B787 JAA Study Guide Rev 1 1 15aug2011

JAA Study Guide
B787-8
Aircraft General & Systems

Document Information: JAA Study Guide 787 Aircraft General & Systems
Original Release Date Contract or CDRL Number (if required)

15 Jun 2011
Limitations
Authorization for Release
AUTHOR: James L Cheetham TY-ZM-ZG50 15 Jun 2011

First Name MI Last Name Org. Number Date
APPROVAL: Brod Larkman TY-ZM-ZG50 15 Jun 2011

First Name MI Last Name Org. Number Date
DOCUMENT RELEASE:
Org. Number Date
Copyright © 2011 Boeing. All rights reserved.
Revision Record
Revision/date Summary
Rev 0.0
Initial Issue - JAA Study Guide 787 Aircraft General & Systems.
22Mar2011
Rev 1.0
Revised prior to evaluation course.
01Jun2011
Rev 1.1 Revised subsequent to evaluation course.

15Aug2011
JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 1 of 60

AIRPLANE GENERAL FCOM CHAPTER 1
1. What is the minimum width of pavement needed for 180 degree turn?
2. To ensure obstacle clearance while taxiing in a turn:
a. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the wingtip?

b. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the nose?
3. What is the maximum steering angle when using the tillers?
4. What is the maximum steering angle when using the rudders?
5. When and how can the flight deck overhead door be opened?
6. What is used to emergency egress through the flight deck overhead door?
7. When is the flight deck overhead vent door used? How is it opened?
8. Which cockpit windows can be opened?

COMMON COMPUTING SYSTEM (CCS) FCOM CHAPTER 1
1. How many units comprise the CCS?
2. Are there any controls or indications associated with the normal operation of
the CCS?
3. Loss of all displays is an indication of the failure of what system?
4. Where would you find the LOSS OF ALL DISPLAYS checklist?
5. Can the CCRs be restarted in flight? If so, how long does a restart cycle
take?
6. If the CCRs do not restart, what two system failures will affect operational
performance of the flight?
7. If only the battery power is selected ON for airplane start-up, which CCR
powers up?
8. How long does it take to power up?
9. If the CCR is in the middle of its start up sequence on battery power, and
external power becomes AVAILABLE, what happens to the CCR start up
sequence?
10. With forward external power AVAILABLE and with the Battery switch OFF,
which CCRs begin the start-up sequence and for how long?
11. What is the cockpit indication when both CCRs are on-line?

12. With a normal battery start up sequence and then external power becomes
AVAILABLE, what happens to the left CCR?
a. How long does the right CCR take to come online?

LIGHTING FCOM CHAPTER 1
1. Which lights illuminate when STORM lights are selected ON?
2. Lighting Controls:
a. Which individual lighting controls operate with the Master Brightness
control system?
b. Are the individual controls still effective when the Master Brightness
system is working?
3. If normal electrical power is lost, which lighting continues to operate?
4. When the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign is at AUTO, list the conditions which
would illuminate the sign.
EMERGENCY LIGHTING FCOM CHAPTER 1
1. From where are the Emergency lights powered?
2. For how long will a fully charged emergency lights system operate?
3. If you see the EMER LIGHTS EICAS advisory message, what does this
mean?
4. Why is the EMER LIGHTS switch put to OFF before electrical power is
removed?
5. Emergency lights are ARMED, and doors selected to AUTOMATIC mode.

What happens when a door handle is moved to the OPEN position?

OXYGEN FCOM CHAPTER 1
1. How many oxygen systems are fitted to the aircraft?
2. Where are crew oxygen pressures displayed?
3. What causes the passenger masks to be released:

a. manually?
b. automatically?
4. Where is the passenger oxygen switch?
5. Describe the passenger oxygen system. How long will it last once operated?
6. Describe the flight deck oxygen mask arrangement. Is it a single unit face
mask?
7. How can the boom microphone be reselected and the oxygen flow to the
mask shut off after use?

8. How is oxygen flow indicated on the crew oxygen stowage box?
9. Describe how Flight Crew Oxygen is tested and set.

AIR SYSTEMS FCOM CHAPTER 2
1. Air is supplied to the cabin air compressors from what outside source? State
the location of this source.
2. How many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) are there?
3. The aeroplane is divided into a number of temperature zones, one of which

is the flight deck. How many are there in total, and where are they situated?
4. How many CACs run when on the ground using the APU as the power
source? What happens to them when during cold weather conditions?
5. During engine start, the CACS are commanded OFF and PACK L and PACK R
show. How soon after engine start do the packs re-start?
6. If both engines have been started together, when should the packs re-start?
7. It may be possible to draw fresh, unpressurised air into the aeroplane. If so,
under what circumstances?

8. Describe how the trim valves function as cabin zone temperature regulators.
Which temperature zone controls the pack outlet temperature?
9. How many trim air systems are there? Are there any manual controls?
Describe how they supply the flight deck and cabin.
10. During the landing phase, what happens in relation to the airflow going to
the CACs?
Why might this be? It may also take place on the ground, dependent on what
conditions being met?
11. There are a number of Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) on board. How many
CACs feed each pack? What happens if one of the CACs fail?
12. If, in flight the EICAS advisory message PACK L {or} R appears, the first
action is to consult the Electronic Checklist. From your systems knowledge of
the aeroplane, how might the system be restored?
13. For certain malfunctions the packs have a built-in redundancy which
automatically provides continued service. How does this redundancy operate
and in what mode? How will the aeroplane inform the crew what is taking
place? The system is 'intelligent'. In this degraded mode, how does it adapt
to high ambient temperatures and low altitudes?
14. Concerning air distribution, 'who' receives 100% conditioned outside air
under normal operation and what do the 'rest' get? Under what
circumstances is this not the case for the 100% conditioned air supply?
15. Why is the air pressure supplied to the flight deck higher than that supplied
to the cabin?
16. Air exhausted from the cabin flows into the upper recirculation system or
into the lower deck. From the lower deck it either goes overboard or into the
lower recirculation system. What happens to it there?

17. Engine bleed air is used less on the B787 than for other similar aeroplane
types. What services does it supply on the B787?
18. Describe how the Forward Cargo compartment can be temperature

controlled. Does this also apply to the Bulk Cargo hold? There are number of
possible heated air sources for the Bulk cargo compartment, name them.
19. Should live animals be carried in the Aft Cargo compartment? If not, why
not?
20. Two supply fans drive the airflow for forward equipment cooling. After the
air has completed its cooling function it reaches two possible destinations.
Name them.
21. When the forward equipment cooling system goes into OVERRIDE mode.
Where does the airflow from the supply fans for forward equipment cooling
go to?
22. What happens to the forward equipment cooling. Is it still effective? Is it

limited in any way?
23. The aft equipment cooling system operates similarly to the forward system.
Is there any difference in the systems? What is a heat sink?
24. What is the function of Integrated Cooling System (ICS)? It's operation is
generally automatic.? Can it be disabled by the flight crew? If so, how?
25. What is the function of the Miscellaneous Cooling System? It's operation is
generally automatic. Can it be disabled by the flight crew? If so, how?
26. What is the function of the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)? Where
is it mostly located? Does it interact with any other cooling system?

27. How does the Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) get its information for
the pressurization schedule for its various modes? What are the three
modes?
28. What is the maximum cabin altitude normally in the cruise? On initiating
descent mode cabin altitude decreases to slightly below the planned landing
altitude, so the aircraft lands pressurized. Where does the system obtain its
barometric reference for any corrections?
29. If the landing altitude information is not available in the normal way, is there
any other method of setting it? The EICAS shows [] LANDING ALTITUDE. If
this is ignored and no action taken, what cabin altitude will the controller
default to?
30. If it is a requirement for an Outflow Valve to be moved to the FULLY OPEN

or CLOSED position and the EICAS valve position indication is not available
for any reason. Select MAN on the desired outflow valve switch and hold the
centre-loaded switch to OPEN or CLOSE. For how long should be held in
position to ensure full desired deflection of the valve?
31. Engine bleed air is used less on the B787 than for other similar aeroplane
types. What services does it supply on the B787?
32. List as many of the circumstances under which the engine anti-ice valve
closes automatically, other than during normal AUTO operation, as you can:
Start you off – 1. During engine start.
2…..?

ANTI-ICE FCOM CHAPTER 3
1. Describe the automatic ice detection system on the 787. Is it available on

the ground? What limitations apply?
2. When is power applied to:

a. the probes and,
b. the icing condition detectors?
3. Describe the window heat system on the aircraft. When is window heat
applied? Which windows have backup antifogging?
4. The packs ram air inlets for the cabin air compressors could be prone to
icing. How are they protected? Describe the system and any limitations.
5. Which anti-ice systems are controlled by automatic ice detection?
6. Describe the engine anti-ice system on the 787. Can it be used on the
ground? If so, what limitations apply?
7. Describe the wing anti-ice system on the 787. Can it be used on the ground?
If so, what limitations apply?
8. What is the cockpit indication when engine anti-ice is operating? Are there
any possible associated EICAS messages? If so, review.
9. What is the cockpit indication when wing anti-ice is operating? Are there any
possible associated EICAS messages? If so, review.

10. What happens to the engine idle setting when engine anti-ice is turned on?
11. If there is a leak in the engine anti-ice system:

a. how is it detected?
b. what is the automatic action?
c. what is the indication?

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT FCOM CHAPTER 4
1. When the FMC (VNAV) controls the speed, what does the IAS/MACH window
display?
2. In addition to the MCP Heading window; where else is Selected Heading

displayed?
3. What is the effect of:

a. First push of A/P disengage switch?
b. Second push?
4. List the methods of disconnecting the A/T.
5. When does HOLD mode engage during take-off?
6. To which AFDS modes does the bank limit selector apply?
7. In the Flight Level Change (FLCH) mode, what will be the mode
annunciations for A/T and pitch during:
a. Climb?
b. Descent?
8. Can the IAS/MACH window display a speed when VNAV is engaged?

9. When are FLARE and ROLLOUT engaged?
10. Until what point does ROLLOUT mode provide guidance?
11. How can APP mode be disengaged in the following situations:

a. Before LOC or G/S capture.
b. LOC captured G/S armed.
c. G/S captured LOC armed.
d. LOC and G/S captured.
12. In VNAV which altitude will the AFDS capture during climb or descent; the
one selected in the MCP ALT window or FMS target altitude?
13. If armed, at what height will VNAV engage during take-off?
14. During a VNAV climb, the aircraft levels off at an intermediate altitude which
has been selected on the MCP. What will the FMA pitch mode annunciation
be?

15. Complete the HUD/PFD FMA table.
A/T ROLL PITCH

Thrust Set THR REF TO/GA TO/GA
80kts
50ft
400ft
Acc Alt
Level off
(VNAV)
FLCH Climb
V/S Climb
Level off ( from

FLCH or V/S)
16. What is the maximum localiser intercept angle?
17. What does a green box around an FMA mode mean?
18. What do the FD bars command at:

a. Take-off prior to 80 knots
b. Lift-off
19. How are FD pitch commands during take-off affected by engine failure?
20. What does the Vertical Speed window display on V/S engagement?
21. What is the range of the V/S selector?
22. How is a 'Cruise Climb' initiated? How do the FMC page titles change?
23. When is the ALIGN manoeuvre commenced?

24. What heading does the AFDS command when the following modes are
engaged?
a. Heading Select.
b. Heading Hold.
25. What indication does Altitude Alert provide during

a. Approach to selected altitude?
b. Deviation from selected altitude?
26. When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?
27. Can the IAS/MACH window display a speed when VNAV is engaged?
28. Which mode is used to turn to the route intercept heading with an autopilot
in CMD?
29. On a Go-Around what effect does a second push of the TO/GA switch have?
30. What is the difference between THR and THR REF references?

COMMUNICATIONS FCOM CHAPTER 5
1. How many Transmitter selector switches on an Audio Control Panel (ACP) can
be selected at any one time?

2. If a transmitter button is selected, is it necessary to select the associated
receiver button/volume control in order to hear the audio?
3. State the required steps to transmit/receive on VHF R from the Captains

(left) Radio Tuning Panel and Audio Control Panel, and at the same time
monitor audio signals from VHF C.
4. If the offside tuning light of a Radio Tuning Panel is illuminated, what does it
mean?
5. Give the two methods of initiating calls with a selected cabin station.
6. How are the flight crew alerted to an incoming call from:-

a. VHF/HF Selcal.
b. Ground Crew.
c. Cabin Crew.
7. During flight, the ‘RADIO TRANSMIT’ EICAS advisory message appears. What
has happened?
8. On which systems does the V.B.R switch have any effect?
9. How could you change the Centre VHF mode from voice to data?
10. How can a priority call be made to a designated cabin station?
11. What MIC settings must be selected to enable the flight attendants to
communicate through SATCOM during a medical emergency?
12. Which ACP is prohibited to be used for SATCOM communications?
13. Where is the display of the frequency that is being transmitted on shown?

ELECTRICS FCOM 6
1. Describe this panel set up during the Preflight scan.
2. What are the electrical power sources?
3. What are the two distinct power distribution methods?
4. What is an RPDU?
a. How many are there?
b. What amperage loads do the RPDUs distribute?
5. How many main 235 Vac power system buses are there?
a. How are they designated?

6. How do the generators power these main 235 Vac buses with both engines
online?
a. With one engine running and the APU online?
b. With external power online?
7. On the ground with only forward external power selected, what powers the
115 Vac bus?
8. With the engines or APU running what powers the 115 Vac bus?
9. What unit replaces the traditional transformer rectifier and the inverter?
10. What power sources can the aircraft use for engine starts?
11. Aft external power can only be used to assist a start for which engine?
12. How many starters are needed to start the APU?
13. How many starters are needed to start an engine?
14. Are both APU generators required to maintain the electrical loads in-flight? If
not, what determines which generators to use?
15. What are the primary and backup power sources for the airplane brakes?
16. On which side of the aircraft are the external power receptacles located?
17. How many external ground sources are required to energize the ‘Ground
Handling Mode’?
18. In flight, when will the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) generator automatically deploy?
19. Which cockpit displays are powered during RAT operation?

20. What major systems are not available on ‘In-Air RAT Only’ mode (Standby
Power)?
21. What equipment is energized in the ‘In-Air Battery Only’ mode (Standby
Power)
22. How is load shedding determined by the Bus Power Control Unit?
23. How can load shedding be monitored in the aircraft?
24. What does the main battery power directly?
25. What does the APU battery power on the ground?
26. What are the primary and backup power sources for the flight control
computers?
27. How can the Circuit Breakers be accessed in the aircraft?
28. What is the maximum number of load shed items that can be displayed on the
Electrical Synoptic?
29. When items are load shed, what two text changes on their respective synoptic
indicates load shedding?
30. Does Ground Handling mode have priority over ‘On-Ground Battery Only’
mode?
31. Does ‘Ground Handling mode need an external power supply on?
32. Can thermal circuit breakers (TCB) be reset from the flight deck?
33. What is the difference between load shed and load inhibit?

ENGINES FCOM CHAPTER 7
1. Can the engines be manually started?
2. What parameters are monitored during Autostart?
3. How many attempts with the autostart system make for the GE engines?
4. For what conditions will the autostart NOT attempt a second start?
5. How many autostart attempts are made for an inflight restart?
6. What two modes does the EEC provide?
7. What protection is lost when the EEC is in the ALTN (Alternate) mode?
8. When do the EECs set Approach Idle in flight?
9. What mark on the N2 gauge indicates the RPM where the engine can maintain
self-sustained running operation?
10. For how long is the ‘RUNNING’ indication displayed?
11. What condition creates the AUTORELIGHT starting mode?
12. During an in-flight engine start, with speed below that for a windmilling start,
describe the indication that is displayed if starter assist is required.
13. What does the Fuel Control switch control?

14. What alert is displayed on the HUD (in green) and PFD (in red) if actual thrust
is less than commanded thrust during takeoff?
a. What is the airspeed range that this alert is active?
15. If the overspeed protection fails, what do the EECs command the engine to
do?
16. If Thrust Ramping is fitted, it will occur due to what environmental factor?
17. If the EECs are compensating for Thrust Ramping, if fitted, maximum takeoff
thrust may not be set until as late as what airspeed?
18. What protection does Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation provide for?
19. What system provides this protection and controls its function?
20. Is Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) available in both EEC modes?
21. What would the TAP system do if there is a large thrust to weight ratio on the
remaining engine on takeoff or go-around?
22. Will climb performance still be maintained?
23. When TAP is in effect, what indication is displayed on the EICAS?

a. If TAP is inoperative, will there be any indication?
24. Where is the reverser position indication displayed?

a. What does amber REV indicate?
b. What does green REV indicate?
25. How is the reference N1 displayed?
26. How and where is the thrust reference mode displayed?

27. What powers the Thrust Reversers?
28. Why are the thrust levers moved to the mid position before selecting Alternate
Mode on the EEC? What indication is there on EICAS?
29. How can an EGT exceedance be recalled?
30. Describe AutoRelight.

APU FCOM CHAPTER 7
1. During an APU battery start, which starter is used?

a. How many start attempts are tried?
b. Is then any cooling time between the start attempts, if so, how long?
2. Are both batteries required for APU start? If so, what does the Main battery
power?
3. What does the APU battery power?
4. When starting the APU from an unpowered airplane, what must the APU
controller wait for before proceeding with the APU start?
a. Why does it have to wait?
b. For how long does it have to wait?
5. If an APU start fails, will an EICAS message display?
6. If AC power is not available for APU start what is the source for the APU fuel?
7. Once AC power is available, which pump supplies fuel pressure to the APU?
8. What is the ceiling limit for operation of the APU?

a. What is the altitude that the APU is designed to start with no fuel
pumps operating?
9. When does the APU automatically start? In this situation what is the only valid
way to shut down the APU?
10. In the Attended mode, what faults will cause automatic shutdown of the APU?
11. What faults cause the APU to shutdown in the Unattended mode?
12. Is there a cool-down period for these automatic shutdowns?

13. For which faults will the APU continue to run while an EICAS caution message
is displayed.
14. Inflight with an APU fire, will the APU fire bottle automatically discharge?
15. With no AC power available what supplies fuel pressure for the APU?
16. What indication is given when the APU is running?
17. When does the APU cool down timing begin?

a. How long is the cool-down period?
b. Is there any warning, advisory or memo item on EICAS?
c. What happens at the end of the cool-down period to accomplish final
shutdown?

FIRE PROTECTION FCOM CHAPTER 8
1. Engine Fire Detection:

a. How many fire detection loops does each engine have?
b. How many detectors must sense a fire or overheat to produce an alert?
c. If a fault is detected in one loop, will a fire or overheat still be
detected?
d. What does an EICAS message DET FIRE ENG ( L or R ) indicate?
2. Engine Fire Indications:

a. What are the indications of a left engine fire?
b. What are the indications of a left engine overheat?
3. In flight, what conditions will unlock an Engine Fire Switch?
4. Engine Fire Extinguisher Bottles:

a. How many engine fire extinguisher bottles does each engine have?
b. What indications are given if the engine fire bottle is discharged or has
low pressure?
5. APU Fire detected on the ground with both engines shut down:
a. Will the APU shut down automatically for a fire?
b. Will the fire bottle discharge automatically?
6. Where is the APU ground control fire protection panel located?
7. Wheel Well Fire:

a. Which areas are covered by the wheel well fire protection?
b. What does the system consist of?
8. Cargo Fire:
a. What are the indications of a cargo fire?
b. How many cargo compartment fire extinguisher bottles are there?
c. How is fire extinguishing initiated?
d. How many bottles are discharged first and how is this indicated?
e. When do the remaining bottles discharge if in the air?
f. Is this always the case?

10. What is the effect when a CARGO FIRE ARM switch is selected to ARM?
11. What happens when the engine fire switch is pulled out?
12. How many fire detection loops are there for the APU?
13. In flight an APU fire signal causes the APU to shutdown immediately.
a. What happens after that?
b. Is there any delay?
c. If so, why?
14. What is the effect when a CARGO FIRE ARM switch is selected to ARM?
15. Cargo Fire:

a. How many fire compartment fire extinguisher bottles are there?
b. How is the fire extinguishing initiated?
c. How many bottles are discharged first and how is this indicated?
d. When do the remaining bottles discharge if in the air?
e. Is this always the case?
16. If the wrong CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed, can it be deselected to
enable the correct switch to be pushed?
17. What is the effect if a CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch is pushed whilst on the
ground?
18. What indications are seen when the first two extinguisher bottles begin to
discharge?
19. What fire protection does the main wheel well have?

FLIGHT CONTROLS FCOM CHAPTER 9
1. In the event of loss of all hydraulic power what flight controls are available?
2. In the event of a complete loss of flight control signalling – loss of all input to
the primary flight control computers – what flight controls are available?
3. Through what mechanism is that flight control available? When is primary

pitch trim inhibited?
4. Which has priority over the other: primary or alternate pitch trim?
5. On the ground moving the pitch trim (primary or alternate) moves which flight
control surface?
6. In the air in normal mode, moving the pitch trim changes what?
7. Identify the power sources for the horizontal stabilizer?
8. In the air in secondary or direct mode, moving the pitch trim directly moves
what control surface?
9. In which Flight Control mode(s) is Flight Envelope Protection available? What

will cause the flight control system to automatically revert to the secondary
mode?
10. Can the pilot select secondary mode manually?

11. In secondary mode, what type of commands do the 3 Primary Flight
Computers (PFCs) compute to generate flight control surface commands?
a. Are the ACEs fully functional?
b. What functions are not available?
12. How can the flight control mode be selected to direct mode?
a. What functions are available in the direct mode?
13. What flight control function no longer works when direct mode is manually
selected?
14. In normal mode when the pitch trim is moved, what flight control surface is
actually moved?
15. If the stabilizer is manually shut down or has failed, what does movement of
the pitch trim cause?
16. How and where is the stabilizer position indicated to the crew?
a. When does this indication disappear?
b. What causes the STAB GREENBAND EICAS advisory message to be
displayed?
c. What does the stabilizer greenband compare for the correct stab trim?
d. What is the default range of the stab greenband?
17. When is stall protection not available?

a. Is the pilot aware of an active stall protection input?
b. How does the stall protection system operate?
18. What system does the 787 use to control yaw due to loss of thrust?
a. On the runway?
b. In fligh t?
19. In flight in normal mode, what does movement of the rudder pedals
command?
20. On the ground above 60 kts, how does the flight control system attempt to
maintain a yaw rate near zero?

21. In flight, how does the flight control system attempt to maintain a zero roll
rate and sideslip?
22. After an initial input how does the flight control system offload any steady
state lateral control inputs?
23. What is the Wheel to Rudder Cross-Tie and when is it available?
24. Gust Suppression is available in which planes of movement?

a. In which flight control modes is Gust Suppression available?
b. When is Gust Suppression available?
25. Rudder Trim:

a. How many rudder trim rates are available?
b. When are any manual rudder trim inputs automatically zeroed?
c. On landing are the automatic and manual rudder trims zeroed out?
d. Where may rudder trim related information be displayed?
e. What form may these indications take?
f. Are there any EICAS indications? If so, what?
26. In secondary mode, rudder pedal deflection sends what command to the
rudder?
27. In normal mode, rudder pedal deflections command what manoeuvre?
28. What is the purpose of the Rudder Ratio Changer? In secondary and direct
modes the rudder ratio changer is based on what?
29. What is autodrag used for? When is it available?
30. Which controls surfaces are locked out at high speed?

a. Which spoilers do not lock out in flight?
b. Are all the spoiler pairs hydraulically controlled?
31. At which flap settings are the slats sequenced to move? When do they move
to the fully extended position?

32. When in primary control mode, when will Slat Autogap occur? What functions
is it based on?
33. In what situation does Slat Pregap operate? Describe what happens in relation
to airspeed and flap lever position.
34. What flap setting can be used for:

a. Autoland?
b. Takeof
35. When the speedbrakes are extended and forward thrust is commanded, what
happens to the spoilers and speedbrake handle?
a. When might you see the SPEEDBRAKES EXT message?
36. When the speedbrake is not in the ARMED position when will the spoilers
automatically extend?
37. What aircraft sensors cause the speedbrake handle to automatically drive aft
to the UP position when the system is armed?
38. Describe the Cruise Flaps function and how it affects in-flight performance.
a. Is any pilot action required?
b. What control surfaces are affected?
c. When is it available?
d. Are there any related EICAS messages?
39. At what airspeed and what altitude are flaps inhibited?
40. Under what conditions is Flap load relief available? Describe Flap Load Relief.
41. Slat load relief is available in what flight control mode?
42. How will the flaps be affected if the Centre Hydraulic System fails? How are
the flaps and slats positioned?
a. In the primary mode?
b. In the secondary mode?

43. Describe the normal slat and flap movement sequence from slats/flaps UP
through Flap 1 to Flap 30 and back to UP.
44. What failures can cause the flap and slat modes to engage in secondary
mode?
a. What is the EICAS indication for flap and slat secondary mode?
b. What is the change in the travel rate of the control surfaces?
c. What flap/slat protections are available in the secondary mode?
45. How are the Alternate Flaps/Slats powered?
46. In the Alternate mode of slat and flap operation:

a. What is the farthest extension available for Flaps? Slats?
b. Is the flap lever operative?
c. What flap/slat protection modes are available
47. Which hydraulic system(s) power the flight controls?
48. What do the following PFD flap indicator displays mean?

a. Flap selection number (and line) magenta?
b. Flap selection number (and line) green?

Requirements for Glass Cockpit Aircraft FCOM CHAPTER 10
1. Display Units:
a. How many Display Units (DUs) are there on the 787?
b. How many are MFDs?
c. List the primary groups of information displayed.
d. After power up the DUs are in a default configuration. Describe what’s
where.
e. What is described as the typical configuration for normal operations?
2. What do the following switches do when pushed?

a. The L and R switches on the DSP?
b. EICAS switch on the DSP?
c. CHKL switch on the DSP? If pushed twice?
d. CHKL switch on the MFK? If pushed twice?
e. ENG switch on the DSP?
3. In which ND modes are the following available?

a. Ground speed.
b. Wind speed/direction.
c. Heading up display.
d. North up display.
e. Step-through capability.
4. Describe how Alternate Control of the EFIS and/or DSP can be achieved.
5. First state how the following switches are accessed, normally and in
alternately control, then their function:
a. WXR.
b. STA.
c. WPT.
d. APRT.
e. DATA.
f. POS.

6. How and where on the PFD are the following displayed:
a. Selected airspeed?
b. Current airspeed?
c. Current mach?
d. The Mini-map?
7. When and where are the flap manoeuvring speeds displayed? When is the
pitch limit indication displayed?
8. What information can be shown on the AUX display?
9. When does vertical speed appear in digital form on the PFD and where is it
displayed?
10. What happens if the corners of the CCD are touched?
11. How are checklist steps that require crew confirmation (open loop)
distinguished from steps which are automatically checked by system inputs
(closed loop)?
12. Which colours are used for:

a. Incomplete checklist steps?
b. Completed steps?
c. Overridden or unnecessary steps?
13. What automatically resets the electronic Normal Checklist?
14. What is the VSD and where is it displayed? Which ND modes will it display in?
15. Where and when are the Navigation Performance Indications shown? Describe
the properties of the Navigation Performance scale, its appearance and how
that may change.
16. What is an 'Unannunciated checklist'?

17. What does “TIME TO ALIGN/XXXX” on the NDs indicate?
18. Where is the tuned ILS frequency displayed on the PFD and HUD?
19. Describe the difference between a normal and an decluttered HUD display.
How is the decluttered display selected?
20. The HUD has some features not found on the PFD:
a. List the properties and attributes of the HUD TO/GA Reference Line.
b. What are the Ground Deviation Indications, when and where do they
appear?
c. When do chevrons appear and what are they for?
d. If zenith or nadir symbols appear in the HUD ….what is happenin’ ?
e. Describe the appearance and purpose of the Flight Path Vector symbol
and Guidance cue.
f. Describe the appearance and purpose of the Speed Error Tape and
Flight Path Acceleration symbol.
g. Describe the appearance and purpose of the Glideslope Reference Line.
h. When and where do the Runway Edge lines appear?
j. When and where does the Ground Deceleration Rate Scale show?
k. Describe the appearance and purpose of the Fly-To symbology.

Flight Management Systems FCOM CHAPTER 11
What are the active NAV DATA dates?
How can these be changed?

How many ways can INERTIAL POS be entered?
What do the dashes indicate?
Which sensor position is closest to the FMC position?
What must be completed on this page?
What do the boxes indicate?

What can be selected on this page?
What does the A, M, R or P on the VOR line mean?
What does CRS and RADIAL show?
What does PARK mean?
When is this page completed?
What entries are made?

How can reduced takeoff thrust be selected on this page?
Has a reduced Climb been selected?
Why is page 2 completed before page 1?
What entries are normally made on this page?
What entries are normally made on this page?

What speed restrictions are shown?
What does CLB DIR do?
What altitude restrictions are on this page?
Why is the altitude on PG092 line in lower case?
How could a waypoint 20 miles before BVS be created?
How can the route discontinuity be closed?
What is the distance from ROTNO to TIGER?

Why is an INTC CRS TO shown?
What will ABEAM PTS show?
What will RTE COPY do?
How is an offset entered?
What are the optimum and maximum flight levels?
How can the ECON SPD be changed?

What type of IDENT can be selected?
What does NAVAID INHIBIT do?
What does PRED ETA-ALT display on EFIS?
How is this page displayed?
What does W on a WPT line show?

What is displayed on this page?
Can the DEST be changed?
What are TOTALIZER and CALCULATED FUEL QTY?
What is XTK ERROR showing?
What is the end of descent point?
What does DES DIR do?

What is the purpose of TAI/ON?
What are TO CLEAN and TO DRAG?
What does CI26L INTC do?

Can the GROSS WT be changed?
What can be entered/changed on this page?
How will the aircraft EXIT HOLD?
What effect does pressing the DIVERT NOW key have?

How can a diversion be made via a specified waypoint?
Describe the procedure for 'Direct To' ALESO
Describe the procedure for routing direct TIGER after DIMAL
When is this page displayed?
What determines which WPT is shown at the top?

1. If LEGS page 1/3 is displayed, which key(s) would display the LEGS page 3/3?
2. What action is required to clear a message from the scratch pad?
3. What is indicated by "dashes" adjacent to line select keys on some CDU

pages?
4. Which FMS-CDU mode key must be pressed to display the available SID's?
5. a. What is the page sequence used in the initial pre-flight

set up of the FMC?
b. What other pages are used to complete the main pre-flight
procedure once the ships papers arrive?
6. On which CDU page are speed and altitude restrictions entered and displayed?
7. What do the following altitude constraints mean?

a. 8000A
b. 6000B
c. 220A 240B
8. Which CDU page, and line would you select to comply with an ATC request to
maintain 240 Kts up to 8000 feet?
9. Which page is automatically displayed on the FMS-CDU's when electrical

power is initially applied to the aircraft?
10. During a V NAV climb, how would you delete all the altitude constraints
between the current aircraft altitude and the MCP target altitude?
11. What does the illumination of the DSPY light on the CDU indicate?
12. What CDU entry is required to fly a course of 150o from your present
position?

13. What CDU entry is required if you wished to fly a course of 320o from RADDY?
14. What is the purpose of the FLAP/SPEED prompt on the APPROACH REF page?
15. During VNAV cruise, what crew action is necessary for an automatic descent
to commence at the T/D (top of descent) point?
16. After entry of an arrival, which CDU page displays the Transition Level?
17. What is the purpose of the INTC> prompt on the ARRIVALS page?
18. In flight, the EICAS message ‘NAV UNABLE RNP’ appears; what does this
mean?
19. How are radio aids tuned during Alternate Navigation?
20. What are the requirements for LNAV to engage after takeoff ?
21. In cruise or descent mode; which page will be displayed when you press the
‘INIT REF’ key?
22. Describe the function of the Transponder ALT SOURCE switch.
23. On which FMC page are altimeters set for QFE operation?
24. What is the purpose of the RTE copy facility on the ROUTE page?
25. What entry is required on the TAKEOFF REF page if you decide to takeoff from
an intersection rather than the full runway length?
26. a. Would a low Cost Index result in a low or high ECON speed?
b. What does a Cost Index of zero produce as a speed?

27. If the title of the CLB page in a VNAV climb showed 'ACT MCP SPD CLIMB',
how is the speed being controlled?
28. On the RTE DATA Page 1/3, what indicates that Wind Data has been entered
for a particular waypoint?

FUEL FCOM CHAPTER 12
Describe this panel set up during preflight scan.
Describe this panel set up during the before start procedure.
1. Where are fuel quantities displayed?
2. Where is the fuel temperature displayed?
3. Fuel Pumps:
a. Do the centre pumps produce the same pressure as main tank pumps?
b. With all tanks full and pumps operating, which tank supplies the
engines?

4. From which tanks can fuel be jettisoned?
5. Where can jettison time be observed?
6. On the ground during start, how will tank pumps operate with only one
electrical power source?
7. What is indicated if the crossfeed switch VALVE light remained illuminated

after selection during manual operation?
8. Where can the fuel freeze temperature be entered?
9. What will happen as actual fuel temperature approaches preset fuel freeze
temperature?
10. DC Fuel Pump:

a. Which tank is the DC fuel pump in?
b. When does it operate on the ground?
c. If operating what will cause automatic shut down of DC fuel pump?
11. If a main tank fuel pump fails:

a. Will selecting the pump switch off remove the message and light?
b. Is the engine or aircraft operation affected with a tank pump OFF?
12. To what quantity will fuel be automatically jettisoned?

13. Can all the main and centre tank fuel be jettisoned? Can the jettison nozzles
be opened on the ground?
14. Describe the fuel balance system.
15. During flight, the FMC gives a FUEL DISAGREE - PROG 2/2 message, what
condition generates this message?

HYDRAULICS FCOM CHAPTER 13
List the preflight scan procedure for this panel.
List the before start procedure for this panel.
List the shutdown procedure for this panel.
1. Where can hydraulic quantity and pressure be monitored?
2. After engine start, under what circumstances would you expect the demand
pumps to run for the:
a. Left and Right systems?
b. Centre system?

3. Why does the centre hydraulic system have an isolation feature?
4. When does the RAT deploy automatically?
5. When will a hydraulic pump ‘FAULT' light illuminate?
6. With the C1 Demand Pump switch at ON, when will the pump run?
7. Which hydraulic system or systems normally power the following services:

a. Primary flight controls?
b. Normal brakes?
c. Alternate brakes?
d. Reserve brakes?
e. Steering?
f. Landing gear?
LANDING GEAR FCOM CHAPTER 14
1. Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear?

a. After retraction, how is the gear held up?
b. Is the system still pressurised?
2. Can the gear be retracted after an alternate selection?
3. Which flight deck controls affect nose wheel steering?

a. What is the greatest angle each will turn the nose wheel
4. Which system powers the brakes? Describe the system. Is there any back up
system?
5. Describe what happens when the alternate landing gear system is used to
extend the gear.

6. With RTO selected, when would the brakes be applied?
7. Which actions could disarm the Autobrake after landing?
8. Where are the brake temps displayed?
9. How can the parking brake be confirmed as set?

WARNING SYSTEMS FCOM CHAPTER 15
1. Describe time critical warnings. How are they announced?
2. Describe how the GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting Display is activated and
where it will display. Will it display if not activated? If so, when?
3. Describe how to select the Ground Proximity Flap Override to Override. What
are the inhibits and what is displayed and where? Is there an automatic reset?
4. TCAS:
a. Which TCAS traffic category(ies) generate manoeuvre guidance on the
PFD?
b. Which category(ies) generate voice aural alerts?
c. Does a TA require an avoidance manoeuvre?
d. What are the 4 categories of TCAS traffic displayed on the ND?
e. How is each category pictorially represented?
f. Which ND modes will not display TCAS traffic symbols?
g. Will the caption 'TRAFFIC' appear in all ND modes?
5. The Status display is accessed via the DSP and SYS switch and the SYS display
key on the selected MFD. Name the default displays:
a. On Ground before engine start.
b. On Ground after engie start.
c. In flight.
d. On Ground after landing.
6. Is the Predictive Windshear warning active at all altitudes?
7. What is the significance of an Advisory message being at the top of its list?
8. Under what circumstances will Secondary Engine Instrument information

automatically display?

9. What is the effect of pressing the EICAS Event Record Switch?
10. Describe TAMS. Where does it appear and when?
11. Which alert inhibits start and end?

a. Before Engine Start and After Shutdown
b. During Takeoff (See also 800ft/30 second options for your aircraft)
c. During Landing

Emergency/NN Procedures
Complete the following RECALL checklists:-
1. Cabin Altitude Oxygen Masks PUT ON

......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
2. Fire Engine L or R AutoThrottle Arm switch OFF

......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
3. Dual Eng Fail/Stall Fuel Control switches (both) CUTOFF,

then RUN
......... .........
4. Engine Severe Damage/ AutoThrottle Arm switch OFF

Separation
......... .........
......... .........
......... .........
5. If Windshear is encountered what is the correct sequence of actions?
6. How is an unannunciated non-normal checklist displayed?
7. List the types of message available on EICAS.
8. Which types of EICAS message will the CANC/RCL switch remove?

9. What does it mean if an EICAS message has a white [] in front of it?
10. Which Master light and sound accompanies the following?

a. Advisory message.
b. Caution message.
c. Take-Off Configuration Warning.
11. What is the purpose of placing the outflow valves to the OPEN position during
a PASSENGER EVACUATION?

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JAA Study Guide

Aircraft General & Systems

Original Release Date Contract or CDRL Number (if required)

Authorization for Release

AUTHOR: James L Cheetham TY-ZM-ZG50 15 Jun 2011

APPROVAL: Brod Larkman TY-ZM-ZG50 15 Jun 2011

Copyright © 2011 Boeing. All rights reserved.

Rev 1.1 Revised subsequent to evaluation course.

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 1 of 60

2. To ensure obstacle clearance while taxiing in a turn:

a. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the wingtip?

3. What is the maximum steering angle when using the tillers?

4. What is the maximum steering angle when using the rudders?

8. Which cockpit windows can be opened?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 1 of 60

1. How many units comprise the CCS?

3. Loss of all displays is an indication of the failure of what system?

4. Where would you find the LOSS OF ALL DISPLAYS checklist?

8. How long does it take to power up?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 2 of 60

a. How long does the right CCR take to come online?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 3 of 60

1. Which lights illuminate when STORM lights are selected ON?

3. If normal electrical power is lost, which lighting continues to operate?

EMERGENCY LIGHTING FCOM CHAPTER 1

1. From where are the Emergency lights powered?

5. Emergency lights are ARMED, and doors selected to AUTOMATIC mode.

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 4 of 60

1. How many oxygen systems are fitted to the aircraft?

2. Where are crew oxygen pressures displayed?

3. What causes the passenger masks to be released:

4. Where is the passenger oxygen switch?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 5 of 60

9. Describe how Flight Crew Oxygen is tested and set.

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 6 of 60

2. How many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) are there?

3. The aeroplane is divided into a number of temperature zones, one of which

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 7 of 60

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 8 of 60

18. Describe how the Forward Cargo compartment can be temperature

22. What happens to the forward equipment cooling. Is it still effective? Is it

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 9 of 60

30. If it is a requirement for an Outflow Valve to be moved to the FULLY OPEN

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 10 of 60

1. Describe the automatic ice detection system on the 787. Is it available on

2. When is power applied to:

5. Which anti-ice systems are controlled by automatic ice detection?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 11 of 60

11. If there is a leak in the engine anti-ice system:

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 12 of 60

2. In addition to the MCP Heading window; where else is Selected Heading

3. What is the effect of:

4. List the methods of disconnecting the A/T.

5. When does HOLD mode engage during take-off?

6. To which AFDS modes does the bank limit selector apply?

8. Can the IAS/MACH window display a speed when VNAV is engaged?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 13 of 60

10. Until what point does ROLLOUT mode provide guidance?

11. How can APP mode be disengaged in the following situations:

13. If armed, at what height will VNAV engage during take-off?

JAA 787 Study Guide Rev 1.1 15 Aug 2011 Page 14 of 60

A/T ROLL PITCH

Level off ( from