Super Sure MCQs On ManagementCommerce Part - 1

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MANAGEMENT/COMMERCE
PART - 1
ASST. PROF. VISHAL VERMA
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MANAGEMENT ,COMMERCE, HRM & ECONOMICS
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Assertion (A): Green marketing is an expense for the organisation. The market is
indifferent whether the firm uses green marketing or not.
Reason (R): The firm by using green marketing appeals to the desire of the public
and chooses products that are good for the environment.
Codes:
(a) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
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Correct Option/Answer: (c) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
Explanation: Assertion is incorrect as green marketing is not an

expense for the organisation. The market is captured prominently by
the firm by using green marketing that appeals to the desire of the
public and chooses products that are good for the environment.
Therefore, the reason is correct but the assertion is incorrect.
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Statement I: Building customer relationships helps in increasing the
sales of the organisation.
Statement II: Offering discounts and benefits to loyal customers is a
way of building customer relationship marketing.
Codes:
(a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct, but statement I is incorrect
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both statements are incorrect
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Correct Option/Answer: (c) Both statements are correct
Explanation: Both the statements are correct as building a customer

relationship helps in increasing the sales of the organisation. Also,
offering discounts and benefits to the loyal customers is a way of
building customer relationship marketing.
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Question: Which among the following types of retail outlets is the
combination of supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing?
Options:
(a) Off-price Retailers

(b) Superstore
(c) Combination stores
(d) Hypermarkets
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) Hypermarkets
Explanation: The type of retail outlet which is a combination of

supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing is hypermarket.
Buying products at a price that is lower than the wholesale price
comes under the scope of off-price retailers. Stores that have a
combination of food and drugs are known as combination stores.
Store for routine work in a nearby area is known as a superstore.
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Question: Match the following:
List 1 List-2
Licensing Agreement between the companies for a fixed period of time.
Strategic Alliance Providing permission to another organisation by giving its trademark.
Joint Venture Merging of two or more companies for a specific project.
Exporting Selling of produced goods from one country to another.
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Licensing includes providing permission to another organisation by

giving its trademark. Strategic alliance is the agreement between
companies for a fixed period of time. Joint Venture is the merging of
two or more companies for a specific project. Exporting is the selling
of produced goods from one country to another.
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Question: Which among the following levels of Keller’ Brand Equity
Model signifies, “What about you”?
Options:
(a) Brand Identity

(b) Brand Meaning
(c) Brand Resonance
(d) Brand Response
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) Brand Response
Explanation: Keller’ Brand Equity Model focuses on the pyramid to

first understand the customers and then implement the strategies.
The four levels of Keller’ Brand Equity Model are as follows:
1. Brand Identity signifies “Who are you?”
2. Brand Meaning signifies “What are you?”
3. Brand Response signifies “What about you?”
4. Brand Resonance “What about you and me?”
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Statement I: The decision taken regarding the launching of a product as a licensed
brand, manufacturer brand or distributor brand falls under the scope of brand
sponsor decision.
Statement II: Giving the product a new name is known as individual names. In
case the product fails, the brand image of the company is affected.
Options:

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Correct Option/Answer: (a) Statement I is correct, but statement II
is incorrect
Explanation: The first statement is correct as the decision taken

regarding the launching of a product as a licensed brand,
manufacturer brand or distributor brand falls under the scope of
brand sponsor decision. The second statement is incorrect as giving
the product a new name is known as individual names but in case
the product fails, the brand image of the company is not affected.
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Question: Which among the following should not be kept in mind
while designing the sales force?
Options:
(a) Setting Clearly Defined Objectives

(b) Compensation of Sales force
(c) Deciding the structure of sales force
(d) Personality of sales force
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) Personality of sales force
Explanation: Personality of the sales force is not an important factor

that should be kept in mind while designing the sales force.
The factors which should be kept in mind are as follows:
1. Compensation of sales force
2. Deciding the structure of sales force
3. Working in association with other functional areas
4. Setting clearly defined objectives
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Assertion (A): Marketing mix of services includes four extra
elements from the marketing mix of products.
Reason (R): The marketing mix of services includes product, price,
place, promotion, people, process and physical evidence.
Codes:
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Correct Option/Answer: (a) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion as the marketing mix of services
includes four extra elements from the marketing mix of products as
the marketing mix of services is product, price, place, promotion,
people, process and physical evidence.
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Question: Which among the following options is incorrect for
secondary data?
Options:
(a) Questionnaires is an example

(b) Easier to collect
(c) Time constraint is considered
(d) Reliability is increased due to the availability of data from a huge
sample size
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Correct Option/Answer: (a) Questionnaires is an example
Explanation: Secondary data is easier to collect and can be collected

easily within a limited time constraint. The reliability of data is
increased as a huge amount of data, which is already available, can
be studied simultaneously. Examples of secondary data include
storage data, sales data and financial data and so on. A
questionnaire, on the other hand, is an example of primary data.
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Which among the following options state(s) the correct formula for
the Coefficient of Variation?
Options:
1. (Population Mean/Variance) x 100

2. (Variance/Population Mean) x 100
3. (Population Mean/Standard Deviation) x 100
4. (Standard Deviation/Population Mean) x 100
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) (Standard Deviation/Population Mean)
x 100
Explanation: The formula to calculate the Coefficient of Variation is:

Coefficient of Variation = (Standard Deviation/Population Mean) x
100
This is calculated to relate the standard deviation and mean of the
data. It is calculated in the form of a percentage.
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Statement I: The rule of Binomial Distribution was developed by the
mathematician Jacob Bernoulli.
Statement II: Under this, there could only be two outcomes of the trial i.e. success
or failure.
Options:

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Explanation: Both statements are correct as the rule of Binomial

Distribution was developed by the mathematician Jacob Bernoulli.
Under binomial distribution, there could only be two outcomes of
the trial i.e. success or failure.
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Question: Which among the following options states the correct process of
designing a sample?
1. Selecting sampling frame
2. Defining target population
3. Selecting sampling technique
4. Determining the size of samples
Options:
(a) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(b) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: The correct procedure of designing a sample is as

follows:
1. Defining the target population
2. Selecting sampling frame
3. Selection of sampling technique
4. Determining the size of samples
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Question: Which among the following states is “Sorting” in the
Kaizen Total Quality Management?
Options:
1. Seiso
2. Seiri
3. Seiton
4. Shitsuke
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Correct Option/Answer: (b) Seiri
Explanation: The 5S’s of Kaizen Total Quality Management are as

follows:
1. Seiri – Sorting
2. Seiton- Set in order
3. Seiso- Shine
4. Seiketsu – Standardise
5. Shitsuke – Sustain
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Statement I: CPM displays the events and activities within the network of PERT,
which takes the longest time to complete.
Statement II: CPM is a scheduling tool which estimates the necessary time to
complete each activity.
Options:

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Correct Option/Answer: (b) Statement I is correct, but statement II
is incorrect
Explanation: Statement one is correct as CPM displays the events

and activities within the network of PERT, which takes the longest
time to complete. Statement two is incorrect as PERT is the
scheduling tool that estimates the necessary time for completing
each activity.
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Assertion (A): The time taken to complete an activity in the worst condition is
known as pessimistic time.
Reason (R): The time taken to complete the activity when no problems or
obstacles take place is known as optimistic time.
Codes:
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Correct Option/Answer: (b) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are correct but they
are not related to each other. They are the terms under the PERT
analysis. The time taken for the completion of the activity in the
worst condition is known as pessimistic time and the time taken for
the completion of the activity when no problems or obstacles take
place is known as optimistic time. Therefore, both statements are
correct but the reason doesn’t explain the assertion. Therefore,
option (b) is correct.
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List 1 List 2
Balking Not joining the queue and deciding to come later
Jockeying Leaving the queue after discovering that the speed is slow
Reneging Switching the queue frequently
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 3
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 1 2 3
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Correct Option/Answer: (c) A-1, B-3, C-2
Under queuing theory, the term balking state, “not joining the
queue and decides come later”. The term jockeying state, “Switching
the queue frequently” and the term reneging state “Leaving from
the queue after standing in the queue and discovering that the
speed is slow”. Therefore, option (c) is correct.
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Statement I: Counter trade takes place when trade between the
goods and services takes place without the exchange of money.
Statement II: The types of counter trade include barter, counter
purchase and offset, switch trading and buyback.
Options:
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Explanation: Both the statements are correct as counter trade takes

place when trade between the goods and services takes place
without the exchange of money and the types of counter trade
include barter, counter purchase and offset, switch trading and
buyback
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Question: Which of the following is/are not the assumption(s) of
the theory of factor endowment?
Options:
(a) There is only one factor

(b) Constant returns to scale
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Quantity of land and labour is constant
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Correct Option/Answer: (a) There is only one factor
Explanation: The assumptions of the theory of factor endowment

are as follows:
1. There exist two factors of production capital and labour
2. The quantity of land and labour is constant but varies from one
country to another
3. There exist only two countries, which are producing two goods
4. Constant returns to scale
5. A given amount of rent, salary and wages is paid
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Question: Which among the following is/are included in the current account of
balance of payment?
1. Unilateral Transfer
2. Insurance
3. Investment Income
4. Travel
Options:
(a) 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
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Correct Option/Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Current account consists of the following items:

1. Merchandise imports and exports
2. Travel
3. Transportation
4. Insurance
5. Investment Income
6. Unilateral transfer payment
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Question: Which among the following come(s) under the Free
Trade Area?
Options:
(a) NAFTA
(b) SAFTA
(c) EFTA
(d) All of the above
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Free Trade Area is the area in which the trade of goods
and services takes place without any barriers. The example of a free
trade area (FTA) is the North American Free Trade Agreement
(NAFTA), South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), and European Free
Trade Association (EFTA).
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Question: Which among the following options states the correct
advantage of DSS?
Options:
(a) Saves time

(b) Cost of making decision is improved
(c) Produces competitive advantage to the firm
(d) All of the above
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: The advantages of DSS are as follows:

1. Saves time during decision-making
2. Effectiveness of decisions
3. Reduces the cost of decision making
4. Satisfaction in decision making is increased
5. Person’s efficiency is enhanced
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Which among the following options do/does not state the impact of technology
on business?
1. Reduced Operating Cost
2. Development of new product
3. Enhancing the services to customers
4. Personal touch
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
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Correct Option/Answer: (b) 4 only
Explanation: The impact of technology on the business is as follows:

1. Reduced Operating Cost
2. Development of new product
3. Enhancing the services to customers
4. Edition to scale and changes in format
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Question: Which of the following states the correct full form of
TRIPS?
Options:
(a) Transfer Related Authority of Intellectual Property Rights

(b) Trade Related Authority of Intellectual Property Rights
(c) Transfer Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(d) Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights
Explanation: Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

was arranged in the Uruguay Round of General Trade and Tariff
Agreement (GATT). It was arranged and administered by the World
Trade Organisation (WTO). Therefore, option (d) is correct.
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Statement I: The barrier in the form of taxes which directly affects the price of the
commodity is known as a non-tariff barrier.
Statement II: Non-tariff barriers exist in the form of content requirement and
quality of goods produced by the local producers.
Options:

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Correct Option/Answer: (b) Statement II is correct, but statement I
is incorrect
Explanation: Statement one is incorrect as the barrier in the form of

taxes which directly affects the price of the commodity is known as a
tariff barrier. Statement two is correct as the non-tariff barriers exist
in the form of content requirement and quality of goods produced
by local producers.
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Assertion (A): Patents are given and granted to inventions that are non-obvious,
new and could be used in commercial sectors or industries.
Reason (R): New inventions state that the inventions should be able to help
commercial or industrial life even though it is similar to the previous one.
Codes:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
Explanation: The assertion is correct as patents are given and

granted to the inventions which are non-obvious, new and could be
used in commercial sectors or industries. The reason is incorrect as
the new invention states that the invention should be able to help
commercial or industrial life and should be different from the
previous method or invention.
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Assertion (A): Shipping bill represents the document which is required by the
custom authorities.
Reason (R): The custom authority allows and provides the exporter with the
consent of transferring the goods.
Codes:
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Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct and reason

correctly explains the assertion. Shipping bill represents the
document which is required by the custom authorities. The custom
authority allows and provides the exporter with the consent of
transferring the goods.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Question: Which among the following is a type of entrepreneur who
demonstrates his/her entrepreneurship skills while formulating strategic
planning?
Options:
(a) Corporate entrepreneur

(b) Fabian entrepreneur
(c) Induces entrepreneur
(d) Cognitive entrepreneur
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Correct Option/Answer: (a) Corporate entrepreneur
Explanation: The word entrepreneur is derived from the French

word, which means “to undertake”. Corporate entrepreneurs are the
ones who demonstrate their skills of entrepreneurship while
formulating strategic planning.
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Assertion (A): Theory of social change given by Max-Weber is based on the ethical
values of the system.
Reason (R): According to Max-Weber, religion of the entrepreneur plays an
important role in entrepreneurship.
Codes:
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Explanation: Theory of social change given by Max-Weber is based

on the ethical values of the system, as according to Max-Weber,
religion of the entrepreneur plays an important role in
entrepreneurship.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are correct and the reason
correctly explains the assertion.
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Assertion (A): Innovations are useful in order to achieve the task and bring
changes in the environment.
Reason (R): Innovation can be in the form of formation of a new product only.
Codes:
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
Explanation: The assertion is correct as innovations are useful in

order to achieve the task and bring change in the environment. The
reason is incorrect as innovation can be in the form of formation of a
new product or new service or new process of manufacturing.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Assertion (A): The method that is used for generating the business
ideas when the problem is unknown is called Gordon Method.
Reason (R): The solutions and feedback provided by the employees
are not restricted or bounded to the particular area.
Codes:
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Explanation: The method that is used for generating the business

ideas when the problem is unknown is called Gordon Method as the
solutions and feedback provided by the employees are not restricted
or bound to a particular area. Therefore, both assertion and reason
are correct and the reason states the assertion correctly.
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Which among the following state(s) are the problems of women
entrepreneurship?
Options:
(a) Family conflicts at house

(b) Responsibilities at house
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Lack of talent
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Correct Option/Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: The problems faced by women entrepreneurs are

mostly related to the family. Responsibilities of women at their
houses and the patriarchal society create problems and hinder them
from working towards entrepreneurship freely.
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Statement 1: Financial inclusion is the step taken by the government in order to
provide banking services in remote areas.
Statement 2: Financial inclusion is achieved by providing loans to large scale
industries.
Codes:
(a) Both statements are correct

(b) Only statement 1 is correct
(c) Only statement 2 is correct
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Correct Option/Answer: (b) Only statement 1 is correct
Explanation: Statement one is correct as financial inclusion is the

step taken by the government in order to provide banking services in
remote areas. Statement two is incorrect as financial inclusion is
achieved by providing loans to micro, small scale, medium scale
industries.
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Question: Which among the following states is the correct full form of NIESBUD?
Options:
(a) National and International for Emergence of Small Banking development

(b) National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Banking development
(c) National and International for Emergence of Small Business development
(d) National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business development
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) National Institute for Entrepreneurship
and Small Business development
Explanation: National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small

Business Development is an institution for the training, consulting
and research of professionals such that entrepreneurship is
endorsed.
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Question: Read the following statements and choose the correct code.
Statement 1: The internal causes of the sickness of SSIs are personnel constraints,
marketing constraints, production constraints and financial constraints.
Statement 2: The external causes of the sickness of SSIs are lack of finance, bad
production policies, marketing and sickness and inappropriate personnel
management.
Codes:
(a) Both statements are correct
(b) Only statement 1 is correct
(c) Only statement 2 is correct
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) Both statements are incorrect
Explanation: Both the statements are incorrect as the external

causes of the sickness of SSIs are personnel constraints, marketing
constraints, production constraints and financial constraints. The
internal causes of the sickness of SSIs are lack of finance, bad
production policies, Poor marketing strategies and sickness and
inappropriate personnel management.
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Question: In which year was the SFURTI scheme launched?
Options:
(a) 2001
(b) 2006
(c) 2004
(d) 2005
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) 2005
Explanation: Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional

Industries is a scheme launched by the government in 2005. It is for
the artisans and traditional industries so that they are supported for
long-term sustainability.
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List I List II
Sick Industrial Companies Act 1985
Make in India 1977
ISEC Scheme 2014
1 2 3
(a) B A C
(b) A B C
(c) C A B
(d) A C B
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Correct Option/Answer: (d) 1- A, 2-C and 3-B
The Sick Industrial Companies Act was established in 1985 for

encouraging business. Make in India was a scheme that was
launched by the government in 2014. The Interest Subsidy Eligibility
Certificate (ISEC) scheme was launched in May 1977. Therefore,
option (d) is correct.
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Total income earned by resources for their contribution of land,
labour, capital, and organizational ability is known as:
Options:
(a)Net National Product
(b)National Income
(c)Disposable Income
(d)Per Capita Income
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Correct Option/Answer: (b)National Income
Explanation: National Income is also called as National Income at

factor cost. It is the value of total goods & services produced in an
economy over a given period of time.
NI=NNP +Subsidies-Interest Taxes
=GNP-Depreciation +Subsidies-Indirect Taxes
=NI=C+G+I+(X-M) +NFIA-Depreciation-Indirect Taxes +Subsidies
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Question: The Business ethos principle which is not practiced by
Indian Companies?
Option:
(a) Principle of ‘sacrifice’
(b) Principle of ‘harmony’
(c) Principle of ‘non-violence’
(d) Principle of ‘honesty’
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Correct Option/Answer: (d)
Explanation: There are several Business ethos principles practiced by

Indian Companies like Principle of ‘sacrifice’, Principle of ‘harmony’,
Principle of ‘non-violence’, Principle of ‘reward’, Principle of ‘justice’,
Principle of ‘taxation’, Principle of ‘Integrity’, Principle of ‘Polygamy’.
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Question: ___________ is the branch of philosophy concerned with
developing theories that determine which human actions are right
and wrong.
Option:
(a)Meta Ethics
(b) Political Ethics
(c) Virtue Ethics
(d) Normative Ethics
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Explanation: The word Normative comes from the word ‘norm’

which means a ‘standard’ or ‘rule’. Normative Ethics is a type of
ethics which is focused on right and wrong, it is constructive in
nature and is a branch of moral philosophy. It seeks to set norms and
standards for conduct and is practical in nature.
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Question: Which of the following statements is correct about Negative income
elasticity of demand (EY<0)?
Option:
(a) As the income of consumer increases, they either stop or consume less of
inferior goods.
(b) As the income of consumer increases, they either stop or consume less of
luxury goods.
(c) As the income of consumer decreases, they either stop or consume less of
inferior goods.
(d) As the income of consumer increases, they consume more inferior goods.
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Correct Option/Answer: (a)
Explanation: Negative Income Elasticity means that the demand of

the consumer decreases with a rise in the income level of the
customer and vice-versa.
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Which of the following is not the assumption of the Law of Equi-
Marginal Utility?
Option:
(a) Income of the consumer is given and remains constant.
(b) Each commodity holds the law of diminishing marginal utility,
and its marginal utility schedule is known.
(c) Prices of the commodity remain increasing.
(d) Tastes and preferences of the consumer remain constant
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Correct Option/Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Law of Equi- Marginal Utility means that the

consumer’s income is limited so he wants to spend his money in
such a way that the last unit of money spent on a product gives him
equal marginal utility.
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Question: Which one among the following does not belong to the
models of individual behaviour?
Option:
(a)Social Man
(b) Organisational Man
(c) Rigid Man
(d) Complex Man
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Explanation: 5 Models of Individual Behaviour in an Organization are

Rational Economic Man, Social Man, Organizational Man, The Self
Actuating Man, and Complex Man.
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Question: Who is the propounder of the Operant Conditioning
Theory?
Options:
(a)B. F. Skinner
(b)Elton Mayo
(c)Chester Barnard
(d)David Mc Cellan
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Explanation: Operant is defined as behaviour that produces an

effect. Operant conditioning theory is given by B.F. Skinner who said
that individuals emit responses that are rewarded and will not emit
responses that are either not rewarded or are punished. The
relationship between behaviour and consequences is explained in
operant conditioning.
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Question: What is meant by Negative Punishment in Operant
Conditioning Theory?
Options:
(a)Add something to increase behaviour
(b) Add something to decrease behaviour
(c) Remove something to increase behaviour
(d) Remove something to decrease behaviour
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Reinforcement Punishment
Positive Stimulus Positive Positive Punishment
Reinforcement
Negative Stimulus Negative Negative Punishment
Reinforcement
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The group structure is defined as the layout of a group. It is a
combination of which one among the following?
Options:
(a) group roles, norms, group, friendly attitude.
(b) reference groups, status, social loafing, social disputes.
(c) cohorts, group demography, group harmony.
(d) group roles, conformity, workplace behavior, status,
cohesiveness.
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Explanation: The group structure is called for a layout of a group. It is
a combination of group roles, reference groups, status, social
loafing, cohorts, group demography norms, conformity, workplace
behavior, status, and cohesiveness.
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Question: What are the points mentioned in the Job Description?
Options:
(a)Job title, job location, machines to be used, qualification
(b) Job summary, reporting to, experience
(c) Hazards, job duties, job title, job location
(d) Qualification, experience, training, skills
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Explanation: The points mentioned in the Job Description are:
1. Title and summary of the job to be performed
2. Duties to be performed
3. Physical requirements
4. Work environment
5. Employment conditions
6. Professional experience
7. Education level and desired qualifications
8. Core skills required
9. Necessary certificates, licenses, and registrations
10. Report to whom
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Question: What is the correct sequence of the Selection Process??
Options:
(a) Preliminary interview, Screening of applications, Employment test, Receiving
applications , Employment interview, Physical examination, Checking references,
Final selection.
(b) Preliminary interview, Receiving applications, Checking references, Screening of
applications, Employment test, Employment interview, Physical examination, Final
selection.
(c) Preliminary interview, Receiving applications, Screening of applications,
Employment test, Employment interview, Final selection, Physical examination,
Checking references,.
(d) Preliminary interview, Receiving applications, Screening of applications,
Employment test, Employment interview, Physical examination, Checking references,
Final selection.
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Explanation: Selection Process Steps are:- Preliminary interview,

Receiving applications, Screening of applications, Employment test,
Employment interview, Physical examination, Checking references,
Final selection.
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Question: Which is the correct Socialization Process?
Options:
(a)Pre-arrival Stage, Encounter Stage, Metamorphosis Stage
(b)Pre-arrival Stage, Metamorphosis Stage, Encounter Stage
(c)Arrival Stage, Metamorphosis Stage, Encounter Stage
(d)Pre-arrival Stage, Metamorphosis Stage, End Stage
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Explanation: Socialization is the process of adapting the organization norms,
values, culture, beliefs, and working procedure.
Pre-arrival stage: This stage is also known as the pre-entry stage. Employees know
the basic information, knowledge, rules, and regulation regarding job
responsibilities before they join the organization.
Encounter Stage: Individuals may not have a clear understanding of organizational
norms, culture, and values before joining the organization. They may have
accepted the common job-related behaviors but the organization may have a
different organizational culture.
Metamorphosis stage: This stage is also called the change stage. In this stage, the
employee unlearns the old norms, values, and culture to learn a new one.
Employees fully accept organizational norms and values.
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Question: Which among the following points are correct regarding
Distress?
Options:
(a) Motivates, focuses energy, is short-term, is perceived as within our coping
abilities, Feels exciting, Improves performance
(b) Is perceived as within our coping abilities, feels exciting, Improves
performance, Decreases performance, Can lead to mental and physical problems
(c) Causes anxiety or concern, Can be short- or long-term, Is perceived as outside
of our coping abilities, Feels unpleasant, Decreases performance, Can lead to
mental and physical problems
(d) Can be short- or long-term, Is perceived as outside of our coping abilities, Feels
pleasant, increases performance, Can lead to mental and physical problems
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Explanation: There are two types of stress. Eustress is positive stress
and Distress is negative stress. Distress causes anxiety, it can be
short- or long-term, feels unpleasant, decreases work performance,
and it can lead to mental and physical problems.
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Question: The four steps of emotional intelligence are?
Options:
(a) Self-awareness, Self- check, Social awareness and relationship
management
(b) Self-awareness, Self- management, Social awareness and
relationship management
(c) Self-management, Self- awareness, Social awareness and
relationship management
(d) Relationship management, Self- management, Social awareness
and Self-awareness
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Correct Option/Answer: (b)
Explanation: There are four steps involved in emotional

intelligence. Self-awareness is when you are able to display your
correct emotions. Self-management exists when you direct your
emotions in a positive way. Social awareness exists when you know
how others feel. Relationship management exists when you are able
to help others.
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Question: If the equation y = 7 + 0.5x was graphed, the slope
would be?
Options:
(A) Slope would be – 7
(B) Vertical intercept would be + 0.5
(C) Slope would be + 7
(D) Slope would be + 0.5
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Explanation: In this equation, x and y are constant, 7 is vertical
intercept and 0.5 is slope.
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Which of the following statements is correct about Theory X
employees?
Options:
(A) People are committed to their responsibilities.
(B) People are always motivated towards attaining their goals.
(C) The perceived relationship between a given level of efforts and
an expected performance.
(D) People are not committed to their responsibilities.
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Answer: (d)
Explanation: Theory X type employees are not passionate about
their work, they work for only money, they have little ambitions, and
do not like to take responsibility. Theory Y employees are completely
opposite.
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Question: Which do Hard Skills include?
Options:
(a) Ability to deal with adversity
(b) Networking
(c) Adaptability
(d) Fluency in Spanish
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Answer: (d)
Explanation: Hard skills are the skills relating to any specific task and
are easy to measure. They are knowledge-based, such as mastery in
a subject, certification, and technical skills and Soft skills are the
skills relating to a personality like communication, leadership.
Hard skills are teachable and measurable abilities, such as writing,
reading, math or ability to use computer programs. By contrast, soft
skills are the traits that make you a good employee, such as
etiquette, communication and listening, getting along with other
people.
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Work-life balance refers to the level of prioritisation between personal and
professional activities in an individual’s life and the level to which activities
related to their job are present in the home. The Six Components of Work-Life
Balance are?
Options:
(a) Self-Management, Time Management, Stress Management, Change
Management, Technology Management, Leisure Management
(b) Dual-Management, Time Management, Stress Management, Change
Management, Technology Management, Relationship Management
(c) Self-Management, Cultural Management, Work-life Management, Change
Management, Technology Management, Leisure Management
(d) Self-Management, Administration Management, Financial Management,
Change Management, Technology Management, Human Resource Management
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Explanation: The Six Components of Work-Life Balance are Self-

Management, Time Management, Change Management, Leisure
Management, Stress Management and, Technology Management.
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Who invented work/life balance?
Lillian Moller Gilbreth
This article may be expanded with text translated from the
corresponding article in German. (May 2021) Click [show] for
important translation instructions. Work–life balance is the
equilibrium between personal life and career work. Lillian Moller
Gilbreth established the philosophical basis for work-life balance.
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____________ are the building blocks which are the planned
activities designed to improve the organization’s functioning
through the participation of the members of the organization.
Options:
(a)OD Interventions
(b)Industrial Relation
(c)Organisation Development
(d)Organisation Change
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Explanation: OD Interventions involve developmental activities that

are there to improve organization performance and effectiveness.
Organizational Development (OD) Interventions are structured
program designed to solve a problem, thus enabling an organization
to achieve the goal. These intervention activities are designed to
improve the organization's functioning and enable managers and
leaders to better manage their team and organization cultures.
What are OD intervention techniques?
OD interventions are the building blocks which are the planned activities
designed to improve the organisation's functioning through the participation of
the organisational members. OD interventions include team development,
laboratory training, managerial grid training, brainstorming and intergroup team
building.
The ___________regulate the conditions of employment from the
stage of entry to the organisation to the stage of exit from the
organisation.
Options:
(a)Collective Bargaining
(b)Standing Order
(c)Code of Discipline
(d)Tripartite Bodies
Explanation: The standing orders are the code of conduct which is for employees
who enter the organization until they leave it. It tells about do’s and don’ts. It
regulates the industrial relation in an organization and tells about various
conditions to be followed.
What are the conditions for the certification of the standing orders under the
Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act 1946?
It is mandatory for every employer covered under the Industrial
Employment (Standing Orders) Act has to get standing orders certified by
submitting five draft copies of the standing orders to the certifying officer such as
labour commissioner or a regional labour commissioner and also includes any
other officer ...
What are the matters set out in standing orders?
Matters to be provided in Standing Orders under this Act
Manner of intimating to workmen periods and hours of work, holidays, pay-days

and wage rates. Shift working. Attendance and late coming. Conditions of
procedure in applying for, and the authority which may grant, leave and holidays.
What is standing order Labour law?

Section 2(g) of the Act states that “standing orders” are the rules relating to
matters set out in the Schedule, i.e. with reference to: The classification of
workmen; Manner of intimation to workers about work and wage-related details;
Conditions of 'termination of'/'suspension from' employment;
Question:
(a) Distributive bargaining (i)Work together to make a pie bigger
(b) Integrative bargaining (ii)Resolving internal conflict
(c) Attitudinal restructuring (iii)Cooperative bargaining
(d) Intra-organizational bargaining (Iv)Shaping reshaping attitude
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation: In distributive bargaining, one party gains and the other party loses.
Under Integrative bargaining, it’s a win-win situation. In attitudinal bargaining,
there is shaping and reshaping of attitude and under intra-organizational
bargaining involves finding a solution to internal conflict.
What is distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining?
Distributive bargaining, according to the University of Colorado Boulder, is the
approach to bargaining (or negotiation) that is used when the parties are trying to
divide something up or distribute something. It contrasts with integrative
bargaining in which the parties are trying to make more of something.
Distributive bargaining is a competitive bargaining strategy in which one party
gains only if the other party loses something. It is used as a negotiation strategy
to distribute fixed resources such as money, resources, assets, etc. between both
the parties.
What is integrative bargaining with an example?
Example: The classic example involves two teenagers and an orange. If there's
only one orange in the refrigerator and both teenagers demand it simultaneously,
a distributive bargain might well involve each of them getting half of it. ...
The integrative bargain is obviously better for both.
Integrative bargaining (also called "interest-based bargaining," "win-
win bargaining") is a negotiation strategy in which parties collaborate to find a
"win-win" solution to their dispute. This strategy focuses on developing mutually
beneficial agreements based on the interests of the disputants.
What is attitudinal structuring?
'Attitudinal structuring is the process aimed at influencing the course of
negotiations by changing the attitudes of the other party and the nature of the
encounter'
Attitudinal Bargaining Process Attitudinal bargaining takes place in
every negotiation, especially in any involved in long-term relationships. It assumes
that the desired relationship can be structured through the negotiation.
The interaction between the negotiator and bargaining team members in an
attempt to achieve consensus, called intraorganizational bargaining, is the focus
of this study. Strategies of intra-organizational bargaining from various theorists
were developed into a coding system.
Which among the following is not a type of Strike?
Options:
(a)Economic Strike
(b)Sympathetic Strike
(c)Gherao
(d)Sit-down Strike
Explanation: Gherao is a process in which the workers do not allow employers to

leave the workplace and puts them under huge pressure. It does not come under
the type of strike.
(a)Historical Cost (i) An asset is shown in the balance sheet at the sum of present
discounted net cash inflows that the asset is expected to generate in
the normal course of business activities
(b)Current Cost (ii) Assets is their current value, or what it would cost to replace them
at this time
(c)Realisable Value (iii)Acquisition Price
(d)Present Value (iv)Amount gained by selling the asset
Options:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation: Historical Cost means acquisition price, i.e., the amount

of cash paid to acquire an asset. The current cost is the cost when
the same or equivalent assets were acquired currently. Realizable
Value is the value that we get by selling the assets in a routine
manner. In Present Value, an asset is shown in the balance sheet at
the sum of present discounted net cash inflows that the asset is
expected to generate in the normal course of business activities.
The ratio used to measure the effectiveness of the use of
capital/assets in the business?
Options:
(a) Profitability Ratios
(b) Turnover Ratios or Activity Ratios
(c) Financial Ratios or Solvency Ratios
(d) Market Test Ratios
Explanation:
Turnover Ratios or Activity Ratios are used to measure the effectiveness of the use
of capital/assets in the business. These ratios are usually calculated on the basis of
sales or cost of goods sold and are expressed in integers rather than as
percentages.
What is the purpose of activity ratios?
Activity ratios are most useful when employed to compare two competing
businesses within the same industry to determine how a particular company
stacks up amongst its peers. But activity ratios may also be used to track a
company's fiscal progress over multiple recording periods, to detect changes over
time.
How do you interpret solvency ratios?

In general, a solvency ratio measures the size of a company's profitability and
compares it to its obligations. By interpreting a solvency ratio, an analyst or
investor can gain insight into how likely a company will be to continue meeting its
debt obligations. A stronger or higher ratio indicates financial strength.
Market Test Ratios help investor to estimate the attractiveness of a
potential or existing investment and get an idea of its valuation.
These ratios are concerned with the return on investment for
shareholders, and with the relationship between return and the
value of an investment in company's shares.
Which statement is correct about the Flow of Fund?
Options:
(a)Fixed asset changes into current asset or current assets changes into fixed
assets
(b) Fixed asset changes into fixed asset
(c) Current asset changes into current liabilities
(d) Non-Current asset changes into non-current liabilities
Explanation: The flow of funds includes both “inflow” and “outflow”. The term “
flow of funds” means “Transfer of economic values from one asset to another and
one liability to another.” The flow of funds takes place whenever there is a change
in working capital. This change may be either inflow or outflow of funds.
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Explanation: Assertion is incorrect as green marketing is not an

Explanation: Both the statements are correct as building a customer

(a) Off-price Retailers

Explanation: The type of retail outlet which is a combination of

Licensing includes providing permission to another organisation by

(a) Brand Identity

Explanation: Keller’ Brand Equity Model focuses on the pyramid to

(a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

Explanation: The first statement is correct as the decision taken

(a) Setting Clearly Defined Objectives

Explanation: Personality of the sales force is not an important factor

(a) Questionnaires is an example

Explanation: Secondary data is easier to collect and can be collected

1. (Population Mean/Variance) x 100

Explanation: The formula to calculate the Coefficient of Variation is:

(a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Both statements are correct as the rule of Binomial

Explanation: The correct procedure of designing a sample is as

Explanation: The 5S’s of Kaizen Total Quality Management are as

(a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Statement one is correct as CPM displays the events

Explanation: Both the statements are correct as counter trade takes

(a) There is only one factor

Explanation: The assumptions of the theory of factor endowment

Explanation: Current account consists of the following items:

Correct Option/Answer: (d) All of the above

(a) Saves time

Explanation: The advantages of DSS are as follows:

Explanation: The impact of technology on the business is as follows:

(a) Transfer Related Authority of Intellectual Property Rights

Explanation: Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

(a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Statement one is incorrect as the barrier in the form of

Explanation: The assertion is correct as patents are given and

Explanation: Both assertion and reason are correct and reason

(a) Corporate entrepreneur

Explanation: The word entrepreneur is derived from the French

Explanation: Theory of social change given by Max-Weber is based

Explanation: The assertion is correct as innovations are useful in

Explanation: The method that is used for generating the business

(a) Family conflicts at house

Explanation: The problems faced by women entrepreneurs are

(a) Both statements are correct

Explanation: Statement one is correct as financial inclusion is the

(a) National and International for Emergence of Small Banking development

Explanation: National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small

Explanation: Both the statements are incorrect as the external

Explanation: Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional

The Sick Industrial Companies Act was established in 1985 for

Explanation: National Income is also called as National Income at

Explanation: There are several Business ethos principles practiced by

Explanation: The word Normative comes from the word ‘norm’

Explanation: Negative Income Elasticity means that the demand of

Explanation: The Law of Equi- Marginal Utility means that the

Explanation: 5 Models of Individual Behaviour in an Organization are

Explanation: Operant is defined as behaviour that produces an

Explanation: Selection Process Steps are:- Preliminary interview,

Explanation: There are four steps involved in emotional