Question Booklet No. 2021274 CUCET 2020] PG-QP-02 ‘Time : 10:00 AM To 12:00 NOON, [CUKER] [CUKNK], [CUPUN), ELUM (Law) [CUHAR, [CUJHD] [CUKAS umynat Caw) [SPUP] Entrance Test tor the Course(s) {CUSBR] [CUTND], CLM IMA (C 5 | Bot nut 2[2[+]9Te[s] 912] Test Center Cove a4 Name of the Candwate Nase Asaut SZNGH Canswates Sonature aa bs Te ™ Instructions to Candidates | . 1 DoNOT open the Question Booklet unt the Hall Supenntendent gives the signal forthe Commencement of the exarvnaton { 2 \wnte your Name, Roll Number and Test,Center Code (as given inthe Admit Card) and sign in the space proves above 3 After the cortmencement of the examination, open the Question Booklet If the Question Booklet or the OMR Answer Sheet ‘or Doth are not in good congition, then ask for immediate replacement. No replacement wil be made $ mnutes afer he commencement of the examination : 4. inte ANSWER SHEET (OMR) fil up/shade the required entnes (Roll Number, Test Center Code, Test Paper Cose. | Question Booklet Number ete in the space provided) using blach/bIue ball point pen \ 5 Pat-A of the Question Booklet contans 26 Questions. Part-B of the Question Booklet contains 75 Questions A cansowre 1s required to answer all the questions {Alt questions are in MCQ Patten ‘There is only one most appropriate corredl answer for each question 6 7 Ail questons carry equal marks. There will be negative marking. Each correct answer cames OY mame ans ‘ean wwrongincorrect answer 0.25 mah willbe deducted Queston not attempted wil not be assessed 8 Darken only one crcle for each question If you darken more than one ce for the question, H wil be Seemed as wrongincorrect answer Any change in the answer once marked 1s NOT alowed 9 Use the Answer Sheet (OMR) carefuily No spare Answer Sheet will be given 10 Do not make stray marks on the OMR Sheet 11 After complebon of examinabon, a candidate will be allowed to take Question Booklet and Candatate scopy oF OM choet with nimunee However, each candidate must ensure to handover onginal copy of OMK sheet to the Invigiator Inease a canddate takes away the ongnal OMR answer sheet, hsher exarunation wal be treated as CaN eH No candidate wi be atowed to leave the exammnation hal before completion of Entrance Test Tota! tee alowed fhe paper is 2 Hours, ies oF any other Calculating Devices, Mobiles, Pagers, Booklets Papers ete ae sty promened Jooklet_No extra paper wall be proved 12 13. Calculator, Tat 14 Rough work should be done on the blank space provided mths Question 8on “AS 2MMon S$ PART-A 1 Select the most suitable synonym of the word DETER: (A) Distract (8) Suppress <7 "77" % ose (D) Contaminate (C) Discourage 2. Choose the pair which exhibits the same relationship as CUBE : DICE (A) PAPER : THIN (B) SPHERE : SUN (C) CLOTH : WET (0) MOUNTAIN ; HEIGHT. 9& Select the correct word for following sentence Most Chinese European first names to be their surnames (A) determine (8) attempt (C) feel (0) assume ~ 4. Life is related to Death in the same way Hope is related to (A) Sad (8) Despaic~ (C) Pain (D) Cry 5. _ Identify the word which is opposite in meaning to TEMPORA\ (A) Devious (8) Immaculate : (C) Didactic (0) Celestial_— 6. Choose the most appropriate set of prepositions for the blanks given in the sentence below: first | found the work very tiring, but feyweeks | got used it. (A) For, in, to At, in, to {C) In, at, tow {D) At, into, tox, 7. Select comect meaning of foreign expression prima facie_ (A) on first consideration (B)_a basis _ rd of events (©) a simple purpose 8. Identify the meaning of underlined word The cosmetic preparations that are used for beautifying oneself have deleterious effects. (A) Harmful (8) Beneficial (C) Lasting (D) Tremendous 9. Identify the word which carries the meaning of following sentence. Voluntary relinquishing of something valued (8) sabotage (A) nihilism (C) sacrifice, (0) scrimmage es @ Identify the word which carries the meaning of underlined idiom The cricket fans were in the dark till the disclosure to the CBI report , (A) Innocent GB, (8) Ignorant (C) Happy © (D) Unhappy 11. The greatest possible length which can be used fo measure Zm, 3m, 85cm, and 12m, Gem's (A) 150m (8) 25m we (Cc) 35cm (D) 42cm . 42, The total surface area of a cube is 96cm’, Whats its volume? ae 1 (A) 32cm" “ne 2% BE (B) 490m) onthe 3 ot (C) 64om SH, 2 (0) 81cm? wf @ EL oO an Ne aw13. The population of a tows 0 was, 62,500. Due to migration to big cities, it decreases 4% per year. The present miss t (A) 56,700 $7,600 4 (C) 58,800 . Widr60,000 (4), Depreciation appicable to an equipment js 20%, The value ofthis after 3 years from now will be-less by dm 8) son (C) 51.2% 15. A.sum of money is to be distributed among A.B. C, and Din the proportion of §.2..4:3.IfC gets Rs 1000 rhore than D, what will be the share of 8 00 (2) 1500 8 2000 (D) 2500 do a piece of work in 29 days; Binod and Chinku can do it in 15 days. any (a) 56 - (8) 60-—~ (c) 48 (0) 40 17. Atwhat rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rs. 1200 become Rs, 1348.32 in two years7 (A) 6% (B) 6.5% (C) 7% (D) 7.5% 18. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of Rs. 12000 after 3 years at the same rate? (A) Rs, 2160 (B) Rs. 3120 (C) Rs. 6240 (0) Rs. 3972, 19. IV allthe numbers in 32741658 are arranged in ascending order from left to right, the position (s) of how many number(s) will remain unchanged? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three _®) Four 20. Complete the series EAS cies *K (A) J KSI (C) KGH RtsI The Jnanpith Award is related to which of the following fields? (A) Literature — (8) History (C) Dance (0) Theater 22, Which of the following States has the largest forest cover in the country? (A) Madhya Pradesh ~ (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) West Bengal (0) Andhra Pradesh 23. " Which ofthe following is the birth place of Gautam Buddha? (A) Kushinagar (8) Lumbini ¢—~ (C) Sarnath (0) Gaya 24. The theme of the National Science Day 2020 is (A) Climate change 7 (B) Technology and modem life (C) Women in science (0) The future is accessible 25. The watershed between India and Myanmar is formed by the (A) Garo hills (B) Naga hills. (C) Jaintia hills () Khasi hills ie3) P6-0P-1PART-B ‘ 26. The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act deals with . (A) Goods and Service Tax {B) Natonal Commission for Backward Classesa~ (C) National Judicial Appointments Commission ) Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections Which of the following NOT a Charged Expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India? (A) Salary and Allowances of the President of India (B) Pensions of the Judges of the High Court (C) Salary and Allowances of the Controller and Auditor General of India (D) Remunerations of the Attorney General of ina 28. The Oath of the President of India is administered by and the President of India submits his resignation to (A) Chief Justice of India; Vice President’ (B) Vice President; Chief Justice of India (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha; Chief Justice of India (0) Vice President; the Parliament of India (29% The Supreme Court held that right to strike is NOT a fundamental right under (A) All India Bank Employees v. National Industrial Tribunal & Ors. (8) Radhe Shyam Sharma v. Post Master General (C) TK Ranganathan v. State of Tamilnady (D) Bank of India v. 1.S. Kalewala 30. The separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined in ve . (A) Part IV of the Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy) ¢"" (0-?” ? (B) Chapter IV of Part V of the Constitution (The Union Judiciary)* (C) Chapter | of Part V of the Constitution (The Executive)_- | ref (D) Chapter 1 of Part Xill of the Constitution (Finance)w. 31. Which of the following countries has NOT ratified the Convention on the Rights of the Child? (A) Somalia, South Sudan, and United States of India (B) Somalia and United States (C) Somalia (D) United States of America | ~~ 32. Who can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission? (A) Any.sitting Judge of the Supreme Court (8) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court a (C) Any sitting Judge of the Supreme Court or any High Court (0) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or any High Court ge 33. The quote "The question whether a certain matter is or is not solely within the jurisdiction ofa State is an essentially relative question; it depends upon the development of international law" - is from (A) Nationality Decrees in Tunis and Morocco ~~ {B) Legal Consequences for States of the Continued Presence of South Africa in Namibia (South West Africa) notwithstanding Security Council Resolution 276 (1970) (C) Reparations case : (0) Al Adsani v. Turkey é (3) PG-OP-02ere What kind of State practice 1s required for the emergence of a custom? (A) Widespread acts and omissions of States with rea! Unitormity (B) Widespread, consistent and unitorm practice. consisting both of acts and omasions: (C) Only widespread, consistent and unitorm acts and not omissions of States: {O) Consistent practice of few States, including both acts and ommsons wich & mat wen protestation by the other States ements of ataoluta consstency and rg west 38 The Indian Penal Code defines "good fath as (A) An act done without mens rea (B) An act done honestly (C) An act done under bonafide beliet (D) An act done win aue care and atterton Gp te requirement of uploading a copy of the FIR in the official website of the Ponce within 24 hours wan, laid down by the Supreme Court in (A) 0k Basu v State of West Bengal (8) Shanti Bhushan v. Registrar, Supreme Court of India {C) Youtn Bar Association v. Union of India (0) Common Causes v Union of india 37. The Indian Penal Code penaiises the refusal to offer first aid and medical treatment, tree of cost to xictims of alleged offences of Sec. 326A, Sec. 376, Sec. 376A, Sec. 376B, Sec 376C. Sec 3760 arc Sec 376E. This penalty applies to: (A) All hospitals registered with the Medical Council of India 2 Public hospitals under central and state government ) All public including those run by central or state governments, of local bodes and prv: (D) All public and private hospitals but excludes hospitals with less than ten beos G8) The right to self-defence does NOT extend to causing any harm including death # there ws an apprehension of hosptas~ (A) Lurking house-trespass by night (B) Trespass of open land (C) Wrongful confinement (0) Grievous hurt by throwing acid 39. If itis not specified whether an offence under a special enactment 1s cognisahie or pct an cttence ss punishable: onment for jess than years is non-cognizabie aa “a Two (8) Five io (C) Three (0) One ‘Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correctly matched? (A) Sec. 45 - Opinions of experts a (B) Sec. 100 — Burden of proof, cote (C) Sec. 141 — Leading questions ~ (D) Sec. 124 - Official communication ~ 49% Winich of the following is not a child care institution under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protect Act, 2015? — (A) Welfare home . (8) Observation home (C) Children home (0) Open shelter, 42. Hearsay evidence is admisgible in which of the following cases? (A) Res Gestae (8) Dying Declaration’ (C) Admissions and confessions (D) All of the above / tayoe Bernina of the following 1s NOL recognised as a general defen 45 47 48 49 in an otfence of sexual harassment, where the question af consent is an issue A) Prewous sexual expenences of the victim with any person va relevant fact (8) Ewdence of the character of the victim 8 a relevant tuct « 1B ey gence of the character of the victim 8 an relevant fact but the previous sexual expavience wih any person 1s relevant - (D) Previous sexual expenence relevant facts y~ watt any person and evidence of the charactor of the victim both are ce to tortious habalily in Inia? (A) Mistake (8) Novus actus intervemens_” {C) Necessity (0) Statutory Authonty> The neighbour pnnciple’ was |a:d down in (A) Merryweather v Nxan (B) Ryland v Fletcher {C) Donoghue v Stevensqn— (0) Ashby v. White Test of directness for determining remoteness of damage was lard down 1s (A) Wagon Mound 1 (B) Wagon Mound 2 (C) Polemis v. Furness Withy & Co. Lid (0) Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. V. Mort's Dock Engg, Co. Ltd . Nuisance is interference with the person's nght to (A) Possession (B) Ownership (C) Leave and licence (0) Use and enjoyment_~ A statute may be interpreted by judges by using different cules, Which of the following a rule of interpretation? (A) Gandhian Rule (8) Golden Rule (C) Literal Rule (0) Mischief Rule Which of the following Committees of the (A) Committee on Market Access (8) Committee on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures {C) Committee on Trade and Environment_— (0) Committee on Rules of Ongin The Supreme Court unanimously. struck down clauses 2(d) of Art 323 A and Clause 3(d) of Art 3236 of excluded the yurisdiction of High Court and Supseme Court Y WTO does NOT report to the Council for Trade a Gauss? the Constitution telating 1o-tnbunais which ¢ re oa that power of udcial review is an niegial pat ol ne basic suucture Shing consttuton_N. the case a (A) L Chandra Kumar v. Union of Indig_— (8) Kihota Holiohon v. Zachiihu {C) Nagaraj v State of AP {O) Rajendra Singh Rana v Swami Prasad Maurya (5) PG-aP-02@ J nich type of invention is NOT patentable in India? (A) invention which is trvolous or which clat laws, (8) an invention the primary of intended use or commercial oxplottation of which could be contrary to public order or morality oF which causes serious projudice to human, animal oF plant Me or health (01 to the environment (C) the mere discovery of sciontitc any living thing or non-living subst (0) Allthe above 7 18 anything obviously contrary to well established natural neiple of the formulation of an abs nce occurting in nature theory or discovery of 52. Which one of the following essentials for seeking clam of patent 1s wrong? First fing of application (8) Non-obviousness (C) Novelty— (O) Industrial utity — 53. Delegated Legislation is (A) the law made by the Parlament or the State Legislature under dele Constitution : {Br the we, regulations byelaws,etc., madg by subordinate authorities, under delegated authonty from the Parliament or State Legislature (C) the Ordinance promulgated by the President or the Governor under delegated authonty from tne Constitution (0) law declared by the third tier of the government like the panchayat and municipal bodies ated _authority trom the 54, The hability of a surety, in a contract of quarantoo, js (A) Secondary to the liability of the principal debtor unless agreed otherwise (8) Always co-extensive to the liability of the principal debtor fe pecnensteetate ae of the principal deblor unless agreed otherwise he Always secondary to the liability of the principal debtor %rtter, acceptance, agreement, considerationg& @) Agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance (C) Offer, consideration, acceptance, agreement” (0) Offer’ acceptance, consideration, agreeme: 56. According to Immanuel Kant, rational formal knowledge is: (A) material knowledge (B) concerned with the object of the knowledge (C) concerned with the form of understanding and reasons themselve (D) a misnomerpk ‘The chief proponent of the sociological school of jurisprudence 1s : (A) Sir Henry Maine ¢- ~ (8) Montesquieu ‘Hegel (D) Immanuel Kant ox 58. ‘Nine points of the law’ refers to (A) Possession ~ (B) Ownership uw ‘ (C) Duties (0) Right ©) According to the purpose theary of legal personality, (A) Only human beings can be persons (8) Personality is decided by the function that the said entity is going to perform (C) Legal personality is conferred by the State on entities (0) An entity with independent e: es a personality by its mere existence. — [6]CENTRAL UNNwen = (ofomen of the following is an INCORRECT jurgi telation? nae Oy ‘Y's duty with regard to X 1s expressed by X as you must. (x has 2 nahin strict xs Tigedam 10 dp-somelngg.in telahon la Y1s expressed by Aas} may (XR: i rivifege) “3 Y's to alter X's legal (0) XS abilly to alter. V's toga! po: 61. Which of the folowing « NOS disqualification for enrolment in the state os as an aaverate? (A) Conviction for.an. offence involying moral turpdude (8) Membership ina political party... The Protection of Civil Rights Act..1955 (C) Conviction of an offence under (0) Dismissed or remaved.from employment or office under the State on any charge invatwng mo turptude — or dam) — atherty ome position would be expressed by ¥ as ‘you cannot (X has sition is expressed by X as ican (Khas ajierty ~—— + ¢62) Whos a gamnshee? ‘ (A) Aperson who has rendered his property as a collateral guarantee to a third person's bank loan L (B) A person whose back accounts has been attached for detauting repayment ‘of oan {C) A third party who has been instructed by way of a legal order to surrender. money. 10 settle a deot or aciaim — a (0) A person who is lable for arrest for faling to repay a loan 63. Righ}46 appeal is a Statutory ight (8) Inherent nght (C) Constitutional ight X (0) Legal nght 64. Which one ofthe folowing if GOR)» relation a bank may hold with ts customers? (A) Debtor (B) Creditor (C) Guarantorgk (0) Mortgagor, 65. Replacemenvropairing the loss or damage to the insured property and thus bringing tito ts onginal value and utity 1s known as the ~ (AJ Doctrine of restoration =~ (B) Doctrine of assurance (C) Doctrine of Contribution r (0) Doctrine of Subrogation 4 | 65, whichone of the folamng NOTan ingurable interest? ‘ (A) Right in a property (B) Aninterest of an agent {C) An interest of incredible sentimental value _~ (0) Aninterest of a bailee the absence of sufficient number of capable guardian’ crimes: 1S lke police oF fnends etc 67 believes that t! 0 makes a person more vulnerable to (A) Routine activities theory ~ (8) Deviant place theory (C) Lifestyle theory (0) Victim precipitation theory 68. TRIPS Agreement does NOT protect (A) Service marks (8) Plant varieties (C) Performers’ nights (0) Process patents of pharmaceutical produsia~ 789 \Wivet of the following is NOT Nn authority undor the Biological Diversity Act, 20022 WA) Subsidiaiy Body on Implementation, + aa (KY National Biodiversity Authority (WC) State Bodiversity Authonty AW) Biological Management Committee Gs) he Supreme Court in Indian Medical Association y. V P Shanta, that WA) A bospital rendonng tree service to some patients and paid services to others is not covered under the detintion of service under the Consumer Protection Act, as gratuitous services is excluded trom the detinition of service under the Act {8} A hospital which renders tee service to some patients and paid service to some others is covered ~* under the dotintion of service, as the patients who receive free service are the beneficiaries of the service hired by the patients who pay for the service (C) A hospital which renders service to the patients is covered under the Consumer Protection Act Whether they are rendering a contract of service or not i (O) A hospital whch is run by the government is not covered under the Consumer Protection Act and the patient who sulfers due to the negligence of a doctor working in the hospital will have to file the case in a civil court under the law of tort 71 Bruce, a cultivator of green tea, agrees with Thor that he would not grow tea for a period of five years wn consideration of which Thor agrees to pay him Rs, 25,000/- (A) The agreement is valid : (8) The agreement is valid as the consideration is adequate {C) The agreement is void as itis in restraint of trade (O) The agreement is voidable at the option of Thor 3) The Central Information Commission falls under, (A) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (8) Ministry of Law and Justice (C) Ministry of Personnel. Public Grievances, and Pensions_~ (O) Ministry of Home Affairs tatements is(NOTD true with respect to inhe; nce according to the Hanafi (A) Ahusband always gets a share irrespective of whether a daughter or son is present 18) A mother is never a residuary o When the deceased has more than one wife, they collectively inherit one-fourth of the property when there are no children or children of sons how-low-so-ever. (0) A daughter is entitled to the same residual share as a son 7 74, In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ‘ia Hindu husband converts into Islam and marries again. he willbe guilty of bigamy"? (A) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India-~ (8) Santha v. Venkata Subbiah (C) Harvinder Kaur v. Harmander Singh (0) Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal 75’ Which ground of divorce was sought to be removed in 2018 (A) Adultery ok (8) Leprosy (C) Apostasy (D) Commuficable venereal diseases (5) The prospectus issued during the process of conversion of a private company to a public company is (A) Statement in lieu of Prospectus (B) Deemed prospectus ~~ (C) Abridged prospectus ; (0) Shelf prospectus [8] PosLYMALUALE ', ‘The doctrine of does not apply to acts void ab initio (A) Uttra virus {B) Lifting of Corporate Veil {C) Constructive notice JB) Indoor management GF company can change its name by (A) Passing a Special Resolution to be approved by the Central Government ~ (8) Passing an Ordinary Resolution at an Annual General Meeting {C) Passing an Ordinary Resolution at an Extra-ordinary General Meeting specifically called for this purpose (0) Passing @ Special Resolution to be approved by the Central Government, only ater allowing dissenting shareholders the opportunity to exit yeas 79. The age limit for directors of public listed companies is (A) 60 years (8) 65 years (C) 70 years (0) Noage limite ~~ 80, Assgssing Officer has the discretion to assess the income of previous year in previous year itself Orin the Subsequent assessment year in case of: (A) Shipping business of non-residents (8) Discontinued business__— (C) Assessment of Association of Persons or Body of Individuals formed for a particular event or purpose () Assessment of persons likely to transfer property to avoid tax 81. Which out of the following is not a case of deemed ownership of house property? (A) Transfer to a spouse for inadequate consideration (8) Holder of an impartible estate (C) Transfer to a minor child for inadequate consideration — (0) Co-owner of a property 82. Sec. 2(12) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 defines 'Mesne profits’ as pv bose pts which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received together with interest per ese profits which the person in wrongful possegsion of property actually received including profits due to improvements made by such person (C) those profits which the person in wrongful possession of property actually received or might have received but without any interest on such profits. (0) those protits which the person n wrongful possession of such property actualy received 83. Which of the following is NOT a right of givil nature? (A) Right to worship (B) Right to bury the dead {C) Right to take a procession (0) Right to recover voluntary payments or offering —~ 84, Pleading has been defined under ‘Order VI, Rule 1 of CPC (B) Order VI, Rule 2 of CPC (C) Order Vill, Rule 1 of CPC (D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of CPC 19] PG-OP-02 RG PROGRAMMES I Monessen=— a 85. The concept Lokpal / Lokayukta Office in India is based upon (A) Independent Commission Against Corruption (Hong Kong) (B) Corrupt Practices investigation Bureau (Singapore) (C) Ombudsman in Scandinavia —~ (0) Pariamentary Commissioner in UK 86. The Supreme Court in the case of held that provisions of 1996 Arbitration and Conciliation Act have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by principles underlying under 1940 Act (A) AMMTC Lid. v Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd (8) Sundamm Finance Ltd. v.N.E.P.C. India Ltd (C) Olympus Super Structures Pvt Ltd. v. Meemz Vijay Khetan (0) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissuri Arb. Pte. Ltd 87. Aparty - (A) cannot challenge an arbitrator appointed by him (B) may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him for reason of which he becomes aware after the appointment has been made (C) may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him for reason known to him before the appointment is made (©) may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him irrespective of the reasons being known to him before the appointment or becoming aware of the reasons after the appointment has been made 88. As per Competition Act, 2002, any agreement requiring a purchase of goods, as a condition of such purchase. to purchase some other goods is called (A) Tie-in agreement (8) Exclusive distribution agreement (C) Exclusive supply agreement (0) Combination 89. The number of days for notice that is to be given to the Competition Commission of India when an enterprise proposes to enter into a combination, as per the Competition Act, 2002 is (A) 07 Days (B) 15 Days (C) 30 Days (0) 60 Days 90. The Factories Act, 1948, Mines Act, 1952, Plantation Labour Act, 1951, The Building and Other Constructions Workers’ (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 are to be ‘subsumed into . (A) Labour Code on Industrial Relations (8) Labour Code on Occupational Safety, Health, and Working Conditions, (C) Labour Code on Social Security and Welfare . (0) Labour Code on Industrial Relations off, Under the Payment of Wages Act, payment of wages of establishments employing not tess than 1000 ‘employees shall be paid within of the wage month (A) 7° day (8) 15” day, (Cc) 14% ax (0) 10" day 0 is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948? (A) Who has completed 17 years of age (8) Whois less than 18 years (C) Who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years_7 (0) Who has completed 12 years of ey {10} PG-oPa CENT RSH NTRAL UNIVERSiTy cre y 93 The Pubic Tvs Dodungrs associated wih (a) NC Menta v Kamal Nath and Or (a) ae Menta State of Tari Nady A (2) MC Menta v Union of India {GM Me or Enaro ena Acton ve Unon of naa 94 convention adopted for the protectin of orone taynr? (A) Vienna Conventio {B) Basel Convention 1B) ontteal Protocol & {b) Stockholm Convention 95 The Oleum Gas Leak case ‘Act was enacted by the Parliament (a) Enwronment Protection Act (8) National Environmental Tribunal Act (C) Public Liabiity Insurance Act_~ (0) Industral Leaks (Prevention and Control) Act 96 Marshalling of secunties is proviged in s (hy Sec. 78 of the Transfer of Property A O {B) Sec. 79 of the Transfer of Property aa wr (C) Sec. 80 of the Transfer of Property Act (D) Sec. 81 of the Transfer of Property Ad flere ) 97. Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and autor ses him to retain it until repayment of the loan. ‘and permits the mortgagee to receive the rents and o7of's from the property in lieu of interest, it's called as (A) English Mortgage (B) Usufructuary Mortgage (C) Simple Mortgage ee (0) Anomalous Mortgage 38.) Which of the following is. out? (A) Revathi v. Union of India (B) Yusuf Aziz v. State of Bombay (C) Daniel Latifi v. Union of Indi (D) Joseph Shine v. Union of Indi 99, Mothers were recognised as natural guardians of their children by the Supreme Court in (A) Gita Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India (8) Jijabhai v. Pathan a (C) Vandana Shiva v. Jayanta Bandopadhyay (D) Rameshwari Devi v. State of Rajasthan 4100. When does an agreement to sell become a sale as per the provisions of Sa (A) When the seller transfers the property in goods _— (8) When the seller agrees to transfer the property. 10-90% (C) When the time elapses or the conditions subject.to which the transferred are fulfilled - (0) Agreement to sell sel is deemed to be Oe Je of Goods Act. 1239 erty sn the goods 1s to be 111) PGs