Catholic University

Name: Yainel Romero Calle Level IV Professor MA John Moscoso

I.Write the right definition

Anus Appendix Esophagus Gall bladder Large intestine Stomach

Liver Mouth Pancreas Rectum Small intestine

Rectum the lower part of the large intestine where feces are stored before they are excreted from the
body.
Liver a large organ located above and in front of the stomach. It filters toxins from the blood and makes
bile (which breaks down fats) and some blood proteins.
Appendix a small sack located near the start of the large intestine.
Esophagus the long tube between the mouth and the stomach. It uses rhythmic muscle movements
(called peristalsis) to force food from the throat into the stomach.
Anus the opening at the end of the digestive system from which feces exit the body.
Large intestine the long wide tube that food goes through after it goes through the small intestine.
Pancreas an enzyme producing gland located below the stomach and above the intestines. Enzymes
from the pancreas help in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the small intestine.
Stomach a sack-like, muscular organ that is attached to the esophagus. When food enters the stomach,
it is churned in an acid bath.
Mouth the first part of the digestive system where food enters the body. Chewing and salivary enzymes
in the mouth are the beginning of the digestive process (breaking down the food).
Small Intestine the long thin winding tube that food goes through after it leaves the stomach.
Gall Bladder a small sac like organ located by the duodenum. It stores and releases bile (a digestive
chemical which is produced in the liver) into the small intestine.
II.Read and choose the best answer. Color the best answer with yellow
1.What is the name of excessive loss of lean muscle mass in the elderly?

o A. Xerostomia
o B. Sarcopenia
o C. Edentulism
o D. Atrophic gastritis

2.The loss of muscle can lead to lower total body _______.

o A. Water
o B. Energy
o C. Mass
o D. Calcium

3.Inthe elderly, early satiety and changes in gastric emptying are often
referred to as, ____.

o A. Cholecystokinase
o B. Edentulism
o C. Achlorhydria
o D. Anorexia of the aging
4.Anolder patient states that they have a hard time shopping and preparing
food. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

o A. Their cataracts and macular degeneration

o B. They’ve been diagnosed with diabetes for 15 years
o C. They have lost %60 of their smell
o D. Their complete loss of conductive hearing

5.A 78 y/o client has recently been diagnosed with dehydration. Which
of their following risk factors is, most likely, not attributing to their
dehydration?

o A. Decrease in their lean body mass

o B. Incontinence
o C. Diuretics q12hrs
o D. Fever for two weeks

6.The nutritional requirements of vitamins decrease for the elderly?

o A. True
o B. False

7.Which of the following is not a clinical sign of malnutrition in a 75 y/o,

male patient who weighs 155 pounds?

o A. Serum albumin level lower than 3.5g/100ml

o B. Hemoglobin level below 12 g/dl
o C. Weighs 150 pounds a month later
o D. Hematocrit value below 35 %

8.You are choosing vitamin D-rich foods for your patient, which of the
following would be your least likely choice?

o A. Large egg yolk

o B. Cod liver oil
o C. Cooked salmon
o D. Canned sardines

9.The majority of a person’s calcium is stored in the _________.

o A. Blood
o B. Teeth
o C. Cells
o D. Bone

10.What percentage of the total body calcium is stored in the bone and
teeth?

o A. 15%
o B. 10%
o C. 5%
o D. 1%
11.Which of the following foods has the least amount of calcium in it
(per serving)?

o A. Whole milk
o B. Sardines
o C. Low fat yogurt
o D. Cottage cheese

12.Which of the following substances is required for cellular division

and the maintenance of the myelin sheath?

o A. Vitamin D
o B. Calcium
o C. Vitamin B12
o D. Vitamin B6

13.Which of the following is required as a coenzyme in the metabolism

of protein, fat, and other biochemical reactions?

o A. Vitamin D
o B. Calcium
o C. Vitamin B12
o D. Vitamin B6

14.You
are teaching an older patient about the importance of hydration.
How many cups of water will you recommend for this client?

o A. 7
o B. 8
o C. 9
o D. 10

15.Which
of the following classifications of dysphagia are incorrectly
matched?

o A. Transfer- difficulty moving food from the mouth to the

esophagus
o B. Transport- difficulty moving food down the esophagus
o C. Delivery- difficulty moving food from the stomach into the
intestines.

16.Which of your following patients is at the greatest risk for dysphagia?

o A. 55 male with hemorrhagic retinopathy

o B.67 male with GERD
o C. 75 female with CHF
o D. 66 male with COPD

17.Highdoses of _______ have been showing to delay the progress of

Alzheimer’s disease.

o A. Vitamin B6
o B. Folic acid
 o C. Homocysteine
o D. Vitamin E

18.In the elderly, alcohol abuse is a huge risk factor for ________.

o A. Vitamin deficiency
o B. Muscle weakness
o C. Dysphagia
o D. Chronic pain

19.Which of the following nursing interventions is inappropriate for

clients with swallowing difficulties?

o A. Sitting the patient upright

o B. Encouraging talking while eating
o C. Small portions
o D. Keeping the suction machine near the bedside

20.Your73 y/o depressed patient is suffering from unintentional weight

loss. Which of the following is the least likely cause of their weight
loss?

o A. Cushing’s disease
o B. Recently diagnosed with dementia
o C. Social isolation
o D. Polypharmacy
•

21.If a magnetic resonance image (MRI) correctly identifies 95% of patients as positive for
anterior cruciate ligament tears, then the MRI is:

A.Sensitive
B.Specific
C.Significant
D.Stable

22.A 20 year old male soccer player presents with a Grade II right lateral ankle sprain upon
evaluation. What are the characteristics of a Grade II ankle sprain?
A.Partial tear of the lateral ligament complex with mild joint instability, moderate intra-
capsular swelling and tenderness, and some loss of ROM and joint function
B.Complete rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular ligament, and
capsule with mechanical joint instability; severe intra/extra-capsular swelling, ecchymosis,
tenderness and inability to weight-bear.
C.Stretch of the lateral ligament complex with no macroscopic tear or joint instability, little
swelling or tenderness
D.Partial tear of the syndesmosis, creating generalized swelling and tenderness throughout
the ankle joint complex; inability to bear weight, severe ecchymosis, and mortise widening

23. An 11 year old male presents to the physical therapy clinic with signs of hypertonicity
related to cerebral palsy. The boy has significant shortening of the left sternocleidomastoid
muscle, creating a severe torticollis to the right. This has led to a pressure ulcer forming on
his right ear from contact with the wheelchair headrest. The MOST appropriate course of
action is to:

A.Begin a course of active-assisted range of motion exercises, focusing on the upper

extremities and creating a home program to improve shoulder active range of motion.
B.Inform the patient’s family that the child should not be in a wheelchair to prevent the
formation of any more pressure ulcers and decrease pain associated with torticollis.
C.Inform the primary care provider of the child and request him/her to order an oral
prescription of Baclofen because the child has developed a tolerance for the current
dosage.
D.Begin a course of passive range of motion stretches, focusing on the neck, and instruct
the patient’s family on proper positioning and wheelchair adjustments to decrease the
likelihood of future ulcers.

24. A patient with a stroke affecting the right middle cerebral artery has difficulty walking,
especially over uneven surfaces. Which of the following describes the MOST appropriate
initial treatment to improve the patient’s ability to walk over uneven surfaces?

A.Place a single point cane in the patient’s left hand and train him to use a step-to gait
pattern.
B.Place a single point cane in the patient’s right hand and train him to use a step-to gait
pattern.
C.Fit the patient with a 4-wheeled walker and instruct him to use a 4-point gait pattern.
D.Fit the patient with axillary crutches and instruct him to use a 4-point gait pattern.

25. A physical therapist evaluating a 66 year old female who has a history of severe head
trauma following a motor vehicle accident. The patient has difficulty with rapid alternating
movements while performing neurologic testing. The BEST term to describe this specific
impairment is:

A.Ataxia
B.Dysmetria
C.Dysarthria
D.Dysdiadocokinesia

26. A 79 year old female presents to outpatient rehabilitation services 6 weeks following a
CVA with right hemiplegia. She complains of right shoulder pain working on functional
upper extremity movements and has severe shoulder pain when practicing bed mobility
activities such as rolling and scooting. On examination, it is observed that the humeral
head is inferiorly displaced. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate for her
condition?

A.Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)

B.Functional Electrical Stimulation (FES)
C.Short Wave Diathermy (SWD)
D.Interferential Current (IFC) Stimulation

27. A 30 year old male presents to outpatient rehabilitation with numbness and tingling on
the 4th and 5th fingers of the left hand consistent with nerve entrapment symptoms. Upon
further examination, it is noted that the patient has normal sensation on the dorsum of the
hand on the ulnar side. Where is the MOST likely source of nerve entrapment?

A.Guyon’s Canal
B.Carpal Tunnel
C.Cubital Tunnel
D.1st Rib
28. A 45 year old male presents to the burn unit with partial thickness burns over the entire
right arm, left arm, front of head, and front of chest. Approximately what percentage of his
body is burned?

A.31.5%
B.36%
C.40.5%
D.45%

29. A patient presents to the inpatient rehabilitation unit who has suffered a vertebro-
basilar CVA and has difficulty adducting and depressing his eyes. Which cranial nerve is
the MOST likely cause of this impairment?

A.CN I
B.CN II
C.CN III
D.CN IV

30. A 59 year old male patient is being evaluated for left shoulder pain. The patient reports
that his shoulder pain is closely associated with activity, including stress at work. The
patient reports that at worst, the pain radiates into his neck, and he feels shortness of
breath which subsides with rest. What would the MOST appropriate intervention be?

A.Begin passive range of motion exercises within the pain free range of motion.
B.Postpone treatment and refer the patient to his physician for further evaluation.
C.Apply modalities to the shoulder and instruct the patient on activity modification.
D.Begin the patient with rotator cuff exercises within the pain reduced range of motion and
instruct patient on activity modification.

31. A 35 year old patient with a complete T5 spinal cord injury is working on supine to sit
transfers on the mat table when he suddenly appears flushed and complains of his heart
pounding. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 180/100 and he has a pounding
headache. The most appropriate INITIAL course of action is:

A.Lay the patient supine and notify the patient’s physician.

B.Sit the patient up and notify the patient’s physician.
C.Allow the patient to rest longer between sets of activity.
D.Initiate core strengthening exercises to maintain intraabdominal pressure.

32. A 21 year old female patient presents with neck pain and stiffness that has gradually
worsened over the last two weeks. Upon examination, the patient is noted to have left-
sided pain with left side bending with left rotation and reports pain at the left C5-6
junction. Hypomobility is also noted with right side-gliding of C6. Which of the following
techniques will be most appropriate to decrease pain?

A.Closing technique for the mid-thoracic spine.

B.Closing manipulation in extension for C5-C6
C.Gapping manipulation in flexion for C5-C6.
D.Flexion/opening manipulation for mid-thoracic spine

33. A 22 year old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of knee pain following
a twisting injury while playing soccer 5 days ago. The patient’s knee is swollen
significantly and is unable to jump or run. What special test would be the MOST
appropriate to diagnose the injury?

A.Lachman’s test
B.Posterior drawer test
C.Active Lachman’s test
D.External Rotation Recurvatum Test

34. A geriatric patient with “walking” pneumonia and a history of recent falls is receiving
physical therapy for general strengthening. What part of this person’s treatment be
affected MOST by his lung condition?

A.Decreased stamina/tolerance of activity

B.Inability to participate in endurance type activities
C.Diminished tidal volumes
D.Lower oxygen saturation with moderate activity

35. A patient complains of weakness in the right hip while she is ambulating. Upon
examination, you notice that the patient has a significant drop of the left hip while in
midstance on the right leg. The MOST appropriate treatment for this impairment would be:

A.Standing hip abduction of the left leg.

B.Standing hip abduction of the right leg.
C.Standing flexion of the left leg.
D.Standing flexion of the right leg.

36. A patient presents to the clinic with signs of lethargy and mild dizziness. The patient’s
resting blood pressure is 100/70. Which of the following is MOST likely to cause this
decrease in blood pressure?

A.Lisinopril
B.Prednisone
C.Sertraline
D.Metformin

37. A patient presents to the clinic with right shoulder pain and complains of difficulty
reaching overhead, with pain especially from 60-120 degrees of shoulder flexion. Which
special test would be MOST informative for this set of symptoms?

A.Neer Test
B.Empty Can Test
C.Crossover Test
D.Push Off Test

38. A patient is in the inpatient rehabilitation unit for a total knee replacement. While
reviewing the case, you note that the patient has been diagnosed with an infection of
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and is in an isolation room. What is
the MOST appropriate action to take to prevent contamination?

A.Don gown, mask, gloves, and respirator before entering the room, wash hands after.
B.Limit therapy sessions to less than 15 minutes and limit contact during treatment.
C.Don gloves when in contact with the patient and wash hands after.
D.Wash hands before and after contact with the patient, but do not touch the patient.

39. A 32 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of left shoulder pain. The
patient’s symptoms include pain with reaching and limited motion in all planes. The
patient’s symptoms have been progressively worsening over the last month. What would
be the MOST effective initial treatment?

A.Refer the patient to their primary care provider for intracapsular corticosteroid injections.
B.Begin gentle progressive stretching exercises with the focus on increased active range of
motion.
C.Initiate rotator cuff strengthening exercises, focusing on external rotation.
D.Instruct the patient on Codman pendulum exercises and apply a moist heat pack.

40. While treating a patient for cardiac rehab, a physical therapist relies on the Borg RPE
scale. The Borg rating of perceived exertion scale (RPE) is MOST representative of which
type of data scale?

A.Nominal
B.Ordinal
C.Cardinal
D.Marginal

41. A physical therapist is trying to determine which special test to use for an examination
and is researching the statistical values of each. What is the MOST important statistical
attribute a special test must have to effectively limit Type I errors?

A.Sensitivity
B.Specificity
C.Positive likelihood ratio
D.Negative likelihood ratio

42. A physical therapist is evaluating a 50 year old patient with a generally swollen right
leg. The patient does not report any trauma to the leg and describes the swelling as
increasing gradually over the last 12 months. The swelling is non-pitting, primarily below
the knee. The leg is not red or hot, and the patient indicates that his leg just feels
“heavy.” What is the MOST likely origin of the swelling?

A.Systemic infection
B.Chronic inflammation
C.Congestive heart failure
D.Lymphedema

43. A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with pain that radiates throughout his lower
extremities. The patient has significant foot drop while ambulating and complains of
numbness and tingling extending from the great toe up to the knee along the anterior
leg. What is the MOST likely pathology underlying these symptoms?

A.Sciatic nerve entrapment

B.Deep peroneal nerve inflammation
C.Tibial nerve entrapment
D.L5 nerve root entrapment

44. A patient has right leg pain and displays redness and swelling throughout the foot and
ankle distal to the knee that has developed over the last 3 days. The patient reports no
trauma and complains of a deep ache in the calf musculature. What is the MOST
appropriate initial treatment?

A.Refer to physician to further examination..

B.Elevate the lower extremity and apply an ice modality.
C.Instruct the patient on range of motion exercises and begin a home exercise program.
D.Perform instrument assisted manual soft tissue mobilization to decrease the swelling.

45. A patient with cystic fibrosis is receiving postural drainage and percussion for the
right lung’s middle lobe. What is the MOST appropriate patient position?

A.Supine on a wedge with the left shoulder elevated on pillows with the head lower than the
pelvis.
B.Supine on a wedge with the right shoulder elevated on pillows with the head lower than
the pelvis.
C.Prone with the right shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same plane as the
pelvis.
D.Prone with the left shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same plane as the
pelvis.

46. A patient is being evaluated by a physical therapist for a diabetic ulcer that penetrates
the subcutaneous tissue, extending into the subcutaneous fat and fascia but without any
gangrene or osteomyelitis present. The physical therapist wishes to document the severity
of the ulcer. What is the MOST appropriate objective measure of the wound?

A.Measure the depth and shape of the ulcer and classify it as a Grade 2 ulcer on the Wagner
Ulcer Grade Classification System.
B.Measure the depth and shape of the ulcer and classify it as a Grade 3 ulcer on the Wagner
Ulcer Grade Classification System.
C.Measure the depth and shape of the ulcer and classify it as a Grade 4 ulcer on the Wagner
Ulcer Grade Classification System.
D.Measure the depth and shape of the ulcer and classify it as a Grade 5 ulcer on the Wagner
Ulcer Grade Classification System.

47. A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with ulceration on the lower extremity. The
leg is apparently swollen and red upon examination. Which of the following grouping of
symptoms is MOST consistent with this type of ulceration?

A.Ulceration is on the lateral leg, pulseless, cool, and painful.

B.Ulceration is medial leg, shows permanent blanching, and is painless.
C.Ulceration is upon bony prominences, shows non-blanchable redness at the perimeter of
the wound, and has a pink appearance.
D.Ulceration is upon the bony prominence, began as a small scrape or blister several
months ago, with a concomitant diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy.

48. A physical therapist is performing a treadmill exercise stress test using the Bruce
protocol. During stage 3 of the test, the P wave increases in height and the S-T segment
begins to become significantly upsloping. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

A.Stop the test and refer patient to a physician.

B.Lower the stage back to stage 2 and monitor for improved electrocardiographic
indicators.
C.Continue with the test without any modification, monitoring for symptoms of cardiac
distress.
D.Discontinue the test, and monitor the patient’s vital signs for 10 minutes.

49. A patient is receiving cardiac rehab and has a heart rate of 110 during moderate
intensity exercise. The patient reports a 16 on the Borg RPE scale. Which class of heart
medications is MOST likely present?

A.Beta Blockers
B.Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors
C.Calcium Channel Blockers
D.Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers

50. A 12 year old male athlete is being evaluated by a physical therapist. The patient
reports pain with running and has a sharp pain over the patellar tendon, particularly on the
tibial tubercle. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

A.Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease
B.Chondromalacia patellae
C.Osgood-Schlatter disease
D.Pes anserine bursitis

51. A patient is recovering from a broken tibia and has just been instructed to discontinue
use of a walking boot. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation and complains of
pain and instability in the ankle while ambulating. Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate treatment?
A.Begin a single leg standing program and advance to eccentric calf strengthening as
tolerated.
B.Begin with open-chain exercises and progress to closed-chain strengthening of the ankle
as tolerated.
C.Begin with closed-chain exercises and progress to open-chain strengthening of the ankle
as tolerated.
D.Begin a strengthening program involving primarily ankle evertors, progressing as
tolerated.

52. A patient reports pain around the anterior aspect of the calcaneus extending toward
the 2nd metatarsal head. The patient has the most pain when first standing up after waking
which gradually lessens throughout the day. The patient has recently begun a walking
program. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

A.Medial deviation of the 1st metatarsal

B.Metatarsalgia
C.Tarsal tunnel syndrome
D.Plantar fasciitis

53. A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with back pain. The patient reports having
pain that has increased steadily over the last 2 months and is constant and
unremitting. The pain radiates into both lower extremities. The patient also feels marked
weakness throughout the right lower extremity. What is the MOST appropriate initial
treatment?

A.Discontinue treatment and refer patient to primary care physician for further testing.
B.Begin a program of core strengthening, focusing on transversus abdominis training and
progressing toward a long term stabilization program.
C.Instruct the patient in appropriate lower extremity exercises to improve leg strength,
focusing on the right leg.
D.Initiate piriformis stretching as tolerated and instruct the patient in self mobilization
techniques to improve mobility throughout the lumbar spine.

54. After working for several hours as a mechanic, a patient describes sharp elbow pain
over the origin point of the common extensor tendon of the wrist extensors. The pain is
alleviated with rest. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

A.Medial epicondylitis
B.Lateral epicondylitis
C.Anconeus tendonitis
D.Olecranon bursitis

55. A patient presents with rheumatoid arthritis and finger pain. The 2nd digit has a flexed
metacarpophalangeal joint, hyperextended proximal interphalangeal joint, and a flexed
distal interphalangeal joint. Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the
position?

A.Swan neck deformity

B.Boutonniere deformity
C.Mallet finger deformity
D.De Quervain síndrome

56. A physical therapist examines a patient and determines that the patient has a positive
Active Compression test (O’Brien’s Test). Which of the following pathologies is MOST
implicated?

A.Rotator cuff tear

B.Biceps tendonitis
C.Superior labral tear
D.Acromioclavicular joint sprain

57. While examining a patient’s lumbar x-ray films, a physical therapist notices that the L5
vertebra is displaced anteriorly on sacrum by approximately 50% of the vertebral
body. How will this MOST affect physical therapy if the patient is being treated for low back
pain?

A.Emphasize core strengthening, especially in spine neutral

B.Begin progressive gluteal and quad strengthening to assist the lumbopelvic fascia
C.Avoid extension activities, especially in standing
D.Add progressive external oblique training as tolerated to assist proper spinal alignment

58. A physical therapist is treating a patient with cervical pain. The patient reports that the
pain occurs with most movements and feels “stiff” with active range of motion. What is the
MOST appropriate course of action?

A.Refer to primary care physician for further testing.

B.Initiate thoracic spine thrust manipulation.
C.Instruct the patient on cervical spine stabilization exercises and issue a home exercise
program.
D.Initiate an upper extremity exercise routine to improve scapular and cervical range of
motion and progress as tolerated.

59. A patient has just undergone a total hip replacement via a posterior surgical
approach. Which of the following combinations of movements of the hip are MOST
important to avoid?

A.Extension, medial rotation, and abduction.

B.Extension, external rotation, and adduction.
C.Flexion, medial rotation, and adduction.
D.Flexion, external rotation, and abduction

60. A patient who has suffered a cutting injury to the entire left half of the spinal cord at
the T8 level is being examined by a physical therapist. Which of the following impairments
would be MOST apparent on the ipsilateral lower extremity?

A.Loss of pain and temperature sensation

B.Loss of movement and light touch sensation
C.Loss of peripheral smooth muscle control
D.Loss of coordination and accuracy.

61.Forensic odontology concentrates on which body part?

a.skull
b.torso
c.feet
d.teeth

62.Forensic dentistry involves the study of teeth with the intention of providing
facts to be used as evidence in court. What is another name for this field of study?
a.Forensic Entomology
b.Forensic Anthropology
c.Forensic Odontology
63.How many teeth does a normal adult human have?
a.20
b.40
c.32
d.26

64.When skeletons are found, the teeth are an important source of information. In
such cases, which of the following statements is accurate?
a.Teeth can indicate a person's age
b.Teeth can indicate a person's ethnic background.
c.Teeth can indicate a person's occupation.
d.All three statements are true.

65.Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken down
or destroyed. Which component of the teeth is the hardest substance in the human
body?
a.dentine
b.enamel
c.cementum
d.plaque

66.When you are investigating a death, you should ask Who, What, Where, When,
Why, and How?
a.True
b.False

67.Your "two front teeth" are called

a.canines
b.central incisors
c.ateral incisors
d.cuspids

68.Besides the use of forensic odontology for identification of a victim/person,

which of the following is not one of the four methods used for identification?
a.identification by fingerprint comparison
b.identification by analysis and comparison of DNA samples
c.identification by anthropological analysis
d.identification through retinal scan

69.How many teeth does a child have with a full set of teeth?
a.32
b.20
c.25
d.30

70.Forensic odontologists can easily distinguish between siblings and even

between identical twins.
a.True
b.False

71.Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken down
or destroyed. Which component of the teeth is the hardest substance in the human
body?
a.dentine
b.enamel
c.cementum
d.plaque

72.The teeth that are shown focused on are called

a.canines
b.incisors
c.premolars
d.cuspids

73.The teeth that are shown focused on are called

a.canines
b.incisors
c.premolars
d.molars

74.The center of the tooth, where nerves, tissues, and blood can be found, is called
the
a.Cementum
b.Root
c.Pulp
d.Crown
75.The exposed top half of the tooth,with a hard mineral covering to protect the
tooth, is called the -
a.Cementum
b.Root
c.Pulp
d.Crown

76.The covered bottom half of the tooth, which is cemented into the
mandible(jawbone), is called the -
a.Cementum
b.Root
c.Pulp
d.Crown

77.Details in a bitemark can be hard to read, however the more ____________

applied to a bite, then the more defined the bite mark may be.
a.time
b.pressure
c.bacteria
d.saliva

78.The first step in recording a bitemark involves this step, which uses a scale for
reference
a.Photo
b.Model Cast
c.Impression
d.Transparency

79.Identification using dental remains can be significant because teeth can survive
through _________, while other vital organs, tissues, and fluids in the body may not.
a.extreme temperatures
b.acid treatment
c.decomposition
d.all 3 answer choices
III.Label the digestive system diagram

1. Mouth 7. Small Intestine

2. Esophagus 8. Large intestine
3. Liver 9. Rectum
4. Stomach 10. Appendix
5. Pancreas 11. Anus
6. Gall Bladder

The human gastrointestinal tract, or GI tract, or GIT is an organ system responsible for consuming and
digesting foodstuffs, absorbing nutrients, and expelling waste. The tract consists of the stomach and
intestines, and is divided into the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts. However, by the broadest
definition, the GI tract includes all structures between the mouth and the anus. On the other hand,
the digestive system is a broader term that includes other structures, including the digestive organs and
their accessories. The tract may also be divided into foregut, midgut, and hindgut, reflecting the
embryological origin of each segment.The whole digestive tract is about nine metres (30 feet) long. The GI
tract releases hormones from enzymes to help regulate the digestive process. These hormones,
including gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, and ghrelin, are mediated through
either intracrine or autocrine mechanisms, indicating that the cells releasing these hormones are
conserved structures throughout evolution. The structure and function can be described both as gross
anatomy and as microscopic anatomy or histology. The tract itself is divided into upper and lower tracts,
and the intestines small and large parts.
Upper & Lower human gastrointestinal tract
The upper gastrointestinal tract consists of the buccal cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and
duodenum. The exact demarcation between the upper and lower tracts is the suspensory ligament of the
duodenum (also known as the Ligament of Treitz). This delineates the embryonic borders between the
foregut and midgut, and is also the division commonly used by clinicians to describe gastrointestinal
bleeding as being of "upper" or "lower" origin. Upon dissection, the duodenum may appear to be a unified
organ, but it is divided into four segments based upon function, location, and internal anatomy. The four
segments of the duodenum are as follows (starting at the stomach, and moving toward the jejunum): bulb,
descending, horizontal, and ascending. The suspensory ligament attaches the superior border of the
ascending duodenum to the diaphragm. The suspensory muscle of duodenum is an important anatomical
landmark which shows the formal division between the duodenum and the jejunum, the first and second
parts of the small intestine, respectively.[8] This is a thin muscle which is derived from
the embryonic mesoderm.
Lower gastrointestinal tract
The lower gastrointestinal tract includes most of the small intestine and all of the large
intestine.[9] In human anatomy, the intestine (bowel, or gut) is the segment of the gastrointestinal tract
extending from the pyloric sphincter of the stomach to the anus and, in humans and other mammals,
consists of two segments, the small intestine and the large intestine.
Small intestine
In humans, the small intestine is further subdivided into the duodenum, jejunum and ileum while the large
intestine is subdivided into the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal. The small intestine begins at
the duodenum, which receives food from the stomach. It is a tubular structure, usually between 6 and 7
m long. The area of the human, adult small intestinal mucosa is about 30 m2. Its main function is to
absorb the products of digestion (including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and vitamins) into the
bloodstream. It has three major divisions:

*Duodenum: A short structure (about 20–25 cm long [12]) which receives gastric chyme from the stomach,
together with digestive juices from the pancreas (digestive enzymes) and the gall bladder (bile). The
digestive enzymes break down proteins and bile and emulsify fats into micelles. The
duodenum contains Brunner's glands, which produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion
containing bicarbonate. These secretions, in combination with bicarbonate from the pancreas, neutralizes
the stomach acids contained in gastric chyme.
*Jejunum: This is the midsection of the small intestine, connecting the duodenum to the ileum. It is about
2.5 m long, and contains the plicae circulares, and villi that increase its surface area. Products of digestion
(sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids) are absorbed into the bloodstream here.
*Ileum: The final section of the small intestine. It is about 3 m long, and contains villi similar to the
jejunum. It absorbs mainly vitamin B12 and bile acids, as well as any other remaining nutrients.

Large intestine
The large intestine consists of the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal. It also includes the vermiform
appendix, which is attached to the cecum. The colon is further divided into:
*Vermiform appendix and cecum (first portion of the colon)
*Ascending colon (ascending in the back wall of the abdomen)
*Right colic flexure (flexed portion of the ascending and transverse colon apparent to the liver)
*Transverse colon (passing below the diaphragm)
*Left colic flexure (flexed portion of the transverse and descending colon apparent to the spleen
* Descending colon (descending down the left side of the abdomen)
*Sigmoid flexure
*Rectum
*Anus
The main function of the large intestine is to absorb water. The area of the large intestinal mucosa of an
adult human is about 2 m2.

IV. Read the paragragh above & answer the questions

1.How long is the gastrointestinal tract? Is about nine meters (30 feet) long
2.How may the tract be divided? It is divided into the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts
3.What does the GI tract always release? Why? Releases hormones from enzymes to help regulate the
digestive process
4.Which are these hormone? What are their functions? These hormones, including gastrin, secretin,
cholecystokinin, and ghrelin, are mediated through either intracrine or autocrine mechanisms. They help
regulate the digestive process
5.What does the upper gastrointestinal tract consist of? What is the exact demarcation between the
upper and lower tracts? The upper gastrointestinal tract consists of the buccal cavity, pharynx,
esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. The exact demarcation between the upper and lower tracts is the
suspensory ligament of the duodenum (also known as the Ligament of Treitz).
6.May the duodenum an unified organ? Why? Why not? Upon dissection, the duodenum may appear to
be a unified organ, but it is divided into four segments based upon function, location, and internal
anatomy.
7.What do the digestive enzymes do? What does Duodenum contain? The digestive enzymes break down
proteins and bile and emulsify fats into micelles. The duodenum contains Brunner's glands, which
produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion containing bicarbonate.
8.What is Jejunum? What does it contain? Is the midsection of the small intestine, connecting the
duodenum to the ileum. It is about 2.5 m long, and contains the plicae circulares, and villi that increase
its surface area
9.How is the colon further divided? The colon is further divided into: Vermiform appendix and cecum,
ascending colon, right colic flexure, transverse colon, left colic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid flexure,
rectum and anus
10. How long is ileum? What does it contain? What is its main function? It’s about 3 m long, and
contains villi similar to the jejunum. It absorbs mainly vitamin B12 and bile acids, as well as any other
remaining nutrients.

V. Choose the best answer

1.A long tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach.
A. trachea B. esophagus C. urethra
2.This contains tiny glands that produce juices to digest food, found in the mouth, stomach
and small intestine.
A. villi B. mucosa C. anus
3.This part of the digestive system removes solid wastes such as feces from the body.
A. large intestine B. small intestine C. esophagus
4.This organ stores swallowed food and liquid, mixes up digestive juices with the food and
liquid and sends it to the small intestine.
A. small intestine B. large intestine C. stomach
5.An organ that produces a bodily juice called bile.
A. liver B. pancreas C. gallbladder
6.Tiny fingerlike projections in the small intestine.
A. villi B. anus C. rectum
7.This organ produces a digestive juice that contains a wide array of enzymes to break down
fat, carbohydrate and protein in food.
A. pancreas B. liver C. large intestine
8.Stores the liver's digestive juices until they are needed by the intestines.
A. pancreas B. gall bladder C. villi

9.This is the job of the digestive system.

A. to give the body shape B. to take in and break down food for use by the body C. to
take in oxygen and give off carbon dioxide
10.The opening at the end of the digestive tract in which solid wastes are eliminated.
A. anus B. mucosa C. liver

VI. Digestive system quiz

1.Stores the liver's digestive juices until they are needed by the intestines.
A. pancreas

B. gall bladder

C. villi

2.The opening at the end of the digestive tract in which solid wastes are eliminated.
A. anus
 B. mucosa

C. liver

3.This organ stores swallowed food and liquid, mixes up digestive juices with the
food and liquid and sends it to the small intestine.
A. small intestine

B. large intestine

C. stomach

4.This is the job of the digestive system.

A. to give the body shape

B. to take in and break down food for use by the body

C. to take in oxygen and give off carbon dioxide

5.An organ that produces a bodily juice called bile.

A. liver

B. pancreas

C. gallbladder

6.Tiny fingerlike projections in the small intestine.

A. villi

B. anus

C. rectum

7.This organ produces a digestive juice that contains a wide array of enzymes to
break down fat, carbohydrate and protein in food.
A. pancreas

B. liver

C. large intestine

8.This part of the digestive system removes solid wastes such as feces from the
body.
A. large intestine

B. small intestine

C. esophagus

9.This contains tiny glands that produce juices to digest food, found in the mouth,
stomach and small intestine.
A. villi

B. mucosa

C. anus

10.A long tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach.
A. trachea

B. esophagus

C. urethra

11.The place where digested molecules of food, water and minerals are absorbed.
 A. small intestine

B. large intesine

C. mouth

12.Composed of the teeth, tongue, salivary glands and muscles, this part takes in
food to begin the process of digestion.
A. mouth

B. anus

C. esophagus

13.The final portion of the large intestine.

A. esophagus

B. rectum

C. gallbladder

14.Lipids are also known as:

A) carbohydrates B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) fats
15.The enzyme found in saliva that breaks down starch is called:
A) amylase B) pepsin C) trypsin D) lipase
16.Which one of the following is NOT a salivary gland in the human?
A) parotid B) suborbital C) submaxillary D) sublingual
17.A cat is a carnivore and has large, piercing ___________. In addition, the molars and
premolars are quite ____________.
A) incisors, flat B) incisors, sharp C) canines, flat D) canines, sharp
18.The small intestine uses _________ to absorb nutrients.
A) villi B) rugae C) papillae D) none of the above
19.The taste buds are located along the sides of the __________ on the tongue.
A) villi B) rugae C) papillae D) none of the above
20.The small intestine has 3 regions. The first region is called the:
A) duodenum B) ileum C) jejunum D) colon
21.Feces is stored in the _____ until it is released from the body.
A) anus B) rectum C) ileum D) duodenum
22.The ______ connects the pharynx to the stomach.
A) esophagus B) nasal cavity C) ileum D) sigmoid colon
23.Bile is produced in the ________ and stored in the ___________.
A) stomach; liver B) intestine; stomach C) liver; gall bladder D) gall bladder;
colon
24.When proteins are broken down by enzymes, the products are:
A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) fatty acids D) nucleic acids
25.One major function of the large intestine is to:
A) absorb water B) break down starch C) produce bile D) produce insulin
26.The pyloric sphincter controls movement of food from the _____ to the _____.
A) small intestine; large intestine B) large intestine; rectum
C) stomach; small intestine D) pancreas; liver
27.The least important human digestive organ from this list is the:
A) duodenum B) esophagus C) pancreas D) appendix
28.The innermost lining of the esophagus or stomach is called the:
A) mucosa B) submucosa C) muscularis D) tunica intima
29.The layer of the esophagus most distal to the lumen is the:
A) mucosa B) submucosa C) muscularis D) tunica intima
30.The muscular contractions that occur all along the digestive tract and which move food
along are called:
A) elimination B) peristalsis C) hypertension D) swallowing
31.Which specific layer is found in the stomach but not in the esophagus or intestine:
A) mucosa B) submucosa C) circular muscle D) oblique muscle
32.Unlike glucose and amino acids, fats entering the villus move into the:
A) lacteal B) arteriole C) venule D) capillary
33.Which one of the following is not a normal component of gastric juice?
A) renin B) pepsinogen C) hydrochloric acid D) secretin
34.The purpose of HCl in the stomach is to convert:
 A) pepsinogen to pepsin B) trypsin to trypsinogen C) trypsinogen to trypsin D) lipase
to lipids
35.Trypsin is released by the _________ and acts in the ____________ to break down
_____________.
A) stomach; duodenum; carbohydrates B) liver; stomach; carbohydrates
C) pancreas; duodenum; proteins D) gall bladder; liver; proteins
36.Secretin is released by the ___________ in response to ___________. It travels to the
_________ to stimulate release of _________.
A) gall bladder; fat; duodenum; lipase B) stomach; bicarbonate; liver; bile
C) pancreas; protein; duodenum; pepsin D) duodenum; acid; pancreas; bicarbonate
37.CCK is released by the _______ in response to __________. It travels to the ________ to
stimulate release of _________.
A) gall bladder; fat; duodenum; lipase B) stomach; bicarbonate; liver; bile
C) pancreas; protein; duodenum; pepsin D) duodenum; fat; gall bladder; bile
38.When blood glucose drops, the __________ releases _________ which travels to the
_________ causing __________ breakdown to release glucose into the bloodstream.
A) pancreas; insulin; muscles; protein B) pancreas; glucagon; liver; glycogen
C) liver; insulin; pancreas; glycogen D) liver; glucagon; pancreas; lipid