Raosaheb Balaram Dnyandeo Thakur Vidyamandir’s

Dr. Arvind M. Pradhan College of Commerce & Arts

Neelaam Nagar, Mulund (E) - 81

Multiple Choice
Question Bank

Class : F.Y.B.Com./B.A.
Semester : II
Subject : Foundation Course
Pattern : Rev.16

Unit – 1
1. The transfer of control of ownership from the public sector to the private sector is
called as .
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Globalisation
d. Industrialisation

2. The term refers to the integration of the economy of the nation with
the world economy; it is a multifaceted aspect.
a. Liberalisation
b. Privatisation
c. Globalisation
d. Disinvestment

3. The New Economic Policy was announced on 24 th July 1991 by the then Finance Minister of
India .
a. P. Chidambaram
b. Manmohan Singh
c. Arun Jaitley
d. Pranab Mukherjee
Page 1 of 18
4. The main reason behind MNCs investments is .
a. to provide employment
b. to provide financial support to the country’s government
c. for the welfare of underprivileged people
d. to increase the assets and earn profits

5. is the Largest IT company in India in terms of Revenue.

a. Tata Consultancy Service
b. Infosys
c. Wipro
d. HCL Technologies

6. is NOT an advantage of ICT sector growth in India.

a. Better communication
b. Cost effectiveness
c. 24 x 7 operations
d. Cyber crime

7. is a set of satellite and control system that determine its location

anywhere on the Earth, 24 hours a day.
a. GIS
b. WWW
c. GPS
d. Gmail

8. The internet has made the whole world a .

a. Global Company
b. International Company
c. International Company
d. Global Village
9. Human involves the movement of people from one place to another
with intentions of settling, permanently or temporarily, at a new location
(geographic region).
a. Development
b. Psychology
c. Migration
d. Rights

10. When people migrate due to drought, flood, war, famine and other adverse
conditions it is known as .
a. Forced migration
b. Impelled migration
c. Long-term migration
d. Short-term migration

11. After 1991, the employment in the public sector has .

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Not changed
d. Become zero

12. is NOT an impact of migration on Countries of origin.

a. Improvement in the lifestyle
b. Increasing consumerism
c. Brain gain
d. Decrease in population pressure

13. The majority of Indian population is engaged in the sector.

a. Agriculture
b. Industry
c. Service
d. Healthcare
 14. The revolution was responsible for substantial increase in food grain
production in India.
a. White
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Yellow

15. is NOT true as per the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture.

a. Tariff reduction
b. Increase in market access
c. Reduction in export subsidies
d. Increase in domestic subsidies

16. is NOT a cause of farmers’ suicide in Maharashtra.

a. Crop failure
b. Increasing cost of production
c. Debt trap
d. Remunerative prices of crops

Unit - 2

17. Human Rights have application.

a. Social
b. Universal
c. Economical
d. Political

18. The General Assembly adopted the UDHR on , at Paris.

a. 10th December, 1948
b. 12th December, 1948
c. 10th December, 1950
d. 12th December, 1950
19. The Right to Freedom is enumerated in the Article of Indian
Constitution.
a. 17
b. 18
c. 19
d. 16

20. Human Rights are derived from the principle of law.

a. Government
b. Natural
c. Judicial
d. Human

21. According to , “Human rights are those conditions of social life

without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.”
a. United Nations
b. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
c. Prof. Harold Laski
d. Cultural dictionary

22. The Constitution of India provides fundamental rights to citizens.

a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. Eight

23. The guaranteed civil and legal rights to the English barons in
1215.
a. Magna Carta
b. Petition of Rights
c. Social Contract
d. General Will
24. The objective or Right to Freedom of Religion is to sustain the principle of
in India.
a. Communalism
b. Regionalism
c. Secularism
d. Casteism

25. The of the Constitution of India provides for equality before the law
or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
a. Article 14
b. Article 16
c. Article 18
d. Article 23

26. The has made primary education as a fundamental right of every

child between the ages of 6 and 14.
a. Right to Equality
b. Cultural and Educational Rights
c. Right to Speech
d. Right to Education

27. are those rights which are essential for intellectual, moral and
spiritual development of citizens of India.
a. Fundamental Duties
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Students’ Right

28. The Fundamental Rights are defined in of the Constitution of India.

a. Part I
b. Part II
c. Part III
d. Part IV
29. Amendment introduced the word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble of
Indian Constitution.
a. 44th
b. 42nd
c. 93rd
d. 16th

30. can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights

Commission of India.
a. Any sitting judge of the Supreme Court
b. Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
c. Any person appointed by the President
d. Retired Chief Justice of any High Court

31. The headquarter of the National Human Rights Commission is located at

.
a. New Delhi
b. Mumbai
c. Ahmedabad
d. Kolkata

32. The of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12

October 1993.
a. Food Corporation
b. National Human Rights Commission
c. National Commission for Women
d. Finance Commission
Unit - 3

33. consists of the biotic and abiotic factors that surround an organism.
a. Environment
b. Ecosystem
c. Ecology
d. Forest

34. is the study of all living systems in relation to their environment.

a. Biology
b. Physiology
c. Ecology
d. Psychology

35. gas protects us from UV rays emitted by run.

a. Nitrogen
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Ozone
d. Oxygen

36. Meat-eating animals are called as .

a. Herbivorous
b. Carnivorous
c. Omnivorous
d. Wild animals

37. are animals whose primary food source is plant-based.

a. Herbivorous
b. Carnivorous
c. Omnivorous
d. Domestic animals
38. includes fresh water in ice-caps.
a. Lithosphere
b. Biosphere
c. Hydrosphere
d. Atmosphere

39. The is a layer of gases surrounding our planet.

a. Hydrosphere
b. Biosphere
c. Atmosphere
d. Lithosphere

40. degrades the soil and makes the cultivation of the crops
impossible.
a. Deforestation
b. Desertification
c. Soil erosion
d. Air pollution

41. Environment is a capital.

a. Natural
b. Man-made
c. Social
d. Political

42. is NOT a form of environmental degradation.

a. Deforestation
b. Desertification
c. Emissions
d. Afforestation
43. In the ecosystem, the are primary producers.
a. Animals
b. Birds
c. Plants
d. Humans

44. is NOT a cause of environmental degradation.

a. Industrial activities
b. Urbanisation
c. Poverty
d. Sustainable development

45. is development that meets the needs of the present (people)

without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
a. Environmental development
b. Ecological development
c. Sustainable development
d. Economic development

46. is NOT a possible adverse effect of global warming.

a. Sea level rise
b. An increase of UV radiation
c. Retreat of glaciers
d. Extraordinary weather patterns

47. The “official” definition of sustainable development was developed for the first time
in the Brundtland Report in .
a. 1978
b. 1980
c. 1987
d. 1992
 48. energy is NOT a renewable energy source.
a. Solar
b. Wind
c. Hydro
d. Natural gas

Unit - 4

49. is a situation in which two or more parties feel themselves in

opposition.
a. Stress
b. Conflict
c. Frustration
d. Prejudice

50. refers to behaviour that is intended to cause harm or pain to others.

a. Conflict
b. Prejudice
c. Aggression
d. Harmony

51. is a term used to describe positive stress.

a. Eustress
b. Distress
c. Hyper-stress
d. Acute stress

52. is the preconceived opinion that is not based on reason or actual

experience.
a. Violence
b. Stereotypes
c. Prejudice
d. Value
53. is considered as the most important agent of socialisation.
a. Family
b. School
c. Peer
d. Mass media

54. Values are central organizing principle or ideas that human

behaviour.
a. Govern and determine
b. Predict and determine
c. Govern and predict
d. Analyse and predict

55. is NOT a cause of stress.

a. Financial problem
b. Major life changes
c. Work overload
d. Good working conditions

56. Ethnicity gives a sense of and belonging to an individual.

a. identity
b. personality
c. spirituality
d. sociality

57. arises when disagreement happens when one group disagrees

with another group.
a. Intrapersonal conflict
b. Interpersonal conflict
c. Intragroup conflict
d. Intergroup conflict
58. The mass media can negatively influence the individuals by displaying the content
.
a. Concern and respect for others
b. National integration
c. Tolerance and respect cultural difference
d. Developing a craze for materialistic needs

59. refers to moral and social norms that are essentially desirable for
the wellbeing of an individual, group or society.
a. Values
b. Ethics
c. Prejudices
d. Stereotyping

60. is NOT a cause of aggression and violence.

a. Frustration
b. Provocation
c. Media
d. Education

61. occurs when people are unclear or uncertain about their

expectations within a certain role, typically their role in the job or workplace.
a. Role conflict
b. Role ambiguity
c. Rotating shifts
d. Work underload

62. is the process through which an individual inherits the norms,

customs and ideologies of the social order they live in.
a. Value
b. Ethics
c. Socialisation
d. Stereotype
 63. is NOT a characteristic of Positive Stress.
a. It improves performance
b. It feels exciting
c. It motivates
d. It causes anxiety

64. is the quality of being kind and generous.

a. Patriotism
b. Tolerance
c. Generosity
d. Cooperation

Unit - 5

65. helps to develop the power of concentration.

a. Physical exercise
b. Meditation
c. Social support
d. Mobile games

66. As a method of resolving conflict, often leads to lose-lose situation.

a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Collaborating
d. Confronting

67. As a method of resolving conflict, often leads to win-win situation.

a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Collaborating
d. Confronting
68. needs lie at highest level of hierarchy of Maslow’s Need Hierarchy
Theory.
a. Physiological
b. Esteem
c. Social
d. Self-actualisation

69. provides temporary relief from the discomfort produced by

stress.
a. Withdrawal
b. Assertiveness
c. Dialogue
d. Forcing

70. are people who conceal their opinions and feelings and do not
take an interest in conflict resolution.
a. Attackers
b. Concealers
c. Addressers
d. Confronters

71. are expressive and try to criticize someone or the other irrespective
of the issue of conflict resolution.
a. Confronters
b. Addressers
c. Attackers
d. Concealers
72. Relaxation techniques such as activate the body’s relaxation
response.
a. Watching movies
b. Eating junk food
c. Yoga and meditation
d. Playing games on mobile

73. is the submission of a disputed matter to an impartial person.

a. Arbitration
b. Negotiation
c. Confrontation
d. Mediation

74. person accepts reality and facts rather than deny truth.
a. Self-motivated
b. Self-actualised
c. Self-concentrated
d. Self-abandon

75. Physical exercise, meditation and time management are called

strategies of copping with stress.
a. Individual
b. Organisational
c. International
d. Tedious

76. In the method, a stress victim, under the medical guidance learns to
influence symptoms of stress.
a. Networking
b. Biofeedback
c. Social Support
d. Self-control
77. Creating a healthy work environment, offering sabbaticals and proper welfare
facilities are considered as strategies of copping with stress.
a. Individual
b. Organisational
c. National
d. Behavioural

78. Emotional support from family, friends, co-workers will the effects of
stress.
a. Sharpen
b. Harden
c. Soften
d. Not

79. Human beings need to belong to a group or community is called as .

a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Social needs
d. Self-actualisation needs

80. needs enable a person to realise his/her full potential and is less
interested with the opinion of others.
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Esteem needs
d. Self-actualisation needs
Answer Key:

1 b 17 b 33 a 49 b 65 b
2 c 18 a 34 c 50 c 66 a
3 b 19 c 35 c 51 a 67 c
4 d 20 b 36 b 52 c 68 d
5 a 21 c 37 a 53 a 69 a
6 d 22 b 38 c 54 a 70 b
7 c 23 a 39 c 55 d 71 c
8 d 24 c 40 c 56 a 72 c
9 c 25 a 41 a 57 d 73 a
10 a 26 d 42 d 58 d 74 b
11 b 27 b 43 c 59 a 75 a
12 c 28 c 44 d 60 d 76 b
13 a 29 b 45 c 61 b 77 b
14 c 30 b 46 b 62 c 78 c
15 d 31 a 47 c 63 d 79 c
16 d 32 b 48 d 64 c 80 d