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MIDTERM EXAMINATION
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
Name of Learner: ____________________________ Name of Section: _________
Date: __________________ Score: _________

Multiple Choice
Directions: Write the letter of your answer on the space provided before the number.

____ 1. The main branches of natural science are

a. physics and chemistry. c. medicine and agriculture.
b. biology, zoology, and ecology. d. life, physical, and earth science.
____ 2. Technology can best be defined as
a. science that uses computers. c. applied science.
b. new inventions. d. the use of lenses and microscopes.
____ 3. Pure science is best defined as the
a. continuing search for new knowledge.
b. use of science to solve human problems.
c. study of the makeup of living things.
d. application of scientific knowledge.
____ 4. What do scientists who do pure science do?
a. They look for ways to use scientific knowledge to solve problems.
b. They develop new uses for scientific knowledge.
c. They do experiments to find out about the world.
d. They build faster and more powerful computers.
____ 5. What is a scientific law?
a. It is the same as a hypothesis.
b. It is a description of a natural event.
c. It is an explanation of a scientific observation.
d. It is the conclusion of a scientific experiment.
____ 6. For a scientific theory to be valid, it must allow you to
a. perform experiments. c. find a new, more complex explanation.
b. obtain new results each time. d. make predictions.
____ 7. A scientific model is a
a. representation of a real event or object.
b. small building used to conduct experiments.
c. mathematical statement of a theory.
d. new theory that takes the place of an incorrect one.
____ 8. A series of logical steps that is followed in order to solve a problem is called the
a. experimental process. c. scientific method.
b. scientific theory. d. model method.
____ 9. The first step in the scientific method is usually
a. making an observation. c. collecting data.
b. forming a hypothesis. d. testing a hypothesis.
____ 10. Scientists test a hypothesis by
a. formulating questions. c. doing experiments.
b. designing models. d. drawing conclusions.
____ 11. Which question cannot be answered by an experiment?
a. Does penicillin kill Salmonella bacteria?
b. Is rabies caused by a virus?
c. Did a comet impact kill the dinosaurs?
d. Can radiation cause cancer?
____ 12. The SI unit for measuring temperature is the
a. degree. c. mole.
b. kelvin. d. ampere.
____ 13. Which SI prefix means one million?
a. kilo- c. giga-
b. mega- d. milli-
____ 14. Which SI prefix means one one-hundredth (1/100)?
a. nano- c. milli-
b. micro- d. centi-
____ 15. Maria is 123 centimeters tall. Her height in meters is
a. 0123 m. c. 1.23 m.
b. 0.123 m. d. 12.3 m.
____ 16. A loaf of bread weighs 1362 g. The weight in kilograms is
a. 1.362 kg. c. 01362 kg.
b. 1362 kg. d. 001362 kg.
____ 17. The force with which gravity pulls on a quantity of matter is referred to as
a. mass. c. volume.
b. length. d. weight.

____ 18. At which time of day was the temperature approximately 4ºC?
a. 9:00 A.M. c. 11:00 A.M.
b. 10:00 A.M. d. 12:00 P.M.
____ 19. At which two times of day was the temperature the same?
a. 7:00 A.M. and 7:00 P.M. c. 10:00 A.M. and 7:00 P.M.
b. 7:00 A.M. and 10:00 P.M. d. 10:00 A.M. and 10:00 P.M.

____ 20. The sample contained the same number of pennies for which two years?
a. 1988 and 1992 c. 1994 and 1997
b. 1988 and 1991 d. 1994 and 1998
____ 21. For which year was the smallest number of pennies found?
a. 1988 c. 1990
b. 1989 d. 1991
____ 22. The decimal equivalent of 10–2 is
a. 100. c. 0.1.
b. 10. d. 0.01.
____ 23. What is 78,900,000,000 expressed in scientific notation?
a. 789 × 109 c. 7.89 × 1010
b. 7.89 × 10 9
d. 7.89 × 1011
____ 24. The speed of light is approximately 3 × 108 m/s. How would this be written in conventional notation?
a. 300,000 m/s c. 30,000,000 m/s
b. 3,000,000 m/s d. 300,000,000 m/s
____ 25. A precise measurement is one that
a. contains the correct number of significant figures.
b. contains at least three significant figures.
c. is close to the true value.
d. is as exact as possible.
____ 26. A measurement that is accurate is one that
a. is as exact as possible.
b. is close to the true value.
c. contains at least four significant figures.
d. contains five decimal places.
____ 27. Matter is defined as anything that
a. can be seen and touched. c. can be weighed.
b. has mass and takes up space. d. contains kinetic or potential energy.
____ 28. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances is
a. a compound. c. an element.
b. a mixture. d. an atom.
____ 29. The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains
a. two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
b. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
c. two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms.
d. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
____ 30. You put 1 gram of salt into 1 liter of water and stir. The resulting liquid is an example of
a. a pure substance. c. a homogeneous mixture.
b. a heterogeneous mixture. d. an immiscible mixture.
____ 31. The science of what matter is made of and how it changes is called
a. chemistry. c. kinetics.
b. physics. d. engineering.
____ 32. The chemical element that is most abundant in the human body is
a. nitrogen. c. carbon.
b. iron. d. oxygen.
____ 33. The element that is most abundant in Earth is
a. iron. c. silicon.
b. oxygen. d. magnesium.
____ 34. The chemical symbol for sulfuric acid is H2SO4. How many atoms are contained in each molecule of
sulfuric acid?
a. 3 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7
____ 35. The chemical formula for table sugar is C12H22O11. How many oxygen atoms are in each sugar molecule?
a. 2 c. 12
b. 11 d. 22
____ 36. Which of the following is an example of a gas-liquid mixture?
a. the air we breathe c. soapsuds
b. a carbonated drink d. ice cubes
____ 37. Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container?
a. solid c. gas
b. liquid d. plasma
____ 38. The kinetic theory is useful for
a. determining how much heat is necessary to melt a solid.
 b. explaining how matter and energy are related.
c. testing the temperature of a gas.
d. showing the differences between states of matter.
____ 39. The change of a substance from a solid directly to a gas is called
a. condensation. c. melting.
b. evaporation. d. sublimation.
____ 40. Evaporation refers to the change of state from a
a. liquid to a gas. c. solid to a liquid.
b. gas to a liquid. d. liquid to a solid.
____ 41. The law of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be
a. burned. c. created or destroyed.
b. changed in form. d. heated or cooled.
____ 42. During a chemical or physical change, energy may be
a. created. c. greatly increased in strength.
b. destroyed. d. converted into another form.
____ 43. You burn a log of wood, and only a small pile of ashes is left. What has happened?
a. A large amount of mass has been lost.
b. A small amount of mass has been converted into a large amount of heat energy.
c. The total mass of the wood and oxygen is the same as the total mass of the ash and gases.
d. The total amount of energy is less than before.
____ 44. A liquid changes rapidly into a gas at the liquid's
a. boiling point. c. melting point.
b. freezing point. d. condensation point.
____ 45. Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the substance
a. looks. c. can be broken down into atoms.
b. smells. d. reacts with other substances.
____ 46. Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a. freezing point c. reactivity
b. boiling point d. density
____ 47. Lead has a density of 11.3 g/cm3. What is the volume of a block of lead with a mass of 282.5 g?
a. 2.5 cm3 c. 250 cm3
b. 25 cm 3
d. 2500 cm3
____ 48. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a. ice melting c. pounding gold into a coin
b. paint fading d. a puddle of water evaporating
____ 49. Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a. dissolving salt in water c. cooking an egg
b. burning wood into charcoal d. rusting iron
____ 50. Ice floats in water because it is
a. more dense than water. c. colder than water.
b. less dense than water. d. warmer than water.
____ 51. Digesting food is an example of
a. physical change. c. chemical change.
b. change of state. d. buoyancy.
____ 52. When water is broken down, what happens to the oxygen and hydrogen atoms it is made of?
a. They combine with oxygen in air to produce new substances.
b. They are rearranged to form hydrogen and oxygen gas
c. They are destroyed.
d. They increase in size until they form a solid.
____ 53. Grinding quartz crystals down to produce sand is an example of a
a. change of state. c. chemical reaction.
b. chemical change. d. physical change.
____ 54. The tendency of a less dense substance to float in a mor e dense liquid is called
a. viscosity. c. sublimation.
b. density. d. buoyancy.
____ 55. Dalton's atomic theory stated that every element was made of atoms that could not be subdivided,
atoms of the same element are alike, and
a. atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
b. the nucleus is the center of the atom.
c. atoms can join to form molecules.
d. atoms are constantly in motion.
____ 56. Which statement is true according to Dalton's theory?
a. Atoms of different elements can join to form larger atoms.
b. Atoms can be subdivided into smaller particles.
c. Atoms of the same element differ in electric charge.
d. Atoms of the same element are exactly alike.
____ 57. Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
b. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
c. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
____ 58. The charge of an electron is
a. –2 c. 0
b. –1 d. +1
____ 59. Atoms have no electric charge because they
a. have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles.
b. have neutrons in their nuclei.
c. have an equal number of electrons and protons.
d. have an equal number of neutrons and protons.
____ 60. According to Bohr's model of the atom, electrons behave like
a. planets orbiting the sun. c. light energy in a vacuum.
b. waves on a vibrating string. d. planets rotating on their axes.
____ 61. According to Bohr's theory, an electron's path around the nucleus defines its
a. electric charge. c. energy level.
b. atomic mass. d. speed.
____ 62. According to modern atomic theory, it is nearly impossible to determine an elec tron's exact
a. color. c. charge
b. position. d. mass.
____ 63. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on
a. the number of protons in the nucleus. c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
b. the electric charge of the nucleus. d. atomic mass.
____ 64. Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of
a. protons. c. valence electrons.
b. neutrons. d. protons and neutrons.
____ 65. Valence electrons determine an atom's
a. mass. c. electric charge.
b. chemical properties. d. period.
____ 66. Ionization refers to the process of
a. changing from one period to another. c. turning lithium into fluorine.
b. losing or gaining protons. d. losing or gaining electrons.
____ 67. A lithium ion is much less reactive than a lithium atom because it
a. is much more massive.
b. has a full outermost energy level.
c. has a negative electric charge.
d. is in a different group in the periodic table.
____ 68. Oxygen has atomic number 8. This means that an oxygen atom has
a. eight neutrons in its nucleus. c. eight protons in its nucleus.
b. a total of eight protons and neutrons. d. a total of eight neutrons and electrons.
____ 69. An atom's mass number equals the number of
a. protons plus the number of electrons. c. protons.
b. protons plus the number of neutrons. d. neutrons.
____ 70. Which statement about the alkali metals is correct?
a. They are located in the left-most column of the periodic table.
b. They are extremely nonreactive.
c. They are usually gases.
d. They form negative ions with a 1– charge.
____ 71. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?
a. calcium c. mercury
b. magnesium d. sodium
____ 72. Alkali metals are extremely reactive because they
a. have very small atomic masses.
b. are not solids at room temperature.
 c. have one valence electron that is easily removed to form a positive ion.
d. have two valence electrons that form compounds with calcium and magnesium.

____ 73. Which statement about noble gases is correct?

a. They form compounds with very bright colors.
b. They exist as single atoms rather than as molecules.
c. They are highly reactive with both metals and nonmetals.
d. They are extremely rare in nature.
____ 74. Semiconductors are elements that
a. have large atomic masses but small atomic numbers.
b. do not form compounds.
c. can conduct heat and electricity under certain conditions.
d. are extremely hard.
____ 75. Most halogens form compounds by
a. gaining an electron to form a negative ion.
b. losing an electron to form a positive ion.
c. losing protons.
d. joining with both calcium and carbon.
____ 76. Group 18 noble gases are inert because
a. they readily form positive ions.
b. they can have either a positive or a negative charge.
c. their outermost energy level is missing one electron.
d. their outermost energy level is full.
____ 77. Carbon and other nonmetals are found in which area of the periodic table?
a. On the left-most side.
b. On the right side.
c. In the middle column of the periodic table.
d. In the bottom rows.
____ 78. A mole is an SI base unit that describes the
a. mass of a substance. c. volume of a substance.
b. amount of a substance. d. electric charge of a substance.
____ 79. If the atomic mass of carbon is 12 amu, 1 mole of pure carbon will have a mass of
a. 6 g. c. 12 g.
b. 6 mol. d. 12 mol.
____ 80. Avogadro's constant is defined as the number of particles in
a. one mole of a pure substance. c. one gram of a pure substance.
b. one liter of a pure substance. d. one kilogram of a pure substance.