Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as

Select one:

a.

Hodgkin's lymphoma.

b.

chronic fatigue syndrome.

c.

Burkitt's lymphoma.

d.

infectious mononucleosis.
e.

oral hairy leukoplakia.

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The correct answer is:

infectious mononucleosis.

Question 2

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A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscles spasms and
difficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the
staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed
properly. The signs are consistent with which of the following diseases?
Select one:

a.

listeriosis 
b.

tetanus

c.

infant botulism

d.

acute bacterial meningitis

e.

rabies

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The correct answer is:

tetanus

Question 3
Correct

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The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called

Select one:

a.

elementary bodies.

b.

pseudohyphae.

c.

phagosomes.

d.
trachomas.

e.

initial bodies

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The correct answer is: initial bodies

Question 4

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Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by

Select one:
a.

Yersinia pestis.

b.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

c.

Chlamydophila psittaci.

d.

Klebsiella pneumoniae.

e.

Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

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The correct answer is:
Chlamydophila psittaci.

Question 5

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Question text

Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because

Select one:

a.

the bacteria release toxins when they are digested.

b.

affected people appear drunk.

c.

toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food.
d.

toxic bacteria are ingested in the food.

e.

the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins.

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The correct answer is: toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the
food.

Question 6

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Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

Select one:
a.

infected animal urine

b.

infected animal feces

c.

infected animal bites

d.

humans infected with leptospirosis

e.
infected human urine

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The correct answer is: infected animal urine

Question 7

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Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors kills leukocytes

and erythrocytes?
Select one:

a.

C5a peptidase

b.
streptokinases

c.

the hyaluronic acid capsule

d.

pyrogenic toxins

e.

streptolysins

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The correct answer is:

streptolysins

Question 8

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Question text

How does tetanospasmin affect motor control?

Select one:

a.

It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

b.

It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells.

c.

It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes.

d.

It is a pyrogenic toxin.
e.

It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.

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The correct answer is:

It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.

Question 9

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Question text

Where in the digestive tract does most of the absorption of nutrients take place?
Select one:

a.

the rectum
b.

the small intestine

c.

the large intestine

d.

the esophagus

e.

the stomach

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The correct answer is: the small intestine

Question 10

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Question text

Diphtheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?

Select one:

a.

cytoplasmic membrane function

b.

nucleic acid synthesis

c.

protein synthesis

d.

complement function

e.

adenylate cyclase activity

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The correct answer is: protein synthesis

Question 11

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Question text

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with

Select one:

a.

Trypanosoma brucei.

b.

Clostridium botulinum.

c.

Acanthamoeba.

d.

Haemophilus influenzae.
e.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

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The correct answer is:

Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 12

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Question text

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding

Select one:

a.
consumption of contaminated meat.

b.

consumption of undercooked meat.

c.

contact with mosquitoes.

d.

contact with bird droppings.

e.

contaminated waterways.

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The correct answer is:

consumption of contaminated meat.

Question 13
Correct

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Question text

Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes
between the fetal blood and the mother's blood?
Select one:

a.

the uterus

b.

the cervix

c.

the placenta
d.

the clitoris

e.

the uterine tubes

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The correct answer is: the placenta

Question 14

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Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as

Select one:

a.

lymphangitis.

b.

recurrent fever.

c.

disseminated intravascular coagulation.

d.

bacteremia

e.
petechiae.

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The correct answer is:

lymphangitis.

Question 15

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Blood is found in the ________ of the heart just before it is pumped into the
lungs.

Select one:

a.

left atrium
b.

right ventricle

c.

left ventricle

d.

superior vena cava

e.

right atrium

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The correct answer is: right ventricle

Question 16
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The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the
following?
Select one:
a.

Borrelia burgdorferi

b.

Francisella tularensis

c.

Epstein-Barr virus

d.

dengue virus

e.

Yersinia pestis

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The correct answer is:

Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 17

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Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in

Select one:

a.

penile cancer.

b.

orchitis.
c.

gummas.

d.

sterility.

e.

glomerulonephritis.

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The correct answer is:

sterility.

Question 18

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The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is
caused by
Select one:

a.

Streptococcus agalactiae.

b.

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

c.

Listeria monocytogenes.

d.

Neisseria meningitidis.

e.
Haemophilus influenzae.

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The correct answer is:

Neisseria meningitidis.

Question 19

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The Gram-positive diplococcus ________ is commonly found in the pharynx but

may invade the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after
endocytosis.
Select one:

a.

Streptococcus agalactiae 

b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

c.

Neisseria meningitidis

d.

Haemophilus influenzae

e.

Listeria monocytogenes

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The correct answer is:

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 20

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 Flag question

Question text

Which of the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine?
Select one:

a.

Campylobacter

b.

Candida

c.

Escherichia

d.
Lactobacillus

e.

Bacteroides

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The correct answer is:

Candida

Question 21

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The pleomorphic bacterium ________ is an obligate parasite due to its

requirement for NAD+ and heme.
Select one:

a.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

b.

Neisseria meningitidis

c.

Streptococcus agalactiae

d.

Haemophilus influenzae

e.

Listeria monocytogenes
Feedback

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The correct answer is: Haemophilus influenzae

Question 22

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Tetanus vaccine contains

Select one:

a.

inactivated tetanospasmin.

b.
antibodies against Clostridium tetani endospores.

c.

inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores.

d.

antibodies against Clostridium tetani.

e.

fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls.

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The correct answer is: inactivated tetanospasmin.

Question 23

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Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?
Select one:

a.

Helicobacter pylori

b.

Vibrio cholerae

c.

Escherichia coli O157:H7

d.

Shigella dysenteriae
e.

Porphyromonas gingivalis

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The correct answer is: Helicobacter pylori

Question 24

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Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted during sexual intercourse because it

Select one:

a.

penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract.

b.
requires a growth factor found only in the vagina.

c.

cannot live long outside the body.

d.

produces cysts that germinate in the vagina.

e.

participates with HIV in coinfections.

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The correct answer is: cannot live long outside the body.

Question 25

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Question text

The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of

Select one:

a.

poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae.

b.

poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae.

c.

autoimmune disease triggered by Mycobacteriu leprae.

d.

intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum.

e.

infection with rabies virus.

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The correct answer is:

poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae.

Question 26

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning tularemia?

 
Select one:

a.

The disease is transmitted from person to person.

b.

The signs include a distinctive pattern of mild but recurring fever.

c.

The disease is easily treated.

d.

Infection occurs by inhalation only.

e.

The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite.

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The correct answer is:

The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite.

Question 27
Correct

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The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

Select one:

a.

Shigella flexneri.

b.

Escherichia coli.

c.

Cryptosporidium parvum.
d.

Giardia intestinalis.

e.

Salmonella enterica.

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The correct answer is:

Escherichia coli.

Question 28

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Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?

Select one:

a.
human herpesvirus 1

b.

Trichomonas vaginalis

c.

human herpesvirus 2

d.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

e.

papillomaviruses

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The correct answer is:

papillomaviruses

Question 29

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Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the
body?

Select one:

a.

capillaries

b.

the inferior vena cava

c.

the aorta

d.

the pulmonary arteries

e.

the superior vena cava

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The correct answer is: the aorta

Question 30

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 Flag question

Question text

Unprotected contact with the bodily fluids of an infected animal may result in
Select one:

a.

African sleeping sickness.

b.

Lyme disease.

c.

brucellosis.
d.

blackwater fever.

e.

toxoplasmosis.

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The correct answer is: brucellosis.

Question 31

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Which of the following is zoonotic?

Select one:

a.
both E. coli O157:H7 and Salmonella

b.

Shigella

c.

E. coli O157:H7, Shigella and Salmonella

d.

E. coli O157:H7

e.

Salmonella

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The correct answer is: both E. coli O157:H7 and Salmonella

Question 32

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Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?

Select one:

a.

A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis.

b.

No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection.

c.
A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.

d.

The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.

e.

The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery.

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The correct answer is:

The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.

Question 33

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Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?

Select one:

a.

jaundice

b.

buboes

c.

a "bull's-eye" rash

d.

petechiae

e.

arthritis

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The correct answer is:

buboes

Question 34

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The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?

Select one:

a.

pertussis

b.
anthrax

c.

tuberculosis

d.

pneumonia

e.

the common cold

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The correct answer is:

pertussis

Question 35

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Question text

The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is

diagnostic for infection by

Select one:

a.

human herpesvirus 2.

b.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

c.

Mycoplasma hominis.

d.

Chlamydia trachomatis.
e.

Treponema pallidum.

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The correct answer is:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Question 36

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Question text

Inflammation of the pharynx with pus-filled abscesses and swollen tonsils is

known as
Select one:

a.

diphtheria.
b.

streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat").

c.

RSV.

d.

croup.

e.

otitis media.

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The correct answer is:

streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat").

Question 37
Correct

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A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea
accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-
smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions
in the large intestine. The probable causative agent is
Select one:

a.

Giardia intestinalis.

b.

Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi.

c.

Vibrio cholerae
d.

Campylobacter.

e.

Clostridium difficile.

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The correct answer is:

Clostridium difficile.

Question 38

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Question text

Encephalitis is an infection of
Select one:
a.

neurons of the peripheral nervous system.

b.

the eye.

c.

the brain

d.

the cauda equina

e.

the meninges.
Feedback

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The correct answer is: the brain

Question 39

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The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is
evidence of infection with
Select one:

a.

Trichomonas vaginalis.

b.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

c.

Candida albicans.

d.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

e.
Treponema palladum

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The correct answer is:

Candida albicans.

Question 40

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Question text

Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?
Select one:

a.

Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth
of Candida albicans).

b.
Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans.

c.

Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans.

d.

Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans.

e.

Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

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The correct answer is:

Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

Question 41

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Question text

The disorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections

with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and
get trapped in the kidneys.
Select one:

a.

urethritis

b.

glomerulonephritis

c.

cystitis
d.

pyelonephritis

e.

leptospirosis

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The correct answer is:

glomerulonephritis

Question 42

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Question text

The chief diagnostic sign of brucellosis is

Select one:
a.

petechiae.

b.

"bull's eye" rash.

c.

fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals.

d.

jaundice.

e.

fever which cycles every 72 hours.

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The correct answer is:

fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals.

Question 43

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Question text

The least common type of polio is

Select one:

a.

nonparalytic polio.

b.

postpolio syndrome.
c.

an asymptomatic infection.

d.

paralytic polio.

e.

minor polio.

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The correct answer is:

paralytic polio.

Question 44

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Question text
The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by the
Select one:

a.

vena cava.

b.

endocardium.

c.

erythrocytes.

d.

myocardium.
e.

pericardium.

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The correct answer is:

endocardium.

Question 45

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Question text

The Gram-negative diplococcus ________ is resistant to phagocytosis and

releases Lipid A to cause inflammation.
Select one:

a.

Streptococcus agalactiae
b.

Haemophilus influenza

c.

Clostridium botulinum

d.

Neisseria meningitidis

e.

Listeria monocytogenes

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The correct answer is:

Neisseria meningitidis

Question 46
Correct

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Question text

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella

Select one:

a.

kills host cells.

b.

causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever.

c.

multiplies in phagocytic vesicles.

d.

multiplies in the host cell's cytosol.

e.

stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it.

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The correct answer is: multiplies in the host cell's cytosol.

Question 47

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A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the

groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies
noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is
most likely infected with
Select one:

a.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

b.

Treponema pallidum.

c.

Haemophilus ducreyi.

d.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

e.
Trichomonas vaginalis.

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The correct answer is:

Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 48

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Question text

The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in the
United States is

Select one:

a.

Vibrio.
b.

Campylobacter.

c.

Staphylococcus.

d.

Salmonella.

e.

Escherichia.

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The correct answer is:

Campylobacter.

Question 49
Correct

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Question text

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus

pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by
Select one:

a.

the absence of a capsule.

b.

the presence of a lysogenic phage.

c.

alpha hemolytic activity

d.

beta hemolytic activity.

e.

no hemolytic activity.

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The correct answer is:

beta hemolytic activity.

Question 50

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Question text

The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following?

Select one:
a.

activity of a type III secretion system

b.

death of cells lining the intestinal tract

c.

activation of adenylate cyclase

d.

production of urease

e.

cessation of protein synthesis in host cells

Feedback

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The correct answer is:

activation of adenylate cyclase

Question 51

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Question text

A blood sample from a patient is examined on a microscope. Bacterial cells are

detected in the sample. The patient has
Select one:

a.

viremia.

b.
lymphangitis.

c.

bacteremia.

d.

lipidemia.

e.

toxemia.

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The correct answer is: bacteremia.

Question 52

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Question text

The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water that

causes a persistent watery diarrhea is
Select one:

a.

Cryptosporidium parvum.

b.

hepatitis A virus.

c.
Vibrio cholerae.

d.

Entamoeba histolytica.

e.

norovirus.

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The correct answer is: Cryptosporidium parvum.

Question 53

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Question text

Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include

Select one:
a.

Mycobacterium leprae.

b.

Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae.

c.

both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

d.

Neisseria meningitidis.

e.

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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The correct answer is:
both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Question 54

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Question text

Neutrophils are inhibited from gathering at the site of infection by Mycobacterium

tuberculosis by what virulence factor of the pathogen?
Select one:

a.

the capsule

b.

mycolic acid

c.
cord factor

d.

hemolysin

e.

kinase

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The correct answer is:

cord factor

Question 55

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Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold?
Select one:

a.

Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites.

b.

The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses.

c.

The viruses can infect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts.

d.

Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37°C.

e.
Only coronaviruses cause the common cold.

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The correct answer is:

Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites.

Question 56

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Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spread through tissues by

breaking down blood clots?
Select one:

a.

a hyaluronic acid capsule

b.

M proteins
c.

streptokinase

d.

pyrogenic toxins

e.

streptolysin

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The correct answer is:

streptokinase

Question 57

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Question text

Functions of the ________ include regulation of heart rate and respiration.

Select one:

a.

brain stem

b.

meninges

c.

spinal cord

d.
cerebrum

e.

cerebellum

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The correct answer is: spinal cord

Question 58

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A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive
edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. From which of the following may the
person be suffering?
Select one:
a.

infectious mononucleosis

b.

Lyme disease

c.

septicemia

d.

plague

e.

brucellosis

Feedback
Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is:

septicemia

Question 59

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Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a complication resulting from the

Select one:

a.

triggering of the complement system.

b.

attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium.

c.

release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria.

d.

release of heme from damaged RBCs.

e.

release of cytotoxins.

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release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria.

Question 60

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A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain
during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is
increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing
epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What
disease is the woman experiencing?
Select one:

a.

herpes

b.

cervical cancer

c.

trichomoniasis

d.

chancroid
e.

syphilis

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The correct answer is:

trichomoniasis

Question 61

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Observation of the microbes shown in the figure from a vaginal discharge
specimen is diagnostic for
Select one:

a.

trachoma.

b.

trichomoniasis.
c.

gonorrhea.

d.

Chlamydia infection

e.

syphilis.

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The correct answer is: trichomoniasis.

Question 62

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 Flag question

Question text

Bordetella pertussis produces

Select one:

a.

adenylate cyclase toxin.

b.

dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase, and pyrogenic toxins.

c.

dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins.

d.

pyrogenic toxin.

e.

dermonecrotic toxin.

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The correct answer is:

dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins.

Question 63

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Which of the following is TRUE of foodborne botulism?

Select one:
a.

An effective vaccine is available.

b.

Normal food preparation methods can prevent it.

c.

It is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated.

d.

Large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease.

e.

It is an intoxication disorder.

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The correct answer is:
It is an intoxication disorder.

Question 64

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Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by

Select one:

a.

blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons.

b.

causing demyelination of motor neurons.

c.

blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons.

d.

killing motor neurons.

e.

blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells.

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The correct answer is:

blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons.

Question 65

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Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because

Select one:

a.

the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs.

b.

the dying cells release lipid A, triggering a severe inflammatory response.

c.

Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.

d.

the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate
e.

it is transmitted by endospores.

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The correct answer is: the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs.

Question 66

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During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel
nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a
clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which
move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted
Select one:

a.

glomerulonephritis.
b.

leptospirosis.

c.

staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.

d.

chancroid.

e.

trichomoniasis.

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The correct answer is:
leptospirosis.

Question 67

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Functions of the meninges include

Select one:

a.

support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock.

b.

protection from external shock.

c.

production of neurotransmitters.

d.

transmission of signals from the peripheral nervous system.

e.

support for the brain and spinal cord.

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support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock.

Question 68

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The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by

Select one:

a.

Klebsiella pneumoniae.

b.

Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

c.

Haemophilus influenzae.

d.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

e.

Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Feedback

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The correct answer is:

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Question 69

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When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be

Select one:

a.

prostatitis.

b.
pyelonephritis.

c.

ectopic.

d.

cystitis.

e.

bacteriosis.

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The correct answer is: pyelonephritis.

Question 70

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Question text

Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by

Select one:

a.

interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

b.

suppressing mucus production.

c.

the development of pneumonia.

d.
irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

e.

forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages.

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The correct answer is:

interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.

Question 71

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The typical sign of primary syphilis is

Select one:

a.

a widespread rash.
b.

lymphadenopathy.

c.

paralysis.

d.

a chancre at the site of infection.

e.

gummas in various organs.

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The correct answer is:

a chancre at the site of infection.

Question 72

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Cycles of fever, chills, anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored
urine are the symptoms of infection with
Select one:

a.

yellow fever virus.

b.

dengue virus.

c.

P. ovale.

d.
P. vivax.

e.

P. falciparum.

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The correct answer is:

P. falciparum.

Question 73

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Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to

confirm diagnosis?
Select one:
a.

fever and rash

b.

an abnormal vaginal discharge

c.

the presence of clue cells

d.

an acidic vaginal pH

e.

the presence of buboes

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The correct answer is:
the presence of clue cells

Question 74

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Porphyromonas gingivalis contributes to the development of

Select one:

a.

hepatitis

b.

food poisoning.

c.

typhoid fever.
d.

gastroenteritis.

e.

periodontitis.

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The correct answer is:

periodontitis.

Question 75

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Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium ________ during vaginal birth
are at risk of developing neonatal meningitis.
Select one:

a.

Neisseria meningitidis

b.

Listeria monocytogenes

c.

Streptococcus agalactiae

d.

Streptococcus pneumoniae
e.

Haemophilus influenzae

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The correct answer is: Streptococcus agalactiae

Question 76

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Question text

Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are
characteristic of
Select one:

a.

plague.
b.

Bang's disease.

c.

infectious mononucleosis.

d.

ehrlichiosis.

e.

endocarditis.

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The correct answer is:

endocarditis.

Question 77
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Question text

Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis"

Select one:

a.

since it is treatable with antiviral medications.

b.

to distinguish it from encephalitis.

c.

because it is frequently a nosocomial infection.

d.
because it is vaccine-preventable.

e.

to indicate no bacteria are involved.

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to indicate no bacteria are involved.

Question 78

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The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs
and symptoms of cholera, is

Select one:
a.

its ability to form biofilms in saltwater.

b.

its ability to survive in freshwater.

c.

the presence of polar flagella.

d.

its activation of certain genes within the human body.

e.

its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

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The correct answer is:

its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

Question 79

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Contaminated food is the source of ________, which causes meningitis in the

elderly and susceptible persons.
Select one:

a.

Neisseria meningitidis

b.

Streptococcus agalactiae
c.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d.

Haemophilus influenzae

e.

Listeria monocytogenes

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The correct answer is: Listeria monocytogenes

Question 80

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Question text

The structure indicated by the arrow connects the middle ear to what part of the
respiratory system?

Select one:

a.
sinuses

b.

trachea

c.

pharynx

d.

nasal cavity

e.

larynx

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The correct answer is: pharynx

Question 81

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Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?

Select one:

a.

Lesions become more severe with each recurrence.

b.

Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.

c.

Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions.

d.

There is an effective cure for oral herpes.

e.

Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2).

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The correct answer is:

Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.

Question 82

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Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps?

Select one:
a.

parotitis

b.

nausea and vomiting

c.

deafness

d.

diarrhea

e.

difficulty in breathing

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The correct answer is:
parotitis

Question 83

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Escherichia coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following

foods?

Select one:

a.

pork

b.

ground beef
c.

fomites

d.

dairy products

e.

eggs

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The correct answer is:

ground beef

Question 84

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Question text

Vegetations are associated with which of the following disease processes?

Select one:

a.

plague

b.

toxoplasmosis

c.

endocarditis

d.

tularemia
e.

septicemia

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The correct answer is:

endocarditis

Question 85

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Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?

Select one:

a.
hyaluronidase

b.

IgA protease

c.

fimbriae

d.

TSST

e.

lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall

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The correct answer is:

hyaluronidase

Question 86

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Infection with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever

when the bacteria
Select one:

a.

produce type III secretion system proteins.

b.

induce endocytosis by intestinal cells.

c.

enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes.

d.

attach to cells of the small intestine.

e.

reproduce within cells of the small intestine.

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The correct answer is:

enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes.

Question 87

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Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with

Select one:

a.

Enterobius vermicularis.

b.

Giardia intestinalis.

c.

Anisakis simplex.

d.

Taenia saginata.

e.

Entamoeba histolytica.
Feedback

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The correct answer is:

Anisakis simplex.

Question 88

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 young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a Caribbean island. She
also experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she
also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likely contract?

Select one:

a.

malaria

b.
yellow fever virus

c.

Toxoplasma

d.

Chagas' disease

e.

dengue virus

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The correct answer is:

dengue virus

Question 89

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How does Borrelia burgdorferi evade the body's defenses?

Select one:

a.

It has manganese-containing enzymes.

b.

It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes.

c.

It has a polysaccharide capsule.

d.
It has a polysaccharide capsule and antiphagocytic proteins.

e.

It is capable of antigenic variation.

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It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes.

Question 90

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Question text

The bacterium ________ adheres to and grows on teeth, contributing to dental

plaque formation.
Select one:

a.

Porphyromonas gingivalis
b.

Enterobacter

c.

Streptococcus mutans

d.

Streptococcus agalactiae

e.

viridians streptococci

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The correct answer is:

Streptococcus mutans
Question 91

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Question text

African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite

Select one:

a.

produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons.

b.

reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop.

c.

produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize.

d.
is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system.

e.

evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens.

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The correct answer is:

evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens.

Question 92

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The normal habitat of ________ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying
the pathogen have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later,
areas of black, necrotic tissue may develop.
Select one:
a.

Clostridium perfringens

b.

Borrelia burgdorferi

c.

Toxoplasma gondii

d.

Yersinia pestis

e.

Francisella tularensis

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The correct answer is: Yersinia pestis

Question 93

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Question text

Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by

Select one:

a.

Salmonella enterica.

b.

Helicobacter pylori.
c.

Shigella dysenteriae.

d.

Vibrio cholerae

e.

Escherichia coli O157:H7.

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The correct answer is: Helicobacter pylori.

Question 94

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Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by

Select one:

a.

axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

b.

either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons

c.
damaging the blood-brain barrier.

d.

infecting macrophages which subsequently enter the CNS.

e.

infecting lymph nodes in the cranium.

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The correct answer is: either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected
peripheral neurons

Question 95

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Question text

A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as

Select one:
a.

pneumonic plague.

b.

primary atypical pneumonia.

c.

pleurisy.

d.

pneumococcal pneumonia.

e.

pneumocystic pneumonia.

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The correct answer is:

pneumococcal pneumonia.

Question 96

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The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers

to this bacterium's
Select one:

a.

hemolysis pattern.

b.

M protein.

c.
type of streptokinase produced.

d.

disease associations.

e.

Lancefield antigen.

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The correct answer is:

Lancefield antigen.

Question 97

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Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women

Select one:

a.

results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge.

b.

is usually initially asymptomatic.

c.

produces painful ulcerations.

d.

results in the formation of curd-like discharge.

e.
produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix.

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The correct answer is:

is usually initially asymptomatic.

Question 98

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What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Select one:

a.

the production of pneumolysin

b.
the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen

c.

strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall

d.

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule

e.

the ability to lyse red blood cells

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The correct answer is:

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule

Question 99

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Question text

Toxic shock-like syndrome is associated with

Select one:

a.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

b.

Staphylococcus aureus.

c.

both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

d.

Neisseria meningitidis.

e.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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The correct answer is: both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 100

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Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE?

Select one:
a.

Treatment includes vaccination.

b.

Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal.

c.

Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans.

d.

It is caused by an ssRNA virus.

e.

All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease.

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The correct answer is:

All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease.

Question 101

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Poliovirus is most often transmitted via

Select one:

a.

endospores.

b.

droplets.

c.
mosquitoes.

d.

contaminated water.

e.

household pets.

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Question 102

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The process of producing urine begins in the ________ of the kidney.

Select one:

a.

collecting duct

b.

efferent arterioles

c.

nephron

d.

renal pyramids
e.

renal capsule

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The correct answer is: nephron

Question 103

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Which of the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheral

nerves?
Select one:

a.
rabies

b.

Hansen's disease

c.

acute bacterial meningitis

d.

botulism

e.

tetanus

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The correct answer is: Hansen's disease

Question 104

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Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen commonly present in the

nasal cavity as a member of the microbiota?
Select one:

a.

Legionella pneumophilia

b.

Staphylococcus aureus
c.

Pneumocystis jiroveci

d.

Veillonella species

e.

Bordetella pertussis

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The correct answer is: Staphylococcus aureus

Question 105

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Question text

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?

Select one:

a.

It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months.

b.

Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid.

c.

It occurs only in the lungs.

d.

Several hundred cells are required for infection.

e.

The immune system is not affected by the infection.

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The correct answer is:

It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months.