(Academic Session : 2020 - 2021)

Test Type : TEST - 2 Pattern : GUJ-CET


GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

PHYSICS
1. Force between two identical spheres 5. Two condensers, one of capacity 2C and
charged with same charge is F. If 50% C
the other of capacity , are connected to a
charge of one sphere is transferred to the 2

other sphere then the new force will be V-volt battery, as shown.

3 3
(1) F (2) F
4 8
3
(3) F (4) None of these
2 The work done by battery in charging fully
2. Four charges are placed at the both the condensers is : -
circumference of the dial of a clock as 1
(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV 2
shown in figure. If the clock has only hour 2

hand, then the resultant force on a positive 5 3

(3) CV 2 (4) CV 2
2 2
charge q0 placed at the centre, points in the
6. A charged parallel plate capacitor of
direction which shows the time as :-
distance (d) has U0 energy. A slab of
dielectric constant (K) and thickness (d) is
then introduced between the plates of the
capacitor. The new energy of the system is
given by:
U0 U0
(1) KU0 (2) K2U0 (3) (4)
(1)1:30 (2)7:30 K K2
(3)4:30 (4)10:30 7. Minimum number of 8 F and breakdown
3. Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 voltage 250 V capacitors required to make
have same electric field near their surfaces. a combination of 8 F and 1000 V are:
The ratio of their electric potentials is :- (1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4)4
2 2 2 2
(1) r / r
1 2 (2) r / r
2 1 8. The voltage drop across a capacitor

(3) r1 / r2 (4) r2 / r1 connected with a resistance and a battery

of 30 V in series, after a long time is
4. A dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ is placed in
(1) 0 V (2) 60 V (3) 30 V (4) 38 V
a non-uniform electric field along x-axis.
9. If a wire is stretched, so that its length is
Electric field is increasing at the rate of 2
20% more than its initial length, the
V/m2 then the force on dipole is :-
percentage increase in the resistance of the
(1) 0 (2) 2p
wire is :-
(3) p/2 (4) p
(1) 40% (2) 10% (3) 44% (4) 25%
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

10. A carbon resistor (47 4.7) k is to be 15. A particle having a mass of 0.01 kg carries
marked with rings of different colours for a charge of 3 C . The particle is given an
its identification. The colour code initial horizontal velocity of 2 × 105 ms–1 in

sequence will be : the presence of electric field E and
(1) Violet — Yellow — Orange — Silver 
magnetic field B . To keep the particle
(2) Yellow — Violet — Orange — Silver moving in a horizontal direction which is
(3) Yellow — Green — Violet — Gold correct:-
(4) Green — Orange — Violet Gold (1) B should be perpendicular to the
11. The potential difference between the 
direction of velocity and E should be
terminals of a cell is found to be 3 volts
along the direction of velocity
when it is connected to a resistance of  
(2) Both B and E should be along the
value equal to its internal resistance. The
direction of Velocity
e.m.f. of the tell is :  
(3) Both B and E are perpendicular to the
(1) 3 V (2) 6 V (3) 1.5 V (4) 4.5 V
direction of velocity
12. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is

connected to a battery of 3 V along with a (4) B should be along the direction of

resistance of 1950 in series. A full scale velocity and E should be perpendicular to
deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the the direction Velocity
galvanometer. In order to reduce this 16. The liquid in the watch glass in the
deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in following figure is –
series should be :-
(1) 6000 (2) 4450
(3) 5000 (4) 2950
(1) Ferromagnetic
13. A milivoltmeter of 50 milivolts range is to
(2) Paramagnetic
be converted into an ammeter of 25
(3) Diamagnetic
amperes range. The value (in ohms) of
(4) Nonmagnetic
necessary shunt will be:
17. A magnetic dipole of dipole moment
(1) 1 (2) 005
(3) 0.002 (4) 0.01 20(iˆ ˆj) is placed in a magnetic field

14. Radius of current carrying coil is ‘R’. Then 0.6ˆj 0.2kˆ , force acting on the dipole is
ratio of magnetic fields at the centre of the (1) ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
coil to the axial point, which is R 3
(2) ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
distance away from the centre of the coil
(3) Zero
(1)1:1 (2)1:2
(4) 0.2iˆ 3jˆ
(3)1:4 (4)8:1
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

18. A 500 Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 23. A coil of resistance 10 and an
cm and with 1.25 cm carries a current of inductance 5H is connected to a 100 volt
85 A and subjected to magnetic field of battery. Then energy stored in the coil is :-
strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the (1) 125 erg (2) 125 J
coil by 90° against the torque is: (3) 250 erg (4) 250 J
(1) 4.55 J (2) 2.3 J 24. The r.ms. value of current for a variable

(3) 1.15 J (4) 9.1 J current i 4 sin t 3cos t :-

19. A circular disc of area 0.2 m2 is placed in a (1) 5A (2) 5 2 A

uniform magnetic field of 1 Wb/m2 in such 5

(3) A (4) 2.5 A
way that its axis makes an angle of 60° 2

with . The magnetic flux linked with the 25. A 50 Hz ac. source of 20 volts is connected
disc is :- across R and C as shown in figure below.
(1) 0.8 Wb (2) 0.1 Wb The voltage across R is 1 2 volts. The
(3) 0.2 Wb (4) 0.6 Wb voltage across C is
20. A coil of mean area 100 cm2 and having
1000 turns is held perpendicular to a
uniform field of O4 Gauss. The coil is
1 (1) 8 V
turned through 180° in second. The
2 (2) 16V
average induced e.m.f. :- (3) 10 V
(1) 004 V (2) 0.4 V (4) Not possible to determine unless values
(3) 1.6 mV (4) 0.004 V of R and C are given
21. A semi circular arc of radius R is placed in 26. A resistance 20 draws power 100W
a uniform magnetic field as shown. It is when connected to an AC source. If an
pulled with a constant velocity. The inductance is now placed in series with the
induced emf in the arc is: resistance, such that the impedance of the
(1) Bv( R ) (2) Bv(2 R ) circuit becomes 50 , the power drawn
(3) Bv(2R) (4) Bv(R) will be:
22. A transformer is used to light a 200 W and
2
110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the (1) 100 W
5
main current is 1 amp, the efficiency of the (2) 40 W
transformer is approximately (3) 100 w
(1) 10% (2) 30% (4) 16 W
(3) 50% (4) 90%
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020
 
27. If E and B are the electric and magnetic 32. A convex lens is made up of three different
field vectors of electromagnetic waves then materials as shown in the figure. For a
the direction of propagation of point object placed on its axis, the number
electromagnetic wave is along the direction of images formed are
of -
 
(1) E (2) B
 
(3) E × B (4) None of these
28. The speed of electromagnetic radiation in
vacuum is :-
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 0 0 (2) 0 0
33. A man cannot see clearly the objects
1 1 beyond a distance of 50 cm from his eyes.
(3) (4)
0 0 0 0
To see distant objects clearly he must use
29. Two plane mirrors are at 45° to each other. which kind of lenses and of what focal
If an object is placed between them then length
the number of images will be (1) 10 cm convex (2) 100 cm concave
(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 20 cm convex (4) 50 cm concave
(3) 7 (4) 8 34. The angle of polarisation for any medium
30. The wavelength of light in two liquids ‘x’ is 60°, what will be critical angle for this
and ‘y’ is 3500Å and 7000Å, then the 1 1
(1) sin 3 (2) tan 3
critical angle will be
1 1 1
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) cos 3 (4) sin
3
(3) 300 (4) 15°
35. For a parallel beam of monochromatic
31. A thin prism having refracting angle 5° is
light of wavelength ‘ ’, diffraction is
made of glass of refractive index 1.49. This
produced by a single slit whose width ‘a’ is
prism is combined with another thin prism
of the order of the wavelength of the light.
of glass of refractive index 1.7 This
If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from the
combination produces dispersion without
slit, the width of the central maxima will
deviation. The refracting angle of second
be
prism should be :
D Da
(1) 35° (2) 8° (1) (2)
a
(3) 10° (4) 7° 2Da 2D
(3) (4)
a
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

36. In a double slit experiment if light of 39. In the given transistor circuit, the base
wavelength 5000Å used then fringe width current is 35 A . The value of RB is (VBE
of mm is obtained. If now light of is assumed to negligible)
wavelength 6000Å is used without altering
the system then new fringe width will be
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.5 mm
(3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.5 mm
37. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of (1) 100 k (3) 200 k
the longest wavelength in the Lyman series (4) 400 k (2) 300 k
to the longest wavelength in the Balmer 40. The given circuit has two ideal diodes
series is : connected as shown in the figure below.
5 4 The current flowing through the resistance
(1) (2)
27 9 R1 will be
9 27
(3) (4)
4 5
38. For the given reaction, the particle X is –

6 C14 7 N14 X
(1) Neutron (2) Anti neutrino
(3) Neutrino (4) Proton (1) 1.43 A (2) 3.13 A
(3) 2.5 A (4)10.0 A
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

CHEMISTRY

41. Aluminium (Molecular weight = 27) 46. The chemical reaction 2O3 3O2
crystallizes in a cubic unit cell with edge proceeds as follows
length a = 100 pm, with density, d = 180 O3 O2 O ……….. (fast)
3
g/cm , then type of unit cell is
O O3 2O 2 ……….. (slow)
(1) scc (2) bcc
(1) r K[O3 ]2 (2) r K[O3 ]2 [O 2 ] 1
(3) fcc (4) hcp
42. If the distance between Na+ and Cl– ions in (3) r K[O3 ][O2 ] (4) Unpredictable
sodium chloride crystal is x pm, then 47. On mixing 10 mL of acetone with 40 mL
length of the edge of the unit cell is of chloroform the total volume of the
(1) 2x pm (2) 4x pm solution is
(3) x/2 pm (4) x/4 pm (1) < 50 ml
–4
43. NaCl is doped with 10 mol% SrCl2, the (2) > 50 ml
concentration of cation vacancies is – (3) = 50 ml
15 –1
(1) 6.02 × 10 mol (4) cannot be predicted
(2) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 48. Van’t hoff factor of Hg2Cl2 in its aqueous
(3) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 solution will be (Hg2Cl2 is 80% ionized in
(4) 6.02 × 1014 mol–1 the solution)
44. For a reaction the initial rate is given as : (1) 1.6 (2) 2.6 (3) 3.6 (4) 4.6
R0 = k [A]02[B]0 by what factor the initial 49. Which salt shows maximum osmotic
rate of reaction will increase if initial pressure in its1M solution :
concentration of A is taken 1.5 times and (1) AgNO (2) Na2SO4
of B is tripled ? (3) (NH4)3PO4 (4) MgCl2
(1) 4.5 (2) 2.25 50. Molar conductances of BaCl2, H2SO4 and
(3) 6.75 (4) None of these HCl at infinite dilutions are x1, x2 and x3,
45. The plot of nk versus 1/T is linear with respectively. Equivalent conductance of
slope of BaSO4 at infinite dilution will be :
Ea [x1 x 2 x3 ]
(1) (1)
R 2
Ea [x1 x 2 x3 ]
(2) (2)
R 2
Ea (3) 2(x1 x 2 x3 )
(3)
2.303 R
[x1 x 2 2x 3 ]
(4)
Ea 2
(4)
2.303R
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

51. Standard EMF of a galvanic cell involving 58. Which one of the following halogen
2e– transfer is found to be 0.591 V at liberates oxygen on reacting with H2O
25°C. Calculate equilibrium constant for (1) I2 (2) Cl2 (3) Br2 (4) F2
cell reaction 59. Which compound does exist
(1) 2010 (2) 1020 (1) MnO3F (2) K2[CuI4]
200 10
(3) 10 (4) 200 (3) MnF7 (4) CrF7
52. A current of 9.63 ampere is passed through 60. Which of the following configurations of
the aqueous solution of NaCl using 3d series metals exhibits the largest
suitable electrodes for 1000 s. The amount number of oxidation states-
of NaOH formed during electrolysis is (1) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 (2) [Ar] 3d10 4s1
(1) 2.0 g (2) 4.0 g (3) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d7 4s2
(3) 6.0 g (4) 8.0 g 61. Highest C – O bond length will be in
x (1) [Mn(CO)6 ] (2) [Cr(CO)6 ]
53. The graph between log v/s log P is
m
(3) [V(CO)6 ] (4) same in all
straight line inclined at an angle 45° with
62. Which of the following compound is
intercept 0.30. What will be rate of
square planar and does not have any
adsorption at pressure 0.4 atm.
unpaired electron:
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.9
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 (b) XeF4
54. Collidal solution of silver can be prepared
(c) [Ni(CO)4] (d) [NiCl4]–2
by
(e) [Ni(CN)4]–2 (f) CuSO4.5H2O
(1) Colloidal mill
(1) a, e, f (2) a, b, c (3) b, e (4) b, c, f
(2) Double decomposition method
63. Which stability order is incorrect
(3) Bredig’s Arc method
(4) Electrodialysis (1) [Fe(C2 O4 )3 ]3 [Fe(H 2O)6 ]3

55. Which of following ion has minimum (2) [Fe(EDTA)]2 [Fe(en)3 ]3

flocculation value (3) [Ni(en)2 ] 2
[Ni(dmg)2 ]
2
(1) Cl (2) SO 4
(4) [Fe(CN)6 ]3 [Fe(CN)6 ]4
(3) PO 43 (4) [Fe(CN)6 ]4
64. Which is not a basic flux :-
56. The nitrogen oxide that does not contain (1) Silica (2) Lime stone
N-N bond is (3) Calcite (4) Quick lime
(I) N2O (2) N2O3 (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5 65. Which metal can be purified by
57. XeF2 reacts with PF5 to give: distillation:-
(1) XeF6 (2) [XeF] [PF6 ] (1) Cu (2) Ag

(3) XeF4 (4) [PF4 ] [XeF3 ] (3) Fe (4) Hg

 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

66. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts 69. Acetaldehyde reacts with NaOH to form :-
with chlorobenzene in presence of
sulphuric acid and produces (1)

(1)
(2)

(3)
(2)

(4)
70. Product [X] of given reaction is :
(3)

(4) (1)

67. Arrange the following compounds in order

(2)
of their boiling point

(3)

(4)

71. Ketoncs can be prepared by :-

(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(1) Rosenmund reduction
(3) II > I > III (4) III > I > II
(2) Etard reaction
68. Correct order of reactivity towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction of (3) Cannizzaro reaction
following is :- (4) Friedel-Craft reaction
72. The most suitable reagent for the
conversion of
RCH 2 OH RCHO
(1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7
(3) CrO3
(1)II > I > IV> III (2) III > IV > I > II
(4) PCC (Pyridinium chloro chromate)
(3)II > IV > I > II (4) IV > II > III > I
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

73. Consider the following compounds: 76. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded end
product D

The correct order of reactivity towards

hydrolysis is:- The structure of the product D would be
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
(2) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
(3) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) 77. The following reaction
(4) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
74. In a set of reactions, ethyl benzene yielded
a product D

is known by the name

(1) Acetylation reaction
‘D’ would be :-
(2) Schotten-Baumann reaction
(1) (3) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
(4) Perkins reaction
78. RNA contains following pyrimidine bases-
(2)
(a) Thymine (b) Uracil
(c) Cytosine (d) Adenine
(3) (1) b & c (2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d (4) All of these
79. Which one of the following polymers is
(4) prepared by condensation polymerization
(1) Styrene (2) Nylon–66
75. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used in the
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber
synthesis of
80. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as
(1) Primary aromatic amines
an additive to function as a/an :-
(2) Secondary amines
(1) Dryer (2) Buffering agent
(3) Primary aliphatic amines
(3) Antiseptic (4) Softncr
(4) Tertiary amines
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

81. In which one pair both the plants can be 87. Which one of the following does not
vegetatively propogated by leaf pieces? follow the central Dogma of molecular
(1) Agave and Kalanchoe biology?
(2) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe (1) Pea
(3) Asparagus and Bnjophyllum (2) Mucror
(4) Chry senthenum and Agave (3) Chlamydomonas
82. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid (4) HIV
male plant are crossed. The ploidy of 88. Which one of the following is not a part of
endosperm. a transcription unit in DNA?
(1) tetraploid (2) triploid (1) The inducer
(3) diploid (4) pentaploid (2) A prometer
83. Parthenogenesis is (3) A terminator
(1) development of embryo without (4) The structural gene
fertilization 89. The okazaki fragments in ONA chain
(2) development of fruit without growth
fertilization
(1) polymerize in the ‘3’ to ‘5’ direction
(3) development of fruit without hormone
and forms replication fork
(4) development of embryo from egg
(2) prove semi-conservation nature of
without fertilization
DNA replication
84. After crossing between two plants, the
(3) polymerize in the ‘5’ to ‘3’ direction
progenies are found to be male sterile. This
and explain ‘3’ to ‘5’ DNA replication
phenomenon is found to be meternally
(4) result in transcription
inherited and is due to some gene which
90. Jaya and Ratna developed for green
are present in
revolution and in India are the varieties of
(1) nucleus (2) chloroplust
(1) Maize (2) Rice
(3) mitochondrion (4) cytoplasm
(3) Wheat (4) bujane
85. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The
91. The most likely reason for the
phenomenon is
development of resistance against
(1) epistasis (2) dominunce
pesticides in inserts damaging crop is
(3) mutation (4) none of above
(1) random mutation
86. Down’s syndrome in human is due to
(2) genetic mutation
(1) Two ‘y’ chromosome
(3) directed mutation
(2) Three ‘x’ chromosome
(4) Acquired heri table changes
(3) Three copies of chromosome-21
(4) Monosomy
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

92. Which one of the following is a cause of 97. A biological stuidies the population of
wrong matching rates in a humans. He found that the
(1) somatic hybridization – fusion of two average natality was 250 average mortality
diverse cell 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30.
(2) vactor DNA – site for t-RNA synthesis The net increase in population is
(3) micropropogation – in vitro production (1) 15 (2) 05
of plant in large number (3) 0 (4) 10
(4) callus – unorganized mass of cell 98. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem
produced in tissue culture is
93. Which of the following is pain of bio (1) irregular (2) inverted
fertilizer? (3) upnght (4) spindle shaped
(1) Azolla and BGA 99. Wild life is destroyed most when
(2) Nostoc and legumes (1) There is lack of proper cure
(3) Rhizobium and grasses (2) Mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(4) Salmonella and E.coli (3) its natural habitat is destroyed
94. Gel electrophoresis is used for (4) natural calumity
(1) Cutting of DNA into fragments 100. In an area where DDT had been used
(2) Separation of DNA fragments extensively the population of birds
according to their size declined significantly because ……….
(3) Construction of recombinant DNA by (1) birds stopped lagging eggs
joining with cloning vactor (2) earth worms of the earth area got
(4) Isolation of DNA vactors eradicated
95. Homeostasis is (3) cobras were feeding exclusively on
(1) Tendency of biological systems to birds
change with change in environment (4) many of the birds laid, did not hutch
(2) tendency of biological systems to resist 101. In the human female, menstruation can be
deferred by the administration of
change
(1) combination of FSH and LH
(3) Disturbance of self regulatory system (2) combination of estrogen and
progesterone
and natural control
(3) FSH only
(4) Biotic materials used in homeopathic
(4) LH only
medicines
102. Which one of the following statements is
96. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of incorrect about menstruation ?
(1) During normal menstruation about 40
salinity are
ml blood is lost
(1) stenohalin (2) euryhaline (2) The menstrual fluid can easily dot
(3) anadromous (4) catadromus
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

(3) At menopause in the female, there is 108. What is artificial semen donation ?
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic (1) To transfer sperms of a healthy donor
hormones in ovum kept in test tube.
(4) The beginning of the cycle of (2) To transfer sperms of husband into test
tube having ovum.
menstruation is called menarche
(3) To enter sperms of healthy donor into
103. Which one of the following is the correct vagina.
matching of the events occurring during (4) To enter sperms of healthy donor
menstrual cycle ?
directly into ovary.
(1) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration
of myometrium and maturation of Graffian 109. Which of the following option shows
follicle.
correctly matched pairs for Column-I and
(2) Development of corpus luteum :
Secretory phase and increased secretion of Column-II ?
progester one.
Column I Column II
(3) Menstruation : Breakdown of
myometrium and ovum not fertilised. (i) Gene pool (p) Genes of one
(4) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak population are
level and sharp fall in the secretion of transferred to
another population
progester one.
(ii) Gene (q) The sum total of
104. Sertoli cells are found in genes present in a
(1) ovaries and secrete progesterone frequency
mendalian
(2) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline population
(3) seminiferous tubules and provide and
nutrition to germ cells (iii) Gene flow (r) The ratio of gene
(4) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin in a population
105. Which of the following intrauterine (iv) Genetic (s) The gene
devices are of first, second and third frequencies are
generation respectively give correct option drift
found to fluctuate
for the same devices. purely by chance
Hormone Inert
Options Copper IUDs
IUDs IUDs (1) (i – q), (ii – p), (iii – s), (iv – r)
(1) First Second Third
(2) Second Third First (2) (i – q), (ii – r), (iii – s), (iv – p)
(3) Third First Second (3) (i – q), (ii – r), (iii – p), (iv – s)
(4) Second First Third
(4) (i – r), (ii – s), (iii – p), (iv – q)
106. In which of the following medical
termination of pregnancy is necessary ? 110. In recent years, DNA sequences
(1) Where the pregnancy result of rape (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y-
(2) There is a substantial risk of child chromosomes were considered for the
being born with serious handicaps study of human evolution, because
(3) Continuation of pregnancy might on (1) they can be studied from the samples of
danger the mother's life fossil remains
(4) All of theabove (2) they are small and therefore, easy to
study
107. The most effective method often used
(3) they are uniparental in origin and do
when a woman’s fallopian tubes are
not take part in recombination
blocked or when a man produces very few
(4) their structure is known in greater
sperms.
(1) MTP (2) GIFT (3) ZIFT (4) IVF detail.
 GUJ-CET (Eng. Med.) | Ph 1 | TEST-2 | 21-08-2020

111. Which type of radiation is seen in
rhinoceros living in Africa with two
district types, one is grazing living in open
land area and second browsing type living
in wooded area ?
(1) Zonal radiation
(2) Continental Adaptive radiation
(3) Local Adaptive Branching
(4) Contemporaneous radiation
112. Which of the following statements are true
to the Lamarckism ?
P : Organisms and their organs are
constantly increasing in size.
Q : Unused organs become developed.
R : Characters which are acquired by
organism are not inherited.
S : Development of organs is induced and
maintained under environmental pressure.
(1) Q and R (2) P and S
(3) Q and S (4) R and P
113. What is called the spreading of cancerous
cells in the body ?
(1) Metastasis
116. At which stage of HIV infection does one
usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with
an infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters
host cells
(3) When HIV damages large number of
helper T-lymphocytes
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by
reverse transcriptase
117. Which is the particular type of drug that is
obtained from the plant whose one
flowering branch is shown below ?
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant
(3) Stimulant (4) Pain-killer

(2) Mutation 118. Select the false statement(s).

(1) Agriculture accounts for approximately
(3) Uncurable tumor 33% of India's GDP and employs nearly
(4) Carcinogen 62% of the population.
(2) Saccharum barberi was originally
114. LSD is .................. grown in north India, but had poor sugar
(1) Lysine diethylamide content and yield.
(2) Lysergic acid diethylamide (3) Hybrid maize, jowar and bajra have
(3) Lysine dimethylamide been successfully developed in India.
(4) Lysergic acid dimethylamide (4) None

115. The cell-mediated immunity inside the 119. Jaffrabadi, Murrah and Mehsana arc breeds
human body is carried out by of
(1) T-lymphocytes (1) Cow (2) Goat

(2) B-lymphocytes (3) Buffalo (4) Sheep

(3) thrombocytes 120. Name a fresh water fish.

(1) Hilsa (2) Sardin
(4) erythrocytes
(3) Major carp (4) Macrel