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1 ® Aakash MedicalliIT-IEE | Foundations Regd. Office ‘Aakash Tower. 6. Pusa Rond, Now Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623486 NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES ‘Test - 09 Chemistry : Carboxylic Acids Botany : Zoology = Complete syllabus of X! and Xi Complete syllabus of XI and Xit ‘Topics covered in various Physics Ray Optics, Wave Optics, Dual Nature Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes and Ketones and | PHYSICS Read following statements A and B carefully and choose the option which represents the correct answer Statement A: Inorder to explain the phenomena of refracton, Newton postuated that the speed of the compusces was ‘greater in water or ass than n a In corpuscular picture of ‘refraction particle of light incident from a rarer to denser medium experience a force of attraction normal to the surface. This results in the normal component of the velocity increases but the component along the surface is unchanged. (1) Only statement (A) is correct (2) Only statement (8) is correct (3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Neither statement (A) nor (B) is correct. Light can be considered to travel in a straight line because (A) this reflected by obstaces (2) tts velocity is very large (2) Itis refracted by obstacles (4) Its wavelength is very small compared to the size of obstacles 3 (Page 1] The earth takes 24 h to rotate once about its axis How much time does the sun take to shift by 3° when viewed from the earth. is (1) 2min (2) 12min (3) Smin (4) 4 min Read following statements A and B carefully ‘and choose the option which represents the correct answer Statement A: The real image of an object placed between f and 2f from ‘convex lens can be seen on a screen placed at the image location. if the screen is removed, the image is stil there. Image formation needs regular feflection of refraction. In the principle, all rays from a given point should reach the same image point. This is the reason ‘why we do not see our image by an irregular reflecting ‘object. ‘Statement B: (1) Only statement (A) is correct (2) Only statement (B) is correct (3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Neither statement (A) nor (B) is correct NBTS-09 5. Inthe phenomenon of mirage, select an incorrect statement (1) The refractive index of air increases with its density (2) Hotter air has smaiier refractive index than the cooler air (3) Ifthe airs stil, the optical density at diferent layers of air increases with height (4) The apparent image of the object may Create an illusion to the observer whether the temperature above the ground is. non- ‘uniform or uniform 6. Suppose while sitting in a parked car you notice a jogger approaching towards you in the side View mirror of R= 2 m. The jogger is running at 8 speed of 4 ms". If the jogger is at a distance ‘0f 28 m from the mirror. then the average speed ‘of the image of the jogger in one second is ones HB ay (1) sg me @) Zim (@) i ms (4) Zero 150 7. Select the incorrect statement about the convex mirror. (1) It produces a virtual image, independent of the location of the real object (2) The ray, appearing to pass through the centre of curvature of it, retraces the path after the reflection (3) It can produce a real image (4) The virtual image of the real object, produced by it, is enlarged in size 8. The double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with the radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is double ‘of the other. Ifthe focal length is to be 20cm then the radi of the tens is (1) 12cm, 24 em (2) 12.5.¢m, 25cm (8) 16 cm, 32cm (4) 165m, 33 cm ‘Acconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. A ‘beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this combination, will (1) Diverge (2) Converge (3) Retum to infinity (4) Remain undeviated 10. 12. 13, 14, (Page 2) 'A3.9 cm needie is placed 24 cm away from a ‘convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. The size of the image of candle is (1) 1.5.¢m (2) 250m @) 4em (4) 450m ‘A prism of refracting angle 65" is made of glass ‘of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident on a face of the prism. The angle ‘of minimum deviation is measured to be 55° in air. IH the prism is placed in @ liquid, then ‘minimum deviation is 25°. The refractive indox of the tiquid is fa OF @ 5 7 iB ® V5 @) £ ‘The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the ‘wall of @ room is to be obtained on the opposite ‘wall 2 m away by means of a convex lens. The maximum possible focal length of the tens required for the purpose is (1) 0.30. m (2) 0.25m 3) 075m (4) 50cm ‘Abeam of ight converges to a point P. A convex ens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 15 cm from P. If the focal length of the fens is 30 cm then the point where the beam converges, is (1) 1S¢mfromiens (2) 10 em from P (3) Sem trom P (4) 5cm from lens, ‘A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from above from a distance of 40 cm. If itis viewed {rom the same point through a 12 cm thick glass slab of refractive index 1.5 held parallel to the table then the distance by which the pin appears tobe raised up, is (1) Bem (2) 4m (3) 12¢m (4) 10cm 18. A screen is placed 80 cm trom an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by & convex tens al two different locations: ‘Separated by 16 cm, The focal length of the lens is nearly (1) 19.2, @) 155m (9) 192m (@) 155em 16, Two thin prisms A and B made of glass of rolractive index 1.6 and 1.5 respectively. are combined with each other $0 that this combination produces dispersion without deviation. If retracting angie of prism A is 10° then the refracting angie of second prism wil be (1) 12" @ es 17, The critical angle of fint glass and crown glass ‘are 8; and G2 respectively. Then the correct (2) 168" “8 ‘elation is (1) > (2) 1 < (3) 81 = Or (4) Or = 27 18. Aman with normal near point (25 cm) reads a ‘book with small print using @ thin convex tens Cf focal length 4 om, The minimum angular ‘magnification using the above simple ‘microscope, is (1) 6.25 (2) 7:25 a6 @s the magnitying power is (1) 32 2) 336 (3) 30 4) 48 2. 22, 23, (1) Cnty statement (A) is correct (2) Only statement (B) is correct (3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Neier statement (A) nor (B) is correct Select incorrect option about tight (1) tn the wave picture of ight, intensity of fight ‘is determined by the square of the amplitude of the wave (2) When light travels trom a rarer to 3 denser medium, the speed decreases: (3) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected fand refracted light both have the same frequency and wavelength (4) For agiven trequency, intensity of ightin the photon picture. is defined by the number of Bhotons crossing an unit area per unit tne Select the incorrect option about the variation in {he interference fringes in YDSE (1) On increasing the distance of the screen from the plane of the sits, the angular separation of fringes remains constant {@) On replacing the monochromatic source by ‘4 source of white light, the fringes closest on either side of the central white fringe is blue ‘and the farthest will appear red (3) On moving the source slit, closer to double- slit plane. The interference fringes may ossappear (4) On increasing the separation between two silts, the angular separation decreases. ‘The distance between the two siits in double slit ‘experiment is 2 mm. The width of each slit, to obtain 6 maxima of the doubie slit pattem within ‘the central maxima of single slit pattem, is (1) 0.5mm 2) 02mm (3) 0.25 mm. (4) 0.125 mm Assume that the light of wavelength $000 A° is, ‘coming from a star. i the obj of a tlescope has a cametr of 25 mtnen the tnt of resolution of the telescope is (1) 2% 107 rad (2) 4.12 10" rad (8) 2.44% 107 rad (4) 1.25% 10"? rad interference pattem with that, seen for coherently iluminated single sit diffraction (1) The interference patiern has a number of ‘equally spaced bright and dark bands (2) The intensity falis as we go to successive maxima away from the centre, on either side (3) The diffraction pattern &s a superposition of {a discontinuous family of waves originating from each point on a single sit (4) The diffraction pattern has a centrat maximum which is twice as wide as other maxima wavelength 500 nm, The fringe formed on a distant spacing between the two sits is (1) 34% 104m (2) 3* 109m (3) 3 104m (4) 14% 104m If the aperture is 2 mm wide and the wavelength 2 is 500 nm, then the Fresnel distance is (1) 18m (2) 8m (3) 6m 4) 12m unpolarised polaroid Pr is kept in between P; and Ps such that its axis makes on angle 8 with that of Ps ‘The intensity of light emerging from Ps will be maximum # 0's On (2) 4) Gia xia x OZ 29. Select incorrect statement for the shape of the wavefront. (1) Light, diverging from a point source, have spherical wavefront (2) Light emerging out of a convex lens, when a point source is placed at its focus, have plane wavefront (3) The portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star, intercepted by the Earth, is plane (4) Light reflecting from a concave mirror, when, a plane wave is incident on the concave mirror, have plane wavefront 30. Ina single-siit diffraction. HW the width of the sit is made haif of the onginat width, then The size of the central diffraction band reduces to half of the initial size The intensity of the central diffraction band becomes four times (9) The size of the central eiffraction band becomes four times (4) The intensity of the central diiraction band becomes one fourth of the initial In a double slit experiment, when light of ‘500 nm was used, the angular width, wPstnnge was found to be 0.4" On @ screen Slaced tm away. Hf the entire experimental Coparatus is immersed in water, then angular nth of the fringe will Be [jmwe = 4/3) aor (2) 0.08" (3) 0.15° (@) 03" 432. Select incorrect statement about the speed of light in a medium. (1) Ris independent of the direction of propagation for isotropic media (2) itis dependent on the motion of the source relative to the medium (3) It does not depend on the nature of the source (4) Itis independent of intensity (in general) 33. Which phenomena is/are not possible tor o @ 31 longitudinal wave? (1) Diffraction (2) Refraction (3) Polarization (4) Both (2) ana (3) 34, The speed of light in glass for red and violet colour are v, and v, respectively. Then the correct relation between v, and v, is (1) > % @) v,>%, 8) v= ¥, (@) v,=2y, 35. Photoelectric effect in a photosensitive material of copper, is possible for (1) Uttraviolet tight (2) Green light es (4) Allof these Mhtnntkaenaal (1) Total energy is conserved (2) Total momentum is conserved (3) The number of photons are conserved (4) Both (1) & (2) ————— eee ae 4) (Page NBTS.09 37. Read following statements A and B carehily and choose the cose the option which represents. the Statement A: In photoelectric effect, the stopping potential is independent of the intensity of incident radiation, The maximum kinet the" photoolecvons "vohce Otinederecadeson ene (1) Only statement (A) is correct (2) Only statement (B) is correct (3) Both the statements (A) & (B) are correct (4) Neither statement (A) nor (B) is correct 38. Photoelectric current depends on (1) The nature of the emitter material (2) The intensity of incident light (3) The potential difference applied between the Statement 8: two electrodes (4) Allof these 39. The maximum frequency of X-rays produced by 82.8 kV electrons is (1) 1.5 10 Hz (2) 62™ 10" Hz (3) 6 10" Hz (4) 2* 10" Hz. 40. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 64V, is (1) 6A (2) 1.5A (3) 2A (4) 42A 41. An electron, an a-particle and a proton have the de-Brogiie wavelength is, Aa and ie 46. Preferred reagent to replace hydroxy! group of alcohol by halogen is (1) PBr, (2) PCts (3) Sock (4), NaBriH2SO« 47. Finkelstein reaction is used to prepare (1) RF (2) Rel 42. 43 45. ‘respectively. If kinetic energy is samo for these particles, then the correct relation between wavelength is (1) da < hair (2) de> he? de (3) de> 22> da (4) hehe < he Select the incorrect statement about photon (1) Photons are electrically neutral and deflected by electric and magnetic field (2) On increasing the intensity of tight of given wavelength, there is an increase in the ‘fumber of photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon having the different energy (3) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons (4) Each photon has the speed of light An electron has a wavelength of 3. nm. The ‘momentum of the electron is (1) 66x 10-%kgmis (2) 33* 10 kg mvs (3) 2.2% 10g mis (4) 4.4 102" kg mis In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of Incident ight, is found to be 4.14 « 10° V's, The value of Planck’s constant is (1) 659% 10Js (2) 660* 10% Js (3) 662*10%Js (4) 6.61 * 10 Js ‘The work function of a metal is 1 eV. When light Of frequency 4 = 10° Hz is incident on the metal, ‘surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is not CHEMISTRY (1) 0.66 ev (2) 052 ev (3) 1.25ev (4) 15ev ) ‘CH,-CH=CH, aie | eee. ST Correct order of doling point of CHaCHiCH:CH2Br (1), CH;CH,CHCH, (I!) and 8 oxo CO} 4) > > ay (2) (> >) (9) (> >), 44) cay > > @) A CHEHCHOK oy é Aand Bare (1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers (3) Functional isomers (4) Identical For the Su2 reaction RX + Nu ~» R-Nu + X°, rate ‘of reaction is maximum when Ris (1) Metnyt (2) Etryt Q) tsopropy! (4) Tert-buty! Maximum reactivty towards Sx1 reaction among the following is of Br a ,-8r “Oo” 1-CH,-Br 6) Hy HBr o) Chiral molecule among the following is (1) Butan-2-01 (2) Butan-1-01 (3) Butane (4) Bulene ‘Major product of the reaction is & (1) CHy-CHr-CH>-CH=CH» (2) CHy-CH=CH-CH-CHy @ peas te ) See 56. 57. oy ear Product Bis o © pi oy ‘Maximum reactivity towards NaOH is of 1 NO, ” 2) a No, ON No, @ 4 No, os Hydroquinone is OH a) (2) ° r OH OH aC 58. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard ‘eagent gives primary alcohol? (1) HeHO (2) CHsCHO (3) CHyCOCH) o 8 60, Most acidic among the following is (1) p-Nitrophenot (2) o-Nitropheno! (3) p-Cresot (4) Phenot 61. CHy-CH=CH-CH-OH — + A Product A is (1) CH-CH=CH-CHO (2) CHy-CH=CH-COOH (3) CH-CH-CH-CHO bx On (4) CHG —C-CHO é 8 ee o gs cH, (@) CH-6-Br + CHONA bs, oe (3) CH-CH-ONa + CH,CH.Er cH, r (4) CH-CH-Br + CH,CH,ON ‘Major product that are formed by heating aes sis ena rue (1) CuSO« (2) 2nSO« (3) HaSO« (4) Het REN + SoC + HCI» RCH = NH ——+ RCHO ‘Above reaction is known 38 (1) Stephen reduction (2) Rosenmund reduction (8) Wolff-Kishner reduction (4) Clemmensen reduction . Oster or wis coo Ge ersOH and HCOOK 68. (OB, . Gegect (ii) NaOHH,O, * Ais (1) Propanol (2) Propanone (3) Propanal (4) Propanoic acid 69. (C)- seocsaaton CH, ”) or (2) oy CHO @) or “ oy 70. Satire wens te Somes by We reaction ” Aydinle (2) Amines (3) Hydrazine (4) Pheny! hydrazine 71, lon used in Tolien’s reagent is (age (2) (Ag(NHs)a}" (3) Cu* (4) Cur 72, Haloform reaction is shown by a 76. 7 fa) CHOK and HOOK Malonic acid iS (2) HOOC-CHr-COOH (a) HOOC-{CH:)-COOH (4) HOOC-{CHi)p-COOH H, H,CH.C (a) Kade, KOM rt ~“ Product Ais CH,COOH ” H,CH,CHO- (2) HO 4) Br Ostet Hy 73. Which of the following forms 2,4-DNP derivative ‘and does not reduce Tollen’s or Fehing oat CS reagent? CH, (1) HCHO (2) CH:CHO (3) CHsCOCH) (4) HCOOH 0 TA: Whi oe: thowlng con dere, sie a ewe (2) (CHsxCH-CHO @ io, cHy @ (0-02 (4) (CHsC-CHO 75. HCHOSE A+B oor” Product A and 8 are CHC (1) CHsOH and HCOOH (4) (2) CHsOK and HCOOH (Page 8) [rin 2 ek eee 78. Minimum pKa among the following is of (1) CFCOOH (@) NO:CH:COOH Product Ain the above reaction s (1) CrhCHeCOBr @ SecHccaon Be e Sete @ ae 81. Maximum ‘towards nucleophile ‘ction reaction of (1) HCHO: (2) CryCHO (3) CHsCOCH) (4) CHaCH:CHO- 82. Wnien alkene on ozonolysis gives ethanal and propanone? (1) CHy-CH=CHy (2) Clty-CH=CHe-Clty @) CHrERCHCH, (ay CHE FO, HH, CH,CH, 83, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields three isomeric monochionides (exchuding stereoisomers) (1) CrbCH (2) CHsCHiCHs (3) CHaCHaCH:CH> light to form (co (2) cock (3) CO (4) HCHO 185. Ethyl alcohol on reaction with H:SO« at 413 ‘gives which ofthe following main product? (1) Akene G) ere (9) Ether (4) Aldehyde Ch Kon, * 86, oe x Product 8 is (1) CHICH:CH (2) CHiCH:CH:OH (3) CHaCH(OH)CH> (4) ClCHrOCH> 87. CHCOOH Le Ao B reer ane Product Cs (1) Crbcrh (2) CHiCH:CH (@) CincH:CHCHs (4) CreCH:CH:cH:CHs 188, Which of the following is/are benzylic chiorde? oC @ o” hee SOH ni 90, Ethanoic acid on treatment with P20s gives: (1) Ester (2) Annyarice (3) Aldehyde (4) Alcohol 92. Indian Botanical Garden is located in which of : wth growth In al 1. Re ome, sxcapt the given city of India? (1) Bacteria (2) Amoeba es Bute (2) UncetuarAlgoe (4) Most Fd Cerne LES ‘Page 3 no as NBTS-09 93. Which of the given groups of bacteria are Present in the guts of several ruminant animals. ‘SUCH as cows and buffaloes and are responsible {or production of methane (biogas) from dung of these animals? (1) Halophites (2) Thermoacidophites (3) Methanogens (4) Eubacteria ‘94, Which of the given protists has a protein rich ayer called pellicle instead of a cell wall? (1) Dinofagetates (2) Euglenoids, (3) Slime moulds (4) Diatoms 95. Artificial system of classification was based on (1) Natural affinities among the organisms (2) Evolutionary relationships between various ‘organisms (3) Phytochemistry (4) Vegetative and sexual characteristics 98. Which of he gen plent groupe. Inches horsetails and ferns’ (1) Algae (2) Bryophyte (3) Preridophyte (4) Gymnosperm 97. Cells at region of meristematic activity in root-tip exhibits all of ihe given properties, except (1) Are thin-walled (2) Have dense protoplasm (3) Gradually differentiate and mature (4) Divide repeatedly 98. Which of the given is a medicinal plant of family Fabaceae? (1) Matiathi (2) Belladonna (3) Ashwagandha (4) Aloo 99. Select the incorrect statement wrt. ‘vichomes'. (1) Are usually unicellular in the shoot system (2) May be branched or unbranched (3) May even be secretory (4), Helps in preventing water loss due to transpiration Read the statements, stating them true (T) or faise (F) and select the correct option. ‘A Annual rings seen in a cut stem give an estimate of the age of the tree. B Spring wood Is lighter in colour and has 9 lower density Autumn wood is darker and has @ higher density. 1D Lenticels permit the exchange of gases the outer almosphere and the internal tissue of | a F F F T T s a|a}o alo | @ | 1 101. Which of the given chromosomes has middie centromere forming two equal arms of the chromosome? (1) Metacentric chromosome (2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (3) Acrocentric chromosome (4) Telocentric chromosome 102. Which of the given cell organelles is formed by Ihe process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus? (1) Vacuole (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Lysosome (4) Ribosome 103. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Cet grow rest in disturbing fatio between the nucleus Sinsaeeeee, ‘Mitotic divisions in the mertstematc. lissues-the apical and the lateral cambium, result in a continuous grOM of pants throughout ther Statement B: (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement 8 is correct, (3) Both the statements are correct (4) Both the statements are incorrect NBTS-09 104. The recombinase-mediated process occurs in which of the given stages of prophase | of meiosis? (1) Leptotene (2) 2ygotene 2) Pechyens (4) Diplotene 105. Select the incorrect statement wrt the given diagram Extemal solution Prant cell (1) There is no net flow of water towards the inside oF outside the plant cell (2) The extemat solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm of the plant cell (3) Water flows into the cell and out of the cel! are in equilrium (4) The plant celtis tending towards turgid state 106, The bulk movement of substances through the ‘conducting or vascular tissues of plants is called (1) Translocation (2) Transpiration (3) imbibition (4) Guttation 107. Nitrogen is the mineral element required by the plants in the greatest amount. It is absorbed mainly as (1) NO3 (3) NHI (2) NO; (4) Both (1) and (2) 108. Read the given statements, stating them true (T) Cr, false (F) and select the correct option ‘A In legume plants, division and growth of cortical and pericycie cells lead to nodule ‘agricultural ecosystem. © One of the toxic effects of manganese in plants i inhibition of calcium transiocation in shoot apex. 1D Some elements like N, S, Mo delay flowering if their concentration in plants is low. 1" 108, 110. m1 112. 13. 114. For every CO: molecule entering the Calvin ‘pyle, how many molecules of ATP and NADPH respectively are required? (1) Sand 2 (@) 2and3 (3) 1ang2 (4) 20nd 1 ‘The primary COs acceptor w.r.t, Cs cycle is (1) Prosphoenol pyruvate (2) Ribulose bisphosphate (3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) Phosphoglycenc acid In which of the given stages of glycolysis, ATP is utilised? ‘A. Glucose -+ Glucose-6-phosphate 8 Giucose-é-phosphate -+ Frictose-6-phosphate ©. Fructose-6-phosphate + Fructose-1.6- bisphosphate 1D Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate > Giyceraidehyde- 3-phosphate (1) Aand B (2) Band C (3) Aang (4) Band When proteins are respiratory substrate, the ratio of volume of CO; evolved to the volume of ‘Ozconsumed would be about (10 (2) 07 @) 1.33 (4) 09 In most situations, which of the given plant hormones acts as an antagonist to GAS? (1) Aun (2) ABA (@) Cytokinin (4) Etnytene Match the Column-| and Columm-il w.r.t to plant hormones and their applications Column Column a Auxin () Helps seed to \wihstand desiccation Cytokinin (W) Induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes © Ethylene (ii) Helps to produce new chloroplasts in leaves, 4 Abscisic acid {v) Induces flowering in mango © | @ | @ lw | o «ai (wy) 0 w 118 Sania piesa nae (1) Penicitiium - Conidia (2) Chlamydomonas - Zoospore (3) Yeast - Bud (4) Agave - Offset 116. Select the incorrect statement wr.1, syngamy. (1) tt ts the most vital event of sexual ste @) (2) Includes fusion of gametes (3) The term fertilisation is also often used for syngamy (4) Occurs inside the body of majonty of algae and fishes as well as amphibians 117. Which of the given layers of anther possesses: dense cytoplasm and generally have more than ‘one nucleus? (1) Epidermis (2) Midaie layer (3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum 118. In flowering plants, the body of the ovule fuses ‘with funiele in the region called (1) Cotyledon (2) Hitum (3) Micropyle (4) integument 119. Which of the following crosses in plant is considered to be test cross? (1) Yellow seeded plant x Green seeded plant (2) Violet fowered plant x Violet flowered plant (8) Full pod plant x White flowered plant (4) Dwarf plant x Green pod plant 120. Select the incorrect statement w.rt. sickle-cell ‘anaemia. (1) this an autosomal inked recessive trait (2) can be transmitted from parents to ‘when both the partners are carrier {for that particular gene (or heterozygous) (3) is controled by a single pair of allele (4) Its caused by the substitution of vane (va!) ‘by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the sixth position ‘of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule 121. One codon codes for only one amino acid. It roberts which of tha gon fost of gone (1) Commatess (2) Unambiguous (3) Degenerate (4) Universality 122,DNA as an acidic substance present in the nucleus was first identified by (1) Erwin Chargatt (2) Maurice Wilkin (@) Friedrich Miescher (4) Rosalind Franklin 123, All of the given diseases are caused by fungi, except (1) Brown rust of wheat (2) Black rot of crucifers, (3) Red rot of sugarcane (4) Late blight of potato 124, Which of the following should be performed to obiain virus-free plants from diseased plant? (1) Growing of meristems in vitro (2) Somatic hybridisation {@) Fusion of protoplasts from two different plants (4) Growing of embryo in vitro 125.Full potential of penicilin as an effective antibiotic was established by (1) Alexander Fleming (2) Emest Chain (3) Howard Florey (4) Both (2) and (3) 126. Which of the given bioactive molecule acts by ‘competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol in the human body? (1) Statin (2) Cyclosporin-A (3) Lipase (4) Streptokinase 127. Which of the given population attributes cause decline in population density? (1) Natality and Mortality (2) Mortality and Emigration (3) Immigration and Emigration (4) Natality and Immigration (Page 12) 7 ‘Tha interacion where one species 12%: Ta uber a namherboneted not harmed (2) Over-expataton = {G) Alien species invasions (1) Commensaism (2) Amensalism (4) Co-extinetions (9) Competition (4) Mutuatism 4199, Which ofthe given greenhouse gases wt {helt 429. Read the following statements Witte conmiuton, contributes maximum ‘correct option ‘and select the ‘otal global warming? ‘Statement A: Pyramid of energy i (1) NO 2) cFc vpnight pas. (0) Che (4) 6Oz ‘Statement B: Transfer ot energy at successive | Match Columot with Columrrit and select the trophic level flows. 10 percent eorreet opton -. Column Columa-t (1) Only statement A is correct a Anmed Khan () Created Haryana: {@) Oniy statement B is correct isan Welfare Cub {@) Both the statements are correct bb Amrita Dew Bishnoi (8) Remedy t0 plastic eon te € Ramesh Chandra (ii) Sacrificed ite for 490. Ploneer community in hydarch succession is eos © cong vest (1) Phytoplankton Ae = (2) Free-floating angiosperm = (3) Rooted hydrophytes: o 0 @ + “ (4) Forest @) @ a 5 31. Which of the vertebré -contnibut ree cena bod rae a @ @ @ 0 (1) Fishes (2) Mammais: l 4) o @ co) eh oes () Receies 135. The sequence of chromosome 4 wrt. Human 1492, The most important cause driving animals and Genome Project was completed only in ‘plants to extinction is. (1) May, 2006 (2) August, 2003 (1), Habat oss ond Iraproentaton (3) duty, 2008 (6) May, 2003 "436. Read the following statements A and B coreluily (2) Both the statements A. B are correct { ‘aod choose the option which represents the ee eee correct answer (3) Only statement A is correct , . i — SA SO (4 Oniy statement Bis corect % continuity Bis mes ‘generation after generator 137, Sperm ot Rat contains 21 chromosomes: What will 4 ‘Statement B; Zygote is the vital Ink that ensures ‘be number of chromosomes in their meiocytes? We ‘continuity of species between e ifn’ ‘organisms of one generation. aa (242 (3) 63 (4) 84 13 NBTS-09 138. AB of the folowng are differences between male and female reproductive events/stuctires except (1) In female, Oogenesis stants during her foetal de whereas in male it starts at puberty (2) Sperm formation continues even in ol6 men, but formation of ovum ceases in women ‘around the age of 50 years, (3) Four sperms are produced from 9 primary spermatocyte and single ootid is produced from a primary oocyte (4) Male germ celis are haploid whereas oogonia in females are diploid 139, Seminal plasma does not contains (1) Enzyme (2) Glycogen (3) Ca” (3) Fructose 140, Diagrammatic sectional view of mammary gland is shown in the folowing figure. Choose the option which correctly represents A and B 142. Rapid decine in all of the following is responsibie {for increase in population growth except (1) Death rate (2) Maternal mortatity rate (3) Number of people in reproducible age (4) Infant mortality rate 143. Select the correct statement w.rt. steroidal oral contraceptive pil. (1) They contan smat doses of ether progesterone oF ‘estrogen (2) Combined pills have to be taken daily throughout menstrual cycle starting preferably ‘within the first five days of menstrual cycle (3) They inhibat ovulation and implantation but not ‘alter quality of cervical mucus. (4) Pills are very effective and well accepted by females 144, Select the incorrect statement wrt, assisted reproductive technologies. (1) Test tube baby programme includes both IVF and ET (2) Embryo formes either by in vitro fertisation oF by in vivo fertilisation can be used for 1UT (3) In ICSI, a sperm is directly injected into the ‘ovum within fallopian tube (4) Only in vivo fertitsation is possibie in GIFT 145. Leghorn is breed of A_and Jersey is breed of B. Choose the option which correctly represents A and B [S.No A SB 7 Cartiagnaus shes | Goat 2 Bony fishes ‘Sheep 3 Chiexens Cow 4. Cow ‘Chicken 141, During embryonic development, certain cells called stem cells have the potency to give rise to 146. All of the following are fresh water edible fishes except (1) Catia (2) Rohu (3) Common carp (4) Pomfrets 147. In string type bioreactors, the stirrer facilitates (1) Oxygen availability (2) Product removal ‘all the tissues and organs. Such stem cells are (3) pH controt (4) Regulation of process present in 148. in DNA technology, YONA means (1) Trophobiast (1) DNA with a piece of RNA (2) Outer cell mass (2) ONA with a piece of foreign DNA (8) Inner colt mass (3) DNA which takes part in recombination (4) Ectoderm (4) DNA not associated with foreign gene Page 74) 4 NBTS.09 149, The geno: detect edenoaine 6 5 dofconcy may be cured permanently by y (1) Administering adenosine deanvnase promoters (2) Introducing bone marrow colts producing ‘enzyme only once (3) Enzyme replacement therapy (4) Isolating ganes trom marrow colts producing ADA and introducing those genes into celts at arty embryonic stagos 150. Which of the fotiowing 1s incorrect statement for Bt toxin? (1) Crystats of BL toxin produced by some bacteria kill the bacteria themselves. {2) Cry 1 Ab is offective against com borer (3) Bt toxin ts not harmful to mammais (4) Cry 1 Ac is effective against cotton botlworms 151. Birds with average sized wings, survived ino severe storm more successtuily than with longer ‘oF shortor wings. It illustrates (1) Stabilising setection (2) Gene flow (3) Disruptive selection {4) Founder effect 4152. ifthe frequency of a dominant aliole ‘Bin @ given ‘population is 0.64, then find out the frequency of other recessive allele 'b’ in the same population when population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (1) 0.064 (2)06 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.96 1153, Which species of Hono used hides to protect heir body and buried their dead? (1) Homoerectus (2) Homo habilis (3) wen 156, Opioid receptors are prosent in our (1) Gastrointestinal tract (2) Peripheral neural systom (3) Both GIT and PNS- (4) Both CNS and ANS 157, Read the following statements carefully and ‘choose the option containing all Incorrect statements {a) Skin on our body 's main physical barrier (b) Macrophages and nourophits in blood can phagocytize and destroy microbes {c) Intertorons protect virus-infected cats from further viral infections (6) Saliva ip mouth and tears in eyes prevents ‘microbial growth (1)a.0nd b (2)band © G)eanda (A)aand d 158, Radial symmotry is absent in members of phylum (1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora (3) Echinodermata (4) Annetida 159, Notochord is mesodermal rod tke sruchxe present (1) Dorsal to nerve cord in tarval tage of urochordates only (2) Dorsal to nerve cord onty n adit of caphalacharais (3) Vertralto nerve cord in adut of only urochordaios {4) Ventral to nerve cord in embryo of all chordates 160, Proboscis gland is an excretory organ in (1) Echious (2) Balanoglossus (3) Branchiostoma (4) Chactopleura 161. Life cycle of Odelia represents alternation of generation known a3 b 7 (1) Metastasis: (1) Crocoditos (2) Dinosaurs 2 7 Nees (a) Tatras (2) Metagenesis 455. Solect the mismatch wrt disease and its (4) Mutation : a 162. Select the incorrect match wt. fernale 2 Fe obeaiig eo cockroach. ase = Haemophitous (1) Collaterial glands ~ One pair ems (2) Spiracies: = 10 pairs (3) Malaria Piasmodiur (3) Ovarioles

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