CONTENTS

PHYSICS PAGE No.

1. ELECTROSTATICS 1-12

ANSWER 13

2. CAPACITANCE 14-24

ANSWER 25

3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY 26-36

ANSWER 37

4. MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT 38-51

ANSWER 52

5. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 53-63

ANSWER 64

6. ALTERNATING CURRENT 65-73

ANSWER 74

7. RAY OPTICS 75-87

ANSWER 88

8. WAVE OPTICS 89-99

ANSWER 100

9. ATOMIC STRUCTURE 101-107

ANSWER 107

10. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 108-116

ANSWER 116

11. NUCLEUS 117-127

ANSWER 127

“ ”
No one can push you up the ladder, unless you are willing to climb
 ELECTROSTATICS
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. Three point charges q, 2q and 2q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a.
The work done by some external force to increase their separation to 2a will be
1 2q 2 1 3q 2
(A) . (B) negative (C) zero (D) .
4 o a 4 o a

2. The electric field in a region is given by the vector E  (4iˆ  3ˆj) (N/C). The maximum drop in
potential will be along
(A) X-axis (B) Y-axis
(C) the line 4y = 3x (D) the line 3y = 4x
3. The electric potential at a point (x, y) in the x  y plane is given V =  kxy. The field intensity at a
distance r from the origin varies as :
(A) r2 (B) r (C) 1/r (D) 1/r2
4. n small drops of same size are charged to V volts each. If they coalesce to form a single large
drop, then its potential will be
(A) V/n (B) Vn (C) Vn1/3 (D) Vn2/3
5. A particle of mass m and positive charge q is projected towards an infinitely
long line of charge (having linear density of charge +) from a distance r0. The
direction of initial velocity v0 makes angle 30° with the normal to the line of
charge as shown in the figure. The minimum distance of approach of the
charge particle with the line of charge will be: [Neglect gravity and take
ε 0 mv02
λ= ].
4q
(A) r0/e (B) r0/e2
(C) r0/e3 (D) r0/2

6. In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x 2 – y2 + z2]. The electric field at
the point (1, 1, 1) has magnitude =
(A) k 6 (B) 2k 6 (C) 2k 3 (D) 4k 3
7. Four charges 6C, 2C, -12C and 4C are places at the corners of a square of side 1m. The
square is in x-y plane and its center is at origin. Electric potential due to these charges is zero
everywhere on the line
(A) x = y, z = 0 (B) x = z =0 (C) x = y =0 (D) x = z, y = 0
8. The figure shows a infinitely long linear charge distribution of density  C/m along yaxis. A
point charge q of m is tied to a thread which other end is fixed at x = 2L. What should be
minimum velocity v so that the charge may complete a circle about O in xy plane. Assume
gravity free space.
q 1  2n3  q
(A) (B)
20m 20 m
qn3 qn3
(C) (D)
0 m 20 m

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 
9. An electric field given by E = 4i  3(y 2 +2) j passes through Gaussian cube of side 1 m placed at
origin such that its three sides represents x, y and z axes. The net charge enclosed within the
cube is
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) zero
10. Two infinitely long and uniformly charged wires (with linear charge
density ) are fixed in xy plane at x = a as shown in figure. Another
similar wire is hanging freely in the symmetric plane between the
wires. The maximum possible linear mass density of this wire will be:
2 2
(A) (B)
0ag 20ag
22 
(C) (D)
0ag 20ag
11. Three point charges q1, q2 and q3 are taken such that when q1 and q2 are placed close together to
form a single point charge, the force on q3 at distance L from this combination is a repulsive and
of 2 units in magnitude. When q2 and q3 are so combined the force on q1 at distance L is on
attractive force of magnitude 4 units. Also q3 and q1 when combined exert an attractive force on
q2 of magnitude 18 unit at same distance L. The algebraic ratio of charges q1, q2 and q3 is :
(A) 1: 2: 3 (B) 2: –3 : 4 (C) 4 : –3 : 1 (D) 4: –3 : 2
12. A charged particle having some mass is resting in equilibrium at a height H above the center of a
uniformly charged non-conducting horizontal ring of radius R. The force of gravity acts
downwards. The equilibrium of the particle will be stable
R
(A) for all values of H (B) only if H 
2
R R
(C) only if H  (D) only if H 
2 2
 
13. The electric dipole of moment p  piˆ is kept at a point (x, y) in an electric field E  4xy 2ˆi  4x 2 yjˆ .
The force on the dipole is:
pyx
(A) zero (B) (C) 4py y 2  4x 2 (D) none
2 2
x y
14. A nonconducting semicircular ring of radius R, contains charge Q and Q as shown in figure.
What work is required to rotate the semiring slowly by an angle /2.
4QRE
(A) 4QRE (B)

2QRE
(C) (D) 2QRE

15. Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the +Q
a
–Q
figure. The electric field on the line passing through point O and
perpendicular to the plane of the figure at a distance of x ( >>a) from O is
Qa 2Qa +Q –Q
(A) (B) O
0 x 3
0 x 3

–Q
3Qa +Q
(C) (D) zero
0 x 3
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16. A circle of radius r has a linear charge density  = 0 cos2 along its circumference. Total charge
on the circle is
 r   r 
(A) 0(2r) (B) 0(r) (C) 0   (D) 0  
2 4
17. It is given that the potential energy of a line charge is equal to U. If the
same line charge is build in the presence of a point charge Q as shown in
the diagram then what will be the work done in building the line charge?
a L a L a L a L
Q ln   Q ln   Q ln   Q ln  
(A) U   a  (B) U   a  (C) U   a  (D) U   a 
40 20 40 40
18. Two particles, each having a mass of 5g and charge 1.0 × 10–7C, stay in limiting equilibrium on
a horizontal table with a separation of 10cm between them. The coefficient of friction between
each particle and the table is the same. Find the value of this coefficient.
9 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50 50 50 25
19. Four charges 2C, –3C, –4C and 5C respectively are placed at all the corners of a square. Which
of the following statements is true for the point of intersection of the diagonals ?
(A) Electric field is zero but electric potential is non-zero
(B) Electric field is non-zero but electric potential is zero
(C) Both electric field and electric potential are zero.
(D) Neither electric field nor electric potential is zero.
20. Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface densities( ).
What is the electric potential at their common centre ?
 
(A) /0 (B) (R – r) (C) (R + r) (D) none of these
0 0
SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. S1 and S2 are two equipotential surfaces on which the potentials are not equal.
(A) S1 and S2 cannot intersect.
(B) S1 and S2 both cannot be plane surfaces.
(C) in the region between S1 and S2, the field is maximum where they are closest to each other.
(D) A line of force from S1 to S2 must be perpendicular to both.

2. A particle of mass m and charge q is fastened to one end of a string of length .

The other end of the string is fixed to the point O. The whole system lies on a
frictionless horizontal plane. Initially, the mass is at rest at A. A uniform
electric field in the direction shown is then switched on. Then
2qE
(A) the speed of the particle when it reaches B is
m
qE
(B) the speed of the particle when it reaches B is
m
(C) the tension in the string when particle reaches at B is 2qE
(D) the tension in the string when the particle reaches at B is qE
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3. Two large, parallel conducting plates are placed close to each other. The inner surface of the two
plates have surface charge densities + and –. The outer surfaces are without charge. The
electric field has a magnitude of
(A) 2/0 in the region between the plates (B) /0 in the region between the plates
(C) /0 in the region outside the plates (D) zero in the region outside the plates

4. A large non-conducting sheet M is given a uniform charge density. Two uncharged small metal
rods A and B are placed near the sheet as shown in figure. M
(A) M attracts A A B
(B) M attracts B
(C) A attacts B
(D) A repels B

5. A hemispherical portion of radius a is removed from a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius

2a, charge density  as shown in the diagram. Then
3a 2
(A) Potential at A is
20
2a 2
(B) Potential at B is
3 0
7 a 2
(C) Potential at C is
120
3a 2
(D) Potential at A is
20

6. Three spherical conductors of radius R, 2R and 3R are charged to Q, 2Q and zero respectively.
They are placed such that they touch each other, then
(A) sphere of radius R will have charge Q/2
(B) sphere of radius 2R will have charge Q
(C) sphere of radius 3R will have charge 3Q/2
(D) all spheres will have equal charge Q

7. In a space E  (A  Bx)iˆ where A, B > 0 and x is distance from the point where a charge particle
of charge q was initially at rest, then
(A) distance travelled by particle before coming to rest is 2A/B
(B) distance travelled by particle before coming to rest is A/B
(C) Acceleration of particle when it is at rest is –qA/m
(D) Acceleration of particle when it is at rest is -2qA/m
8. Eight charges are fixed on vertices of an imaginary cubical volume. All four charges at the top
vertices are +q and those on the lower vertices are –q. Then
(A) net flux through each of the side face is zero
(B) net flux through the top surface is zero
(C) net flux through all the surfaces is zero
(D) net flux through both the top and bottom surfaces together is zero

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9. There is metal sphere having a concentric spherical cavity as shown. The
inner radius is 'a' and outer radius is 'b'. Q1 charge is placed inside cavity at
some point other than center and Q2 charge is placed outside the sphere.
Select the correct option(S).
(A) Net electrostatic field at some point outside the sphere due to Q1and
charges induced on inner surface of cavity is zero.
(B) Net electrostatic field at some point outside the sphere due to Q 1 and
charges induced on inner surface of cavity is nonzero.
(C) Net electrostatic field at center 'O' due to Q2 and charges induced on outer surface of sphere
is zero.
(D) Net electrostatic field at center 'O' due to Q2 and charges induced on outer surface of sphere
is nonzero.

10. The electric potential in some region is expressed by , V = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2
There is a charge of 2C situated at origin.
(A) Magnitude of force on the charge is 20 N (B) Net force acts in x-y plane
(C) Net force on the charge can not be predicted (D) x and y component of forces will be equal.
11. There are two concentric conducting spheres of radii a and b respectively (where a < b). situation
is shown in fig. Charge on inner sphere is Q and outer is sphere is neutral. Choose the correct
options(S)
b
Q
(A) potential of inner sphere is
4  0 a
a
Q 1 1
(B) potential difference between two spheres is 
4 0  a b 
(C) if two sphere are connected by a metallic wire then after some time charge on outer surface
of outer will not change.
(D) If two spheres are connected by a metallic wire then after some time charge on inner surface
of outer sphere will be zero
12. A point charge Q is placed at a distance x from center of a conducting
sphere having a concentric spherical cavity as shown. Now select the
correct statement(S), regarding the situation given here. Q
(A) electric field at center of cavity due to Q is zero x
(B) electric field at center of cavity due to induced charge on conducting
sphere is non zero
Q
(C) electric potential at a point inside conducting material is
40 x
Q
(D) electric potential at a point inside cavity is
40 x

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COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
A small particle of mass m and charge q, is placed on rough horizontal surface
with coefficient of friction µ = 0.5. A semi-infinite vertical wire with linear
charge density  is arranged as shown in the figure. The block is released from
rest at distance d as shown in the figure.  k  1/40 

1. Assuming gravity free space, the speed of the block when it travels a further distance d is given
by
kq ln2 kq
(A) (B)
m m
2kq ln2
(C) (D) the block will remain at rest
m
2. Assuming gravity acting vertically downwards, then the minimum value of ‘d’ where the charge
particle if placed will remain in equilibrium is :
k q 2kq kq 2kqn2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
mg mg 2mg mg

3. The distance from the wire where the velocity of the block will become maximum will be
k q kq kqn2
(A) (B) (C)
mg 2mg mg
(D) the velocity of block will keep on increasing

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

The figure shows two blocks each of mass m carrying charge +q and q. They
are attached by a spring of spring constant K. An electric field E is switched
on at t = 0, when spring was is relaxed position. Friction exists only between
B and surface and it is just sufficient to prevent slipping of the block B at
t= 0. Neglecting any interaction (Coulombic) between the charge at A and B,
answer the following questions.
4. Maximum compression in the spring will be
qE 2qE
(A) (B)
K K
qE
(C) (D) can’t be defined due to oscillations of both block
2K
5. Time period of oscillation of block A is
m m
(A) 2 (B) 2
K 2K
2m
(C)  (D) both blocks will oscillate, time period can’t be defined
K
6. Block B will start moving after time
m m m
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C)  (D) it will never move
K 2K K

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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. Two conducting sphere A and B of radius a and b, is placed concentrically as shown. Sphere
B is earthed, C is the common center. Sphere A is given charge Q. For a given distance r.
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
br
(A) for r < a potential is proportional to (P)
rb
ab
(B) for a  r  b potential is proportional to (Q)
ba
1
(C) potential difference between surface A (R)
r
and B is proportional to
ba
(D) for a  r  b electric field is proportional to (S)
ab
y
2. Two isolated point charges are fixed in the positions shown on x-axis.
Both the charges are positive and are located at (–a, 0) and (a,0). Match ( a,0) (a,0)
x
Column-I and Column-II. q q
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II

(A) Variation of magnitude of electric field (P)

along x-axis from x   to x   .

(B) Variation of magnitude of electric field (Q)

along y-axis from y   to y  

(C) Variation of electric potential along (R)

x-axis from x   to x  

(D) Variation of electric potential (S)

along y-axis from y   to y  

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. A simple pendulum with a bob of mass m = 1 kg, charge q = 5 µC and string C
length l = 1m is given a horizontal velocity u in a uniform electric field E =
2×106 V/m at its bottommost point A, as shown in figure. It is given a speed u
D B

such that the particle leave the circle at its topmost point C. If the speed u is l E

n m/s then n is. (Take g = 10 m/s2) A u

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2. A charge is kept at point P, as shown in the figure, such that the net electric force on charge
Q is zero. What is the value of in degrees.

3q

a P

O ) 4q
Q a

3. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge denstiy  cuts through a 
spherical Gaussian surface of radius R at a distance x from its center, as shown in the
R
(R 2  x 2 )  x
figure. The electric flux through the Gaussian surface is x then x is :
40

4. A square of side b centered at the origin with sides parallel to axes of x and y has surface
charge density (x, y) = 0xy within its boundaries. Total charge on the square is :
z
5. A line charge of charge density  lies along the x-axis and let the surface of v=0
zero potential passes through (0,5,12) m. The potential at point (2,3,–4) m is (0,5,12)

  13 
x ln  then x is:
40  5 
y
+

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2008
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS:
The nuclear charge (Ze) is nonuniformly distributed within a nucleus of radius R.
The charge density  (R) [charge per unit volume] is dependent only on the radial
distance r from the center of the nucleus as shown in figure. The electric field is
only along the radial direction.
1. The electric field at r = R is
(A) independent of a (B) directly proportional to a
(C) directly proportional to a2 (D) inversely proportional to a
2. For a = 0, the value of d (maximum value of  as shown I the figure) is
3Ze 3Ze 4Ze Ze
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) (D)
4R R 3R 3 3R 3
3. The electric field within the nucleus is generally observed to be linearly dependent on r. This
implies.
R 2R
(A) a = 0 (B) a  (C) a = R (D) a 
2 3
IITJEE-2009
4. The concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R and 3R are given charges Q 1, Q2 and Q3,
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells
are equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3 : 5 (C) 1 : 4 : 9 (D) 1 : 8 : 18

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5. Under the influence of the coulomb field of charge +Q, charge –q is moving around it in an
elliptical orbit. Find out the correct statement(S).
(A) The angular momentum of charge –q is constant.
(B) The linear momentum of the charge –q is constant.
(C) The angular velocity of the charge –q is constant.
(D) The linear speed of the charge –q is constant.

IITJEE-2011

 , where E0 is a constant. The flux
6. Consider an electric field E = E0 x
through the shaded area (as shown in the figure) due to this field is
(A) 2E0a2 (B) 2E 0 a 2
E0a 2
(C) E0a2 (D)
2
7. A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (<RA) are kept
far apart and each is given charge ‘+Q’. Now they are connected by a thin metal
(A) Einside
A =0 (B) QA > QB
σ R
(C) A = B (D) Eon
A
surface
 Eon
B
surface
σB RA

8. Which of the following statement(S) is/are correct?

(A) If the electric field due to a point charge varies as r-25 instead of r-2, then the Gauss law will
still be valid.
(B) The Gauss law can be used to calculate the filed distribution around an electric dipole.
(C) If the electric field between two point charges is zero somewhere, then the sign of the two
charges is the same.
(D) The work done by the external force in moving a unit positive charge from point A at
potential VA to point B at potential VB is (VB - VA).

IITJEE-2012
9. Two large vertical and parallel metal plates having a separation of 1 cm are connected to a DC
voltage source of potential difference X. A proton is released at rest midway between the two
plates. It is found to move at 45° to the vertical JUST after release. Then X is nearly.
(A) 1 × 10–5 V (B) 1 × 10–7 V (C) 1 × 10–9 V (D) 1 × 10–10 V
10. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its center at the origin, carrying uniform

positive surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field E(r)| and
the electric potential V(R) with the distance r from the center, is best represented by which
graph?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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11. A cubical region of side a has its center at the origin. It encloses three fixed
point charges, –q at (0, – a/4, 0), + 3q at (0, 0, 0) and –q at (0, + a/4, 0).
Choose the correct option (S).
(A) The net electric flux crossing the plane x = +a/2 is equal to the net
electric flux crossing the plane x = –a/2
(B) The net electric flux crossing the plane y = +a/2 is more than the net
electric flux crossing the plane y = –a/2.
(C) The net electric flux crossing the entire region is q/0
(D) The net electric flux crossing the plane z = +a/2 is equal to the net electric flux crossing
the plane x = +a/2
12. An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R has a uniform volume charge
density . It has a spherical cavity of radius R/2 with its center on the axis of
the cylinder, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field at the
point P, which is at a distance 2R from the axis of the cylinder, is given by
23R
the expression . The value of k is.
16k0

13. Six point charges are kept at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side L and
1 q
center O, as shown in the figure. Given that K = , which of the following statement(S)
40 L2
is (are) correct?
(A) The electric field at O is 6K along OD
(B) Potential at O is zero
(C) The potential at all points on the line PR is same
(D) The potential at all points on the line ST is same.
JEE (Adv)-2013
14. Two non-conducting solid spheres of radii R and 2R, having uniform volume charge density 1
and 2 respectively, touch each other. The net electric field at a distance 2R from the center of

the smaller sphere, along the line joining the center of the spheres, is zero. The ratio 1 can
2
be:
32 32
(A) – 4 (B)  (C) (D) 4
25 25
15. Two non-conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 and carrying volume charge densities + and -
, respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap as shown in the figure. All points in
the overlapping region:
(A) the electrostatics field is zero
(B) the electrostatic potential is constant
(C) the electrostatics field is constant in magnitude
(D) the electrostatic field has the same direction
JEE (Adv)-2014
16. Let E1 (R), E2 (R) and E3 (R) be the respective electric fields at a distance r from a point charge
Q, an infinitely long wire with constant linear charge density , and an infinite plane with
uniform surface charge density . If E1 (r0) = E2 (r0) = E3 (r0) at a given distance r0, then

(A) Q  4r02 (B) r0 
2
(C) E1(r0 /2)  2E2 (r0 /2) (D) E2 (r0 /2)  4E3 (r0 /2)

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17. Four charges Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 of same magnitude are fixed along
the x axis at x = –2a, –a, +a and +2a respectively. A positive charge
q is placed on the positive y axis at a distance b > 0. Four options
of the signs of these charges are given in List I. The direction of the
forces on the charge q is given in List II. Match List I with List II
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
COLUMN - I COLUMN - II
(P) Q1 , Q2, Q3, Q4 all positive 1. +x
(Q) Q1, Q2 positive; Q3, Q4 negative 2. -x
(R) Q1, Q4 positive; Q2, Q3 negative 3. +y
(S) Q1, Q3 positive; Q2, Q4 negative 4. -y
Code:
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
JEE (Adv)-2015
18. An infinitely long uniform line charge distribution of charge per unit
3
length  lies parallel to the y-axis in the y-z plane at z  a (see
2
figure). If the magnitude of the flux of the electric field through the
rectangular surface ABCD lying in the x-y plane with its centre at the
L
origin is ( 0 = permittivity of free space), then the value of n is
n0

19. The figures below depict two situations in which two

infinitely long static line charges of constant positive line
charge density  are kept parallel to each other. In their
resulting electric field, point charges q and –q are kept in
equilibrium between them. The point charges are
confined to move in the x direction only. If they are given
a small displacement about their equilibrium positions,
then the correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) Both charges execute simple harmonic motion.
(B) Both charges will continue moving in the direction of their displacement.
(C) Charge +q executes simple harmonic motion while charge –q continues moving in the
direction of its displacement.
(D) Charge –q executes simple harmonic motion while charge +q continues moving in the
direction of its displacement.
JEE (Adv)-2017
20. A point charge +Q is placed just outside an imaginary hemispherical surface of
radius R as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q
(A) Total flux through the curved and the flat surface is
0
(B) The component of the electric field normal to the flat surface is constant over the surface
(C) The circumference of the flat surface is an equipotential
Q  1 
(D) The electric flux passing though the curved surface of the hemisphere is  1  
20  2

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JEE (Adv)-2018
21. An infinitely long thin non-conducting wire is parallel to the z-axis and
carries a uniform line charge density  . It pierces a thin non-conducting
spherical shell of radius R in such a way that the arc PQ subtends an angle
120° at the centre O of the spherical shell, as shown in the figure. The
permittivity of free space is 0 . Which of the following statements is (are)
true?
(A) The electric flux through the shell is 3R/ε0
(B) The z-component of the electric field is zero at all the points on the
surface of the shell
(C) The electric flux through the shell is 2R/ε0
(D) The electric field is normal to the surface of the shell at all points

22. The electric field E is measured at a point P(0,0,d) generated due to various charge
distributions and the dependence of E on d is found to be different for different charge
distributions. List-I contains different relations between E and d. List-II describes different
electric charge distributions, along with their locations. Match the functions in List-I with the
related charge distributions in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
P. E is independent of d 1. A point charge Q at the origin
A small dipole with point charges Q at
1
Q. E  2. +Q at (0,0,l) and –Q at (0,0,–l).
d
Take 2  d
1
An infinite line charge coincident with
R. E  2 3. the x-axis, with uniform linear charge
d density 
Two infinite wires carrying uniform
linear charge density parallel to the x-
1 axis. The one along (y  0,z  ) has a
S. E  3 4.
d charge density  and the one along
(y  0,z  ) has a charge density  .
Take 2  d
Infinite plane charge coincident with
5. the xy-plane with uniform surface
charge density
(A) P → 5; Q → 3, 4; R → 1; S → 2
(B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 4; S → 2
(C) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 2; S → 4
(D) P → 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 1; S → 5

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. C 5. C 9. B 13. C 17. A
2. C 6. B 10. B 14. B 18. A
3. B 7. B 11. D 15. A 19. B
4. D 8. A 12. B 16. B 20. C

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. ACD 4. C 7. AC 10. AB
2. BC 5. AC 8. ACD 11. ABCD
3. BD 6. ABC 9. AC 12. BCD

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-S, B-P, C-S, D-Q 2. A-S, B-P,C-Q, D-R

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 50 2. 37 3. 4 4. 0 5. 2

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. A 6. C 11. ACD 16. C 21. AB
2. B 7. ABCD 12. 6 17. A 22. B
3. C 8. C 13. ABC 18. 6
4. B 9. A 14. BD 19. C
5. A 10. D 15. CD 20. CD

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 CAPACITANCE
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled completely with a dielectric
substance having dielectric constant 4 and thickness 3mm. The distance between the plates is
now increased by inserting a second sheet of thickness 5mm and dielectric constant K. If the
capacitance of the capacitor so formed is one half of the original capacitance, the value of K is:
10 20 5 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3

2. The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. Let the positively charged plate
is at x=0 and negatively charged plate is at x=5d. Two slabs one of conductor and other of a
dielectric of equal thickness d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential
versus distance graph will look like :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
3. A parallel plate capacitor A is filled with a dielectric whose dielectric constant varies with
applied voltage as K = V. An identical capacitor B of capacitance C with air as dielectric is
connected to voltage source V0 = 30V and then connected to the first capacitor after
disconnecting the voltage source. The charge and voltage on capacitor.
(A) A are 25C and 25V (B) A are 25C and 5 V (C) B are 5C and 25 V (D) None
4. difference. When a dielectric plate is introduced between the two plates then :
(A) some charge from the capacitor will flow back into the source.
(B) the electric field intensity between the two plate does not change.
(C) the electric field intensity between the two plates will decrease.
(D) None of these
5. A parallel plate capacitor has a parallel sheet of copper inserted between and parallel to the
two plates, without touching the plates. The capacity of the capacitor after the introduction of
the copper sheet is :
(A) minimum when the copper sheet touches one of the plates.
(B) maximum when the copper sheet touches one of the plates.
(C) invariant for all positions of the sheet between the plates.
(D) less than that before introducing the sheet.

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6. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric are connected to a voltage source.
Now a dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted to fill the whole space between the plates
with voltage source remaining connected to the capacitor. Which of the following is false
(A) the energy stored in the capacitor will become Ktimes
(B) the electric field inside the capacitor will decrease to Ktimes
(C) the force of attraction between the plates will increase to K2–times
(D) the charge on the capacitor will increase to Ktimes
7. Four capacitors and a battery are connected as shown. The
potential drop across the 7 F capacitor is 6 V. Then which one is
wrong :
(A) potential difference across the 3 F capacitor is 10 V
(B) charge on the 3 F capacitor is 42 C
(C) e.m.f. of the battery is 30 V
(D) potential difference across the 12 F capacitor is 10 V.
8. A circuit shown in the figure consists of a battery of emf 10 V and two capacitance C 1 and C2
of capacitances 1.0 F and 2.0 F respectively. The potential difference VA – VB is 5V
(A) charge on capacitor C1 is equal to charge on capacitor C2
(B) Voltage across capacitor C1 is 5V.
(C) Voltage across capacitor C2 is 10 V
(D) Energy stored in capacitor C1 is four times the energy stored in capacitor C2.
9. A capacitor C is charged to a potential difference V and battery is disconnected. Now if the
capacitor plates are brought close slowly by some distance :
(A) some +ve work is done by external agent (B) energy of capacitor will decrease
(C) energy of capacitor will increase (D) none of the above
10. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is C when the region between the plate has air.
This region is now filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant k. The capacitor is
connected to a cell of emf E, and the slab is taken out
(A) charge CE(k – 1) flows through the cell
(B) energy (k – 1) is absorbed by the cell.
(C) the energy stored in the capacitor is reduced by E2C(k – 1)
1 2
(D) the external agent has to do E C amount of work to take the slab out.
2
11. Two capacitors of capacitances 1F and 3F are charged to the same voltages 5V. They are
connected in parallel with oppositely charged plates connected together. Then:
(A) Final common voltage will be 5V.
(B) Final common voltage will be 2.5 V
(C) Heat produced in the circuit will be zero.
(D) Heat produced in the circuit will be 17.5 J
12. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an isolated charged capacitor. Which of the
following quantities will remain the same?
(A) the electric field in the capacitor (B) the charge on the capacitor
(C) the potential difference between the plates (D) the stored energy in the capacitor.

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13. The separation between the plates of a isolated charged parallel plate capacitor is increased.
Which of the following quantities will not change?
(A) charge on the capacitor (B) potential difference across the capacitor
(C) energy of the capacitor (D) capacity of capacitor.
14. Each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a charge q on it. The capacitor is now connected to
a battery. Now, which of the following is incorrect
(A) the facing surfaces of the capacitor have equal and opposite charges.
(B) the two plates of the capacitor have equal and opposite charges.
(C) the battery supplies equal and opposite charges to the two plates.
(D) the outer surfaces of the plates have equal charges.
15. Following operations can be performed on a capacitor :
X – connect the capacitor to a battery of emf E. Y – disconnect the battery
Z – reconnect the battery with polarity reversed. W – insert a dielectric slab in the capacitor
Which of the following operation is incorrect
(A) In XYZ (perform X, then Y, then Z) the stored electric energy remains unchanged and no
thermal energy is developed.
(B) The charge appearing on the capacitor is greater after the action XWY than after the
action XYW.
(C) The electric energy stored in the capacitor is greater after the action WXY than after the
action XYW.
(D) The electric field in the capacitor after the action XW is the same as that after WX.
16. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the source of potential
difference. If the plates of the condenser are then moved farther apart by the use of insulated
handle, which one of the following is true?
(A) the charge on the capacitor increases
(B) the charge on the capacitor decreases
(C) the capacitance of the capacitor increases
(D) the potential difference across the plate increases
17. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the source steady E.M.F. The
plates are then drawn apart farther. Again it is connected to the same source. Then which of
the following is not true.
(A) the potential difference across the plate increases, while the plates are being drawn apart.
(B) the charge from the capacitor flows into the source, when the capacitor is reconnected.
(C) more charge is drawn to the capacitor from the source, during the reconnection.
(D) the electric intensity between the plates remains constant during the drawing apart of
plates.
18. When two identical capacitors are charged individually to different potentials and connected
parallel to each other, after disconnecting them from the source then which of the following is
not possible
(A) net charge on connected plates is less than the sum of initial individual charges.
(B) net charge on connected plates equals the sum of initial charges.
(C) the net potential difference across them is different from the sum of the individual initial
potential differences.
(D) the net energy stored in the two capacitors is less than the sum of the initial individual
energies.

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19. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged to potential
difference V and then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant K is then
inserted between the plates of the capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. If Q, E
and W denote respectively, the magnitude of charge on each plate, the electric field between
the plates (after the slab is inserted) and the work done on the system, in question, in the
process of inserting the slab, then the following is wrong
0 AV 0KAV V
(D) W = – 0 AV  1  1 
2
(A) Q = (B) Q = (C) E =
d d K d 2 d 
K 
\\

20. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The quantities charge, voltage, electric field
and energy associated with the capacitor are given by Q0, V0, E0 and U0 respectively. A
dielectric slab is introduced between plates of capacitor but battery is still in connection. The
corresponding quantities now given by Q, V, E and U related to previous ones are
(A) Q > Q0 (B) V > V0 (C) E > E0 (D) U < U0

21. A parallel-plate capacitor is connected to a cell. Its positive plate A and its negative plate B
have charges +Q and –Q respectively. A third plate C, identical to A and B, with charge +Q, is
now introduced midway between A and B, parallel to them. Which of the following are
incorrect?
3Q
(A) The charge on the inner face of B is now 
2
(B) There is no change in the potential difference between A and B.
(C) The potential difference between A and C is one-third of the potential difference between B
and C.
(D) None
22. Two capacitors C1 = 4 F and C2 = 2F are charged to same potential
V = 500 Volt, but with opposite polarity as shown in the figure. The
switches S1 and S2 are closed.
(A) The potential difference across the two capacitors are same and is given by
(B) The potential difference across the two capacitors are same and is given by
(C) The ratio of final energy to initial energy of the system is 1/3.
(D) The ratio of final energy to initial energy of the system is 4/9.
23. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain potential and the charging battery is then
disconnected. Now, if the plates of the capacitor are moved apart then:
(A) The stored energy of the capacitor increases (B) Charge on the capacitor increases
(C) Voltage of the capacitor decreases (D) The capacitance increases
24. Two capacitors of equal capacitance (C1 = C2) are shown in the figure. Initially, while the
switch S is open, one of the capacitors is uncharged and the other carries charge Q 0. The
energy stored in the charged capacitor is U0. Sometimes after the switch is closed, the
capacitors C1 and C2 carry charges Q1 and Q2, respectively; the voltages across the
capacitors are V1 and V2; and the energies stored in the capacitors are U1 and U2. Which of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
1
(A) Q0 = (Q1 + Q2) (B) Q1 = Q2 (C) V1 = V2 (D) U0 = U1 + U2
2

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25. A parallel-plate capacitor is connected to a battery. A metal sheet of negligible thickness is
placed between the plates. The sheet remains parallel to the plates of the capacitor.
(A) The battery will supply more charge.
(B) The capacitor will increase.
(C) The potential difference between the plates will increase.
(D) Equal and opposite charges will appear on the two faces of the metal plate.
26. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of a capacitor. The charge on the capacitor is Q
and the magnitude of the induced charge on each surface of the dielectric is Q ’.
(A) Q’ may be larger than Q. (B) Q’ must be larger than Q.
(C) Q’ must be equal to Q. (D) Q’ must be smaller than Q.
27. Three long conducting plate A, B & C having charges +q, –2q & +q as shown in
figure. Here plate A and C are fixed. If the switch S is closed. The middle plate
(B) will start moving in
(A) Leftward direction
(B) Rightward direction
(C) will not move
(D) First move leftward & then rightward
28. The amount of heat liberated in the circuit after closing the switch S.
CV 2
(A) zero (B)
2
(C) CV2 (D) none
29. A capacitor having capacitance ‘C’ is charged by a battery having e.m.f. 2V
(Battery is disconnected after charging). Now this charged capacitor is connected
to another battery having e.m.f. V. The positive plate of capacitor is connected
with negative terminal of battery & vice-versa. The amount of heat produced
after connecting it with battery is-
(A) 4.5 CV2 (B) 3.5 CV2 (C) 2.5 CV2 (D) 1.5 CV2
30. Charges Q0 and 2Q0 are given to parallel plates A and B respectively and they are
separated by a small distance. The capacitance of the given
arrangement is C. Now plates A and B are connected to positive and
negative terminals of battery of potential difference V = 2Q0/C
respectively as shown, then the work done by the battery is
2Q2
0 4Q2
0
(A) (B)
C C
5Q2
0 6Q2
0
(C) (D)
C C

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 SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. X and Y are large, parallel conducting plates closed to each other. Each face has
an area A. X is given a charge Q. Y is without any charge. Points A, B and C are
as shown in figure.
Q
(A) The field at B is
20 A
Q
(B) The field at B is
0 A
(C) The field at A, B and C are of the same magnitude.
(D) The field at A and C are of the same magnitude, but in opposite directions.
2. Which of the following quantities do not depend on the choice of zero potential or zero
potential energy?
(A) potential at a point
(B) potential difference between two points
(C) potential energy of a two-charge system
(D) change in potential energy of a two-charge system.
3. Two spheres of radius 2R and R are charged to Q/2 and Q respectively
and connected by a battery of emf V as shown in figure. When switch s is
closed :
(A) potential difference between these two sphere will not be equal to V
because they are already charged
(B) charges will redistribute until both spheres will have equal potential
(C) charge on sphere A will increase where as charge on sphere B decrease
(D) total charge on sphere A and B will still remain 3Q/2
4. Three capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2C, C2 = C and C3 = 2C are arranged
as shown. Point B is earthed and charge q is given through point A to the
arrangement. Then
(A) charge on plate 2 is q/2
(B) total charge on plate 4 and plate 5 is not zero because it is earthed
(C) charge on plate 1 and 6 is –q/2 and q/2 respectively
(D) adjacent plates will have equal and opposite charges.
5. A parallel plate capacitor is completely charged with a battery. The battery is disconnected
and the plates are moved further apart by means of insulating handles.
(A) Charge on the plates increases
(B) Potential difference between the plates increases
(C) The capacitance of the system decreases
(D) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases
6. Two thin conducting shells of radii R and 3R are shown in the figure. The outer
shell carries a charge +q and the inner shell is neutral. The inner shell is earthed
with the help of a switch S.
(A) With the switch S open, the potential of the inner sphere is equal to that of the
outer.
(B) When the switch S is closed, the potential of the inner sphere becomes zero
(C) With the switch S closed, the charge attained by the inner sphere is –q/3
(D) With the switch S closed, the charge attained by the inner sphere is –2q/3
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7. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to q1 and q2 and connected with capacitor C as shown
in figure. As switch S is closed :
C1 C2
(A) C gets extra charge when 
q1 q 2
C C
(B) C gets extra charge when 1  2
q1 q 2
C C
(C) C gets extra charge when 1  2
q1 q 2
(D) C does not gets extra charge for any value of q1 and q2.

8. A parallel plate air capacitor is connected to a battery. If plates of the capacitor are pulled
farther apart then which of the following statements/is/are correct ?
(A) Strength of electric field inside the capacitor remains unchanged if battery is disconnected
before pulling the plate.
(B) During the process, work is done by external force applied to pull the plates either battery
is disconnected or it remains connected
(C) Electrostatic potential energy in the capacitor decreases if the battery remains connected
(D) None of these
9. The two plates X and Y of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C are given a charge of
amount Q each. X is now joined to the positive terminal and Y to the negative terminal of a cell
of emf E = Q/C :
(A) Charge of amount Q will flow from the positive terminal to the negative terminal of the cell
through the capacitor.
(B) The total charge on the plate X will be 2Q.
(C) The total charge on the plate Y will be zero.
(D) The cell will supply CE2 amount of energy .
10. The separation between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor is increased . Which of
the following quantities will change ?
(A) charge on the capacitor (B) potential difference across the capacitor
(C) energy of the capacitor (D) energy density between the plates .
11. A capacitor with no dielectric is connected to a battery at t = 0. Consider a point A in the
connecting wires and a point B in between the plates :
(A) there is no current through A
(B) there is no current through B
(C) there is a current through A as long as the charging is not complete
(D) there is a current through B as long as the charging is not complete.
12. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is C0 when the region between the plates is air.
This region is now filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K. The capacitor is
connected to a cell of emf , and the slab is taken out.
(A) Charge C0(K - 1) flows through the cell
(B) Energy 2C0(K - 1) is absorbed by the cell.
(C) The energy stored in the capacitor is reduced by 2C0(K - 1).
1 2
(D) The external agent has to do  C0 (K  1) amount of work to take the slab out.
2
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13. A parallel-plate air capacitor of capacitance C0 is connected to a cell of emf E and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of
the capacitor, is now inserted in it.
(A) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.
(B) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
1
(C) The change in energy is E2C0 (K  1)
2
1  1
(D) The change in energy is E2C0 1  
2  K
14. Two large, parallel conducting plates are placed close to each other. The inner surface of the
two plates have surface charge densities + and –. The outer surfaces are without charge.
The electric field has a magnitude of
(A) 2/0 in the region between the plates (B) /0 in the region between the plates
(C) /0 in the region outside the plates (D) zero in the region outside the plates

15. Two large, identical and parallel conducting plates have surfaces X and Y, facing each other.
The charge per unit area on inner surface of X is 1, and on Y it is 2.Then :
(A) 1 = – 2 in all case
(B) 1 = – 2 only if a charge is given to one plate only
(C) 1 = 2 = 0 if equal charges are given to both the plates.
(D) 1 > 2 if X is given more charge than Y.

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
Three charged capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of capacitances and +
C1
+
C2

respectively and having charge each are connected with a R S

resistor of resistance through a switch S as shown. The switch
S is closed at t = 0 +
C3
1. The initial current (i.e. at t = 0) in the circuit is :
(A) Zero (B) 1 amp.
(C) 2 amp. (D) 4 amp.
2. Final charge on capacitor C2 is :
(A) 45  C (B) 30  C (C) Zero (D) 15  C
3. Heat dissipated in resistance is :
(A) 75  J (B) Zero (C) 50  J (D) 100  J

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

The figure shows a diagonal symmetric arrangement of capacitors and a
battery
4. Identify the correct statements.
(A) Both the 4F capacitors carry equal charges in opposite sense.
(B) Both the 4F capacitors carry equal charges in same sense.
(C) VB – VD = 0 (D) VD – VB > 0

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5. If the potential of C is zero, then identify incorrect statement :
(A) VA = + 15V (B) 4(VA – VB) + 2(VD – VB) = 2VB
(C) 2(VA – VD) + 2(VB – VD) = 4VD (D) VA = VB + VD

6. The value of charge q1, q2 and q3 as shown in the figure are :

(A) q1 = 32  C ; q2 = 24  C ; q3 = – 8  C
(B) q1 = 48  C ; q2 = 16  C ; q3 = + 8  C
(C) q1 = 32  C ; q2 = 24  C ; q3 = + 8  C
(D) q1 = 3  C ; q2 = 4  C ; q3 = + 2  C

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1.

COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
(A) Vd – Vc (in volt) (P) –8
(B) Va – Vb (in volt) (Q) –4
(C) work done by 12V cell is (in J) (R) –192
(D) work done by 24V cell is (in J) (S) 384
2. Three large conducting plates are placed at a distance ‘d’ apart in air. The space between the
first two plates is completely filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K = 2 as shown
in figure. The plates A, B and C are given a charges , 7Q,3Q and 2Q respectively. The outer
two plates are now connected with a conducting wire.
Column (I) Column (II)
(A) Charge on surface ‘1’ (P) 5Q
(B) Charge on surface ‘5’ (Q) 3Q
(C) Charge on plate ‘B’ (R) 6Q
(D) Charge on plate ‘C’ (S) Q

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. The connections shown in figure are established with the switch S open. How much charge
will flow through the switch if it is closed?

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2. In the figure shown, find the e.m.f.  for which charge on 2F capacitor is 4 C.

3. A parallel plate capacitor C is connected to a battery and is charged to a

potential difference V . Another capacitor of capacitance 2 C is similarly charged
to a potential difference 2 V volt. The charging battery is now disconnected
and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in such a way that the
positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of other. If the
final energy of the configuration is n/2 CV2, then find the value of n.

4. Three concentric conduction spherical shells are arranged as shown in

diagram. The innermost and outermost shell are connected to earth. If the a

middle sphere is given charge q0. Find the potential (in volt) of the middle 2a

shell. (q0 = 240a.)

4a

5. The equivalent capacitances of the combinations shown in the figure between points A
and B is (in F )
4µF

2µF 4µF

5µF
4µF 8µF

A 4µF B

6. Each plate of a parallel plate air capacitor has area S = 5 × 10 –3 m2 and are
d = 8.85 mm apart as shown in figure. Plate A has a positive charge q1 = 10–10
coulomb and plate B has charge q2 = + 2 × 10–10 coulomb. If energy supplied by
a battery of emf E = 10 volt when its positive terminal is connected with plate
A and negative terminal with plate B is n × 10–9 J then n is

7. If amount of heat produced in the circuit shown in figure when switch is closed is 1225/n
J then n is

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 SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
JEE (Adv)-2014
1. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K between its
plates that covers 1/3 of the area of its plates, as shown in the figure. The total
capacitance of the capacitor is C while that of the portion with dielectric in
between is C1. When the capacitor is charged, the plate area covered by the
dielectric gets charge Q1 and the rest of the area gets charge Q2. Choose the
correct option/options, igonoring edge effects.
E E 1 Q 3 C 2K
(A) 1  1 (B) 1  (C) 1  (D) 
E2 E2 K Q2 K C1 K

JEE (Adv)-2015
2. A parallel plate capacitor having plate of area S and plate
separation d, has capacitance C1 in air. When two dielectrics of
different relative permittivities ( 1  2 and 2  4) are introduced
between the two plates as shown in the figure, the capacitance
C
becomes C2. The ratio 2 is
C1
(A) 6/5 (B) 5/3
(C) 7/5 (D) 7/3

JEE (Adv)-2018
3. Three identical capacitors C1, C2 and C3 have a capacitance of
1.0 F each and they are uncharged initially. They are
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure and C1 is then
filled completely with a dielectric material of relative
permittivity r . The cell electromotive force (emf) V0 = 8V.
First the switch S1 is closed while the switch S2 is kept open.
When the capacitor C3 is fully charged, S1 is opened and S2 is
closed simultaneously. When all the capacitors reach
equilibrium, the charge on C3 is found to be 5 C . The value
of r =____________.

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. B 8. A 15. A 22. A 29. A
2. B 9. B 16. D 23. A 30. C
3. B 10. A 17. C 24. D
4. B 11. B 18. A 25. D
5. C 12. B 19. B 26. D
6. B 13. A 20. A 27. B
7. A 14. B 21. D 28. A

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. ACD 4. ACD 7. AB 10. BC 13. ABD
2. BD 5. BCD 8. ABCD 11. ABD 14. BD
3. CD 6. ABC 9. ABCD 12. ABD 15. AC

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S 2. A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 12 3. 3 5. 12 7. 3
2. 6 4. 1 6. 1

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. AD 2. D 3. 1.5

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 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. In the circuit shown in the figure, if a wire is connected between A and B. How much current
will flow through the wire:
10
(A) 5A (B) A
3
20 5
(C) A (D) A
3 3

2. In the circuit shown, VA – VG is

(A) 30 V (B) 20 V
(C) 60 V (D) 40 V
3. The current through the 5 resistor is
(A) 10 A
(B) 1 A
(C) 2.5 A
(D) 0.4 A
4. When a galvanometer is shunted with a 4 resistance, the deflection is reduced to one-fifth. If
the galvanometer is further shunted with a 2 wire, the further reduction (find the ratio of
decreases in current to the previous current) in the deflection will be (the main current
remains the same).
(A) (8/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(B) (5/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(C) (3/4) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(D) (3/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
2 3
5. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit 5V
5V
2F
shown is
(A) 0.5 C (B) 1C 3 3

(C) 2 C (D) 4 C
6. A conducting sphere of radius r is initially charged to Q0. It is connected as shown in the fig. If
switch S is closed at t = 0 then charge on the sphere at any time t is
 
t   
t  r

(A) Q0 1  e 2 0rR  
(B) Q0 1  e 4  0 rR 
   
   
R
  t    t  S

(C) Q0 e 4  0 rR 
(D) Q0  e 2 0rR 
   
   
2
7. What is the steady state current in the 2  resistor shown in figure?
The internal resistance of the battery is negligible and the capacitance A
3
B

C = 0.5 mF:
(A) 0.3 A (B) 0.9 A 5

(C) 0.6 A (D) 1.2 A C 2.8 

6V

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8. A capacitor (without dielectric) is discharging through a resistor. At some instant a dielectric
is inserted between the plates, then
(A) Just after the insertion of the dielectric, current will increase.
(B) Just after the insertion of the dielectric, charge on capacitor will increase.
(C) Just after the inserted of the dielectric, energy stored in the capacitor will increase.
(D) just after insertion of dielectric current decreases
9. Each resistor in the following circuit has a resistance of 2 M  and the
capacitors have capacitance of 1 F. The battery voltage is 3V. The voltage
across the resistor ‘A’ in the following circuit in steady state is:
(A) 0 V (B) 0.5 V
(C) 0.75 V (D) 1.5 V
10. An uncharged capacitor is connected in series with a resistor and a battery. The charging of
the capacitor starts at t = 0. The rate at which energy in capacitor is stored
(A) first increases then decreases (B) first decreases then increases
(B) remains constant (D) continuously decreases
11. In the shown diagram, the key K (figure) is initially connected to position 1.
After time t, it shifted to position 2 and it was found that no current flows
through cell E2. If E1 = 2E2, and R1 = R2=R, then the value of t is:
(A) RC (B) 0.5RC
(C) RC ln2 (D) 0.5RC ln2
12. If at t = 0 the switch Sw is closed, then the charge on capacitor in the given circuit (initially
uncharged) when the current through battery becomes 50% of its maximum value is (assume
battery is ideal)
(A) C/3
(B) C/2
(C) C/4
(D) C
13. n resistances each of resistance R are joined with capacitors of capacity
C (each) and a battery of emf E as shown in the figure. In steady state
condition ratio of charge stored in the first and the last capacitor is
n2  1
(A) n : 1 (B) (n-1) : R (C) (D) 1 : 1
n2  1
14. 24 identical cells, each of internal resistance 0.5, are arranged in a parallel combination of n
rows, each row containing m cells in series. The combination is connected across a resistor of
3. In order to send maximum current through the resistor, we should have
(A) m = 12, n = 2 (B) m = 8, n = 3 (C) m = 2, n = 12 (D) m = 3, n = 8
15. When a battery is getting charged
(A) the voltage drop across its internal resistance is zero
(B) the terminal potential difference is less than its emf
(C) the terminal potential difference is more than its emf
(D) its terminal potential difference is zero
16. A charged capacitor is discharged separately through three resistors R1, R2,
R3. The discharging graph are shown in figure. The correct relation between
R1, R2 and R3 is given by :
(A) R1 < R2 < R3 (B) R1 < R3 < R2
(C) R1 > R2 > R3 (D) R1 > R3 > R2
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17. Consider the following circuit where AB is a one meter long E ( )
+ –
potentiometer wire. If both galvanometers G1 and G2 show null 60 cm
deflection, then the ratio of emf’s E1/E2 is: A
40c
B
m
(A) 0.67 (B) 1.5 E E
+ 1– + 2–
(C) 1.0 (D) cannot be determined
G1 G2
18. Switch S in the circuit makes 100 operations per second . During
each operation, the switch remains sufficiently long time at point P and Q
so as to completely charge and discharge the capacitor of 0.5 F . The
average current passing through the galvanometer is:
(A) 5 A (B) 50 A
(C) 5 mA (D) 50 mA
19. Find the reading of the voltmeter (assumed ideal) shown in the diagram:


 c 

 
a d
10 V
(A) 8 V (B) 9 V (C) 10 V (D) 6 V

20. What is the equivalent resistance of the network shown in figure? The numbers indicate
resistances in ohms .
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

A B
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

16 16
(A) 8  (B)  (C) 4  (D) 
3 5

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. In the given circuit if i1 and i2 be the current in resistors R1 and R2
respectively then :
(A) i1 = 3A, i2 = 2A
(B) i1 = 0, i2 = 2A
(C) i1 = 2A, i2 = 2A
(D) i1 = 2A and i2 can’t be determined with given data
2. In the given circuit R1R4 = R2R3. Then choose the correct statement :
(A) If positions of battery and galvanometer are interchanged then
galvanometer will still show zero deflection.
(B) Rate of heat dissipation through R1 will change if position of battery
and galvanometer are inter changed.
(C) If e.m.f.  is doubled still no deflection is shown by galvanometer.
(D) If galvanometer is not ideal it will show deflection if e.m.f. is doubled.

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3. In the above circuit S1 and S2 are closed at t = 0 if C1 > C2 q0 q0
+  + 
then choose incorrect statement: c2
c1
(A) C1 will loose 50% of initial charge sooner than C2. 1 2
(B) Initial current in circuit 1 will be more then 2 R S1 R S2
(C) Total amount of heat dissipated in both the circuit will
be same.
(D) Initial rate of heat dissipation in 1 will be less than in 2.
4. The area of cross section of a current carrying conductor is A 0 and
A0/4 at section (1) and (2) respectively. If V1 , V2 and E1, E2 be the
drift velocity and electric field at sections 1 and 2 respectively then:
(A) V1 :V2 = 1 : 4 (B) V1 :V2 = 4 : 1
(C) E1 : E2 = 4 : 1 (D) E1 : E2 = 1 : 4
5. A voltmeter and an Ammeter are joined in series to an ideal cell, giving readings V and A
respectively. If a resistance equal to resistance of ammeter is now joined parallel to ammeter
then:
(A) V will decrease slightly
(B) V will increase slightly
(C) A will become half of its initial value
(D) A will become slightly more than half of its initial value.
6. A uniform wire of resistance R is shaped into a regular nsided polygon (n is even). The
equivalent resistance between any two corners can have :
R R
(A) the maximum value (B) the maximum value
4 n
 n 1 R
(C) the minimum value R  2  (D) the minimum value
 n  n

7. In the circuit shown below, the cell is ideal, with emf = 2V. The resistance
of the coil of the galvanometer G is 1.
(A) No current flows in G
(B) 0.2A current flows in G
(C) Potential difference across C1 is 1 V
(D) Potential difference across C2 is 1.2 V
8. Two cells of unequal emfs, 1 and 2 and internal resistances r1 and r2
are joined as shown. VA and VB are the potentials at A & B respectively.
(A) One cell will continuously supply energy to the other.
(B) The potential difference across both the cells will be equal.
(C) The potential difference across one cell will be greater than its emf.
(1r2  2 r1 )
(D) VA  VB =
(r1  r2 )

9. In the network shown, points A, B and C are at potentials of 70V, zero

and 10 V respectively.
(A) Point D is at a potential of 40 V.
(B) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1
(C) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(D) The network draws a total power of 200 W.

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10. In the circuit shown, the cell has emf = 10 V and
internal resistance = 1.
(A) The current through the 3 resistor is 1 A.
(B) The current through the 3 resistor is 0.5 A
(C) The current through the 4 resistor is 0.5 A
(D) The current through the 4 resistor is 0.25 A

11. In the circuit shown in the figure

(A) E = 6.6V
(B) i1 = 1.1 A
(C) i2 = 0.5 A
(D) i2 = 0.6 A
12. Voltmeter reads the potential difference between the terminals of an old battery as 1.4V while
a potentiometer reads its voltage to be 1.55V. The voltmeter resistance is 280. Then
(A) the emf of the battery is 1.4 V
(B) the emf of the battery is 1.55 V
(C) the internal resistance r of the battery is 30 
(D) the internal resistance r of the battery is 5 
13. In the shown circuit
(A) current passing through 2 resistance is 2A
(B) current passing through 3 resistance is 4A
(C) current in wire D to Earth is zero
(D) potential of point A is 10V
14. In the shown circuit, switch S is closed at time t=0. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) rate of increase of charge is same in both the capacitors
(B) ratio of charge stored in capacitors C and 2C at any time t would be 1: 2
(C) time constant of both the capacitors are equal
(D) steady state charge in capacitors C and 2C are in ratio 1 : 2
15. Two bulbs consume same power when operated at 200V and 300V respectively. When the two
bulbs are connected in series across a DC source of 500V then
(A) ratio of potential difference across them is 3 : 2
(B) ratio of potential difference across them is 4 : 9
(C) ratio of power consume across them is 4 : 9
(D) ratio of power consume across them is 2 : 3
16. Both terminals of a battery of emf E and internal resistance r are grounded as shown. Select
the correct alternative(s)
(A) Potential difference across A and B is zero
(B) Potential difference across A and B is E
(C) Current across AB is zero
(D) Current across AB is E/r
17. A capacitor with no dielectric is connected to a battery at t=0. Consider a point A in the
connecting wire and point B in between the plates.
(A) There is no current through A
(B) There is no current through B
(C) There will be current through A as long as the charging is not complete
(D) There is no current through B as long as the charging is not complete
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COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
In the circuit shown the ammeter 'A' reads 2A. X Y is a circuit element which can either be a
resistance or a battery. In the direction of the current there will always be a potential drop
across the resistance. Regarding battery you have to remember that the potential difference
across its terminals can be more than its emf or less depending upon whether the battery is
delivering the current, or is being charged in the circuit
6
1 = 40 V 2 = 8 V
+ – – +
A
X Y
r1 = 2 r2 = 2 3
12
2A

1. Assuming XY to be a resistor, its value is :

(A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 13 (D) 9.75
2. Assuming XY to be a battery with internal resistance 2 which is being charged, its emf is :
(A) 6 V (B) -6 V (C) 0 (D) 2 volts
3. The potential difference as you move from Y to X while considering it to be a battery is :
(A) - 10 V (B) 10 V (C) 0 (D) 2 volts

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

A solid cylindrical conductor of uniform cross section (radius r) has resistivity varying in the
direction of x axis as   K x where K is a positive constant and x is the distance from end C.
Assume  is invariant in the direction perpendicular to x)


C D

x–axis
4. The resistance of the conductor between C and D is
K  3 K3/2 2K3/2 K r 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2  r2 2  r2 3  r2 2 

5. The magnitude of current density vector J at a distance x if a battery of V0 volt is connected
across C and D (with C at higher potential) is proportional to
(A) x–3/2 (B) x1/2
(C) x–1/2 (D) none of these

6. The magnitude of electric field vector E at a distance x from point C in the previous question
is proportional to
(A) x–3/2 (B) x3/2
(C) x1/2 (D) none of these

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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. C2=4µF


 G

C1=4µF


2V
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
(A) Current flowing in G (P) 1
(B) Potential difference across C1 (Q) 1.2
(C) Potential difference across C2 (R) 0.2
(D) Potential difference across 4 resistance (S) 0.8
2. In the circuit shown, battery, ammeter and voltmeter are ideal and the switch S is initially
closed as shown. When switch S is opened, match the parameter of column I with the effects
in column II.

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Equivalent resistance across the battery (P) Remains same
(B) Power dissipated by left resistance R (Q) Increases
(C) Voltmeter reading (R) decreases
(D) Ammeter reading (S) Becomes zero.

INTEGER TYPE:
1. Determine the resistance RAB (in ohm) between points A and B of the
frame made of thin homogeneous wire as shown in figure, assuming that
the number of successively embedded equilateral triangles (with sides
decreasing by half) tends to infinity. Side AB is equal to 2 m, and the
resistance of unit length of the wire is  
7  1 ohm/m. A B

a
2. An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in series to a battery with an emf E = 6V. When a
certain resistance is connected in parallel with the voltmeter, the reading of latter decreases
by two times, whereas the reading of ammeter increases the same number of times. Find the
reading of voltmeter (in volts) after the connection of resistance.
3. Find the total heat dissipated in the circuit (in J) when switch is shifted from position 1 to
position 2 .

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4. Find the potential difference across the capacitor in following figure :
3 C
3 3
3 3

15V

5. A potential difference of 220 V is maintained across a 12000  rheostat as shown in figure.

The voltmeter V has a resistance of 6000  and point c is at one fourth of the distance from a
to b. What is the reading of voltmeter ?
b

220 V c
v
a

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2008
1. STATEMENT-1
In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher temperature. The null
point can be obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of the standard
resistance. and
STATEMENT-2
Resistance of a metal increases with increase in temperature.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT -1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT -1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

2. A parallel plate capacitor C with plates of unit area and separation d is

d
filled with a liquid of dielectric constant K = 2. The level of liquid is
3
initially. Suppose the liquid level decreases at a constant speed V, the time
constant as a function of time t is
60R (15d  9vt) 0R
(A) (B)
5d  3vt 2d2  3dvt  9v 2t 2
6 0 R (15d  9vt) 0R
(C) (D)
5d  3vt 2d2  3dvt  9v 2t 2

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IITJEE-2009
3. For the circuit shown in the figure
(A) the current I through the battery is 7.5 mA
(B) the potential difference across RL is 18 V
(C) ratio of powers dissipated in R1 and R2 is 3
(D) If R1 and R2 are interchanged, magnitude of the power dissipated in RL
will decreased by a factor of 9.

IITJEE-2010
4. To verify Ohm’s law, a student is provided with a test resistor R T, a high resistance R1, a small
resistance R2, two identical galvanometers G1 and G2, and a variable voltage source V. The
correct circuit to carry out the experiment is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. When two identical batteries of internal resistance 1 each are connected in series across a
resistor R, the rate of heat produced in R is J1. When the same battries are connected in
parallel across R, the rates is J2. If J1 = 2.25 J2 then the value of R in  is.
6. At time t = 0, a battery of 10 V is connected across points A and B in
the given circuit. If the capacitors have no charge initially, at what time
(in seconds) does the voltage across them becomes 4 volt?
(take ln 5 = 1.6, ln 3 = 1.1)

IITJEE-2011
7. A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to determine an unknown
resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The galvanometer
shows null point when tapping-key is at 52 cm mark. The end-
corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively for the ends A and B.
The determined value of ‘X’ is
(A) 10.2 ohm (B) 10.6 ohm
(C) 10.8 ohm (D) 11.1 ohm
8. Two batteries of different emfs and different internal resistances
are connected as shown. The voltage across AB in volts is.......

IITJEE-2012
9. For the resistance network shown in the figure, choose the correct
option (s).
(A) The current through PQ is zero.
(B) I1 = 3A
(C) The potential at S is less then that at Q.
(D) I2 = 2A

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JEE (Adv)-2014
10. Two ideal batteries of emf V1 and V2 and three resistances R1, R2 and R3 are
connected as shown in the figure. The current in resistance R2 would be
zero if
(A) V1  V2 and R1  R2  R3
(B) V1  V2 and R1  2R2  R3
(C) V1  2V2 and 2R1  2R2  R3
(D) 2V1  V2 and 2R1  R2  R3

11. A galvanometer gives full scale deflection with 0.006 A current. By connecting it to a 4990 
2n
resistance, it can be converted into a voltmeter of range 0 – 30 V. If connected to a 
249
resistance, it becomes an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5A. The value of n is
12. Heater of an electric kettle is made of a wire of length L and diameter d. It takes 4 minutes to
raise the temperature of 0.5 kg water by 40 K. This heater is replaced by a new heater having
two wires of the same material, each of length L and diameter 2d. The way these wires are
connected is given in the options. How much time in minutes will it take to raise the
temperature of the same amount of water by 40K?
(A) 4 if wires are in parallel (B) 2 if wires are in series
(C) 1 if wires are in series (D) 0.5 if wires are in parallel.

JEE (Adv)-2015
13. In the following circuit, the current through the resistor R   2  is I amperes. The value of I
is

JEE (Adv)-2016
14. Consider two identical galvanometer and two identical resistors with resistance R. If the
internal resistance of the galvanometer RC< R/2, which of the following statement(s) about
any one of the galvanometers is (are) true?
(A) The maximum voltage range is obtained when all the components are connected in series
(B) The maximum voltage range is obtained when the two resistors and one galvanometer are
connected in series, and the second galvanometer is connected in parallel to the first
galvanometer
(C) The maximum current range is obtained when all the components are connected in
parallel
(D) The maximum current range is obtained when the two galvanometer are connected in
series and the combination is connected in parallel with both the resistors

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15. An infinite line charge of uniform electric charge density  lies along the axis of an electrically
conducting infinite cylindrical shell of radius R. At time t = 0, the space inside the cylinder is
filled with a material of permittivity  and electrical conductivity . The electrical conduction
in the material follows Ohm’s law. Which one of the following graphs best describes the
subsequent variation of the magnitude of current density j(t) at any point in the material?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS

Consider an evacuated cylindrical chamber of height h having rigid conducing plates at the ends
and an insulating curved surface as shown in the figure. A number of spherical balls made of a
light weight and soft material and coated with a conducting material are placed on the bottom
plate. The balls have a radius r<<h. Now a high voltage source (HV) is connected across the
conducting surface, the balls, will get charged, will become equipotential with the plate and are
repelled by it. The balls will eventually collide with the top plates, where the coefficient of
restitution can be taken to be zero due to the soft nature of the material of the balls. The electric
field in the chamber can be considered to be that of a parallel plate capacitor. Assume that there
are no collisions between the balls and the interaction between them is negligible. (ignore gravity)

16. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) The balls will execute simple harmonic motion between the two plates
(B) The balls will stick to the top plate and remain there
(C) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the same charge they went up with
(D) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the opposite charge they went up
with
17. The average current in the steady registered by the ammeter in the circuit will be
(A) proportional to V02 (B) zero
(C) proportional to the potential V0 (D) proportional to V01/2

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. B 5. B 9. D 13. D 17. C
2. A 6. C 10. A 14. A 18. C
3. D 7. B 11. C 15. C 19. D
4. A 8. D 12. D 16. B 20. B

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. D 5. BD 9. ABD 13. ABC 17. BC
2. ABC 6. AC 10. AD 14. BCD
3. ABC 7. BCD 11. ABD 15. BC
4. AD 8. ABCD 12. BC 16. AD

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S 2. A-Q, B-R, C-R, D-R

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 4 2. 2 3. 10 4. 12 5. 40

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. D 5. 4 9. ABCD 13. 1 17. A
2. A 6. 2 10. ABD 14. AC
3. AD 7. B 11. 5 15. D
4. C 8. 5 12. BD 16. D

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 MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field. The velocity of the particle at some
instant makes an acute angle with magnetic field. The path of the particle will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle
(C) a helix with uniform pitch (D) a helix with non-uniform pitch
2. A particle moves in a region having uniform magnetic field and a parallel uniform electric
field. At some instant, the velocity of the particle is perpendicular to the field direction. The
path of the particle will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle
(C) a helix with uniform pitch (D) a helix with non-uniform pitch
3. A charged particle moves along a circle under action of possible constant electric and
magnetic fields. Which of the following are possible?
(A) E=0, B=0 (B) E=0, B0 (C) E0, B=0 (D) E0, B0
4. A current carrying, straight wire is kept along the axis of a circular loop carrying a current.
The straight wire
(A) will exert an inwards force on the circular loop
(B) will exert an outwards force on the circular loop
(C) will not exert any force on the circular loop
(D) will exert a force on the circular loop parallel to itself
5. A proton beam is going from north to south and an electron beam is going from south to
north. Neglecting Earth’s magnetic field, the electron beam will be deflected
(A) towards the proton beam (B) away from the proton beam
(C) upwards (D) downwards
6. Two parallel long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 > i2. When current are in same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wire is 10T. If the direction of i2
is reversed, the field becomes 30T. The ratio i1/i2 is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
7. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area A is B. Then magnetic moment of the
loop will be
BA2 BA BA A 2BA A
(A) (B) A (C) (D)
0  0 0  0 
8. A current carrying wire PQ is placed near an another long current carrying wire RS. If free to
move, wire PQ will have
(A) ranslational motion only
(B) rotational motion only
(C) translational as well as rotational motion
(D) neither translational nor rotational motion
9. A non-conducting disc of radius R is rotating about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity . Charge q is
uniformly distributed over its surface. The magnetic moment of the disc is
1 1
(A) qR 2 (B) qR
4 2
1
(C) qR (D) qR 2
2

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10. Equal current i flows in two segments of a circular loop in the directions shown in figure.
Radius of the loop is a. Magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
 i
0  2     0 i    i
(A) zero (B)   2a (C)   (D)   0
      2a  2  2a

11. Same current i  2A is flowing in a wire frame as shown in figure. The frame is a
combination of two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side 1m. It is placed in
uniform magnetic field B  4T acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The
magnitude of magnetic force acting on the frame is
(A) 24 N (B) zero
(C) 16 N (D) 8 N
12. Ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying coil of radius R and at a distance of
3R on its axis is
(A) 10 10 (B) 20 10 (C) 2 10 (D) 10
13. Same current i is flowing in three infinitely long wires along positive x, y and z directions. The
magnetic field at a point  0,0,  a  would be
0 i ˆ ˆ 0 i ˆ ˆ 0 i ˆ ˆ 0 i ˆ ˆ ˆ
(A)
2a

j i  (B)
2a

i j  (C)
2a

i j  (D)
2a
i  j k 
14. Find the magnetic field at P due to the arrangement shown:
0 i  1  20 i
(A) 1   (B) 
2d  2 2d
0 i 0 i  1 
(C)  (D) 1  
2d 2d  2

15. A charged particle is projected with velocity v0 along positive x-axis. The magnetic field B is
directed along negative z-axis between x  0 and x  L . The particle emerges out  at x  L  at
an angle of 60o with the direction of projection. Find the velocity with which the same particle
is projected  at x  0  along positive x-axis so that when it emerge out  at x  L  , the angle
made by it is 30o with the direction of projection
(A) 2v0 (B) v0 /2 (C) v0 / 3 (D) v0 3

16. A current carrying square loop is placed near an infinitely long current carrying wire as shown
in figure. The torque acting on the loop is
0  i1i2a  0 i1i2a
(A)   (B)
2  2  2
0 i1i2a
(C) ln  2 (D) zero
2

17. Two long wires AB and CD carry currents i1 and i2 in the directions shown in figure
(A) force on wire AB is towards left
(B) force on wire AB is towards right
(C) torque AB is clockwise
(D) torque on wire AB is anticlockwise

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18. A conducting rod of mass m and length  is placed over a smooth horizontal surface. A
uniform magnetic field B is acting perpendicular to the rod. Charge q is suddenly passed
through the rod and it acquires an initial velocity v on the surface, then q is equal to
2mv B mv B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B 2mv B 3mv

19. Two parallel wires carrying equal currents in opposite directions are placed at x   a parallel
to y-axis with z  0 . Magnetic field at origin O is B1 and at P  2a,0,0  is B2 . Then the ratio
B1 /B2 is
1 1
(A)  3 (B)  (C)  (D) 2
2 3

20. Figure shows a square current carrying loop ABCD of side 2m and current
1 
i A . The magnetic moment M of the loop is
2
 
(A) ˆi  3kˆ A  m2  
(B) ˆj  kˆ A  m2
(C)  ˆA  m
3iˆ  k 2
(D) ˆi  kˆ  A  m 2

21. Magnetic moment of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is

neh neh meh meh
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m 4m 2n 4n

22. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular coil to its magnetic
moment is x. If the current and radius both are doubled the new ratio will become
(A) 2x (B) 4x (C) x/4 (D) x/8

23. A particle having charge q enters a region of uniform magnetic field B (directed inwards) and
is deflected a distance x after travelling a distance y. The magnitude of the momentum of the
particle is:
qBy qBy
(A) (B) x
2 x
qB  y 2  qBy 2
(C)   x (D)
2  x 
 2x
y
24. In the adjacent figure if i1 = i2 then net force on the square loop ABCD will be :
(A) towards PQ
(B) towards MN
(C) into the plane of paper
(D) zero

25. A wire is bent into three circular segments each of radius ‘a’ as shown in figure.
Each segment is a quadrant of a circular magnetic field at origin will be :
30 i0 30 i0
(A) (B)
8a 8a
 i
(C) 0 0 (D) zero
8a

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26. The given rectangular current carrying loop lies in the magnetic field such that in half portion
of the loop magnetic field is into the plane of paper  and in other half portion of loop
magnetic field is out of the plane of paper. The net force experienced by loop
is:
(A) zero
(B) in the positive xdirection
(C) in the positive ydirection
(D) in the negative ydirection
27. The magnetic induction at point P of the infinite loop shown is equal to :
0 i 0 i
(A) n2 (B) 1  n2
2a 12a
 i  i
(C) 0 n2 (D) 0 1  n2
12a 2a
28. The current flowing in a square loop is as shown in the following figures. In which figure the
loop is under unstable equilibrium.

(A) (B) (C) (D) None

29. Two very long, straight parallel wires separated by distance ‘d’ carry steady current I in
opposite directions. At a certain instant of time, a point charge ‘q’ is at point equidistant from
the two wires. It’s instantaneous velocity is v perpendicular to the plane. The magnitude of
force acting on charge at this instant of projection is :
 Iqv  Iqv 20Iqv
(A) 0 (B) 0 (C) (D) zero
2d d d
30. Current flows through thin walled, straight tube of radius r. The magnetic field at the
distance x from the axis of tube has magnitude B.
1
(A) B  x for 0 < x < r (B) B  for 0 < x < r
x
(C) B = 0 for 0  x < r (D) B = 0 only for x = 0
31. In the figure shown a current I1 is established in the long straight wire AB. Another wire CD
carrying current I2 is placed in the plane of the paper. The line joining the ends of this wire is
perpendicular to the wire AB. The force on the wire CD is:
(A) zero
(B) towards left
(C) directed upwards
(D) none of these
32. An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along Y axis such that its one end is at point A (0,
b) while the wire extends upto + . The magnitude of magnetic field strength at point (a, 0) is:
 I  b   I  b 
(A) 0 1   (B) 0 1  

4a   4a  
a 2  b2  a 2  b2 
 I  b 
(C) 0   (D) None of these
4a  a 2  b2 

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33. An α particle is moving along a circle of radius R with a constant angular velocity . Point A
lies in the same plane at a distance 2R from the centre. Point A records magnetic field
produced by α particle. If the minimum time interval between two successive times at which
‘A’ records zero magnetic field is ‘t’, the angular speed , in terms of t is
(A) 2/t (B) 2/3t (C) /3t (D) /t

34. Figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC of side  carrying currents, placed in
uniform magnetic field B. The magnitude of magnetic force on triangle is:
(A) i  B (B) 2i  B
(C) 3i  B (D) zero
35. A uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1T exists in region y  0 is along k̂ direction as shown.
A particle of charge 1 C is projected from point (  3, 1) towards origin with speed 1m/sec. If
mass of particle is 1 kg, then co-ordinates of centre of circle in which particle moves are:
(A) (1, 3)
(B) (1,  3)
1 3
(C)  ,  
2 2 
 3 1
(D)  , 
 2 2 

36. A uniform magnetic field exists in region which forms an equilateral triangle of side a. The
magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the triangle. A charge q enters into this
magnetic field perpendicularly with speed v along perpendicular bisector of one side and
comes out along perpendicular bisector of other side. The magnetic induction in the triangle is
mv 2mv mv mv
(A) (B) (C) (C)
4qa qa 2qa 4qa

37. Three rings, each having equal radius R, are placed mutually perpendicular
to each other and each having its centre at the origin of co-ordinate system. If
current I is flowing through each ring then the magnitude of the magnetic
field at the common centre is
0 I
(A) 3 (B) zero
2R
(C)  2 1  2RI
0
(D)  3 2  2RI
0

38. A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The
ring carries a current i  4A . A horizontal magnetic field B  10T is switched on at time t  0
as shown in figure. The initial angular acceleration of the ring will be
(A) 40 rad /s2
(B) 20rad /s2
(C) 5rad /s 2
(D) 15rad /s2

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39. A charged particle of specific charge (charge/mass)  is released from origin at time t  0 with


 
velocity v  v0 ˆi  ˆj in uniform magnetic field B  B0ˆi . Coordinates of the particle at time

t are
B0 
 v0 2v0 v0   v0   2v0 v0    v0  2v0 
(A)  , ,  (B)  ,0,0  (C)  0, ,  (D)  ,0, 
 2B0  B0 B0    2B0    B0  2B0    B0  B0  

40. The figure shows the crosssection of a infinitely long solid cylindrical conductor of radius R
carrying steady current i0 uniformly distributed over it’s cross section. Choose the correct
relation for the electric field E and magnetic field B at points O, P, Q
(A) Eo = 0, Bo = 0, EP  0, Bp  0, EQ = 0, BQ  0
(B) Eo = 0, Bo  0, EP = 0, BP = 0, EQ  0, BQ  0
(C) Eo  0, Bo = 0, EP  0, BP  0, EQ = 0, BQ  0
(D) Eo  0, Bo  0, EP = 0, BP  0, EQ = 0, BQ  0
41. A block of mass m & charge q is released on a long smooth inclined plane
magnetic field B is constant, uniform, horizontal and parallel to surface as
shown. Find the time from start when block loses contact with the surface.
m cos  m cos ec 
(A) (B)
qB qB
m cot 
(C) (D) none
qB

42. A metallic wire is folded to form a square loop of side a. It carries a current i and is kept
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. If the shape of the loop is changed from square to a
circle without changing the length of the wire and current, the amount of work done in doing
so is
 4
(A) iBa 2    2 (B) iBa 2    2 (C) iBa 2  4 /   1 (D) iBa 2 1  
 

43. The magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 2L and carrying a
current i is
90 i 3 3 0 i 2 3 0 i 30 i
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4L 4L L 4L

44. Equal current i is flowing in three infinitely long wires along positive x, y and z directions. The
magnitude field at a point (0, 0, –a) would be:
 i  i  i  i
(A) 0 (ˆj  ˆi) (B) 0 (iˆ  ˆj) (C) 0 (iˆ  ˆj) (D) 0 (iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ
2a 2a 2a 2a

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. A long, straight wire of radius R carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section.
The magnitude of magnetic field is
(A) maximum at the axis of wire (B) minimum at the axis of wire
(C) maximum at the surface of wire (D) minimum at the surface of wire

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2. A steady electric current is flowing through a cylindrical conductor.
(A) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(B) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero
(C) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero
(D) The magnetic field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero
3. A current flows along length of a long thin cylindrical shell.
(A) Magnetic field at all the points lying inside the shell is zero
(B) Magnetic field at any point outside the shell varies inversely with distance from surface of
the shell
(C) Magnetic field strength is maximum just outside the shell.
(D) Magnetic field is zero only on axis of the shell
4. If in a region, a uniform magnetic field and a uniform electric field, both exist, a charged
particle moving in this region :
(A) cannot trace a circular path
(B) may trace a circular path
(C) may trace a straight line path
(D) cannot move in the region with constant velocity
5. Two charged particles M and N enter a space of uniform magnetic field, with velocities
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The paths are as shown in the figure. The possible
reasons are :
(A) the charge of M is greater than that of N
(B) the two charge will be of opposite sign
(C) specific charge of M is greater than that of N
(D) the speed of M is less than that of N
6. A charged particles is fired at an angle  in a uniform magnetic field directed along the xaxis.
During its motion along a helical path, the particle will :
(A) never move parallel to the xaxis
(B) move parallel to the xaxis once during every rotation for all values of 
(C) move parallel to the xaxis at least once during every rotation if  = 45o
(D) never move perpendicular to the xdirection

7. A direct current of density J flows along a round uniform straight wire with crosssection
radius R. Then the magnetic field vector of this current at a point, whose position relative to
the axis of the wire is defined by a radius vector r , is :
    R2
(A)
1
2
 
0 J  r for r  R
1
(B) 0 J  r 2 for r  R
2 r
 
(C) zero at r = 0 (D) None of these
8. A constant current is flowing through a long straight wire of circular crosssection. On the
axis of the wire :
(A) strength of electric and magnetic field, both may be equal to zero
(B) strength of electric field alone may be equal to zero
(C) strength of magnetic field is equal to zero
(D) strength of electric field cannot be equal to zero

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9. Two long straight, thin wires, carrying constant currents, are noncoplanar and mutually
perpendicular. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) they have tendency to move away from each other, parallel to their original positions
(B) they have tendency to move towards each other, parallel to their original positions
(C) they have tendency to rotate about the line of the shortest distance between them and
approach each other
(D) they have tendency to rotate about the line of the shortest distance between them and
move away from each other
10. A thin wire of length l is carrying a constant current. The wire is bent to form a circular coil.
If radius of the coil, thus formed, is equal to R and number of turns in it is equal to n, then
which of the following graphs represent(s) variation of magnetic field induction (B) at centre of
the coil ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Suppose a uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist along mutually
perpendicular directions in a gravity free space. If a charged particle is released from rest, at
a point in the space :
(A) particle can not remain in static equilibrium
(B) first particle will move along a curved path but after some time its velocity will become
constant
(C) particle will come to rest at regular interval of time
(D) acceleration of the particle will never become equal to zero.
12. A charged particle is projected in a plane perpendicular to uniform magnetic field. The areal
velocity (area swept per unit time) of the particle is
(A) directly proportional to kinetic energy of particle
(B) directly proportional to momentum of the particle
(C) inversely proportional to magnetic field strength
(D) inversely proportional to charge on particle
13. Velocity and acceleration vector of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field at some
 
instant are v  3iˆ  4ˆj and a  2iˆ  xjˆ . Select the correct alternative(s).
(A) x  1.5 (B) x  3
(C) magnetic field is along z-direction (D) kinetic energy of the particle is constant
 
14. A proton is fired from origin with velocity v  v0ˆj  v0k ˆ in a uniform magnetic field B  B ˆj . In
0
the subsequent motion of the proton
(A) its z co-ordinate can never be negative
(B) its x co-ordinate can never be positive
(C) its x and z co-ordinates cannot be zero at the same time
(D) its y co-ordinate will be proportional to its time of flight
15. Two singly ionized isotopes of an element are accelerated from rest through the same potential
difference and they enter perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field. Then :
(A) their respective kinetic energies before entering into the magnetic field are equal.
(B) their respective kinetic energies remain constant during motion in the magnetic field
(C) they cannot trace straight line paths
(D) they trace circular arcs in the magnetic field
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16. In the previous question:
(A) since both the isotopes are accelerated through same potential difference, therefore, they
trace circular arcs of equal radii
(B) angular velocity of heavier isotope will be greater than that of lighter isotope
(C) the radius of the circular arc traced by the heavier isotope in the magnetic field is greater
than that of the lighter isotope
(D) the ratio of radii of the circular arcs traced in the magnetic field is equal to ratio of the
magnitude of momenta of two isotopes
17. Two charged particles A and B enter a uniform magnetic field with velocities normal to the
field. Their paths are shown in the figure. The possible reasons are :
(A) the momentum of A is greater than that of B.
(B) the charge of A is greater than that of B
(C) the specific charge of A is greater than that of B.
(D) the speed of A is less than that of B.
18. A particle goes undeflected in a region containing electric field and magnetic field. It is
possible that
     
(A) E||B, v||E (B) E is not parallel to B
       
(C) v||B but E is not parallel to B (D) E||B , but v is not parallel to E

19. If a charged particle goes un-accelerated in a region containing electric field and magnetic
fields,
   
(A) E must be perpendicular to B (B) v must be perpendicular to E
 
(C) v must be perpendicular to B (D) E must be equal to vB

20. Figure shows a square loop carrying current I is present in the magnetic field which is given
 B z B yˆ
by B = 0 ˆj  0 k where B0 is positive constant. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
L L
correct?
B I L
(A) force on side (0,0) to (0,L) is  0  î .
 2 
(B) force on side (0,L) to (L,L) is –Bo I L.
(C) Net magnetic force on loop is zero.
(D) force on side (L,0) to (0,0) is zero.
21. A constant current is flowing through a long straight wire of circular crosssection. On the
axis of the wire :
(A) strength of electric and magnetic field, both may be equal to zero
(B) strength of electric field alone may be equal to zero
(C) strength of magnetic field is equal to zero
(D) strength of electric field cannot be equal to zero
22. Suppose a uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist along mutually
perpendicular directions in a gravity free space. If a charged particle is released from rest, at
a point in the space :
(A) particle can not remain in static equilibrium
(B) first particle will move along a curved path but after some time its velocity will become
constant
(C) particle will come to rest at regular interval of time
(D) acceleration of the particle will never become equal to zero.

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COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS
A right-angled triangular loop abc made of conducting wire is placed near a long wire carrying
current I0 as shown in figure. The length of sides ac and bc are 1 and  2 respectively (1   2 ).
The side bc is parallel to the long wire and vertex of loop is at a distance  3 from the long wire.

1. If loop carries current I in clockwise sense (a  b  c  a) and released from the position,
then
(A) loop starts moving away from wire perpendicular to the wire.
(B) loop starts moving toward the wire perpendicular to the wire.
(C) loop starts moving away at some angle with wire.
(D) loop starts moving towards the wire at some angle with wire.
2. The loop with current I in clockwise direction is turned about side ab of triangle through 180°.
The workdone in making rotation is
 II      II    
(A)  0 0 2 ln 1  1  (B) 0 0 2 ln 1  1 
2  3  2  3 
0I I0  2    0I I0  2   
(C)  ln 1  1  (D) ln 1  1 
4  3  4  3 

3. The loop abc is not having any current and now it is turned about side ab through 180°, the
charge that flows side ab is (R is resistance of wire abc)
 I      I    
(A) 0 0 2 ln 1  1  from a to b (B) 0 0 2 ln 1  1  from b to a
2R  3  2R  3 
0I0  2    0I0  2   
(C) ln 1  1  from a to b (D) ln 1  1  from b to a
4R  3  4R  3 

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

3
 q  10
A charged particle with charge to mass ratio    C / kg enters a uniform magnetic field
 m  19
 
B  (20iˆ  30ˆj  50k)T
ˆ at time t = 0 with velocity V  (20iˆ  50ˆj  30k)
ˆ m/s. Assume that magnetic
field exists in large space. (use 2  1.4 )
4. During the further motion of the particle in the magnetic field, the angle between the magnetic

field B and velocity of the particle
(A) remains constant (B) increases
(C) decreases (D) may increase or decrease

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5. The frequency of the revolution of the particle in cycles per second will be
103 104 104 104
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 19  38  19 2 19
6. The pitch of the helical path of the motion of the particle will be
   
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
100 125 215 250

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Charge at rest experiences a force if (P) E = 0, B = 0
(B) A charge in motion goes undeviated (Q) E  0, B  0
with same velocity if
(C) A charge in motion goes undeviated (R) E  0, B  0
with varying speed if
(D) A charged particle undergoes helical (S) E  0, B  0
Motion if

2.

v
X  
B
(m, q) Y

COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(A) The magnitude of average velocity
from point X to point Y (P) v
2m
(B) The average speed from point X to point Y (Q)
qB
2msin 
(C) The time taken from X to Y (R) v
qB
sin 
(D) Displacement from X to Y (S) v


INTEGER TYPE:
1. Each wire produces magnetic field 'B' at origin. If the resultant magnetic field at origin due to
four infinite length wires n 2 B, then find n.
Y
1
i
x
i 4 2

x i X

3 i

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2. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular wire and the
2
magnetic field at the centre of a square coil made from the same length of wire is then
x 2
find x.
3. A nonconducting ring of mass m radius R has charge q uniformly distributed over it. It is
placed on a smooth horizontal surface, where magnetic field B is present along the plane. If
the minimum angular velocity with which the ring be rotated on the surface so that it start
xmg
tippling over is given by then find x.
qBR

4. Two charge particles q and q of equal mass are projected in a magnetic field B which is
directed into the plane of paper. Neglecting coulomb force, if they collide after
xm
time then find x.
qB

5. If in the above question, the charges are projected differently as shown in figure,
then find x.

6. The coils C1 and C2 have same number of turns and carry equal
currents in the same sense. They subtend the same angle  at P. If the
magnetic field produced by C1 at P is B and that produced by C2 is xB
then find x.

7. If the magnetic field due to a current carrying square loop of side a at a point
located symmetrically at a distance of a/2 from its centre (as shown) is given by
x 0 i
then find x.
3 a

8. The magnetic moment of a thin wire with a current I, wound tightly on half a tore as shown in
NId2
figure is where diameter of the cross-section of the tore is equal to d, the number of
a
turns is N. Find a.

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 SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2000
1. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right angle as shown. A
current I flows through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the
point M is H1 . Now, another infinitely long straight conductor QS is
connected at Q so that the current is I/2 in QR as well as in QS, the
current in PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2 .
The ratio H1 /H2 is given by
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 2/3 (D) 2
2. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an
electric field along the +x direction and a magnetic field along the +z direction, then
(A) positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative ions towards y direction
(B) all ions deflect towards +y direction
(C) all ions deflect towards y direction.
(D) positive ions deflect towards y direction and negative ions towards +y direction.

IITJEE-2001
3. A non-planar loop of conducting wire carrying a current I is placed as shown in the figure.
Each of the straight sections of the loop is of length 2a. The magnetic field due to this loop at
the point P(a, 0, a) points in the direction
(A)
1
2
 ˆj  kˆ  (B)
3
1

ˆj  k
ˆ  ˆi 
(C)
3

1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
i  jk  (D)
1 ˆ ˆ
2
ik  
4. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and
b respectively. When a current I passes through the coil, the magnetic field at the center is
0 NI 20 NI 0 NI b 0IN b
(A) (B) (C) ln (D) ln
b a 2 b  a  a 2 b  a  a

IITJEE-2002
5. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z direction. The

magnetic vector field B at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane is

(A)
ˆ ˆ
o I yi  xj  (B)

ˆ ˆ
o I xi  yj  (C)

ˆ ˆ
o I xj  yi  (D)
ˆ ˆ
o I xi  yj 

2 x 2  y 2  
2 x 2  y 2  
2 x 2  y 2  
2 x 2  y 2 
IITJEE-2006
6. Which of the following statement is correct in the given figure.
(A) net force on the loop is zero
(B) net torque on the loop is zero
(C) loop will rotate clockwise about axis OO' when seen from O
(D) loop will rotate anticlockwise about OO' when seen from O

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JEE (Adv)-2015
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS:
In a thin rectangular metallic strip a constant current I flows along the positive x-direction, as
shown in the figure. The length, width and thickness of the strip are l, w and d, respectively. A

uniform magnetic field B is applied on the strip along the positive y-direction. Due to this, the
charge carriers experience a net deflection along the z-direction. This results in accumulation of
charge carriers on the surface PQRS and appearance of equal and opposite charges on the face
opposite to PQRS. A potential difference along the z-direction is thus developed. Charge
accumulation continues until the magnetic force is balanced by the electric force. The current is
assumed to be uniformly distributed on the cross-section of the strip carried by electron.
7. Consider two difference metallic strips (1
& 2) of the same material. Their lengths
are the same, widths are w1 and w2 and
thickness are d1 and d2, respectively. Two
points K & M are symmetrically located
on the opposite faces parallel to the x-y
plane (see figure). V1 &V2 are the potential differences between K & M in strips 1 & 2,
respectively. Then, for a given current I flossing through them in a given magnetic field
strength B, the correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) If w1 = w2 and d1 = 2d2, then V2 = 2V1 (B) If w1 = w2 and d1 = 2d2, then V2 = V1
(C) If w1 = 2w2 and d1 = d2, then V2 = 2V1 (D) If w1 = 2w2 and d1 = d2, then V2 = V1
8. Consider two different metallic strips (1 & 2) of same dimension (length l, width w and
thickness d) with carrier densities n1 and n2, respectively. Strip 1 is placed in magnetic field
B1 and strip 2 is placed in magnetic field B2, both along positive y-directions. Then V1 and V2
are the potential differences developed between K and M in strips 1 and 2, respectively.
Assuming that the current I is the same for both the strips, the correct option(s) is (are)
(A) If B1 = B2 and n1 = 2n2, then V2 = 2V1 (B) If B1 = B2 and n1 = 2n2, then V2 = V1
(C) If B1 = 2B2 and n1 = n2, then V2 = 0.5V1 (D) If B1 = 2B2 and n1 = n2, then V2 = V1

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. C 11. A 21. B 31. D 41. C
2. D 12. A 22. D 32. B 42. D
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. C 43. A
4. C 14. A 24. D 34. A 44. A
5. A 15. D 25. A 35. C
6. C 16. D 26. C 36. B
7. D 17. D 27. C 37. A
8. C 18. C 28. B 38. A
9. A 19. A 29. D 39. D
10. B 20. A 30. C 40. C

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. BC 6. AD 11. ACD 16. CD 21. CD
2. BC 7. ABC 12. ACD 17. BCD 22. ACD
3. AC 8. CD 13. ACD 18. AB
4. AC 9. C 14. BD 19. AB
5. ABCD 10. BC 15. ABCD 20. ABD

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-QS, B-PQR, C-QS, D-QR 2. A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 2 3. 2 5. 1 7. 2
2. 8 4. 1 6. 2 8. 2

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. C 3. D 5. A 7. AD
2. C 4. C 6. AC 8. AC

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 ELECTRO MAGNETIC INDUCTION
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. A loop, made of straight edges has six corners at A(0,0,0), B(L,O,0), C(L,L,0), D(0,L,0), E(0,L,L)

 
and F(0,0,L). A magnetic field B  Bo ˆi  ˆj T is present in the region. The flux passing through
the loop ABCDEFA (in that order) is-
(A) Bo.L2 Wb (B) 2Bo.L2 Wb (C) 4Bo.L2 Wb (D) 9BoL2 Wb
2. A rod AB moves with a constant velocity v in a uniform magnetic field as shown in the figure.
(A) The rod becomes electrically charged (B) The end A becomes positively charged
(C) The end B becomes positively charged (D)The rod becomes hot due to joule heating
3. In an L-R circuit connected to a battery of constant e.m.f . E switch S is closed at time t = 0.
If e denotes the induced e.m.f . across inductor and i the current in the circuit at any time t.
Then which of the following graphs shows the variation of e with i?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. Two coils are at fixed locations. When coil 1 has no current and the current in
coil 2 increases at the rate 15.0 A/s the e.m.f . in coil 1 in 25.0mV, when coil 2 has
no current and coil 1 has a current of 3.6A, the flux linkage in coil 2 is
(A) 16mWb (B) 10mWb
(C) 4.00mWb (D) 6.00mWb
5. A square coil ACDE with its plane vertical is released from rest in a horizontal
uniform magnetic field B of length 2L. The acceleration of the coil is
(A) less than g for all the time till the loop crosses the magnetic field
completely
(B) less than g when it enters the field and greater than g when it comes out of
the filed
(C) g all the time
(D) less than g when it enters and comes out of the field but equal to g when it is within the
field
6. In the given circuit find the ratio of i1 to i2 . Where i1 is the initial (at t  0 ) current, and i2 is
steady state  at t    current through the battery:
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.8
(C) 1.2 (D) 1.5
7. Two concentric and coplanar circular coils have radii a and b   a  as shown in figure.
Resistance of the inner coil is R. Current in the outer coil is increased from 0 to i, then the
total charge circulating the inner coil is
0ia 2 0 iab
(A) (B)
2Rb 2R
 ia b2 0 ib
(C) 0 (D)
2a R 2R
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8. A uniformly wound long solenoid of inductance L and resistance R is broken into two equal
parts, which are then joined in parallel. This combination is then joined to a cell of emf .
The time constant of the circuit is :
(A) L/R (B) L/2R (C) 2L/R (D) L/4R
9. A metal disc of radius a rotates with a constant angular velocity  about its axis. The potential
difference between the centre and the rim of the disc is (m = mass of electron, e = charge on
electron)
m2a2 1 m2a 2 e2a 2 e2a 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
e 2 e 2m m
10. The radius of the circular-conducting loop shown in figure is R. Magnetic field is decreasing at
a constant rate . Resistance per unit length of the loop is  . Then current in wire AB is (AB
is one of the diameters)
R R
(A) from A to B (B) from B to A
2 2
2R
(C) from A to B (D) zero
2
11. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced currents in wires AB
and CD are
(A) B to A and D to C
(B) A to B and C to D
(C) A to B and D to C
(D) B to A and C to D
12. In the circuit shown in figure, a conducting wire HE is moved with a constant speed v towards

left. The complete circuit is placed in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of
circuit inwards. The current in HKDE is
(A) Clockwise
(B) anticlockwise
(C) alternating
(D) zero
13. In the circuit shown in figure switch S is closed at time t  0 . The charge which passes
through the battery in one time constant is
eR 2E L
(A) (B) E  
L R
EL eL
(C) 2
(D)
eR ER

14. A magnetic field B exists in the cylindrical region as shown in figure. A

charge q of mass m is kept at rest as shown. If the magnetic field starts
growing at constant rate then :
(A) charge will start moving in a circle in clockwise sense.
(B) charge will start moving in a circle in anticlockwise sense.
(C) charge will move in anticlockwise sense but not on a circular path
(D) charge will remain at rest.

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15. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal

magnetic induction B . At the position MNQ the speed of the ring is V, and the potential
difference developed across the ring is
(A) Zero
(B) BVR 2 /2 and M is at higher potential
(C) RBV and Q is at higher potential
(D) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential.
16. A small square loop of wire of side  is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L
(L>>). The loops are co-planar and their centers coincide. The mutual inductance of the
system is proportional to
(A) /L (B)  2 / L (C) L/ (D) L2 / 
17. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant,
uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its
velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the following:
(A) The entire rod is at the same electric potential.
(B) There is an electric field in the rod.
(C) The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and decreases towards its ends.
(D) The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod, and increases towards its ends.
18. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other.
Loop – A carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop-B
(A) remains stationary (B) is attracted by the loop-A
(C) is repelled by the loop-A (D) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed
19. A coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6  is connected to a 12 V battery. The current in
the coil is 1.0 A at approximately the time
(A) 500 s (B) 20 s (C) 35 ms (D) 1 ms
20. A circular loop of radius R, carrying current I, lies in x-y plane with its centre at origin. The
total magnetic flux through x-y plane is
(A) directly proportional to I (B) directly proportional to R
(C) inversely proportional to R (D) zero
21. A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field at
point P at a distance r from the centre of the circular region
(A) is zero
(B) decreases as 1/r
(C) increases as r
(D) decreases as 1/ r 2

22. A coil of wire having finite inductance and resistance has a conducting ring placed co-axially
within it. The coil is connected to a battery at time t  0 , so that a time dependent current
i1  t  starts flowing through the coil. If i2  t  is the current induced in the ring, and B  t  is
the magnetic field at the axis of the coil due to i1  t  then as a function of time  t  0  , the
product i2  t  B  t 
(A) increases with time (B) decreases with time
(C) does not vary with time (D) passes through a maximum

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23. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure, Electric field is induced:
(A) in AD, but not in BC
(B) (B) in BC, but not in AD
(C) neither in AD nor in BC
(D) in both AD and BC
24. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the figure. Their
mutual inductance will be:
(A) maximum in situation (a)
(B) maximum in situation (b)
(C) maximum in situation (c)
(D) the same in all situations
25. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial conducting loops separated by some distance.
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current I P flows in P (as seen by E) and an
induced current I Q1 flows in Q. The switch remains closed for a long time. When S is opened,
a current I Q2 flows in Q. Then the directions of I Q1 and I Q2 (as seen by E)
are:
(A) respectively clockwise and anti-clockwise
(B) both clockwise
(C) both anti-clockwise
(D) respectively anti-clockwise & clockwise
26. A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated
due to the current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the
wire radius halved, the electrical power dissipated would be
(A) halved (B) the same (C) doubled (D) quadrupled
27. The variation of induced emf E with time t  in a coil if a short bar magnet
is moved along its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as
(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform magnetic field B directed along
positive Z axis. The direction of induced current as seen from Z axis will be
(A) Clockwise of the positive Z-axis (B) Anticlockwise of the positive Z axis
(C) zero (D) along the magnetic field
29. Rod PQ having mass m, length '  ' moves on smooth resistance-less conducting rails. Pulley
is mass-less and a uniform magnetic field B exist perpendicular to plane of rails. The
acceleration of block of mass m will be :
P
mg mg
(A) (B)
2m  CB22 2m  CB22
2m  CB22 Q
(C) (D) None of these
m

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 SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. An equilateral triangular frame PQR of mass M and side a is at rest under influence of
horizontal magnetic field B and gravitational field as shown.
mg
(A) the current flowing through the loop is
aB
2mg
(B) the current flowing through the loop is
aB
(C) if the loop is slightly displaced it will come out of the field.
(D) if the loop is slightly displaced it will perform SHM
2. Figure shows plane figure made of a conductor located in a magnetic field along P

the inward normal to the plane of the figure. The magnetic field starts Q
diminishing. Then the induced current
R
(A) at point P is clockwise (B) at point Q is anticlockwise
(C) at point Q is clockwise (D) at point R is zero
3. Two different coils have self-inductance’s L1  8mH and L 2  2mH . The current in one coil is
increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same
constant rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At this
time the current, the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are i1 , V1 and U1
respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same instant are i2 , V2 and U2
respectively. Then
i 1 i U V 1
(A) 1  (B) 1  4 (C) 2  4 (D) 2 
i2 4 i2 U1 V1 4
4. Two identical circular coils M and N are arranged coaxilly as shown in
figure. Separation between the coils is large as compared to their radii.
The arrangement is viewed from left along the common axis. The sign
convention adopted is that currents are taken to be positive when they
appear to flow in clockwise direction. Then :
(A) if M carries a constant positive current and is moved towards N, a positive current is
induced in N.
(B) if M carries a constant positive current and N is moved towards M, a negative current is
induced in N
(C) if a positive current in M is switched off, a positive current is momentarily induced in N
(D) if both coils carry positive currents, they will attract each other.
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) An emf will be induced when a coil is placed in a non uniform magnetic field.
(B) An emf will be induced when a coil is moved in a uniform magnetic field
(C) An emf may be induced when a coil is rotated about a diameter in a uniform magnetic
field.
(D) An emf will be induced when a coil is rotated about a diameter in a nonuniform magnetic
field.
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) Selfinduced emf may tend to decrease the current
(B) Selfinduced emf may tend to increase the current
(C) Selfinduced emf tries to keep the current constant
(D) None of these
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7. Coefficient of selfinductance of a coil depends upon :
(A) current flowing through the coil (B) number of turns in the coil
(C) radius of the coil (D) None of these
8. A small magnet M is allowed to fall through a fixed horizontal conducting ring R. Let g be the
acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration of M will be :
(A) < g when it is above R and moving towards R
(B) > g when it is above R and moving towards R
(C) < g when it is below R and moving away from R
(D) > g when it is below R and moving away from R
9. A conducting rod of length L is rotated about one of its ends at constant angular velocity .
An emf will be induced between the ends of the rod if :
(A) magnetic field exists into the plane of paper.
(B) magnetic field does not exists
(C) magnetic field exists in direction outwards the plane of paper.
(D) None
10. In an LR series circuit, a sinusoidal voltage V = V0 sin t is applied. It is given that L = 35
mH, R = 11 , Vrms = 220 V, /2 = 50 Hz and  = 22/7.
(A) The amplitude of voltage is 311V
(B) The amplitude of current in steady state is 20A
(C) Phase difference between the current and the voltage is 11/14 radian
(D) Current and voltage are in phase
11. In the given diagram, a line of force of a particular force field is shown. Out of
the following options, it can never represent
(A) an electrostatic field (B) a magnetostatic field
(C) a gravitational field of a mass at rest (D) an induced electric field
12. Plane figures made of thin wires of resistance R=50 milli ohm/metre are located in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular into the plane of the figures and which decrease at the rate
dB/dt= 0.1 mT/s. Then currents in the inner and outer boundary are. The current in-
(The inner radius a = 10 cm and outer radius b=20 cm)       
(A) inner boundary is 10– 4 A clockwise    b   
(B) The current in inner boundary is 10– 4 A anticlockwise    a   
(C) The current in outer boundary is 210– 4 A clockwise      
(D) The current in outer boundary is 210– 4 A anticlockwise  D   C  

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
The capacitor of capacitance C can be charged (with help of a resistance R) by a voltage source V,
by closing switch S1 while keeping switch S2 open. The capacitor can be connected in series with
an inductor ‘L’ by closing switch S2 and opening S1.
1. Initially, the capacitor was uncharged. Now, switch S 1 is closed and S2 is kept open. If time
constant of this circuit is , then
(A) After time interval , charge on the capacitor is CV/2
(B) after time interval 2, charge on the capacitor is CV (1e2)
(C) the work done by the voltage source will be half of the heat dissipated
when the capacitor is fully charged.
(D) after time  capacitor is fully charged.

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2. After the capacitor gets fully charged, S1 is opened and S2 is closed so that the inductor is
connected in series with the capacitor. Then,
(A) at t = 0, energy stored in the circuit is purely in the form of magnetic energy
(B) at any time t > 0, current in the circuit is in the same direction
(C) at t > 0, there is no exchange of energy between the inductor and capacitor
C
(D) at any time t > 0, instantaneous current in the circuit may V
L
3. If the total charge stored in the LC circuit is Q0, then for t  0
 t 
(A) the charge on the capacitor is Q = Q0 cos   
2 LC 
 t 
(B) the charge on the capacitor is Q = Q0 cos   
2 LC 
d 2Q
(C) the charge on the capacitor is Q = LC
dt2
1 d2Q
(D) the charge on the capacitor is Q = 
LC dt2

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

Modern trains are based on Maglev technology in which trains are magnetically levitated, which
runs its EDS Maglev system. There are coils on both sides of wheels. Due to motion of train,
current induces in the coil of track which levitate it. This is in accordance with Lenz’s law. If
trains lower down then due to Lenz’s law a repulsive force increases due to which train gets
uplifted and if it goes much high then there is a net downward force due to gravity. The
advantage of Maglev train is that there is no friction between the train and the track, thereby
reducing power consumption and enabling the train to attain very high speeds.
Disadvantage of Maglev train is that as it slows down the electromagnetic forces decreases and it
becomes difficult to keep it levitated and as it moves forward according to Lenz law there is an
electromagnetic drag force.
4. What is the advantage of this system ?
(A) No friction hence no power consumption
(B) No electric power is used
(C) Gravitation force is zero
(D) Electrostatic force draws the train
5. What is the disadvantage of this system ?
(A) Train experiences upward force according to Lenz’s law
(B) Friction force create a drag on the train
(C) Retardation
(D) By Lenz’s law train experience a drag
6. Which force causes the train to elevate up?
(A) Electrostatic force (B) Time varying electric field
(C) Magnetic force (D) Induced electric field

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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. Six point charges, each of the same magnitude q, are arranged in different manners as shown
in Column II. In each case, a point M and a line PQ passing through M are shown. Let E be
the electric field and V be the electric potential at M (potential at infinity is zero) due to the
given charge distribution when it is at rest. Now, the whole system is set into rotation with a
constant angular velocity about the line PQ. Let B the magnetic field at M and µ be the
magnetic moment of the system in this condition. Assume each rotating charge to be
equivalent to steady current.
COLUMN  I COLUMN  II
(A) E = 0 (P) Charges are at the corners of a
regular hexagon. M is at the
centre of the hexagon. PQ is
perpendicular to the plane of the
hexagon.

(B) V  0 (Q) Charges are on a line perpendicular

to PQ at equal intervals. M is the
midpoint between the two
innermost charges.
(C) B = 0 (R) Charges are placed on two coplanar
insulting rings at equal intervals. M
is the common centre of the rings.
PQ is perpendicular to the plane of
the rings.
(D) µ  0 (S) Charges are placed at the corners of a
rectangle of sides a and 2a and at the
mid points of the longer sides. M is
at the centre of the rectangle. PQ is
parallel to the longer sides.

(T) Charges are placed on two coplanar,

identical insulating rings at equal
intervals. M is the mid points
between the centres of the rings. PQ
is perpendicular to the line joining
the centers and coplanar to the rings.

2. In the diagram shown the inner cylindrical region is having a

radius R. OB  2R, OC  3R. In the circular region of OA the
magnetic field points down and increases at a constant rate  .
In the annular space from B to C magnetic field points up and
increases at the same constant rate a. Magnetic field at any
instant is same is magnitude in both the regions. In the region
from radius R to 2R and radius > 3R the magnetic field is zero. As one travels from O to D
along a straight line.

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 COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) magnitude of induced electric field (P) O to A
increases continuously
(B) magnitude of induced electric field decreases (Q) A to B
continuously
(C) magnitude of induced electric field first decreases (R) B to B
and then increases
(D) direction of induced electric field changes direction (S) C to B

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. Area of a coil is 0.16 m². If the magnetic field through it changes from 0.1 Wb/m² to
0.5 Wb/m² in 0.02 s, then the emf induced in the coil (16/N) volt. The value of N is-
2. A large coil of 10 turns has resistance 2. It is kept in a magnetic field of 0.5T. If the coil is
pulled out of the magnetic field uniformly such that its area coming out of the magnetic field
is 200 cm2/s, the induced current in it is 5×10N mA. Value of N is-
3. A circular loop of radius 1m is kept in a magnetic field of strength 2T (plane
of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field). Resistance of the
2
loop wire is /m. A conductor of length 2m in sliding with a speed 1m/s

as shown in the figure. If the instantaneous force acting on the rod is 2N N,
the value of N is-
[assume rod has negligible resistance]

4. A metal rod of resistance 20 is fixed along a diameter of a conducting ring of radius 0.1m

ˆ The ring rotates with an angular
and lies on x-y plane. There is a magnetic field B  50k.
velocity   20rad/s about its axis. An external resistance of 10 is connected across the
centre of the ring and rim. The current through external resistance is (1/N) A, the value of N
is-

5. A current of 2A is increasing at a rate of 2A/s through a coil of inductance 2H. The energy
stored in the inductor per unit time at the given instant is-

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2009
1. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a coplanar
loop. The loops is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field in the direction
going into the plane of the figure. The magnitude of the field increases
with time. I1 and I2 are the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then,
(A) I1 > I2 (B) I1 < I2
(C) I1 is in the direction ba and I2 is in the direction cd
(D) I1 is in the direction ab and I2 is in the direction dc.

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2. Two metallic rings A and B, identical in shape and size but having different
resistivities A and B, are kept on top of two identical solenoids as shown in the
figure. When current I is switched on in both the solenoids in identical
manner, the rings A and B jump to heights hA and hB, respectively, with hA >
hB. The possible relation(s) between their resistivities and their masses m A and
mB is (are)
(A) A > B and mA = mB (B) A < B and mA = mB
(C) A > B and mA > mB (D) A < B and mA < mB
IITJEE-2011
3. A long circular tube of length 10 m and radius 0.3 m carries a current I along its
curved surface as shown. A wire-loop of resistance 0.005 ohm and of radius 0.1 m
is placed inside the tube with its axis coinciding with the axis of the tube. The
current varies as I = I0cos(300 t) where I0 is constant. If the magnetic moment of
the loop is N0I0sin(300 t), then ‘N’ is

IITJEE-2012
4. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop,
without touching it. The correct statement (s) is (are):
(A) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant.
(B) The emf inducted in the loop is finite if the current is constant.
(C) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate.
(D) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate.
5. A circular wire loop of radius R is placed in the x-y plane centered at the
origin O. A square loop of side a(a << R) having two turns is placed with
its center at z  3R along the axis of the circular wire loop, as
shown in figure. The plane of the square loop makes an angle of
45° with respect to the z-axis. If the mutual inductance between
0a 2
the loops is given by , then the value of p is
2p/2 R

JEE (Adv)-2016
6. Two inductors L1 (inductance 1 mH, internal resistance 3 ) and L2 (inductance 2 mH,
internal resistance 4 ), and a resistor R (resistance 12 ) are all connected in parallel across
a 5 V battery. The circuit is switched on at time t = 0. The ratio of the maximum to the
minimum current (Imax/Imin) drawn from the battery is
7. A conducting loop in the shape of a right angled isosceles triangle of height 10 cm is kept
such that the 90° vertex is very close to tan infinitely long conducting wire (see the figure). The
wire is electrically insulted from the loop. The hypotenuse of the triangle is parallel to the
wire. The current in the triangular loop is in counter clockwise direction and increased at a
constant rate of 10 A s–1 . Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?

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  
(A) If the loop is rotated at a constant angular speed about the wire, an additional emf of  0 
  
volt is induced in the wire
 
(B) The magnitude of induced emf in the wire is  0  volt
  
(C) There is a repulsive force between the wire and the loop
(D) The induced current in the wire is in opposite direction to the current along the
hypotenuse

JEE (Adv)-2017
8. A circular insulated copper wire loop is twisted to form two loops of area A and
2A as shown in the figure. At the point of crossing the wires remain electrically
insulated from each other. The entire loop lies in the plane (of the paper). A

uniform magnetic field B points into the plane of the paper. At t = 0, the loop
starts rotating about the common diameter as axis with a constant angular
velocity  in the magnetic field. Which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) The emf induced in the loop is proportional to the sum of the areas of the
two loops
(B) The net emf induced due to both the loops is proportional to cos t
(C) The rate of change of the flux is maximum when the plane of the loops is
perpendicular to plane of the paper
(D) The amplitude of the maximum net emf induced due to both the loops is equal to the
amplitude of maximum emf induced in the smaller loop alone

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. B 7. A 13. C 19. D 25. D
2. B 8. A 14. C 20. D 26. B
3. A 9. B 15. D 21. B 27. B
4. D 10. D 16. B 22. D 28. C
5. D 11. A 17. B 23. D 29. A
6. C 12. D 18. C 24. A

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. BD 4. BCD 7. BC 10. ABC
2. AB 5. CD 8. AC 11. AC
3. ACD 6. ABC 9. ABC 12. D

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-PRS, B-RS, C-PQT, D-RS 2. A-P, B-Q,S, C-R, D-R

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 5 2. 1 3. 4 4. 3 5. 8

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. D 3. 6 5. 7 7. BC
2. BD 4. AC 6. 8 8. CD

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 ALTERNATING CURRENT
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. The current throughout an inductor of 1H is given by: i  3t sin t . Voltage across the inductor
of 1H is:
(A) 3sin t  3cos t (B) 3cos t  t sin t (C) 3sin t  3t cos t (D) 3t cos t  sin t

2. A alternating voltage given by V  300 2 sin 50t  (in volts) is connected across a 1F
capacitor through an a.c. ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be
(A) 10mA (B) 40mA (C) 100mA (D) 15mA
3. When 100V, d.c. is applied across a solenoid a current of 1A flows in it. When 100V, a.c. is
applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5A. The frequency of the a.c. is 50Hz. The
impendence and inductance of the solenoid are:
(A) 100,0.75H (B) 100,0.60H (C) 200, 0.55H (D) 200,0.75H
4. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10V each.
If the capacitance is short circuited, the voltage across the inductance will be:
10
(A) V (B) 10V (C) 10 2V (D) 20V
2
X
5. In the circuit shown in figure XL  C  R , the peak value current i0 is:
2
5V0 V0
(A) (B)
2R 2 2R
V V0
(C) 0 (D)
2R 2 3R

6. An AC source producing emf   o [cos(100s 1 )t  cos(500s 1 )t]

is connected in series with a capacitor and a resistor. The steady state current in the circuit is
found to be i  i1[cos(100s1)t  1]  i2[cos(500s1)t  2 ]
(A) i1 > i2
(B) i1 = i2
(C) i1 < i2
(D) the information is insufficient to find the relation between i 1 and i2.
i0 t
7. The electric current in a circuit is given by i  for some time. The rms current for the

period t = 0 to t =  will be-
i i i0 i0
(A) 0 (B) 0 (C) (D)
2 3 2 3

8. An alternating emf 100 cos 100 t volt is connected in series to a resistance of 10  and
inductance 100 mH, what is the phase difference between the current in the circuit and the
emf-
 
(A) (B) zero (C)  (D)
4 2

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9. An alternating voltage is connected in series with a resistance R and an inductance L. If the
potential drop across the resistance is 200 volt and across the inductance is 150 volt, the
applied voltage is-
(A) 350 volt (B) 250 volt (C) 500 volt (D) 300 volt
10. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an AC supply of 120 volt and 50 Hz. The current
in the circuit is 3 ampere. If the power consumed in the circuit is 108 watt, then the
resistance in the circuit is-
(A) 12 ohm (B) 40 ohm (C) (52  28) ohm (D) 360 ohm

11. The power factor of an A.C. circuit having resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in
series and an angular frequency  is –
R R L R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L 2 2 2 1/2 R
(R   L ) (R  2 L2 )1/2
2

12. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280.
If current in primary is 4 A, then that in the secondary is –
(A) 4 A (B) 2 A (C) 6 A (D) 10 A
13. In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain
unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to –
(A) 4 L (B) 2 L (C) L/2 (D) L/4
14. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the
circuit will be–
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.4 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.125
15. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sint. The resulting current in the circuit is

I = I0 sin  t   . The power consumption in the circuit is given by -
 2 
E0 I0 E I
(A) P  (B) P = zero (C) P  0 0 (D) P  2 E0I0
2 2

16. The resistance (R) in a series LCR – circuit is 24, while the reactance of the inductor (L) and
the capacitor (C) are 2 and 28 respectively at a certain frequency. The total impedance (Z)
of the circuit, if the frequency is halved, is nearly :
(A) 26 (B) 60 (C) 54 (D) 79

17. When an AC source of emf e = E0 Sin 100 t  connected across a circuit, the phase difference
between the emf e and the current i in the circuit is observed to be  / 4 , as shown in the
diagram. If the circuit consists possibly only of R – C or R – L or L – C in series, find the
relationship between the two elements.

(A) R= 1K  ; C = 100 F (B) R= 1K  ; C = 1 F

(C) R= 1 K  ; L = 10 H (D) R= 1 K  ; L = 1 H
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18. The inductor in a L  C oscillation has a maximum potential difference of 16 V across the
inductor of 3 mH and maximum energy of 160 J . The value of capacitor in L  C circuit is :
(A) 0.8 F (B) 0.625 F (C) 1.6 F (D) 1.25F

19. A resistance of 400 is connected in series with an inductor of 3

 H and this combination is
connected across an A.C. source as shown in figure.

5
(A) In the circuit, peak value of current is A
4
(B) In the circuit, potential difference across resistance is in same phase with the current
(C) In the circuit, potential difference across inductor is 53º leading with current
(D) In the circuit, potential difference across inductor is 37º leading with current
20. A time varying voltage is shown in fig. then Vrms is :
V0
2T 3T
t
T 4T
-V0

(A) 0 (B) V0 2
(C) V0 3 (D) None of these

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. Choose the correct statement-
L
(A) The dimensions of are same as that of strain
R
1
(B) The dimension of are same as that of angular velocity
LC
(C) The dimension of LCR are same as that of time.
L
(D) Dimension of RC is same as dimension of
R
2. Choose the correct statement:
(A) The peak voltage across the inductor can be greater than the peak voltage of the source in
an LCR circuit
(B) In a circuit containing a capacitor and an ac source the current is zero at the instant the
source voltage is maximum
(C) An ac source is connected to a capacitor. The rms current in the circuit gets increased if a
dielectric slab is inserted into the capacitor.
(D) In a circuit containing a resistor and an ac source the current is zero at the instant the
source voltage is maximum

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3. An inductor (L) and resistance (R) are connected in series with an AC source. The phase
difference between voltage (V) and current (i) is 45°. Now a capacitor (C) is connected in series
with L-R, If the phase difference between V and i remains same, then-
(A) Capacitive reactance is 2R
(B) Impedance of L-C-R circuit R 2
(C)Capacitive reactance is R 2
(D) Impedance of L-C-R circuit R 3

4. A super conducting ring of radius and self inductance L is in a magnetic field B which is

tangential to the plane of the ring. The ring is rotated by an angle such that its plane
2
becomes perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(A) flux through the ring remains zero
(B) flux through the ring becomes equal to a 2
(C) magnetic field on the plane of the ring remains zero through out
22a 4
(D) work done in rotating the ring is equal to
2L
5. In the L–R circuit shown in the figure, the key K is closed at time t = 0. L
(A) the current through R1 decreases with time, t
(B) the drop across L increases with t
R1 R2
1 E2 E
(C) the magnetic energy stored, in the steady state, equals L
2 R2
2
K
E E
(D) the total current through the battery is, in the steady state, 
R1 R 2

6. An A. C. source producing V = V0sint + V0sin2t is connected in series with a box, containing

either capacitor or inductor and resistance. The current found in the circuit is:
i = i1sin(t + 1) + i2sin(2t + 2). Here 1 and 2 may be positive or negative.
(A) if i1 > i2, box has inductor and resistor
(B) if i1 > i2, box has capacitor and resistor
(C) if i2 > i1 box has inductor and resistor
(D) if i2 > i1 box has capacitor and resistor

7. The diagram shows a circuit with two identical resistors. The battery has a negligible internal
resistance. When switch S is closed ,
(A) Equivalent resistance of the circuit decreases
(B) Ammeter reading will increase
(C) Voltmeter reading will increase
8. When an AC source of emf e = E0 sin (100t) is connected across a circuit, the phase difference

between the emf e and the current i in the circuit is observed to be , as shown in the
4
diagram. If the circuit consists possibly only of R C or RL or LC in series, find the
relationship between the two elements:
(A) R = 1 k, C = 10 F (B) R = 1 k, C = 1 F
(C) R = 1 k, L = 10 H (D) R = 1 k, L = 1H

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9. An A. C. source producing V  V0 sin t  V0 sin2t is connected in series with a box,
containing either capacitor or inductor and resistance. The current found in the circuit is :
i  i1 sin(t  f1 )  i2 sin(2t  f2 ). Here f1 and f2 may be positive or negative.
(A) if i1  i2 , box has inductor and resistor
(B) if i1  i2 , box has capacitor and resistor
(C) if i2  i1 box has inductor and resistor
(D) if i2  i1 box has capacitor and resistor

10. The diagram shows a circuit with two identical resistors. The battery has a negligible internal
resistance. When switch S is closed ,

(A) Equivalent resistance of the circuit decreases

(B) Ammeter reading will increase
(C) Voltmeter reading will increase
(D) Power dissipated across R in right branch will become zero.

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
In a pure L-C circuit there is no energy loss but energy is transferred from inductor to capacitor
1
and vice-versa , with angular frequency =
LC
In one such system, L = 3.0  , C = 2.7 μF . At t = 0, charge on the capacitor is zero and current
is 2.0 A.
1. What is the maximum charge that wil appear on the capacitor ?
(A) 60 c (B) 135 c (C) 180 c (D) 210 c

2. At what time ‘t’ is the enrgy stored in the capacitor is increasing at its greatest rate?
(A)  55c (B)  70c (C)  95c (D)  110c

3. What is this greatest rate at which the energy flows into the capacitor?
(A)  50/3  (B)  110/3  (C)  160/3  (D)  200/3 

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

Consider a circuit consists of resistors, inductor, battery and a switch
as shown. Resistance of resistors, inductance of inductor and EMF of
battery are indicated. The switch is closed at t = 0.
4. Find current through inductor at steady state.
 
(A) (B)
2R 4R
 
(C) (D)
3R 8R

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5. Find time constant of LR circuit during growth of current.
L L L 2L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3R 2R R R
6. After a long time switch is opened. Find heat generated through the resistor R0 .
L 2 L 2 L 2 L 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32R 2 320R 2 768R 2 64R 2

MATRIX MATCH TYPE QUESTIONS

1. In a series LCR circuit, as shown. = 50(V)sin[100(s–1) t].
Column I Column II
10
(A) RMS potential across resistance (P) V
2
30
(B) RMS potential across inductance (Q) V
2
40
(C) RMS potential across capacitor (R) V
2
50
(D) RMS potential across inductor and capacitor (S) V
2

2. Column I Column II
1
(A) (Energy density) = (inductance) (current square)2 (P) ML2T–2A–2
2
(B) Flux (Magnetic) (Q) ML2Q–1T–1
(C) Inductance (R) ML2T–2
(D) (inductance) (current) (S) ML2T–2A–1

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. An inductor of reactance 10  and a resistance of 10  are connected in series and the
combination is connected to a 220-V, 50-Hz a.c. supply. The expression for the instantaneous
current comes out to be n sin(100t). Find n
2. A coil of inductance 0.525 henry is connected to a direct current source of 120 volt. A current
of 0.5 ampere flows through the coil. If the coil be connected to an A.C. source of frequency 60
cycle/second and 120 volt, The current in the coil is 0.386×10n find n?
3. The operating coil of a relay of inductance 8 mH and a resistance of 30 ohm is connected
across a 5 V 800 cycle A.C. supply. Find the current through the coil and the phase angle of
the current relative to applied voltage. How could this phase angle be reduced to zero without
altering the value of the current passing through the coil when the relay is operated from the
same A.C. supply ?

4. Find the current amplitude & phase difference and plot the current as a
function of time from the given figure. f = 50 Hz, L = 35 mH, R = 11  .

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5. A coil when connected to a dc source of 12 V, carries a current of 4 A. If this coil is connected
to an ac source of 12 V and 50 rad/s, then it carries a current of 2.4 A. The inductance of the
coil in mH is–

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2010
1. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency  and fixed amplitude V0 is connected in
series with a capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When  is
increased
(A) the bulb glows dimmer (B) the bulb glows brighter
(C) total impedance of the circuit is unchanged (D) total impedance of the circuit increases
2. You are given many resistances, capacitors and inductors. These are connected to a variable
DC voltage source (the first two circuits) or an AC voltage source of 50 Hz frequency (the next
three circuits) in different ways as shown in Column II. When a current I (steady state for DC
or rms for AC) flows through the circuit, the corresponding voltage V1 and V2. (indicated in
circuits) are related as shown in Column I. Match the two
Column I Column II

(A) I ≠ 0, V1 is proportional to I (P)

(B) I ≠ 0, V2 > V1 (Q)

(C) V1 = 0, V2 = V (R)

(D) I ≠ 0, V2 is proportional to I (S)

(T)

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IITJEE-2011
3. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases;
(A) when C is without a dielectric medium and
(B) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4.
The current IR through the resistor and voltage VC across the capacitor are compared in the
two cases. Which of the following is/are true?
(A) IRA  IRB (B) IRA  IRB (C) VCA  VCB (D) VCA  VCB

4. A series R-C combination is connected to an AC voltage of angular frequency  = 500

radian/s. If the impedance of the R-C circuit is R 1.25 , the time constant (in millisecond) of
the circuit is
5. A long circular tube of length 10 m and radius 0.3 m carries a current I along its
curved surface as shown. A wire-loop of resistance 0.005 ohm and of radius 0.1 m
is placed inside the tube with its axis coinciding with the axis of the tube. The
current varies as I = I0cos (300t) where I0 is constant. If the magnetic moment of the
loop is N0I0 sin(300t), then ‘N’ is

IITJEE-2012
6. In the given circuit, the AC source has  = 100 rad/s. Considering the inductor and capacitor
to be ideal, the correct choice (s) is (are)
(A) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 A
(B) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2 A.
(C) The voltage across 100  resistor = 10 2 V
(D) The voltage across 50  resistor = 10 V
JEE (Adv)-2013
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS
A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600 kW at 4000 V, which is to be transported to
a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can be transported either
directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by using a combination of step-up and
step-down transformers at the two ends. The drawback of the direct transmission is the large
energy dissipation. In the method using transformers, the dissipation is much smaller. In this
method, a step-up transformer is used at the plant side so that the current is reduced to a
smaller value. At the consumers end, a step-down transformer is used to supply power to the
consumers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to assume that the power cable is
purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power factor unity. All the currents and
voltages mentioned are rms values.
7. If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance 0.4Ω km−1 is used, the power
dissipation (in%) during transmission is
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50
8. In the method using the transformers, assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the
primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1:10. If the power to the
consumers has to be supplied at 200 V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to
that in the secondary in the step-down transformer is
(A) 200 : 1 (B) 150 : 1 (C) 100 : 1 (D) 50 : 1

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JEE (Adv)-2014
9. At time t = 0, terminal A in the circuit shown in the figure is
connected to B by a key and alternating current I(t)  I0 cos(t), with
I0  1A and   500rads1 starts flowing in it with the initial
direction shown in the figure. At t  7 /6, the key is switched
from B to D. Now onwards on ly A and D are connected. A total
charge Q flows from the battery to charge the capacitor fully. If
C  20F, R  10  and the battery is ideal with emf of 50 V, identify the correct statement (s)
7
(A) Magnitude of the maximum charge on the capacitor before t  is 1  103 C
6
7
(B) The current in the left part of the circuit just before t  is
6
(C) Immediately after A is connected to D. the current in R is 10A
(D) Q  2 103 C

JEE (Adv)-2017
10. In the circuit shown, L = 1H, C = 1F and R  1k. They are connected in series with an a.c.
source V = V0 sin t as shown. Which of the following options is/are correct?

(A) At   0 the current flowing through the circuit becomes nearly zero
(B) The current will be in phase with the voltage if   104 rad.s 1
(C) At   106 rad.s 1, the circuit behaves like a capacitor
(D) The frequency at which the current will be in phase with the voltage is independent of R
11. The instantaneous voltage at three terminals marked X, Y and Z are given by
VX  V0 sin t,
 2 
VY  V0 sin  t   and
 3 
 4 
VZ  V0 sin  t  .
 3 
An ideal voltmeter is configured to read rms value of the potential difference between its
terminals. It is connected between points X and Y and then between Y and Z. The readings(s)
of the voltmeter will be
rms 3 rms 1
(A) VXY  V0 (B) VYZ  V0
2 2
rms
(C) independent of the choice of the two terminals (D) VXY  V0

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. C 5. A 9. B 13. C 17. C
2. D 6. C 10. A 14. A 18. D
3. C 7. B 11. B 15. B 19. B
4. A 8. A 12. B 16. B 20. C

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. AB 4. AD 7. ABC 10. ABCD
2. ABC 5. CD 8. AC
3. AB 6. AD 9. AD

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R 2. A-R, B-S, C-P,D-S

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 22 2. 0 3. 5 4. 20 5. 80

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. B D-R,S,T 6. AC 10. AD
2. A-R,S,T; 3. BC 7. B 11. AC
B-Q,R,S,T; 4. 4 8. A
C-P,Q; 5. 6 9. CD

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 RAY OPTICS
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. Two mirrors labeled L1 for left mirror and L2 for right mirror in the figure
are parallel to each other and 3.0 m apart . A person standing 1.0 m from
the right mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and sees a series of images. The
second nearest image seen in the right mirror is situated at a distance :
(A) 2.0 m from the person (B) 4.0 m from the person
(C) 6.0 m from the person (D) 8.0 m from the person

2. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle 60°. If a ray of light incident on the
first mirror is parallel to the second mirror, it is reflected from the second mirror:
(A) perpendicular to the first mirror (B) parallel to the first mirror
(C) parallel to the second mirror (D) perpendicular to the second mirror
3. A boy of height 1.5 m with his eye level at 1.4 m stands before a plane mirror of length 0.75 m
fixed on the wall. The height of the lower edge of the mirror above the floor is 0.8m. Then :
(A) the boy will see his full image
(B) the boy can not see his hair.
(C) the boy can not see his feet
(D) the boy can neither see his hair nor his feet.
4. A plane mirror lies in the x-y plane with its reflecting side on the +ve side of z-axis. A point at
the coordinates (x, y, z) has a velocity whose component along x, y, and z directions are u, v
and w, respectively. The coordinates of the image and its velocity components will be :
(A) (x, y, –z) and (u, v, –w) (B) (–x, –y, z) and (u, v, –w)
(C) (x, y, –z) and (–u, –v, w) (D) none of these
5. A ray of light is incident on the plane mirror at rest. The mirror starts turning at a uniform
1
acceleration of 2 rad/s2. The reflected ray, at the end of s must have turned through :
4
(A) 90o (B) 450 (C) 22.5o (D) 11.25o
6. If a watch shows 7:30 then what time will the image of watch show in a plane mirror.
(A) 7:30 (B) 4:30 (C) 6:35 (D) 6:30

7. A bird is flying with a velocity v between two long vertical plane mirrors making an angle 
with mirror M1 as shown. Then what will be the relative velocity of approach between the
images formed by the mirrors due to the 1st reflection in each of them :
(A) v sin  (B) 2v sin  (C) 2(v sin   L) (D) zero

8. A plane mirror is inclined at an angle  with the horizontal surface. At t = 0

a particle is projected from point P as shown in figure with a velocity v at an
angle  with the horizontal. Acceleration of image with respect to the object
at time t = t0 is
(A) g cos  (B) 2 g cos 
  v sin α  gt0  
(C) 2 g cos  (D) 2g sin  tan1  
  v cos α  

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9. A ray of light is incident at 50° on one of a pair of mirrors arranged at 60° to each other. The
angle at which the ray is incident on the first mirror after being reflected from the second
mirror is :
(A) 80° (B) 70° (C) 60° (D) 50°
10. A ray of light incident on a plane mirror at an angle 10º with horizontal. After reflection from
mirror the reflected ray becomes vertical as shown. The angle ‘’ made by the plane mirror
with horizontal is
(A) 30º
//
////
(B) 40º /////
////
//
(C) 50º ////
////
/
////
(D) 60º 10º ( //// ) 
////

11. A point source of light S is placed in front of two large mirrors as shown. Which of the
following observers will see only one image of S? B C
(A) only A
(B) only C
30°
(C) Both A and C
A
(D) Both B and C
12. A person AB of height 170 cm is standing infront of a plane mirror. His eyes are at height 164
cm. At what distance from P should a hole be made in the mirror so that he cannot see the
top of his head?
(A) 167 cm
(B) 161 cm
(C)163 cm
(D) none
13. The distance between an object and its doubly magnified image by a concave mirror is :
(assume f = focal length)
(A) 3f/2 (B) 2f/3
(C) 3f (D) depends on whether the image is real or virtual
14. A convex and a concave mirror of radii 10 cm each are facing each other and 15 cm apart. A
point object is placed midway between them. Then the position of the final image if the
reflection first takes place at the concave mirror and then in the convex mirror is
(A) at the pole of the concave mirror (B) at the pole of the convex mirror
(C) coincident with the object itself (D) 5 cm behind the convex mirror
15. A straight line joining the object point and image point is always perpendicular to the mirror
(A) if mirror is plane only (B) if mirror is concave only
(C) if mirror is convex only (D) irrespective of the types of mirror
16. A virtual object placed between pole and the principal focus of a convex mirror produce an
image which is
(A) real, magnified and upright (B) virtual, diminished and inverted
(C) virtual, diminished and upright (D) real, diminished and inverted
17. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror at a distance of 50cm. A plane mirror is
introduced covering the lower half of the convex mirror. If the distance between the object and
the plane mirror is 30cm, it is found that there is no gap between the images formed by the
two mirrors. The radius of the convex mirror is:
(A) 12.5cm (B) 25cm (C) 50cm (D) 100cm

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18. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm and a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm are placed
facing each other 40 cm apart. A point object is placed between the mirrors, on their common
axis and 15 cm from the concave mirror. Find the position and nature of the image produced
by successive reflections, first at the concave mirror and then at the convex mirror.
(A)12 cm behind convex mirror, real (B) 9 cm behind convex mirror, real
(C) 6 cm behind convex mirror, virtual (D) 3 cm behind convex mirror, virtual
19. In the given figure, the angle of reflection is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) none of these
20. A thin rod of length f/3 is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length ‘f’
such that its image which is real and elongated , just touches the rod. So, the linear
magnification is :
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 2 (D) 5/2
21. The image of an object placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm is
formed at a point which is 10 cm more distance from the mirror than the object. The
magnification of the image is
(A) 8/3 (B) 2.5 (C) 2 (D) –1.5
22. An object of length 8 cm is placed at right angles to the principal axis of a mirror of radius of
curvature 40 cm. The image formed is virtual and has a length 12 cm. Distance of object from
the mirror is nearly:
(A) 9.2 cm (B) 8.4 cm (C) 6.6 cm (D) 3.8 cm
23. An object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the pole of a convex mirror and a plane mirror
is set so that the virtual images formed by the two mirrors do not have any parallax. The focal
length of the plane mirror is
(A) 37.5 cm (B) –7.5 cm (C) –37.5 cm (D) +7.5 cm
24. On an equilateral prism, it is observed that a ray strikes grazingly at one face and if refractive
index of the prism is 2 , then the angle of deviation is :
(A) 60º (B) 120º (C) 30º (D) 90º
25. A man observes a coin placed at the bottom of a beaker which contains two immiscible liquids
of refractive index 1.2 and 1.4 as shown in the fig. The depth of the coin below the surface, as
observed from above, is –
(A) 1.6 cm
(B) 7.5 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) none of these

26. The curve of angle of incidence versus angle of deviation shown has been plotted for prism.
The value of refractive index of the prism used is :
(A) 3 (B) 2
2
(C) 3 / 2 (D)
3

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27. A ray of light travelling in glass (µg= 3/2) is incident on a glass air surface at the critical angle.
If a thin layer of water (µw = 4/3) is now poured on the glass air surface, at what angle will the
ray of light emerge into air at the water air surface ?
(A) 60º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 90º
28. There is no emergent ray irrespective of angle of incidence for the minimum value of refractive
index of a prism, having refracting angle A is
A A A A
(A) n  cos ec   (B) n  sin   (C) n  cos ec   (D) n  sin  
4 4 2 2

29. The angle of incidence i for an equilateral prism of refractive index 3 so that the ray is
parallel to the base inside the prism is
(A) 30º (B) 45º
(C) 60º (D) either 30º or 60º
30. One of the refracting surface of a prism of angle 30o is silvered. A ray of light incident at an
angle of 60o retraces its path. The refractive index of the material of prism is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 3/2 (D) 2
31. Angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of prism A of an equilateral glass prism. The
angle of incident at which minimum deviation will be obtained is
(A) 60o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) sin1  2 / 3 

32. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60º, all the three angles i.e.,
the angle of refraction ‘A’, angle of deviation ‘’ and angle of emergence ‘e’ becomes equal. Then
the refractive index of the prism is
(A) 1.73 (B) 1.15 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.33
33. A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid of refractive index . P is a
small object at a height h above the mirror. An observer O, vertically above P, outside the
liquid, observe P and its image in the mirror. The apparent distance between these two will be:
2h
(A) 2g (B)

2h  1
(C) (D) h 1  
 1  

34. Focal length of a thin convex lens is 30 cm. At a distance of 10 cm from the lens there is a
plane refracting surface of refractive index 3/2. Where will the parallel rays incident on lens
converge ?
(A) at a distance of 27.5 cm from the lens
(B) at a distance of 25 cm from the lens
(C) at a distance of 45 cm from the lens
(D) at a distance of 40 cm from the lens
35. If I1 and I2 be the sizes of the images respectively for the two positions of the lens in the
displacement method, then the size of the object is given by
 I1   I2 
(A) I1 I2 (B)  I1I2  (C)   (D)  
 I2   I1 

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36. A plano-convex lens when silvered on the plane side behaves like a concave mirror of focal
length 60 cm. However, when silvered on the convex side it behaves like a concave mirror of
focal length 20 cm. Then the refractive index of the lens is
(A) 3.0 (B) 1.5 (C)1.0 (D) 2.0
37. A biconvex lens can form a virtual image if the object is placed
(A) between the lens and its focus (B) at the focus of the lens
(C) between f and 2f (D) at infinity
38. A lens of power +2 diopter is placed in contact with a lens of power 1 diopter. The
combination will behave like
(A) a convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(B) a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(C) a convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(D) a convergent lens of focal length 200
39. An equiconvex lens of glass (g = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is silvered on one side. It will
behave like a
(A) concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(B) convex mirror of focal length 5.0 cm
(C) concave mirror of focal length 2.5 cm
(D) convex mirror of focal length 20 cm
40. The plane surface of a planoconvex lens of focal length f is silvered. It will behave as :
(A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror of focal lengths 2f
(C) concave mirror of focal length f/2 (D) none of the above
41. An equi-convex lens of glass of focal length 0.1 meter is cut along a plane perpendicular to
principle axis into two equal parts. The ratio of focal length of new lenses formed is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 2 : 1/2
42. A convex lens form a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If the upper half
of the lens is painted black, the image will :
(A) be shifted downwards (B)be shifted upwards
(C) not be shifted (D) shift on the principal axis
43. An equiconvex lens of glass g  1.5 of focal length 10cm is silvered on one side. It will
behave like a
(A) concave mirror of focal length 10cm (B) convex mirror of focal length 5.0cm
(C) concave mirror of focal length 2.5cm (D) concave mirror of focal length 20cm
44. Focal length of a thin convex lens is 30cm. At a distance of 10cm from the lens there is a
plane refracting surface of refractive index 3/2. Where will the parallel rays incident on lens
converge?
(A) At a distance of 27.5cm from the lens (B)At a distance of 25cm from the lens
(C) At a distance of 45cm from the lens (D) At a distance of 40cm from the lens
45. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20cm from a convex lens of focal length 10cm as
shown in figure. At what distance x from the lens should a convex mirror of focal length 60cm,
be placed so that final image coincides with the object
(A) 10cm (B) 40cm (C) 20cm
(D) final image can never coincide with the object in the given
conditions

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46. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A 1 and A2 on the
wall, for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is :
2
A  A2  A1  A 2 
(A) A1A2 (B) 1 (C)   (D) None
2  2 
 
47. In the shown figure, a half convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is situated at a distance 1.5f from a
fixed point object on its principal axis. If the lens starts moving with
 
velocity ˆi  ˆj m/s at t = 0, then the velocity of the image of the point
object at t = 0 will be
 
(A) 3 ˆi  ˆj m /s  
(B) 3 ˆi  ˆj m /s

(C) 3  ˆi  ˆj m /s (D) 2  ˆi  ˆj m /s

48. A point object is placed on the optic axis of a convex lens of focal length f at a distance of 2f
to the left of it. The diameter of the lens is ‘d’. An eye is placed at a distance of 3f to the right
of the lens and a distance h below the optic axis. The maximum value of h to see the image is
(A) d (B) d/2 (C) d/3 (D) d/4
49. A point object is placed at a distance of 25cm from a convex lens of focal length 20cm. If a
glass slab of thickness t and refractive index 1.5 is inserted between the lens and the object
the image is formed at infinity. The thickness t is
(A) 10cm (B) 5cm (C) 20cm (D) 15cm
50. A horizontal circular light beam of diameter R is incident symmetrically on
a transparent glass sphere of radius R and refractive index 1.5. The sphere
is at a distance 4.5 R from a screen as shown in figure. The radius of
bright spot on the screen will be :
(A) R (B) R/2
(C) R/3 (D) R/4
SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. Point A(0, 1) and B (12, 5) are object – image pair (one of the point acts as object and the other
point as image) x-axis is the principal axis of the mirror. Then this object image pair is:
(A) due to a convex mirror of focal length 2.5 cm
(B) due to a concave mirror having its pole at (2, 0)
(C) real virtual pair
(D) data is insufficient for options (A) and (B)
2. The figure shows a ray incident at an angle i   /3 . If the plot drawn shown the variation of
1
|r – i| versus = k, (r = angle of refraction)
2

2
(A) the value of k1 is (B) the value of 1   /6
3
(C) the value of 2   /3 (D) the value of k2 is 1

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3. In the figure shown a point object O is placed in air on the principal
axis. The radius of curvature of the spherical surface is 60 cm. I f is the
final image formed after all the refractions and reflections.
(A) If d1 = 120 cm, then the ‘If’ is formed on ‘O’ for any value of d2.
(B) If d1 = 240 cm, then the ‘If’ is formed on ‘O’ only if d2= 360 cm.
(C) If d1 = 240 cm, then the ‘If’ is formed on ‘O’ for all values of d2.
(D) If d1 = 240 cm, then the ‘If’ cannot be formed on ‘O’.

4. Two refracting media are separated by a spherical interface as shown in the figure. PP’ is the
principal axis,m1 and m2 are the refractive indices of medium of incidence and
medium of refraction respectively. Then :
(A) if 2  1 , then there cannot be a real image of real object.
(B) if 2  1 , then there cannot be a real image of virtual object.
(C) if 1  2 , then there cannot be a virtual image of virtual object.
(D) if 1  2 , then there cannot be a real image of real object.

5. A luminous point object is placed at O, whose image is formed at I as

shown in the figure. AB is the optical axis. Which of the following
statements are correct?
(A) If a lens is used to obtain image, the lens must be converging
(B) If a mirror is used to obtain image, the mirror must be a convex
mirror having pole at the point of intersection of lines OI and AB
(C) Position of principal focus of mirror cannot be found
(D) I is real image
6. A lens is placed in the XYZ coordinate system such that its optical center is at the origin and
principal axis is along the X axis. The focal length of the lens is 20 cm. A point object has
been placed at the point (– 40 cm, + 1cm, –1 cm). Which of the following are correct about
coordinates of the image?
(A) x = 40 cm (B) y = + 1 cm (C) z = + 1 cm (D) z = – 1 cm
7. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is 9 cm. The
lens is now displaced until an image is again obtained on the screen. The height of this image
is 4 cm. The distance between the object and the screen is 90cm.
(A) The distance between the two positions of the lens is 30cm.
(B) The distance of the object from the lens in its first position is 36cm.
(C) The height of the object is 6cm.
(D) The focal length of the lens is 21.6 cm.
8. A thin lens with focal length f is to be used as a magnifying glass. Which of the following
statements regarding the situation is true?
(A) A converging lens may be used, and the object be placed at a distance greater than 2f from
the lens.
(B) A diverging lens may be used, and the object be placed between f and 2f from the lens.
(C) A converging lens may be used, and the object be placed at a distance less than f from the
lens.
(D) A diverging lens may be used, and the object be placed at any point other than the focal
point.

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9. For refraction through a small angle prism, the angle of deviation :
(A) increases with the increase in R.I. of prism.
(B) will decrease with the increase in R.I. of prism.
(C) is directly proportional to the angle of prism.
(D) will be 2D for a ray of R.I.=2.4 if it is D for a ray of R.I.=1.2
10. For the refraction of light through a prism
(A) For every angle of deviation there are two angles of incidence.
(B) The light travelling inside an equilateral prism is necessarily parallel to the base when
prism is set for minimum deviation.
(C) There are two angles of incidence for maximum deviation.
(D) Angle of minimum deviation will increase if refractive index of prism is increased keeping
the outside medium unchanged if P  S

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
A thin equi-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is placed on a horizontal
plane mirror as shown in the figure. The space between lens and mirror
is then filled with water of refractive index 4/3. When a point object is
placed 15 cm above the lens on its principal axis, the object coincide with its own image
1. The radius of curvature of faces of lens is
(A) 20 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 25 cm
2. If we use another liquid of refractive index 1.6, then at what height the image will coincide
again with object
(A) 20 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 25 cm
3. In above situation what should be the refractive index of a liquid if used, the combination will
behave like plane mirror
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.8 (D) 2

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

The adjacent figure shows a cube of side  and density  and its top surface
behaves as a plane mirror. The cube is floating in a large liquid tank of
density 2. A torch T is hinged which can rotate in vertical plane about the
hinge and emits a collimated light ray which always hit the center of the
cube and reflected to the screen and forms a illuminated spot P. At t = 0, the
cube is pushed downwards by a length  /4 and released. Neglect any
change in the level of liquid.
4. For the x1 = x2, the spot P will
(A)performs oscillatory but not SHM (B)performs SHM
(C)move with constant velocity (D)remain at rest
Take x1 =  /2 and x2  3 /2 for following questions:
5. The point P will
(A)performs oscillatory but not SHM (B)performs SHM
(C)move with constant (D)remain at rest
6. The maximum velocity of the point P will be
g g g
(A) (B) (C) 2g (D)
2 4 8
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is 9 cm. The
lens is now displaced until an image is again obtained on the screen. The height of the image
is 4 cm. The distance between object and screen is 90 cm.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(A) The distance of object from lens for 1st position (P) 6 cm
(B) Height of the object (Q) 36 cm
(C) Focal length of the lens is (R) 21.6 cm
(D) Product of magnifications in the two cases (S) Unity.
2. A plane mirror is placed in x-z plane with its reflecting surface facing towards negative y-axis.
The mirror is moving parallel to positive x-axis with a speed of 5 m/s. A point object P is
moving in front of the mirror with a velocity  3m /s  ˆi   4m /s  ˆj  5m /s  kˆ , then
COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
(A) Velocity of image (P)  2m /s  ˆi   4m /s  ˆj   5m /s  k
ˆ

(B) Velocity of image w.r.t. mirror (Q)  8m /s  ˆj

(C) Velocity of image w.r.t. object (R)  3m /s  ˆi   4m /s  ˆj   5m /s  k
ˆ

(D) Velocity of object w.r.t. mirror (S)  2m /s  ˆi   4m /s  ˆj  5m /s  kˆ

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. Distance of an object from the first focus of an equiconvex lens is 10cm and the distance of its
real image from second focus is 40cm. Find the focal length of the lens in cm.
2. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length f are mounted coaxially
5 cm apart. Parallel beam of light incident on the convex lens emerges from the concave lens
as a parallel beam. Then find f in cm.
3. The focal length of a planoconvex lens is equal to its radius of curvature. Find the value of
the refractive index of its material.
4. A small source of light is 4 m below the surface of a liquid of refractive index 5/3. Find the
minimum diameter of the disc to be placed on the surface of liquid in order to cut off all the
light coming out of liquid surface.
5. If an object is placed unsymmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 60°,
then find the total number of images formed.
6. Three flat mirrors are arranged mutually perpendicular to each other. Find the number of
distinct images that will be formed due to a point object.
7. Two convex lenses each of focal length f, are placed at a distance 5f as
shown in figure. If the distance from the pole of the first lens where the
light will finally get focused is xf, then find x.

8. A concave mirror has a focal length 20 cm. Find the distance between
the two positions of the object for which the image size is double of the object size.

9. An object is kept at a distance of 10 cm from the focus of a spherical mirror on its principal
axis. Its image is formed at distance 40 cm from the focus. Find the focal length of the mirror.

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10. A point object is located at a distance 15 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length
10 cm on its principle axis is moving with a velocity (8i  11j) cm/s and velocity of mirror is
 
(4i  2j) cm/s as shown. If V is the velocity of image. Then find the value of | V |. (in cm/s)

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2010
1. A ray OP of monochromatic light is incident on the face AB of prism
ABCD near vertex B at an incident angle of 60° (see figure). If the
refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 , which of the
following is (are) correct?
(A) The ray gets totally internally reflected at face CD
(B) The ray comes out through face AD
(C) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 90°
(D) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 120°
2. Two transparent media of refractive indices 1 and 3 have a solid lens shaped transparent
material of refractive index 2 between then as shown in figures in Column II. A ray traversing
these media is also shown in the figures. In Column I different relationships between 1, 2
and 3 are given. Match them to the ray diagrams shown in Column II.
COLUMN I COLUMN II

(A) 1 < 2 (P)

(B) 1 > 2 (Q)

(C) 2 = 3 (R)

(D) 2 > 3 (S)

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 (T)
IITJEE-2011
3. A light ray travelling in glass medium is incident on glass-air interface at an angle of incidence
 . The reflected (R) and transmitted (T) intensities, both as function of  , are plotted. The
correct sketch is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

JEE (Adv)-2015
4. Consider a concave mirror and a convex lens
(refractive index = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm each,
separated by a distance of 50 cm in air (refractive
index = 1) as shown in the figure. An object is
placed at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror. Its
erect image formed by this combination has
magnification M1. When the set-up is kept in a
M2
medium of refractive index 7/6, the magnification becomes M2. The magnitude is
M1

5. A monochromatic beam of light is incident at 60° on one face of an

equilateral prism of refractive index n and emerges from the opposite
face making an angle (n) with the normal (see the figure). For n  3
d
the value of  is 60° and  m. The value of m is
dn

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PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS
Light guidance in an optical fiber can be understood
by considering a structure comprising of thin solid
glass cylinder of refractive index n1 surrounded by a
medium of lower refractive index x2. The light
guidance in the structure takes place due to
successive total internal reflections at the interface
of the media n1 and n2 as shown in the figure. All
rays with the angle of incidence i less than a
particular value im are confined in the medium of refractive index n1. The numerical aperture (NA)
of the structure is defined as sin im.
6. For two structure namely S1 with n1  45 / 4 and n2 = 3/2, and S2 with n1 = 8/5 and
n2 = 7/5 and taking the refractive index of water to be 4/3 and that of air to be 1, the correct
option(s) is (are)
(A) NA of S1 immersed in water is the same as that of S2 immersed in a liquid of refractive
16
index
3 15
16
(B) NA of S1 immersed in liquid of refractive index is the same as that of S2 immersed in
15
water
4
(C) NA of S1 placed in air is the same as that of S2 immersed in liquid of refractive index
15
(D) NA of S1 placed in air is the same as that of S2 placed in water
7. If two structures of same cross-sectional area, but different numerical apertures NA1 and NA2
(NA2< NA1) are joined longitudinally, the numerical aperture of the combined structure is
NA1NA2
(A) (B) NA1  NA 2 (C) NA1 (D) NA2
NA1  NA2

JEE (Adv)-2016
8. A plano-convx lens is made of a material of refractive index n. When a small object is placed
30 cm away in front of the curved surface of the les, an image of double the size of the object
is produced. Due to reflection from the convex surface of the les, another faint image is
observed at a distance of 10 cm away from the lens. Which of the following statement(s) is
(are) true?
(A) The refractive index of the lens is 2.5
(B) The radius of curvature of the convex surface is 45 cm
(C) The faint image is erect and real
(D) The focal length of the lens is 20 cm

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9. A small object is placed 50cm to the left of a thin convex lens of focal length 30cm. A convex
spherical mirror of radius of curvature 100cm is placed to the right of the lens at a distance of
50 cm. The mirror is tilted such that the axis of the mirror is at an angle  = 30° to the axis of
the lens, as shown in the figure.

If the origin of the coordinate system is taken to be at the centre of the lens, the coordinates
(in cm) of the point (x, y) at which the image is formed are
(A) (125 /3, 25 / 3) (B) (0, 0)
(B) (50  25 3, 25) (D) (25, 25 3)

JEE (Adv)-2017
10. A monochromatic light is travelling in a medium of refractive
index n  1.6. it enters a stack of glass layers from the bottom
side at an angle   30 . The interfaces of the glass layers are
parallel to each other. The refractive indices of different glass
layers are monotonically decreasing as nm  n  mn, where nm
is the refractive index of the mth slab and n  0.1 (see the
figure). The ray is refracted out parallel to the interface between
the (m – 1)th and mth slabs from the right side of the stack. What
is the value of m?

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. C 11. B 21. D 31. A 41. A
2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. C
3. C 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. C
4. A 14. B 24. B 34. D 44. D
5. C 15. D 25. B 35. B 45. C
6. B 16. A 26. A 36. B 46. A
7. D 17. B 27. D 37. A 47. B
8. C 18. C 28. C 38. C 48. D
9. B 19. C 29. C 39. C 49. D
10. B 20. A 30. B 40. C 50. A

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. BCD 3. AB 5. AD 7. BCD 9. A
2. BCD 4. AC 6. AC 8. C 10. ABD

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. D

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-Q, B-P, C-R , D-S 2. A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 20 3. 2 5. 5 7. 9 9. 20
2. 15 4. 6 6. 7 8. 20 10. 20

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. ABC
2. A-P,R;
B-Q,S,T;
C-P,R,T;
D-Q,S
3. C
4. 7
5. 2
6. AC
7. D
8. AD
9. None
10. 8

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 WAVE OPTICS
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. Two parallel rays are traveling in a medium of refractive index 1  4/3 . One of the rays
passes through a parallel glass slab of thickness t and refractive index 2  3 /2 . The path
difference between the two rays due to the glass slab will be
(A) 4t/3 (B) 3t/2 (C) t/8 (D) t/6
2. A plate of thickness t made of a material of refractive index  is placed in front of one of the
slits in a double slit experiment. What should be the minimum thickness t which will make
the intensity at the centre of the fringe pattern zero?
  
(A)    1 (B)    1  (C) (D)
2 2    1    1
d
3. In Young’s double slit experiment  104 (distance between slits, D = distance of screen from
D
the slits). At a point P on the screen resulting intensity is equal to the intensity due to

individual slit I0 . Then the distance of point P from the central maximum is (  6000 A)
(A) 2mm (B) 1mm (C) 0.5mm (D) 4mm
4. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10 th bright fringe in liquid lies where
6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the liquid is approximately
(A) 1.8 (B) 1.54 (C) 1.67 (D) 1.2
5. Consider a usual set-up of Young’s double slit experiment with slits of equal
intensity as shown in the figure. Take ‘O’ as origin and the Y-axis as indicated.
D D
If average intensity between y1   and y 2   equals ‘n’ times the
4d 4d
intensity of maxima, then ‘n’ equals (take average over phase difference):
1 2  2  2 1 2
(A) 1   (B) 2 1   (C) 1   (D) 1  
2      2 
6. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced by a distance ‘x’ when a glass
plate of refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of one of the beams. When this plate is
replaced by another plate of same thickness, the shift of fringes is  3 / 2 x . The refractive
index of second plate is:
(A) 1.75 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.25 (D) 1.00
7. In Young’s double slit experiment the y-co-ordinates of central maxima and 10th maxima are
2cm and 5cm respectively. When the YDSE apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive
index 1.5 the corresponding y-co-ordinates will be
(A) 2cm, 7.5cm (B) 3cm, 6cm (C) 2cm, 4cm (D) 4/3cm, 10/3cm
8. The maximum intensity in Young’s double slit experiment is I0 . Distance between the slits is
d  5 , where  is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. What will
be the intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen a distance D  10d ?
I 3 I
(A) 0 (B) I0 (C) I0 (D) 0
2 4 4

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9. Two coherent point sources s1 and s2 vibrating in phase emit light of wavelength  . The
separation between the sources is 2 . The smallest distance from s2 on a line passing
through s2 and perpendicular to s1s2 , where a minimum of intensity occurs is
7 15  3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 4 2 4
10. Light wave of wavelength  in air enters a medium of refractive index . Two points in the
medium, lying along the path of light are at a distance x apart. The phase difference between
these points
2 1 2 2 1 2
(A)  x (B) x (C) (-1) x (D) x
     1 

11. In a YDSE, the constant phase difference between two sources is /2. The intensity at a point
equidistant from the slits in terms of maximum intensity Io is
(A) Io (B) Io/2 (C) 3 Io/4 (D) 3 Io
12. In a YDSE, the slits are illuminated by white light. The distance between two slits us b and
screen distance is ‘d’ distance apart from the slits. Some wavelengths are missing on the
screen in front of one of the slits. These wavelengths are
b2 b2 2b 2 2b 2 b2 b2
(A)   , (B)   (C)   (D)   ,
d 3d d 3d d 2d

13. In a YDSE, fringes are obtained using light of wavelength 4800Å. One slit is covered with a
thin glass film of refractive index 1.4 and other one is covered by a thin film of same thickness
but of refractive index 1.7. By doing so, the central fringe is shifted to fifth bright fringe in the
original pattern. The thickness of the glass film is
(A) 2 103 mm (B) 4 103 mm (C) 6 103 mm (D) 8 103 mm
14. In the shown YDSE arrangement, source ‘x’ is placed a very small
distance above the central line. Then, the central maximum will lie :
(A) above O (B) below O
(C) at O (D) can’t be predicted
15. The wavefronts of light coming from a distant source of unknown shape are nearly
(A) plane (B) elliptical (C) cylindrical (D) spherical
16. A thin transparent sheet is placed in front of a Young’s double slit. The fringe width will
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) remains same (D) none
17. If the source of light used in Young’s double slit experiment is changed from red to violet,
(A) the fringes will become brighter
(B) consecutive fringes will come closer
(C) the intensity of minima will increase
(D) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.
18. In the interference pattern produced by Young’s double slit experiment set up, using two
identical slits, the intensity at the central maximum is Io. The intensity at a distance equal to
one quarter of the separation between two consecutive dark fringes from the central maximum
will be
(A) Io (B) 2 Io (C) Io/4 (D) Io/2

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19. In Young’s double slit experiment, let Io be the intensity at central bright fringe and  be the
fringe width. The intensity at distance x from the central bright fringe will be
 x  I  x 
(A) Io cos  x/  (B) Io cos 2  x/  (C) 4Io cos 2   (D) o cos 2  
 β  2  β 
20. In Young’s double slit experiment the fringe width is  . If the whole set up is immersed in a
transparent liquid of refractive index , the new fringe width will be
(A)  /(1+) (B)  /(-1) (C) β (D) /

21. In a Young’s double slit experiment with monochromatic light of wavelength , the sift in
fringe pattern is observed by introducing a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index
 in the path of one of the interfering waves. When the mica sheet is removed the separation
between the slits and the screen is doubled, it is found that the resulting fringe width is equal
to the observed shift in the fringe pattern. The wavelength  is given by
(A) (-1)t (B) 2(-1)t (C) ½ (-1)t (D) none
22. In Young’s double slit experiment, films of thickness t1 and t2 of refractive indices 1 and 2
are placed in the paths of two interfering waves. If 1t1 = 2t2 , the central maxima will shift by
t ~t t t  t  2t 2
(A) 1 2 fringes (B) 1 2 fringes (C) 1 1 fringes (D) no shift
  
23. In Young’s double slit experiment, comprising two identical slits S 1 and S2, a thin transparent
film of thickness t and refractive index  is placed in front of S1. If  be the fringe width and ,
the wavelength of the light source, the central bright fringe will sift
(A) towards S1 by t/ (B) towards S1 by (-1)t/
(C) towards S2 by t/ (D) towards S2 by (-1)t/
24. In Young’s double slit experiment the 5th maximum with wavelength 1 is at a distance d1 from
central of the fringe pattern and that with wavelength 2 at a distance d2, then the ratio d1/d2
is
2 2
     
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C)  2  (D)  1 
1 2  1   2 
25. Imagine a YDSE performed with waves associated with fast moving electrons produced from
an electron gun. The distance between successive maxima will decrease maximum if
(A) the accelerating voltage of electron gun in decreased.
(B) the accelerating voltage in increased and the distance of the screen from the slit is
decreased.
(C) the distance of the screen from the slits is increased.
(D) the distance between the slits is decreased.
26. Figure shows plane waves refracted for air to water using Huygens’s
principle. a, b, c, d, and e are lengths on the diagram. The refractive index
from air to water is the ratio
(A) a/e (B) b/e
(C) b/d (D) d/b

27. The central fringe of the interference pattern produced by the light of wavelength 600nm is
found to shift to the position of 4th bright fringe after a glass sheet of refractive index 1.5 is
introduced. The thickness of glass sheet would be
(A) 4.8 m (B) 8.23 m (C) 14.98 m (D) 3.78 m

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28. In a Young’s doubleslit experiment, the intensity of the central maximum is I0. The width of
one slit is now doubled. The intensity at the point where the intensity was originally 0.5 I 0 will
now be :
(A) 0.75 I0 (B) I0 (C) 1.5 I0 (D) None of these
29. In a Young’s doubleslit interference experiment the fringe pattern is observed on a screen
placed at a distance D. The slit are separated by d and are illuminated by light of wavelength
. The distance from the central point where the intensity falls to half the maximum is :
D D D D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3d 2d d 4d
30. Considering interference of direct and reflected light in situation as shown in figure. Find the
number of minima that will be formed on the screen.
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) None of the above
31. In a Lloyd’s mirror setup, the source is 2 mm from the mirror and 3 m from the screen. The
wavelength of the source is 400 nm. The source moves parallel to the mirror and towards the
screen at 5 cm/s. The second bright fringe will :
(A) move towards the mirror at 15 m/s (B) move away from the mirror at 15 m/s
(C) move towards the mirror at 7.5 m/s (D) None of the above
32. Two thin films of the same material but of different thicknesses are separated by air.
Monochromatic light is incident on the first film. When viewed normally from point A, the
second film appears dark. From point B, on normal viewing :
(A) the first film will appear dark (B) the first film will appear bright
(C) the second film will appear bright (D) none of the above
33. White light is incident normally on a glass plate of thickness 5000 Å and refractive index 1.5.
The wavelength in the visible region (4000 Å to 7000 Å) that are strongly reflected by the plate
is :
(A) 4290 Å (B) 6000 Å (C) 4000 Å (D) 5000 Å
34. A parallel beam of white light is incident on a thin film of air of uniform thickness.
Wavelengths 7200 Å and 5400 Å are observed to be missing from the spectrum of reflected
light viewed normally. The other wavelength in the visible region missing in reflected
spectrum is :
(A) 6000 Å (B) 4320 Å (C) 5500 Å (D) 6500 Å
35. Two waves of light in air have the same wavelength and are initially in
phase. They then travel through plastic layers with thickness of L 1 = 3.5
m and L2 = 5.0 m and indices of refraction n1 = 1.7 and n2 =
1.25 as shown in figure. The rays later arrive at a common point. The
longest wavelength of light for which constructive interference occurs at
the point is :
(A) 0.6 m (B) 1.2 m
(C) 2.4 m (D) 0.3 m
36. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10 th bright fringe in liquid lies where
6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the liquid is approximately :
(A) 1.8 (B) 1.54 (C) 1.67 (D) 1.2

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37. The point S is monochromatic source of light emitting light of
wavelength . At the point P shown in the figure. Interference takes
place between two light rays such that a maximum is formed. The
minimum value of x is :
(A) 120  (B) 125  (C) 62.5  (D) None

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. In a Young's double-slit experiment, let A and B be the two slits. A thin film of thickness t and
refractive index  is placed in front of A. Let  = fringe width. The central maximum will shift:
 
(A) towards A (B) towards B (C) by t ( – 1) (D) by t
 
2. If one of the slits of a standard YDSE apparatus is covered by a thin parallel sided glass slab
so that it transmit only one half of the light intensity of the other, then :
(A) the fringe pattern will get shifted towards the covered slit.
(B) the fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit.
(C) the bright fringes will be less bright and the dark ones will be more bright.
(D) the fringe width will remain unchanged.
3. In the above question, the intensity of the waves reaching a point P far away on the +x axis
from each of the four sources is almost the same, and equal to I0. Then,
(A) If d = /4, the intensity at P is 4I0. (B) If d = /6, the intensity at P is 3I0.
(C) If d = /2, the intensity at P is 3I0. (D) none of these is true.

4. If one of the slits of a standard YDSE apparatus is covered by a thin parallel sided glass slab
so that it transmit only one half of the light intensity of the other , then :
(A) the fringe pattern will get shifted towards the covered slit
(B) the fringe pattern will get shifted away from the covered slit
(C) the bright fringes will be less bright and the dark ones will be more bright
(D) the fringe width will remain unchanged .
5. Two point monochromatic and coherent sources of light of wavelength  are placed on the
dotted line in front of a large screen. The source emits waves in phase with each other. The
distance between S1 and S2 is ‘d’ while their distance from the screen is much larger. Then :
y

S1 S2 O

7
(A) If d = , O will be a minima
2
(B) If d = 4.3  , there will be a total of 8 minima on y-axis
(C) If d = 7  , O will be a maxima
(D) If d =  , there will be only one maxima on the y-axis

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6. The figure shows two points sources which emit light of
wavelength  in phase with each other and are at a distance d =
5.5  apart along a line which is perpendicular to a large screen
at a distance L from the centre of the source . Assume that ‘d’ is
much less than L , which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct ?
(A) only five bright fringes appear on the screen
(B) only six bright fringes appear on the screen
(C) point y = 0 corresponds to bright fringe
(D) point y = 0 corresponds to dark fringe
7. Parallel monochromatic beam is falling normally on two slits S 1 and S2
separated by d as shown in figure. By some mechanism, the separation
between the slits S3 and S4 can be changed. The intensity is measured
at the point P which is at the common perpendicular bisector of S 1S2
D
and S3S4. When z = , the intensity measured at P is I. Find this intensity when z is equal
2d
to
3D D 4D 4D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d 3d d 3d
8. In a YDSE a parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 Å is incident
on slits at angle of incidence 30º. A & B are two thin transparent
films each of R.. 1.5. Thickness of A is 20.4  m. Light coming
through A & B have intensities I and 4I respectively on the screen.
Intensity at point O which is symmetric relative to the slits is 3 I.
The central maxima is above O.
(A) What is the maximum thickness of B to do so.
Assuming thickness of B to be that found in part (a) answer the following parts.
(B) Find fringe width, maximum intensity & minimum intensity on screen.
(C) Distance of nearest minima from O.
(D) Intensity at 5 cm on either side of O.
9. A parallel beam of light (  5000Å) is incident at an angle   30
with the normal to the slit plane in a young’s double slit experiment.
Assume that the intensity due to each slit at any point on the screen
is 0. Point O is equidistant from S1 & S2.The distance between slits
is 1mm.
(A) the intensity at O is 4I0
(B) the intensity at O is zero
(C) the intensity at a point on the screen 4m from O is 4I0
(D) the intensity at a point on the screen 4m from O is zero

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10. To make the central fringe at the centre O, a mica sheet of refractive index 1.5 is introduced.
Choose the correct statements (S).
(A) The thickness of sheet is 2( 2  1)d infront of S.
(B) The thickness of sheet is ( 2  1)d infront of S.
(C) The thickness of sheet is 2 2d infront of S.
(D) The thickness of sheet is (2 2  1)d infront of S.
COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
A student is performing Young’s double slit experiment. There are two slits
S1 and S2. Separation between them is d. There is large screen at a
distance D(D >>d) from the slits. The set-up is shown in the following figure.
A parallel beam of light is incident upon it. A monochromatic light of
wavelength  is used. The initial phase difference between the two slits
which behaves as two coherent sources of light is zero. The intensity of light waves on the screen
coming out of S1 and S2 are same and is I0. In this situation, the principal maximum is formed
at the point P. At the point on screen where principal maximum is formed, phase difference
between two interfering waves will be zero.
1. Initially the distance of third minima from principal maxima will be
3 D 3 D 5 D 5 D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 d d 4 d 2 d
2. A glass slab of thickness t and refractive index  is introduced before S2, now P does not
remain the point of principal maximum. Suppose principal maximum forms at a point P’ on
screen. Then PP’ is equal to
tD(  1) tD(  1) D(  1) D(  1)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d 2d t d
3. Use the statement given in previous question. Now parallel beam is incident at an angle 
w.r.t. line OP, such that principal maximum again comes at point P. The figure is shown. The
value of  is :
t(  1) t(  1)
(A) sin1 (B) cos 1
d d
t(  1)D tD
(C) sin1 (D) sin1
d d

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

In the arrangement shown in the fig, the distance D is large compared to the separation d
between the slits. Find :
(D>>d)
d
O

D 2D Screen

g(a) f(a) f(b) g(b)

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4. The minimum value of d for which there is a dark fringe at the point O.
(A) D/2 (B) 2D/3
(C) D (D) cannot be calculated
5. The position of first bright fringe for the minimum value of d is :
(A) d/2 below (B) d above (C) 3d/2 below (D) 3d/2 above
6. The fringe width is :
3D 3D D 2D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4d 2d d d
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. The arrangement of Lloyd’s mirror experiment is shown in figure. S is a point source of
frequency 6 × 1014 Hz. A and B are the two ends of a mirror placed horizontally, and LOM
represents the screen.

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) The minimum height, above point O, (P) 39
fringes will form is (in mm)
(B) The maximum height, above point O, (Q) 19
fringes will be formed is (in mm)
(C) Total no. of friges are (R) 500
(D) Fringe width (in m) is (S) 40
2. A double slit interference pattern is produced on screen, as shown in the figure, using
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm. Point P is the location of the central bright fringe,
that is produced when light waves arrive in phase without any path difference. A choice of
three strips A, B and C of transparent materials with different thickness and refractive indices
is available, as shown in the table. These are placed over one or both of the slits. singularly or
in conjunction, causing the interference pattern to the shifted across the screen from the
original pattern. In the column-I, how the strips have been placed, is mentioned whereas in
the column-II, order of the fringe at point P on the screen that will be produced due to the
placement of the strip (s), is shown. Correctly match both the column.

Film A B C
Thickness 5 1.5 0.25
(in m)
Refractive 1.5 2.5 2
index

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Only strip B is placed over slit – I (P) First Bright
(B) Strip A is placed over slit – I and strip C is (Q) Fourth Dark
placed over slit – II
(C) Strip A is placed over the slit – I and strip B (R) Fifth Dark
and strip C are placed over the slit-II in

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 conjunction.
(D) Strip A and strip C are placed over slit – I (S) Central Bright
(in conjunction) and strip B is placed over
slit-II.

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. Two identical coherent sources placed on a diameter of a circle of radius R at separation
5   R  symmetrically about the centre of the circle. The sources emit identical wavelength
 each. Find the number of points on the circle with maximum intensity
2. The slits of a YDSE have equal width and the source is placed symmetrically with respect to
slits. The intensity of central fringe is Io. If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at this point
become I0/x, find x
3. In a Young’s double slit experiment set up producing interference pattern on a screen placed
at a distance D meter from the two narrow slits which are d meter apart, N fringe were
xd
observed per meter using monochromatic light of wavelength , and N is given by then
D
find x.
4. In an ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t is
introducing in the path of one of the interfering wave (wavelength ), then intensity at the
position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. If the minimum
thickness of the glass plate x , find x
5. A glass slab of thickness 4cm contains the same number of waves as 5cm of water, when both
are traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, and if
that of glass is given by x/3 then find x.
6. In a YDSE bi-chromatic light of wavelengths 400nm and 560nm are used. The distance
between the slits is 0.1mm and the distance between the plane of the slits and screen is 1m. If
x
the minimum distance between two successive regions of complete darkness then find x
10
7. The maximum intensity in Young’s doubleslit experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is
d = 5 , where  is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. If the
I
intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen at a distance D = 10d is 0 find x
x
8. In the diagram shown the separation between the slit is equal to 3, where  is
the wavelength of the light incident on the plane of the slits. A thin film of
thickness 3 and refractive index 2 has been placed in the front of the upper slit.
If the distance of the central maxima on the screen from O is xD, then find

9. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of wavelength  in the same phase
are placed parallel to each other at a small separation of 3. The light is
collected on a screen S which is placed at a distance D (>> ) from the slits.
If the smallest distance x such that the intensity at P is equal to intensity at 3
5D 
O , then find value of n
n

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10. A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is coated with a thin layer of thickness t and refractive
index 1.8. Light of wavelength 648nm traveling in air is incident normally on the layer. It is
partly reflected at the upper and lower surface of the layer and the two reflected waves
interfere. Find the least value of t (in nm) for which the rays interfere constructively
SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN AIEEE / IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2009
1. Column I shows four situations of standard Young’s double slit arrangement with the screen
placed far away from the slits S1 and S2. In each of these cases S1P0 = S2P0, S1P1  S2P1 = /4
and S1P2  S2P2 = /3, where  is the wavelength of the light used. In the cases B, C and D, a
transparent sheet of refractive index µ and thickness t is pasted on slit S 2. The thicknesses of
the sheets are different in different cases. The phase difference between the light waves
reaching a point P on the screen from the two slits is denoted by (P) and the intensity by I(P).
Match each situation given in Column II with the statement(s) in Column II valid for that
situation.
Column I Column II

(A) (P) (P0) = 0

(B) (µ  1) t = /4 (Q)  (P1) = 0

(C) (µ 1) t = /2 (R) I(P1) = 0

(D) (µ  1) t = 3/4 (S) I(P0) > I (P1)

(T) I (P2) > I (P1)

JEE (Adv)-2015
2. A Young’s double slit interference arrangement with slits S1 and S2 is immersed in water
(refractive index = 4/3) as shown in the figure. The positions of maxima on the surface of
water are given by x 2  p2m22  d2 , where  is the wavelength of light in air (refractive index
= 1), 2d is the separation between the slits and m is an integer. The value of p is

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AIEEE-2008
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS Incoming
Electrons
i
Outgoing
Electrons
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction • • • • • • • •
effects. Davisson and Germer demonstrated this by diffracting d
electrons from crystals. The law governing the diffraction from a • • • • • • • •
crystal is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see figure), • • • • • • • •
Crystal
plane
3. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a crystal. If
d = 1Å and i = 30°, V should be about (h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10−19
C)
(A) 2000 V (B) 50 V (C) 500 V (D) 1000 V
4. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when electrons are incident at an angle ‘i’ from the
normal to the crystal planes with distance ‘d’ between them (see figure), de Broglie wavelength
 dB of electrons can be calculated by the relationship (n is an integer)
(A) dsini  ndB (B) 2d cos i  ndB
(C) 2dsini  ndB (D) dcos i  ndB

5. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass through a narrow slit of width ‘d’ comparable to
their de Broglie wavelength. They are detected on a screen at a
distance ‘D’ from the slit (see figure).
Which of the following graphs can be expected to represent the
number of electrons ‘N’ detected as a function of the detector
position ‘y’ (y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit) ? d y=0

y
y

N d N d

(A) (B)
y y

N d N d

(C) (D)

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 ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. C 9. A 17. B 25. B 33. AB
2. C 10. A 18. D 26. C 34. B
3. A 11. B 19. B 27. A 35. B
4. A 12. A 20. D 28. A 36. A
5. A 13. D 21. C 29. D 37. C
6. A 14. B 22. A 30. D
7. C 15. A 23. B 31. C
8. A 16. C 24. B 32. D

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. AC 3. B 5. ABCD 7. ABC 9. AC
2. ACD 4. ACD 6. AD 8. ABCD 10. A

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R 2. A-R, B-R, C-S, D-P

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 20 3. 1 5. 5 7. 2 9. 2
2. 4 4. 2 6. 56 8. 1 10. 90

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN AIEEE / IITJEE (Adv)
1. A-P, S; D-R,S,T 3. B 5. C
B-Q; 2. 3 4. D
C-T;

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 ATOMIC STRUCTURE
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines?
(A) 411.85 nm (B) 822.65 nm (C) 11.85 nm (D) 22.65 nm
2. A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of
radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from the upper level to the lower level?
(A) 3.4  102 Hz (B) 1.25  1010 Hz (C) 5.6  1014 Hz (D) None of these
3. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photons which excites it to the n = 4
level. Determine the wavelength of photon.
(A) 9.74  108 m (B) 5.25  105 m (C) 1.05  103 m (D) 7.15  102 m
4. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What
series of wavelength will be emitted?
(A) 225Å (B) 845Å (C) 993Å (D) 105Å
5. According to Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterizes the earth’s revolution
around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5  1011m with orbital speed 3  104 ms1 . (Mass of earth
 6.0  1024 kg.)
(A) 2.6  1074 (B) 8.5  1080 (C) 4.34  10100 (D) None of these
6. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about –3.4 eV.
What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?
(A) 3.4eV (B) 3.4eV (C) 6.8eV (D) 6.8eV

7. A 10 kg satellite revolves around the earth in circular orbit in every 2 h in an orbit, of radius
8000 km. Them, according to Bohr’s theory, quantum number of orbit of satellite is
(A) 100 (B) 204 (C) 5.3  1045 (D) 5.3  1012

8. Taking Bohr radius, a0 = 53 pm, the radius of Li2 ion in its ground state on the basis of Bohr
model will be
(A) 53 pm (B) 27 pm (C) 18 pm (D) 13 pm
9. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate energy levels of an atom with
many electrons as
(A) electrons are not subjected to a central force
(B) electrons are colliding with each other
(C) electrons are subjected to screening effects
(D) force between nucleus and electrons is in comparison to electron-electron electronic force
10. For ground state of H-atom, angular momentum is h/2 . As angular momentum is a vector
and hence there will be infinitely many possibilities of orbits with vector pointing in all
possible directions. In actuality this is not correct, because-
(A) Bohr model gives incorrect value of angular momentum
(B) only one of these would have a minimum energy
(C) angular momentum must be in the direction of spin of electrons
(D) electrons go around in horizontal orbits only

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11. O2 molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei
of the two atoms
(A) is not important because nuclear forces are short ranged
(B) is an important as electrostatic force for binding the two atoms
(C) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei
(D) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal number of neutrons and protons
12. Two H-atom in the ground state collide in-elastically. The amount by which their combined
kinetic energy is reduced is-
(A) 10.20 eV (B) 20.40 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV
13. A set of atoms in an excited state decays
(A) in general to any of the states with lower energy
(B) into a lower state only when excited by an external electric field
(C) all together simultaneously into a lower state
(D) to emit photons only when they collide
14. Positronium is just like a H-atom with the proton replaced by the positively charged anti-
particle of the electron (called the position which is as massive as the electron). What would
be the ground state energy of positronium?
(A) 1.3 eV (B) –6.8 eV (C) 2.5 eV (D) –13.6 eV
15. Assume that there is not repulsive force between the electrons in an atom but the force
between positive and negative charges is given by Coulomb’s law as usual. Under such
circumstances, calculate the ground state energy of a He-atom
(A) 54.4eV (B) 13.6eV (C) 12eV (D) 13.6eV

16. Using Bohr model, calculate the electric current created by the electron when the H-atom is in
the ground state. With radius a0 and velocity v.
e 2a 0e
(A) 2a0v (B) (C) (D) 0
2v v
17. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons will be-
(A) 0.0414 nm (B) 0.414 nm (C) 4.14 nm (D) 41.4 nm
18. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is 3h/2. Here h is Planck’s
constant. The kinetic energy of this electron is:
(A) 4.53 eV (B) 1.51 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 6.8 eV
19. Consider the following electronic energy level diagram of H-atom:
Photons associated with shortest and longest wavelength would be
emitted from the atom by the transitions labeled:
(A) D and C respectively
(B) C and A respectively
(C) C and D respectively
(D) A and C respectively
20. In a hydrogen atom, the binding energy of the electron in the nth state is En, then the
frequency of revolution of the electron in the nth orbits is:
(A) 2En/nh (B) 2nEn/h (C) En/nh (D) nEn/h

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 SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. Then-
(A) KE in ground state is 13.6 eV (B) PE in ground state is –27.2 eV
(C) KE in second energy state is 3.4 eV (D) PE in second energy state is 3.4 eV

2. The simple Bohr model cannot be applied to He4 atom as it was applied to a H-atom,
because-
(A) He4 is an inert gas (B) He4 has two neutrons in its nucleus
(C) He4 has 0ne more electron (D) Electrons-electrons interactions are effective

3. An ionized hydrogen molecule consists of an e  and two protons. The protons are separated
by a small distance. In ground state-
(A) the e  would not move in circular orbits
(B) the energy would be 24 times of a H-atom
(C) the e  would not go around protons
(D) molecule soon decay in a proton and a H-atom

me4
4. Let En  be the energy of nth level of H-atom. If all the H-atoms are in ground state
82 2 2
0n h
and radiation of frequency (E2 -E1 )/h falls on it, then-
(A) it will not be absorbed at all
(B) some of atoms move to first excited state
(C) all atoms will be excited to n = 2 state.
(D) no atom makes a transition to the n = 3 state
5. Photoelectrons are emitted when 400 nm radiation is incident on a surface of work function
1.9eV. These photoelectrons pass through a region containing -particles. A maximum energy
electron combines with an -particle to form a He+ ion, emitting a single photon in this
process. He+ ions thus formed are in their fourth excited state. Consider transitions and
resulting photons that are likely to be emitted during and after the combination. [h= 4.1410-
15 eVs ]
(A) during combination photons of energy 3.38 eV are emitted
(B) After combination photons of energy 1.22 eV may be emitted
(C) After combination photons of energy 2.64 eV may be emitted
(D) After combination photons of energy 2.84 eV may be emitted
6. A particular hydrogen like atom has its ground state binding ―energy 122.4eV. Its is in ground
state. Then:
(A) Its atomic number is 3
(B) An electron of 90eV can excite it.
(C) An electron of kinetic energy nearly 91.8eV can be brought to almost rest by this atom.
(D) An electron of kinetic energy 2.6eV may emerge from the atom when electron of kinetic
energy 125eV collides with this atom.

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7. A beam ofultraviolet light of all wavelengths passes through hydrogen gas at room
temperature, in the x-direction. Assume that all photons emitted due to electron transition
inside the gas emerge in the y-direction. Let A and B denote the lights emerging from the gas
in the x and y directions respectively.
(A) Some of the incident wavelengths will be absent in A.
(B) Only those wavelengths will be present in B which are absent in A.
(C) B will contain some visible light.
(D) B will contain some infrared light.
8. Let An be the area enclosed by the nth orbit in a hydrogen atom. The graph of ln (An/A1)
agains ln (n).
(A) will pass through origin (B) will be a stright line will slope 4
(C) will be a monotonically increasing nonlinear curve (D) will be a circle.
9. An atom consists of three energy levels given by a ground state with energy E0 = 0, the first
excited state with energy E1 = K and the second excited state with energy E2 = 2K where K >
0. The atom is initially in the ground state. Light from a laser which emits photons with
energy 1.5K is shined on the atom. Which of the following is/are correct ?
(A) The photons are absorbed, putting one atom in a state E1 and one atom in a state E2.
(B) A photon will always be absorbed, but half the time the atom will go into the state with
energy K and the other half into the state with energy 2K. In this way, energy will be
conserved on the average.
(C) The atom absorbs a photon, goes into the first excited state with energy K and emits a
photon with energy 0.5 K to conserve energy.
(D) The atom does not absorb any photon and stays in the ground state.
10. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by .
Application of Bohr’s theory to hydrogen atom in this case shows that
(A) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n6
(B) energy is proportional to m–3 (m : mass of electron)
(C) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n–2
(D) energy is proportional to m3 (m = mass of electron)

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
In a mixture of H — He gas (He is singly ionized He atom), H-atoms and He ions are excited to
their respective first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy
to He ions (by collisions).
1. The quantum number n of the state finally populated in He ions is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

2. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He ions after collisions with H-atoms
is
(A) 6.5 107 m (B) 5.6 107 m (C) 4.8 107 m (D) 4.0 107 m

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3. The ratio of kinetic energy of the n=2 electrons for the H-atom to that of the n=2 electrons for
that of He ion is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 2
4 2

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of the
colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon
collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. As a result a photon and
an electron are emitted-
4. The energy of the emitted photon is-
(A) 1.4 eV (B) 11.6 eV (C) 10.2 eV (D) 25.2 eV
5. The energy of the electron is-
(A) 1.4 Ev (B) 11.6 eV (C) 10.2 eV (D) 25.2 eV
6. If the second photon collides the atom in time less then nano second the kinetic energy of
electron will be-
(A) 1.4 eV (B) 11.6 eV (C) 10.2 eV (D) 25.2 eV
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3  1011 m. match the two
column- of then n = 2 and n = 3 orbits?
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Second orbit of He+ ion (P) 1.59  1010 m
(B) Third orbit of Li++ ion (Q) 4.24  1010 m
(C) Fourth orbit of He+ ion (R) 6.36  1010 m
(D) Sixth orbit of Li++ ion (S) 1.06  1010 m
2. Match the following-
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Time Period (P) n-2
(B) Orbital Radius (Q) n-1
(C) Orbital Speed (R) n-4
(D) Centripetal Force (S) n3
INTEGER ANSWER TYPE
1. K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number Z = 11 is . Find the atomic number for
an atom that emits K radiation with wavelength 4.
2. The K Xray emission line of tungsten occurs at  = 0.021 nm. The energy difference
between K and L levels in this atom (in keV) is nearly-
3. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the
ground state of a mono-electronic atom/ion is 122.4 eV. The atomic number of the atom/ion
is-
4. In hydrogen spectrum Lyman lines are in ultraviolet region, Balmer lines in visible region and
Paschen lines in infrared region. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the
hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength in the infrared region of the
hydrogen spectrum is nearly 103×N nm. Value of N is-

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5. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 kV and the current through it is 3.2 mA.
The number of electrons striking the target per second is N×1016, the value of N is-

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2008
1. Which one of the following statements is WRONG in the context of X-rays generated from a X-
ray tube?
(A) Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target
increases.
(B) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target
(C) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray
tube
(D) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in the
X-ray tube

IITJEE-2011
2. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å. The
wavelength of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionised helium atom is
(A) 1215 Å (B) 1640 Å (C) 2430 Å (D) 4687 Å

JEE (Adv)-2013
3. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5 a0 where a0 is the Bohr
3h
radius. Its orbital angular momentum is . It is given that h is Planck’s constant and R is
2
Rydberg constant. The possible wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is (are)
9 9 9 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32R 16R 5R 3R

JEE (Adv)-2014
4. If cu is the wavelength of K  X-ray line of copper (atomic number 29) and Mo is the
wavelength of the K  X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the ratio cu / Mo is
close to
(A) 1.99 (B) 2.14 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.48

JEE (Adv)-2015
5. An electron in an excited state of Li2+ ion has angular momentum 3h/2. The de Broglie
wavelength of the electron in this state is pa 0 (where a0 is the Bohr radius). The value of p is-

JEE (Adv)-2016
6. Highly excited states for hydrogen-like atoms (also called Rydberg states) with nuclear charge
Ze are defined by their principal quantum number n, where n >> 1. Which of the following
statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbital does not depends on Z
(B) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbital varies as 1/n
(C) Relative change in the energy of two consecutive orbitals varies as 1/n 2
(D) Relative change in the angular momenta of two consecutive orbitals varies as 1/n

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7. A hydrogen atom in its ground state is irradiated by light of wavelength 970Å. Taking hc/e =
1.237 × 10–6 eV m and the ground state energy of hydrogen atom as –13.6 eV, the number of
lines present in the emission spectrum is

JEE (Adv)-2017
8. An electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from an orbit with quantum number
ni to another with quantum number nf . Vi and Vf are respectively the initial and final
V
potential energies of the electron. If i  6.25, then the smallest possible nf is
Vf
JEE (Adv)-2018
9. Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number Z with a single electron. In the
emission spectrum of this atom, the photon emitted in the n = 2 to n = 1 transition has energy
74.8 eV higher than the photon emitted in the n = 3 to n = 2 transition. The ionization energy
of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The value of Zis __

ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. B 5. A 9. D 13. A 17. A
2. C 6. B 10. A 14. B 18. B
3. A 7. C 11. A 15. A 19. C
4. C 8. C 12. A 16. C 20. A

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. ABC 3. AC 5. ABC 7. ACD 9. D
2. CD 4. BD 6. ACD 8. AB 10. AB

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P 2. A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 6 2. 59 3. 3 4. 8 5. 2

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. B 3. AC 5. 2 7. 6 9. 3
2. A 4. B 6. ABD 8. 5

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 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photo electrons from a metal Vs the frequency of the incident light gives as straight line the
whose slope
(A) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(B) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) depends on the nature of the metal used
(D) is the same for the all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
2. The work function of cesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6  1014 Hz is incident
on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the maximum kinetic energy
of the emitted electrons?
(A) 0.65 eV (B) 0.35 eV (C) 0.50 eV (D) 0.56 eV
3. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
(A) 4.4  1019 J (B) 5.4  1019 J (C) 2.4  1019 J (D) 3.4  1019 J
4. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the
cut off wavelength is nearest to-
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
5. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388  103 W/m. How many
photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the earth per second? Assume that the
photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
(A) 1021 (B) 1020 (C) 1010 (D) 1040
6. A 100 W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is located at the
centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The
wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. At what rate are the photons delivered to the
sphere?
(A) 3  1021 photon/s (B) 3  1020 photon/s
(C) 3  1022 photon/s (D) 3  1024 photon/s
7. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3  1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2  1014 Hz is
incident on the metal, predict the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission.
(A) 2.03V (B) 4.04V (C) 5.04V (D) 6.04V

8. Light of frequency 7.211014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a maximum

speed of 6.0  105 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold frequency for
photoemission of electrons?
(A) 4.74 1014 Hz (B) 5.47 1014 Hz (C) 6.47 1014 Hz (D) 7.74 1014 Hz
9. Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser, which is used in the photoelectric
effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping (cut-off)
potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the
emitter is made.
(A) 3.17 eV (B) 2.17 eV (C) 4.17 eV (D) 5.17 eV

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10. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-Broglie wavelength associate with particle is
proportional to
(A) H (B) H1/2 (C) H0 (D) H1/2
11. Wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to the
nucleus with 1 meV energy is nearly
(A) 1.2nm (B) 1.2  103 nm (C) 1.2  106 nm (D) 1.2  101 nm
12. Consider a beam of electrons (each with energy E0) incident on a metal surface kept in an
evacuated chamber. Them
(A) no electrons will be emitted as only photons can emit electrons
(B) electrons can be emitted but all with energy E0
(C) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0   ( is the work-function)
(D) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0
13. Consider figure given below. Suppose the voltage applied to A increased. The diffracted beam
will have the maximum at a value of  that

(A) will be larger than the earlier value (B) will be the same as the earlier value
(C) will be less than the earlier value (D) will depend on the target
14. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an  -particle have same energy. Then, their de-Broglie
wavelength compare as
(A)  p   n  e    (B)     p   n   e
(C) e   p   n    (D) e   p   n   
15. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v  v 0ˆi is in an electric field E  E0ˆj. If
0 =h/mv0 , it’s de-Broglie wavelength at time t is given by
e2E20t2 0 0
(A)  0 (B) 0 1  (C) (D)
m2v20  e2E20 t2 
e2E 20 t 2
1 1  
m2 v02 
m2 v 02

16. The cut off frequency of a photo cell is f0. When light of frequency f1 is incident on a photo
electric cell, photoelectrons of maximum speed v1 are emitted. If light of frequency f2 (f2 = 4f1)
is incident, then maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons v2 is
(A) more than 2v1 (B) equal to 2v1
(C) less than 2v1 (D) independent of v1

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17. Cut off frequency of a photo cell is f0. When light of frequency f0 < f1 is incident on a
photoelectric cell, photoelectrons of maximum speed v1 are emitted. If light of frequency f2
4.(f1  f0 )  (f2  f0 ) is incident on the cell, the maximum speed of photoelectrons v2 is
(A) more than 2v1 (B) equal to 2v1
(C) less than 2v1 (D) independent of v1

18. Consider a sphere of radius R exposed to radiation of intensity I as shown in figure. If surface
of sphere is partially reflection and reflection coefficient is 0.3, then radiation force
experienced is :
R 2I 1.7 R 2I
(A) (B)
c c
2
0.3R I
(C) (D) None
c
19. Ratio of de Broglie wavelength of H2 and O2 molecules at same temperature is
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4
20. Ratio of de Broglie wavelength of SO2 molecules and He atoms at given temperature is
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power
emitted is 9.42 mW. Choose correct options-
(A) The energy of each photon is 3.14  1019 J
(B) Linear momentum of photons is 1.05  1027 kg ms1
(C) Number of photons emitted each second is 3  1016
(D) Number of photons emitted does not depend on wavelength

2. Two metallic plates A and B each of area 5 × 10–4 m2, are placed at a separation of 1 cm.
Plate B carries a positive charge of 33.7 × 10–12 C. A monochromatic beam of light, with
photons of energy 5 eV each, starts falling on plate A at t = 0 so that 10 16 photons fall on it
per square meter per second. Assume that one photoelectron is emitted for every 10 6 incident
photons. Also assume that all the emitted photoelectrons are collected by plate B and the
work function of plate A remains constant at the value 2 eV. At time t=10s-
(A) 5×107 photoelectrons are emitted
(B) magnitude of the electric field between the plates A and B is 2×103 N/c
(C) the KE of the most energetic photoelectron emitted when it reaches plate is B 23 eV
(D) potential difference between plates is 26V
3. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for
a photo-sensitive surface for three different radiation. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be
the intensities and fa, fb and fc be the frequencies for the curves a, b and
c respectively
(A) fa = fb and Ia  Ib (B) fb fc and Ib = Ic
(C) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (D) fb = fc and Ib = Ic

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4. A beam of electron is used in an YDSE experiment. The slit width is a and distance between
slits is d. Then-
(A) no interference is observed
(B) Interference fringes are observed
(C) if velocity of electrons is increased fringe width decreases
(D) if velocity of electrons is increased fringe width remains same
5. The graph between 1/ and stopping potential (V) of three metals having work functions 1,
2 and 3 in an experiment of photo-electric effect is plotted as shown in the figure. Which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct? [Here 
is the wavelength of the incident ray].
(A) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 4
(B) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 4 : 2 : 1
(C) tan  is directly proportional to hc/e, where h is Planck’s constant
and c is the speed of light
(D) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons from metals 2 and 3.
6. When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell,
the cut off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 V and 18.0 mA. If the same
source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then :
(A) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt (B) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(C) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA (D) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA
7. Two electrons starting from rest are accelerated by equal potential difference.
(A) they will have same kinetic energy
(B) they will have same linear momentum
(C) they will have same de Broglie wave length
(D) they will produce x-rays of same minimum wave length when theystrike different targets.
8. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on
(A) frequency of the incident light (B) intensity of the incident light
(C) emitter’s properties (D) frequency and intensity of the incident light
9. Two electrons are moving with the same speed v. One electron enters a region of uniform
electric field while the other enters a region of uniform magnetic field, then after sometime if
the de–Broglie wavelengths of the two are 1 and 2, then:
(A) 1 = 2 (B)1 > 2 (C) 1 < 2 (D) 1 > 2 or 1 < 2

10. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on

(A) frequency of the incident light
(B) intensity of the incident light by varies source distance
(C) emitter’s properties
(D) frequency and intensity of the incident light

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COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
An electron is projected with an initial velocity v  v0ˆi in a region where uniform magnetic field
B  B0ˆj. and uniform electric field E  E0ˆi are present.
1. If electric field is switched off then its de-Broglie wavelength-
(A) remains constant (B) increases with time
(C) decreases with time (D) first increases then decreases
2. If magnetic field is switched off then its de-Broglie wavelength-
(A) remains constant (B) increases with time
(C) decreases with time (D) first increases then decreases
3. If the magnetic field is switched off then it’s de-Broglie wavelength at time t is-
0  eE0 t 
(A) (B) 0 1   (C)  0 (D)  0 t
 eE0 t   mv 0 
1  
 m v0 

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS

When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 Wm–2 falls on a surface of platinum of surface
area 1.0 104 m2 and the work-function of the material is 5.6 eV. Given that, 0.53% of the
incident photons eject photoelectrons.
4. Find number of photoelectrons emitted per second.
(A) 7 1011 (B) 6.25 1011 (C) 9 1010 (D) 111011
5. Find maximum energy of photoelectrons emitted
(A) 5.0 eV (B) 6.0 eV (C) 2.5 eV (D) 0 eV
6. Find minimum energy of photoelectrons emitted
(A) 6.0 eV (B) 5.0 eV (C) 5.8 eV (D) 0 eV

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. Match the quantities of Column I with their values in Column II and choose the correct option
from the codes given below
COLUMN I COLUMN II

(A) Maximum number of photons absorbed by an electron (P) 0
v0
P
(B) Number of photons emitted by a source per second (Q)
E
(C) Energy of a photon (R) hv
(D) Planck’s constant (S) 1
Codes
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 1 2 4

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2. Work-function for caesium metal is 2.14 eV. Let a beam of light of frequency 6 1014 Hz is
incident over the metal surface. Now match the following column and choose the correct
option from codes given
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Maximum KE of emitted photoelectrons (in eV) (1) 332.3 kms–1
(B) Minimum of emitted photoelectrons (in eV) (2) 345 mV
(C) Stopping potential of material (in mV) is (3) 0.345 eV
(D) Maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons (in kms–1) (4) 0
Codes
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

E0 0  x 1 
1. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by V(x)     and 2 are
0 x  1  1
the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0  x  1 and x > 1 respectively. If the total
energy of particle is 2E0, then λ1/λ 2 = n ; value of n is-

2. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy
6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in volts is :
3. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance (in nm) is approximately:
4. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m 1 and m2 having non-zero
velocities. Ratio of debroglie wavelengths of the particles 1/2=(n); value of n is.
5. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is
E. Let 1 be the deBroglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon.
The ratio 1/2 is proportional to E1/n; value of n is-

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2009
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
When a particle is restricted to move along xaxis between x = 0 and x = a, where a is of
nanometer dimension, its energy can take only certain specific values. The allowed energies of
the particle moving in such a restricted region, correspond to the formation of standing waves
with nodes at its ends x = 0 and x = a. The wavelength of this standing wave is related to the
linear momentum p of the particle according to the de Broglie relation. The energy of the particle
of mass m is related to its linear momentum as E = p2/2m. Thus, the energy of the particle can
be denoted by a quantum number ‘n’ taking values 1, 2, 3, ….(n = 1, called the ground state)
corresponding to the number of loops in the standing wave.

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Use the model described above to answer the following three questions for a particle moving in
the line x = 0 to x = a. Take h = 6.6 × 1034 Js and e = 1.6 × 1019 C.
1. The allowed energy for the particle for a particular value of n is proportional to :
(A) a2 (B) a3/2 (C) a1 (D) a2
2. If the mass of the particle is m = 1.0 × 1030 kg and a = 6.6 nm, the energy of the particle in its
ground state is closest to :
(A) 0.8 meV (B) 8 meV (C) 80 meV (D) 800 meV
3. The speed of the particle that can take discrete values is proportional to :
(A) n3/2 (B) n1 (C) n1/2 (D) n
4. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q and r
having work functions p = 2.0 eV, q = 2.5 eV and r = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light beam
containing wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities illuminates
each of the plates. The correct I-V graph for the experiment is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. An –particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V. After
this, their de Broglie wavelengths are  and p respectively. The ration p/, to the nearest
integer, is

IITJEE-2010
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
The key feature of Bohr’s theory of spectrum of hydrogen is the quantization of angular
momentum when an electron is revolving around a proton. We will extend this to a general
rotational motion to find quantized rotational energy of a diatomic molecule assuming it to be
rigid. The rule to be applied is Bohr’s quantization condition.
6. A diatomic molecule has moment of inertia I. By Bohr’s quantization condition its rotational
energy in the nth level (n = 0 is not allowed) is
1  h2  1  h2   h2   h2 
(A) 2  2  (B)  2  (C) n  2  (D) n2  2 
n  8 I  n  8 I   8 I   8 I 

7. It is found that the excitation frequency from ground to the first excited state of rotation for
4
the CO molecule is close to  1011 Hz. Then the moment of inertial of CO molecule about its

centre of mass is closed to (Take h = 2 × 10–34 Js)
(A) 2.76×10–46 kg m2 (B) 1.87×10–46 kg m2 (C) 4.67×10–47 kg m2 (D)1.17×10–47 kg m2
8. In a CO molecule, the distance between C (mass = 12 amu) and O (mass = 16 amu), where 1
5
amu =  10 27 kg, is close to
3
(A) 2.4 × 10–10 m (B) 1.9 × 10–10 m (C) 1.3 × 10–10 m (D) 4.4 × 10–11 m

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IITJEE-2011
9. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is suspended from an insulating
thread in free –space. It is under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light. As
photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets charged and acquires a potential. The maximum
number of photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is A × 10Z (where 1< A < 10). The value of
‘Z’ is

JEE (Adv)-2013
10. The work functions of Silver and Sodium are 4.6 and 2.3 eV, respectively. The ratio of the
slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is

JEE (Adv)-2014
11. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The
maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths are u 1 and u2,
respectively. If the ratio u1 : u2 = 2 : 1 and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is
nearly
(A) 3.7 eV (B) 3.2 eV (C) 2.8 eV (D) 2.5 eV

JEE (Adv)-2016
12. In a historical experiment to determine Planck’s constant, a metal surface was irradiated with
light of different wavelength. The emitted photoelectron energies were measured by applying a
stopping potential. The relevant data for the wavelength ( ) of incident light and the
corresponding stopping potential (V0) are given below:

  m V0  Volt 
0.3 2.0
0.4 1.0
0.5 0.4
19
Given that c  3  108 ms 1 and e  1.6 10 C, Plank’s constant (in units of J s) found from
such an experiment is
(A) 6.0 1034 (B) 6.4 1034 (B) 6.6 1034 (D) 6.8 1034
13. Light of wavelength  ph falls on a cathode plate inside a vacuum tube as shown in the figure.
The work function of the cathode surface is  and the anode is wire mesh of conducting
material kept at a distance d from the cathode. A potential difference V is maintained between
the electrodes. If the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the electrons passing through the
anode is e , which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) e increases at the same rate as ph for  hc / 
(B) e decreases with increase in  and  ph
(C) e is approximately halved, if d is doubled
(D) For large potential difference (V   /e), e is approximately halved
if V is made four times

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JEE (Adv)-2018
14. In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of monochromatic light with power of 200 W is
incident on a perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25 eV. The frequency of light is
just above the threshold frequency so that the photoelectrons are emitted with negligible
kinetic energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency is 100%. A potential
difference of 500 V is applied between the cathode and the anode. All the emitted electrons are
incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode experiences a force F  n  104 N
due to the impact of the electrons. The value of n is __________. Mass of the electron
me  9  1031 kg and 1.0 eV  1.6  1019 J.

ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. D 5. A 9. B 13. C 17. B
2. B 6. B 10. D 14. B 18. A
3. C 7. A 11. B 15. C 19. D
4. C 8. A 12. D 16. A 20. B

SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. ABC 3. AB 5. AC 7. ACD 9. AD
2. ABC 4. BC 6. BD 8. AC 10. AC

COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. B 2. B

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. 2 2. 4 3. 310 4. 2 5. 2

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. A 4. A 7. B 10. 1 13. D
2. B 5. 3 8. C 11. A 14. 24
3. D 6. D 9. 7 12. B

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 NUCLEUS
SECTION – I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
20 21 22
1. The three stable isotopes of neon, 10 Ne, 10 Ne and 10 Ne have respective abundances of
90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u and
21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.
(A) 20.18 u (B) 12.5 u (C) 8.55 u (D) 1.257 u
2. Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus 147 N , given m  147 N  14.00307 u.
(A) 210 (B) 104.67 (C) 83.5 (D) 75.25
3. A given coin has a mass of 3.0g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to
separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity, assume that the coin is
entirely made of 63
29 Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
(A) 2.5 1025 MeV (B) 0.5  1012 MeV (C) 1.58 1025 MeV (D) 7.5  1012 MeV

4. Obtain the amount of 60

27 Co necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength. The
half-life of 60
27 Co is 5.3 yr.
(A) 7.12  106 g (B) 1.2  105 g (C) 4.5  10 6 g (D) 3.5  10 5 g
90
5. The half-life of 38 Sr is 28 yr. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
10
(A) 5.7  10 Bq (B) 7.877  1010 Bq (C) 4.3  1010 Bq (D) 2.34  1010 Bq
235
6. The fission properties of 239
94 Pu are very similar to those of 92 U. The average energy released
per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV is released if all the atoms in 1kg of pure
239
94 Pu undergo fission?
(A) 4.53 1026 eV (B) 1.25 1026 eV (C) 8.06 1026 eV (D) 3.75 1026 eV
7. Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head on collision of two deuterons. [Hint :
The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the two
deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres
of radius 2.0 fm.]
(A) 215 kV (B) 360 kV (C) 120 kV (D) 450 kV
10 11
8. Boron has two stable isotopes 5 B and 5 B. Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and
11.00931 u and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Then, the abundances of 11
5 B and
11
5 B
are
(A) 19.9, 80.1 (B) 80.1, 19.9 (C) 92.5, 7.5 (D) 7.5, 92.5
9. The binding energy of the nuclei 56 56
26 Fe in units of MeV is [m(26 Fe)  55.934939u]
(A) 7.20 MeV (B) 8.79 MeV (C) 10.2 MeV (D) 13.6 MeV

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10. A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5 yr. The reactor operates 80% of the
time that all the energy generated arises from the fission of 235 92 U and this nuclide is
consumed only by the fission process. The power of reactor P = 1000 MW. How much 235 92 U
did it contain initially?
(A) 2050 kg (B) 3070 kg (C) 4000 kg (D) 5000 kg
11. How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg deuterium? Take
the fusion reaction as 12 H  12H  13He  n  3.27 MeV
(A) 6  103 yr (B) 5  104 yr (C) 7  105 yr (D) 10  106 yr

12. Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200000 MW of electric power, ten
percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given that, on
an average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e., conversion to electric energy) of thermal energy
produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium would our country
need per year by 2020? Take the heat energy per fission per fission of 235 U to be about 200
MeV.
(A) 2  102 kg (B) 3  102 kg (C) 2  103 kg (D) 3  104 kg

13. Suppose we have a large number of containers each containing initially 10000 atoms of a
radioactive material with a half-life of 1 yr. After 1 yr
(A) all containers will have 5000 atoms of the material
(B) all containers will contains same number of atoms of the material but that number will
only be approximately 5000
(C) the containers will general have different number of the atoms but their average is around
5000
(D) None of the containers have more than 5000 atoms
14. When nucleus in an atom undergoes a radioactive decay, the electronic energy level of the
atom
(A) do not change for any type of radioactivity
(B) change for  and   radioactivity but not for   radioativity
(C) change for   radioactivity but not for others
(D) change for   radioactivity but not for others

15. MX and M Y denote the atomic masses of the parent and the daughter nuclei, respectively in
a radioactive decay. The Q value for a   -decay is Q1 and that for a B decay is Q2 . If me
denotes the mass of an electron, then which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Q1  (MX  MY )c2 and Q2  (MX  MY  2Me )c2
(B) Q1  (MX  MY )c2 and Q2  (MX  MY )c2
(C) Q1  (MX  MY  2Me )c2 and Q2  (MX  MY  2Me )c2
(D) Q1  (MX  MY  2Me )c2 and Q2  (MX  MY  2Me )c2

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16. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(A) neutrons are heavier than protons
(B) electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
(C) neutrons decay into protons beta decay
(D) nuclear force between neutrons is weaker than protons
17. In a nuclear reactor, moderator slow down the neutrons which come out in a fission process.
The moderator have light nuclei. Heavy nucleus will not serve the purpose because
(A) they will break up
(B) elastic collision with neutron with heavy nuclei will not slow them down
(C) weight of reactor is appreciably high
(D) substances with heavy nuclei are not liquids or gases at room temperature
18. Fusion processes like combining two deuterons to form a he nucleus are impossible at orinary
temperatures and pressures
The reason for this can be traced to the fact that
(A) nuclear forces are long-range
(B) nuclei are positively charged
(C) the original nuclei must be completely ionized before fusion can takes place
(D) the original nuclei must break up from combining with each other
19. Sample of two radioactive nuclides A and B are taken. A and B are the disintegration
constants of A and B, respectively. In which of the following cases, the two samples can
simultaneously have the same decay rate at any time?
(A) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of decay of B and A and B
(B) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of decay of B and  A > B
(C) Initial rate of decay of B is twice the initial rate of decay of A and  A > B
 N
(D) A  B
B NA

20. Masses of two isobars 29Cu64 and 30Zn64 are 63.9298 u and 63.9292 u respectively. It can be
concluded from these data that
(A) both the isobars are stable
(B) Zn64 is radioactive, decaying to Cu64 through -decay
(C) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through -decay
(D) Cu64 is radioactive, decaying to Zn64 through decay

SECTION – II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a target of an element with 30 neutrons. The
ratio of radii of nucleus to that of helium nucleus is (14)1/3. (R=1.1×107 m–1 & c=3×108 m/s)
(A) atomic number of the nucleus is 26
(B) the frequency of K line of the X-ray produced is 1.55 × 1018 Hz
(C) The nucleus is most stable among all nuclei
(D) the radius of nucleus is twice the radius of Li7

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2. One day and two days after preparation the activity of a sample is 4 units and 3 units
respectively. Then
4 16
(A) decay constant is ln   per day (B) Initial activity is unit
3 3
27 9
(C) Initial activity is unit (D) Activity after 3 days will be unit
4 4

2x 3y
3. The activity of a radioactive source is x units and units after y years and years, then
3 2
1
(A) decay constant is less than per years (B) Half life is less than y years
y
x
(C) Initial activity is more than 2x (D) after 2y years activity will be more than
2
4. Let mp be the mass of a proton, mn the mass of a neutron, M1 the mass of a 40
20 Ca nucleus and
20
M2 the mass of a 10 Ne nucleus. Then
(A) M2 = 2M1 (B) M2 > 2M1
(C) M2 < 2M1 (D) M1 < 10(mn + mp)

5. The decay constant of a radio active substance is 0.173 (years)–1. Therefore :

(A) Nearly 63% of the radioactive substance will decay in (1/0.173) year.
(B) half life of the radio active substance is (1/0.173) year.
(C) one -forth of the radioactive substance will be left after nearly 8 years.
(D) all the above statements are true.
6. The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio because
(A) a neutron is heavier than a proton
(B) a neutron is an unstable particle
(C) a neutron does not exert electric repulsion
(D) Coulomb forces have longer range compared to nuclear forces
7. A free neutron decays to a proton but a free proton does not decay to a neutron. This is
beacuse
(A) neutron is a composite particle made of a proton and an electron whereas proton is
fundamental particle
(B) neutron is an uncharged particle whereas proton is a charged particle
(C) neutron has larger rest mass than the proton
(D) weak forces can operate in a neutron but not in a proton.
8. Consider a sample of a pure beta-active material
(A) All the beta particles emitted have the same energy
(B) The beta particles originally exist inside the nucleus and are ejected at the time of beta
decay
(C) The antineutrino emitted in a beta decay has zero mass and hence zero momentum.
(D) The active nucleus changes to one of its isobars after the beta decay

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9. A U238 sample of mass 1.0 g emits alpha particles at the rate 1.24 x 104 particles per second.
(A) The half life of this nuclide is 4.5 × 109 years
(B) The half life of this nuclide is 9 × 109 years
(C) The activity of the preparation is 2.48 × 104 particles/sec
(D) The activity of the preparation is 1.24 × 104 particles/sec.
10. Radio active phosphorus 32 has a half life of 14 days. A source containing this isotope has an
initial activity of 10 m Ci.
(A) The activity of the source after 42 days is 1.25 mCi
(B) The activity of the source after 42 days is 2.5 mCi
(C) Time elapses before the activity of the source falls to 2.5 mCi is 42 days
(D) Time elapses before the activity of the source falls to 2.5 mCi is 28 days

COMPREHENSION TYPE
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
In an experiment on two radioactive isotopes of an element (which do not decay into one another),
their mass ratio at a given instant was found to be 3. The decaying isotope has a large mass and
activity of 1.0 curie initially. The half lives of the two radioactive isotopes are known to be 12h
and 16h. Activity of the each isotope and their mass ratio after 2 days was studied.
1. Ratio of number of atoms of first isotope to that of the other isotopes is
(A) 2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1 (D) 1.75
2. Activity of first isotopes is
1 1 1 1
(A) Ci (B) Ci (C) Ci (D) Ci
80 40 20 10
3. Activity of second isotopes is
1 1 1 1
(A) Ci (B) Ci (C) Ci (D) Ci
80 40 20 10
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
Suppose that a reactor using uranium –235 has an output of 700 MW and is 20% efficient. An
atom of U235 undergoing fission in a reactor liberates 200 MeV energy.
4. Energy generated from the reactor per fission is
(A) 3.2 1011 J (B) 6.4 1011 J (C) 3.2 1012 J (D) 6.4 1012 J
5. How many uranium atoms does it consume in 24 h?
(A) 9.5 1021 (B) 9.5 1022 (C) 9.5 1023 (D) 9.5 1024
6. What mass of uranium does it consume during 24 h?
(A) 2.5 kg (B) 3.7 kg (C) 2.5 g (D) 3.7 g

MATRIX MATCH TYPE

1. Four physical quantities are listed in Column I. Their values are listed in Column II in a
random order
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) Thermal energy of air molecules at room temperature. (P) 0.02 eV
(B) Binding energy of heavy nuclei per nucleon (Q) 2 eV
(C) Xray photon energy (R) 10 keV
(D) Photon energy of visible light (S) 7 MeV

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2. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(A) 242 238 4
94 Pu  92 U  2 He (1) K-electron capture
(B) 210
83 Bi
210
 84 Po  e   (2)   decay
(C) 97
43 Te  97 
42 Mo  e   (3)   decay

(D) 120 120
54 Xe  e  53 I   (4)   decay
CODE
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 1 2

INTEGER ANSWER TYPE

1. A radioactive element decays by –emission. A detector records n beta particles in 2s and in
next 2s it records 0.75 n beta particles. Find mean life (in second) correct to nearest whole
number. Given ln |2| = 0.6931, in ln|3| = 1.0986.
2. A small quantity of solution containing Na24 radionuclide (half life 15 hours) of activity 1.0
micro curie is injected into the blood of a person. A sample of the blood of volume 1 cm 3
taken after 5 hours shows an activity of 296 disintegrations per minute. Determine the total
volume of blood in the body of the person in litres. Assume that the radioactive solution mixes
uniformly in the blood of the person. (1 Curie= 3.7× 1010 disintegrations per second)
3. A rock is 1.5×109 year old. The rock contains 238U which disintegrates to form 206Pb. Assume
that there was no 206Pb in the rock initially and it is the only stable product formed by the
decay. Calculate the ratio of number of nuclei of 238U to that of 206Pb in the rock. Half–life of
238U is 4.5 ×109 years. (21/3 = 1.259)

4. The halflife of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days. At the end of (66/n) days 1/20th of the
radon sample remains un-decayed. Value of n is- (given log10 e = 0.4343).
5. A star initially has 1040 deuterons. It produces energy via the processes- 1H2 + 1H2  1H3 + p
and 1H2 + 1H3  2he4 + n. If the average power radiated by the star is 1016 W, the deuteron
supply of the star is exhausted in a time of the order of 10n s. Value of n is

SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
IITJEE-2008
1. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity 5µCi has twice the number of nuclei as another
sample S2 which has an activity of 10 µCi. The half lives of S1 and S2 can be
(A) 20 years and 5 years, respectively (B) 20 years and 10 years respectively
(C) 10 years each (D) 5 years each

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IITJEE-2009
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT THREE QUESTIONS
Scientists are working hard to develop nuclear fusion reactor. Nuclei of heavy hydrogen, 12 H
Known as deuteron and denoted by D can be thought of as a candidate for fusion reactor. The D-
D reaction is 12 H 12 H 32 He  n  energy . I the core of fusion reactor, a gas of heavy hydrogen is
fully ionized into deuteron nuclei and electrons. This collection of 12 H nuclei and electrons is
known as plasma. The nuclei move randomly in the reactor core and occasionally come close
enough for nuclear fusion to take place. Usually, the temperatures in the reactor core are too
high and no material wall can be used to confine the plasma. Special techniques are used which
confine the plasma for a time t0 before the particles fly away from the core. If n is the density
(number/volume) of deuterons, the product nt0 is called Lawson number. In one of the criteria, a
reactor is termed successful if Lawson number is greater than 5 × 1014 s/cm3.
It may be helpful to use the following : Boltzmann constant k = 8.6 × 10 5 eV/K;
e2
 1.44  109 eVm.
40
2. In the core of nuclear fusion reactor, the gas becomes plasma because of :
(A) strong nuclear force acting between the deuterons
(B) Coulomb force acting between the deuterons
(C) Coulomb force acting between deuteronelectron pairs
(D) the high temperature maintained inside the reactor core
3. Assume that two deuteron nuclei in the core of fusion reactor at temperature T are moving
towards each other, each with kinetic energy 1.5 kT, when the separation between them is
large enough to neglect Coulomb potential energy. Also neglect any interaction from other
particles in the core. The minimum temperature T required for them to reach a separation of
4 × 1015 m is in range
(A) 1.0 × 109 K < T < 2.0 × 109 K (B) 2.0 × 109 K < T < 3.0 × 109 K
(C) 3.0 × 10 K < T < 4.0 × 10 K
9 9 (D) 4.0 × 109 K < T < 5.0 × 109 K

4. Results of calculations for four different designs of a fusion reactor using D-D reaction are
given below. Which of these is most promising based on Lawson criterion ?
(A) deuteron density = 2.0 × 1012 cm3, confinement time = 5.0 × 103 s
(B) deuteron density = 8.0 × 1014 cm3 confinement time = 9.0 × 101 s
(C) deuteron density = 4.0 × 1023 cm3 confinement time = 1.0 × 1011 s
(D) deuteron density = 1.0 × 1024 cm3 confinement time = 4.0 × 1012 s

IITJEE-2010
5. To determine the half life of a radioactive element, a student plots
dN(t) dN (t)
a graph of ln versus t. Here is the rate of radioactive
dt dt
decay at time t. If the number of radioactive nuclei of this element
decreases by a factor of p after 4.16 years, the value of p is
IITJEE-2011
6. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 1010 disintegrations per seconds,
whose mean life is 109s. The mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10-25 kg. The mass (in mg)
of the radioactive sample is

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IITJEE-2012
7. A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with charge Q = 120 e, where e is the
electronic charge. It makes a closest approach of 10 fm to the nucleus. The de Brogle
wavelength (in units of fm) of the proton at its starts is (take the proton mass, m p = (5/3) × 10–
1
27 kg, h/e = 4.2 × 10–15 J.s/C; = 9 × 109 m/F; 1 fm = 10–16 m)
40

PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS

The -decay process, discovered around 1900, is basically the decay of a neutron (n). In the
laboratory, a proton (p) and an electron (e –) are observed as the decay products of the neutron,
therefore, considering the decay of a neutron as a two-body decay process, it was predicted
theoretically that the kinetic energy of the electron should be a constant. But experimentally, it
was observed that the electron kinetic energy has a continuous spectrum. Considering a three-
body decay process, i.e. n  p + e– + e , around 1930, Pauli explained the observed electron
energy spectrum Assuming the anti-neutrino  e  to be massless and possessing negligible
energy, and neutron to be at rest, momentum and energy conservation principles are applied.
From this calculation, the maximum kinetic energy of the electron is 0.8 × 106 eV. The kinetic
energy carried by the proton is only the recoil energy.
8. What is the maximum energy of the anti-neutrino?
(A) Zero (B) Much less than 0.8 × 106 eV
(C) Nearly 0.8 × 10 eV
6 (D) Much larger than 0.8 × 106 eV
9. If the anti-neutrino had a mass of 30 V/c2 (where c is the speed of light) instead of zero mass,
what should be the range of the kinetic energy, K, of the electron?
(A) 0  K  0.8 × 106 eV (B) 3.0 eV  K  0.8 × 106 eV
(C) 3.0 eV  K < 0.8 × 106 eV (D) 0  K < 0.8 × 106 eV
JEE (Adv)-2013
10. A freshly prepared sample of a radioisotope of half-life 1386 s has activity 103 disintegrations
per second. Given that ln 2 = 0.693, the fraction of the initial number of nuclei (expressed in
nearest integer percentage) that will decay in the first 80 s after preparation of the sample is
PARAGRAPH FOR NEXT TWO QUESTIONS
The mass of nucleus AX X is less than the sum of the masses of (A-Z) number of neutrons and Z
number of protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding mass difference is
known as the binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy nucleus of mass M can break into two light
nuclei of mass m1 and m2 only if (m1 + m2) < M. Also two light nuclei of masses m3 and m4 can
undergo complete fusion and form a heavy nucleus of mass M only if (m3 + m4) > M . The
masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below:

11. The correct statement is

(A) The nucleus 63 Li can emit an alpha particle
(B) The nucleus 210
84 Po can emit a proton.
(C) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion.
(D) The nuclei 70 82
30 Zn and 34 Se can undergo complete fusion.

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 84
12. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus 210 Po at rest undergoes
alpha decay, is
(A) 5319 (B) 5422 (C) 5707 (D) 5818
13. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the end
products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
P. Alpha decay 1. 15 15
8 O  7 N  ....
238 234
Q.   decay 2. 92 U  90 Th  ....
185 184
R. Fission 3. 83 Bi  82 Pb  ....
239 140
S. Proton emission 4. 94 Pu  57 La  ...
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 2 1

JEE (Adv)-2015
14. A nuclear power plant supplying electrical power to a village uses a radioactive material of half
life T years as the fuel. The amount of fuel at the beginning is such that the total power
requirement of the village is 12.5% of the electrical power available for the plant at that time.
If the plant is able to meet the total power needs of the village for a maximum period of nT
years, then the value of n is

15. Match the nuclear processes given in column I with the appropriate option(s) in column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) Absorption of thermal neutrons by 235
92 U

(B) Fission in a nuclear reactor (P) 60

27 Co nucleus
(C)   decay (P) Energy production in starts via hydrogen
conversion to helium
(D)   ray emission (P) Heavy water
(T) Neutrino emission
16. For a radioactive material, its activity A and rate of change of its activity R are defined as
dN dA
A and R=- , where N  t  is the number of nuclei at time t. Two radioactive sources P
dt dt
(mean life  f2 ,0  ) and Q (mean life 2) have the same activity at t = 0. Their rates of change of
activities at t  2 are R P and R Q , respectively. If P2 then the value of n is

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 236 140 94
17. A fission reaction is given by 92 U  54 Xe  38 Sr  x  y, where x and y are tow particles.
236
Considering 92 U to be at rest, the kinetic energies of the products are denoted by
Kxe , KSr , K x (2MeV) and K y  2MeV  , Let the binding energies per nucleon of 236
92 U ,
140 94
54 Xe and 38 Sr be 7.5 MeV, 8.5 MeV and 8.5 MeV, respectively. Considering different
conservation laws, the correct option(s) is (are)
(A) x  n, y  n,KSr  129MeV,K Xe  86MeV (B) x  p, y  e ,K Sr  129MeV, K Xe  86MeV
(C) x  p, y  n,KSr  129MeV, K Xe  86MeV (D) x  n, y  n,KSr  86MeV, K Xe  129MeV

JEE (Adv)-2016
18. The isotope 12
5 B having a mass 12.014 u undergoes   decay to
12 12
6 C. 6 C has an excited state
of the nucleus (12 *
6 C )
at 4.041 MeV above its ground state. If 12
5 B decays to 12 *
6 C , the
maximum kinetic energy of the   particle in units of MeV is
(1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2, where c is the speed of light in vacuum).
19. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition of a certain amount of radioactive
material of half-life 18 days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the radiation was 64
times more than the permissible level required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is the
minimum number of days after which the laboratory can be considered safe for use?
(A) 64 (B) 90 (C) 108 (D) 120
20. The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of
3 Z(Z  1)e2
radius R is given by E 
5 40R
The measured masses of the neutron, 11 H, 15
7 N and
15
8 O are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u,
15 15
15.000109 u and 15.003065 u, respectively. Given that the radii of both the 7 N and 8 O

nuclei are same, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2 (c is the speed of light) and e2 /(40 )  1.44 MeV fm.
15
Assuming that the difference between the binding energies of 7 N and 15
8 O is purely due to the
electrostatic energy, the radius of either of the nuclei is
(A) 2.85 fm (B) 3.03 fm (C) 3.42 fm (D) 3.80 fm

JEE (Adv)-2017
21. 131I is an isotope of Iodine that  decay to an isotope of Xenon with a half-life of 8 days. A
small amount of a serum labelled with 131I is injected into the blood of a person. The activity
of the amount of 131I injected was 2.4 105 Becquerel (Bq). It is known that the injected
serum will get distributed uniformly in the blood stream in less than half an hour. After 11.5
hours, 2.5 ml of blood is drawn from the person’s body, and gives an activity of 115 Bq. The
total volume of blood in the person’s body, in litersis approximately (you may use
ex  1  x for x  1 and ln2  0.7)

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JEE (Adv)-2018
232 212
22. In a radioactive decay chain, 90 Th nucleus decays to 82 Pb nucleus. Let N and N be the

number of  and  particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which of the
following statements is (are) true?
(A) N  5 (B) N  6 (C) N  2 (D) N  4

23. In an experiment the initial number of radioactive nuclei is 3000. It is found that 1000±40
nuclei decayed in the first 1.0 𝑠. For |𝑥|≪1, ln(1+𝑥)=𝑥 up to first power in 𝑥. The error Δ𝜆, in
the determination of the decay constant 𝜆, in 𝑠−1, is
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.03 (C) 0.02 (D) 0.01

ANSWER KEY
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
1. A 4. A 7. B 10. B 13. C 16. B 19. D
2. B 5. B 8. A 11. B 14. B 17. B 20. C
3. C 6. A 9. B 12. D 15. A 18. B
SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
1. ABCD 3. ABC 5. AC 7. BC 9. AD
2. ABD 4. CD 6. CD 8. D 10. AD
COMPREHENSION TYPE
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
1. A-Q, B-S, C-P, DR 2. A
INTEGER ANSWER TYPE
1. 7 2. 6 3. 3.86 4. 4 5. 12
SECTION – III
PROBLEMS ASKED IN IITJEE (Adv)
1. A 6. 1 11. C B-P,S; 18. 9 23. D
2. D 7. 7 12. A C-TQ; 19. C
3. A 8. C 13. C D-QRT 20. C
4. B 9. D 14. 3 16. 2 21. 5
5. 8 10. 3 15. A-R, 17. D 22. AC

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