. Chess
C. Competition among duopolists when market share is the payoff
D. All of the above.
68. A plan of action that considers the reactions of rivals is an example of

A. accounting liability.
B. strategic behaviour.
C. accommodating behaviour.
D. risk management.
69. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the

A. payoff.
B. penalty.
C. reward.
D. end-game strategy.
70. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called

A. first-mover advantage.
B. a Nash equilibrium strategy.
C. tit-for-tat.
D. a dominant strategy.
71. A game that involves interrelated decisions that are made over time is a
A. sequential game.
B. repeated game.
C. zero-sum game.
D. nonzero-sum game.
72. A game that involves multiple moves in a series of identical situations is called a
A. sequential game.
B. repeated game.
C. zero-sum game.
D. nonzero-sum game.
73. Sequential games can be solved using

A. tit-for-tat.
B. dominated strategies.
C. backward induction.
D. risk averaging.
74. A firm that is threatened by the potential entry of competitors into a market builds excess
production capacity. This is an example of
A. a prisoners’ dilemma.
B. collusion.
C. a credible threat.
D. tit-for-tat.
75. What is the fundamental purpose of game theory?

A. To analyse decision-making
B. To analyse strategic interactions
C. To predict decision outcomes
D. To predict firm behaviour
UNIT III
ASSIGNMENT PROBLEM
76. An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of a transportation problem

because
A. The number of rows equals columns
B. All xij= 0 or 1
C. All rim conditions are 1
D. All of the above
77. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn
through squares with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of
A. Rows or columns
B. Rows & columns
C. Rows + columns –1 d.
78. While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource through a

square with zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
A. Minimize total cost of assignment
B. Reduce the cost of assignment to zero
C. Reduce the cost of that particular assignment to zero
D. All of the above
79. The method used for solving an assignment problem is called

A. Reduced matrix method
B. MODI method
C. Hungarian method
80. The purpose of a dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to

A. Obtain balance between total activities &total resources
B. Prevent a solution from becoming degenerate
C. Provide a means of representing a dummy problem
81. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem by

A. Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
B. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
C. Subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
D. Any one of the above
82. If there were n workers & n jobs there would be

A. n! solutions
B. (n-1)! solutions
C. (n!)nsolutions
D. n solutions
83. An assignment problem can be solved by

A. Simplex method
B. Transportation method
C. Both a & b
84. For a salesman who has to visit n cities which of the following are the ways of his tour
plan
A. n!
B. (n+1)!
C. (n-1)!
D. n
85. The assignment problem

A. Requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource
B. Is a special case of transportation problem
C. Can be used to maximize resources
D. All of the above
86. An assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem, where

A. Number of rows equals number of columns
B. All rim conditions are 1
C. Values of each decision variable is either 0 or 1
D. All of the above
87. Every basic feasible solution of a general assignment problem, having a square pay-off
matrix of order, n should have assignments equal t
A. 2n+1
B. 2n-1
C. m+n-1
D. m+n
88. To proceed with the MODI algorithm for solving an assignment problem, the number of
dummy allocations need to be added are
A. n
B. 2n
C. n-1
D. 2n-1
89. The Hungarian method for solving an assignment problem can also be used to solve
C. A LP problem
D. Both a & b
90. An optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if

A. Each row & column has only one zero element
B. Each row & column has at least one zero element
C. The data is arrangement in a square matrix
91. Which method usually gives a very good solution to the assignment problem?
A. northwest corner rule
B. Vogel's approximation method
C. MODI method
D. stepping-stone method
92. In applying Vogel's approximation method to a profit maximization problem, row and
column penalties are determined by:
A. finding the largest unit cost in each row or column.
B. finding the smallest unit cost in each row or column.
C. finding the sum of the unit costs in each row or column.
D. finding the difference between the two lowest unit costs in each row and column.
E. finding the difference between the two highest unit costs in each row and column.
93. The northwest corner rule requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in the:
middle cell.
A. Lower right corner of the table.
B. Upper right corner of the table.
C. Highest costly cell of the table.
D. Upper left-hand corner of the table.
.
94. The table represents a solution that is:
A. an initial solution.
B. Infeasible.
C. degenerate.
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
95. Which of the following is used to come up with a solution to the assignment problem?
A. MODI method
B. northwest corner method
C. stepping-stone method
D. Hungarian method
96. What is wrong with the following table?

A. The solution is infeasible.
B. The solution is degenerate.
C. The solution is unbounded.
D. Nothing is wrong.
E. The solution is inefficient in that it is possible to use fewer routes.
97. The solution presented in the following table is

A. infeasible.
B. degenerate.
C. unbounded.
D. Optimal.
98. The solution shown was obtained by Vogel's approximation. The difference between the
objective function for this solution and that for the optimal is
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 100
99. Optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if

A. Each row & column has only one zero element
B. Each row & column has at least one zero element
C. The data is arrangement in a square matrix
100. In assignment problem of maximization, the objective is to maximise

A. Profit
B. optimization
C. cost
UNIT IV
TRANSPORTATION PROBLEMS
101. What is the difference between minimal cost network flows and transportation
problems?
A. The minimal cost network flows are special cases of transportation problems
B. The transportation problems are special cases of the minimal cost network flows
C. There is no difference
D. The transportation problems are formulated in terms of tableaus, while the minimal
cost network flows are formulated in terms of graphs
102. With the transportation technique, the initial solution can be generated in any fashion
one chooses. The only restriction is that
A. the edge constraints for supply and demand are satisfied.
B. the solution is not degenerate.
C. the solution must be optimal.
D. one must use the northwest-corner method.
103. The purpose of the stepping-stone method is to

A. develop the initial solution to the transportation problem.
B. assist one in moving from an initial feasible solution to the optimal solution.
C. determine whether a given solution is feasible or not.
D. identify the relevant costs in a transportation problem.
104. The purpose of a dummy source or dummy destination in a transportation problem is

to
A. prevent the solution from becoming degenerate.
B. obtain a balance between total supply and total demand.
C. make certain that the total cost does not exceed some specified figure.
D. provide a means of representing a dummy problem.
105. Which of the following is NOT needed to use the transportation model?
A. the cost of shipping one unit from each origin to each destination
B. the destination points and the demand per period at each
C. the origin points and the capacity or supply per period at each
D. degeneracy
106. Which of the following is a method for improving an initial solution in a

transportation problem?
A. northwest-corner
B. intuitive lowest-cost
C. southeast-corner rule
D. stepping-stone
107. The transportation method assumes that

A. there are no economies of scale if large quantities are shipped from one source to
one destination.
B. the number of occupied squares in any solution must be equal to the number of rows
in the table plus the number of columns in the table plus 1.
C. there is only one optimal solution for each problem.
D. the number of dummy sources equals the number of dummy destinations.
108. An initial transportation solution appears in the table.

Factory
C D
Capacity
A 10 0 10
B 15 25 40
Warehouse
25 25 50
Demand
Can this solution be improved if it costs $5 per unit to ship from A to C; $7 per unit to ship
from A to D; $8 to ship from B to C; and $9 to ship from B to D?
A. Yes, this solution can be improved by $50.

B. Yes, this solution can be improved by $100.
C. No, this solution is optimal.
D. Yes, the initial solution can be improved by $10.
109. What is the cost of the transportation solution shown in the table?
W X Y Supply
$3 $5 $9
A 70
20 50 0
$5 $4 $7
B 30
0 30 0
$10 $8 $3
C 120
40 0 80
Demand 60 80 80 220
A. $1350
B. $1070
C. $1150
D. $1230
110. Which statement regarding this transportation table is best?

W X Y Supply
$3 $5 $9
A 70
20 50 0
$5 $4 $7
B 30
0 30 0
$10 $8 $3
C 120
40 0 80
Demand 60 80 80 220
A. The solution is degenerate.
B. This solution can be improved by shipping from C to X.
C. This solution would be improved by shipping from B to W.
D. This solution was developed using the northwest corner rule.
111. Which of these statements about the stepping-stone method is best?
A. A dummy source and destination must be added if the number of rows plus columns
minus 1 is not equal to the number of filled squares.
B. Only squares containing assigned shipments can be used to trace a path back to
an empty square.
C. An improvement index that is a net positive means that the initial solution can be
improved.
D. Only empty squares can be used to trace a path back to a square containing an
assigned shipment
112. In a transportation problem, we must make the number of __________ and

__________ equal.
A. destinations; sources
B. units supplied; units demanded
C. columns; rows
D. positive cost coefficients; negative cost coefficients
E. warehouses; suppliers
113. __________ or __________ are used to "balance" an assignment or transportation

problem.
A. Destinations; sources
B. Units supplied; units demanded
C. Dummy rows; dummy columns
D. Large cost coefficients; small cost coefficients
E. Artificial cells; degenerate cells
114. The net cost of shipping one unit on a route not used in the current transportation
problem solution is called the __________.
A. change index
B. new index
C. MODI index
D. idle index
E. Improvement index
115. The procedure used to solve assignment problems wherein one reduces the original
assignment costs to a table of opportunity costs is called __________.
A. stepping-stone method
B. matrix reduction
C. MODI method
D. northwest reduction
E. simplex reduction
116. The method of finding an initial solution based upon opportunity costs is called
__________.
A. the northwest corner rule
B. Vogel's approximation
C. Johanson's theorem
D. Flood's technique
E. Hungarian method
117. An assignment problem can be viewed as a special case of transportation problem in

which the capacity from each source is _______ and the demand at each destination is
________.
A. 1; 1
B. Infinity; infinity
C. 0; 0
D. 1000; 1000
E. -1; -1
118. _______ occurs when the number of occupied squares is less than the number of rows
plus
A. Degeneracy
B. Infeasibility
C. Unboundedness
D. Unbalance
E. Redundancy
119. Both transportation and assignment problems are members of a category of LP

problems called ______.
A. shipping problems
B. logistics problems
C. generalized flow problems
D. routing problems
E. network flow problems
120. The equation Ri + Kj = Cij is used to calculate __________.

A. an improvement index for the stepping-stone method
B. the opportunity costs for using a particular route
C. the MODI cost values (Ri, Kj)
D. the degeneracy index
E. optimality test
121. In case of an unbalanced problem, shipping cost coefficients of ______ are assigned
to each created dummy factory or warehouse.
A. very high positive costs
B. very high negative costs
C. 10
D. zero
E. one
122. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any
known method. However, the only condition is that
A. The solution be optimal
B. The rim conditions are satisfied
C. The solution not be degenerate
D. All of the above
123. The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to

A. Satisfy rim conditions
B. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
C. Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
124. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
A. Total supply equals total demand
B. The solution so obtained is not feasible
C. The few allocations become negative
125. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists

whenever opportunity cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is:
A. Positive & greater than zero
B. Positive with at least one equal to zero
C. Negative with at least one equal to zero
126. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the
transportation problem is that
A. It is complicated to use
B. It does not take into account cost of transportation
C. It leads to a degenerate initial solution
D. All of the above
127. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows (supplies) & ‘n’ columns
(destination) is feasible if number of positive allocations are
A. m+n
B. m*n
C. m+n-1
D. m+n+1
128. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be
A. Equal to zero
B. Most negative number
C. Most positive number
D. Any value
129. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may
occur when
A. The closed path indicates a diagonal move
B. Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a
corner of the path.
C. Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest
circled value
D. Either of the above
130. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is
chosen to improve the current solution because
A. It represents per unit cost reduction
B. It represents per unit cost improvement
C. It ensure no rim requirement violation
131. The smallest quantity is chosen at the corners of the closed path with negative sign to
be assigned at unused cell because
A. It improve the total cost
B. It does not disturb rim conditions
C. It ensure feasible solution
D. All of the above
132. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is
said to be
A. Balanced
B. Unbalanced
C. Degenerate
133. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution
of the transportation problem
A. Least cost method
B. Vogel’s approximation method
C. Modified distribution method
D. All of the above

A. Dummy allocation(s) needs to be added
B. The problem has no feasible solution
C. The multiple optimal solution exist
D. a & b but not c
135. In a transportation problem, when the number of occupied routes is less than the
number of rows plus the number of columns -1, we say that the solution is:
A. Unbalanced.
B. Infeasible.
C. Optimal.
D. impossible.
E. Degenerate.
136. The only restriction we place on the initial solution of a transportation problem is that:
we must have nonzero quantities in a majority of the boxes.
A. all constraints must be satisfied.
B. demand must equal supply.
C. we must have a number (equal to the number of rows plus the number of columns
minus one) of boxes which contain nonzero quantities.
137. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any
known method. However, the only condition is that
A. the solution be optimal
B. the rim condition are satisfied
C. the solution not be degenerate
D. all of the above

A. satisfy rim condition
B. prevent solution from becoming degenerate
C. ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
D. all of the above
A. total supply equals total demand
B. the solution so obtained is not feasible
C. the few allocations become negative
140. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists

whenever opportunity cost corresponding to unused routes of transportation is:
A. positive and greater than zero
B. positive with at least one equal to zero
C. negative with at least one equal to zero
D. all of the above
141. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner Rule to find initial solution to
the transportation problem is that
A. it is complicated to use
B. it does not take into account cost of transportation
C. it leads to degenerate initial solution
D. all of the above
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Operations Research (OR) , which is a very powerful tool for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Research
b) Decision – Making
c) Operations
d) None of the above
2. Who coined the term Operations Research?
a) J.F. McCloskey
b) F.N. Trefethen
c) P.F. Adams
d) Both A and B
3. The term Operations Research was coined in the year ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) 1950
b) 1940
c) 1978
d) 1960
4. This innovative science of Operations Research was discovered during ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Civil War
b) World War I
c) World War II
d) Industrial Revolution
5. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Battle field
b) Fighting
c) War
d) Both A and B
6. Who defined Operations Research as scientific method of providing executive departments with
a quantitative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control?
a) Morse and Kimball (1946)
b) P.M.S. Blackett (1948)
c) E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg
7. Who defined Operations Research as scientific approach to problem solving for executive
management ?
a) E.L. Arnoff
b) P.M.S. Blackett
c) H.M. Wagner
8. Who defined Operations Research as an aid for the executive in marketing his decisions by
providing him with the quantitative information based on the scientific method of analysis
?
a) C. Kitte
b) H.M. Wagner
c) E.L. Arnoff
9. Operations Research has the characteristics the it is done by a team of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Scientists
b) Mathematicians
c) Academics
d) All of the above
10. There is a great scope for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ working as a team to solve problems of defence by using the
Operations Research approach
a) Economists
b) Administrators
c) Statisticians and Technicians
d) All of the above
11. Operations Research emphasizes on the overall approach to the system. This charecteristics of
Operations Research is often referred as
a) System Orientation
b) System Approach
c) Interdisciplinary Team Approach
12. Operations Research cannot give perfect ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ to problems
a) Answers
b) Solutions
c) Both A and B
d) Decisions
13. Operations Research simply helps in improving the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of the solution but does not result
in a perfect solution.
a) Quality
b) Clarity
c) Look
14. Operations Research involves ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ attack of complex problems to arrive at the
optimum solution
a) Scientific
b) Systematic
c) Both A and B
d) Statistical
15. Operations Research uses models built by quantitative measurement of the variables concerning
a given problem and also derives a solution from the model using ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of the diversified
solution techniques
a) Two or more
b) One or more
c) Three or more
d) Only One
16. A solution may be extracted from a model either by
a) Conducting experiments on it
b) Mathematical analysis
c) Both A and B
d) Diversified Techniques
17. Operations Research uses models to help the management to determine its ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
scientifically
a) Policies
b) Actions
c) Both A and B
18. Operations Research is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Science
b) Art
c) Mathematics
d) Both A and B
19. What have been constructed for Operations Research problems and methods for solving the
models that are available in many cases?
a) Scientific Models
b) Algorithms
c) Mathematical Models
20. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as profit
maximization or cost minimization under certain constraints?
a) Quailing Theory
b) Waiting Line
c) Both A and B
d) Linear Programming
21. What aims at optimizing inventory levels?
a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory Capacity
c) Inventory Planning
22. What can be defined as a useful idle resource which has economic value eg; raw materials, spare
parts, finished items, etc?
a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory
c) Inventory Planning
23. Which theory concerns making sound decisions under conditions of certainity, risk and
uncertainty
a) Game Theory
b) Network Analysis
c) Decision Theory
24. Key concept under which technique are network of events and activities , resource
allocation, time and cost considerations, network paths and critical paths ?
a) Game Theory
b) Network Analysis
c) Decision Theory
25. Which technique is used to imitate an operation prior to actual performance ?
a) Simulation
b) Integrated Production Models
c) Inventory Control
d) Game Theory
26. What is concerned with the prediction of replacement costs and determination of the
most economic replacement policy ?
a) Search Theory
b) Theory of replacement
c) Probabilistic Programming
27. What refers to Linear Programming that includes an evaluation of relative risks and
uncertainties in various alternatives of choice for management decisions ?
a) Probabilistic Programming
b) Stochastic Programming
c) Both A and B
d) Linear Programming
28. What enables us to determine the earliest and the latest times for each of the events and
a) Programme Evaluation
b) Review Technique (PERT)
c) Both A and B
d) Deployment of resources
29. Linear Programming technique is used to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner in
problems of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ ?
a) Schedule
b) Product Mix
c) Both A and B
d) Servicing Cost
30. Operations Research techniques helps the directing authority in optimum allocation of various
limited resources, such as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Men and Machine
b) Money
c) Material and Time
d) All of the above
31. Operations Research study generally involves how many phases ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Two
32. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models involves the allocation of resources to activities in such a manner that some
measure of effectiveness is optimized.
a) Sequencing
b) Allocation Models
c) Queuing Theory
d) Decision Theory
33. Allocation problems can be solved by
a) Linear Programming Technique
b) Non – Linear Programming Technique
c) Both A and B
34. In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models, everything is defined and the results are certain,
a) Deterministic Models
b) Probabilistic Models
c) Both A and B
35. In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models there is risk and uncertainty
b) Probabilistic Models
c) Both A and B
36. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models are obtained by enlarging or reducing the size of the item
a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
37. Operations Research attempts to find the best and ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ solution to a problem
a) Optimum
b) Perfect
c) Degenerate
38. The word ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ may be defined as some action that we apply to some problems or
hypothesis.
a) Research
b) Operation
c) Both A and B
39. The operations Research technique, specially used to determine the optimum strategy is
a) Decision Theory
b) Simulation
c) Game Theory
40. The operations Research technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service costs is
a) Queuing Theory
b) Decision Theory
c) Both A and B
41. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are the representation of reality
a) Models
b) Phases
c) Both A and B
42. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are called mathematical models
a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
43. It is not easy to make any modification or improvement in
a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
44. In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models one set of properties is used to represent another set of properties
a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
45. Allocation Models are ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Iconic models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
46. Probabilistic models are also known as
b) Stochastic Models
c) Dynamic Models
d) Static Models
47. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models assumes that the values of the variables do not change with time during
a particular period
a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
c) Both A and B
48. A ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models considers time as one of the important variable
a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
c) Both A and B
49. Replacement Model is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ model
a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
c) Both A and B
50. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ may be defined as a method of determining an optimum programme inter
dependent activities in view of available resources
a) Goal Programming
b) Linear Programming
c) Decision Making
51. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are expressed is n the form of inequities or equations
a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
c) Both A and B
52. The objective functions and constraints are linear relationship between ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
d) All of the above
53. Assignment problem helps to find a maximum weight identical in nature in a weighted ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Tripartite graph
b) Bipartite graph
c) Partite graph
54. All the parameters in the linear programming model are assumed to be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
55. The solution need not be in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ numbers
a) Prime Number
b) Whole Number
c) Complex Number
56. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ variable
a) One
b) More than One
c) Two
d) Three
57. If the feasible region of a LPP is empty, the solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
58. The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors are called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Unit Variables
b) Basic Variables
c) Non basic Variables
59. Any column or raw of a simplex table is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Vector
b) Key column
c) Key Raw
60. If there are ‘m’ original variables and ‘n’ introduced variables, then there will be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
columns in the simplex table
a) M + n
b) M – n
c) 3 +m + n
d) M + n – 1
61. A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the sign of
coefficients in the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
c) Both A and B
62. If in a LPP , the solution of a variable can be made infinity large without violating the constraints,
the solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
63. In maximization cases , ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are assigned to the artificial variables as their coefficients in
the objective function
a) +m
b) –m
c) 0
64. In simplex method , we add ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ variables in the case of ‘=’
a) Slack Variable
b) Surplus Variable
c) Artificial Variable
65. In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable, ‐‐‐
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ should be selected
a) Slack variable
b) Surplus variable
c) Decision variable
66. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ if at least one of the basic variable is zero
a) Degenerate
b) Non‐degenerate
c) Infeasible
d) Unbounded
67. In LPP, degeneracy occurs in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stages
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
68. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Primal
b) Dual
c) Non‐linear programming
69. As for maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Profit
b) optimization
c) cost
70. If there are more than one optimum solution for the decision variable the solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
71. Dual of the dual is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Primal
b) Dual
c) Alternative
72. Operations Research approach is
a) Multi‐disciplinary
b) Scientific
c) Initiative
d) All of the above
73. For analyzing the problem , decision – makers should normally study
a) Its qualitative aspects
b) Its quantitative aspects
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A and B
74. Decision variables are
a) Controllable
b) Uncontrollable
c) Parameters
75. The issue of decision models
a) Is possible when the variable’s value is
b) Reduces the scope of judgment and intuition known with certainty in decision making
c) Requires the knowledge of computer software use
76. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is one of the fundamental combinatorial optimization problems.
a) Assignment problem
b) Transportation problem
c) Optimization Problem
77. An optimization model
a) Mathematically provides the best decision
b) Provides decision within its limited context
c) Helps in evaluating various alternatives constantly
d) All of the above
78. The quantitative approach to decision analysis is a
a) Logical approach
b) Rational approach
c) Scientific approach
d) All of the above
79. Operations Research approach is typically based on the use of
a) Physical model
b) Mathematical model
c) Iconic model
d) Descriptive model
80. In a manufacturing process, who takes the decisions as to what quantities and which process or
processes are to be used so that the cost is minimum and profit is maximum?
a) Supervisor
b) Manufacturer
c) Producer
d) Production manager
81. Linear programming has been successfully applied in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Agricultural
b) Industrial applications
c) Both A and B
d) Manufacturing
82. The term linearity implies ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ among the relevant variables:
a) Straight line
b) Proportional relationships
c) Linear lines
d) Both A and B
83. Process refers to the combination of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ inputs to produce a particular output.
a) one or more
b) two or more
c) one
84. What has always been very important in the business and industrial world, particularly with
regard to problems concerning productions of commodities?
a) Linear Programming
b) Production
c) Decision – making
85. What are the main questions before a production manager?
a) Which commodity/ commodities to produce
b) In what quantities
c) By which process or processes
d) All of the above
86. Who pointed out that the businessman always studies his production function and his input
prices and substitutes one input for another till his costs become the minimum possible?
a) Alan Marshall
b) Alfred Marsh
c) Alfred Marshall
87. Who invented a method of formal calculations often termed as ?
a) A.V. Kantorovich
b) L.V. Kantorovich
c) T.S. Kantorovich
d) Alfred Marshall
88. Who developed Linear Programming for the purpose of scheduling the complicated
procurement activities of the United States Air Force?
a) George B. Dantzig
b) James B. Dantzig
c) George B. Dante
d) George V. Dantzig
89. This method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in
which year?
a) 1947
b) 1988
c) 1957
d) 1944
90. What is being considered as one of the most versatile management tools?
a) Electronic Computers
b) Linear Programming
c) Computer Programming
91. LP is a major innovation since ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ in the field of business decision – making, particularly
under conditions of certainty.
a) Industrial Revolution
b) World War I
c) World War II
d) French Revolution
92. The world ‘Linear’ means that the relationships are represented by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Diagonal lines
b) Curved lines
c) Straight lines
d) Slanting lines
93. The world ‘ programming’ means taking decisions ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Systematically
b) Rapidly
c) Slowly
d) Instantly
94. Who originally called it ‘ Programming of interdependent activities in a linear structure’ but later
shortened it to ‘ Linear Programming’ ?
a) Dantzig
b) Kantorovich
c) Marshall
95. LP can be applied in farm management problems is relates to the allocation of resources such as
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ , in such a way that is maximizes net revenue
a) Acreage
b) Labour
c) Water supply or working capital
d) All of the above
96. LP model is based on the assumptions of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Proportionality
b) Additivity
c) Certainty
d) All of the above
97. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ assumption means the prior knowledge of all the coefficients in the objective
function, the coefficients of the constraints and the resource values.
a) Proportionality
b) Certainty
c) Finite choices
d) Continuity
98. Simple linear programming problem with ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ variables can be easily solved by
the graphical method.
a) One decision
b) Four decisions
c) Three decisions
d) Two decisions
99. Any solution to a LPP which satisfies the non‐ negativity restrictions of the LPP is called its ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Unbounded solution
b) Optimal solution
c) Feasible solution
d) Both A and B
100. Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of
the LPP is called its ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Optimal solution
b) Non‐basic variables
c) Solution
d) Basic feasible solution
101. A non – degenerate basic feasible solution is the basic feasible solution which has exactly
m positive Xi (i=1,2,…,m), i.e., none of the basic variable is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infinity
b) One
c) Zero
d) X
102. What is also defined as the non‐negative variables which are added in the LHS of the
constraint to convert the inequality ‘< ‘ into an equation?
a) Slack variables
b) Simplex algorithm
c) Key element
103. Which method is an iterative procedure for solving LPP in a finite number of steps ?
a) Simplex algorithm
b) Slack variable
c) M method
d) Simplex method
104. In simplex algorithm , which method is used to deal with the situation where an
infeasible starting basic solution is given?
a) Slack variable
b) Simplex method
c) M‐ method
105. How many methods are there to solve LPP?
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
106. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is another method to solve a given LPP involving some artificial variable ?
a) Big M method
b) Method of penalties
c) Two‐phase simplex method
107. Which variables are fictitious and cannot have any physical meaning ?
a) Optimal variable
b) Decision variable
c) Artificial variable
108. An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or
minimized is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Feasible function
b) Optimal function
c) Criterion function
109. An assumption that implies that finite numbers of choices are available to a decision –
maker and the decision variables do not assume negative values is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Certainty
b) Continuity
c) Finite choices
110. A set of values X1, X2,…Xn which satisfies the constraints of the LPP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Solution
b) Variable
c) Linearity
111. A basic solution which also satisfies the condition in which all basic variables are non ‐
negative is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Basic feasible solution
b) Feasible solution
c) Optimal solution
112. All the constraints are expressed as equations and the right hand side of each constraint and
all variables are non‐negative is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Canonical variable
b) Canonical form
c) Canonical solution
d) Both A and B
113. An objective function is maximized when it is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ function
a) Passive
b) Profit
c) Cost
114. LPP is exactly used in solving what kind of resource allocation problems?
a) Production planning and scheduling
b) Transportation
c) Sales and advertising
d) All of the above
115. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide range of practical ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Business problems
b) Agricultural problems
c) Manufacturing problems
116. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular output.
a) Solution
b) variable
c) Process
117. An optimum solution is considered the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ among feasible solutions.
a) Worst
b) Best
c) Ineffective
118. Please state which statement is true.
(i) All linear programming problems may not have unique solutions
(ii) The artificial variable technique is not a device that does not get the starting basic
feasible solution.
a) Both (i) and( ii)
b) (ii) only
c) (i) only
d) Both are incorrect
119. Please state which statement is incorrect.
(i) Linear programming was first formulated by an English economist L.V. Kantorovich
(ii) LP is generally used in solving maximization or minimization problems subject to
certain assumptions.
a) (ii) only
b) (i) only
c) Both (i) and( ii)
d) Both are correct
120. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ which is a subclass of a linear programming problem (LPP)
a) Programming problem
b) Transportation problem
c) Computer problem
121. The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages?
a) Five
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two
122. An optimal solution is the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stage of a solution obtained by improving the initial solution
a) Third
b) First
c) Second
d) Final
123. MODI method is used to obtain ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Optimal solutions
b) Optimality test
c) Both A and B
d) Optimization
124. For solving an assignment problem, which method is used?
a) Hungarian
b) American
c) German
125. To make an unbalanced assignment problem balanced, what are added with all entries
as zeroes?
a) Dummy rows
b) Dummy columns
c) Both A and B
d) Dummy entries
126. Any set of non‐negative allocations (Xij>0) which satisfies the raw and column sum
(rim requirement )is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Linear programming
b) Basic feasible solution
c) Feasible solution
127. A feasible solution is called a basic feasible solution if the number of non‐negative allocations
is equal to ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) m‐n+1
b) m‐n‐1
c) m+n‐1
128. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations
is said to be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Independent
b) Degenerate
c) Non‐degenerate
d) Both A and B
129. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are
occupied is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Occupied path
b) Open path
c) Closed path
130. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
from O origins and D destinations
a) Goods
b) Products
c) Items
131. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Simple problem
b) Balanced problem
c) Transportation problem
132. Basic cells indicate positive values and non‐ basic cells have ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ value for flow
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) One
d) zero
133. According to transportation problem number of basic cells will be exactly ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) m+n‐0
b) n+m‐1
c) m+n‐1
134. Before starting to solve the problem, it should be balanced. If not then make it balanced by ‐‐‐‐‐
‐‐‐‐‐‐ column incase demand is less than supply or by adding ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ raw incase supply is less
than the demand
a) O,D
b) m,n
c) Horizontal, Vertical
d) Unshipped supply, Shortage
135. In which phase is optimization done and how does that phase also checks for
optimality conditions?
a) Phase II
b) Phase I
c) Phase II
136. Optimality conditions are expressed as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ incase all non‐basic cells?
a) Negligent costs
b) Advanced costs
c) Reduced costs
137. A ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ has rows / column having non‐ basic cells for holding compensating (+ )or (‐) sign.
a) Cycle
b) Dead – end
c) Back track
138. After determining every basic cell with in this cycle, adjustment is obtained as minimum value
in basic cells . this is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Adjustment amount
b) aa
c) Both A and B
d) Alternatives
139. Optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which minimizes the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Time taken
b) Partial cost
c) Total cost
140. State which of the two statements is correct
(i) the cells in the transportation table can be classified in to occupied cells and
unoccupied cells
(ii) optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which maximizes the total cost
a) both (i) and (ii) are correct
b) Two only
c) One only
d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
141. The allocated cells in the transportation table are called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Occupied cells
b) Empty cells
c) Both A and B
d) Unoccupied cells
142. VAM stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Vogeal’s Approximation Method
b) Vogel’s Approximate Method
c) Vangel’s Approximation Method
d) Vogel’s Approximation Method
143. Once the initial basic feasible solution has been computed , what is the next step in the
problem
a) VAM
b) Modified distribution method
c) Optimality test
144. One can find the initial basic feasible solution by using ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ ?
a) VAM
b) MODI
c) Optimality test
145. What do we apply in order to determine the optimum solution ?
a) LPP
b) VAM
c) MODI Method
146. In a TP , if the number of non‐negative independent allocation is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ than m+n‐1.
a) Equivalent
b) Greater
c) Less
147. A given TP is said to be unbalanced, if the total supply is not equal to the total ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Optimization
b) Demand
c) Cost
148. If the total supply is less than the total demand, a dummy source (row) is included in the
cost matrix with ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Dummy Demand
b) Dummy Supply
c) Zero Cost
d) Both A and B
149. To find the optimal solution, we apply ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) LPP
b) VAM
c) MODI Method
d) Rim
150. For maximization in TP , the objective is to maximize the total ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Solution
b) Profit Matrix
c) Profit
ANSWERS
1. b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. d 12. c

13. a 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. c 24.b
25. a 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. a
37. a 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. b
49. b 50. b 51. a 52. a 53.b 54. b 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. a
60. 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. c 71.a
72. c 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. d 83.a
84. c 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. a 95.d
96. d 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. d 104. c 105. b 106. c 107.c
108. c 109. c 110. a 111. a 112. b 113. b 114. d 115. a 116. c 117. b 118. c 119.b
120. b 121. d 122.c 123. c 124. a 125. c 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. c 130. a 131.b
132. d 133. c 134. d 135. c 136. c 137. a 138. c 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. d 143.c
144. a 145. c 146. c 147. b 148. c 149. c 150. c
Quantitative Techniques for Business MCQs [set-1]
1. The techniques which provide the decision maker a systematic and

powerful means of analysis to explore policies for achieving
predetermined goals are called.................
A. mathematical techniques
B. correlation technique
o m
C. quantitative techniques
.c
te
a
Answer: C
q M
c generally known as ...................................
2. Programming techniques are
M
A. statistical techniques
B. mathematical techniques
C. operation research techniques
D. none of these
Answer: B
3. .................................is the reverse process of differentiation
A. differential equation
B. integration
C. determinant
D. none of these
Answer: B
4. .............................. is a powerful device developed over the matrix

algebra.
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A. integration
B. differentiation
C. determinants
D. none of these
Answer: C
5. Correlation analysis is a........................... analysis.
A. univariate analysis
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B. bivariate analysis
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C. game theory
a
D. queuing theory
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Answer: D
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6. When the values of two variables move in the same direction,
correlation is said to be ..........
A. positive
B. negative
C. linear
D. non-linear
Answer: A
7. When the values of two variables move in the opposite direction,

correlation is said to be……
A. positive
B. negative
C. linear
D. non-linear
Answer: B

8. When the amount of change in one variable leads to a constant ratio of
change in the other variable, correlation is said to be ............................
A. positive
B. negative
C. linear
D. non-linear
Answer: C
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9. Scatter diagram is also called ...................................
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A. correlation graph a
B. zero correlation
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C. probability

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Answer: B
10. If all the points of a scatter diagram lie on a straight line falling from
the lower left-hand corner to the upper right-hand corner, the correlation is
said to be ..........................
A. zero correlation
B. perfect positive correlation
C. perfect negative correlation
D. high degree of positive correlation
Answer: B
11. If all the dots of a scatter diagram lie on a straight line falling from the
upper left-hand corner to the lower right hand corner, the correlation is
said to be ..........................
A. zero correlation

B. perfect positive correlation
C. perfect negative correlation
D. high degree of negative correlation
Answer: C
12. The quantitative measure of correlation between two variables is

known as.....................
A. coefficient of correlation
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B. coefficient of regression
.c
C. coefficient of determination
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Answer: A
c
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13. Coefficient of correlation measures ...........................................
A. location
B. variability
C. concentration
D. relation
Answer: D
14. Coefficient of correlation lies between .....................................
A. 0 and 1
B. 0 and -1
C. +1 and -1
D. none of these
Answer: C

15. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation is denoted by the symbol
..................
A. r
B. r
C. k
Answer: B
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16. Correlation can be ............................................
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A. positive only a
B. negative only
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C. between +1 and -1
D. positive
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Answer: C
17. If r= +1, the correlation is said to be .......................
A. perfectly positive correlation
B. high degree of correlation
C. direction and degree
Answer: A
18. An analysis of the covariance between two or more variables is called

..............................
A. regression analysis
B. correlation analysis
C. testing of hypothesis

D. none of these
Answer: B
19. In correlation analysis, P.E. = ....................0.6745
A. standard error
B. probable error
C. coefficient of non-determination
D. coefficient of alienation
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Answer: A
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20. If correlation between the two variables a is unity , there exists
........................................
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A. perfect +ve correlation
B. perfect -ve correlation

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C. zero correlation
D. perfect correlation
Answer: D
21. In correlation analysis, the formulae 1-r2 is used to compute the value
of .......................
A. coefficient of determination
B. coefficient of non-determination
C. coefficient of correlation
D. coefficient of alienation
Answer: B
22. Study of correlation between two sets of data only is called

..............................

A. partial correlation
B. simple correlation
C. multiple correlation
Answer: B
23. ………..is the study of correlation between one dependent variable with
one independent variable by keeping the other independent variables as
constant.
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A. multiple correlation
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B. simple correlation a
C. partial correlation
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D. none of the above c
Answer: C
M
24. ……….is the study of correlation among three or more variable
simultaneously.
A. multiple correlation
B. partial correlation
C. simple correlation
Answer: A
25. In a correlation analysis, if r=0, then we may say that, there is

..................... between variables.
A. no correlation
B. perfect correlation
C. linear correlation
Answer: A

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26. Coefficient of correlation is independent of ........................................
A. origin
B. scale
C. both
D. none
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Answer: C
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27. When r = -1, we may say that, there is ..........................
q
A. perfect negative correlation c
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B. high degree of negative correlation
C. 0.1
D. 2
Answer: A
28. If the ratio of change in one variable is equal to the ratio of change in
the other variable, the correlation is said to be ..................................
A. linear
B. curvi-linear
C. non-linear
D. none of these
Answer: A
29. If the plotted points of a scatter diagram fall on a narrow band, it

indicates a. ............degree of correlation.
A. zero

B. low
C. high
D. none of these
Answer: C
30. If r =0.9, coefficient of determination is .........................
A. 9%
B. 90%
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C. absence
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D. none of these
a
Answer: C
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31. If plotted points in a scatter diagram lie on a straight line vertical to the
Y-axis, then r=.........
A. +1
B. 0
C. -1
D. none of these
Answer: B
32. ................................is the geometric mean of two regression

coefficients.
B. coefficient of standered deviation
C. arithmetic mean
D. coefficient of variation
Answer: A
33. If dots in a scatter diagram are lie in a haphazard manner, then r=

.......................
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. none of these
Answer: A
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34. Product moment correlation was developed by .......................
o
A. karl pearson
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B. charles edward spearman
a
C. kelly
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D. none of these
c
Answer: A M
35. Spearman’s coefficient of correlation is usually denoted by .................
A. r
B. k
C. r
D. none of these
Answer: C
36. If m is the coefficient of correlation, then the value of m2 is known as

.................
A. coefficient of alienation
B. coefficient of determination
C. coefficient of non-determiantion
D. none of these
Answer: B

37. If m is the correlation coefficient, then the quantity (1-m2) is called
......................
A. coefficient of determination
B. coefficient of non-determination
C. coefficient of alienation
D. none of these
Answer: B
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38. The coefficient of correlation between two variables, X and Y , will have
negative sign when……
te
a
A. x is increasing, y is decreasing
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B. x is decreasing, y is increasing c
C. any one of the above M
D. none of these
Answer: C
39. Coefficient of concurrent deviation depends on ..........................
A. magnitude of deviation
B. direction of deviation
C. both a and b
D. none of these
Answer: B
40. ............................ refers to analysis of average relationship between two

variables to provide a mechanism for prediction.
A. correlation
B. regression
C. average

D. none of these
Answer: B
41. The two regression lines coincide each other when r = .......................
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. none of these
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Answer: C
.c
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a perpendicular when r = ..............
42. The two regression lines are mutually
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A. 0
c
B. -1 M
C. +1
D. none of these
Answer: A
43. byx is the regression coefficient of regression equation

...........................
A. y on x
B. x on y
C. 0
D. none of these
Answer: A
44. The signs of regression coefficients will be .......................
A. different
B. same

C. 0
D. none of these
Answer: B
45. The signs of correlation coefficient and regression coefficient are

............................
A. different
B. same
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C. 0
.c
D. none of these
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Answer: B
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c values of ( X, Y) gives the idea about
46. Scatter diagram of the various
....................... M
A. regression model
B. distribution of errors
C. functional relationship
Answer: C
47. If X and Y are independent , the value of regression coefficient byx =

....................
A. 1
B. 0
C. greater than 1
D. any negative value
Answer: B

48. bxy x byx = ..............................
A. coefficient of regression
C. both
D. none
Answer: C
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49. If X and Y are two variables, there can be at most ..........................
.c
A. three regression lines
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B. two regression lines
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C. one regression line
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D. infinite number of regression lines
Answer: B
50. Geometric mean of regression coefficients will be ..............................
B. coefficient of determination
C. coefficient of variation
D. none of these
Answer: A

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51. In a regression line of Y on X, the variable X is known as

..................................
A. explanatory variable
B. independent variable
C. regressor
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D. all the above
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Answer: D
a
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52. The term regression was used firstly by .............................
c
A. prof. karl pearson M
B. edward spearman
C. 0
D. none of these
Answer: C
53. If a constant 30 is subtracted from each of the value of X and Y , the

regression coefficient is ..........................
A. reduced by 30
B. increased by 30
C. not changed
D. 1/30th of the original regression
Answer: C
54. In .........................regression, only one independent variable is used to

explain the dependent variable.

A. linear
B. multiple
C. scatter diagram
D. none of these
Answer: A
55. Regression lines are also called .........................
A. correlation graph
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B. scatter diagram
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C. scatter diagram
a
D. none of these
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Answer: C
c
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56. If the correlation between the two variables , X and Y is negative, the
regression coefficient of Y on X is .............................
A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. not certain
Answer: C
57. The arithmetic mean of bxy and byx is ..........................
A. equal to one
B. greater than r
C. francis galton
D. none of these
Answer: B

58. The regression coefficient and correlation coefficient of two variables
will be the same, if their .................... are same.
A. standard deviation
B. arithmetic mean
C. mean deviation
D. none of these
Answer: A
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59. If the sign of regression coefficient bxy is negative, then the sign of
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regression coefficient byx will be ........................
a
A. positive
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B. negative c
C. 0 M
D. none of these
Answer: B
60. The square root of coefficient of determination is ...................
C. coefficient of variation
D. none of these
Answer: A
61. While analysing the relationship between variables, independent

variable is also called..................................
A. explained variable
B. explanatory variable
C. variable

D. none of these
Answer: B
62. Dependent variable is also called ............................
A. explained variable
B. explanatory variable
C. 4.0
D. 0.4
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Answer: A
. c
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a the other is .......................
63. If one regression coefficient is positive,
q M
A. positive
c
B. negative M
C. zero
D. 1
Answer: A
64. The arithmetic mean of bxy and byx is .............................
A. equal to 1
B. equal to 0
C. greater than r
D. less than r
Answer: C
65. .............................. refers to the chance of happening or not happening

of an event.
A. regression
B. probability

C. correlation
D. none of these
Answer: B
66. The numerical value given to the likelyhood of the occurrence of an

event is called................
A. correlation
B. regression
o m
C. probability
.c
D. none of these
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Answer: C
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c.........................
67. Sample point is also called
A. sample space
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B. elementary outcome
C. probability
D. none of these
Answer: B
68. The result of a random experiment is called .................................
A. sample space
B. event
C. probability
D. none of these
Answer: B

69. ............................ has two or more outcomes which vary in an
unpredictable manner from trial to trial when conducted under uniform
conditions.
A. experiment
B. random experiment
C. probability
D. none of these
Answer: B
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70. An event whose occurrence is inevitable
te is called
...................................... a
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A. sure event
c
B. impossible event
M
C. uncertain event
D. none of these
Answer: A
71. An event whose occurrence is impossible, is called ......................
A. sure event
B. impossible event
C. uncertain event
D. none of these
Answer: A
72. An event whose occurrence is neither sure nor impossible, is called

...........................
A. sure event
B. impossible event

C. uncertain event
D. none of these
Answer: C
73. A set of events are said to be ...................... , if the occurrence of one of

them excludes the possibility of the occurrence of the other.
A. mutually exclusive
B. not mutually exclusive
o m
C. independent
.c
D. none of them
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a
Answer: A
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74. ....................... refers to thecarrangement of objects in a definite order.
A. combination
M
B. permutation
C. independent
D. none of them
Answer: B
75. Selection of objects without considering their order is called

...................................
A. combination
B. permutation 94. 12c12 = ................
C. independent
D. none of them
Answer: A

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76. Classical probability is also called .........................
A. priori probability
B. mathematical probability
C. finite set
D. none of these
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Answer: D
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a
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77. The relative frequency approach is also called ................................
q
A. empirical approach c
B. statistical probability
M
C. apsteriori probability
D. all the above
Answer: D
78. When P(AUB) = P(A) + P(B), then A and B are .............................
A. dependent
B. independent
C. mutually exclusive
D. none of these
Answer: C
79. When two events cannot occur together is called ........................
A. equally likely
B. mutually exclusive

C. random events
D. none of these
Answer: B
80. If two sets have no common element, they are called ....................
A. subset
B. super set
C. disjoint set
o m
D. equal set
.c
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Answer: C
a
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81. Two events are said to be ..................... , if any one of them cannot be
c
expected to occur in preference to the other.
A. equally likely
M
B. mutually exclusive
C. dependent
D. none of them
Answer: A
82. Two events are said to be independent if ........................
A. there is no common point in between them
B. both the events have only one point
C. each outcome has equal chance of occurrence
D. one does not affect the occurrence of the other
Answer: D
83. Probability of an event lies between ................................
A. +1 and -1

B. 0 and 1
C. 0 and -1
D. 0 and infinite
Answer: B
84. Probability of sample space of a random experiment is

............................
A. -1
o m
B. 0
.c
C. +1
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a
D. between 0 and +1
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Answer: C
c
M
85. In tossing a coin , getting head and getting tail are
............................................
A. mutually exclusive events
B. simple events
C. complementary events
D. all the above
Answer: A
86. If two events, A and B are mutually exclusive, then P(AUB) =

.........................
A. p(a) + p(b)
B. p(a) + p(b) - p(a and b)
C. p(a) + p(b) + p(a and b)
D. none of these
Answer: A

87. If two events, A and B are not mutually exclusive, the P(AUB) =
..................
A. p(a) + p(b)
B. p(a) + p(b) - p(a and b)
C. p(a) + p(b) + p(a and b)
D. none of these
Answer: B
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88. An event consisting of those elements which are not in the given event
is called.............
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a
A. simple event
q M
B. derived event c
C. complementary event M
D. none of these
Answer: C
89. The definition of priori probability was originally given by

............................
A. de-moivre
B. laplace
C. pierre de fermat
D. james bernoulli
Answer: B
90. ........................ refers to the totality of all the elementary outcomes of a

random experiment.
A. sample point
B. sample space

C. simple event
D. none of these
Answer: B
91. The sum of probabilities of all possible elementary outcomes of a

random experiment is always equal to ...................
A. 0
B. 1
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C. infinity
.c
D. none of these
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a
Answer: B
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92. Chance for an event may c
be expressed as .................
A. percentage
M
B. proportion
C. infinity
D. none of these
Answer: D
93. If it is known that an event A has occurred, the probability of an event

B given A is called ............................
A. empirical probability
B. conditional probability
C. priori probability
D. posterior probability
Answer: B
94. The mean of a binomial distribution is ...........................

A. np
B. npq
C. square root of npq
D. none of these
Answer: A
95. Binomial distribution is a ................................ probability distribution
A. discrete
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B. continuous
.c
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C. continuous distribution
a
D. none of these
q M
Answer: A
c
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96. Binomial distribution is originated by ..................................
A. prof. karl pearson
B. simeon dennis poisson
C. james bernoulli
D. de-moivre
Answer: C
97. When probability is revised on the basis of all the available

information, it is called .............
A. priori probability
B. posterior probability
C. continuous
D. none of these
Answer: B

98. Baye’s theorem is based upon inverse probability.
A. yes
B. no
C. probability
D. none of these
Answer: A
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99. Probability distribution is also called theoretical distribution.
.c
A. yes
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B. no
q M
C. probability
c
D. none of these
M
Answer: A
100. The height of persons in a country is a .......................... random

variable.
A. discrete
B. continuous
C. discrete as well as continuous
D. neither discrete nor continuous
Answer: B

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101. Random variable is also called ..............................
A. stochastic variable
B. chance variable
C. both
D. none of these
o m
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Answer: C
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a
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102. If the random variable of a probability distribution assumes specific
values only, then it is called ...............................
c
M
A. discrete probability distribution
B. continuous probability distribution
C. probability distribution
D. none of these
Answer: A
103. npq is the variance of ....................................
A. binomial distribution
B. poisson distribution
C. probability distribution
D. none of these
Answer: A
104. For a binomial distribution with probability p of a success and of q of

a failure, the relation between mean and variance is .............................
A. mean is less than variance

B. mean is greater than variance
C. mean is equal to variance
D. mean is greater than or equal to variance
Answer: B
105. In a binomial distribution, if n =8 and p = 1/3, then variance =

........................
A. 8/3
o m
B. 48/3
.c
C. 64/3
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D. 16/9
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Answer: D
c
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106. In a .............................. distribution, mean is equal to variance
A. binomial
B. poisson
C. normal
D. gamma
Answer: B
107. For a binomial distribution, the parameter n takes ...................... values
A. finite
B. infinite
C. continuous
D. none of these
Answer: A
108. Poisson distribution is the limiting form of ...............................

B. normal distribution
C. poisson
D. none of these
Answer: A
109. Poisson distribution is originated by ..........................
A. de-moivre
o m
B. bernoulli
.c
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C. poisson
a
D. none of these
q M
Answer: C
c
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110. In Poisson distribution, mean is denoted by ........................
A. npq
B. np
C. m
D. e
Answer: C
111. Poisson distribution is a ........................... distribution.
A. negatively skewed distribution
B. positively skewed distribution
C. symmetrical distribution
D. none of these
Answer: B

112. In Poisson distribution, the value of ‘e’ = ..........................
A. 2.178
B. 2.817
C. 2.718
D. 2.871
Answer: C
o m
113. Mean and variance of Poisson distribution is equal to
............................... .c
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A. m a
B. e
q M
c
C. np
D. npq
M
Answer: A
114. If two independent random variables follow binomial distribution,

their sum follows..............
C. normal distribution
D. none of these
Answer: A
115. When X follows binomial distribution, P(X=0) is.........................
A. 0
B. 1
C. qn

D. pn
Answer: C
116. Normal distribution was first discovered by ................................... in

1733 as limiting form of binomial distribution.
A. karl pearson
B. james bernoulli
C. de-moivre
o m
D. simeon denis poisson
.c
Answer: C
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a
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117. Normal distribution is a........................... probability distribution.
c
A. discrete
B. continuous
M
C. poisson
D. none of these
Answer: B
118. ...........................distribution gives a normal bell shaped curve.
A. normal
B. poisson
C. binomial
D. none of these
Answer: A
119. The normal curve is .................................
A. bi-model
B. uni-model

C. mean
D. none of these
Answer: B
120. Normal distribution is ......................
A. continuous
B. unimodal
C. normal
o m
D. none of these
.c
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Answer: D
a
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121. For a normal curve , the QD, MD, and SD are in the ratio of
.............................. c
A. 5:8:10
M
B. 10:12:15
C. 2:3:5
D. none of these
Answer: B
122. An approximate relation between QD and SD of normal distribution is

...............
A. 2qd = 3sd
B. 5qd = 4sd
C. 4qd = 5sd
D. 3qd = 2sd
Answer: D

123. An approximate relation between MD about mean and SD of a normal
distribution is ............................
A. 5md = 4 sd
B. 3md = 3 sd
C. 3md = 2 sd
D. 4md = 5 sd
Answer: A
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124. The area under the standard normal curve beyond the line z = ±1.96 is
...............................
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a
A. 5%
q M
B. 10% c
C. 90% M
D. 95%
Answer: A
125. Normal distribution is ................................
A. mesokurtic
B. leptokurtic
C. more than 0
D. in between +1 and -1
Answer: A

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c
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126. Mean Deviation (M.D) for normal distribution is equal to ......................
A. 5/4 s.d.
B. 3/2 s.d.
C. 4/5 s
Answer: C
o m
. c
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127. In a ......................... distribution, quartiles
median. a
q M
A. binomial
c
B. poisson M
C. normal
D. none of these
Answer: C
128. A normal distribution requires two parameters, namely the mean and
..............
A. median
B. mode
C. standard deviation±
D. mean deviation
Answer: C
129. A normal distribution is an approximation to ..............................

C. poisson
D. none of these
Answer: A
130. Mean ± 2 S.D. covers .............. % area of normal curve.
A. 68.27
B. 95.45
C. 95.54
o m
D. 98.73
.c
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Answer: B
a
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131. Theoretically, the range of normal curve is
c
................................................
A. -1 to +1
M
B. +1 to infinity
C. –infinity to +infinity
D. none of these
Answer: C
132. Standard deviation of the sampling distribution is called

............................
A. probable error
B. standard error
C. mean deviation
D. coefficient of variation
Answer: B
133. Index numbers are

A. special type of average
B. measure the economic changes
C. to measure relative changes
D. all of these
Answer: D
134. The techniques which provide the decision maker a systematic and
powerful means of analysis to explore policies for achieving
predetermined goals are called.................
o m
.c
A. Mathematical techniques
te
B. Correlation technique a
C. Quantitative techniques
q M
D. . None of the above c
Answer: C
M
135. ............................. is the reverse process of differentiation
A. Differential equation
B. Integration
C. Determinant
D. None of these
Answer: B
136. ...............................is an operation research technique which

resembles a real life situation.
A. Decision theory
B. Simulation
C. Game theory
D. Queuing theory
Answer: B

137. C.P.M. stands for..........................................................
A. Critical Process Method
B. Critical Performance Measurement
C. Critical Path Method
D. Critical Programme Method
Answer: C
o m
c
138. The word correlation usually implies.............................
.
e
A. Cause and effect relationship
at
B. Mutual interdependence
q M
C. Both
c
D. None of the above M
Answer: C
139. Correlation analysis is a ............................analysis.
A. Univariate analysis
B. Bivariate analysis
C. Multivariate analysis
D. Both b and c
Answer: D
140. When the values of two variables move in the same direction,
correlation is said to be ..........
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Linear
D. Non-linear
Answer: A

141. When the values of two variables move in the opposite direction,
correlation is said to be ........................
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Linear
D. Non-linear
Answer: B
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142. A _________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or
t
a
model of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance
event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
q M
A. Decision tree
c
B. Graphs M
C. Trees
D. Neural Networks
Answer: A
143. What is Decision Tree?
A. Flow-Chart
B. Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch represents
outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
C. Flow-Chart & Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch
represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: C
144. Choose from the following that are Decision Tree nodes?
A. Decision Nodes

B. End Nodes
C. Chance Nodes
D. All of the above
Answer: D
145. Decision Nodes are represented by ------
A. Disks
B. Squares
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C. Circles
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D. Triangles
a
Answer: B
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c
M
146. Chance Nodes are represented by __________
A. Disks
B. Squares
C. Circles
D. Triangles
Answer: C
147. Which of the following are the advantage/s of Decision Trees?
A. Possible Scenarios can be added
B. Use a white box model, If given result is provided by a model
C. Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios
D. All of the above
Answer: D
148. ----- are the whose values are to be determined from the solution of
the LPP

A. Objective function
B. Decision variables
C. Constrains
D. Opportunity cost
Answer: B
149. ------------ specifies the objective or goal of solving the LPP
A. Objective function
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B. Decision variables
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C. Constraints
a
D. Opportunity cost
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Answer: A
c
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150. Objective function is expressed in terms of the --------------
A. Numbers
B. Symbols
C. Decision variables
Answer: C

PlayStore
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a
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151. ---------- are the restrictions or limitations imposed on the LPP
A. Variables
B. Cost
C. Profit
D. Constraints
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Answer: D
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a
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152. Region of feasible solution in LPP graphical method is called
q
A. Infeasible region c
B. Unbounded region
M
C. Infinite region
D. Feasible region
Answer: D
153. When it is not possible to find solution in LPP, it is called as case of

---------
A. Unknown solution
B. Unbounded solution
C. Infeasible solution
D. Improper solution
Answer: C
154. When the feasible region is such that the value of objective function
can extended to infinity, it is called a case of ------------
A. Infeasible region

B. Alternate optimal
C. Unbounded solution
D. Unique solution
Answer: C
155. When the constraints are a mix of ‘less than’ and ‘greater than’ it is
called a problem having
A. Multiple constraints
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B. Infinite constraints
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C. Infeasible region
te
a
D. Mixed constraints
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Answer: D
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156. In linear programming, unbounded solution means --------------
A. Infeasible region
B. Degenerate solution
C. Infinite solution
D. Unique solution
Answer: C

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STUDY MATERIAL SEM VI TYBMS
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Operations research is the application of ____________methods to arrive at the

optimal Solutions to the problems.
A. economical
B. scientific
C. a and b both
D. artistic
2. In operations research, the ------------------------------are prepared for situations.

3. Operations management can be defined as the application of -----------------------------------

-------to a problem within a system to yield the optimal solution.
4. Operations research is based upon collected information, knowledge and advanced study
of various factors impacting a particular operation. This leads to more informed -----------
--------------------------.
A. Management processes
B. Decision making
C. Procedures
5. OR can evaluate only the effects of --------------------------------------------------.

A. Personnel factors.
B. Financial factors
C. Numeric and quantifiable factors.
True-False
6. By constructing models, the problems in libraries increase and cannot be solved.
A. True
B. False
7. Operations Research started just before World War II in Britain with the establishment of
teams of scientists to study the strategic and tactical problems involved in military
operations.
A. True
B. False
8. OR can be applied only to those aspects of libraries where mathematical models can be
prepared.
A. True
B. False
9. The main limitation of operations research is that it often ignores the human element in
the production process.
A. True
B. False
10. Which of the following is not the phase of OR methodology?

A. Formulating a problem
B. Constructing a model
C. Establishing controls
D. Controlling the environment
11. The objective function and constraints are functions of two types of variables,
_______________ variables and ____________ variables.
A. Positive and negative
B. Controllable and uncontrollable
C. Strong and weak
12. Operations research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to ____
A. Battle field
B. Fighting
C. The opponent
D. Both A and B
13. Who defined OR as scientific method of providing execuitive departments with a

quantitative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control?
A. Morse and Kimball (1946)
B. P.M.S. Blackett (1948)
C. E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg
14. OR has a characteristics that it is done by a team of

A. Scientists
B. Mathematicians
C. Academics
D. All of the above

C. A LP problem
D. Both a & b
16. A solution can be extracted from a model either by

A. Conducting experiments on it
B. Mathematical analysis
C. Both A and B
D. Diversified Techniques
17. OR uses models to help the management to determine its _____________

A. Policies
B. Actions
C. Both A and B
18. What have been constructed from OR problems an methods for solving the models that
are available in many cases?
A. Scientific Models
B. Algorithms
C. Mathematical Models
19. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as
profit maximization or cost reduction under certain constraints?
A. Quailing Theory
B. Waiting Line
C. Both A and B
D. Linear Programming
20. What enables us to determine the earliest and latest times for each of the events and
A. Programme Evaluation
B. Review Technique (PERT)
C. Both A and B
D. Deployment of resources
21. OR techniques help the directing authority in optimum allocation of various limited
resources like_____________
A. Men and Machine
B. Money
C. Material and Time

D. All of the above
22. The Operations research technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service
costs is
A. Queuing Theory
B. Decision Theory
C. Both A and B
UNIT II
LINEAR PROGRAMMING PROBLEMS
23. What is the objective function in linear programming problems?

A. A constraint for available resource
B. An objective for research and development of a company
C. A linear function in an optimization problem
D. A set of non-negativity conditions
24. Which statement characterizes standard form of a linear programming problem?

A. Constraints are given by inequalities of any type
B. Constraints are given by a set of linear equations
C. Constraints are given only by inequalities of >= type
D. Constraints are given only by inequalities of <= type
25. Feasible solution satisfies __________

A. Only constraints
B. only non-negative restriction
C. [a] and [b] both
D. [a],[b] and Optimum solution
26. In Degenerate solution value of objective function _____________.

27. Minimize Z = ______________

A. –maximize(Z)
B. -maximize(-Z)
C. maximize(-Z)

A. 2
B. not more than 3
C. 3
29. In graphical representation the bounded region is known as _________ region.

A. Solution
B. basic solution
D. optimal
30. Graphical optimal value for Z can be obtained from

A. Corner points of feasible region
B. Both a and c
C. corner points of the solution region

D. both a and b
State True or False:

32. Objective function in Linear Programming problems has always finite value at the
optimal solution-TRUE
33. A finite optimal solution can be not unique- FALSE
34. Feasible regions are classified into bounded, unbounded, empty and multiple: TRUE
35. Corner points of a feasible region are located at the intersections of the region and
coordinate axes: TRUE
36. Identify the type of the feasible region given by the set of inequalities
x - y <= 1
x - y >= 2
where both x and y are positive.
A. A triangle
B. A rectangle
C. An unbounded region
D. An empty region
37. Consider the given vectors: a(2,0), b(0,2), c(1,1), and d(0,3). Which of the following
vectors are linearly independent?
A. a, b, and c are independent

B. a, b, and d are independent
C. a and c are independent
D. b and d are independent
38. Consider the linear equation

2 x1 + 3 x2 - 4 x3 + 5 x4 = 10
How many basic and non-basic variables are defined by this equation?
A. One variable is basic, three variables are non-basic
B. Two variables are basic, two variables are non-basic
C. Three variables are basic, one variable is non-basic
D. All four variables are basic
39. The objective function for a minimization problem is given by

z = 2 x1 - 5 x2 + 3 x3
The hyperplane for the objective function cuts a bounded feasible region in the space
(x1,x2,x3). Find the direction vector d, where a finite optimal solution can be reached.
A. d(2,-5,3)
B. d(-2,5,-3)
C. d(2,5,3)
D. d(-2,-5,-3)
40. What is the difference between minimal cost network flows and transportation problems?
A. The minimal cost network flows are special cases of transportation problems
B. The transportation problems are special cases of the minimal cost network flows
C. There is no difference
D. The transportation problems are formulated in terms of tableaus, while the minimal
cost network flows are formulated in terms of graphs
41. With the transportation technique, the initial solution can be generated in any fashion one
chooses. The only restriction is that
A. the edge constraints for supply and demand are satisfied.
B. the solution is not degenerate.
C. the solution must be optimal.
D. one must use the northwest-corner method.
42. The purpose of the stepping-stone method is to

B. develop the initial solution to the transportation problem.
C. assist one in moving from an initial feasible solution to the optimal solution.
D. determine whether a given solution is feasible or not.
E. identify the relevant costs in a transportation problem.
43. The purpose of a dummy source or dummy destination in a transportation problem is

to
F. prevent the solution from becoming degenerate.
G. obtain a balance between total supply and total demand.
H. make certain that the total cost does not exceed some specified figure.
I. provide a means of representing a dummy problem.
44. Which of the following is NOT needed to use the transportation model?
A. the cost of shipping one unit from each origin to each destination
B. the destination points and the demand per period at each
C. the origin points and the capacity or supply per period at each
D. degeneracy
45. Which of the following is a method for improving an initial solution in a transportation
problem?
J. northwest-corner
K. intuitive lowest-cost
L. southeast-corner rule
M. stepping-stone
46. The transportation method assumes that

N. there are no economies of scale if large quantities are shipped from one source to
one destination.
B. the number of occupied squares in any solution must be equal to the number of rows
in the table plus the number of columns in the table plus 1.
C. there is only one optimal solution for each problem.
D. the number of dummy sources equals the number of dummy destinations.
47. In a transportation problem, we must make the number of __________ and

__________ equal.
A. destinations; sources
B. units supplied; units demanded
C. columns; rows
D. positive cost coefficients; negative cost coefficients
E. warehouses; suppliers
48. __________ or __________ are used to "balance" an assignment or transportation

problem.
F. Destinations; sources
G. Units supplied; units demanded
H. Dummy rows; dummy columns
I. Large cost coefficients; small cost coefficients

J. Artificial cells; degenerate cells
49. The net cost of shipping one unit on a route not used in the current transportation problem
solution is called the __________.
K. change index
L. new index
M. MODI index
N. idle index
O. Improvement index
50. The procedure used to solve assignment problems wherein one reduces the original
assignment costs to a table of opportunity costs is called __________.
A. stepping-stone method
B. matrix reduction
C. MODI method
D. northwest reduction
E. simplex reduction
51. The method of finding an initial solution based upon opportunity costs is called
__________.
F. the northwest corner rule
G. Vogel's approximation
H. Johanson's theorem
I. Flood's technique
J. Hungarian method
52. An assignment problem can be viewed as a special case of transportation problem in

which the capacity from each source is _______ and the demand at each destination is
________.
K. 1; 1
L. Infinity; infinity
M. 0; 0
N. 1000; 1000
O. -1; -1
53. _______ occurs when the number of occupied squares is less than the number of rows
plus
P. Degeneracy
Q. Infeasibility
R. Unboundedness
S. Unbalance
T. Redundancy
54. Both transportation and assignment problems are members of a category of LP problems
called ______.
U. shipping problems
V. logistics problems
W. generalized flow problems
X. routing problems
Y. network flow problems
55. The equation Ri + Kj = Cij is used to calculate __________.

A. an improvement index for the stepping-stone method

B. the opportunity costs for using a particular route
C. the MODI cost values (Ri, Kj)
D. the degeneracy index
E. optimality test
56. In case of an unbalanced problem, shipping cost coefficients of ______ are assigned to
each created dummy factory or warehouse.
A. very high positive costs
B. very high negative costs
C. 10
D. zero
E. one
57. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known
method. However, the only condition is that
F. The solution be optimal
G. The rim conditions are satisfied
H. The solution not be degenerate
I. All of the above

J. Satisfy rim conditions
K. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
L. Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
M. None of the above
N. Total supply equals total demand
O. The solution so obtained is not feasible
P. The few allocations become negative
Q. None of the above
60. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists whenever

opportunity cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is:
R. Positive & greater than zero
S. Positive with at least one equal to zero
T. Negative with at least one equal to zero
U. None of the above
V. It is complicated to use

D. All of the above
62. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows (supplies) & ‘n’ columns
(destination) is feasible if number of positive allocations are
A. m+n
B. m*n
C. m+n-1
D. m+n+1
63. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be
E. Equal to zero
F. Most negative number
G. Most positive number
H. Any value
64. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may occur
when
B. The closed path indicates a diagonal move
C. Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a
corner of the path.
D. Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest
circled value
E. Either of the above
65. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is
chosen to improve the current solution because
A. It represents per unit cost reduction
B. It represents per unit cost improvement
C. It ensure no rim requirement violation
66. The smallest quantity is chosen at the corners of the closed path with negative sign to be
assigned at unused cell because
F. It improve the total cost
G. It does not disturb rim conditions
H. It ensure feasible solution
I. All of the above
67. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is
said to be
A. Balanced
B. Unbalanced
C. Degenerate
68. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of
the transportation problem
A. Least cost method
B. Vogel’s approximation method
C. Modified distribution method
D. All of the above

E. Dummy allocation(s) needs to be added
F. The problem has no feasible solution
G. The multiple optimal solution exist
H. a & b but not c
70. In a transportation problem, when the number of occupied routes is less than the number
of rows plus the number of columns -1, we say that the solution is:
I. Unbalanced.
J. Infeasible.
K. Optimal.
L. impossible.
M. Degenerate.
71. The only restriction we place on the initial solution of a transportation problem is that: we
must have nonzero quantities in a majority of the boxes.
N. all constraints must be satisfied.
O. demand must equal supply.
P. we must have a number (equal to the number of rows plus the number of columns
minus one) of boxes which contain nonzero quantities.
Q. None of the above
72. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known
method. However, the only condition is that
R. the solution be optimal
S. the rim condition are satisfied
T. the solution not be degenerate
U. all of the above

V. satisfy rim condition
W. prevent solution from becoming degenerate
C. ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit

D. all of the above
A. total supply equals total demand
B. the solution so obtained is not feasible
C. the few allocations become negative
75. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problem exists whenever

opportunity cost corresponding to unused routes of transportation is:
E. positive and greater than zero
F. positive with at least one equal to zero
G. negative with at least one equal to zero
H. all of the above
76. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner Rule to find initial solution to the
I. it is complicated to use
J. it does not take into account cost of transportation
K. it leads to degenerate initial solution
L. all of the above
77. In an assignment problem involving 5 workers and 5 jobs, total number of

assignments possible are ______________.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
View answer A
78. Graphical method of linear programming is useful when the number of decision
variable are ______________
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View answer A
79. The cost of a surplus variable is ______________.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
View answer A
80. The dual of the dual is ______________.
A. dual-primal
B. primal-dual
C. dual
D. primal
View answer D
81. Solution of a Linear Programming Problem when permitted to be infinitely large

is called ______________.
A. unbounded
B. bounded
C. optimum solution
D. no solution
View answer C
82. When the total demand is not equal to supply then it is said to be ______________.
A. balanced
B. unbalanced
C. maximization
D. minimization
View answer B
83. All equality constraints can be replaced equivalently by ______________ inequalities
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
View answer B
84. If the primal has an unbound objective function value then the dual has
______________.
A. solution
B. basic solution
C. basic feasible solution
D. no feasible solution
View answer D
85. If there is no non-negative replacement ratio in a solution which is sought to be

improved, then the solution is ______________.
A. bounded
B. unbounded
C. no solution
D. alternative solution
View answer B
86. The similarity between assignment problem and transportation problem is

______________.
A. both are rectangular matrices

B. both are square matrices
C. both can be solved y graphical method
D. both have objective function and non-negativity constraints
View answer D
87. If all aij values in the entering variable column of the simplex table are negative,
then ______________.
A. solution is unbounded
B. solution is degenerate
C. there exist no solution
D. there are multiple solutions
View answer A
88. An unoccupied cell in the transportation method is analogous to a______________.
A. Zj-Cj value in the simplex table.

B. variable in the B-column in the simplex table.
C. variable not in the B-column in the simplex table.

D. value in the XB column in the simplex table.
View answer B
89. The area bounded by all the given constraints is called ______________.
A. feasible region
B. basic solution
C. non feasible region
D. optimum basic feasible solution
View answer A
90. An activity is critical if its ______________ float is zero
A. total
B. free
C. independent
D. interference
View answer A
91. __________ occurs when the number of occupied squares is less than the number
of rows plus
A. Degeneracy
B. Infeasibility
C. Unboundedness
D. Unbalance
View answer A
C. A LP problem
D. Both a & b
View answer B
93. In assignment problem of maximization, the objective is to maximise
A. Profit
B. optimization
C. cost
D. Loss
View answer A
94. In Degenerate solution value of objective function __________.
View answer D
A. 2
B. not more than 3
C. 3
View answer D
96. In graphical representation the bounded region is known as __________ region.
A. Solution
B. basic solution
D. optimal
View answer C

D. both a and b
View answer D
98. In operations research, the __________ are prepared for situations.
D. all of above
View answer A
A. It is complicated to use
D. All of the above
View answer B
100. Operations management can be defined as the application of __________ to a

problem within a system to yield the optimal solution.
D. all of above
View answer B

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QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES FOR BUSINESS – I

1. Which one of the following is not a function of statistics?

46. Sampling errors can be reduced by

55. Which of the following is not affected by extreme values?

65. Mean and median of a series are 20. What is mode?

152. _________ refers to the insertion of an intermediate value is a series of items.

199. Which of the following is not a characteristic of measure of dispersion?

140. (a) Mean = Median = Mode

3. A common test in research demands much priority on

4. Action research means

6. The essential qualities of a researcher are

7. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

8. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

9. An appropriate source to find out descriptive information is................ .

10. “Controlled Group” is a term used in.............. .

11. Testing hypothesis is a

16. All research process starts with

19. 'Research methodology' refers to:

20. A researcher should:

23. The two main styles of research are

25. Quantitative research involves

26. What is the basis of the scientific method

28. The concepts in a hypothesis are stated as

29. In order for a variable to be measured, a researcher must provide a

33. What type of research would be appropriate in the following situation?

34. What type of research would be appropriate in the following situation?

36. _____________ research is the gathering of primary data by watching people.

38. The outcome of what is being measured is termed:

39. Which of the following would occur in a longitudinal study:

45. The research process is best described as a

46. A research proposal is best described as a

47. The purpose of a literature review is to:

49. An operational definition specifies

55. When planning to do social research, it is better to

56. Which comes first, theory or research?

57. We review the relevant literature to know

58. A deductive theory is one that:

59. Which of the following is not a type of research question?

63. Qualitative researchers seek to analyze which of the following?

64 . Which of the following is not a qualitative research methodology?

66. The following journal article would be an example of --------- research.

68. Quantitative researcher’s preoccupation with generalization is an attempt to:

70. A literature review requires

72. Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis?

75. Rationalism is the application of

76. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

78. An operational definition

80. Which of the following is most beneficial to read in an article?

82. Hypothesis refers to

83. Statistics is used by researchers to

84. A literature review is based on the assumption that

85. A theoretical framework

86. Which of the following statement is not true?

87. Preliminary data collection is a part of the

88. Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating

90. The appropriate analytical technique is determined by

91. Discrete variable is also called……….

95. The theoretical framework discusses the interrelationships among the……….

96. ………research is based on naturalism.

97. Rationalism is the application of which of the following?

98- On which of the following, scientific knowledge mostly relies?

99- Which of the following refers to research supported by measurable