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SUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

CLASS XI
GEOGRAPHY

TERM - I
SESSION 2021-22

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN,


AHMEDABAD REGION

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CHIEF PATRON

DR. JAIDEEP DAS

DEPUTY COMMISSIONER, KVS RO AHMEDABAD

PATRON

SMT. SHRUTI BHARGAVA

ASSISTANT COMMOSSIONER, KVS RO AHMEDABAD

CO-ORDINATOR

DR. MAMTA SINGH

PRINCIPAL KV VIRAMGAM

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CONTENT DEVELOPERS
[In alphabetical order]

1. Mr. Bhavesh Sinha, PGT, Geography, KV AFS Jamnagar

2. Mr. Delip Singh Bhati, PGT, Geography, KV Dhrangadhra

3. Mr. Giri Raj Meena, PGT, Geography, KV AFS Naliya

4. Mr. Manoj Kumar Aseri, PGT, Geography, KV EME Baroda

5. Ms. Madhumita Deb, PGT, Geography, KV NO.1 Surat

6. Ms. Neelima Shrivastava, PGT, Geography, KV No1 Shahibaug

7. Mr. Suresh Kumar Ghanchi, PGT, Geography, KV Silvassa

Edited and compiled by: -

Ms. Madhumita Deb


PGT, Geography, KV NO.1 Surat

Mr. Delip Singh Bhati


PGT Geography, KV Dhrangadhra

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SR TERM UNIT CHAPTER CONTENT PAGE
NO NO. NO
1. - - - CBSE Syllabus 2021-22 05

2. - - - CBSE Term wise Syllabus 10


2021-22

3. FIRST - - Course Content 13

3. FIRST I 1 Geography As a Discipline 14

4. FIRST II 2 The Origin and Evolution of 20


Earth

5. FIRST II 3 Interior of Earth 26

6. FIRST II 4 Distribution of Oceans and 33


Continents

7. FIRST III 5 Minerals and Rocks 41

8. FIRST I 1 India-Location 47

9. FIRST II 3 Drainage System 59

10. FIRST - 1 Introduction to Maps 75

11. FIRST - 2 Map Scale 80

12. FIRST - 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time 83

13. FIRST - - Sample Paper 86

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GEOGRAPHY
XI-XII (2021-22)
(Code No. 029)

Geography is introduced as an elective subject at the senior secondary stage. After ten
years of general education, students branch out at the beginning of this stage and are
exposed to the rigors of the discipline for the first time. Being an entry point for the higher
education, students choose Geography for pursuing their academic interest and,
therefore, need a broader and deeper understanding of the subject. For others,
geographical knowledge is useful in daily lives because it is a valuable medium for the
education of young people. Its contribution lies in the content, cognitive processes, skills
and values that Geography promotes and thus helps the students explore, understand and
evaluate the environmental and social dimensions of the world in a better manner.

Since Geography explores the relationship between people and their environment, it
includes studies of physical and human environments and their interactions at different
scales-local, state/region, nation and the world. The fundamental principles responsible for
the varieties in the distributional pattern of physical and human features and phenomena
over the earth's surface need to be understood properly. Application of these principles
would be taken up through selected case studies from the world and India. Thus, the
physical and human environment of India and study of some issues from a geographical
point of view will be covered in greater detail. Students will be exposed to different
methods used in geographical investigations.

Objectives:
The course in Geography will help learners to:
Familiarize with key concepts, terminology and core principles of Geography.
Describe locations and correlate with Geographical Perspectives.
List/describe what students might see, hear, and smell at a place.
List/describe ways a place is linked with other places.
Compare conditions and connections in one place to another.
Analyze/describe how conditions in one place can affect nearby places.
Identify regions as places that are similar or connected.
Describe and interpret the spatial pattern features on a thematic map.
Search for, recognize and understand the processes and patterns of the spatial
arrangement of the natural features as well as human aspects and phenomena on
the earth's surface.
Understand and analyze the inter-relationship between physical and human
environments and utilize such knowledge in reflecting on issues related to
community.
Apply geographical knowledge and methods of inquiry to emerging situations or
problems at different levels-local, regional, national and global.

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Develop geographical skills, relating to collection, processing and analysis of spatial
data/ information and preparation of report including maps and graphs and use of
computers where ever possible; and to be sensitive to issues.
The child will develop the competency to analyze, evaluate, interpret and apply the
acquired knowledge to determine the environmental issues effectively.

COURSE STRUCTURE
CLASS XI (2021-22)
One Theory Paper 70Marks
3Hours

Part Units No. of Marks


Periods
A Fundamentals of Physical Geography 89 35 Marks
Unit-1: Geography as a discipline 06
Unit-2: The Earth 11
Unit-3: Landforms 20
Unit-4: Climate 30 30
Unit-5: Water (Oceans) 10
Unit-6: Life on the Earth 07
Map and diagram 05 5
B India-Physical Environment 78 35 Marks
Unit-7: Introduction 04
Unit-8: Physiography 28
30
Unit-9: Climate, vegetation and soil 28
Unit-10: Natural hazards and disasters 14
Map and Diagram 04 5
Total 167 70 Marks
C Practical Work in Geography Part I 50 30 Marks
Unit-1: Fundamentals of Maps 20 10 Marks
Unit-2: Topographic and Weather Maps 30 15 Marks
Practical Record Book and Viva 5 Marks

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COURSE CONTENT

Part A: Fundamentals of Physical Geography 89


Periods
Unit 1: Geography as a Discipline 06
Geography as an integrating discipline, as a science of Periods
spatial attributes
Branches of Geography: Physical Geography and
Human Geography
Scope and Career Options (Non-evaluative)
11
Unit 2: The Earth
Periods
Origin and evolution of the earth; interior of the earth
Wegener's continental drift theory and plate tectonics
Earthquakes and volcanoes: causes, types and effects

Unit 3: Landforms 20
Rocks: major types of rocks and their characteristics Periods
Geomorphic processes: weathering; mass wasting;
erosion and deposition; soil-formation
Landforms and their evolution- Brief erosional and
depositional features

Unit 4: Climate 30
Atmosphere- composition and structure; elements of Periods
weather and climate
Insolation-angle of incidence and distribution; heat
budget of the earth-heating and cooling of atmosphere
(conduction, convection, terrestrial radiation and
advection); temperature- factors controlling
temperature; distribution of temperature-horizontal and
vertical; inversion of temperature
Pressure-pressure belts; winds-planetary, seasonal
and local; air masses and fronts; tropical and extra
tropical cyclones

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Precipitation-evaporation; condensation-dew, frost, fog,
mist and cloud; rainfall-types and world distribution
Climate and Global Concerns

Unit 5: Water (Oceans) 10


Basics of Oceanography Periods
Oceans - distribution of temperature and salinity
Movements of ocean water-waves, tides and currents;
submarine reliefs
Ocean resources and pollution

Unit 6: Life on the Earth 07


Biosphere - importance of plants and other organisms; Periods
biodiversity and conservation; ecosystem and
ecological balance

Map work on identification of features based on 1 to 6 units on the 05


outline Physical/Political map of the world. Periods

Part B: India-Physical Environment 78


Periods
Unit 7: Introduction 04
Location, space relations, India's place in the world Periods

Unit 8: Physiography 28
Structure and Relief; Physiographic Divisions Periods
Drainage systems: Concept of river basins, watershed;
the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers

Unit 9: Climate, Vegetation and Soil 28


Weather and climate - spatial and temporal distribution Periods
of temperature, pressure winds and rainfall, Indian
monsoon: mechanism, onset and withdrawal, variability
of rainfalls: spatial and temporal; use of weather charts
Natural vegetation-forest types and distribution; wild
life; conservation; biosphere reserves
Soils - major types (ICAR's classification) and their
distribution, soil degradation and conservation

Unit 10: Hazards and Disasters: Causes, Consequences and 14


Management Periods
Floods, Cloudbursts

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Droughts: types and impact
Earthquakes and Tsunami
Cyclones: features and impact
Landslides

Map Work of features based on above units for locating and 04


labeling on the outline Political/Physical map of India Periods

Part C: Practical Work in Geography Part I 50


Periods
Unit 1: Fundamentals of Maps 20
Geo spatial data, Concept of Geographical data matrix; Periods
Point, line, area data
Maps -types; scales-types; construction of simple linear
scale, measuring distance; finding direction and use of
symbols
Map projection- Latitude, longitude and time, typology,
construction and properties of projection: Conical with
one standard parallel and Mercator's projection. (only
two projections)

Unit 2: Topographic and Weather Maps 30


Study of topographic maps (1 : 50,000 or 1 : 25,000 Periods
Survey of India maps); contour cross section and
identification of landforms-slopes, hills, valleys,
waterfall, cliffs; distribution of settlements
Aerial Photographs: Types and Geometry-vertical
aerial photographs; difference between maps and
aerial photographs; photo scale determination.
Identification of physical and cultural features
Satellite imageries, stages in remote sensing data-
acquisition, platform and sensors and data products,
(photographic and digital)
Use of weather instruments: thermometer, wet and
dry-bulb thermometer, barometer, wind vane, rain
gauge
Practical Record Book and Viva Voce
Viva to be based on Practical Unit I and II only.

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Geography
Code No. 029
Class XI (2021-22)
Term wise Syllabus

COURSE CONTENT TERM I


MARKS: 35
Weightage (In Marks)
15
Part A: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Marks
3
Unit I: Geography as a Discipline
Geography as an integrating discipline, as a science of spatial
attributes. Branches of Geography: Physical Geography and
Human Geography. Scope and Career Options (Non-evaluative)
9
Unit II: The Earth
Origin and evolution of the earth; interior of the earth
Wegener's continental drift theory and plate tectonics
Earthquakes and volcanoes: causes, types and effects
3
Unit III: Landforms
Rocks: major types of rocks and their characteristics
15
Part B: India - Physical Environment Marks
7
Unit I: Introduction
Location, space relations, India's place in the world
8
Unit II: Physiography
Drainage systems: Concept of river basins, watershed; the
Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers
5
Map work on identification / interpolation of features based on the units on
the outline Physical/Political map of the world/ India
15 Marks
Part C: Practical Work
CH1: Introduction to Maps
CH2: Map Scale
CH3: Latitudes, Longitudes and Time

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COURSE CONTENT TERM II

MARKS : 35
Weightage (In Marks)

15
Part A: Fundamentals of Physical Geography Marks
8
Unit IV: Climate
Atmosphere- composition and structure; elements of weather and
climate
Insolation-angle of incidence and distribution; heat budget of the earth-
heating and cooling of atmosphere (conduction, convection, terrestrial
radiation and advection); temperature - factors controlling
temperature; distribution of temperature - horizontal and vertical;
inversion of temperature
Pressure-pressure belts; winds-planetary, seasonal and local; air
masses and fronts; tropical and extra-tropical cyclones
Precipitation-evaporation; condensation-dew, frost, fog, mist and
cloud; rainfall-types and world distribution
4
Unit V: Water (Oceans)
Movements of ocean water-waves, tides and currents; submarine
reliefs
Ocean resources and pollution
3
Unit VI: Life on the Earth
Biosphere - importance of plants and other organisms; biodiversity
and conservation.
15
Part B: India - Physical Environment Marks
15
Unit III: Climate, Vegetation and Soil
 Weather and climate - spatial and temporal distribution of temperature,
pressure winds and rainfall, Indian monsoon: mechanism, onset and
withdrawal, variability of rainfalls: spatial and temporal; use of weather
charts
 Natural vegetation-forest types and distribution; wild life; conservation;
biosphere reserves
 Soils - major types (ICAR's classification) and their distribution, soil
degradation and conservation

Map work on identification/ interpolation of features based on the units on the 5


outline Physical/Political map of the world/ India

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15
Part Practical Work Marks
C:
CH6: Introduction to Aerial Photograph
CH7: Introduction to Remote Sensing.
CH8: Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts

Prescribed Books:
1. Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Class XI, Published by NCERT
2. India, Physical Environment, Class XI, Published by NCERT
3. Practical Work in Geography, Class XI, Published by NCERT

Note: The above textbooks are also available in Hindi medium.

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INDEX

COURSE CONTENT TERM-1

PART-A Fundamental of Physical Geography 15 marks


UNIT-I: CHAPTER-1-Geography as a Discipline 3 marks
*Geography as an integrating discipline, as a science
of spatial attributes.Branches of Geography: Physical
Geography and Human Geography
UNIT-II: The Earth 9 marks
CHAPTER-2- Origin and evolution of the earth
CHAPTER -3 –Interior of the earth
CHAPTER -4- Distribution of Oceans and
Continents
*wegener’s continental drift theory and plate
tectonics
Eatrthquakes and volcanoes: causes.types and effects

UNIT-III: Landforms 3 marks


CHAPTER-5-Menerals and Rocks
*Rocks: Major types and their characteristics
PART-B INDIA- PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT 15 MARKS
UNIT-I Introduction 7 marks
CHAPTER-1: Introduction
*Location, space relation, India’s space in the world
UNIT-II Physiography 8 marks
CHAPTER-3- Drainage
*Drainage systems: Concept of river
basins,watershed;the Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
MAP WORK Map work on identification /interpretation of features 5 marks
based on the units on the outline Physical/ Political map
of the world /India
PART-C PRACTICAL WORK 15 MARKS
CHAPTER-1: Introduction to Maps
CHAPTER-2: Map Scale
CHAPTER -3: Latitudes. Longitudes and Time

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PART –A: FUNDAMENTALS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

CHAPTER-1: GEOGRAPHY AS A DISCIPLINE

Physical Geography and Natural Sciences


Geography as an Integrating Discipline.
*All the branches 0f physical geography have
*Geography has a holistic approach. It
interface with natural sciences. A geographer
helps in understanding the reality in
should have some proficiency in mathematics
totality in its spatial perspectives. It has
interface with numerous natural and and arts, particularly in drawing maps.
social sciences

Geography and Social Science


Geography as a Discipline
*All the social science disciplines, viz,
sociology, political science, economics
and demography study different aspect
of social reality.
Branches of Geography

Based on Systematic Approach Based on Regional Approach

Regional
Regional
Physical Geography Human Geography Developmen
Studies
t

Regional
Analysis Regional Planning
Biogeography

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CHAPTER 1 GEOGRAPHY AS A DISCIPLINE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. GIS stands for


[a] Geography Integrated System
[b] Geography Included Study
[c] Geographic Information System
[d] Geographic Inclusive Study
Ans: [c]
2. The science of drawing maps is called
[a] Calligraphy
[b] Cartography
[c] Bibliography
[d] Epigraphy
Ans: [b]
3. The term geography was coined by
[a] Aristotle
[b] Socrates
[c] Eratosthenes
[d] Thales
Ans: [c]
4. Which of the following is not a natural science?
[a] Pedology
[b] Botany
[c] Geology
[d] Sociology
Ans: [d]
5. _________________ helps humans to loosen the shackles of the physical
environment.
[a] Society
[b] Technology
[c] Courage
[d] Valour
Ans: [b]
6. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from improvement of technology?
[a] reduction in harshness of labour
[b] increased efficiency of labour
[c] increased scale of production
[d] decreased mobility of labour
Ans: [d]
7. Make correct pairs from the following two columns and mark the correct option.
1. Meterology A. Social geography
2. Pedology B. Climatology
3. Sociology C. Soil Geography
4. Demography D. Population
geography

[a] 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A


[b] 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D
[c] 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
[d] 1B, 2A, 3C, 4D
Ans: [b]

8. Human beings have come to terms with nature through __________ and __________

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[a] Adoption and domination
[b] Adaption and reconciliation
[c] Adaptation and modification
[d] Reconciliation and modification
Ans: [c]
9. Present societies have modified their environment by using
[a] technology
[b] education
[c] literature
[d] religion
Ans: [a]
10. Geography as a discipline is related with three sets of questions:
[a] What, Where, When
[b] What, Why, When
[c] What, Where, Why
[d] Why, Where, When
Ans: [c]
11. Geography as a discipline of synthesis, attempts
[a] Temporal synthesis
[b] Spatial synthesis
[c] Spectral synthesis
[d] Additive synthesis
Ans: [b]
12. The shape of the earth is
[a] Sphere
[b] Flat disc shaped
[c] Donut shape
[d] Geoid
Ans: [d]
13. Population geography is closely related with
[a] Climatology
[b] Hydrology
[c] Demography
[d] Cryptography
Ans: [c]
14. Systematic approach was introduced by
[a] Karl Ritter
[b] Eratosthenes
[c] Carl Sagan
[d] Alexander Von Humboldt
Ans: [d]
15. Regional approach was introduced by
[a] Karl Ritter
[b] Eratosthenes
[c] Carl Sagan
[d] Alexander Von Humboldt
Ans: [a]
16. ___________ is the study of landforms, their evolution and related processes.
[a] Geomorphology
[b] Climatology
[c] Hydrology
[d] Soil geography
Ans: [a]

17. Soil forming process is called


[a] pedogenesis

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[b] frontogenesis
[c] immunogenesis
[d] petrogenesis
Ans: [a]
18. The ___________ has a profound effect on vegetation, cropping pattern and livestock.
[a] Economy
[b] Polity
[c] Climate
[d] Atmosphere
Ans: [c]
19. Which of the following feature can be termed as physical feature?
[a] port
[b] plain
[c] road
[d] Water Park
Ans: [b]

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

20. Assertion (A) Time is an important factor in paedogenesis


Reason (R) Time provides maturity to soils and helps in development of soil profiles.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
21. Assertion (A) Climate does not influence life of human beings.
Reason (R) Temperature and precipitation affects density of forests and quality of
grassland.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [d]
22. Assertions (A) Primitive human societies were directly dependent of their immediate
environment.
Reason (R) Technology was not advanced in earlier times.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS


Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Geography is a discipline of synthesis. It attempts spatial synthesis, and history
attempts temporal synthesis. Its approach is holistic in nature. It recognises the fact
that the world is a system of independencies. The present world is being perceived as
a global village. The distances have been reduced by better means of transportation
increasing accessibility. The audio-visual media and information technology have
enriched the data base. Technology has provided better chances of monitoring natural
phenomena as well as the economic and social parameters. Geography as an
integrating discipline has interface with numerous natural and social sciences. All the
sciences, whether natural or social, have one basic objective, of understanding the
reality. Geography attempts to comprehend the associations of phenomena as related
in sections of reality.

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Every discipline concerned with scientific knowledge is linked with geography as many
of their elements vary over space. Geography helps in understanding the reality in
totality in its spatial perspective. Geography. thus, not only takes note of the differences
in the phenomena from place to place but integrates them holistically which may be
different at other places. A geographer is required to have a broad understanding of all
the related fields, to be able to logically Integrate them. This integration can be
understood with some examples. Geography Influences historical events. Spatial
distance Itself has been a very potent factor to alter the course of history of the world.
Spatial depth provided defence to many countries, particularly in the last century. In
traditional warfare countries with large size in area, gain time at the cost of space. The
defence provided by oceanic expanse around the countries of the new world has
protected them from wars being imposed on their soil. If we look at the historical events
world over, each one of them can be interpreted geographically.
In India, Himalayas have acted as great barriers and provided protection but the
passes provided routes to the migrants and invaders from Central Asia. The sea coast
has encouraged contact with people from East and Southeast Asia, Europe and Africa.
Navigation technology helped European countries to colonise a number of countries of
Asia and Africa, including India as they got accessibility.
23. Which of the following technology has made the world a global village?
[a] Internet
[b] Air transport
[c] Satellite communication
[d] All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above
24. Which of the following is the most important feature of geography?
[a] It is derived from three discipline
[b] It is dynamic in nature
[c] It has no interface with natural sciences
[d] Geography does not help in understanding reality.
Ans: (b) It is dynamic in nature
25. Which of the following has helped in understanding geographical phenomenon more
accurately?
[a] Technology
[b] Social science
[c] Governments
[d] Mineral
Ans: (a) Technology
26. Which among the following has been most important factor in connecting the countries
of world with India?
[a] Railways
[b] Oceanic routes
[c] Traders
[d] None of these
Ans: (c) Oceanic routes

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Physical geography includes the study of lithosphere (landforms, drainage, relief and
physiography), atmosphere (its composition, structure, elements and controls of
weather and climate; temperature, pressure, winds, precipitation, climatic types, etc.),
hydrosphere (oceans, seas, lakes and associated features with water realm) and
biosphere (life forms including human being and macro-organism and their sustaining
mechanism, viz. food chain, ecological parameters and ecological balance). Soils are
formed through the process of pedogenesis and depend upon the parent rocks,
climate, biological activity and time. Time provides maturity to soils and helps in the
development of soil profiles. Each element is important for human beings. Landforms
provide the base on which human activities are located. The plains are utilised for

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agriculture. Plateaus provide forests and minerals. Mountains provide pastures, forests,
tourist spots and are sources of rivers providing water to lowlands. Climate influences
our house types, clothing and food habits. The climate has a profound effect on
vegetation, cropping pattern, livestock farming and some industries etc. Human beings
have developed technologies which modify climatic elements in a restricted space such
as air conditioners and coolers. Temperature and precipitation ensure the density of
forests and quality of grassland. In India, monsoonal rainfall sets the agriculture rhythm
in motion. Precipitation recharges the ground water aquifers which later provides water
for agriculture and domestic use. We study oceans which are the store house of
resources. Besides fish and other sea-food, oceans are rich in mineral resources. India
has developed the technology for collecting manganese nodules from oceanic bed.
Soils are renewable resources, which influence a number of economic activities such
as agriculture. The fertility of the soil is both naturally determined and culturally
induced. Soils also provide the basis for the biosphere accommodating plants, animals
and micro-organisms.
27. Physical geography does not include the study of which of the following?
[a] Ecology
[b] Soil
[c] Ocean
[d] Agriculture
Ans: [d] Agriculture
28. Which of the following physical features provide us Minerals?
[a] Plains
[b] Forests
[c] Plateaus
[d] Coasts
Ans: [c] Plateaus
29. Which of the components is most important for sustaining Biosphere?
[a] Animals
[b] Soil
[c] Food
[d] Humans
Ans: [b] Soil
30. Which of the following is/are the benefits of Indian Monsoon?
[a] Recharge of ground water
[b] Water for agriculture
[c] Improves soil nutrition
[d] Both [a] and [b]
Ans: [d] Both [a] and [b]

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CHAPTER 2: THE ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF THE EARTH

Evolution of the earth

*Earth was mostly in a volatile state during its primordial stage.

*With passage of time it cooled further and solidified and condensed into a smaller
size.

* During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the
interior of the earth.

* The oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth.
It is assumed that tile began to evolve sometime 3800 million years ago.

The origin and


evolution of the earth

THEORIES OF ORIGIN

EARLY THEORIES MODERN THEORIES

Nebular Hypothesis Accretion Hypothesis Collision Theory

It argues that planets were It argues that about 4.6 It suggests that the
formed out of a cloud of million years ago our Moon was formed out
material associated with a solar system was formed of the debris left over
youthful sun which was slowly a cloud of gas and dust from a collision
rotating. between the earth and
an astronomical body
about 4.5 billion years
ago.

The Big Bang Theory

All matter forming the universe existed in one


place in the form of a ball.

Tiny ball exploded which led to huge expansion.


Expansion continues till date.

Temperature dropped to 4500 k and gave rise to


atomic matter.

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CHAPTER 2 THE ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF EARTH
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who gave the nebular hypothesis?


[a] Immanual Kant
[b] Aristotle
[c] Chamberlain
[d] none of these
Ans: [a]
2. ____________ provided evidence that universe is expanding.
[a] Eratosthenes
[b] Edwin Hubble
[c] Socrates
[d] Aristotle
Ans: [b]
3. Initially, earth had a thin atmosphere mostly containing
[a] Hydrogen
[b] Helium
[c] both
[d] none of them
Ans: [c]
4. Who among the following gave the ‘steady state’ concept of universe?
[a] Fred Hoyle
[b] Chamberlin & Moulton
[c] Edwin Hubble
[d] Eratosthenes
Ans: [a]
5. Which of the following is largest unit to measure distance?
[a] Kilometre
[b] Astronomical Unit
[c] Light year
[d] Meter
Ans: [c]
6. Light year is a unit to measure
[a] Distance
[b] Speed
[c] Velocity
[d] Density
Ans: [a]
7. _________ is an interstellar cloud of dust, hydrogen, helium and other ionized gases.
[a] Supernova
[b] Pulsar
[c] Nebula
[d] White Dwarf
Ans: [c]
8. What is Jovian or Gas Giant planets?
[a] Inner planets
[b] Outer planets
[c] none of these
[d] both of these
Ans: [b]

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9. Identify the correct sequence of stages of formation of star.
[i] Small rounded objects developed by the process of cohesion are called
planetesimals.
[ii] The gravitational force within a nebula leads to formation of core of gas and dust.
[iii] Large number of small planetesimals accrete to form fewer large bodies in the form
of planets.
Choose the correct option:
[a] i, ii, iii
[b] ii, i, iii
[c] iii, i, ii
[d] iii, ii, i
Ans: [b]
10. Which of the following is correct order of planets starting from the sun?
[a] Mercury, Neptune, Mars, Earth
[b] Mercury, Mars, Earth, Neptune
[c] Mars, Mercury, Earth, Neptune
[d] Mercury, Earth, Mars, Neptune
Ans: [d]
11. Which of the following is not an inner planet?
[a] Jupiter
[b] Mars
[c] Earth
[d] Mercury
Ans: [a]
12. Which of the following is a Jovian or gas planet?
[a] Mars
[b] Earth
[c] Mercury
[d] Neptune
Ans: [d]
13. All planets were formed about ____ billion years ago.
[a] 2.6 billion years ago
[b] 3.6 billion years ago
[c] 4.6 billion years ago
[d] 5.6 billion years ago
Ans: [c]
14. Identify the incorrect statements:
[a] The terrestrial planets were formed in close vicinity of the parent star.
[b] Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location.
[c] Solar winds blew lots of gas and dust from Jovian planets.
[d] The terrestrial planets are smaller and could not hold escaping gases.
Ans: [c]
15. ‘Big splat’ is related to origin of which of the following celestial body?
[a] Sun
[b] Asteroids
[c] Haleys comet
[d] Moon
Ans: [d]
16. Astronomical unit is
[a] Average distance between sun and earth
[b] Average distance between sun and moon
[c] Average distance between moon and earth
[d] Average distance between mars and earth
Ans: [a]

Page 22 of 94
17. Due to ___________ process the earth forming material got separated into different
layers.
[a] Degassing
[b] Differentiation
[c] Lithification
[d] Solifluction
Ans: [b]
18. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior of earth
[a] Degassing
[b] Differentiation
[c] Lithification
[d] Solifluction
Ans: [a]
19. Which of the following periods is also called age of dinosaurs?
[a] Cretaceous
[b] Jurassic
[c] Triassic
[d] Permian
Ans: [b]
20. Which of the following is correct order of epochs?
[a] Holocene, Pleistocene, Pliocene, Miocene
[b] Holocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, Miocene
[c] Pleistocene, Pliocene, Miocene, Holocene
[d] Pleistocene, Pliocene, Holocene, Miocene
Ans: [a]
21. During which of the following periods dinosaurs went extinct?
[a] Cretaceous
[b] Jurassic
[c] Triassic
[d] Permian
Ans: [a]
22. Who gave the Big Bang theory?
[a] Kant
[b] Chamberlain
[c] Edwin Hubble
[d] none of them
Ans: [d]
23. When did the event of Big Bang take place?
[a] 13.6 million years ago
[b] 13.7 billion years ago
[c] 4.6 billion years ago
[d] 4.6 million years ago
Ans: [b]
24. What is the speed of light?
[a] 300,000 km/second
[b] 330,000 km/second
[c] 30,000 km/second
[d] 3.0 km/second
Ans: [a]
25. One light year is equal to
[a] 9.461 × 1012 km
[b] 9.461 × 10 km
[c] 9.4 × 10 km
[d] none of these
Ans: [a]

Page 23 of 94
26. The distance between the sun and the earth in terms of light years is
[a] 7.4 minutes
[b] 6.5 minutes
[c] 8.3 minutes
[d] 7.2 minutes
Ans: [c]

ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS

28. Assertion (A) Terrestrial planets are rocky in nature.


Reason (R) Terrestrial planets were formed closer to the sun where it was warm for
gases to condense to solid particle.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
29. Assertion (A) The earth has a layered structure.
Reason (R) Density of material decreases as we move from surface to interior of the
earth.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [d]
30. Assertion (A) The universe is expanding.
Reason (R) As time passes galaxies move further and further part.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
31. Assertion (A) Light year is used to measure vast distances of universe.
Reason (R) Light is the fastest moving thing.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Do you know that the planet earth initially was a barren, rocky and hot object with a thin
atmosphere of hydrogen and helium? This is far from the present-day picture of the
earth. Hence, there must have been some events-processes, which may have caused
this change from rocky, barren and hot earth to a beautiful planet with ample amount of
water and conducive atmosphere favouring the existence of life. In the following
section, you will find out how the period, between the 4.600 million years and the
present, led to the evolution of life on the surface of the planet. The earth has a layered
structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre of the earth the
material that exists is not uniform. The atmospheric matter has the least density. From
the surface to deeper depths, the earth's interior has different zones and each of these
contains materials with different characteristics. The earth was mostly in a volatile state
during its primordial stage. Due to gradual increase in density the temperature inside
has increased. As a result, the material inside started getting separated depending on

Page 24 of 94
their densities. This allowed heavier materials (like iron) to sink towards the centre of
the earth and the lighter ones to move towards the surface. With passage of time, it
cooled further and solidified and condensed into a smaller size. This later led to the
development of the outer surface in the form of a crust. During the formation of the
moon, due to the giant impact, the earth was further heated up. It is through the
process of differentiation that the earth forming material got separated into different
layers Starting from the surface to the central parts, we have layers like the crust,
mantle, outer core and inner core. From the crust to the core, the density of the
material increases.
32. Which of the following is the correct age of the Earth?
[a] 13 billion years
[b] 4.6 billion years
[c] 1 billion years
[d] 9 billion years
Ans: (b) 4.6 billion years
33. The central core of the earth consists of which of the following elements?
[a] Magnesium
[b] Iron
[c] Aluminium
[d] Tin
Ans: (b) Iron
34. Which of these layers of earth has the least density?
[a] Mantle
[b] Crust
[c] Inner core
[d] Outer core
Ans: (b) Crust
35. The early atmosphere of Earth contained which of the following gases?
[a] Oxygen
[b] Nitrogen
[c] Hydrogen
[d] Argon
Ans: (c) Hydrogen

Page 25 of 94
CHAPTER-3: INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

TYPES OF VOLCANOS: MANTLE

Shield, Composite, Caldera, Flood basalt province &


Mid oceanic ridge
CORE
CRUST

INTERIOR OF THE EARTH


VOLCANOES Structure of the
& VOLCANIC Earth
LANDFORMS

VOLCANIC LANDFORMS: INTRUSIVE SOURCES OF INFORMATION


ABOUT THE INTERIOR
Batholith, Laccolith, Phacolith, Lopolith, Dyke & Sil

DIRECT SOURCE: INDIRECT SOURCE:

*Surface rock that is present on the surface *Gravitation

*Rocks get through mining process *Magnetic field

*Volcanic eruptions *Seismic activity

EARTHQUAKES
1.Tectonic Earthquake

2.Volcanic Earthquake 3.Collapse 4.Explosion 5.Reservoir Induced


Earthquake Earthquake Earthquake

Page 26 of 94
CHAPTER 3 INTERIOR OF EARTH
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The earth’s radius is about


[a] 5370 kms
[b] 6370 kms
[c] 8000 kms
[d] 9000 kms
Ans: [b]
2. Which of the following is included in direct sources to know about interior of earth?
[a] Earthquakes
[b] Volcanic eruptions
[c] Meteors
[d] Magnetic field
Ans: [b]
3. The __________ is the point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
[a] hypocentre
[b] epicentre
[c] fault
[d] fold
Ans: [a]
4. Identify the incorrect statement:
[a] The gravitation force [g] is same at different latitudes on the surface of earth.
[b] Distance from the centre of earth at equator is greater at equator than that at poles.
[c] The gravity values also depend upon the mass of material inside the earth’s crust.
[d] Gravity anomalies give us information about distribution of mass of the material in
the crust of earth.
Ans: [a]
5. _____________ instrument is used to record the motion of the ground during an
earthquake.
[a] Anemometer
[b] Rain Gauge
[c] Seismograph
[d] Barometer
Ans: [c]
6. Lithosphere refers to the portion of depth of up to _______ kms from the earth’s
surface.
[a] 200
[b] 300
[c] 400
[d] 500
Ans: [a]
7. Which of the following is the correct pair of types of earthquake waves.
[a] Longitudinal, Latitudinal
[b] Raster, Vector
[c] Body, surface
[d] Upper, Lower
Ans: [c]
8. The ___________ waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of
waves called____________ waves.
[a] Body, Surface
[b] Surface, Body
[c] Upper, Lower
[d] Lower, Upper
Ans: [a]
Page 27 of 94
9. Identify the incorrect statement.
[a] Velocity of earthquake waves changes as they travel through materials with different
densities.
[b] The denser the material, the lower is the velocity.
[c] Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials
with different densities
[d] None of the above
Ans: [b]
10. Identify the incorrect statement
[a] There are two types of body waves.
[b] These are called P and S-waves.
[c] S-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.
[d] The P-waves are similar to sound waves.
Ans: [c]
11. _______ causes waves to rebound whereas refraction makes waves move in
different directions.
[a] Reflection, Refraction
[b] Refraction, Reflection
[c] Absorption, Resonance
[d] Resonance, Absorption
Ans: [a]
12. Which of the following earthquake waves are most destructive?
[a] Primary waves
[b] Surface waves
[c] Secondary waves
[d] None of the above
Ans: [b]
13. Identify the incorrect statements.
[a] Different types of earthquake waves travel in same manner.
[b] P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave.
[c] The direction of vibrations of waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the
vertical plane.
[d] Surface waves are considered to be the most dangerous.
Ans: [a]
14. Zone between ________to___________ from epicentre is shadow zone for both types
of waves.
[a] 110 – 115
[b] 115 – 120
[c] 105 – 145
[d] 145 – 190
Ans: [c]
15. Shadow zone of S zone cover ______ percentage of earth’s surface.
[a] 10
[b] 40
[c] 80
[d] 90
Ans: [b]
16. Most common earthquakes are
[a] Volcanic earthquakes.
[b] Tectonic earthquakes
[c] Collapse earthquakes
[d] Explosion earthquakes
Ans: [b]

Page 28 of 94
17. ___________ are the sea waves generated by tremors.
[a] Chinook
[b] Mistral
[c] Tsunami
[d] Fohn
Ans: [c]
18. Which of the following scales is used to measure intensity/magnitude of an
earthquake?
[a] Richter Scale
[b] Moh’s Scale
[d] Beaufort Scale
[d] Kelvin Scale
Ans: [a]
19. Which of the following statements is not true about crust?
[a] It is the outermost solid part of the earth.
[b] The thickness of crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas.
[c] Continental crust is thinner as compared to oceanic crust.
[d] The type of rock found is oceanic crust is basalt.
Ans: [c]
20. The upper portion of mantle is called:
[a] Lithosphere
[b] Thermosphere
[c] Mesosphere
[d] Asthenosphere
Ans: [d]
21. Molten rocks in upper magma are called ___________ and once it starts moving
towards crust or it reaches surface it is referred to as __________
[a] lava, magma
[b] magma, lava
[c] lava, fossils
[d] fossils, lava
Ans: [b]
22. Hawaiian volcanoes are famous examples of:
[a] flood basalt province
[b] Shield volcanoes
[c] Composite volcanoes
[d] Caldera
Ans: [b]
23. Identify the incorrect statement:
[a] Composite volcanoes have much cooler and viscous lava.
[b] Composite volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions.
[c] Composite volcanoes emit huge pyroclastic material along with lava.
[d] None of these.
Ans: [d]
24. Most explosive volcanoes are called:
[a] Shield Volcanoes
[b] Composite Volcanoes
[c] Flood basalt province
[d] Caldera
Ans: [d]
25. Deccan traps in India is an example of:
[a] Shield Volcanoes
[b] Composite Volcanoes
[c] Flood basalt province
[d] Caldera
Ans: [c]

Page 29 of 94
26. Which of the following is an intrusive volcanic landform?
[a] Lava plateau
[b] Lava conduit
[c] Lava messa
[d] Volcanic neck
Ans: [b]
27. ____________ are cooled portions of magma chambers.
[a] Batholith
[b] Lacoliths
[c] Lapolith
[d] Phacolith
Ans: [a]
28. Which of the following is largest intrusive volcanic landform?
[a] Batholith
[b] Lacoliths
[c] Lapolith
[d] Phacolith
Ans: [a]
29. A saucer shaped, concave to the sky, volcanic landform:
[a] Batholith
[b] Lacoliths
[c] Lapolith
[d] Phacolith
Ans: [c]
30. The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called
[a] Batholith
[b] Lacoliths
[c] Sill/Sheet
[d] Dyke
Ans: [c]

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

31. Assertion (A) Asthenosphere is the main source of magma.


Reason (R) Outer core is in solid state while inner core is in liquid state.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [d]
32. Assertion: Shield volcanoes are very steep.
Reason: In shield volcanoes magma made up of basalt is very fluid.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [c]
33. Assertion: Analysis of rocks and minerals is an ineffective method to know about
interior of earth.
Reason: Humans have not been able to dig beyond 12-15 kms.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [c]

Page 30 of 94
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from
mining areas. Gold mines in South Africa are as deep as 3 - 4 km. Going beyond this
depth is not possible as it is very hot at this depth. Besides mining, scientists have
taken up a number of projects to penetrate deeper depths to explore the conditions in
the crustal portions, scientists world over are working on two major projects such as
"Deep Ocean Drilling Project" and "Integrated Ocean Drilling Project". The deepest drill
at Kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far reached a depth of 12 km. This and many deep
drilling projects have provided large volume of information through the analysis of
materials collected at different depths.
Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when
the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic
eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis. However, it is difficult to ascertain
the depth of the source of such magma.
The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity. The
gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater
near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre
at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ
according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within
the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is
influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such
a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the
distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. Magnetic surveys also
provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials in the crustal portion,
and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this part.
34. Which among the following can be classified as a direct source of information of the
interior of the Earth?
[a] Mines
[b] Volcanic magma
[c] Meteors
[d] All of above
Ans: (d) All of above
35. The value of gravity is different at different places on earth, because of which of the
following reasons?
[a] Uneven distribution of mass
[b] Magnetic field of the earth
[c] Tilt of the earth
[d] Attraction of Moon
Ans: [a] Uneven distribution of mass
36. Which of the following sources gives information of Earth’s interior indirectly?
[a] Volcanoes
[b] Gravitation anomaly
[c] Oceanic crust
[d] All of the above
Ans: [b] Gravitation anomaly
37. What is the deepest point up to which scientists have been able to drill inside the
Earth’s surface?
[a] 50 km
[b] 12 km
[c] 24 km
[d] 19 km
Ans: [b] 12 km

Page 31 of 94
Study the following diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow:

38. Which of the following is the thinnest part of Earth’s interior?


[a] Core
[b] Oceanic crust
[c] Continental crust
[d] Mantle
Ans: [b] Oceanic Crust
39. The crust and mantle are separated by which of the following discontinuities?
[a] Gutenberg discontinuity
[b] Moho discontinuity
[c] Conrad discontinuity
[d] Lehman discontinuity
Ans: (b) Moho discontinuity
40. What is the main source of magma inside earth surface?
[a] Core
[b] Crust
[c] Asthenosphere
[d] Magnetosphere
Ans: [c] Asthenosphere
41. Which of the following layers is known as NiFe?
[a] Mantle
[b] Continental crust
[c] Oceanic crust
[d] Core
Ans: [d] Core

Page 32 of 94
CHAPTER-4 :DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS

Ocean floor is segmented into 3 major


divisions.

Convection Mapping of the 1.Continental Margins


current Theory ocean floor
2.Abyssal Plains

3.Mid oceanic Ridge

Evidences in support 0f
Continental Drift.
New dimention for the study of Distribution of Oceans &
oceans and continents Continents *The matching of
continents(Jig-saw-fit)

*Rocks of the same age


across the ocean
Plate Tectonics
Continental Drift Theory by Alfred Wegener
*Tillite

*Placer deposits
*AII the continents & oceans were formed from a
*Distribution of fossils
super continents-PANGAEA and mega ocean
Major Plates PANTHALASA.

1. Antarctica *Super continent splits 200 million years ago into


2. North America Laurasia & Gondwanaland.
3. South America
4. Pacific *These continental masses continued to break
5. Eurasia into several continents that exist today.
6. Africa
7. Indo Australian

Plate Boundaries

1. Convergent
2. Divergent
3. Transform
Indian Plates includes:

1. Peninsuiar India
2. Continental portion
of Australia

Page 33 of 94
CHAPTER 4 DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. ______________ was the first person to propose the possibility of drifting of continents.
[a] Alfred Wegner
[b] Alexander Von Humboldt
[c] Abraham Ortelius
[d] Antonio Pellegrini
Ans: [c]
2. ___________ drew a map showing three continents (America, Europe, Africa).
[a] Alfred Wegner
[b] Alexander Von Humboldt
[c] Abraham Ortelius
[d] Antonio Pellegrini
Ans: [d]
3. Identify the incorrect statement:
[a] Alfred Wegner propounded continental drift theory in 1912.
[b] All continents formed a single continental landmass-Panthalassa.
[c] 200 years ago the super continent began to split.
[d] Super continent broke into Laurasia and Gondwanaland.
Ans: [b]
4. Which of the following techniques helps us to determine the age of rocks?
[a] Archaeological findings
[b] Inscriptions
[c] Radiometric dating
[d] Calendars
Ans: [c]
5. Sedimentary rocks formed out of deposits of glaciers are called
[a] Sandstone
[b] Mica
[c] Tillite
[d] Azurite
Ans: [c]
6. According to Wegner the forces responsible for drifting of continents were caused by
[a] gravitational force and tidal force
[b] pole fleeing force and tidal force
[c] electromagnetic force and pole fleeing force
[d] electromagnetic force and gravitational force
Ans: [b]
7. In 1930 _____________ discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in
the mantle portion.
[a] Alfred Wegner
[b] Arthur Holmes
[c] Abraham Ortelius
[d] Antonio Pellegrini
Ans: [b]
8. The pacific rim is also called rim of fire due to:
[a] prevalence of occurrence of forest fires.
[b] high temperatures throughout the year.
[c] high occurrence of earthquakes.
[d] existence of active volcanoes.
Ans: [d]

Page 34 of 94
9. Read the following statements.
[i] All along the mid oceanic ridges volcanic eruptions are common.
[ii] Rocks on the either side of mid-oceanic ridges are remarkably similar.
[iii] The continental crust is much younger than oceanic crust.
[iv] The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly thin.
Which of the above statements are true?
[a] Only i
[b] Only i & ii
[c] Only i, ii & iii
[d] Only i, ii & iv
Ans: [d]
10. Who among the following proposed the concept of sea floor spreading?
[a] Harry Hess
[b] Mackenize
[c] Morgan
[d] Parker
Ans: [a]
11. Who among the following was not among the proponents of plate tectonics theory?
[a] Harry Hess
[b] Mackenize
[c] Morgan
[d] Parker
Ans: [a]
12. Identify the incorrect statement.
[a] A tectonic plate is a massive irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock.
[b] A plate is generally composed of either continental or oceanic lithosphere.
[c] A plate may be referred to as continental or oceanic plate.
[d] The thickness of tectonic plate varies between 5-200 kms.
Ans: [b]
13. Earth’s lithosphere is divided into ___________ major and several minor plates.
[a] Six
[b] Seven
[c] Ten
[d] Eleven
Ans: [b]
14. Which of the following is not a major plate?
[a] Pacific plate
[b] Cocos plate
[c] African plate
[d] Eurasian plate
Ans: [b]
15. Which of the following plate is situated between Philippine and Indian Plate?
[a] Cocos plate
[b] Nazca plate
[c] Caroline plate
[d] Fuji plate
Ans: [d]
16. The following is not a minor plate?
[a] Cocos plate
[b] Nazca plate
[c] Arabian plate
[d] Philippine plate
Ans: [c]
17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of divergent plate margins?
[a] At such plate boundaries, plates move towards each other.
[b] New crust is generated.

Page 35 of 94
[c] These sites are also called spreading sites.
[d] Best known example is Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
Ans: [a]
18. Formation of deccan trap happened around
[a] 6 billion years ago
[b] 60 billion years ago
[c] 60 million years ago
[d] 6 million years ago
Ans: [c]
19. Formation of Himalayas started nearly
[a] 4 billion years ago
[b] 40 billion years ago
[c] 40 million years ago
[d] 4 million years ago
Ans: [c]
20. Northern plate boundary of Indian plate along Himalayas is an example of:
[a] Continent-Continent convergence
[b] Continent-Continent divergence
[c] Continent-Ocen convergence
[d] Continent-Ocean divergence
Ans: [a]
21. Which of the following mountain ranges form the western margin of Indian plate?
[a] Himalayan mountains
[b] Rakinyoma mountains
[c] Kirthar mountains
[d] Satpura Hills
Ans: [c]

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

22. Assertion (A) Divergent plate margin are also called constructive plate margins.
Reason (A) Along divergent plate margins magma comes up to the surface and forms
new crust.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
23. Assertion (A) Crust is destroyed along convergent plate margins.
Reason (R) One plate dive under another plate along divergent plate margin.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
24. Assertion (A) The sediments on ocean floor are very thin.
Reason (R) Continental crust rocks are younger than ocean crust rocks.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [d]
25. Assertion (A) Along transform boundaries, crust is neither produced nor destroyed.
Reason (R) Along transform boundaries the plates horizontally pass each other.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Page 36 of 94
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
26. Assertion (A) The sea floor is spreading along mid-oceanic ridges.
Reason (B) The rocks of oceanic crust are much younger than continental crust.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [b]
27. Assertion (A) Tillites are found in Africa, Falkland, Madagascar.
Reason (B) Paleoclimates and drifting of continents.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
28. Assertion (A) Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold
bearing veins are found in Brazil.
Reason (B) At some points of time these continents were joined together along the
Atlantic coast.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

DIAGRAM/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Study the diagram and answer the questions:

29. Which of the following is the correct pair of plate margins shown in the above diagram.
[a] A=Convergent, B=Divergent & C=Transform plate margin
[b] A=Divergent, B=Convergent & C=Transform plate margin
[c] A=Transform, B=Convergent & C= Divergent plate margin
[d] A=Transform, B=Divergent & C=Convergent plate margin
Ans: [d]
30. Identify the landform marked with letter ‘D’.
[a] Hotspot
[b] Volcano
[c] Subducting plate
[d] Artesian well
Ans: [a]

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Study the map given and answer the questions.

31. Which of the following is correct pair of plates marked with A,B,C,D on map.
[a] A=Nazca plate, B=Caribbean plate, C= Juan De Fuca plate, D= Caroline plate
[b] A=Caribbean plate, B= Juan De Fuca plate, C=Caroline plate, D=Nazca plate
[c] A= Juan De Fuca plate, B=Caroline plate, C=Nazca plate, D=Caribbean plate
[d] A=Caroline plate, B=Nazca plate, C=Caribbean plate, D=Juan De Fuca plate
Ans: [a]

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

32. Which of the following features constitute the deepest points in the oceans?
[a] Continental shelf
[b] Trench
[c] Continental slope
[d] Basin floors
Ans: [b] Trench
33. The mountain like feature on the oceanic floor are known as
[a] Trenches
[b] Basin
[c] Crest
[d] Ridges
Ans: [d] Ridges

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34. Which is the largest oceanic tectonic plate on earth?
[a] Antarctica plate
[b] Pacific plate
[c] Arctic plate
[d] Atlantic plate
Ans: [b] Pacific plate
35. The concept of spreading of oceanic floor was given by-
[a] Mackenzie
[b] Wegener
[c] Hess
[d] None of these
Ans: [c] Hess

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The Indian plate includes peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. The
subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate boundary in the form of
continent- continent convergence. In the east, it extends through Rakinyoma Mountains
of Myanmar towards the island arc along the Java Trench. The eastern margin is a
spreading site lying to the east of Australia in the form of an oceanic ridge in SW
Pacific. The Western margin follows Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan. It further extends
along the Makrana coast and joins the spreading site from the Red Sea rift
southeastward along the Chagos Archipelago. The boundary between India and the
Antarctic plate is also marked by oceanic ridge (divergent boundary) running in roughly
W-E direction and merging into the spreading site, a little south of New Zealand.
India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys
Sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is
supposed to have started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time
when Pangaea broke. India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing
rapid uplift of the Himalayas. About 140 million years before the present, the
subcontinent was located as south as 50°S. latitude. The two major plates were
separated by the Tethys Sea and the Tibetan block was closer to the Asiatic landmass.
During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Eurasian plate, a major event that
occurred was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started
somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time. The
subcontinent was still close to the equator. From 40 million years ago and thereafter,
the event of formation of the Himalayas took place. The process is still continuing and
the height of the Himalayas is rising even to this date.
36. The Indian plates form a zone of convergence with which of the following plates?
[a] Australian plate
[b] Pacific plate
[c] Eurasian plate
[d] Atlantic plate
Ans: [c] Eurasian plate
37. The age of Deccan trap of India is-
[a] 10 million years
[b] 1 billion years
[c] 20 million years
[d] 60 million years
Ans: [d] 60 million years
38. Which of the following is the youngest physical feature among the given options?
[a] Himalayas
[b] Indian peninsula
[c] Deccan traps
[d] Pangaea
Ans: [a] Himalayas

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39. Indian plate and Antarctica plate forms which of the following type of boundaries-
[a] Convergent boundary
[b] Divergent boundary
[c] Transform boundary
[d] Fault zone
Ans: [b] Divergent boundary

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CHAPTER-5 : MINERALS AND ROCKS

1. External crystal
form
NON-METALLIC
2. Cleavage
Sulphur,Phosphates& 3. Fracture
Nitrates 4. Lusture
5. Colour
Physical characteristics of Minerals 6. Streak
7. Transparency
8. Structure
arrangement
Types of Minerals 9. Hardness
Minerals and Rocks 10. Specific gravity

METALLIC

1. Ferrous- Iron,Nickle Igneous Rocks


2. Non-Ferrous Types of Rocks
Copper,Zinc 1. Intrusive-
3. Precious Metals Granite
Gold,Silver 2. Extrusive-
Basalt

Sedimentary Rocks
Metamorphic Rocks
1. Mechanically formed-
1. Dynamic metamorphism sandstone.limestone
2. Contact metamorphism 2. Organically formed-
chalk.coal
3. Chemically formed-
potash.chert

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CHAPTER 5 Minerals and Rocks
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following element is most abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
[a] Silicon
[b] Iron
[c] Aluminium
[d] Oxygen
Ans: [d]
2. Arrange the major elements of earth’s crust in decreasing order of their occurrence in
the earth’s crust.
[a] Oxygen, Silicon, Iron, Aluminium, Calcium
[b] Oxygen, Silicon, Aluminium, Iron, Calcium
[c] Silicon, Oxygen, Iron, Aluminium, Calcium
[d] Calcium, Oxygen, Silicon, Iron, Aluminium
Ans: [b]
3. Which of the following scales is used to measure the hardness of minerals?
[a] Richter Scale
[b] Mercalli Scale
[c] Kelvin Scale
[d] Mohs scale
Ans: [d]
4. _____________ consists of calcium, aluminium, magnesium, iron and silica. It forms
10 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in meteorites. It is in green or
black colour.
[a] Feldspar
[b] Quartz
[c] Pyroxene
[d] Amphibole
Ans: [c]
5. Which of the following is an example of ferrous metal?
[a] Iron
[b] Copper
[c] Aluminium
[d] Silver
Ans: [a]
6. Which of the following is not an example of non-metallic mineral?
[a] Sulphur
[b] Phosphate
[c] Nitrates
[d] Lead
Ans: [d]
7. ______________ is the science of rocks.
[a] Pedology
[b] Petrology
[c] Pedagogy
[d] Numerology
Ans: [b]
8. Rocks which are result of deposition of fragments of rocks by exogenous rocks.
[a] Igneous rocks
[b] Sedimentary rocks
[c] Metamorphic rocks
[d] All of them
Ans: [b]

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9. ‘Ignis’ is a Latin term means
[a] Fire
[b] Magma
[c] Water
[d] Air
Ans: [a]
10. Which of the following is not an example of igneous rock?
[a] Granite
[b] Gabro
[c] Pegmatite
[d] Soapstone
Ans: [d]
11. Which of the following process is essential in formation of sedimentary rocks?
[a] Differentiation
[b] Solifluction
[c] Lithification
[d] Degassing
Ans: [c]
12. Which of the following is an example of organically formed sedimentary rock?
[a] Sandstone
[b] Conglomerate
[c] Shale
[d] Geyserite
Ans: [d]
13. The word metamorphic means
[a] Change of date
[b] Change of form
[c] Change of temperature
[d] Change of weight
Ans: [b]
14. __________ is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation
and reorganisation of minerals within original rocks.
[a] Sedimentation
[b] Metamorphism
[c] Solifluction
[d] Lithification
Ans: [b]
15. Two types of thermal metamorphism
[a] High & Low metamorphism
[b] Fast & Slow metamorphism
[c] Contact & regional metamorphism
[d] First & Second metamorphism
Ans: [c]
16. Arrangement of minerals or materials of different groups, into alternating thin or thick
layers appearing in light and dark shades is called
[a] foliation
[b] lineation
[c] banding
[d] lithification
Ans: [c]
17. Foliated and non-foliated are major groups of which types of rocks?
[a] Metamorphic rocks
[b] Sedimentary rocks
[c] Igneous rocks
[d] Intrusive igneous rocks
Ans: [a]

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18. Which of the following is not an example of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Limestone
(d) Schist
Ans: [c]
19. Which mineral group is most abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
(a) Mica group
(b) Felspar group
(c) Oxide group
(d) Silicate group
Ans: [b]
20. Igneous rocks are also called
(a) primary rocks
(b) secondary rocks
(c) tertiary rocks
(d) soft rocks
Ans: [a]
21. Which one of the following is the main component of sand and granite?
(a) Amphibole
(b) Quartz
(c) Pyroxene
(d) Mica
Ans: [b]

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

22. Assertion (A) Sudden cooling at surface results in large and smooth grains.
Reason ® Texture depends upon size and arrangement of grains.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [d]
23. Assertion (A) The basic source of all minerals is hot magma.
Reason ® When magma cools, crystals of minerals are formed in a sequence while
solidify to form rocks.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
As igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, they are
known as primary rocks. The igneous rocks (Ignis- in Latin means 'Fire’) are formed
when magma cools and solidifies. You already know what magma is. When magma in
its upward movement cools and turns into solid form it is called igneous rock. The
process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of
the earth.
Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. Texture depends upon size and
arrangement of grains or other physical conditions of the materials. If molten material is
cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the
surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would

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result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Granite, gabbro,
pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.
The word 'sedimentary' is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means
settling. Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are
exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments.
Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These
deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process Is called lithification. In many
sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after
lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in sedimentary
rocks like sandstone. shale etc.
24. Igneous rocks are formed from which of the following material?
[a] Sediments
[b] Magma
[c] Heat and pressure
[d] Crust
Ans: [b] Magma
25. Which among the following is an igneous rock?
[a] Granite
[b] Marble
[c] Quartzite
[d] All of these
Ans: [a] Granite
26. Which is the most important process in the formation of sedimentary rocks?
[a] Metamorphism
[b] Magma flow
[c] Lithification
[d] Ionisation
Ans: [c] Lithification
27. Grains of various sizes are formed in which of the following rocks?
[a] Gabbro
[b] Shale
[c] Slate
[d] Gneiss
Ans: [a] Gabbro

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The word metamorphic means 'change of form. These rocks form under the action of
pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks
are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising
through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are
subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks. Metamorphism is a process
by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of
materials within original rocks. Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original
minerals within rocks due to breaking and crushing without any appreciable chemical
changes is called dynamic metamorphism. The materials of rocks chemically alter and
recrystallise due to thermal metamorphism. There are two types of thermal
metamorphism — contact meta-morphism and regional metamorphism. In contact
metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the
rock materials recrystallise under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form
out of magma or lava are added to the rocks. In regional metamorphism. rocks undergo
recrystallisation due to deformation caused by tectonic shearing together with high
temperature or pressure or both. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains
or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains
in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation. Sometimes minerals or materials of
different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick layers appearing in light and
dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic rocks is called banding and rocks

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displaying banding are called banded rocks. Types of metamorphic rocks depend upon
original rocks that were subjected to metamorphism. Metamorphic rocks are classified
into two major groups — foliated rocks and non-foliated rocks. Gneissoid, granite,
syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite are some examples.
28. Which of the following is the most important factor in contact metamorphism?
[a] Temperature
[b] Pressure
[c] Mechanical disruption
[d] None of the above
Ans: [a] Temperature
29. Arrangement of minerals in alternate bands of light and dark shade is known as –
[a] Foliation
[b] Weathering
[c] Banding
[d] Metamorphism
Ans: [b] Banding
30. Dynamic metamorphism involves which of the following?
[a] Chemical reaction
[b] Mechanical grinding
[c] High temperature compression
[d] Rusting
Ans: [b] Mechanical grinding
31. Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?
[a] Sandstone
[b] Limestone
[c] Granite
[d] Slate
Ans: [d] Slate

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PART-B: INDIA – PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT

;:

CHAPTER 1: INDIA LOCATION

NEIGHBOURS EXTENT

*The maritime location of INDIA-LOCATION


*The mainland of India
peninsular India has produced extends from Kashmir in the
links to its neighbouring north to Kanyakumari in the
regions through the sea and south.
air routes.
*It also extends from
*Srilanka and Maldives are the SIZE Arunachal Pradesh in the
two island countries located in east to Gujarat in the west.
the Indian oceans. *India has an area of 3.38 million
sq.km. *Southern boundary
*Pakistan lies in the North extends up to 6^45’ N
West position. *It accounts for 2.4 percent of the latitude in the Bay of
world’s land surface area and stands Bengal.
*China lies in the north region
as the seventh largest country in the
and Nepal is just above the *82^30’E is taken as the
world.
central region. standard Meridian of India
* Peninsular part extends towards the
*Bhutan in the north-east and
Indian Ocean. It provide the country
Bangladesh and Myanmar lie
with a coastline of 6100 km for
in the eastern side
mainland and 7517 km for entire
geographical coast of the country’

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CHAPTER 1 India-Location
India is the seventh largest country in the world with total area of 32, 87,263 sq. km
which is 2.42 per cent of the world’s area. It is the second most populous country
after China in the world with a population of 1.21 billion.
The mainland of India extends from Kashmir in the north to Kanyakumari in the south
and Arunachal Pradesh in the east to Gujarat in the west. India extends from
territorial limit further extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles (about 21.9
km) from the coast. India lies entirely in the Northern hemisphere. The mainland
extends between latitudes 8°4′ N (Kanyakumari, Cape Comorian) and 37° 6′ N
(Indira col, Jammu and Kashmir) and longitudes 68° 7′ E (Dwarka, Gujarat) and 97°
25′ E (Sadiya, Arunachal Pradesh).
Longitudinal extent of India is 68° 7′ to 97° 25′ E-(29°). The latitudinal and
longitudinal extent of India are roughly about 30 degrees, whereas the actual
distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to
west is only 2,933 km.
This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes
decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains
the same everywhere.
The southern part of the country lies within the tropics and the northern part lies in
the subtropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This location is responsible for
large variations in landforms, climate, soil types and natural vegetation in the
country.
There is a variation of nearly 30 degrees from west to east in India which causes a
time difference of nearly two hours between the easternmost and the westernmost
parts of our country.
While the sun rises in the north-eastern states about two hours earlier as compared
to Jaisalmer, the watches in Dibrugarh, Imphal in the east and Jaisalmer, Bhopal or
Chennai in the other parts of India shows the same time because we follow one
standard time all over India called Indian Standard Time (1ST)
There is a general understanding among the countries of the world to select the
standard meridian in multiples of 7°30′ of longitude. That is why 82°30′ E has been
selected as the ‘standard meridian’ of India. Indian Standard Time is ahead of
Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours and 30 minutes. There are some countries where
there are more than one standard meridian due to their vast east-to-west extent. For
example, the USA has seven time zones.

The size of India has endowed her with great physical diversity. India is gifted with
the presence of lofty mountains in the north; large rivers such as Ganga,
Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri; green forested hills in
northeast and south India; and the vast sandy expanse of Marusthali.
India has second position in terms of Agrarian land after USA.
It is bounded by the Himalayas in the north, Hindukush and Sulaiman ranges in the
north-west, Purvachal hills in the north-east and by the large expanse of the Indian
Ocean in the south, it forms a great geographic entity known as the Indian
subcontinent. It includes the countries — Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and
India.
India’s land length is 15,200 km and it has a coastline of 6,100 km in the mainland
and 7,517 km in the entire geographical coast of the mainland plus the island groups
Andaman and Nicobar located in the Bay of Bengal and the Lakshadweep in the
Arabian Sea. Thus India, as a country, is a physically diverse land providing
occurrence of varied resources.
India is located in the south-central part of the continent of Asia, bordering the Indian
Ocean and its two arms extending in the form of Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
This maritime location of Peninsular India has provided links to its neighbouring

Page 48 of 94
regions through the sea and air routes. Sri Lanka and Maldives are the two island
countries located in the Indian Ocean, which are our neighbours. Sri Lanka is
separated from India by the Gulf of Manner and Palk Strait.
India has 28 states and 9 union territories. It is situated in the middle of western Asia
and Eastern Asia.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. How many islands are there in Andaman and Nicobar Islands?


(a) 202
(b) 203
(c) 204
(d) 205
Answer: C

2. Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?


(a) Palk Strait
(b) Strait of Hormuz
(c) Bering Strait
(d) Malacca Strait
Answer: A

3. The northern part of India lies in the


(a) Tropical zone
(b) Temperate zone
(c) Sub-tropical zone
(d) Equatorial zone
Answer: C

4. Which ocean route links, India with Europe?


(a) Corinth Canal
(b) Grand Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) Suez Canal
Answer: D

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5. The southernmost point of India is in
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Trivandrum
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: D

6. Which is the smallest Union Territory in India?


(a) Daman and Diu
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer: B

7. The total area of India is:


(a) 3.75 million sq. km
(b) 3.90 million sq. km
(c) 3.00 million sq. km
(d) 3.28 million sq. km
Answer: D

8. The northern part of India lies in which of the following zones?


(a) Temperate region
(b) Warm Temperate region
(c) Humid region
(d) Cold region
Answer: B

9. The number of time zones in the USA is


(a) Seven
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Four
Answer: B

10. Choose the State in India through which the Standard Meridian of India, as well as
the Tropic of Cancer, pass covering the longest distance.
(a) Odisha
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: B

11. India lies:


(a) Mainly in the northern hemisphere
(b) Entirely in the northern hemisphere
(c) On the equator
(d) More in the southern hemisphere
Answer: B

12. Northern part of India lies in the


(a) Tropical zone.
(b) Temperate zone.
(c) Sub-tropical zone.
(d) Equatorial zone.
Answer: C

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13. Which one of the following is the southern-most Latitude of India?
(a) 8° 4′ North
(b) 8° 4′ South
(c) 6° 4′ South
(d) 6° 4′ North
Answer: C

14. Which one of the following is the southern-most Latitude of India?


(a) 8° 4′ North
(b) 8° 4′ South
(c) 6° 4′ South
(d) 6° 4′ North
Answer: C

15. Which country among the India’s neighbours is the smallest?


(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer: B

16. The northern part of India lies in which of the following zones?
(a) Temperate region
(b) Warm temperate region
(c) Humid region
(d) Cold region
Answer: B

17. Question18. The easternmost longitude of India is :


(a) 97° 25′ E
(b) 77° 6′ E
(c) 68° 7′ E
(d) 82° 32′ E
Answer: A

18. Question19. Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?


(a) Palk Strait
(b) Strait of Hormuz
(c) Bering Strait
(d) Malacca Strait
Answer: A

19. India is the


(a) 5th largest country
(b) 2nd largest country
(c) 10th largest country
(d) 7th largest country of the world
Answer: D

20. Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian mainland?
(a) Indira Point
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Kavaratti
Answer: B

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21. Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?
(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes
(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India
(c) India is centrally located at the head of the Indian Ocean
(d) All the above
Answer: D

22. Russia has


(a) 5 time zone
(b) 11 time zone
(c) 2 time zone
(d) 6 time zone
Answer: B

23. Suez Canal was open in


(a) 1969
(b) 1869
(c) 1850
(d) 1849
Answer: B

24. India shares its international boundary with Bangladesh of


(a) 3,310 km.
(b) 3,917 km.
(c) 1,752 km.
(d) 4,096 km.
Answer: D

25. Which of the following countries is larger than India in terms of land area?
(a) Russia
(b) New Zealand
(c) South Africa
(d) Great Britain
Answer: A

26. India’s total area accounts for what percentage of the geographical area of the
world?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 3.2%
(c) 2.4%
(d) 4.2%
Answer: C

27. Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Puducherry
Answer: C

28. Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.


(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) New Moore
(d) None of the above

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Answer: B

29. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?


(a) 97°25′E
(b) 68°7′E
(c) 68°75′E
(d) 82°32′E
Answer: B

30. A narrow channel of sea which separates two land masses is known as:
(a) Mound
(b) Pass
(c) Strait
(d) Valley
Answer: C

31. The neighbouring countries that share their boundaries with India are :
(a) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(b) Myanmar and Bangladesh
(c) China and Nepal
(d) All the above
Answer: D

32. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves
from south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent
(b) Latitudinal extent
(c) Standard Meridian
(d) All of the above
Answer: B

33. The southernmost tip of the Indian union and the mainland:
(a) Indira Point
(b) Delhi
(c) Chennai
(d) All of the above
Answer: A

34. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?


(a) 97°25′E
(b) 68°7′E
(c) 67°7′E
(d) 82°32′E
Answer: B

35. The easternmost longitude of India is _________


(a) 97°25′E
(b) 68°7′E
(c) 77°6′E
(d) 82°32′E
Answer: A

36. The Southernmost point of India is:


(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point

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(d) Kavaratti
Answer: C
37. Which of the following states does not share any international boundary?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: D

38. Which one of the following latitudinal extents is relevant for the extent of India’s
area?
(a) 8°41'N - 35°7'N
(b) 8°4'N - 37°6'N
(c) 8°4'N - 35°6'N
(d) 6°45'N - 37°6'N
Answer: B

39. Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian for India?
(a) 69°30'E
(b) 82°30'E
(c) 75°30'E
(d) 90°30'E
Answer: B

40. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontier
with
(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Myanmar
Answer: C

41. Which of the following states is not included in the Seven Sisters?
a. Mizoram
b. Tripura
c. Nagaland
d. Sikkim
Answer: D

42. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India.
Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Tajikistan
(d) Nepal
Answer: B

43. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km?
(a) Suez Canal
(b) Panama Canal
(c) Indira Gandhi Canal
(d) Buckingham Canal
Answer: A

44. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?
(a) First

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(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Seventh
Answer: D

45. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of :


(a) 24 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 2 hours
(d) 30 minutes
Answer: C

46. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?
(a) First
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Seventh
Answer: D

47. Which of the following states does not have a common boundary with Pakistan?
a. Haryana
b. Rajasthan
c. Punjab
d. Gujarat
Answer: A

48. Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?


(a) 8°4/N and 37°6/N
(b) 68°7/N and 97°25’E
(c) 68°7’E and 97°25/W
(d) 8°4’E and 37°6’E
Answer: B

49. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of:


(a)24 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 2 hours
(d) 30 minutes
Answer: C

50. Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other
countries of the world?
(a) Ocean routes
(b) Maritime contact
(c) Land routes
(d) Air routes
Answer: C

51. Approximately what is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland of India?
(a) 97°
(b) 68°
(c) 30°
(d) 8°
Answer: C

52. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass?

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(a) 2.4 million square km
(b) 3.28 million square km
(c) 32.8 million square km
(d) 3.28 million km
Answer: B

53. The northernmost limit of India is at


a. 37° 6' N
b. 8° 4' N
c. 67° 3' N
d. 36° 7' N
Answer: A

54. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves
from south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent
(b) Latitudinal extent
(c) Standard Meridian
(d) All the above
Answer: B

55. Which of the following countries is smaller than India in terms of area?
a. Argentina
b. Australia
c. China
d. Canada
Answer: A

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

56. Assertion (A) The distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere.
Reason (R) Latitudes are parallel to the equator.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]
57. Assertion (A) India has 2 hours’ time difference between the easternmost and
westernmost parts of the country.
Reason (R) India has variations of nearly 30 degrees in its longitudinal extent.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Read the passage and answer the questions carefully.


The mainland of India, extends from Kashmir in the north to Kanniyakumari in the
south and Arunachal Pradesh in the east to Gujarat in the west. India's territorial limit
further extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km) from the
coast. Our southern boundary extends up to 6°45' N latitude in the Bay of Bengal.
Let us try to analyse the implications of having such a vast longitudinal and latitudinal
extent. If you work out the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India, they are roughly
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about 30 degrees, whereas the actual distance measured from north to south
extremity is 3214 km, and that from east to west is only 2933 km. This difference is
based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the
poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere.
Find out the distance between two latitudes? From the values of latitude, it is
understood that the southern part of the country lies within the tropics and the
northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This location
is responsible for large variations in land forms. Climate, soil types and natural
vegetation in the country. Now, let us observe the longitudinal extent and its
implications on the Indian people. From the values of longitude. it is quite discernible
that there is a variation of nearly 30 degrees, which causes a time difference of
nearly two hours between the easternmost and the westernmost parts of our country.
You are familiar with the concept of Indian Standard Time (IST). What is the use of
the standard meridian? While the sun rises in the north-eastern states about two
hours earlier as compared to Jaisalmer, the watches in Dibrugarh, Imphal in the east
and Jaisalmer, Bhopal or Chennai in the other parts of India show the same time.
58. What is the range of longitudinal extent of India?
[a] 25°
[b] 30°
[c] 15°
[d] 82°
Ans: [b] 30°
59. The landmass of India to the north of tropic of cancer lies in which of the following
zones?
[a] Tropical zone
[b] Equatorial zone
[c] Warm temperate zone
[d] Tundra zone
Ans: [c] Warm temperate zone
60. What is the main reason behind the difference in time zone in eastern and western
states of India?
[a] Latitudinal variation
[b] Climatic variations
[c] Longitudinal variation
[d] Altitudinal variation
Ans: [c] Longitudinal variation
61. The sun will rise most late in which of the following states-
[a] Gujarat
[b] Madhya Pradesh
[c] Arunachal Pradesh
[d] Tamil Nadu
Ans: [a] Gujarat

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The size of India has endowed her with great physical diversity. Thus. you may
appreciate the presence of lofty mountains in the north; large rivers such as Ganga,
Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri; green forested hills in
northeast and south India; and the vast sandy expanse of Marusthali. You may
further appreciate that bounded by the Himalayas in the north. Hindukush and
Sulaiman ranges in the north-west. Purvachal hills in the north-east and by the large
expanse of the Indian ocean in the south, it forms a great geographic entity known as
the Indian subcontinent. It includes the countries — Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan,
Bangladesh and India. the Himalayas. together with other ranges. have acted as a
formidable physical barrier in the past. Except for a few mountain passes such as the
Khyber, the Bolan, the Shipkila, the Nathula, the Bomdila etc. it was difficult to cross
it. It has contributed towards the evolving of a unique regional identity of the Indian

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subcontinent. By referring to the physical map of India you can now describe the
physical variations which you would come across while travelling from Kashmir to
Kanniyakumari and from Jaisalmer in Rajasthan to Imphal in Manipur. Peninsular
part of India extends towards the Indian Ocean. This has provided the country with a
coastline of 6.100 km in the mainland.
62 Which of the following country is not included in the Indian sub-continent?
[a] Pakistan
[b] Sri Lanka
[c] Bhutan
[d] Nepal
Ans: [b] Sri Lanka
63 Which of the following physical feature has helped the country in evolving a unique
regional identity of India?
[a] Peninsular plateau
[b] Himalayan mountain ranges
[c] Western Ghats
[d] Plains
Ans: [b] Himalayan Mountain ranges
64 India shares its maritime borders with which of the following country
[a] Maldives
[b] Madagascar
[c] Singapore
[d] Seychelles
Ans: [a] Maldives
65 The length of coastline in the Indian mainland is-
[a] 7517 km
[b] 6100 km
[c] 2500 km
[d] 3500km
Ans: [b] 6100 km

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CHAPTER-3: DRAINAGE

Trellis: The primary *River water can be


Dendritic: resembling tributaries of rivers flow used for irrigation of
like the branches of a parallel to each other & fields.
tree secondary tributaries join
them at right angles *Produce Hydro-
electricity.
Radial: Rivers
*Recreational activities
originate from a IMPORTANT DRAINAGE PATTERN
such as fishing. Water-
hill and flow in
sports etc.
all directions

;
Centripetal: The rivers
discharge their water from all DRAINAGE SYSTEM Usability of River Water
directions in a lake or
depression

The Peninsular River System


The Himalayan River System

The Indus River System: Mahanadi: Rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of
Chhattisgarh
*One of the largest river basin of the world.
Godavari: Rises in Nasik district of Maharashtra.
*Covers an area of 11, 65,000 sq. km & total length is
2880 km.It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu It is also known as Dakshin Ganga.
in Kailash Mountain range.
Krishna: Rises near Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri.
The Ganga River System:
Kaveri: Rises in Brahmagiri hills of Kogadu district
*It is the most important river of India. of Karnataka.

*It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh. Narmada: Rises in the western flank of the
Amarkantak plateau.
*It has a total length of 2525 km & covers an area of
8.6 lakh sq km. Tapi: Originates from Multai in the Betul district of
Madhya Pradesh.
The Brahmaputra System:
Luni: Originates near Pushkar.
*One of the largest river of the world, has its origin in
the Chemayungdung Glacier of the Kailash range near
Mansarovar lake.

*In Tibet it is known as Tsangpo (the purifier)

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CHAPTER-3 DRAINAGE SYSTEMS
Important Terms:
*Drainage: The flow of water through well-defined channels is known as ‘drainage.’
*Drainage System: The network of drainage channels is called a ‘drainage system’.
*Dendritic Drainage System: The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree
is known as “dendritic” the examples of which are the rivers of northern plain.
*Radial Drainage System: When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all
directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’. The rivers originating from the
Amarkantak range present a good example of it.
*Trellis: When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and
secondary tributaries join them at right angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’.
*Centripetal Drainage System: When the rivers discharge their waters from all
directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is known as ‘centripetal’.
*Catchment area: A river drains the water collected from a specific area, which is
called its ‘catchment area’.
*Drainage Basin: An area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a drainage
basin.
*Watershed: The boundary line separating one drainage basin from the other is
known as the watershed.
*Sorrow of Bengal: River Damodar is also known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ as it
changes its course very frequently and causes floods in Bihar.
*Sorrow of Bihar: River Kosi is called Sorrow of Bihar.
*River System: A river or a river system is a body of water flowing in a channel
through the surface of the earth. It consists of four important parts: river course, river
source, tributaries and river mouth.
*River Source: A place at which begins or originates. This is usually found in
mountainous areas. The source may be melting snow from the top of a mountain on
a lake with stream flowing out of it. A river flow downhill from its source due to the
force of gravity
*River Course: The path on which the river flows along.
*Singi Khamban or Lion’s mouth: Kailash Mountain range is known as ‘Singi
Khamban; or Lion’s mouth in Tibet.
*Regime: The pattern of flow of water in a river channel over a year is known as its
regime.
*Cusecs: It means cubic feet per second.
*Cumecs: It stands for cubic metres per second.

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On the basis of discharge of water (orientations to the sea), it may be grouped into:
1. The Arabian Sea drainage; and
2. The Bay of Bengal drainage.

Nearly 77 per cent of the drainage area consisting of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra,
the Mahanadi, the Krishna, etc. is oriented towards the Bay of Bengal while 23 per
cent comprising the Indus, the Narmada, the Tapi, the Mahi and the Periyar systems
discharge their waters in the Arabian Sea.
On the basis of the size of the watershed, the drainage basins of India are grouped
into three categories: Major river basins with more than 20,000 sq. km of catchment
area. It includes 14 drainage basins such as the Ganga, the Brahmaputra, the
Krishna, the Tapi, the Narmada, the Mahi, the Penner, the Sabarmati, the Barak, etc.
Medium river basins with catchment area between 2,000-20,000 sq. km
incorporating 44 river basins such as the Kalindi, the Periyar, the Meghna, etc.
Minor river basins with catchment area of less than 2,000 sq. km include fairly good
number of rivers flowing in the area of low rainfall.

THE HIMALAYAN RIVER SYSTEM


INDUS RIVER SYSTEM:
The Indus System is one of the largest river basins of the world, covering an area of
11, 65,000 sq. km (in India it is 321, 289 sq. km) and a total length of 2,880 km and
in India its length is 1,114 km.It originates from a glacier near Bokhar chu in the
Tibetan region at an altitude of 4164min the Kailash Mountain range. The Indus
receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, Gilgit, Nubra, Hunza,
Shigar.Dras etc. The Indus flows in India only through the Leh district in Jammu &
Kashmir.
The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a spring at Verinag
situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir.
It flows through Srinagar and the Wular Lake before entering Pakistan through a
deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the
Chandra and the Bhaga, which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh.
Hence, it is also known as Chandrabhaga.
The Ravi is another important tributary of the Indus. It rises west of the Rohtang pass
in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba valley of the
state.
The Beas is another important tributary of the Indus, originating from the Beas Kund
near the Rohtang Pass at an elevation of 4,000 m above the mean sea level. The
river flows through the Kullu valley and forms gorges at Kati and Largi in the
Dhaoladhar rang
Satluj river flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India,
and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the
Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river. It is a very
important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project.

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GANGA RIVER SYSTEM:
The Ganga System rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the
Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through
the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Devprayag, the
Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda
has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at
Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar
join it at Kama Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
The Ganga river has a length of 2,525 km. It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and
Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal (520 km).
The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km area in India alone. The Ganga river
system is the largest in India having a number of perennial and non-perennial rivers
originating in the Himalayas in the north and the Peninsula in the south, respectively.
The Son is its major right bank tributary. The important left bank tributaries are the
Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda.
The Yamuna is the western most and the longest tributary of the Ganga. It has its
source in the Yamunotri glacier on the western slopes of Banderpunch range (6,316
km). It joins the Ganga at Prayag in Allahabad. It is joined by the Chambal, the Sind,
the Betwa and the Ken on its right bank which originates from the Peninsular plateau
while the Hindan, the Rind, the Sengar, the Varuna, etc. join it on its left bank.
The Chambal rises near Mhow in the Malwa plateau of Madhya Pradesh and flows
northwards through a gorge up wards of Kota in Rajasthan, where the Gandhisagar
dam has been constructed. From Kota, it traverses down to Bundi, Sawai Madhopur
and Dholpur, and finally joins the Yamuna.
The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kaligandak and Trishulganga. It rises in
the Nepal Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest and drains the
central part of Nepal.
THE BRAHMAPUTRA RIVER SYSTEM
The Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers of the world. It has its origin in the
Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake.
The Brahmaputra receives numerous tributaries in its 750 km long journey through
the Assam valley. Its major left bank tributaries are the Burhi Dihing and Dhansari
(South) whereas the important right bank tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng,
Manas and Sankosh.. The Subansiri which has its origin in Tibet, is an antecedent
river.
THE PENINSULAR RIVER SYSYEM
The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan one. This is evident
from the broad, largely-graded shallow valleys, and the maturity of the rivers.
Most of the major Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east.
The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken, the Son, originating in the northern part
of the Peninsula belong to the Ganga river system. The other major river systems of
the Peninsular drainage are – the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the
Kaveri. Peninsular rivers are characterised by fixed course, absence of meanders
and non- perennial flow of water.

Page 62 of 94
There are some problems in river water usage. Some of these are:
1. No availability in sufficient quantity.
2. River water pollution.
3. Load of silt in the river water.
4. Uneven seasonal flow of water.
5. River water disputes between states.
6. Shrinking of channels due to the extension of settlements towards the thawed

Page 63 of 94
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Name a river of antecedent drainage.
(a) Indus
(b) Godavari
(c) Narmada
(d) Padma
Answer: A

2. Which is the north-flowing tributary of Ganga?


(a) Kosi
(b) Ghaghra
(c) Son
(d) Chambal
Answer: C

3. A relief which divides two areas drained by the river is known as


(a) Watershed
(b) River basin
(c) Drainage pattern
(d) Water management
Answer: A

Page 64 of 94
4. Name the source of the Krishna River.
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Mahableshwar
(d) ZanskarValley
Answer: C

5. In the mountainous course, the Himalayan rivers form


(a) Meander
(b) Gorges
(c) Braided channels
(d) Delta
Answer: B

6. Which one of the following rivers is known as the Sorrow of Bengal?


(a) Gandak
(b) Kosi
(c) Son
(d) Damodar
Answer: D

7. What is the source of the Jhelum River?


(a) Zanskar Valley
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Wular lake
Answer: D

8. Which region has the youngest rivers in India?


(a) the Eastern Ghats
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Deccan plateau
Answer: C

9. River Kaveri flows through


(a) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat
(b) Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu
Answer: D

10. Name the main watershed of Peninsular rivers.


(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) the Eastern Ghats
(d) Himalayan Mountains
Answer: B

11. Name the source of River Indus.


(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Gangotri
(d) Zanskar Valley
Answer: B

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12. Name an important river of Peninsular India forming an estuary at its mouth.
(a) Ganga
(b) Godawari
(c) Narmada
(d) Padma
Answer: C

13. In mountainous course, the Himalayan rivers form


(a) Meander.
(b) Gorges.
(c) Braided channels.
(d) Delta.
Answer: B

14. Which is the largest of all the west-flowing rivers of the Peninsula?
(a) The Luni
(b) The Mahi
(c) The Narmada
(d) The Sabarmati
Answer: C

15. Which is the second largest river basin in India?


(a) Gangetic
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Narmada
Answer: B

16. Which of the following is not a tributary of the Indus River?


(a) Shyok
(b) Gilgit
(c) Zaskar
(d) Luni
Answer: D

17. The Mahanadi flows in


(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Orissa
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: C

18. From where does the Chenab originate?


(a) Rohtang Pass
(b) Khardung La
(c) Nathu La
(d) Bara Lacha Pass
Answer: D

19. The tributary of Indus River is


(a) Kosi.
(b) Jhelum.
(c) Padma.
(d) Tungabhadra.
Answer: B

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20. Which is the river basin with the largest catchment area?
(a) Ganga
(b) Indus
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Answer: A

21. The largest riverine island in India is-


(a) Lohit
(b) Raghopur
(c) Majuli
(d) Lakra
Answer: C

22. Which of the following region is famous for the world’s largest reserve of Barytes?
(a) Chauka hills
(b) Jaisalmer
(c) Ratnagiri
(d) Cuddapah
Answer: D

23. Which dam is built on the Mahanadi?


(a) Bhakra Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(d) Sardar Sarovar Dam
Answer: B

24. In the end of its mountainous journey at Attock, Indus river is joined by which river
from Afghanistan?
(a) Amu Darya
(b) Kabul river
(c) Helmand river
(d) Hari river
Answer: B

25. On the basis of regional distribution the Indian drainage system is categorised into:
(a) two
(b) four
(c) three
(d) five
Answer: A

26. Which of the following affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river?
(a) Aquatic organisms
(b) Drawing of water for irrigation
(c) Hydroelectricity generation
(d) Pollution
Answer: D

27. Which is the largest of all the west-flowing rivers of the Peninsula?
(a) The Luni
(b) The Mahi
(c) The Narmada
(d) The Sabarmati
Answer: C

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28. What is the total length of the river Ganga?
(a) 2900 Kms
(b) 2500 Kms
(c) 2700 Kms
(d) 2300 Kms
Answer: B

29. The largest tributary of Indus is


(a) Chandra
(b) Bhaga
(c) Chenab
(d) Son
Answer: C

30. Which is not a tributary of the Indus?


(a) Kosi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Ravi
Answer: A

31. Which is the largest river basin in India?


(a) Kaveri
(b) Yamuna
(c) Ganga
(d) Son
Answer: C

32. Name the source of Krishna River.


(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Mahableshwar
(d) ZanskarValley
Answer: C

33. Which one of the following rivers has the largest river basin in India ?
(a) The Indus
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) The Ganga
(d) The Krishna
Answer: C

34. A river along with its tributaries is known as _______ .


(a) River system
(b) Delta
(c) George
(d) Estuaries
Answer: A

35. Which river forms a picturesque gorge in Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Indus
(b) Sutlej
(c) Beas
(d) Ravi
Answer: A

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36. The Ganga has its minimum flow during
(a) August-September
(b) January-June
(c) May-June
(d) July-August
Answer: B

37. In the final stage before meeting the seas and oceans, river breakup into various
streams called as
(a) Tributaries
(b) Deltas
(c) Estuaries
(d) Distributaries
Answer: D

38. What is the source of Jhelum River?


(a) Zanskar Valley
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Wular lake
Answer: D

39. The Brahmaputra River, while flowing outside India is popularly known
as……………..
(a) Lohit
(b) Dihang
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Tsangpo
Answer: D

40. The two head streams of the Ganga unite at?


(a) Haridwar
(b) Lucknow
(c) Dev Prayag
(d) Delhi
Answer: C

41. Which one of the following does not belong to antecedent rivers in respect of all
three parallel ranges of Himalayas?
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Ganga
(c) Ghaghra
(d) Gola
Answer: D

42. Which one of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and the
Bhagirathihi?
(a) Vishnu Prayag
(b) Rudra Prayag
(c) Karan Prayag
(d) Dev Prayag
Answer: D

43. Watershed is also known as


(a) Catchment area

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(b) Dendritic
(c) Trellis
(d) Radial
Answer: A

44. Which river has its source outside of India?


(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Jhelum
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer: D

45. Where does the Chambal rise?


(a) Dewas
(b) Dhar
(c) Khargone
(d) Mhow
Answer: D

46. Which river rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh?


(A) Yamuna
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga
(d) Son
Answer: C

47. The length of Brahmaputra is


(a) 850 km.
(b) 750 km.
(c) 800 km.
(d) 700 km.
Answer: B

48. The Indus and Brahmaputra river originates from the north of ……………….
mountain ranges.
(a) Gangotri glacier
(b) Mansarovar Lake
(c) Yamunotri Glacier
(d) Himalaya
Answer: D

49. Canal irrigation is widely prevalent in which of the following states of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: A

50. The Dibang and the Lohit are the tributaries of the river
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Narmada
(c) Godavari
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer: D

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51. When an elevated area of mountain and upland separates two drainage basin, such
upland is known as
(a) Water divides
(b) George
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: A

52. Sahibi River originates in which of the following districts?


(a) Yamunanagar
(b) Rohtak
(c) Mewat
(d) Bhiwani
Answer: C

53. From where does the Chenab originate?


(a) Rohtang Pass
(b) Khardung La
(c) Nathu La
(d) Bara Lacha Pass
Answer: D

54. Yamuna enters Haryana from the district of


(a) Yamunanagar
(b) Kaithal
(c) Bhiwani
(d) Karnal
Answer: A

55. The Ghaggar river does not passes through which of the following district of
Haryana?
(a) Kaithal
(b) Bhiwani
(c) Fatehabad
(d) Sirsa
Answer: B

56. Indori is a tributary of which of the following rivers?


(a) Dohan
(b) Sahibi
(c) Raka
(d) Yamuna
Answer: B

57. The Tajewala barrage is located in the district of


(a) Karnal
(b) Yamunanagar
(c) Panipat
(d) Sonipat
Answer: B

58. Which one of the following does not belong to antecedent rivers in respect of lesser
and outer ranges of Himalayas?
(a) Gola
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ramganga

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(d) Ravi
Answer: A

59. The Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum are the major tributaries to the river
……………..
(a) Ganges
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Indus
(d) Godavari
Answer: C

60. The world’s longest river is-


(a) Nile
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Amazon
(d) Mississippi
Answer: A

61. Jamshedpur steel plant is located at the confluence of the rivers Subarnarekha and-
(a) Damodar
(b) Kosi
(c) Kharkai
(d) Sone
Answer: A

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

62. Assertion (A) Narmada and Tapi flow in rift valley.


Reason (R) Narmada and Tapi drain in the Bay of Bengal.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [c]
63. Assertion (A) River Kosi is called the sorrow of Bihar.
Reason (R) It causes devastating floods.
[a] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
[b] A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
[c] A is false but R is true.
[d] A is true but R is false.
Ans: [a]

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin
and cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in
the
Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through
the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Devprayag, the
Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda
has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists of
the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The
other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while
Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag. The Ganga enters the plains at
Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before
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splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Hugli. The river has a
length of 2,525 km. It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450
kin), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal (520 km). The Ganga basin covers about 8.6
lakh sq. km area in India alone. The Ganga River system is the largest in India
having a number of perennial and non-perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in
the north and the Peninsula in the south, respectively. The Son is its major right bank
tributary. The important left bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the
Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda. The river finally discharges
itself into the Bay of Bengal.
64. River Ganga enters the great plains in which of the following states
[a] Himachal Pradesh
[b] Uttarakhand
[c] Punjab
[d] Haryana
Ans: [b] Uttarakhand
65. Ganga forms the world’s largest delta in Bay of Bengal along with which other river?
[a] Kosi
[b] Yamuna
[c] Brahmaputra
[d] Son
Ans: [c] Brahmaputra
66. The flow of Ganga is characterised by which of the following landforms in the
Himalayan regions?
[a] Meanders
[b] Gorges
[c] Deltas
[d] Lakes
Ans: [b] Gorges
67. Rudra prayag is the confluence of which of the following rivers?
[a] Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
[b] Alaknanda and Pindar
[c] Mandakini and Alaknanda
[d] Ganga and Yamuna
Ans: [c] Mandakini and Alaknanda

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
There are a large number of river systems in the Peninsular drainage. A brief
account of the major Peninsular River systems is given below:
The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through
Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its
catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km. Some navigation is carried on in the
lower course of this river. Fifty-three percent of the drainage basin of this river lies in
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, while 47 percent lies in Odisha. The Godavari is
the largest Peninsular River system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in
the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. Its
tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh.
Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading
over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49 per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya
Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the rest in Andhra Pradesh. The Penganga, the
Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its principal tributaries. The Godavari is
subjected to heavy floods in Its lower reaches to the south of Polavararn, where it
forms a picturesque gorge. It is navigable only in the deltaic stretch. The river after
Rajamundri splits into several branches forming a large delta.
The Krishna is the second largest east-flowing Peninsular River which rises near
Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra
and the Bhima are its major tributaries. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27

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per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra
Pradesh. The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1341m) of Kogadu district in
Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the
upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest monsoon season
(summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river
carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other
Peninsular rivers. About 3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in Kerala, 41 per cent in
Karnataka and 56 per cent in Tamil Nadu. Its important tributaries are the Kabini, the
Bhavani and the Amravati.
68. Which is the largest peninsular river of India?
[a] Kaveri
[b] Godavari
[c] Narmada
[d] Krishna
Ans: [b] Godavari
69. Which of the following is the southernmost peninsular river?
[a] Narmada
[b] Luni
[c] Kaveri
[d] Godavari
Ans: (b) Kaveri
70. Which one is not the tributary of river Godavari?
[a] Tungabhadra
[b] Penganga
[c] Pranhita
[d] Manjira
Ans: [a] Tungabhadra
71. Which of the following river drains into the Arabian Sea?
[a] Krishna
[b] Mahanadi
[c] Godavari
[d] Narmada
Ans: [d] Narmada

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CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO MAPS
The history of map making is as old as the history of mankind itself. The oldest map
was found in Mesopotamia drawn on a clay tablet that belongs to 2,500 B.C.
Greek and Arab geographers laid the foundation of modern cartography. The
measurement of the circumference of the Earth and the use of the system of
geographical coordinates in map-making are some of the significant contributions of
the Greeks and the Arabs.
The art and science of map making was revitalised in early modern period, with
extensive efforts made to minimise the effects of the transformation of the geoid onto
a plane surface.
The maps were drawn on different projections to obtain true directions, correct
distances and to measure area accurately. The aerial photography supplemented the
ground method of survey and the uses of aerial photographs stimulated map-making
in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.

The foundation of map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period when the
expressions of astronomical truths and cosmological revelations were made. The
expressions were crystallised into ‘sidhantas’ or laws in classical treaties of Arya
Bhatta, Varahamihira and Bhaskara, and others. Ancient Indian scholars divided the
known world into seven ‘dwipas’. Mahabharata conceived a round world surrounded
by water.
Todarmal pioneered land surveying and map-making as an integral part of the
revenue collection procedure. Besides, Sher Shah Suri’s revenue maps further
enriched the mapping techniques during the medieval period.
The intensive topographical surveys for the preparation of up-to-date maps of the
entire country, were taken up with the setting up of the Survey of India in 1767, which
culminated with the map of Hindustan in 1785. Today, the Survey of India produces
maps at different scales for the entire country.
On the basis of scale, maps may be classified into large-scale and small-scale.
Large scale maps are drawn to show small areas at a relatively large-scale. For
example, the topographical maps drawn at a scale of 1: 250,000,1:50,000 or
1:25,000 and the village maps, the zonal plans of the cities and house plans
prepared on a scale of 1:4,000, 1:2,000 and 1:500 are large scale maps.
On the contrary, Small-scale maps are drawn to show large areas. For example,
atlas maps, wall maps, etc.
Large-scale maps may be shown as Cadastral maps and Topographical maps
The cadastral maps are prepared by the government agencies to realise revenue
and taxes, along with keeping a record of ownership. These maps are drawn on a
very large scale, such as the cadastral maps of villages at 1: 4,000 scale and the city
plans at a scale of 1: 2,000 and larger.
Topographical Maps are also prepared on a fairly large scale. The topographical
maps are based on precise surveys and are prepared in the form of series of maps
made by the national mapping agencies of almost all countries of the world.
Small-scale maps are further divided into Wall Maps and Atlas Maps.
Wall Maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in
classrooms or lecture halls. The scale of wall maps is generally smaller than the
scale of topographical maps but larger than atlas maps.

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Atlas Maps are very small-scale maps. These maps represent fairly large areas and
present highly generalised picture of the physical or cultural features.
Broadly, maps based on their functions may be classified into physical maps and
cultural maps. Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils,
drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc.
Relief maps show general topography of an area like mountains and valleys, plains,
plateaus and drainage. Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures,
rock types, etc.
Climatic Maps depict climatic regions of an area. Besides, maps are also drawn to
show the distribution of temperature.
Rotameter is an instrument used to measure distance on a map and Planimeter is an
instrument used to measure area on a map.
The linear features shown on the maps fall into two broad categories, i.e. straight
lines and erratic or zigzag lines. The measurement of straight line features like roads,
railway lines and canals is simple. It can be taken directly with a pair of dividers or a
scale placed on the map surface.
The processes that may also be referred to as essentials of maps are:
1. Scale
2. Map Projection
3. Map Generalisation
4. Map Design
5. Map Construction and Production

Introduction to Maps Important Terms


*Maps: A map is a simplified depiction of whole or part of the earth on a piece of
paper. In other words, it is a two-dimensional form of the three-dimensional earth.
*Geoid: An oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the Earth.
*Cadastral map: It is a large-scale map drawn at a scale of 1: 500 to 1: 4000 to show
property boundaries, designating each parcel of land with a number.
*Cardinal points: North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W) are called cardinal
points.
*Cartography: It is an art, science and technology of making maps, charts, plans and
other modes of graphical expression as well as their study and use.
*Map series: It is a group of maps produced at same scale, style and specifications
for a country or a region.
*Map projection: The system of the transformation of the spherical surface onto a
plane surface is called map projection.
*Scale: The ratio between the distances of two points on the map, plan or
photograph and the actual distance between the same two points on the ground is
called scale.
*Direction: Direction is defined as an imaginary straight line on the map showing the
angular position to a common base direction.
*Zero direction or the base direction line: The line pointing to the north is zero
direction or the base direction line.
*Rotameter: It is an instrument used to measure distance on a map.
*Sketch map: It is a simplified map drawn freehand which fails to preserve the true
scale or orientation.
*Large-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show small areas at a relatively large-
scale. For example, the topographical maps drawn at a scale of 1: 250,000,1: 50,000
or 1: 25,000 and the village maps, the zonal plans of the cities and house plans
prepared on a scale of 1 : 4,000, 1 : 2,000 and 1 : 500 are large scale maps.
*Small-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show large areas. For example, atlas
maps, wall maps, etc.
*The cadastral maps: These maps are prepared by the government agencies to
realise revenue and taxes, along with keeping a record of ownership. These maps

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are drawn on a very large scale, such as the cadastral maps of villages at 1: 4,000
scale and the city plans at a scale of 1 : 2,000 and larger.
*Topographical maps: The topographical maps are based on precise surveys and
are prepared in the form of series of maps made by the national mapping agencies
of almost all countries of the world. These maps are also prepared on a fairly large
scale.
*Wall maps: These maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base
for use in classrooms or lecture halls. The scale of wall maps is generally smaller
than the scale of topographical maps but larger than atlas maps.
*Atlas maps: These maps are very small-scale maps. These maps represent fairly
large areas and present highly generalised picture of the physical or cultural
features.
*Physical maps: Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils,
drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc.
*Relief maps: Relief maps show general topography of an area like mountains and
valleys, plains, plateaus and drainage.
*Geological maps: Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rock
types, etc.
*Climatic Maps: Climatic Maps depict climatic regions of an area. Besides, maps are
also drawn to show the distribution of temperature.
*Cultural maps: Cultural maps show man-made features. These include a variety of
maps showing population distribution and growth, sex and age, social and religious
composition, literacy, levels of educational attainment, occupational structure,
location of settlements, facilities and services, transportation lines and production,
distribution and flow of different commodities.
*Political maps: These maps show the administrative divisions of an area such as
country, state or district. These maps facilitate the administrative machinery in
planning and management of the concerned administrative unit.
*Population maps: The population maps are drawn to show the distribution, density
and growth of population, age and sex composition, distribution of religious, linguistic
and social groups, occupational structure of the population, etc.
*Economic maps: Economic maps depict production and distribution of different
types of crops and minerals, location of industries and markets, routes for trade and
flow of commodities.
*Transportation maps: These maps show roads, railway lines and the location of
railway stations and airports.
*Planimeter: It is an instrument used to measure area on a map.
*Generalisation map: It is a simplified representation of the features on the map,
appropriate to its scale or purpose, without affecting their visual form.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a type of physical map?


(а) Relief Map
(b) Geological Maps
(c) Climate Maps
(d) Transportation Maps
Answer: (d) transportation Maps

2. Which of the following is not a type of cultural maps?


(а) Political Maps
(b) Population Maps
(c) Soil Maps
(d) Economic Maps
Answer: (c) Soil Maps

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3. What is shown under geological maps?
(a) Temperature and rain
(b) Plateaus, plains and mountains
(c) Geological structure, types of rocks
(d) Types of Soils
Answer: (c) Geological structure, types of rocks

4. Which of the following is not an essential for map making?


(a) Scale
(b) Map Design
(c) Sketch
(d) Map Generalization
Answer: (c) Sketch

5. A system of transformation of the spherical surface to the plane surface is called:


(a) Map projection
(b) Geoid
(c) Map Designing
(d) Sketch
Answer:(a) Map Projection

6. An oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the Earth is called:
(a) Map projection
(b) Geoid
(c) Map Designing
(d) Sketch
Answer: (b) Geoid

7. Which of the following is not relief map?


(a) Mountain
(b) Plateau
(c) Soil
(d) Plains
Answer: (c) Soil

8. When was Survey of India established?


(a) 1767
(b)1772
(c) 1785
(d) 1905
Answer :(a)1767

9. When was first map was made by India by Survey of India?


(a) 1767
(b)1772
(c) 1785
(d) 1905
Answer: (c) 1785

10. What is not shown under climate maps?


(a) Temperature
(b) Direction of winds
(c) Rain
(d) Ecological System
Answer: (d) Ecological System

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11. In how many continents have Indian ancient scholars divided the world?
(a) Seven
(b) Five
(c) none
(d) Eleven
Answer: (a) Seven

VIVA QUESTIONS
12. Why is Rotameter used?
Answer: Rotameter is an instrument used to measure distance on a map.

13. Why is Planimeter used?


Answer: Planimeter is an instrument used to measure area on a map.

14. Where was oldest map found?


Answer: The oldest map was found in Mesopotamia drawn on a clay tablet that
belongs to 2,500 B.C.

15. Which maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in
classrooms or lecture halls?
Answer: Wall maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for
use in classrooms or lecture halls.

16. What do we call a system of transformation of the spherical surface to the plane
surface?
Answer: Map Projection.

17. What do we call an oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the
Earth?
Answer: Geoid.

18. When was Survey of India established?


Answer: 1767.

19. When was first map made by Survey of India?


Answer: 1785.

20. Question 9. In how many continents have Indian ancient scholars divided the
world?
Answer: Seven.

Page 79 of 94
CHAPTER 2 MAP SCALE
A map scale provides the relationship between the map and the whole or a part of
the earth’s surface shown on it. We can also express this relationship as a ratio of
distances between two points on the map and the corresponding distance between
the same two points on the ground.
There are three methods of presenting scale:
1. By scale statement;
2. by graphical or bar scale and
3. by representative fraction.

Kilometre, metre, centimetre etc. are used to measure the linear distances between
two points on the ground. It is referred to as the Metric System of Measurement and
presently used in India and many other countries of the world.
Metric System of Measurement 1 km = 1000 Metres 1 Metre = 100 Centimetres 1
Centimetre = 10 Millimetres
Another units which are used are miles, furlongs, yards, feet, etc. These are two
different systems of measurement of the distances used in different countries of the
world. It is known as the English System of Measurement and is prevalent in both the
United States and the United Kingdom. India also used this system for
measuring/showing linear distances before 1957.
English System of Measurement
1 Mile = 8 Furlongs
1 Furlong = 220 Yards
1 Yard = 3 feet
1 Foot = 12 Inches

Map Scale Important Terms


*Denominator: The number below the line in a fraction is called denominator. For
example, in a fraction of 1 : 20,000, 20,000 is the denominator.
*Numerator: The number above the line in a fraction is called numerator. For
example, in a fraction of 1 : 20,000, 1 is the numerator.
*Representative Fraction: It is a method of scale of a map or plan expressed as a
fraction showing the ratio between a unit distance on the map or plan, and the
distance measured in the same units on the ground.
*Statement of Scale: The scale of a map may be indicated in the form of a written
statement. For example, if on a map a written statement appears stating 1 cm
represents 10 km, it means that on that map a distance of 1 cm is representing 10
km of the corresponding ground distance.
*Graphical or Bar Scale: It shows map distances and the corresponding ground
distances using a line bar with primary and secondary divisions marked on it. This is
referred to as the graphical scale or bar scale.
*Scale: The ratio between the distances of two points on the map, plan or
photograph and the actual distance between the same two points on the ground is
called scale.

Page 80 of 94
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following methods of scale remain unaffected on reducing the size of
the map proportionally?
(а) By Scale Statement
(b) By representative Fraction
(c) By graphical or bar scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) By graphical or bar scale

2. Which of the following is an example of representative fraction?


(a) Centimetre
(b) Metre
(c) Inch
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above

3. When the scale of a map is expressed in a written statement, it is called:


(a) Statement of Scale
(b) Graphical Method
(c) Representative fraction
(d) Conversion of scale
Answer: (a) Statement of Scale

4. Map distances and the corresponding ground distances using a line bar with primary
and secondary divisions marked on it. This is referred to as what?
(a) Statement of Scale
(b) Graphical Method
(c) Representative fraction
(d) Conversion of scale
Answer: (b) Graphical Method

5. When scale is represented as a ratio distance on map and distance on ground, it is


called:
(a) Statement of Scale
(b) Graphical Method
(c) Representative fraction
(d) Conversion of scale
Answer: (c) Representative fraction

6. What is the formula for representative Fraction?

Answer:

Page 81 of 94
VIVA QUESTIONS

7. According to English System of Measurement, convert 1 Mile into furlongs, yards,


feet and inches.
Answer: 1 mile = 8 Furlongs = 1720 yards = 5280 feet
1 Furlong = 220 Yards = 660 feet = 7920 inches
1 Yard = 3 feet = =36 inch. 1 Foot = 12 Inches

8. Give formula for representative fraction.


Answer: Representative fraction is equal to distance on map divided by distance on
ground.

9. If less space is available, what kind of scale will you choose?


Answer: Large Scale

10. If you wish to study minor details of a map what kind of scale will you choose?
Answer: Small Scale

11. What are different methods of showing scale on a map?


Answer: There are three methods of presenting scale:
By scale statement;
by graphical or bar scale and
by representative fraction.

12. What is the unit in representative fraction?


Answer: There is no unit in representative fraction.

Page 82 of 94
CHAPTER 3 LATITUDE, LONGITUDE AND TIME
The value of equator is 0° and the latitude of the poles are 90°N and 90°S. If the
earth were a perfect sphere, the length of 1° of latitude (a one degree arc of a
meridian) would be a constant value, i.e. Ill km everywhere on the earth. But on
equator this distance is 110.61cm and on poles, it is 111.7 km.
There are 90 southern latitudes and 90 northern latitudes and 180 eastern longitudes
and 180 western longitudes.
For convenience of numbering, the meridian of longitude passing through the
Greenwich observatory (near London) has been adopted as the Prime Meridian by
an international agreement and has been given the value of 0°.
The longitudes vary from 0° to 180° eastward and westward of the Prime Meridian.
The part of the earth east of the Prime Meridian is called the eastern hemisphere and
in its west referred to as the western hemisphere.
The distance between latitudes is approximately two longitudes is 111 km maximum
at the equator (111.3 km) and minimum at the poles (0 km). Midway, at 45° of
latitude, it is 79 km.
There are 360° of longitude, 180° each in the east and west of the Prime Meridian.
The latitudes are used to determine the local time.
The rotation of the earth over its axis takes 24 hours to complete one circle or 360°
of longitudes. As 180° of longitudes fall both east and west of the Prime Meridian, the
sun, thus takes 12 hours’ time to traverse the eastern and western hemispheres. In
other words, the sun traverses 15° of longitudes per hour or one degree of longitude
in every four minutes of time.
The time decreases when we move from west to east and increases with our
westward movement. The rate of the time at which the sun traverses over certain
degrees of longitudes is used to determine the local time of an area with respect to
the time at the Prime Meridian (0° Longitude).
The Indian Standard Time is calculated from 82°30’E meridian passing through
Mirzapur. Therefore, 1ST is plus 5.30 hours from the GMT ((82°30’ x 4) (60 minutes
= 5 hours 30 minutes).
All countries of the world choose the standard meridian within their territory to
determine the time within their administrative boundaries. The countries with large
east-west span may choose more than one standard meridian to get more than one
time zone such as Russia, Canada and the United States of America.
While the world is divided into 24 time zones, there has to be a place where there is
a difference in days, somewhere the day truly “starts” on the planet. The 180° line of
longitude is approximately where the International Date Line passes.
The time at this longitude is exactly 12 hours from the 0° longitude, irrespective of
one travels westward or eastward from the Prime Meridian. Time decreases east of
the Prime Meridian and increases to its west. Hence, for a person moving east of the
Prime Meridian, the time would be 12 hours less than the time at 0° longitude. For
another person moving westward, the time would be 12 hours more than the Prime
Meridian. For example, a person moving eastward on Tuesday will count the day as
Wednesday once the International Date Line is crossed. Similarly, another person
starting his journey on the same day, but moving westward will count the day as
Monday after crossing the line.

Latitude, Longitude and Time Important Terms


*Parallels of Latitude: The parallels of latitude refer to the angular distance, in
degrees, minutes and seconds of a point north or south of the Equator. Lines of
latitude are often referred to as parallels.
*Meridians of Longitude: The meridians of longitude refer to the angular distance, in
degrees, minutes, and seconds, of a point east or west of the Prime (Greenwich)
Meridian. Lines of longitude are often referred to as meridians.

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*Geographical Coordinates: The latitudes and longitudes are commonly referred to
as geographical coordinates as they provide systematic network of lin es upon which
the position of various surface features of the earth, can be represented.
*Equator: The line drawn midway between the North Pole and the South Pole is
called the equator. It is the largest circle and divides the globe into two equal halves.
It is also called a great circle.
*International Date Line: The 180° line of longitude is approximately where the
International Date Line passes. The time at this longitude is exactly 12 hours from
the 00 longitude, irrespective of one travels westward or eastward from the Prime
Meridian.
*Prime Meridian: For convenience of numbering, the meridian of longit ude passing
through the Greenwich observatory (near London) has been adopted as the Prime
Meridian by an international agreement and has been given the value of 0°.
*Small Circles: All the other parallels except equator get smaller in size, in proportion
to their distance from the equator towards the poles and divide the earth into two
unequal halves, also referred to as the small circles.
*Eastern Hemisphere: The part of the earth east of the Prime Meridian is called the
eastern hemisphere.
*Western Hemisphere: The part of the earth west of the Prime Meridian is called the
western hemisphere.
*Parallel: Lines joining places with the same latitudes are called parallels.
*Grid: The grid consists of two sets of horizontal and vertical lines, which are called
parallels of latitudes and the meridians of longitudes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Where is equator located?


(a) 0° latitude
(b) 23 1/2 0 latitude
(c) 66 1/2 ° latitude
(d) 90° latitude.
Answer: (a) 0° latitude

2. On which longitude is International Date Line fixed?


(a) 180° longitude
(b) 0° longitude
(c) 150° longitude
(d) 90° longitude.
Answer: (a) 180° longitude

3. Where is Greenwich located?


(a) 180° longitude
(b) 0° longitude
(c) 150° longitude
(d) 90° longitude.
Answer: (b) 0° longitude

4. On which latitude has Indian Standard Time been determined?


(а) 23° western longitude
(b) 23 1/2° eastern longitude
(c) 82 1/2° western longitude
(d) 82 1/2° eastern longitude.
Answer: (d) 82 1/2°eastern longitude

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5. In how many time zones is the world divided?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 24.
Answer: (d) 24.

VIVA QUESTIONS
1. How many longitudes are there?
Answer: There are 360° of longitude, 180° each in the east and west of the Prime
Meridian. The latitudes are used to determine the local time.

2. How many latitudes are there?


Answer: There are 180 latitudes, 90 in the south and 90 in the north.

3. What happens to time when we move from west to east and increases with our
westward movement?
Answer: The time decreases when we move from west to east and increases with
our westward movement.

4. Name some countries having more than one standard time.


Answer: Russia, Canada and the United States of America.

5. Give another name for great circle.


Answer: Equator.

6. In how many time zones is the world divided?


Answer: 24

7. What is 1ST?
Answer: The Indian Standard Time is calculated from 82°30’E meridian passing
through Mirzapur. 1ST is plus 5.30 hours from the GMT ((82°30’ x 4) (330 minutes =
5 hours 30 minutes).

8. Why there is a time gap of 4 minutes in one degree of longitude?


Answer: The sun traverses 15° of longitudes per hour or one degree of longitude in
every four minutes of time.

Page 85 of 94
CLASS XI
SAMPLE PAPER
Time: 1.5 hour MM: 35

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections (A, B & C).
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions (Map Section (Q.No. 25-29) is mandatory to
attempt).
4. Section C has 11 questions. Attempt any 10 questions. (First Part of C Section (Source based has 5
questions (Q.No. 49-52) and all need to be attempted).

Section A
Q1. Geographers do not study only the variations in the phenomena over the earth’s surface (space) but also study the
associations with the other factors which cause these variations. What is explained in the above statement? (0.75)
a. Regional c. Systematic
b. Areal d. Humanistic

Q2. Which of the following explains that humans have imprints on the nature? (0.75)
a. Railway tracks d. None of the above
b. Resorts e. Only B
c. All of the above.

Q3. Eratosthenes the scholar who coined the term geography lived during? (0.75)
a. 256-194 BC c. 324-256 BC
b. 276-194 BC d. 256-174 BC

Q4.The origin of sun took place. (0.75)


a. 8000 million years ago c. 12000 million years ago
b. 3800 million years ago d. 5000 million years ago

Q5.Who introduced systematic geography? (0.75)


a. Carl Ritter c. Humboldt
b. Hartshorne. d. Eratosthenes

Q6. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options? (0.75)
Statements
1. The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star.
2. Because it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles.

Options:
a. Only 1 is correct b. Only 2 is correct
c. Both the statements are incorrect
d. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement

Q7. Deimos is a moon to this planet. (0.75)


a. Mars c. Saturn
b. Jupiter d. Uranus

Q8. Which type of volcanic eruptions resulted in the formation of Deccan Plateau? (0.75)
a. Shield c. Flood
b. Caldera d. Composite

Q9. When Universe did came into existence? (0.75)


a. 13 billion years ago c. 5000 million years ago
b. 12 billion years ago d. 10,000 million year ago
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Q10. Which of the following marks the origin of life on the earth?? (0.75)
a. Polyps c. Blue green Algae
b. Oceans d. Moss

Q11. Which of the following in not the indirect source information of earth’s interior? (0.75)
a. Mines c. Earthquake
b. Gravity d. Magnetism

Q12. The point on the earth’s surface where earthquake waves reached the first is…. (0.75)
a. Fault c. Hypocenter
b. Focus d. Epicenter

Q13. In the areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor
tremors. What kind of earthquakes is caused due to this? (0.75)
a. Explosion Earthquakes c. Collapse Earthquakes
b. Underground Earthquakes d. Collision Earthquakes

Q14. The density of material at the mantle at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, is around? (0.75)
a. 10g/cm³ c. 5g/cm³
b. 13g/cm³ d. 7g/cm³

Q15. What is incorrect about sea Floor spreading? (0.75)


a. The rocks are equidistant on either side of the mid oceanic ridge.
b. The age of rocks increases as we move away from the continents.
c. The earthquakes are shallow seated in the mid oceanic ridges.
d. The rocks show normal polarity on both the sides of the ridge.

Q16. Caribbean Islands is a part of…... (0.75)


a. North American Plate Mica group c. South American Plate
b. Pacific Plate d. African Plate

Q17. The arctic ridge move at the Rate of….. ? (0.75)


a. 1.5 cm / year c. 2.5 cm / year
b. 15 cm / year d. 5 cm / year

Q18. Banding is displayed in the….. (0.75)


a. Volcanic Landforms d. Metamorphic Rocks
b. Sedimentary Rocks e. All of these
c. Igneous Rocks

Q19. Process in which sediment compact under pressure. (0.75)


a. Foliation. c. Lithification
b. Subduction d. Metamorphism

Q20. The time taken by the light to reach at earth’s surface is ….. (0.75)
a. 13.8 minutes c. 8.31 minutes
b. 8.13 minutes d. 11.3 minutes

Q21. Arrange the following minerals according to their hardness ? (0.75)


a. Gypsum, Apatite, Calcite, Topaz, Corundum ,Feldspar
b. Gypsum, Calcite, Apatite, Feldspar, Topaz, Corundum
c. Calcite, Gypsum, Apatite, Feldspar, Topaz, Corundum
d. Gypsum, Calcite, Topaz, Feldspar, Apatite, Corundum

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Page 87 of 94
Q22. The Sun is composed of mainly these gases. (0.75)
a. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide d. Hydrogen and Helium
b. Oxygen, Hydrogen and Helium e. Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide
c. Hydrogen, Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide f. Hydrogen only

Q23. These rocks are also called as intrusive igneous rocks. (0.75)
a. Plutonic c. Metamorphic
b. Volcanic d. Sedimentary.

Q24. A mineral green and black in colour used in the asbestos industry (0.75)
a. Feldspar d. Amphibole
b. Quartz e. Olivine
c. Mica

SECTION B
(There are 24 questions in this section. Attempt any 20 questions.)
Question no. 25-29 are based on map and are mandatory to attempt.

Q25. Eratosthenes hails from this country Marked as A? (0.75)


a. Germany c. Italy
b. France d. Greece

Q26. The S shaped ocean marked as B. (0.75)


a. Atlantic Ocean c. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean d. Arctic Ocean

Q27. The deepest drilling in the ocean marked as C? (0.75)


a. Atlantic Ocean c. Indian Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean d. Arctic Ocean
Q28. The Region having most famous shield volcanoes marked as D. (0.75)

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a. Ring of Fire c. Hawaii
b. Deccan Plateau d. Yellowstone

Q29. The major plate marked as E. (0.75)


a. Pacific c. Indo Australian
b. Eurasian d. African Plate
Question no. 30-49 (Attempt any 15)

Q30. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options? (0.75)
Statements:
1. Plutonic rocks solidify on the crust.
2. These rocks are also called as Extrusive igneous rocks
Options:
a. Only 1 is correct c. Both the statements are incorrect
b. Only 2 is correct d. Both statements are correct and statement 2
correctly explains the statement
Q31. Which of the following fact is not correct? (0.75)
a. Jovian planets are gaseous planets
b. Mars is a terrestrial planet
c. Sun is a Star
d. Saturn has the maximum number of moons.
e. Moons revolve around the planets

Q32. Take a balloon and mark some points on it to represent the galaxies. Now, if you start inflating the balloon, the
points marked on the balloon will appear to be moving away from each other as the balloon expands. Which theory is
explained here? (0.75)
a. Nebular Hypothesis c. Big Splat Hypothesis
b. Big Bang theory d. Wandering Star Hypothesis

Q33. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the Formation of moon? (0.75)
a. It formed 4.5 billion years ago
b. The theory of formation is called as Theia Hypothesis
c. It was formed due the collision of Earth and Mars like body
d. Selene is the goddess of moon

Q34. What is the average distance between Earth and the Sun? (0.75)
a. 147 million km c. 149 milion km
b. 148 million km d. 151 million km

Q35. Arrange the following theories/ Hypothesis in the chronological order from earlier to latest. (0.75)
1. Sea floor spreading 3. Continental drift
2. Nebular Hypothesis 4. Big Splat
Options:
a. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 2 1 4
b.2 3 1 4 d 1 4 2 3

Q36. Match the column I with Column II and choose the correct options with the help of given Codes. (0.75)

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(MINERALS) (PERCENTAGE)

A. Calcium I. 5.00
B. Iron II. 2.09
C. Alumimium III. 3.63
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D. Sodium IV. 2.59
E. Potassium V. 8.13
F. Magnesium VI. 2.83

CODES
a. A-II, B-I,C-VI, D-III, E-IV, F-V c. A-III, B-I,C-V, D-VI, E-IV, F-II
b. A-III, B-I,C-II, D-VI, E-V, F-IV d. A-I, B-IV,C-III, D-II, E-VI, F-V
Q37. The diameter of the earth is ….? (0.75)
a. 6370 km c. 3760 km
b. 7680 km d. 12,740 km

Q38. Another name of mineral Amphibole (0.75)


a. Feldspar c. Hornblende
b. Pegmatite d. Anthracite
Q39. Which of the following column is not matched correctly? (0.75)

Column I Column II
1.Tourism A. Geomorphology
2. Culture B. Hydrology
3. Landforms C. Economic geography
4. Rivers D. Demography
5. Population E. Social geography

a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-E, 5-A. c. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-C, 5-D.


b. 1-C,2-E,3-A,4-B, 5-D. d. 1-C,2-E,3-B,4-A, 5-D.

Q40. Choose the odd one out: (0.75)


a. GIS- Geological Informative Survey c. LIS – Local Information System
b. GPS – Global Positioning System d. CAD- Computer Assisted Designing

Q41. Consider the following and choose the correct answer from the given options- (0.75)

I. Continental Drift Theory was given by Alfred Wegner.


II. He says that convection currents are responsible for the drifting of the continents.

Options
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Both statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
c. Only statement II is correct
d. Both the statements are incorrect.

Q42. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option for the same: (0.75)
I. San Andreas Fault is an example of Spreading Site.
II. The subduction zone is found at the converging plate boundaries.

Options;
a) Only 1 is correct c) Only 2 is correct
b) Both 1 and 2 are correct d) Both are incorrect?

Q43. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer with the help of given Codes. (0.75)
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Column A Column B
a. Cocos Plate 1. Between Asian and Pacific
b. Nazca Plate 2. Between Saudi Arabia
c. Fuji Plate 3. Between Central and Pacific Plate
d. Arabian Plate 4. Between Philippine and Indian Platr
e. Philippine Plate 5. Between South America and Pacific Plate
f. Caroline Plate 6. Between North and East Australia

Codes:
a. A-1, B-2,C-5, D-6, E-4, F-3 c. A-3, B-6, C-4,D-2, E-1, F-5
b. A-3, B-5, C-6,D-2, E-1, F-4 d. A-6, B-5, C-4,D-1, E-2, F-3

Q44. Which of the following is the age of dinosaurs? (0.75)


a. 208-245 million years ago c. 65- 144 million years ago
b. 114-151 million years ago d. 144-208 million years ago

Q45. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? (0.75)


Geographer Contribution
a. Harry Hess - Sea floor Spreading
b. Immanuel Kant - Nebular Hypothesis
c. Alfred Wegner - CDT
d. Ritter - Systematic Approach

Q46. Which of the following is not related to the formation or modification of the present atmosphere? (0.75)

a. Solar winds c. Differentiation


b. Degassing d. Photosynthesis

Q47. Consider and evaluate the following statements than choose correct options for them from the given options.
(0.75)
1. Study of Climate is called Metrology .
2. Metrology is the branch of Physical Science

Options;
a) Only statement 1 is correct b) Only statement 2 is correct
c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect?

Q48. Arrange the following epochs from oldest to the newest order. (0.75)

a. Pleistocene- Holocene-Eocene- Miocene -Oligocene- -Pliocene- Palaeocene


b. Palaeocene-Eocene-Oligocene-Miocene-Pliocene-Pleistocene-Holocene.
c. Palaeocene-Eocene- Miocene –Oligocene- Pleistocene- Pliocene- Holocene.
d. Palaeocene Miocene Eocene-Oligocene--Pliocene-Pleistocene-Holocene.
e. Pliocene Miocene Eocene-Oligocene--Pliocene-Pleistocene-Holocene

Q49. These are intrusive volcanic landforms which develop due to the solidification of magma in the shape of
saucer on cooling. (0.75)

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a. Lacoliths c. Lapoliths
b. Batholiths d. Phaccoliths

‘SECTION C
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
Question numbers 50 to 54 are compulsory to attempt

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions follows:

Earthquake means the shaking of the Earth’s surface. It is a sudden trembling of the surface of the Earth.
Earthquakes certainly are a terrible natural disaster. Furthermore, Earthquakes can cause huge damage to life and
property. Some Earthquakes are weak in nature and probably go unnoticed. In contrast, some Earthquakes are
major and violent. The major Earthquakes are almost always devastating in nature. Most noteworthy, the
occurrence of an Earthquake is quite unpredictable. This is what makes them so dangerous.
Earthquakes can be of various types like, Tectonic Earthquake: The Earth’s crust comprises of the slab of rocks
of uneven shapes. These slabs of rocks are tectonic plates. Furthermore, there is energy stored here. This energy
causes tectonic plates to push away from each other or towards each other. As time passes, the energy and
movement build up pressure between two plates. Therefore, this enormous pressure causes the fault line to form.
Also, the center point of this disturbance is the focus of the Earthquake. Consequently, waves of energy travel
from focus to the surface. This results in shaking of the surface.
Volcanic Earthquake: This Earthquake is related to volcanic activity. Above all, the magnitude of such
Earthquakes is weak. These Earthquakes are of two types. The first type is Volcano-tectonic earthquake. Here
tremors occur due to injection or withdrawal of Magma. In contrast, the second type is Long-period earthquake.
Here Earthquake occurs due to the pressure changes among the Earth’s layers.
Collapse Earthquake: These Earthquakes occur in the caverns and mines. Furthermore, these Earthquakes are of
weak magnitude. Undergrounds blasts are probably the cause of collapsing of mines. Above all, this collapsing of
mines causes seismic waves. Consequently, these seismic waves cause an Earthquake.
Explosive Earthquake: These Earthquakes almost always occur due to the testing of nuclear weapons. When a
nuclear weapon detonates, a big blast occurs. This results in the release of a huge amount of energy. This
probably results in Earthquakes.
Earthquakes cause series of effects. First of all, the shaking of the ground is the most notable effect of the
Earthquake. Furthermore, ground rupture also occurs along with shaking. This results in severe damage to
infrastructure facilities. The severity of the Earthquake depends upon the magnitude and distance from the
epicenter. Also, the local geographical conditions play a role in determining the severity. Ground rupture refers to
the visible breaking of the Earth’s surface.
Another significant effect of Earthquake is landslides. Landslides occur due to slope instability. This slope
instability happens because of Earthquake.
Earthquakes can cause soil liquefaction. This happens when water-saturated granular material loses its strength.
Therefore, it transforms from solid to a liquid. Consequently, rigid structures sink into the liquefied deposits.
Earthquakes can result in fires. This happens because Earthquake damages the electric power and gas lines.
Above all, it becomes extremely difficult to stop a fire once it begins.
Earthquakes can also create the infamous Tsunamis. Tsunamis are long-wavelength sea waves. These sea waves
are caused by the sudden or abrupt movement of large volumes of water. This is because of an Earthquake in the
ocean. Above all, Tsunamis can travel at a speed of 600-800 kilometers per hour. These tsunamis can cause
massive destruction when they hit the sea coast.
In conclusion, an Earthquake is a great and terrifying phenomenon of Earth. It shows the frailty of humans against
nature. It is a tremendous occurrence that certainly shocks everyone. Above all, Earthquake lasts only for a few
seconds but can cause unimaginable damage

Answer the questions:


Q50. What makes earthquakes very dangerous? (½)
a. They cause damage c. They are unpredictable
b. They can not be measured d. They can not be controlled
Q51. What makes the tectonic plates to move away from each other? (½)
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a. Release of the energy c. Diverging of the plates
b. Enormous pressure along the fault d. Shaking of the surface

Q52.Earthquakes leads to…… ? (½)


a. Shaking of the earth e. Option A only.
b. Ground Rupturing f. Option A and B
c. Solifluction g. Option C
d. Ground Lurching h. All

Q53. When earthquakes damges the electric poles it leads to: ………. (½)
a. Electcification c. Both
b. Fires d. None
Q54. Which of the following is the underwater earthquake? (½)
a. Volcanic Earthquakes c. Tsunamis
b. Tremors d. Explosive Earthquakes

PICTURE BASED QUESTIONS


Attempt any 5 questions from the following questions 55-60

Q55. What is the name of the continent shown in the picture? (½)
a. Angaraland c. Pangea
b. Lauraisa d. Panthalassa

Q56. Name the mega Ocean shown. (½)


a. Pangea . c. Panthalassa
b. Angaraland d. Silica
Q57. Name the geosyncline separating the Super continent into north and south part? (½)
a. Laurasia c. Panthalassa
b. Tethys d. Pacific ocean
Q58. Name the theory that explains that splitting of the continents (½)
a. Continent Spreading Theory c. Sea Floor Spreading theory
b. Continent Splitting Theory d. Continent Drift Theory
Q59. Name the forces responsible for the movement of the continents? (½)
a. Pole fleeing force. c. Convection Currents
b. Tidal Force. d. Magnetic force
Q60. Who gave the theory mentioned above? (½)
a. Arthur Holmes c. Alexander Humboldt
b. Alfred Wegner d. Harry Hess
*******

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THANK
YOU

Page 94 of 94

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