SCORE IAS Prelims - 2022 PTS2022/AIOMT/012022/04 ANSWER BOOKLET ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I Q Q Q@ Q Q. Q. Q Q. Q Q Q Q. Q Q. Qa Qa a Q Q. Q: Qe Qe Q Q Qa Noo eee Pee eee ee RSRERR OS 18 Answer Key (c) Q? (a) (©) Q. 76 © Qa (©) (©) Q.77 ) Q @ f@) Q.78 (a) Q? (a) (c) Q.79 @ Qs © @ Q.80 (b) a. () (a) Qs © Q3 @ (©) Q. 82 @ Q. @ @ Q.83 @) Qs © ) Q.84 (a) Q. 35 (b) () Q. 85 © Q. 36 (a) «© Q. 86 ) Q.37 @) f@) Q.87 ) Q.38 (a) @) Q.88 fa) Q39 b) @ Q.89 © Q40 () Q.90 (a) Q.41 (b) (a) Qo ) a2 @ @ Q.92 (a) Q43 (ce) (a) Q. 93 @ au @ () Qo4 (©) Q45 (b) (by Q. 95 (b) 2.46 fa) fa) Q.96 @) Q47 ) Q97 (a) Q48 @ Q.98 (a) Q.49 (©) () Q.99 ©) Q.50 (dd) (c) Q. 100 © fa) © © (da) ) (a) (d) ©) (a) ) (b) (a) b) © (d) f@) © fa) © (b) fa) (d) (a) @) PTS2022/ALOMT/012022/04Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect: Rana Pratap Sagar or Rawatbhata is one of the major river projects built across the Chambal River. Supplementary notes: Chambal River System + The Chambal River originates from the Singar Chouri peak on the northern slopes of the Vidhyan escarpment near Mhow-south-west of Indore in Malwa Plateau and flows towards the north in a gorge upto the city of Kota. + Below Kota, it turns ta the north-east, and after passing Bundi, Sawai-Madhopur and Dholpwr, it finally joins the Yamuna about 40 km to the west of Etawah. © The Banas River, rising from the Aravalli Range is its main left bank tributary © Kali Sind, Shipra and Parbati originating from the Malwa Plateau are the right bank tributaries of Chambal. + The Chambal River is famous for its extensive ravines which it has earved all along in the Lower Chambal Valley. + The ravines of the Chambal Basin are attributed to a slight uplift during the yecent geological times, and they merge into the Yamuna alluvial plain where the landscape is extensively etched out by other tributaries of the Yamuna to the east and west of Chambal. + Various multipuzpose projects have been constructed across the river. + The main dams across the Chambal River are Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar (Rawatbhata) and Jawahar Sagar. © The proposed Parbati-Kalisindh-Chambal Iinkis one of the big projects being planned in the Chambal basin. @ Amongst the tributaries of Chambal River, Parbati, Newaj (a tributary of Kalisindh) and Kalisindh rivers have sizeable surpluses after meeting the existing and projected requirements for irrigation, domestic & industrial purposes within the basins upto 2050 AD, ©. Itis, therefore, proposed to divert the surplus waters of Parbati, PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 2. Newaj and Kalisindh rivers to Chambal River at Gandhisagar / Rana Pratap Sagar. Correct Option: (¢) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: The provinces were administered by Lieutenant Governors and Chief Commissioners who ‘were appointed by the Governor-General. plementary note: Provincial Administration during British Rule + The British had divided India for administrativeconvenienceintoprovinees, three of which-Bengal, Madras and Bombay-were known as Presideneies. + The Presidencies were administered by a Governor and his Executive Council of three, who were appointed by the Crown, © The Presidency Governments possessed. more rights and powers than governments of other provinces which were administered by Lieutenant Governors and Chief Commissioners appointed by the Governor-General + The provincial governments enjoyed a great deal of autonomy before 1833 when ‘their power to pass laws was taken away and their expenditure subjected to strict central control, + The Act of 1861 marked the turning of the tide of centralization. It laid down that legislative councils similar to that of the, centre should be established first in Bombay, Madras and Bengal and then in other provinces, Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Option (b) is correct Supplementary notes: Towns and Cities during Vedic age + Towns and cities dominated by Kings and merchants but at the same time containing a heterogeneous population were the new kinds of settlement which came into existence during this period. © They are variously referred to as Pura, Nigma and Nagara. Differences among these settlements are not clear. They probably referred to the (ESISCOREsize as well as varying features of the settlements, «These towns and cities were substantially larger than the villages. Contemporary literature refers to big cities like Ayodhya and Varanasi covering anywhere between, thirty to fifty square kilometres of area, + These accounts are exaggerated as the excavations condueted in these cities show modest settlements in this period. + In no period did the size exceed five square kilometres in circuit. However, this historic phase is associated with settlements using a deluxe pottery called the Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW), + The settlements witnessed an increase in trade and population. Massive fortifications have been found around the cities of Kansambi, Ujjaini, Rajghat (Varanasi) and Rajgir. © What is clear from the references in literature is the fact that the cities had emerged as the focus of power and control over the Mahajanapada. The Kings ruled from their cities. 4. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 3 correct: James ‘bb Space Telescope is planned to succeed the Hubble Space Telescope as NASA’s flagship astrophysies mission. Supplementary notes: Space Telescopes by NASA + Hubble is the only telescope designed to de maintained in space by astronauts. Five Space Shuttle missions have repaired, upgraded, and replaced systems on the telescope, including all five of the main instruments. The fifth mission was initially canceled on safety grounds following the Columbia disaster (2003), but NASA administrator Michael D. Griffin approved the fifth servicing mission which was completed in 2009. The telescope completed 30 years in operation in April 2020 and could last until 2030-2040, One successor to the Hubble telescope is the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), which is to be launched in December 2021 + The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is a space telescope being jointly developed by NASA, the European [ESISCORE o Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA). It is planned to sueceed the Hubble Space Telescope as NASA’s flagship astrophysics mission. JWST was scheduled to be launched no earlier than 25 December 2021 during Ariane flight VA256. It will provide improved infrared resolution and sensitivity over Hubble and will enable a broad range of investigations across the fields of astronomy and cosmology, including observing some of the most distant events and objects in the universe, such as the formation of the first galaxies, and detailed atmospheriecharacterization of potentially habitable exoplanets. James Webb Space Telescope has been launched at 7:20 am. on 25 December 2021 on an Ariane 5 rocket from Europe's Spaceport. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: Allstatements are correct ‘Supplementary notes: ‘Taxation An ad valorem tax is a tax whose amount is based on the value of a transaction or of property. In India, VAT on petroleum fuels is levied on an Ad Valorem Basis. For eg. It is currently 16.75% of fuel price in Delhi, Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate. Cessiis imposed by the central government and is a tax on tax and is levied for a specific purpose. It is levied until the government gets enough money for that purpose. Surcharge is also a tax on tax. The objective of imposing of levying surcharge is to put a high tax burden on rich persons who can bear or have the capacity to pay high tax. Like Cess. the central government is not required to share the revenue from the surcharge with state governments. However, Cess and Surcharge differ in the sense that the usage of the fund created out of cess is restricted to specific purposes only. For example, Education cess collected can be utilized only for financing education and not for any other purpose, PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect; It was Indian Couneil Act of 1861 which starts the beginning of representative institutions. Supplementary notes: Making of Indian Constitution + The Act of 1861 was important in the constitutional history because it enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation ‘And by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras which ultimately culminated in grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinees in the 1937, + However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information, Their scope was fixed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confidence, Further, there was no statutory / specific provision for the nomination of Indians. + This nomination power of the Viceroy could be used only to placate the princes who could help the British to keep their stronghold. Further, the ordinance making power of the Governor General allowed him to make laws it his own whim, In summary, the Indian Councils Act 1861 failed to satisfy the aspirations of the people of India. + Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join viceroy executive council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909. © Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the first time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets. Correct Option: (¢) Explanation: + 0 is correct Supplementary notes: Four Types of Ecosystem Services + The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA), a major UN-sponsored effort to analyze the impact of human actions on ecosystems and human well-being, identified four major categories of ecosystem — services: provisioning, PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 regulating, cultural and supporting Provisioning Services + When people are asked to identify a service provided by nature, most think of food. Fruits, vegetables, trees, fish, and livestock are available to us as direct products of ecosystems, A provisioning service is any type of benefit to people that. ean be extracted from nature, Along with food, other types of provisioning services include drinking water, timber, wood fuel, natural gas, oils, plants that ean be made into clothes and other materials, and medicinal benefits. Regulating Services © Ecosystems provide many of the basic services that make life possible for people. Plants clean air and filter water, bacteria decompose wastes. bees pollinate flowers, and tree roots hold soil in place to prevent erosion. All these processes work together to make ecosystems clean, sustainable, functional, and resilient to change. A regulating service is the benefit provided by ecosystem processes that moderate natural phenomena. Regulating services include pollination, decomposition, water purification, erosion and flood control, and. carbon storage and climate regulation, Cultural Services + As we interact and alter nature, the natural world has in turn altered us. It has guided our cultural, intellectual, and social development by being a constant force present in our lives. The importance of ecosystems to the human mind can be traced back to the beginning of mankind with ancienteivilizationsdrawingpictures of animals, plants, and weather patterns on eave walls, A cultural service is a non- material benefit that contributes to the development and cultural advancement of people, including how ecosystems play a role in local, national, and global cultures; the building of knowledge and the spreading of ideas; creativity born from interactions with nature (musie, art, architecture): and recreation. Supporting Services © The natural world provides so many services, sometimes we overlook the most fundamental. Eeosystems ‘themselves couldn't be sustained without the consistency of underlying natural processes, such as _ photosynthesis. nutrient eyeling, the creation of soils, and. (ESISCOREthe water eyele. These processes allow the Earth to sustain basic life forms, let alone whole ecosystems and people. Without supporting services, provisional, regulating, and cultural services wouldn't | 9 exist. 7 8. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Option (a) is correct Ukraine + Ukraine has become the new pivot of the US-Russia tension amid talks of US adding Ukraine to its NATO grouping. + Ukraine is the second-largest European, countzy, after Russia, Its capital Kiev is located on the Dnieper River in north- central Ukraine. + Geographically it is _ bordered by Belarus to the north, Russia to the east, the Sea of Azov and the Black Sea to the south, Moldova and Romania to the southwest, and Hungary, Slovakia, and Poland to the west. + In the far southeast, Ukraine is separated from Russia by the Kereh Strait, which connects the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea, + The landscape of Ukraine consists mostly of steppes and plateaus, * It is crossed by rivers such as the Dnieper, Seversky Donets, Dniester and the Southern Bug which flow south into the Black Sea and the smaller Sea of Azov. « The country’s only mountains are the Carpathian Mountains in the west | 10. and the Crimean Mountains on Crimea peninsula. Mount Roman-Kosh is the Crimean Mountains’ highest point. + The snow melt from the mountains feeds the rivers, and natural changes in altitude form sudden drops in elevation and give rise to waterfalls. «The podzolized soils oceupy about one- fifth of the country’s area, mostly in the north and northwest + The chernozems of central Ukraine, among the most fertile soils in the world, cecupy about two-thirds of the country’s area, [ESISCORE o * The smallest proportion of the soil cover consists of the chestnut soils of the southern and eastern regions Correct Option: (a) Explanation: * Statement 3 is incorrect; It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level. Supplementary notes: Wood's Dispatch © In1854, Charles Wood prepareda dispatch on an educational system for India and is considered the “Magna Carta of English Edueation in India”, + It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’ © It systematized the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. + It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level. + It Jaid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers’ training. + It Iaid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular. + Itrecommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect; The opening dedication (Namokar Mantra) and other lines confirm that Jainism was well established in Kalinga, and that this is a Jaina inseription. Supplementary notes: Hathigumpha inscription © The Hathigumpha Inseription isa seventeen-line —Prakrit inscription in Brahmi seript in a_cave called Hathigumpha near Bhubaneswar, Odisha, PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/0411. © It was inseribed by the Jain emperor Kharavela of Kalinga kingdom during the 2nd and Ist centuries BCE * The Hathigumpha Inscription contains a biographical narrative of a ruler from ancient India’s eastern area, among other things (now part of and near Odisha). + It also contains religions ideals, public infrastructure projects, military expeditions and their objectives, as well as socio-cultural data, + Theopeningdedication (NamokarMantra) and other lines confirm that Jainism was well established in Kalinga, and that this isa Jaina inseription © Kharavela’s Hathigumpha inscription Giterally “Elephant Cave” inscription) is located near Udayagiri, around 5 kilometres(3.1 miles)westofBhubaneswar international airport. © Many old rock-cut caves, such as the Rani Gumpha, may be found in the ‘Udayagiri hills, On the southern flank of the Udayagiri hills, to the west of, Rani Gumpha, lies a cavern known as Hathigumpha. Correct Option: (e) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect; Igla-S- MANPADS is a short-range missile system that can be carried and fired from the shoulder or ean be mounted on a small vehicle. Supplementary notes: 9K338 Igla-S man-portable air defense system (Igla-S-MANPADS) © TheIgla-S MANPADSisa new-generation system with a new performance capability for this weapon type — high kill probability of such small-size targets as cruise missiles and unmanned aerial vehicles. Major features of Igla-S MANPADS + Considerably improved effectiveness of air target destruction and warhead lethality resulting from: «Increased weight of explosive (1.5-fold as compared with Igla missile); © intwoduetion of a proximity fuze in addition to the existing impact fuze and PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 optimization of their co-operation for target engagement: ¢ Sustainer’s detonable propellant; © Improved missile accuracy to hit vulnerable aircraft locations © Target range to 6.0km vs, 5.2km of Igla missile due to improved missile aerodynamics and a proportional actuator + Night-fire capability with a night sight; Easy installation on various carriers The 98846 Strelets set of control equipment and launch modules provides for: * Development of mobile short-range air defense systems: © Fitting of SAMs to air-defense artillery mounts; + Development of _heliborne guided weapon systems: © Development of light ship-borne SAM. systems. air-to-air ‘The Igla-S system is a new member of the Igla MANPADS family exceeding its predecessors in effectiveness, reliability, survivability while retaining their best features: © Single-operator shoulder firing: © Fire-and-forget mode of operation; © High counter-countermeasure (CCM) capability in heavy (background) clutter and countermeasure environment: © Simple aiming and launeh procedures + High operational reliability © Low-signature combat employment; + Ability to remain operational under extreme operational conditions Purpose + Round-the-clock close air protection of armed forees subunits, military, and civilian assets from attacks by tactical aircraft (fighters, assault aircraft, fighter- bombers), fire-support combat helicopters as well as neutralization of cruise missiles and unmanned aerial vehicles in head-on and tail-chase engagements against clutter background and in countermeasure environment when they are visually observed. (ESISCORE12. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect; If the quantity demanded of a product changes greatly in response to changes in its price, it is termed “elastic.” That is, the demand point for the product is stretched far from its prior point, upplementary notes: Price Elasticity of Demand + The price elasticity of demand is the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good or service by the percentage change in the price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is the rate at which the demand increases or decreases with the corresponding change in price, * The demand for a product can either be elastic or inelastic, When the change in demand is seen to be proportionately larger in comparison to the change in price, then it is said to be elastic. When the change in demand is smaller than the change in price, then it is said to be inelastic. ‘+ The slope of the demand curve is the price elasticity of demand. As the demand curve steepens, there is a rapid change in demand, which shows elasticity. Whereas a flatter curve leads to the change in demand at a slow rate, thereby denoting inelastic demand. © Mathematically. the price elasticity of demand is represented as follows: Price elasticity of demand (PED) = %4 in Qala in P + Where, 9 in Qd = Percentage change in the quantity demanded, and %A in P Percentage change in price @ The PED or price elasticity of demand is always negative. In other words, it means that there exists an inverse relationship between the price and the demand, @ The value of PED, whieh is less than one, is eonsidered as relatively inelastic demand, while a value more than one suggests relatively elastic demand, Factors determining the price elasticity of demand © Many factors determine the demand elasticity for a product. including price [ESISCORE levels, the type of product or service, income levels, and the availability of any potential substitutes. + High-priced produets often are highly elastic because, if prices fall, consumers are likely to buy at a lower price. ‘© Compared to essential goods, luxury items are highly elastic. * Goods with many alternatives or competitors are elastic because, as the price of the good rises, consumers shift purchases to substitute items 13. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement Lis incorrect: The provisions relating to citizenship came into effect on 26 November 1949 itself, Supplementary notes: BNRau From 1935 onwards, Sir B N Rau was at the center of the major constitutional developments in India. By 1946, Rau was one of the more sought-after constitutional experts by all the major Indian political parties and the British government, With the establishment of the Constituent embly in 1946, he was a natural choice to be appointed as the constitutional advisor. In his final years, Rau became a truly global figure where he represented India in the United Nations and finally served as a judge in the International Court of Justice at The Hague. Provisions pertaining to citizenship * The provisions relating to citizenship came into effect on 26 November 1949. 14. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect: Bio augmentation involves the continuous addition of microorganisms (indigenous or exogenous) to the contaminated sites ‘Supplementary notes: Bioremediation techniques + Bioremediation is the use of living microorganisms to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxie forms. It uses naturally occuring PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04bacteria and fungi or plants to degrade or detoxify substances hazardous to human health and/or the environment, + There are two types of techniques: In-situ bioremediation techniques + It involves treatment of the contaminated material at the site. Bio-venting:Whichinvolvessupplying oxygen and nutrients by aqueous solutions through contaminated scils to accelerate naturally occurring microorganisms to degrade organic impurities. © Bio-sparging: It involves the pressurized injection of air below the water table to increase the content of groundwater oxygen concentration and also increase the rate of biological degradation of wastes by naturally occurring microorganisms. © Bio-augmentation: It involves the continuous addition of microorganisms (indigenous or exogenous) to the contaminated sites, Ex-situ bioremediation techniques + Itinvolvestheremovalofthecontaminated material to be treated elsewhere. © Land farming — It is a simple technique in which contaminated soil is exeavated and then spread over an already prepared bed and at regular intervals tilled until pollutants are degraded. e Composting: It is a procedwe that involves bringing — together contaminated soil with non-hazardous organic materials such as manure or agricultural wastes, © Bio-piles: They are a mixtwe of land farming and composting. Fundamentally, engineered cells are built as aerated compost piles. Bioreactors: A shury bioreactor is a containment vessel and machinery used to create a three-phase (solid, liquid, and gas) mixing condition to expand the bioremediation rate of soil- bound and water-soluble pollutants 15. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Both statements are correct PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 Supplementary note: Data storage devices ect area storage © Direct area storage, also known as direct-attached storage (DAS), is as ‘the name implies. This storage is often in the immediate area and directly connected to the computing machine accessing it. Often, it's the only machine connected to it. DAS can provide decent local backup serviees, too, but sharing is limited. DAS devices include floppy disks, ‘optical dises—compact discs (CDs) and digital video dises (DVDs)—hard disk drives (HDD), fiash drives, and solid- state drives (SSD). Flash Memory ©. Flash memory, a data-storage medium used with computers and other electronic devices. Unlike previous forms of data storage, flash memory is an EEPROM (electronically erasable programmable read-only memory) form of computer memory and thus does not require a power source to retain the data @ Flash memory was invented in the early 1980s by Japanese engineer ‘Masuoka Fujio, who was then working at the Toshiba Corporation and who was searching for a technology that would replace existing data-storage media such as magnetic tapes, floppy disks, and dynamic random-access memory (DRAM) chips. The name flash was coined by Ariizumi Shoji, a coworker of Masuoka, who said the process of memory erasure, which can ‘erase all the data on an entire chip at one time, was like a camera's flash. © Portable devices such as digital cameras, smartphones, and MP3 players normally use flash memory. USB drives (also called thumb drives and flash drives) and memory cards use flash memory to store data, As its cost became cheaper in the early 2ist century, flash memory also began appearing as the hard disk in laptop computers. fe. Flash storageisa solid-state technolog that uses flash memory chips for writing and storing data. A solid-state disk (SSD) flash drive stores data using flash memory, Compared to HDDs. a solid-state system has no moving (ESISCORE16. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: Supplementary notes: Semeru Voleano 17. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: [ESISCORE parts and, therefore, less latency, so fewer S$Ds are needed. Since most modern SSDs are flash-based, flash storage is synonymous with a solid. state system, , : The recently erupted _ Indonesia's Semeru voleano’s ejected ash clouds and pyroclastic flows that Killed at least 46 people and left several missing, while thousands were displaced, Also famously known as the Great Mountain, the voleano is located on Java island of Indonesia and is the highest voleano of the island. It is part of the island ares which were formed by the subduction of the Indo- Australian tectonic plate beneath the Eurasian or the Sunda Plate. Due to this subduction, Sunda treneh has been formed here whose major section is the Java Trench, Indonesia lies in the Pacifie Ring of fire region which is highly known for its voleanie activity. Other major active voleanoes of Indonesia include: 2 Mount Merapi, an active stratovoleano of Java Island. Mount Sinabung, a stratovoleano of andesite and dacite in North Sumatra Island. Mount Tamboro Sumbawa Island. located on Mount Agung located on Bali Island. Statement 3 is incorrect: It demand separate clectorates for Muslims at all levels and that the Muslim representation should be commensurate not only with their numerical strength but also with their political importance and their contribution to the British Empire, 18. Supplementary notes All India Muslim League * The All India Muslim League was founded in 1906 by the Agha Khan, Nawab Salimullah of Dacca, Nawab Mohsin ul-Mulk and Nawab Wagar-ul-Mulk to preach loyalty to the British government and to keep the Muslim intelligentsia away from the Congress. © Tt demand separate electorates for Muslims at all levels and that the Muslim representation should be commensurate not only with their numerical strength but also with their political importance and their contribution to the British Empire Viceroy Minto assured them of special communal representation in excess of their population for their “extraordinary service" to the empire at the Shimla Delegation in 1906, + The first Honorary President of the League was Sir Sultan Muhammad Shah (Aga Khan IID. + The AIML was essentially a party of educated elite Muslims, at least in the beginning. + Muhammad Ali Jimah joined the league in 1913, Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement _3 is incorrect: As per Provisional Estimates of Annual of National Income, released by National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of StatisticsandProgrammelmplementation on 21st May 2021, the share of Agriculture and Allied Sectors in Gross Value Added (GVA) of the country during 2020-21 was 20.2% Supplementary notes Indian Economy + India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted 7.3% in 2020-21, as per provisional National Income estimates released by the National Statistical Offic. marginally etter than the 8% contraction in the economy projected earlier. GDP growth in 2019-20, prior to the COVID-19 pandemic, was 4%. © Indiahasretained its position as the third- largest economy in the world in terms of purchasing power parity (PPP). behind PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04the US and China, as per the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPD) 19. Correct Option: (d) 20. Explanation: + Allpairs are correctly matched Supplementary notes: Trade and commerce during early medieval India + Ghanaka: Oil mill. * diala-patha-karana: Department/Officer for looking after highways; © Market: Space where buying and selling of goods take place as a regular activity. + Tellika: Oilman, © Velakula-Karana: Department/Officer for harbours, © Chalukyas of | Gujarat (1oth-11th centuries) set up a separate department of harbours (Velakula-Karana) under royal control, Correct Option: (c) Explanation: © Statement_1 is incorrect: The term ‘issuing’ doesnot explain the role of private ‘companies in the case of eryptocurrency as it can be used for conventional currencies that are issued by the Governments and carry the value guaranteed by the respective governments. The value of the curreney is also not decided by the company that invents it, but it is totall governed by the ‘demand’ and ‘supply’ it in a decentralized manner f Supplementary notes: Cryptocurrency and —_Blockchain ledger © Cryptocurrency is often referred to as digital currency and as an alternative to central bank-controlled fiat_ money. However, the latter is valuable because it is issued by a monetary author and is widely used in an economy. Cryptocwrrency network is decentralized. and the cryptocuzrency is not used much in retail transactions, + One can argue that Biteoin’s value is similar to that of precious metals. Both PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 are limited in quantity and have select use cases. Precious metals like gold are used in industrial applications, while cryptocurreney underlying technology, the blockchain, has some applications across the financial services industries. Cryptocurreney’s digital provenance means that it might even serve as a medium for retail transactions one day. A blockchain is a decentralized ledger of all transactions across a peer-to- peer network. Using this technology, participants can confirm transactions without a need for a central clearing authority. Potential applications can include fund transfers, settling trades, voting, and many other issues. Units of eryptocurreney are created ‘through a process called mining, which involves using computer power to solve complicated! mathematical problems that generate coins, One ean also buy the currencies from brokers, then store and spend those using cryptographie wallets, If you own eryptocurreney, you don’t own anything tangible. What you own is a key that allows you to move a record or a unit of measure from one person to another without a trusted third party 21. Correct Option: (b) Supplementary notes; Renewable energy As of October 2021, India had 101.54 GW of renewable energy capacity and represents ~38% of the overall installed power capacity. The country is targeting about 450 Gigawatt (GW) of installed renewable energy capacity by 2030 — about 280 GW (over 60%) is expected from solar Installed Capacity for Different RES (as of October 2021) (GW) 4 ‘=Solar Power '=Wind Power = Blo-Power ‘=Small Haro (ESISCORE22. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: ‘Supplementary notes: Martial law [ESISCORE Statement 2 is incorrect: Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial Iaw does not ipso facto result in the suspension of writ of habeas corpus. The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution, Literally, it means ‘military rule’ Article 84 of the Indian constitution provides for the restrietions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force. The Parliament can also validate any sentence passed, punishment inflicted, forfeiture ordered or other act done under martial law in such area. Martial law is a law managed by the Martial as opposed to a regular citizen government. Martial law might be proclaimed in a crisis or reaction to an emergency. or to control an involved area. Martial law, brief guideline by Martial authorities of an assigned zone in time of crisis when the eivil authority is esteemed incapable to work, The legitimate impacts of an assertion of Martial law contrast in different locales, yet they by and large include a suspension of ordinary social equality and the expansion to the regular citizen, populace of synopsis Martial equity or of martial law. Although temporary in theory, a condition of Martial law may in certainty proceed inconelusively. Martial law is an extreme and rare measure used to control society during war or times of common distress or disorder 24. As per the Supreme Court, the term Martial law conveys no exact significance. In any case, most assertions of Martial law have some regular highlights The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus. The declaration of a martial law under Article 34 is different from the declaration of a national emergency under Article 852, 23. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: . Opti « Supplementary notes: Baihetan Dam + The Baihetan Dam on the Jinsha River, a tributary of the Yangtze, is part of Chinese efforts to curb surging fossil fuel demand by building more hydropower capacity. + Having 16 generating units with a capacity of 1 million kilowatts each, it is world’s second largest hydropower dam in size after the Three Gorges Dam, opened in 2003 on the Yangtze, with 22.5 million kilowatts of generating capacity. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia, the third-longest in the world and the longest in the world to flow entirely within one country. © It rises at Jari Hill in the Tanggula Mountains of Tibetan Plateau, + From Tibetan Plateau it flows in a generally easterly direction to the East China Sea, © Itis the seventh-largestriver by discharge volume in the world. * Its drainage basin comprises one-fifth of the land area of China, and is home to nearly one-third of the country’s population, + Yangtze River has over 700 tributaries. The major tributaries include: Yalong River, Min River, Chishui River, Yuan River and Han River. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Option (a) is correct Supplementary notes: Anti-Rowlatt Satyagraha + M. K Gandhi started campaign against Rowlatt bill and set up Satyagraha PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04Sabha on 24* February 1919 in Bombay. ‘The Rowlatt Act empowers the British regarding the suspension of the right of Habeas Corpus. © During this agitation, Gandhi gave the famous quote “It is my firm belief that we shall obtain salvation only through suffering and not by reforms dropping on us from the English they use brute, we soul force”. © The country witnessed a remarkable political awakening in India during March and April 1919. There were hartals, strikes, processions and demonstrations. InAmritsar, the local leaders Kitchlew and, © Serological testing of a representative random sample of the population to detect, evidence of exposure to a pathogen is an important method to estimate the true number of infected individuals, + Case fatality ratio (CFR) is the proportion of individuals diagnosed with a disease who die from that disease and is therefore a measure of severity among detected cases: @ Case-fatality ratio = no. of death from disease/no. of confirmed cases of disease*100. Satyapal were deported (9th April). The | 26. Correct Option: (d) arrest of the local leaders led to attacks on the symbols of British authority. on Lith April Martial Law was clamped with General Dyers in command. © On 18th April, a peaceful, unarmed crowd (mostly visitors from nearby villages to attend Baisakhi celebration) which had collected in an enclosed ground (Jallianwala Bagh) to attend a public meeting oblivious of the ban was brutally massacred without warning. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre shocked the entirenation with horrorand fired patriotic minds with aggressive determination for vengeance. Gandhi, overwhelmed by the total atmosphere of violence withdrew the movement on 18th April after confessing a ‘Himalayan Blunder’ 25. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Both statements are correct Supplementary notes: Case fatality ratio and Infection fatality ratio + There are two measures used to assess the proportion of infected individuals with fatal outcomes. The first is infection fatality ratio (IFR), which estimates this proportion of deaths among all infected individuals. The second is case fatality ratio (CFR), which estimates this, proportion of deaths among identified confirmed cases. + The true severity of a disease can be described by the Infection Fatality Ratio Infection fatality ratio: = no. of deaths from disease/no. of infected individuals * 100. PTSEORBATOMTIOIB0BB/O4 Explanation: + Allstatements are correct Supplementary notes: Buland Darwaza during Mughal period + The construction of the Buland Darwaza was inspired by Timurid architecture. Along with Humayun’s Tomb, its monumentality reflects its Central Asian origins, * Buland Darwaza or the loft gateway at Fatehpur Sikri was built by the great Mughal emperor, Akbar in 1601. Akbar builtthe Buland Darwazatocommemorate his victory over Gujarat. * Catherine Asher writes in The New Cambridge History of India: Architecture of Mughal India, “This monumental gate, however, was probably less intended to commemorate a military vietory than to underscore Akbar's links with the Chishti order «Its surface is covered by marble slabs inseribed with Quranie verses promising paradise to true believers, appropriate for the entrance into a khangah, a complex intended for meditation and devotion. © With 42 steps leading up to it, this 53.63- mhigh and 35-m-wide gateway is the highest in the world. Whether it was built to celebrate vietory or reflect on the transient nature of the world can be guessed from a Persian inseription on it, which advises people to turn towards spirituality. «Professor Rezavi says the Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is “the most iconic architectural accomplishment of (ESISCOREAkbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar's architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, ete.” 27. Correct Option: (©) Explanation: Option (c) is correct Supplementary notes: Gandhian Principles as DPSP Most of the DPSPs reflect the ideology of socialism and welfare state. Some of them are directly inculcating the Gandhian principles for example @ Atticle 40: Organization of village Panchayats Article 43: Promotion industries of cottage Article 46: Promotion and protection of interests of educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation Article 47: Prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health Article 48: Prohibition of slaughter of cows, calves and other mileh and draught cattle and to improve their breeds Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry on scientific lines is part of lib- eral intellectual principles. 28. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect: LEDs require a low-voltage DC power source while incandescent bulbs ean be designed ta use doth AC and DC as power sources, upplementary notes: Light-Emit In a light-emitting diode, the recombination of electrons and electron holes ina semiconductor produces light (be it infrared, visible, or UV), a process called ‘electroluminescence”. The wavelength of the light depends on the energy bandgap [ESISCORE g Diodes 13 of the semiconductors used. Since these materials have a high index of refraction, design features of the devices such as special optical coatings and die shape is required to efficiently emit light. Unlike a laser, the light emitted from an LED is neither spectrally coherent nor even highly monochromatic. However, its spectrum is sufficiently narrow that it appears to the human eye as a pure (saturated) color. Also unlike most lasers, its radiation is not spatially coherent, so it cannot approach the very high brightnesses characteristic of lasers. LEDs have many advantages over incandescent Tight sources, including lower power consumption, longer lifetime, improved physical vobustness, smaller size, and faster switching. In exchange for these generally favorable attributes, disadvantages of LEDs include electrical limitations to low voltage and generally to DC (not AG) power, inability to provide steady illumination from a pulsing DC or an AC electrical supply source, and lesser maximum operating temperature and storage temperature. In contrast to LEDs, incandescent lamps can be made to intrinsically run at virtually any supply voltage, can utilize either AC or DC interchangeably, and will provide steady illumination when powered by AC or pulsing DC even at a frequeney as low as 50 Hz. LEDs usually need electronic support components to function, while an incandescent bulb can and usually does operate directly from an unregulated DC or AC power source. 29. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: oO . tion (d) is correct Supplementary notes: Desertification Causes of desertification: 2 Loss of Soil Cover Loss of soil cover, mainly due to rainfall and surface runoff, is one of the biggest reasons for desertification. It is responsible for 11.01% of the desertification in the country. Cutting forests adversely affect the soil and cause degradation. As PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04urbanization increases, the demand for resources is also increasing. fe Vegetation Degradation + Vegetation degradation is defined as, “the temporary or permanent reduction in the density, structure, species composition or productivity of vegetation cover + It is found to be responsible for 9.15% of desertification in the country, @ Water Erosion + It results in Badland Topography which itself is an initial stage of desertification. + Badlands are a type of dry terrain where softer sedimentary rocks and clay-rich soils have been extensively eroded. * In 2011-13, water erosion was responsible for 10.98% of desertification in the eountay. fe Wind Erosion «© Sandencroachmentby wind reduces fertility of the soil making the land susceptible to desertification, + It was found to be responsible for 5.46% of the desertification in India. © Climate Change © Tt may exacerbate desertification through alteration of spatial and temporal patterns in temperature, tainfal solanradiaton and winds. | 1. 30. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Option (c) is correct Supplementary notes: Moon Wobble + Unlike the Chandler Wobble, which describes the movements in the Earth's orbit, a moon wobble describes the fluctuations in the moon’s orbit — with wobbles occurring as a result of changes in the moon’s elliptical orbit and their resulting gravitational pull on the Earth. + High tides on this planet are caused mostly by the pull of the moon's gravity ona spinning Earth. PTSEORBATOMTIOIB0BB/O4 + The moon also revolves around the Earth about once a month, and that orbit is approximate 5-degree incline to the Earth's orbital plane around the sun. + Due to this the path of the moon’s orbit seems to fluctuate over time, completing a full cycle — sometimes referred to as a nodal cycle — every 1866 years. + At certain points along the eycle, the moon’s gravitational pull comes from such an angle that it raises one of the day’s two high tides a little bit higher, at the expense of the other and therefore, indizectly influences the ebb and flow of tides on the Earth. + During its most rapid upward phase, it acts to enhance the effective sea level, and during its most rapid downward phase, like we're in now, it acts ‘to suppress the effective sea level. + With the moon currently in the latter half of the eyele, it’s easy to see the impact rippling out across the world as flooding appears to have hit much harder than years previously. + The lunar cycle is expected to shift again by mid-2080, and in the coming phase. the tides will amplify once again. © This coupled with rising sea level due to climate change will make the risk of flooding far greater acrass all coastal regions of the globe. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: . jon i Supplementary note: Swarajists © Swarajists like C.R, Das, Motilal Nehru and Ajmal Khan wanted an end to the doyeott of legislative couneils so that the nationalists could enter them to expose the basic weaknesses of these assemblies and use these councils as an arena of political struggle to arouse popular enthusiasm. + They wanted, in other words, to ‘end or mend’ these councils, ic. if the government did not respond to the nationalists’ demands, then they would obstruct the working of these councils. (ESISCORE‘They argued that in a time of political vacuum, council work would serve to enthuse the masses and keep up their morale ‘To avoid a 1907 type split, the Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within the Congress. Some of their achievements were: ¢ With coalition partners, they out-voted the government several times, even on matters relating to budgetary grants, and passed adjournment motions. © They agitated through speeches on. self-government, liberties and industrialization. powerful civil © Vithalbhai Patel was elected speaker of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925, © The defeat of the Public Safety Bill in 1928 which was aimed at empowering the Government to deport undesirable and subversive foreigners, © They exposed the hollowness of the Montford scheme. ‘Swarajists failed to support the peasants ‘cause in Bengal and thus lost support among Muslim members who were pro peasant. 32. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: ‘Supplementary notes: Bharatnatyam [ESISCORE ; Oldest among alll classical dance forms, Bharatnatyam derives its name from Bharat Muni and ‘natyam’ which means dance in Tamil. However, other scholars have ascribed the name ‘Bharata’ to Bhava’, Raga’ and ‘Taal Bharatanatyam is a famous Indian classical dance genre that evolved in the modern-day Tamil Nadu region. ‘The original sowrees of Bharatanatyam are Bharata Muni’s Natya Shastra and Nandikeshvara’s Abhinaya Darpana (Mirror of Gesture) (an Indian classical dance form), Different forms of banis ean be found in Bharatanatyam. Bani, or ‘tradition,’ is a phrase used to characterise a guru's or school’s dancing method and style. 34, * The ancient Tamil epic Silappatikaram contains a description of Bharatanatyam from the 2nd century CE, and temple sculptures from the 6th to 9th centuries CE imply it was a highly perfected performing art by the mid-1st millennium CE + Bharatanatyam is India’s oldest classical dance form. The dance form was popular in ancient Tamil Nadu, and it was codified in various works, including the Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni. 33. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: + Option (4) is correct Supplementary notes: Economic Cost of food-grains * The Economie Cost of food-grains consists of three components, namely, pooled cost of grains, procurement incidentals and the cost of distribution © The pooled cost of food grains is the weighted MSP of the stock of food- grains available with FCI at the time of calculating the economic cost. Correct Option: (e) Explanation: + Both statements are correct Supplementary notes: Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) + NASA has launched a mission to measure the X-ray polarization from the most extreme and mysterious objects in the universe. The $188m Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) was launched today from the Kennedy Space Center at 01:00 local time aboard a Faleon 9 rocket. During the probe's two-year mission, it will study several astrophysical phenomena including black holes, active galactic nuclei, quasars, pulsars, and supernova remnants © Following a successful launch and separation, IXPE is now in orbit around the equator at an altitude of around 600 km above Earth. This particular orbit will minimize the X-ray instrument's exposure to radiation in the South Atlantic Anomaly, the region where the PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04inner Van Allen radiation belt comes closest to Earth's surface. * The mission contains three identical telescopes, which _can_—_ operate independently, and that each has polarization-sensitive detectors. The craft will use these to provide simultaneous spectral, spatial, and __ temporal measurements of cosmic —_sourees, with scientists aiming to improve the polarization sensitivity by two orders of magnitude over the X-ray polarimeter aboard the Orbiting Solar Observatory 080-8, which was launched in 1975. + Astronomers hope this will allow them to determine the geometry and the emission mechanism of active galactic nuclei and micro quasars as well as find the magnetic field configuration in magnetars 35. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Option (h) is correct Supplementary notes: Joint sitting of Parliament + The Parliament of India is bicameral. Concurrence of both houses are required to pass any bill. However, the framers of the Constitution of India anticipated situations of deadlock between the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the Constitution of India provides for Joint sittings of both the Houses to break the deadlock. © The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, who is the Viee President of India, doesn't preside over the joint session. If any of the above officers are not present than any other member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of bath the House. © Joint Sitting of Indian parliament has been called for only 3 bills: @ Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961 © Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002 PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 36. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: Supplementary notes: Montreux records © The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is a voluntary mechanism to highlight specific wetlands of intemational importance that are facing immediate challenges. It is maintained as part of the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance * At present Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur are the two Indian sites listed under it © Since 1993, Chilika Lake was also listed in Montreux Record due to the problem of siltation. Later in 2002, it was removed from the list as the problem of siltation was tackled by Government of India. Chilika Development Authority received the Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for 2002, 37. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: © Option (a) is correct Supplementary notes: Marine Erosional Landforms Sea waves resort to erosion of the coastal land and backshore zone through the processes and mechanism of hydraulic action, corrasion or abrasion, attrition, corrosion or solution and water pressure. + Significant coastal features formed due to marine erosion by sea waves and other currents and solutional processes including: fe Cliff: It is the seaward limit of coast which is marked by a steep scarp. @ Coves: It is a small type of bay or coastal inlet, Coves usually have narrow, restricted entrances, are often circular or oval © Caves: Differential erosion by sea waves through a rock with varying (ESISCORE[ESISCORE resistance across its structure produces arched pockets in rocks. These are called sea caves, © Indented coastline: These are those that aren't smooth and have cuts oy indents along its length thereby leading to the formation of inland waterways and creeks, © Stacks: It is a geological landform consisting of a steep and often vertical column or columns of rock in the sea near a coast, formed by wave erosion, @ Arch: When the waves rock- form from two opposite sides, the differential erosion produces bridge-like structures or sea arches. Chimneys: When a portion of the sea arch collapses, the remaining column like structure is called a stack, skarry or chimney rock. attack a + Significant depositional landforms developed by sea waves include sea beaches, bars and barriers, offshore and longshore bars, spits, hooks. loops, connecting bars, looped bars, tombolo, Barrier Island, tidal inlets, winged headlands, progradation, — wave-built platforms ete. 38. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 3 is incorrect: The report rejected parliamentary responsibility at the centre. The governor-general was to have complete power to appoint the members of the cabinet and the Government of India would have complete control over the high court. + Statement 4 is incorrect: It suggested that the Indian army should be Indianised though British forces must be retained. Supplementary notes: Simon Commission Recommendations + The Simon Commission published a two: volume report in May 1930. + It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces which should be given autonomy. + It said that the governor should have diseretionary power in relation to internal security and administrative powers to protect the different communities, 39. © The mumber of members of provincial legislative council should be increased. + The report rejected parliamentary responsibility at the centre. The governor general was to have complete power to appoint the members of the cabinet and the Government of India would have complete control over the high court. + It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained (and extended such electorates to other communities) but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down, There was to be no universal franchise. + It accepted the idea of federalism but not in the near future; it suggested that a Consultative Council of Greater India should be established which should include representatives of both the British, provinees as well as princely states. ‘+ It suggested that the North-West Frontier Province and Baluchistan should get local legislatures, and both NWFP and Baluchistan should have the right to be represented at the centre, + It recommended that Sindh should be separated from Bombay, and Burma should be separated from India because it was not a natural part of the Indian subcontinent, © It also suggested that the Indian army should be Indianised though British forces must be retained, Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: Murtipujaka sect belongs to Svetambaras Jainism since they are the thorough worshipers of idols. Supplementary notes: Murtipujaka sect The original stock of the Svetambaras is known as Murtipujaka Svetambaras since they are the thorough worshipers of idols. + They offer flowers, fruits, saffron, ete. to their idols and invariably adorn them with rich clothes and jeweled ornaments. + Their ascetics cover their mouth with strips of cloth while speaking. otherwise they keep them in their hands. They stay in temples or in the especially reserved buildings known as upasrayas. PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04© They collect food in their bowls from the sravakas or householders’ houses and eat at their place of stay. © The Murtipujaka sub-sect isalso known by terms like Pujera (worshipers), Deravasi (temple residents), Chaityavasi (temple residents) and Mandira-margi (temple goers) + The Murtipujaka Svetambaras are found scattered all over India for business purposes in large urban centers, still they are concentrated mostly in Gujarat. 40. Correct option: (a) Explanation: + Option (a) is correct Supplementary notes: Key Economie Curves © The Phillips curve is an economic eoneept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that inflation and unemployment havea stable and inverse relationship. The theory plementary note: Anandpur Sahib Resolution The resohition was a comprehensive document adopted by the Akali Dal, asking for greater federal freedom, inclusion of more Punjabi-speaking areas (including Chandigarh) into Punjab, considering Sikhs as a separate entity and protecting the rights of the state over river water, among other demands, + Sirdar Kapur Singh who was considered as chief architect of the Anandpur Sahib Resolution, + The Akalis presented it as a treatise on Centre-state relations where curreney, defence and foreign affairs should be with the Centre, and the states be allowed to manage the rest. As the document gave impetus to Sikh nationalism, many thought it led toa demand for separatism culminating in Khalistan. © In 1982, the Akali Dal was joined by Sant Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale to launch the Dharam Yudh Morcha agitation to push for the Anandpur Sahib Resolution claims that with economic growth comes demands inflation, which in tun should lead to more jobs and less unemployment, 42. Correct Option: (a) © A\ Lorenz curve is a _ graphical Explanation: representation of income inequality. © The Laffer curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments. es Phitps curve Trplyient Rate 41, Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement Lis incorrect; It was Sirdar Kapur Singh who was considered as chief architect of the resolution, PTSEORBIATOMTIOI20BB/ON + Statement 8 is incorrect: First five- year program for nano-research called ‘nano-mission’ was launched in the year 2007, Supplementary notes: Nanotechnology in India © Efforts to promote research in nanotechnology in India began early in the millennium. The “NanoScience and Technology Initiative” started with a funding of Rs. 60 crores. In 2007, the government launched a 5-year program called Nano Mission with wider objectives and larger funding of USD 250 million. The funding spanned multiple areas like basic research in nanotechnology. human resources development, infrastructure development, and ~—_ international collaboration. Multipleinstitutionslikethe Department of Information Technology, Defence Research and Development Organisation, Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, and Department of Biotechnology provided the funding to researchers, scholars, and projects (ESISCORE[ESISCORE National Centers for Nanofabrication and Nanoelectronics were started in the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, and the Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai, The efforts have paid off well. India publishedover23000papersinnanoscience in the past 5 years. In 2013, India ranked third in the number of papers published, behind only China and the USA. There have been 300 patent applications in the Indian Patent Office in 2013, ten times that of 2006. This points to the suecess of the Nano Mission initiative. But there is a lot of room for improvement. The amount India spends on nanotechnology research is still just a fraction of the research spending of countries like Japan, the USA, France, and China, The quality of research has shown only a little improvement from the NSTI phase (till 2006) to the nano mission phase (post-2007). Only 16 papers from India appeared in the top 1% of the publications in 2011. Also, the number of patents applied from India to the US patent office contributes to only 0.2% of the total applications Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) has developed nanotechnology solutions to prevent biofouling. CIFTs technology uses polyaniline and nano copper oxide. Aquaculture cages are fabricated primarily with high-density polyethylene (PE) webbings whose surface is to be coated with polyaniline and nano copper oxide and exposed in the open sea and estuarine environment. P Muhammed Ashraf, the Principal Scientist at CIFT, said field exposure studies were conducted at Vishakapatnam, (open sea) for six months by exposing two treated webbings. The results showed a significant biofouling resistance. The study concluded that the nano copper oxide present in the matrix acted as a point source above the electron clouds of polyaniline, preventing the initialization of biofilm. The First advanced microelectronics and nano energy facilities in NE India. The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT). Guwahati has established advanced microelectronics and nanoenergy facilities at its Centre for Nanotechnology which is the first-of-its-kind in the Northeast, according to officials. + The centre aims at meeting future challenges and augmenting academic partnerships with =~ industry in nanotechnology, will carry out multidisciplinary translational research in the fields of health care, nano biomaterials, micro and nanoelectronics, nano-energy devices, and sensors. 43. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is the world’s largest free trade agreement comprising 15 Asia-Pacific nations, viz, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Viemam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia, Japan, South Korea, China, Australia and New Zealand, Supplementary note: RCEP * India which was part of the negotiating process left the agreement because of certain pressing issues in its form. + The RCEP negotiations were launched by leaders from 10 Asean member states (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Loas, Malaysia, Myanmar the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam) and six ASEAN FTA partners (Australia, China, India, Japan, Korea and New Zealand) during the 21st Asean summit in Phnom Penh in Cambodia in November 2012. + The agreement allows for a common set of rules of origin to qualify for tariff reduction with other RCEP members. This means less procedures and easier movementof goods. That shouldencourage multinational firms to invest more in the region, including building supply chains and distribution hubs, 44, Correet Option: (d) Explanation: + Allstatement are correct Supplementary notes Sugarcane * Recently India lost WTO dispute over sugar subsidies and is set to file an appeal, PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/044D. + India is the largest sugar producer after Brazil in the world. © Sugareane growing countries of the world Jay between the latitude 36.7° north and 31.0° south of the equator extending from tropical to subtropical zones. Sugar cane originated in New Guinea where it has been known for thousands of years. + Amean temperature of 28-32 Cis best suited for the growth of sugarcane with an annual rainfall of 75-120 cm. It requires a long growing season of 10-18 months, + Broadly there are two distinct agro- climatic regions of sugarcane cultivation in India, viz., tropical and subtropical + The tropical sugarcane vegion consists of sugarcane agro climatic zone 4 (peninsular zone) and 5(Coastal zone) whieh includes the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, TamilNadu, Karnataka, Gujarat. ‘Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Pondicherry and Kerala, + Sub-tropical sugarcane region make up around 55 per cent of total cane area in the country in states of U.P, Bihar, Haryana and Punjab. + The sugarcane productivity and juice quality are profoundly influenced by weather conditions prevailing during the various crop-growth sub-periods, + Sugar recovery is highest when the weather is dry with low humidity: cooler nights with wide diurnal variations and very little rainfall during ripening period. These conditions favour high sugar accumulation, * The main by-products of sugarcane industry are bagasse and molasses. Bagasse is mainly used as fuel. It is also used for production of compressed fibre board paper, plastic and others. + Molasses is used in distilleries for the manufacturing of ethyl alcohol, butyl aleohol, citric acid ete. Rum is the best potable spirit made from molasses, Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect; In late 1980s the Congress's attitude toward the struggle in Indian states began to change and finally in 1942 when Quit India movement was launched, the Congress PTS202/A1OMT/012022/04 made no distinction between British India and the Indian States and extended the call for struggle to Indian States, Supplementary note: Movement in Princely States +» In 1920s during Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement powerful influence and impact was created on local people in the Princely states and numerous local organizations of the States' people came into existence and these organizations were called as Praja Mandals or States People's Conferences. + The people of Praja Mandals fought against the Feudalism and colonialism. The people of Praja Mandal movement fought against their feudal princes and the British administration simultaneously for their rights. + The main demand of the Praja Mandal movements was democratie rights such as responsible government and citizenship rights. The people of the Praja Mandal ‘Movements implemented the constructive programmes of the Indian National ‘Movement in their princely states. © The Congress, for the first time at its Nagpur Session in 1920, enunciated its policy towards the peoples “movement in the Princely States. It called upon the Princes to grant full responsible government in their States. However, it was pointed out that though the people belonging to the States could enroll themselves as members of the Congress, they could not initiate political activity in the State in the name of the Congress. They could earry on political activity in their individual capacity as members of the local Praja Mandals. This policy of non-intervention in princely states by Congress continued till 1938. + At the Haripura Congress in 1938, a resolution was adopted to support ‘the peoples’ movements in the states; although no organizational assistance was to be provided, individual leaders could participate, under the overall leadership of a special subcommittee of the Congress Working Committee. * InFebruary 1939, Jawaharlal Nehru was made the President of the AISPC and the Tripuri Congress endorsed the scheme of joint action + As a result of this evolving situation, in late 1938 and early 1989 many (ESISCOREof the princely states witnessed an unprecedented escalation of popular agitation, spearheaded by the local Praja Mandals, clandestine Congress branches and outside political leaders from British India. 46. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect; Ramananda (not Ramanuja) was the first to use Hindi as a medium for disseminating his ideas, Supplementary notes: Bhakti movements in India + Ramanuja was a leading proponent of the Vish-ishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta philosophy and a significant exponent of the Sri Vaishnavism lineage. + Vishishtadvaita refers to a non-dualism of a qualified whole that is marked by multiplicity. To put it another way, it thinks that “all diversity is subsumed by an underlying unity” (qualified monoism), * Hisheritage is related with the Srirangam Ranganatha temple in Tamil Nadu. + In the village of | Sriperumbudur, Ramantyja was born intoa Tamil Brahmin family (present-day Tamil Nadw) + His Vaishnava disciples _ published hagiographies, some of which were written centuries after his death and are believed to be accurate by the Vaishnava tradition, 47. Correct option: (b) Explanation: + Option (b) is correct Supplementary notes: BOP There are three components of balance of payment viz current account, capital account, and financial account. The total of the current account must balance with the total of capital and financial accounts in ideal situations, + The balance of payments (BOP) is a statement of all tansactions made between entities in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time, such as a quarter or a year. [ESISCORE Bo Current Account + The cwrent account is used to monitor the inflow and outflow of goods and services and current transfer (including remittances) between countries. This aceount covers all the receipts and payments made with respect to raw materials and manufactured goods. ‘+ It also includes receipts from engineering, tourism, transportation, __ business services, stocks, and royalties from patents and copyrights. When all the goods and services are combined, together they make up to a country’s Balance Of Trade (BOT) + There are various categories of trade and transfers which happen across countries. It could be visible or invisible trading, unilateral transfers or other payments! receipts, ‘Trading in goods between countries are referred to as visible items and importlexport of services (banking, information technology ete) are referred to as invisible items. © Unilateral transfers refer to money sent as gifts or donations to residents of foreign countries. This can also be personal transfers like — money sent by relatives to their family located in another county. Capital Account + All capital transactions between the countries are monitored through the capital account. Capital transactions include the purchase and sale of assets (non-financial) like land and properties. + The capital account also includes the flow of taxes, purchase and sale of fixed assets ete. by migrants moving out/into a different country. The deficit or surplus in the current account is managed through the finance from the capital account and vice versa. There are 3 major elements of a capital account: * Loans and borrowings ~ It includes all types of loans from both the private and public sectors located in foreign countries, + Investments — These are funds invested in the corporate stocks by non-residents, © Foreign exchange reserves ~ Foreign exchange reserves held by the central bank of a country to monitor and control the exchange rate does impact the capital account. PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04Financial Account + The flow of funds from and to foreign countries through various investments in real estates, business ventures, foreign direct investments ete. is monitored through the financial account. This account measures the changes in the foreign ownership of domestic assets and. domestic ownership of foreign assets, * On analyzing these changes, it can be understood if the country is selling or acquiring more assets (like gold, stocks, equity ete) 48. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 2is incorrect: The proposed tribunal must give its deeision within 2 years Supplementary notes: Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill + The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 25, 2019. It amends the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. The Act provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers and river valleys. + Under the Act, a state government may request the central government torefer an inter-state river dispute to a Tribunal for adjudication. If the central government is of the opinion that the dispute cannot be settled through negotiations, it is required to set up a Water Disputes Tribunal for adjudication of the dispute, within a year of receiving such a complaint. The Bill seeks to replace this mechanism. © Disputes Resolution Committee Under the Bill, when a state puts in a request regarding any water dispute, the central government will set up a Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC), to resolve the dispute amicably. The DRC will comprise of a chairperson, and experts with at least 15 years of experience in relevant sectors, to be nominated by the central government It will also comprise one member from each state (at Joint Secretary Level), who are party to the dispute, to be nominated by the concerned state government, PTSEORBIATOMTIOI20BB/ON B ‘The DRC will seek to resolve the dispute through negotiations, within ‘one year (extendable by six months) and submit its report to the central government, If a dispute cannot be settled by the DRC, the central government will refer it to the Inter- State River Water Disputes Tribunal. Such referral must be made within three months from the receipt of the report from the DRC. Tribunal: The central government will set up an Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal, for the adjudication of water disputes. This Tribunal can have multiple benches. All existing Tribunals will be dissolved, and the water disputes pending adjudication before such existing Tribunals will be transferred to the new Tribunal, Composition of the Tribunal: The Tribunal will consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, three judicial members, and three expert members. They will be appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. Each Tribunal Bench will consist of a chairperson or ‘Vice-Chairperson, a judicial member, and an expert member. The central government may also appoint two experts serving in the Central Water Engineering Service as assessors to advise the Bench in its proceedings. The assessor should not be from the state which is a party to the dispute. Time frames: Under the Act, the ‘Tribunal must give its decision within three years, which may be extended by twoyears. Under the Bill, the proposed. Tribunal must give its decision on the dispute within two years, which may be extended by another year. Under the Act, if the matter is again referred to the Tribunal by a state for further consideration, the Tribunal must submit its report to the central government within a period ofone year. This period can be extended by the central government. The Bill amends this to specify that such extension may be up toa maximum of six months. Decision of the Tribunal: Under the Act, the decision of the Tribunal must be published by the central government in the official gazette. ‘This decision has the same force as that of an order of the Supreme Court. The Bill removes the requirement (ESISCORE[ESISCORE of stich publication. It adds that the decision of the Bench of the Tribunal will be final and binding on the parties involved in the dispute, The Act provided that the central government may make a scheme to give effect to the decision of the Tribunal. The Bill is making it mandatory for the central government to make such scheme. 49. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Both statements are correct Supplementary notes; Nobel Prize 202 + Many research areas and industries are dependent on chemists’ ability to construct molecules that can form elastic and durable materials, store energy in batteries or inhibit the progression of diseases. This work requires catalysts, which are substances that control and accelerate chemical reactions, without becoming part of the final produet. For example, catalysts in cars transform toxic substances in exhaust fumes into harmless molecules. Our bodies also contain thousands of catalysts in the form of enzymes, which chisel out the molecules necessary for life. Chemistry + Catalysts are thus fundamental tools for chemists, but researchers long believed that there were, in principle, just two types of catalysts available: metals and enzymes. Benjamin List and David MacMillan are awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2021 because in 2000 they, independent of each other, developed a third type of catalysis. It is called asymmetric organoeatalysis and builds upon small organie molecules. + “This concept for catalysis is as simple as it is mgenious, and the fact is that many people have wondered why we didn't think of it earlier,” says Johan Aquist, who is chair of the Nobel Committee for Chemistry. © Organiccatalysts havea stable framework of carbon atoms, to which more active chemical groups can attach. ‘These often contain common elements such as oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, or phosphorus. This means that these catalysts are both, environmentally friendly and cheap to produce. © The rapid expansion in the use of organic catalysts is primarily due to their ability to drive asymmetrie catalysis, When molecules are being built, situations often, occur where two different molecules can form, which — just like our hands ~ are each other's mirror image. Chemists will often only want one of these, particularly when producing pharmaceuticals. © Organoeatalysis has developed at an astounding speed sinee 2000. Benjamin List and David MacMillan remain leaders in the field and have shown that organic catalysts can be used to drive multitudes of chemical reactions. Using these reactions, researchers can now more efficiently construct anything from new pharmaceuticals to molecules that can capture light in solar cells. In this way, organoeatalysts are bringing the greatest benefit to humankind, 50. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: + Allpairs are correctly matched Supplementary notes: Pollu + The major forms of pollution are listed below along with the particular contaminant relevant to each of them: ¢ Airpollution: the release of chemicals and particulates into the atmosphere. Common gaseous pollutants include carbon menoxide, sulfur dioxide, chlorofiuorecarbons (CFCs) and nitrogen oxides produced by industry and motor vehicles. Photochemical ozone and smog are created as nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons react to sunlight. Particulate matter, or fine dust is characterized by their micrometre size PM10 to PM2.5. The heavy metals like cadmium, lead, Magnetite, and mercury, ete are common air pollutants. e Electromagnetic pollution: the overabundance of electromagnetic radiation in their non-ionizing form, like radio waves, ete, that people are constantly exposed at, especially in large cities. It's still unknown whether or not those types of radiation have any effects on human health, though. 2 Light pollution: includes light trespass, _over-illumination and astronomical interference. PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04© Littering: the criminal throwing | 51. Correct Option: (c) of inappropriate man-made objects. unremoved, onto public and private properties. © Noise pollution: which encompasses roadwaynoise, aircraftnoise industrial noise as well as high-intensity sonar, © Plastic pollution: involves the accumulation of plastic produets and microplasties in the environment that adversely affects wildlife, wildlife habitat, or humans. Soil contamination occurs when chemicals are released by spill or underground leakage. Among the most significant soil contaminants are hydrocarbons, heavy metals, MTBE,(4} herbicides, pesticides and chlorinated hydrocarbons ¢ Radioactive contamination, resulting from 20th century activities in atomic physics, such as nuclear power generation and nuclear weapons research, manufacture and deployment. (See alpha emitters and actinides in the environment.) © Thermal pollution, is a temperature change in natural water bodies caused. by human inffuence, such as use of water as coolant in a power plant. © Visual pollution, which can refer to the presence of overhead. power Tines, motorway billboards, scarred landforms (as from strip mining), open storage of trash, munieipal solid waste or space debris. © Water pollution, by the discharge of industrial wastewater from commercial and industrial waste Gntentionally or through spills) into surface waters: discharges of untreated sewage, and chemical contaminants, such as chlorine, from treated sewage; release of waste and contaminants into surface runoff flowing to surface waters (including urban runoff and agricultural runoff which may contain chemical fertilizers and pesticides; also including human feces from open defecation — still a major problem in many developing countries); groundwater pollution from waste disposal and leaching into the ground, inehuding from pit latrines and septic tanks; eutrophication and littering. PTSEORBIATOMTIOI20BB/ON Explanation: Supplementary note: Statement _1 is incorrect: The rate of decrease of temperature with depths is greater at the equator than at the poles as ice is poor conductor of heat so ‘the temperature change with the depth is very slight in polar region and the overall water column remains at lower temperature from top surface to the bottom with relative lower rate of decrease of temperature. Ocean Vertical ‘Temperature Distribution ‘The temperature distribution of oceans is affected by different factors such as Duration and intensity of Insolation, Albedo effect of sea, Shape of ocean, local weather conditions like cyclones, prevailing winds, distribution of land and water, ocean currents ete. Vertically, Thermocline layer is the doundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers. This boundary is usually present around 100 ~ 400 m below the sea surface. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of temperature, is called the thermocline. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° ©. ‘The temperature structure of oceans over middle and low latitudes can be described as a three-layer system from surface to the bottom. @ The top layer is of warm oceanic water and is about 500m thick. This layer, within the tropical region, is present throughout the year but in mid-latitudes it develops only during @ The next layer in depth is called the thermocline layer and it is characterized by rapid decrease in ‘temperature with increasing depth e The next layer in depth beneath thermocline layer is very cold and extends up to the deep ocean floor. Here the temperature becomes almost stagnant (ESISCORE52. and higher latitudes record higher temperatures at the bottom. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Option (e) is correct: Congress Importance Session . Caleutta 2. First recital of Session Jan-Gan-Man in agi Congress session Karachi 4. National Economie Session (1951) Programme passed Nagpur 1. Reconstitute Session Congress Working (4920) Committees on Linguistic basis Belgaum 3. Only Session Session presided over (ag24) by Mahatma Gandhi Supplementary notes: Some Important Congress Sessions [ESISCORE In the Aretic and Antarctic circles, the surface water temperatures are close to 0° C and so the temperature change with the depth is very slight as the ice is a very bad conductor of heat. The rate of decrease of temperature with depths is greater at the equator than at the poles. The surface temperature and its downward decrease is influenced by the upwelling of bottom water. In cold Arctic and Antarctic regions, sinking of cold water and its movement towards lower latitudes is observed. In equatorial regions the surface water sometimes exhibits lower temperature and salinity due to high rainfall, whereas the layers below it have higher temperatures. The enclosed seas in bath the lower Calcutta Session, 1911: Presided by BN. Dhar, the session is known for first recital of Jan-Gan-Man in a congress session Nagpur Session, 1920: Presided by C.Vijayraghavachair, a new constitution of Congress was framed in this session. Congress working committees were allowed to be reconstituted on Linguistic basis + Belgaum Session, 1924: It is the only session presided over by Mahatma Gandhi, + Karachi Session (March, 1931): Presicled by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the session endorsed the Gandhi Irwin Pact and passed a resolution on Fundamental Rights and a National Economic Programme. 53. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Option (a) is correct Supplementary notes: Amravati School of Arts * In the Southern parts of India, the Amaravati School developed on the banks of Krishna River, under the patronage of the Satvahana rulers, + Unllike the other two schools, Amaravati School placed a greater emphasis on the use of dynamic visuals or narrative art. * This school’s sculptures made extensive use of the Tribhanga position, which involves three bends in the body. + The sculptural remains of Amaravati have found their way tothe British Museum and the Madras Museum. But the carvings of Nagarjunakonda are preserved almost in entirety at the site + The white lime stone of the sculptures creates the illusion of marble and is as fresh today as it was when it left the hands of the carvers, It is a sensuous art, reflecting the joys of the people who had adopted the way of the Buddha as the new path of freedom and not of estrangement from the world. © The Mahayana religious movement in the Andhra country invested the life of the people with a golden halo whose brilliance is fully reflected in the sculptures of Amaravati and Nagarjunakonda. 54, Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Statement_2 is incorrect: Genome editing at the early-embryo stage has the potential to deal with various genetic anomalies but it has limited/no scope to deal with the diseases caused by the pathogens like viruses, bacteria, or other parasites, PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04Supplementary notes: ‘The Applications of Genome Editing Technology + Genome editing technology enables manipulations at the genome level where DNA is replaced, deleted, or inserted in a living organism. Classic genome editing approaches depend on homology-directed repair and. the totipotency of stem cells to facilitate the modification of the individual gene. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2007 was awarded to the discoveries of principles for introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use of embryonic stem cells. + Because the traditional HDR approach has disadvantages of low efficieney, high technical requirements, and high cost, which seriously restricted its applications in large-scale genomic manipulation research. In 2013 the diseovery of the type IL CRISPR-Cas9 system has promoted the development of precise genetic modifications + This new RNA-mediated DNA editing approach opens up new avenues for the application of genome editing technology in Animal model construction, genetic disease treatment, and agricultural breeding. Genome editing _ technology — Generation of Animal models * CRISPR-Cas9 system performs precise targeting and editing of a specific DNA sequence of interest via a programmable mechanism and provides a versatile approach to establishing transgenic animal models, + While mouse models have been widely used, the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing approach has been established in many other animal models, including worm, rat, rabbit, pig, and monkey. New mouse models can be generated with CRISPR- Cas9 by injecting Cas mRNA and guide RNAs (gRNA) directly into mouse embryos to generate precise genomic edits into specific loci with an efficiency of 100%. CRISPR.Cas9 mediated targeting and editing has facilitated the generation of knockin and knockout mouse models, dramatically decreasing the time and resource consumption compared to traditional methods. Genome editing technology—Curing genetic diseases PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 © Although CRISPR-Cas9_has already has been widely used as a research tool, a particularly exciting future direction is the development of CRISPR-Cas9 as a therapeutic technology for treating genetic disorders. + Researchers at the Chinese Academy of Sciences reported successful correction of disease-causing mutations in eataract mouse models via the CRISPR-Cas9 system. Upon injection of CRISPR. Cas® into zygotes, 1/3 genetic defect in the cataract mouse model could be corrected at the organism level and more importantly, the corrected trait was successfully transmitted to the next generation through the germline. Genome _editing Agricultural breeding technology — + The CRISPR-Cas9 technology opens up exciting possibilities for creating crop varieties with desirable traits without introducing foreign DNA. Precision breeding crops with desirable traits, such asdisease resistanceanddroughttolerance not only help reduce pesticide, fertilizer, and water usage but also improve food quality and safety, Researchers at Penn State University created mushrooms with reduced production of a specific enzyme that causes mushrooms to blemishes caused by handling or mechanical harvesting. It becomes the first CRISPR- edited organism to receive a green light from the US government, which means that the mushroom can be cultivated and sold without passing through the agency's regulatory process. * CRISPR-Cas6 is an emerging technology that enables precise genome modification without introducing foreign genes. This transformative tool holds great promises to revolutionize biological research and expand our ability to correet the genetie causes behind many diseases. + Synbio Technologies establishes the CRISPR-Cas9_genelgenome editing platform which can offer a one-stop solution for CRISPR-Cas9 projects. We can offer services ineluding CRISPR-Cas9 sgRNA design, CRISPR-Cas9 sgRNA Hibrary design, and genome editing. 55. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: + Allpairs are correctly matched (ESISCORE56. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: ‘Supplementary notes: Chief Justice of India Impeachment Supreme Court [ERISCORE upplementary notes: Gas/oil fields Farzad B Gas Field is located in Persian Gulf under the control of Iran. India has plans to invest in the exploration of this oilfield, Baghjan Oil field is in Tinsukia district of Assam. Recently a massive fire engulfed the damaged Baghjan oil well in Assam. Ghawar Oil Field is located in Eastern Province, Saudi Arabia, owned and operated by state-owned Saudi Arameo. It is one of the largest conventional oil field in the world, and accounts for roughly a third of the cumulative oil production of Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is incorreet: Constitution provides for appointment of acting Chief Tustice As per Article 126, when the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason or absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint for the purpose. against Judges of Veeraswami Ramaswami was a judge of the Supreme Court of India and the first judge against whom removal proceedings were initiated in independent India. Another judge to face removal proceedings is Soumitra Sen of Calcutta High Court, proceedings against whom were initiated in Rajya Sabha on 17 August 2011. Another such motion was initiated against Chief Justice Dinakaran of Sikkim High Court who then resigned from his post. In an unprecedented move, seven opposition parties on April 20, 2018 submitted a notice to Rajya Sabha Chairman Venkaiah Naidu requesting impeachment proceedings against Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra. He was the first Chief Justice of India against whom impeachment motion had been moved, 57. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Both statement are correct Supplementary notes: Flash Drought + A flash drought is the rapid onset or intensification of drought and is set in motion by lower-than-normal rates of precipitation (lower than normal monsoonal rate in India), accompanied by abnormally high temperatures, winds, and radiation. Together, these changes in weather can rapidly alter the local climate. © What makes flash drought unique from conventional drought development is a lack of rainfall coupled with increased evapotranspiration. 2 Evapotranspiration is the combination of evaporation from the land surface and transpiration from vegetation. Both of these processes act to transfer water from the land surface to the atmosphere. 2 These processes are critical in flash drought development, as enhanced evapotranspiration with a lack of rainfallcanquicklydepletesoilmoisture and lead to devastating impacts on agriculture and ecosystems 2 The highest frequency of flash drought occurrence were primarily found within the tropies and subtropies, 2 These include a large portion of Brazil, the Sahel, the Great Rift Valley and India, with composite flash drought occurrence within the 36-year time period (1980-2015) of analysis, © Additional areas within the tropies that had lesser, but notable flash Arought occurrence included central Mexico, the Indochinese Peninsula, and northern Australia © In the mid-latitudes, local hotspots of flash drought occurrence (10-20 per cent) exist across the central United States, Therian Peninsula, Asia Minor, southwesternRussia, andnortheastern China. ¢ Flash droughtsin India pose challenges for water management during the summer monsoon, PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04@ About 10-15 per cent areas under cultivation of rice and maize were affected by flash droughts during the monsoon seasons in India between 1951 and 2018. 58. Correct Option: (4) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorreet: It laid down the provisions for equality and liberty for all the people of India. However, it did not contain the provisions for ‘fraternity’ Subsequently, the drafting committee added the word fraternity (which was not present in the Objective Resolution) while formulating the Preamble, + Statement 2 is incorrect; Article 295 of Indian Constitution repeals The Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act, but not including the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949. Supplementary notes: Objectives Resolution + On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It enshrined the aspirations and values of the constitution- makers. This resolution was unanimously adopted on 22 January 1947 and it became the Preamble to the Constitution. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. * The purpose of the resolution was to ‘proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution”, which ‘would secure “to all the people of India justice, social, economie and_political: equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought. expression, belief, faith worship, vocation, association and action", among other goals. + The Drafting Committee headed by BR Ambedkar felt that the Preamble should be restricted to defining the essential features of the new State and its basic socio-political objectives and that the other matters dealt with in the resolution could be more appropriately provided for in the substantive parts of the Constitution. PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 * The Committee modified the content of the Objectives Resolution to formulate the Preamble. The Committee adopted the expression “Sovereign Demoeratie Republic” instead of “Sovereign Independent Republic’, as it considered independence to be implied in the word “Sovereign”. The Committee introduced a clause on “Fraternity” to emphasize upon the need for fraternal concord and goodwill in India, which was specifically greater than ever, after the Partition, 59. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) is an initiative of the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) Supplementary note: Association of Renewable Agencies of States Energy «Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal agency at the central level for promotion of grid-connected and off-grid renewable energy in the country. Ministry's programmes are implemented in lose coordination with State Nodal Agencies (SNAs) for renewable energy Ep) © Over the period the SNAs have developed considerable knowledge and experience in planning and implementation of RE programmes. For SNAs to interact and learn from each other's experiences and also share their best practices and knowledge regarding technologies and schemes/programmes, MNRE took an initiative in this regard in consultation with SNAs, and Association of Renewable Energy Agencies of States (AREAS) was formed and registered as a society in 2014. 60. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: «Option (oi Supplementary notes: Pallavas + The Pallavas were one of the greatest dynasties of South India. They played significant role in the political, social and cultural history of South India. (ESISCOREOrigin of the Pallavas + There are many views regarding the origin of the Pallavas. B.L. Rice and others identified the Pallavas with Pahlavas or Parthians. But there is no evidence for the migration of the Parthians into the South. Many others have sought to connect them with Jaffna, identified with the island of Manipallavam mentioned in the Manimekalai. According to them the Pallavas were descended on one side from the Cholas and on the other from the Naga rulers of the Jaffna. + KPJayaswal argues that the Pallavas ‘belonged to the Clan of the Vakatakas as both of them belong to same gotra, + SK. Aiyangar states that the Pallavas were a family of feudatories of the Satavahanas. This theory has been accepted by many of the historians. He argued that the Pallavas migrated to Tamil Countzy from the southern parts of Satavahana Empire © Griffon Vulture - Least Concern @ Indian Vulture Critically Endangered Himalayan Vulture + = Near Threatened ¢ Bearded Vulture - Near Threatened © Slender-Billed Vulture - Critically Endangered © White-Rumped Vulture - Critically Endangered © Cinereons Vulture - Near Threatened © Egyptian Vulture - Endangered @ Ret-Headed Vulture - Critically Endangered + Diclofenac is toxie to vultures even in small doses, causing kidney failure. That results in uric acid accumulating in the birds’ blood and erystallizing around their internal organs, + The Pallavas used Prakrit and Sansinit, | 69, Correct Option: (a) in their inscriptions, patronized Brahmanism and their inseriptions have been found both in Tamil and Andhra region. All the early documents are in Prakrit, and scholars find similarities in paleography and language with the Satavahanas and the Mauryas. Their early coins are said to be similar to those of Satavahanas, + In the ancient Tamil literature they are mentioned as non-Tamils. It is thus evident that the Pallavas were originally the rulers of the Andhra region. After the end of the Satavahana rule, the Pallavas asserted not only independence but also moved to Tondamandalam and settled there. From this region they extended their sway over the entire Dravida country with Kanchi as their capital, 61. Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: Of 16 species of vultures, 9 are found in India. + Statement 2 is incorrect; Most species of Vultures found in India are Endangered or critically endangered, Vultures in India + Of 16 species of vultures, 9 are found in. India. These are: [ESISCORE Bl Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorreet: Public goods have positive externalities. * Statement 3 is incorrect: In some cases, markets also can produce public goods. Supplementary notes: Public Good * A public good refers to a commodity or service that is made available to all members of a society. Typically, these services are administered by governments and paid for collectively through taxation. + Examples of public goods include law enforeement, national defense, and the rule of law. Public goods also refer to more basic goods, such as access to clean air and drinking water. + A public good has two key characteristics: it is nonexeludable and nonrivalrous. These characteristics make it difficult for market producers to sell the good to individual consumers. + Nonexcludable means that it is costly or impossible for one user to exclude others from using a good, + Nonrivalrous means that when one person uses a good, it does not prevent others from using it. PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04* Positive externalities and public goods are closely related concepts. Public goods have positive externalities. like police protection or public health funding. Not all goods and services with positive externalities, however, are publie goods. Investments in education have huge positive spillovers but can be provided by a private company. + Government spending and taxes are one way to provide public goods. but they're not the only way. In some cases, markets can produce public goods. + For example, radio. It is nonexcludable since once the radio signal is broadcast, it would be very difficult to stop someone from receiving it. It is also nonrivalrous since one person listening to the signal does not prevent others from listening as well. Because of these features, it is practically impossible to charge listeners directly for listening to conventional radio broadeasts. 63. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + — Option (a) is correct Supplementary notes: Plate Tectonics + Earth is made of different stratified layers basically known as Crust (upper layer), Mantle (middle layer) and Core (bottom layer). + Crustal layer can be classified into the following categorie: © Oceanic crust, also known as ‘Sima’ layer due to higher siliea and magnesium concentrations. These plates are at the bottom of the Ocean and are thinner than the Continental plates, Oceanie erusts are basaltic in nature, which is made of made of heavier minerals such as plagioclase feldspar, pyroxene ete, 64. © Continental Crust also known as ‘Sial layer due to the presence of silica and aluminium concentrations. They form the areas of mainland. Continental crusts are Andesitic in nature, which is made of lighter minerals such as magnetite, biotite ete. These minerals form lighter rocks such as diorite, gabbro, granite, ete, PTSEORBATOMTIOIB0BB/O4 + Based on their direetion of interaction, we have different boundazy regions and related outcomes, + Convergent boundary interaction are zones of high seismic and voleanie activity and are also known as destructive boundary interaction as one of the 2 crusts gets destroyed in this process, + In a Continental-Oceanie boundary convergence, the heavier oceanic plate, basaltic in nature, subducts under the Continental plate creating a subduction zone or Trench with high voleanic and seismic activity also known as Benioff zone of seismicity. + The deepest Mariana trench is formed due to subduction of Pacific plate beneath the small Mariana Plate in the Pacifie Ocean, + Pacific Ring of fire region is famous for its voleanic activity. It is because here subduction of Pacifie plate oceanic plate is taking place beneath Eurasian and American continental plates, + In an Oceanie-Oceanie boundary convergence, plate larger and heavier of the 2 plates subduets down the other and forms a long voleanie Island chain due to volcanism along the subduction zone. Aleutian Islands are examples of Islands formed through this type of plate boundary, + Ifboth converging plates are Continental in crust, no subduction activity takes place, + Continental crusts under thrusts each other i.e. forming the zone of double crust without any subduction, + Indian Continental plate underwent Eurasian Continental plate during their convergent boundary interaction and formed Himalayan mountain ranges which is a zone of high seismicity Correct Option: (d) Explanation: + Allstatements are correct Supplementary notes: Partition of India + Partition was inevitable due to the Iong- ‘term failure to draw the Muslim masses into the national movement. (ESISCORE[ERISCORE + The partition reflects the suecess-failure dichotomy of the Congress-led anti- imperialist movement. | The Congress had a two-fold task—{i) structuring diverse classes, communities, groups and regions into a nation, and (i) securing independence for this nation, While the Congress succeeded in building up sufficient national consciousness to exert pressure on the British to quit India, it failed to complete the task of welding the nation, especially in integrating the ‘Muslims into the nation, + Onlyanimmediate transfer of power could forestall the spread of ‘direct action’ and communal violence. The virtual collapse of the Interim Government also made the notion of Pakistan appear unavoidable. © Acceptance of partition by the Congress was only a final act of the process of step-by-step concessions to the League’s championing of a separate Muslim state. © During Cripps Mission (1942), autonomy ofMuslim majority provinces was accepted. ¢ During Gandhi-Jinnah talks (1944), Gandhi accepted the right of self determination of Muslim-majority provinces, After the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) Congress conceded the possibility of Muslim majority provinces setting up a separate constituent assembly. Later, the Congress accepted, without demur, that grouping was compulsory December 1946). e Official reference to Pakistan came in March 1947, when CWC resolution stated that Punjab (and by implication, Bengal) must be partitioned if the country was divided. @ With the 3% June Plan, Congress accepted partition, 65. Correct Option: (b) Explanation: «Statement Lis incorrect: Sattva, rajas and tamasare the three Gunas, according to the Samkhya School ‘Supplementary notes: Samkhya School Samkhya is commonly regarded as one of the six classical philosophies based on the Upanishads of Hindu religious thoughts. It is derived from root: sam (reckoning) and prefix: khya (together). Literally, Samkhya meant to be summed up, enumeration, calculation, ete. Several scholars like Rishi Kapila have illuminated their views on the evolution of the Samkhya school of thought. The Svetasvatara Upanishad (4 to 6 BCE) refers to the concept of Samkhya as Prakriti, Purusha, and three Gunas assimilates with the idea of supreme God. The theory of the “Samkhya School of philosophy” is concerned with the transformation (Parinama) of _ the unmanifested (Prakriti) state into a phenomenal world, This process is made possible by three qualities (Gunas) of primitive nature. The S4_Khya Philosophy advocates three gunas of Prak ti, These are; Sattva, rajas and tamas, Prakrti is a state of equilibrium of these three gunas. The word ‘guna’ is understood here as quality or attribute @ Sattva: Sattva is that element of Prak ti which is of the nature of pleasure, light (aghu) and bright or illuminating (prakasaka).Thetendency towards conscious manifestation in the senses, the mind and the intellect: the luminosity of light and the power of reflection in a mirror or crystal are all due to the operation of the element of Sattva in the constitution of 5 things For example, blazing up a fire, upward curse of vapour ete, Sattva is believed to be white, © Rajas: Rajas is the principle of activity in things. Its colour is red. It is active because of its mobility and stimulation. It is also the nature of pain, For example, on account of rajas, fire spread; wind blows; the mind becomes restless, ete © Tamas: Tamas is the principle of passivity and negativity in things. Its colour is black, It is opposed to the Sattva guna because it is heavy laziness, drowsiness, It produces ignorance and darkness and leads to confusion and bewilderment. Sattva, Rajas, and Tamas contradict as well as cooperate among each other to produce an object. These three gunas are present in all the objects of the world. PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04Purusa Evolution None of them exist alone, Among them each guna tries to dominate the other two. Hence, they can't exist in a tranquility state. As a result, they can't remain pure for a single moment. Since they are changing continuously. distortion is their nature. There are two types of transformations occur in the gunas. These are, ‘svarupa’ and ‘virupa’. Samkhya philosophy brings mutual interaction between Purusha and Prakriti, As long as the three gunas are in equilibrium, the Prakriti of an individual remains unmanifested. While the equilibrium state of three gunas is disturbed, Prakriti comes approximately into Purusha, leading to the manifested state from the unmanifested state According to the 84 khya Philosophy, Purusa or selfis an eternal reality. Purusa is the self, subject and knower. It never be an object because, the existence of objects can be proved in some ways whereas, non-existence can’t be proved in anyways, Purusa is neither the body, nor the mind (manas), neither ego (aha kaara) nor intellect (buddhi). It is not the substance which hasthe quality of consciousness. Itis itself pure-consciousness. It is the basis of all knowledge and is the supreme knower. It can't be the object of knowledge. It is the observer, eternally free, the impartial spectator and peaceful. It is beyond the space-time continuum, change, and activity. It is the self-enlightened, self proved and hence, eausasui, Tt is all pervading, formless, and eternal. Its existence can't be doubted because in its absence, all knowledge even doubt is not possible. It has been described as, devoid of three gunas, negative, inactive, solitary witness, observer, knower and of the nature of illumination. According to Sa khya Philosophy, the purusa is of the nature of pure consciousness and hence beyond the limits of Prakriti, It is free from distortions. Its objects changes but it itself never changes. It is above selfarrogance, aversion and attachment, ‘The world and worldly objects are created because of the contact between Prakriti and Purusa. The Prakriti alone can't create the world because it is material. In PTS202/A10MT/012022/04 the same manner the Purusa can't create the world independently because he is inactive + Hence, the eontaet between Prakriti and Purusa is necessary for the evolution to start though they are possessing different and opposite natures 66. Correct Option: (d) Explanation: + Statement Lis incorreet: Carbon credit is a process in which a company buys permit to emit carbon in advance. + Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon tax is a tax levied on firms that produce carbon, dioxide (CO2) through their operations. Supplementary note: Carbon tax, offsetting and credit * Carbon tax is a tax levied on firms that produce carbon dioxide (CO2) through their operations. + A carbon offset is a reduction or removal of emissions of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases made in order to compensate for emissions made elsewhere, + A carbon credit is a kind of permit that represents 1 ton of carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere. They can be purchased by an individual or, more commonly, a company to make up for carbon dioxide emissions that come from industrial production, delivery vehicles or travel, 67. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 1 is incorrect: The doctrine of judicial review originates in United States, + Statement 2 is incorrect: The power of judicial review is explicit in Constitution. Supplementary notes: Power of Judicial Review © There was no specific provision of the Judicial Review in Government of India Act, 1935 and the constitutional problems arising before the court necessitated the adoption of Judicial Review in a wider perspective. Thus, Constitution of India, (ESISCORE[ERISCORE 1950 explicitly establishes the Doctrine of Judicial Review under various Artieles 13, 82,181-136,143,226,227, 245, 246, and + Inthearticle 13 of the Indian constitution, the law explicitly mentioned about the power of Judicial Review to be endowed to the high court and Supreme Court. Chief Justice Kania in the landmark case of AK.Gopalan vs. State of Madras AIR 1950, stated that “it was only through caution and care that the framers of our constitution added the specific provisions ‘mentioned in Art 13, + The doctrine of Judicial Review was adapted by Indian from USA. In USA, initially there was no specific provision regarding the doctrine but in the historie case of Marbury vs. Madison 5 U.S. 137 [1803], it was stated that, “Certainly all those who framed written constitutions contemplated them as forming the fundamental law of the nation and consequently the theory of every such government must be that an act of the legislature repugnant to the constitution is void... It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is". In India, this doctrine was practiced even before the birth of constitution in the federal courts, 68. Correct Option: (a) Explanation: + Statement 2 is incorrect: The provisions of the Liaquat-Nehru Pact did not contain any acquisition of territories to rehabilitate people. ‘Supplementary notes: Delhi Pact on Minorities + To resolve the problems of refugees and restore communal peace in the two countries, especially in Bengal (East Pakistan as well as West Bengal), the Indian prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru and the Pakistani prime minister, Liaquat Ali Khan, signed an agreement on April 8, 1950. + The agreement, known as the Delhi Paet on Minorities or Liaquat-Nehru. Pact, envisaged the appointment of ministers from minority communities in both Pakistan and India at both central and provincial levels 69. * Under the pact, minority commissions were to be set up. together with the Commissions of Inquiry to look into the probable causes behind the communal riots on both sides of border (in Bengal), and to recommend steps to prevent recurrence of such incidents. + Under the pact, India and Pakistan also agreed to include representatives of the minority community in the cabinets of East Pakistan and West Bengal and decided to depute two central ministers, one from each government, to remain in the affected regions for such period as might be necessary. + The pact provided for the creation of an agency entrusted with the task of recovering and rehabilitating ‘abducted women (the idea was criticised by many scholars) + The idea to encourage refugees to return, to their original homes failed, because the two governments failed to restore confidence among the refugees. Further, the properties of the refugees were declared as enemy property. + The provisions of the Liaquat-Nebru Pact were severely criticised by Hindu nationalists like Shyama Prasad Mookherjee and K.C. Neogy. Mookherjee resigned from the Nehrucabinetin protest, as he believed that the refugee problem could only be solved through a transfer of population and acquisition of certain territories from Pakistan to rehabilitate the people who came into India, Correct Option: (c) Explanation: + Bis incorrect: Although mitochondria are the major site for the production of ATP in Eukaryotic cells, the breakdown, of Glucose occurs in the cytoplasm by the process called Glycolysis. Also, ATP is produced during the glycolysis in almost all cells, and in the chloroplast in the case of photosynthetic cells (algae and plant cells, ete.) Supplementary notes Sub-cellular sites for the breakdown of Glucose and sites for ATP production + Breakdown of glucose (the most common, source of cellular energy) oceurs within the cytoplasm, the process is called PTS2022/ATOMT/012022/04