ABSU Post-UTME Past Questions and Answers For Science Students (Sciences, Medicine, Engineering and Agriculture)

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
ABSU post-UTME 2018/2019 ……………………………………………………… 3–5
Solution to ABSU post-UTME 2018/2019 ………………………………………. 5–7
ABSU post-UTME 2015/2016 ……………………………………………………… 7–9

Solution to ABSU post-UTME 2015/2016 ………………………………………. 9 – 10
ABSU post-UTME 2014/2015 ……………………………………………………… 10 – 13

Solution to ABSU post-UTME 2014/2015 ………………………………………. 13
ABSU post-UTME 2013/2014 ……………………………………………………… 13 – 15

ABSU post-UTME 2012/2013 ……………………………………………………… 15 – 18

ABSU post-UTME 2011/2012 ……………………………………………………… 18 – 24

ABSU post-UTME 2010/2011 ……………………………………………………… 25 – 31

ABSU post-UTME 2009/2010 ……………………………………………………… 31 – 36

Solution to ABSU post-UTME 2009/2010 ………………………………………. 36 – 37
ABSU post-UTME 2008/2009 ……………………………………………………… 40 – 48

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ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU
Post UTME Screening Exercise 2018/2019
2
TIME ALLOWED: 1 hour
Answer all questions
1. Which option best explains the information conveyed in the sentence: My daughter, who is in
the University, is studying Law. A. My only daughter is in the University studying Law B. One of
my daughters is in the University studying Law C. Only my daughter is in the University
studying Law D. My daughters are in the University but only one is studying Law
2. My handset was faulty and so it was impossibleto …..them by phone. A Get at B. Get over to
C. Geton to D. Get through to
3. Despite the pressure of work during the examinationperiod, I shall endeavour to …. A. Put up
an
appearance B. Put up appearance C. Put on an appearance D. Put on appearance
4. There are ……… on spelling and pronunciations atthe end of the book. A. Appendexes
B. Appendixes C. Appendix D. Appendices
5. The woman was ……… for insolence. A. Quarried B.Querried C. Quearried D. Queried
6. The meeting could not hold but the….. was notformed. A Qourum B.QuorrumC. Quorum
D. Quorumm
7. I like the …….tray A. Small tray white B. Traywhite small C. Small white tray D. White tray
small
8. The Senate President charged the indigenouscontractors that it is high time they …. to pay
attention
to details. A. Begins B. Began C. Beginning D. Begin
9. The boy is the …… ownerof the ball. A. Bona-vide B. Bona-fide C.Boma-vide D. Bonar-fide
10. The man was so deep in thought but I don’t know what he was thinking….. A. At B. With C. In
D. On
11. He did not know that I have been talking to him forover a minute. I am not sure what he was
thinking ……. A. About B. Over C. Off D. On
12. The sound of the ringing phone him A. Started B.StartleedC. StarltedD. Startled
13. He was just …...at her but I doubt if he really saw anything. A Steering B. Staring C. Steiring
D. Stearing
14. The man is a ……. member of the party. A. Staunch B.StauncheC. StauanchD. Stanch
15. The man’s ……. paid off as he was able to dispose offall the goods. A.Sailmanship B.
Salemanship C. Sailsmanship D. Salesmanship
16. The man is a mere A. Propaganda B. Propagander C.Propagandist D.Propergandist
17. The issues have been …… to an Arbitration panel forresolution. A. ReverredB. Referred
C. Revered D. Refered
18. The fact …… money orders can usually be easilycashed has made them popular form of
payment A. that B. is that C. which is D. is
19. We …… that concert A.were disappointingin B.were disappointing C. were disappointed of
D. were disappointed by
20. If I had not gone to the hall, I would nothave ……..the announcement. A. Hears B. Hear
C.Heard D. Hearing
21. A p-n junction can act as A. an amplifier B. a rectifier C. an inductor D. a capacitor
22. Which of the following is not a thermometer? A. thermocouple B. pyrometer C. hydrometer
D. platinum resistance thermometer
23. Dry air of column length 10cm is trapped by a pellet of mercury of length 15cm, with the open
end uppermost. When the capillary tube is inverted the length of the air column increased to
25cm while that of mercury remained constant. Calculate the atmospheric pressure (in cm of
Hg).
A. 35cmHg B. 15cmHg C. 20cmHg D. 10cmHg
3
24. Sound waves were sent out from a source and after being reflected from an obstacle were
received by a sensor placed beside the source. If the waves were received 10 seconds after
they were sent out, calculate the distance between the source and the obstacle.
[speed of sound = 330m/s] A. 990m B. 660m C. 1320m D. 1750m
25. Which of the following is not true about a chemical cell? A. in primary cells the process through
which current is generated is irreversible B. secondary cells can be recharged after they run
down by passing a current into the cell in the reverse direction C. positive ions are attracted to
the positive electrode where they become neutralized by acquiring electrons D. primary cells
can be recharged
26. Calcium has a work function of 19ev with a wavelength of 150nm. Calculate the maximum
energy of a photo electron emitted. [1ev = 1.6 x 10-19J, h = 6.6 x 10-34Js]
A. 6.35ev B. 8.25ev C. 14.60ev D. 2.30ev
27. The ice and steam points of a thermometer are 20mm and 100mm respectively. A
temperature of 750C corresponds to Y mm on the thermometer. What is Y?
A. 100mm B. 70mm C. 80mm D. 60mm
28. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity is rated at 2000W. If 2.0kg of water is put
in it, how long will take temperature of water to rise from 200C to 1000C?
[specific heat capacity of water = 4200JKg-1K-1] A. 336s B. 420s C. 168s D. 84s
29. A quantity of ice at -100C is heated until the temperature of the heating vessel is 900C.
which of the following constants is NOT required to determine the quantity of heat
supplied to the vessel? A. specific latent heat of vaporization B. specific heat capacity
of ice C. specific latent heat of fusion D. specific heat capacity of water
30. The scent from a jar of perfume opened in one corner of a room is picked up in another
part of the room. The perfume moves through the air molecules by A. evaporation
B. osmosis C. diffusion D. convection
31. Haemolysis is an example of A.. Hydrolysis B. Osmosis C. Plasmolysis D. Inhibition
32. Which of the following structures are visible in the cell of a mitosis A. Centriole, chromatids and
nucleolus B. Homologous chromosome, nuclearmembrane C. Cell wall, centrioles and
chromatidsD. Chromosomes, nuclear membrane and centromere
33. At which of the following stage of cell division can the cell resting? A. Anaphase B.Telophase
C. Prophase D. Interphase
34. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are characteristic of cells that A. Reproducing the
photosynthesizing B. Excreting and deaminating C. Respiring and photosynthesizingD.
Replicating and photosynthesizing
35. Which of the following organelles help to remove excess water from cell? A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosome C. Contractile vacuole D. Golgibody
36. Which of the following tissue is made up of dead cells. A. Meristem B. CambiuimC. Xylem
D. Phloem
37. Marriana handle in a monocotyledonous stem are found A. Watered in the epidermis B. The
ring near the epidermis C. Between the condoderms and pericycleD. Scattered between the
epidermis and the pith
38. Plants that can survive in an environment where water is scarce are referred to as A. Epiphytes
B. MesophytesC. Hydrophytes D. xerophytes
39. Green plants are primary producers because they are A Heterotrophic B. Saprophytic
C. ChlorophyticD. Autotrophic
40. The hypha of Rhizopus is said to be connencytic because it A. does not contain chlorophyll
B. has no cross walls C. is vacuolated D. stores oil globules
41. A compound x has all of the following properties: it is liquid at room temperature and
atmospheric pressure; it does not mix completely with water; it does not decolorize acidified
4
potassium manganite (VII). What could x be? A. Ethane B. ethanoic acid C. ethanol D.
ethylethanoate
42. As a supplication, an adult human can be considered to have a daily diet of 1.80kg of
carbohydrate empirical formula CH2O. What mass of CO2 does a person produce each day if
all the carbohydrate eaten is digested and oxidized? A. 0.267 B. 0.800kg C. 1.32kg D.
2.64kg
43. The solubility of silver chloride at 500C is 1.024 per 100g of solvent and at 100C it is 2.15g.
calculate the mass of silver chloride precipated when a saturated solution of 50g silver chloride
was cooled from 500C to 100C. A. 1.0g B. 8.09g C. 0.54g D. 3.67g
44. In an insulated container, 50cm3 of 2.0M HCl at 293k. after reaction, the temperature of mixture
of the container rose to 3.7k. calculate the enthalpy change of reaction.
A. -59kJ/mol B. -45kJ/mol C. +59kJ/mol D. +45Kj/mol
45. The ammonium compound used in the manufacture of dry cell is A. NH4Cl B. NH4NO3
C. (NH4)2NO4 D. (NH4)2SO4
46. Which of the noble gases has no ‘p’ orbital? A. Neon B. Argon C. Helium D. Krypton
47. A given volume of oxygen diffuses through a porous plug in 8.0 seconds. How long will it take
the same volume of Sulphur (iv) oxide to diffuse through under the same conditions
(O = 16, SO2 = 64)
48. During the electrolysis of CuSO4 solution using platinum electrode, 0.16g of copper was
deposited on the cathode. Calculate the volume of oxygen gas liberated at s.t.p
A. 1.16dm3 B. 0.028dm3 C. 0.014dm3 D. 0.042dm3
49. In the extraction of iron in the blast furnace, the role of limestone is to A. decompose the iron
ore B. remove the silicate impurities C. convert red hot coke to carbon (iv) oxide D. reduce
iron ore to iron
50. Calculate the volume of 0.5M potassium hydroxide that would neutralize 45cm 3 of 0.1M
tetraoxosulphate (iv) acid solution. A. 8cm3 B. 25cm3 C. 10cm3 D. 18cm3
SOLUTION TO ABSU 2018/2019 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. D
17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. **
25. D 26. ** 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. B 32.B
33.D 34.C 35.C 36.C 37. 38.D 39. D 40.-
41. D
42. (CH2O)n = 1.80kg = 1800g
:. (CH2O)60 = C60H120O60
C60H120O60 → 60O2 + 60H2O
No of mole = 1800/30 = 60 mole
1 mole of C60H120O60 required 60mole x 1mole of CO2
1 mole
Mass of CO2 = 60 x 44 = 2640g = 2.64kg Ans: D
43. At 500, solute + solvent = solution
1.024g + 100g = 101.024g
101.024g of saturated solution contains 1.024g of salt
50g of saturated solution will contain 50 x 1.024 = 0.5058g
101.024
0
At 10 C = 2.15g in 100g of water
102.15g saturated solution contain 2.15g of salt
50g saturated solution would contain 50 x 2.15 = 1.048g
5
102.15
44. NaOH + HCl →NaCl + H2O
1mol 1mol1mol1mol
3
50cm of 2.0M HCl contains 50 x 2.0 = 0.1mole
1000
3
Similarly, 50cm of NaOH contains 50 x 2.0 = 0.1mole
1000
Total volume of reaction = 50cm3 + 50cm3
Heat evolved = 100g x 4.2Jg-1K-1 x (3.7 – 293)K = 5880J
1 mole of H2O evolve 5880J/0.1mole = 58800Jmol-1 = 58.8kJ
The reaction is exothermic Ans: A
45. NH4Cl because it is an electrolyte, it conducts electricity in its molten form Ans: A
46. Helium is 1s2 no p-orbital Ans: C
47. RRO2 = rate of diffusion of SO2 in cms-2 = a/x
RO2 = rate of diffusion of O2 in cms-2 = a/8
Vapour density = ½ x 64 → SO2
Vapour density = ½ x 32 → O2
RSO2 =√ PO2
RO2 √ PSO2
a
/xx8/a = √16/√32
x = 8/√0.5
48. 2e + Cu2+ → Cu
2(96500) produces 64g
:. x produced 0.15g
x = 2 x 96500 x 0.15 = 482.5C
64
O2+ → O + 2e-
O + O → O2
4F (4 x 96500C) liberate 22.4dm3 of oxygen at s.t.p
4825C will liberate 22.4dm3 x 482.5C = 0.028dm3Ans: B
4 x 96500C
49. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3Ans: B
50. 2KOH + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2H2O
2 mole 1mole
No. of mole of H2SO4 = -0.1 mol/dm3 x 45/1000 = 0.0045mole
Since 1 mole of H2SO4 neutralize 2 moles of KOH
0.0045 mole neutralize 2 x 0.0045 mole KOH
Volume of KOH = no of mole/molarity
0.009 mole = 0.018dm3 = 18cm3Ans: D
0.5mol/dm3

6
In questions 1 - 10, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined.
1. The story to be taken with a grain of salt. This means that A. you need some salt to listen to
the story B. there is no salt in the story C. the story is questionable D. the story is
true.
2. It is usually hard to change the course of action when one crosses the Rubicon. This means A.
pass through a place called Rubicon B. cross river called Rubicon C. pass special test D.
be irrevocably committed
3. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my eyes. This implies that the salesman tried to: A.
force me to buy his goods B. offer me cotton wool C. make me buy his wool D. dupe me
4. Ijeoma counted her chickens before they were hatched. This means that Ijeoma
A. regarded each egg as a chicken B. hatched the eggs prematurely C. assumed that her
expectations had already been realized D. protected her eggs from breaking.
5. Solo has resigned his job with the textile mills. He doesn't seem to worry about getting another
job. His plans are still quite in the air. This means that his plans are
A. airmailed B. air tight C. uncertain D. certain
6. Ike is head over heels in love with Ngozi. This means that: A. Ike is friendly with Ngozi
B. Ike is madly in love with Ngozi C. Ike is trying to fall in love with Ngozi D. none of the
above
7. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after he had been walked out of the Assembly
for violating basic procedure of the house. This means that the legislator has decided to A.
oppose every motion in the house B. support every motion in the house C.
condemn every motion D. support the lead given by others
8. Old customs die hard. This implies that old customs A. tend to last for a long time
B. must be stopped C. never die out D. cause hardship of younger people
9. The convict said he was tired of leading a dog's life. To lead a dog's life means to live
A. carelessly B. in disgrace C. in poverty D. in misery
10. Jide is being forced to go to lagos tomorrow. This means that Jide A. will go to Lagos
B. must go to Lagos C. is going to Lagos D. goes to Lagos
From the words lettered A-D chose the word that best fills in the Blank Spaces
11. The story she reading made her……….. A. laughed B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughing
12. ………. People turned out for the rally because of the poor publicity.
A. Few B. Quite a few C. Only fever D. A few
13. The two brothers fell out and refused to live………the same roof. A. inside
B. beneath C. in D. under
14. The teacher asked,……….will have the courage to try and lift that heavy log?
A. whom B. which C. who D. whomever
15. My friend and I quarreled last week and haven’t ………..yet. A. made it out B. made up C. made
out D. made it
16. After two years of courtship, Jide is………Nkechi next Sunday. A. getting married to
B. marrying C. to marry to D. begin married by
17. The visitor was very uncomfortable because of his……nose. A. runny B. watery
C. flowing D. running
18. My friend’s car has…….. To halt. A. grinded B. grounded C. ground D. grind
19. It’s time we……..for the party. A. leave B. left C. have to leave D. will leave
20. Bassey was…….. by the girls story. A. taken away B. taken on C. taken in D. taken up
21. A piece of rubber 10cm long stretches 6mm when a load of 100N is hung from it. What is the
area stretched if the young modulus is 50N/m2. A. 60m2B. 150m2
C. 33.33m2D. 15m2
7
22. To determine the weight of an object you would A. use a balance B. use a spring balance C.
find the force necessary to give it a certain acceleration D. use none of these methods E. use
any of these methods.
23. A gas at pressure PN/m and temperature 27oc is heated to 77°c at constant volume. The new
pressure is A. 0.85PN/m B. 0.86PN/m C. l.I6PN/m D. l.18PN/m
E. 2.85PN/m
24. Two lamp rated 40w and 220w, each are connected in series. The total power dissipated in
both lamp is A. 10wB. 20w C. 40w D. 80w E. none
25. A magnet is moved through a coil of wire. The emf produced in the wire depends on
A. the number of turns in the coil B. the strength of the magnet C. the speed at which the
magnet is moved D. all of the above E. none of the above
26. A potential difference of 6v is used to produce a current of 5A for 200s through a heating coil.
The heat produced is A. 4800cal B. 6000cal C. 2400j D. 240kcal E. 600j
27. Two boys are communicating with each other by stretching a string passing through a hole
punched in the bottom of each of the two tin cans. The physical principle employed is that
sound travels A. mainly through air B. fainter in stretched string C. faster through gasses
than in solids and liquids D. with greater ease through a string than in air E. none of the
above is correct.
28. The hatch door of a submarine has an area of 0.5m2. The specific gravity of sea water is 1.03.
Assume that g = l0m/s2 and neglect the atmospheric pressure. The force exerted by the sea
water on the hatch door at a depth of 200m is A. 1.03 x 10 5N
B. 1.03 x 104Nm2 C. 2.6 x l03Nm2 D. 2.06 x1011N E. 1.03 x 103N.
29. When equal weights of iron and water are subjected loan equal supply of heat, it is found that
the piece of iron becomes much hotter than water after a short time because
A. The specific heat or iron is higher than water B. Iron is in solid form C. water is in liquid
form D. the specific heat of water is higher than that of iron E. the specific heat of iron is
infinite.
30. The speed of light in is 3.0 x 108m/s. its speed in glass having a refractive index of 1.65 is A.
1.82 x l08m/s B. 3 x 108m/s C. 6.0 x l08m/s D. 1.82 x 102m/s
31. When sodium reacts with water, the resulting solution is A. weakly acidic B. neutral
C. acidic D. alkaline
32. The gas that gives brown colouration in browning test is A. CO B. NO C. CO 2 D. NO2
33. Which of the following polymer is suitable for packaging electrical insulator.
A. polystyrene B. polyethylene C. polyamide D. polycarbonate
34. The boiling of fat and aqueous caustic soda is referred to as A. Acidification
B. Hydrolysis C. Specification D. Etherification
35. Hydrogen is released when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with A. Ag B.Au C. Cu D. Na
36. Which of the following chloride would exhibit the least ionic character?
A. LiCl B. MgCl2 C. CaCl2 D. AlCI2
37. When H2S is passed into a solution of iron (ii) chloride, the solution turns A. Brown
B. Pale green C. Colourless D. Red
38. The property which makes alcohol soluble in water is the A. cooling B. wetting
C. covalent nature D. bonding
39. Deliquescent substance are used for A. cooling B. boiling C. drying D. melting
40. What mass of water is produced when 8.0g of hydrogen react with excess oxygen?
A. 36.Og B. 8.Og C. 720g D. 16.0g (H =1, 0 =16)
41. The control of water and salt requirements of the body on order to maintain a stable internal
environment is known as A. osmosis B. excretion C. plasmolysis D. ultra filtration
E. homeostasis
42. Which of the following is not a condition for germination to occur in most seeds? A. water B. air
C. activation of enzymes D. temperature E. soil fertilizer
8
43. Which of the following structural features adapts the Drosera (sundew) to its carnivorous mode
of nutrition? A. long root with glandular hairs B. club-shaped glandular hairs on leaves
C. prominent lenticels on the stem D. broad levels with long spines E. wide stomata under the
leaves
44. Which of the following terms is not associated with finger prints? A. arch B. loop C. suture D.
whorl E. compound
45. In human begins the albino trait is recessive and the normal skin color dominant. Therefore the
probability of parents that are heterozygous for albinism, having an albino child is A. 1/4 B.1/2
C.1/3 D.2/3 E.1
46. Which of the following is the carrier of hereditary material? A. centriole B. cytoplasm
C. nucleolus D. chromosomes E. lysosomes
47. Which of the following statements is correct in the human ABO blood gruping system?
A. B is recessive B. A is dominant over B C.O is recessive D. O has antigene A and B
E. A and B are both recessive
48. In man, adult, schistosoma is found in the A. blood vessel of the bladder B. red blood
corpuscles C. lymphatic vessel D. blood vessel of the lung E. white blood cells
49. Which of following structures does not function as support in animals?
A. cuticle in anthropods B. scales in birds C. cartilage in mammals D. body fluids in earthworms
E. bones in vertebrates
50. The scientist who discovered the cell while examining a thin slice of cork under the microscope
was A. Robert Hooke B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek C. Matthias schleiden
D. Theodor schwann E. Alexander Fleming
SOLUTION TO ABSU 2017/2018 POSTUTME EXAM

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C
15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. e = 6mm = 0.6cm, l = 10cm, F = 100N,
young modulus = 50N/cm3, Area = ? SEE MULTIPURPOSE
From young modulus =F/A
e/
l CALCULATIONS IN
50 = 100 x 10
0.6A PHYSICSBY ENGR. J. O.
:. A = 100 x 10 = 33.33cm2Ans: C 22. B ONUOHA
50 x 0.6
23. At constant volume, P1 = P2 FOR MORE PROBLEMS
T1 T
P2 = P1T2 = P x 350 = 1.16PN/m Ans: C
T1 300
24. E 25. A
26. Heat = Ivt = 5 x 6 x 200 = 6000cal Ans: B 27. D
28. Pressure = l x depth = 1.03 x 200 = 206N/m 3
Force = pressure x Area = 206 x 0.5 = 1.03 x 103N Ans: E 29. A

30. Refractive index = speed in air
speed in glass
speed in glass = 3 x 108 = 1.82 x 108m/s Ans: A
1.65
31. D
32. D, NO2 gives brown coloration in brown ring test 33. B
34. C, hydrolysis 35. A, Ag 36. D, AlCl3 37. A, brown
38. ** 39. C, drying
9
40. equation of reaction: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
4g of H2 gave rise to 36g of H2O
:. 8g of H2 will give xg of H2O
xg = 8 x 36 = 72g of H2O Ans: A
4
41. E 42. C 43. B 44. *** 45. A 46. C 47. D
48. D 49. B 50. A

USE OF ENGLISH
1. This pen …….. in 1992, and it is still alright up till now. A. had been made B. was made
C. would be made D. was being made
2. In the past, his mother ……. our house. A. always visits B. had always visited C. use to visit
D. used to visit
3. The teacher asked the students “…….” A. are you hearing me? B. do you hear me? C. will
you hear me? D. did you hear me?
4. Kingsley ……. my father very well. A. is knowing B. know C. knows D. have known
5. If you are confused …….. anything, phone my office. A. of B. with C. about D. for
6. We should try to help ……. A. the less fortunates B. less fortunates C. the less fortunate
D. this less fortunate
7. My mother was …….. annoyed with me for coming late. A. very B. neither C. hotly D. just
8. Ifeanyi was aked not to go to …. Till the following week. A. work B. works C. working
D. worked
9. The school was ……… ten years ago. A. find B. founded C. found D. finds
10. Okoro ……… a pen from Eze. A. lent B. borrowed C. lend D. borrow
11. I am afraid you cannot use this telephone; it is ….. A. out of order B. in order C. for order
D. at order
12. You don’t like Mathematics …… you? A. do B. don’t C. can’t D. can
13. My little daughter has …….. sights; hence she now wears glasses. A. diminutive B. blurred
C. painful D. defective
14. I was …….. hearing distance of the speaker. A. on B. at C. within D. in
15. All ………. well with Peter. A. are not B. have not been C. were not D. is not
16. Ifeoma found it difficult to get a seat ……... the plane. A. in B. over C. up D. on
17. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all ……. of life.
A. works B. areas C. walks D. parts
18. Okezie said that he was going to bed because he was ……. to do any more work.
A. tired out B. very tired C. too tired D. extremely tired
19. Jane failed because the examination was ….. difficult for her. A. so B. very C. highly D. too
20. She traced her family history …….. matrilineal descent. A. in B. by C. with D. at
PHYSICS
1. The saturated vapour pressure of a liquid depends on A. density B. temperature C. volume
D. pressure
2. Volatile liquids usually have A. high boiling point B. low boiling point C. high viscosities
D. high density
10
3. Two perpendicular forces have a resultant of 13N. if one of the forces is 5N, the other force is:
A. 18N B. 9N C. 8N D. 12N
4. The heat from the sun reaches the earth by the process of A. insulation B. precipitation
C. conduction D. radiation
5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body is A. thermal energy
B. thermal conduction C. radiation D. conduction
6. An electric charge could be transmitted through A. wood and stone B. water and metals
C. acid and cloth D. all of the above
7. The inner diameter of a small test-tube can be measured accurately using
A. micrometer screw guage B. pair of dividers C. metre rule D. pair of vernier calipers
8. The property that is propagated in a traveling wave is A. frequency B. amplitude C. energy
D. wavelength
9. A person can focus an object only when it lies within 200cm from him. Which spectacles should
be used to increase his maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity.
A. plane glasses B. concave lens C. convex lens D. binoculars
10. One of the properties of gamma rays is that they are A. negatively charged B. massive
C. neutral D. positively charged
11. Musical instruments playing the same note can be distinguished from one another owing to the
differences in their. A. quality B. pitch C. intensity D. loudness
12. Which of the following is used for the correction of short-sightedness? A. concave lens
B. concave mirror C. convex mirror D. convex lens
13. If the volume of gas increases steadily as the temperature decreases at constant pressure, the
gas obeys A. Grahams law B. Boyle’s law C. Pressure law D. Charles’ law
14. Which of the following is a property of steel? A. it can be used for making permanent magnets
B. it can easily be magnetized and demagnetized C. it cannot retain its magnetism longer than
iron D. it can be used for making temporary magnets.
15. Calculate the work done when a force of 20N stretches a spring by 50mm.
A. 0.5J B. 1.5J C. 2.0J D. 2.5J
16. The energy in the nucleus of atoms produce heat which can be used to generate
A. mechanical energy B. electrical energy C. potential energy D. kinetic energy
17. What is the equivalent of 20K in Celsius scale. A. 3930C B. 680C C. 360C D. 200
18. EEDC in Umuahia measures its electrical energy in A. KWh B. Wh C. J D. W
19. A car moves with an initial velocity of 25m/s and reaches a velocity 45m/s in 10s. what is the
acceleration of the car? A. 5m/s2 B. 25m/s2 C. 20m/s2 D. 2m/s2
20. A particle starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration of 0.05m/s 2, the distance
covered by the particle in 10s is A. 2.5m B. 5.0m C. 25.0m D. 50.0m
CHEMISTRY
1. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by A. adding caustic soda B. boiling
C. filtration D. adding slaked lime
2. Which of the following hydrocarbons is mainly used as fuel? A. methylene B. ethylene
C. methane D. ethyne
3. A compound commonly used for sterilization and preservation of specimens and food is
A. ethanol B. ether C. benzene D. ammonia
4. The percentage of water of crystallization in ZnSO4.7H2O is A. 33% B. 44% C. 55% D. 87%
5. When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be
A. thermodynamic B. exothermic C. isothermal D. endothermic
6. The boiling of fat and aqueous caustic soda is referred to as A. acidification B. hydrolysis
C. saponification D. esterification
7. In the periodic table, what is the property that decreases along the period and increases down
the group? A. atomic number B. electron affinity C. ionization potential D. atomic radius
11
8. What is the concentration of a solution containing 2g of NaOH in 100cm 3 of solution.
A. 0.30mol/dm3 B. 0.40mol/dm3 C. 0.50mol/dm3 D. 0.05mol/dm3 (Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
9. The radioactive emission with the least ionization power is A. γ-rays B. β-particles C. α-
particles D. x-rays
10. Which of the following salts will turn litmus red A. zinc chloride hydroxide B. sodium
trioxocarbonate (IV) C. potassium hydrogen tetraoxosulphate (VI) D. sodium
tetrahydroxozincate (II)
11. Water is said to be temporarily hard when it contains A. CaSo 4 and Ca(HCO3)2 salts B.
Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)2 salts C. Ca(HCO3)2 and CaCO3 salts D. Mg(HCO3)2 and CaSO4
salts
12. What is the molecular weight of H2O [H = 1, O = 16]. A. 3 B. 10 C. 32 D. 18
13. Which of the following metals is the least reactive? A. Pb B. Sn C. Hg D. Au
14. Lucas reagent is used to test for A. alkanes B. alkanoic acids C. alkanols D. amines
15. The salt formed from a reaction between citric acid and sodium hydroxide in solution will be
A. acidic B. basic C. complex D. neutral
16. Elements in the same period in the periodic table have the same. A. chemical properties
B. physical properties C. number of shells D. atomic number
17. One of the major uses of alkanes is A. in the textile industries B. in the production of plastics
C. as domestic and industrial fuels D. in the hydrogenation of oils
18. Which of the following is not an alkali. A. NaOH B. NH3 C. Mg(OH)2 D. Ca(OH)2
19. The constituent of the baking powder that makes the dough to rise is A.NaCl B. NaHCO3 C.
NaOH D. Na2CO3
20. The minimum amount of energy required for a reaction to take place is A. activation energy
B. kinetic energy C. Lattice energy D. ionization energy
BIOLOGY
1. Amoeba moves by means of A. cilia B. pseudopodia C. flagella D. swimmerets
2. Which of the following organs produce bile? A. pancreas B. liver C. spleen D. gall bladder
3. The kind of tooth used for tearing food materials is the A. premolar B. carnassials C. canine
D. incisor
4. One common feature of the fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they A. reproduce by
conjugation B. survive dry condition C. show alternative of generation D. have no seeds
5. The feature that distinguishes the toad or grog from fish is the absence of A. scales B. lungs
C. paired appendages D. a tail
6. Which of these is a direct photosynthetic product? A. glucose B. starch C. protein D. fats
7. The hereditary material in a cell is known as A. ADP B. CNS C. ATP D. DNA
8. What is the term use to describe the sum total of biotic and abiotic factors in the environment of
the organisms? A. habitat B. biome C. ecosystem D. ecological niche
9. Which of the following is an organ? A. guard cell B. liver C. xylem D. blood
10. A food chain always begins with a A. consumer B. decomposer C. producer D. primary
consumer
11. Which of the following can cause shrinkage of living cells? A. hypotonic solution B. isotonic
solution C. deionized water D. hypertonic solution
12. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A. glucose B. sucrose C. maltose D. cellulose
13. The plants that grow in deserts of every dry areas are referred to as A. mesophytes B.
hydrophytes C. epiphytes D. xerophytes
14. The main structure in vertebrates that supports and protects the body is the A. skeleton
B. ligament C. muscle D. joint
15. The richest sources of vitamin A are A. palm oil and groundnut oil B. palm oil and carrots
C. rice and groundnut oil D. oranges and carrot
12
16. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to soil nitrogen for plant use by A. nitrification and
combustion B. putrefaction and lightening C. combustion and putrefaction D. lightening and
nitrification
17. To which blood group do universal recipients belong. A. B B. A C. O D. AB
18. The soil with highest water retaining capacity is A. clayey soil B. stony soil C. sandy soil
D. loamy soil
19. The genetic make-up of an organism is described as A. allele B. chromosome C. phenotype
D. genotype
20. Water in plants is removed as water vapour through the process of A. diffusion B. osmosis
C. evapouration D. transpiration

USE OF ENGLISH
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. C
15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. A
PHYSICS
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. B
15. W = ½ ke2 = ½ Fe = ½ x 20 x 50 x 10-3 = 0.5J Ans: A 16. B 17. 18. A
19. u = 25m/s, v = 45m/s, t= 10s
V = u + at; 45 = 25 + 10a
20 = 10a; :. a = 20/10 = 2m/s2Ans: D
20. a = v/t; v = at = 0.05 x 10 = 0.5m/s
V2 = u2 + 2as; 0.52 = 0 + 2(0.05)s; :. S = 2.5m Ans: A
CHEMISTRY
1. A 2. B 3. A
4. Molar mass: ZnSO4.7H2O = 65 + 32 + 64 + 126 = 287
% of water of crystallization = 126/287 x 100 = 44% Ans: B 5. D 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. A 10. 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C
15. B 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. A
BIOLOGY
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A
15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. D

1. Obi ……. there before I got to Okigwe. A. got B. has got C. went D. have went
2. Chinomso …….. my father very well. A. is knowing B. know C. knows D. have known
3. We ask the student to …….. the noise. A. less B. lessen C. lesser D. least
4. Anthony was ask to go to ……. Till the following week. A.work B. works C. working D. worked
13
5. The man ……. Quietly on the bed yesterday. A. lie B. lay C. lain D. laid
6. The school was …….. ten years ago. A. find B. founded C. found D. finds
7. John ……. a pen from Peter. A. lent B. borrowed C. lend D. was borrowed
8. Chinyere found it difficult to get a seat …… the plane. A. in B. over C. up D. on
9. Chioma ……. do that thing, it is forbidden. A. shall not B. cannot C. should not D. may not
10. Williams ……..i visit last week is now here. A. whose B. whom C. who D. which
11. The students’ nocturnal meeting resulted ……. the suspension of all of them
A. in B. to C. from D. for
12. The boy was seriously sick …….. typhoid fever. A. with B. in C. of D. for
13. The vice principal had to stand …….. for the principal ……. the meeting.
A. on/in B. in/at C. by/at D. in/in
14. It ……. the government a lot of money to train these artisans. A. coast B. cost
C. costs D. has coasted
15. The man has …….. for you.Chioma said A. some news B. few news C. a few news
D. many news.
16. It done with a view to …… the reason for arresting them. A. see B. sees C. seeing D. seing
17. The railway ……… at Calabar and Dutshe had been reconstructed. A. terminuses
B. termini C. terminus D. termina
18. It is time they …….. with their father on the issue A. discuss B. discusses C. will discuss
D. discussed
19. …….. something on the table. A. there’s B. theirs C. there D. their’s
20. The Caleb’s defeated Dick was a great …….A. fit B. feat C. feet D. foot
21. ……… if I could see him. A. he said B. he ask C. he shouted D. he commanded
22. He is in Owerri …….. A. is he? B. isn’t he?C. does he? D. doesn’t
23. Their boss in his effort to find out the process taken to accomplish the task asked ….
A. who do it? B. when did you say it? C. when do you say it? D. why do you say? E. how
did you do it?
24. He saw us there. A. does he? B. was he? C. didn’t he? D. did he?
25. Can she do it? A. no she won’t B. yes she can C. yes she can’t? D. no, she can’t?
26. The government set up a …… A. ten-men committee B. ten-men’s committee C. ten man’s
committee D. ten man committee
27. Having done that …….Tony ran away. A. , B. . C. ; D. ?
28. The law possesses leadership qualities shall be allowed to lead is being amended.
A. ; B. : C. , D. ?
29. Hope you are fine ……. A. ? B. . C. : D. !
30. The boy who saw me in Lagos ……. Eze lived is here. A. whom B. when C. where D. since
31. Lagos state was govern by A. Tinubu B. Fashola C. Kayode D. Fayemi
32. The capital city of Kogi is. A. Makurdi B. Lokoja C. Minna D. Ajakwuta
33. About 246 school girls were kidnapped in this city of A. Gboko B. Oron C. Chibok D. Njabo
34. The school of girls were kidnapped by a group called. A. MASSO B. OPC C. AL Qaede
D. Boko Haram
35. The captain of Super Eagles is A. Enyeama B. Mikel Obi C. Yobo D. Emenike
36. The 2010 World cup tournament was hosted by A. Algeria B. Zimbabwe C. South Africa
D. Moxambique
37. The major opposition party in Nigeria is. A. ACN B. APC C. PDP D. DPP
38. The ruling party in Nigeria is A. DPP B. PDP C. ACN D. APC
39. The Emir of Kano is A. Sanusi B. Bayero C. Kwakwanso D. Shekarau
40. The 2014 World cup was hosted by. A. Argentina B. Costa Rica C. Brazil D. Chile
41. The secretary to the Federal Government of Nigeria is A. Senator Chukwumerije B. Senator
Pius Anyim C. Senator Ken Nnamani D. Senator Enweremadu
42. The senate president is A. David Mark B. EmekaIhedioha C. Chukwumerije D. Suswan
14
43. Prof. Dora Akunyili died of A. Marasmus B. Cancer C. Heart disease D. Diabetes
44. The headquarters of United Nation is located in. A. Paris B. Geneva C. New York D. London
45. The pro-chancellor of Abia State University is A. Senator Ike Nwachukwu B. Chief
ChukwuNwachukwu C. Prof. ChibuzoOgbuagu D. Bishop Onuoha
46. The President of Christian Assocciation of Nigeria is A. Bishop Oyedepo B. Pastor
Oyakhilome C. Bishop Onaikon D. Pastor Ayo Oritsejafor
47. Nollywood is to Nigeria as Hollywood is to A. India B. U.S.A C. U.K D. Switzerland
48. The Head of the National Commission is called. A. Chairman B. President C. Executive
Secretary D. Director
49. The author of ‘Things fall Apart’ is A. Wole Soyinka B. ObioraNzekwe C. Flora Nwapa
D. Chinua Achebe
50. The Nigeria Labour Minister is A. Chief EmekaNwogu B. LabaranMaku C. Okonjo-Iweala
D. DiezaniMadubike
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B
15. C 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. B
22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28.
29. 30. C 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. A
36. C 37. B 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. A
43. C 44. B 45. A 46. D 47. B 48. C 49. D
50. A

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
The evidence given so far demonstrates that a nuclear exchange in the Northern Hemisphere would
have an unavoidable global aftermath making the continued existence of mankind impossible
anywhere. It also very improbable that a nuclear exchange would be confined exclusively to the
vicinity of the industrialized states. Current developments indicate that a nuclear disaster would be
carried into the territories of the developing countries in Asia, Africa and Latin America. These
developments include the preparations being made by aggressive forces for the armed seizure of
the middle East oilfields, the nuclear missile deployment in the south of Western Europe, the
establishment of military bases for Rapid Deployment forces in Northern Africa and the Indian Ocean
and the tension in the south Atlantic and the Caribbean.
1. A suitable title for the passage is A. preparation for nuclear war on the third world countries
B. possible effects of nuclear war on third world countries C. strategies for nuclear
confrontation D. the merits and demerits of nuclear exchange.
2. ‘Aggressive’ in the passage means A. militant B. dissident C. reactionary D. revolutionary
3. The central point being stressed in the passage is that A. nuclear war is inevitable in the third
world countries B. nuclear war is imminent in third world countries C. a country does not
15
have to be industrialized before being concerned with nuclear matters D. the aggressive
forces of the world are ready to carry the nuclear battle into the developing nations.
4. According to the author, current world developments point to A. an exclusive destruction of the
developing countries B. a likely spread of nuclear calamity to the third world C. nuclear
exchange taking in Africa, Asia and Latin America
5. From this passage we learnt that nuclear exchange in the Northern Hemisphere would be
A. inconceivable B. inevitable C. fatal to mankind D. partially destructive.
In each of questions 6 – 20, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in
italics
6. The presence of the captain makes the sailors ill at ease A. impatient B. easily ill
C. uncomfortable D. sickly
7. Ibro shows enough liberality with his meager incomeA. insensitivity B. prodigality
C. frugality D. generosity
8. It is a misnomer to call three thousand naira a living wage A. a wrong description B. an
incontrovertible assertion C. an appropriate term D. mishmash
9. The press described the efforts of the government in pejorative terms. A. superlative
B. palpable C. critical D. contemptible
10. The town was in such a turmoil that the dance was called off. A. state of darkness B. state of
confusion C. rainy state D. mourning state
11. The festivals create in the people a feeling of pride in their cultural heritage.
A. legacy B. possession C. history D. heirloom
12. Okonkwo manages his househood with a heavy hand. A. using a cane on every occasion
B. without tolerating weaknesses C. like a powerful dictator D. like a heavy weight champion.
13. In spite of constant financial support from his father, Eze treats his studies with considerable
levity. A. lassitude B. enthusiasm C. wastefulness D. seriousness
14. The school’s badge is the insignia of office for all the prefects in the school.
A. seal B. recognition C. power D. symbol
15. Funnily enough, the priest prayed for the robber who shot him A. timidly B. fearlessly
C. unexpectedly D. disappointingly
16. The mottle skin of a person with HIV indicates an advanced stage to its development
A. pimply B. brown C. scaly D. spotted
17. The prosecutor was fully able to substantiate the change.A. expatiate on B. weaken C. prove
D. dismiss
18. The manager’s knowledge of the strike is of the utmost importance. A. basic B. genuine
C. standard D. paramount
19. There has been a downturn in the affairs of the company. A. a turn around B. a massive
increase C. a decline D. little progress
20. His plans boomeranged on him. A. catapulted B. backfired C. fell D. bounced
In each of questions 21 – 50, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in
italics
21. The noise of the fans unnerved the star player. A. calmed B. confused C. refreshed D.
helped
22. We found a shady place for the display. A. an enclosed B. a stuffy C. an open D. an unsafe
23. The player writhed in pain after the fall. A. cried out B. remained still C. waled out D. shook
violently
24. The ship was imperiled by high winds. A. saved B. deceived C. destroyed D. piloted
25. The team got an ecstatic welcome from the crowd. A. a joyous B. an unexpected C. a
thunderous D. a cold
26. Sailors are usually dauntless in their exploits. A. excited B. ruthless C. frightened D. selfless
16
27. Beauty queens sometimes wear outlandish dresses. A. familiar B. flashy C. beautiful
D. attractive
28. My father’s presentation was rather casual. A. divisive B. vital C. informal D. formal
29. The flying eagles put up a pluckydefence against their opponents. A. weak B. strong
C. careless D. tactful
30. The journalist said he was working freelance A. satisfactorily B. without a say C. dependently
D. tirelessly
31. The injured man is determined to get back at his assailant. A. visit B. forgive C. identify
D. attack
32. The dictator wanted tractable men in his cabinet. A. tough B. intelligent C. unruly D. reliable
33. After the war, the victors became increasingly vindictive. A. treacherous B. arrogant
C. vociferous D. friendly
34. The potency of the drug has been acknowledged. A. action B. inefficacy C. power D. loss
35. The man who scared the girl is a bit deranged. A. crazy B. amorous C. dangerous D. sane
36. After fifty years, he could not find anyone who was contemporary with him at college.
A. friendly with B. contested against C. strange to D. belonged to
37. The president can afford to dispense with some of his henchmen. A. advisers B. detractors
C. body guards D. sycophants
38. Many Nigerians are wary of night journeys. A. unscared of B. worried about C. troubled
about D. satisfied with
39. Some people consider the leather upholstery and thick rus a bit sumptuous.
A. simple B. lavish C. expensive D. desirable
40. The proprietor accused Uche of silently acquiescinto the students’ demands.
A. adjusting B. resisting C. compromising on D. submitting to
41. The teacher recounted two events that were analogous with each other.
A. advantegousto B. similar with C. different from D. distant from
42. The dramatist provided satisfactory denouement to the play A. criticism B. introduction
C. audition D. climax
43. Austin gave me a sour look every time I pass by him. A. satisfactory B. friendly C. sinister
D. bad
44. Ada bought a glossy pair of shoes A. smooth and shining B. rough and gummy C. smooth
and shiny D. rough and dull
45. The principal was filled with scorn when we gave our reason for coming late.
A. sympathy B. contempt C. pity D. anger
46. It would be difficult to defeat such a highly motivated team. A. very immature B. very
demoralized C. highly deluded D. completely disillusioned
47. Manu is hard to convince because he is an opinionated person. A. an imperative B. a
discursive C. a subjective D. an objective
48. The views of the plateau are in stark contrast to the work a day cottages below. A. ugly and
unfascinating B. ordinary and uninteresting C. beautiful and interesting D. comfortable and
fascinating
49. The judge did not grant the request that the witness should appear by proxy A. be represented
by a counsel B. not appear at all C. answer questions by phone D. be present in person.
50. The officer was given an invidious task. A. pleasant B. difficult C. vivid D. cruel
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. A
9. D 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. A
25. D 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. C
17
33. D 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. B
41. C 42. B 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. D
49. D 50. A

ENGLISH
Read each passage and carefully answer the question that follows
Passage I
You all know how friendly we are with Okperi. Do you think that any Umuaro man who goes to prison
there will come back alive? But that apart, do you forget that this is the moon for planting? Do you
want to grow this year's crops in the prison house in a land where your fathers owe a cow? I speak
as your elder brother, I have traveled in Olu and I have traveled in Igbo, and I can tell you that there
is no escape from the white man. He has come, where suffering knocks at your door and you say
there is no seat left for him, he tells you not to worry because he has brought the legs, I saw with my
own eyes what the white man did to Abame.
Then I knew there was no escape. As daylight chases away darkness, so will the white man drive
away all our customs. I know that as I say it now it passes by your ears but it will happen. The white
man has power which comes from God and it burns like fire. This is the God about whom we preach
every eight day.
Unachukwu's opponents were now shouting that this was a meeting of an age group that they had
not assembled to join with him in chewing the seeds of foolishness which they called their new
religion.
We are talking about the white man's road; said a voice above the others. Yes we are talking about
the white man's road. But when the roof and walls of a house fall in, the ceiling is not left standing,
the white man, the new religion, the soldiers, the new road they are all part of the same thing. The
white man has a gun, a matchet, a bow and carries fire in his mouth. He does not fight with one
weapon alone
1. The dominant subject of this passage is the: A. white man's road B. new religion
C. white man's influence D. white man's weapon
2. According to the passage, the people of Umuaro and Okperi A. are friends B. are only
acquaintances C. are no friends D. can never be enemies
3. There is no escape from the white man in the passage means that: A. white man will send the
people to prison B. white man can kill all the people with his gun C. people are only trying to
run away from the white man D. people must accept the white man
4. Passes by your ears' in the passage means A. piercing through your ears B. listening
eagerly C. making no impression D. accepting as truth
5. Unachukwu's speech in this passage shows that he A. is a coward B. wants his people to
suffer C. loves the white man D. is wise with experience
18
Passage II
Manager: Mr. Mbu, I would not describe you as an inefficient worker; I therefore find it difficult to
understand why the conference room is so untidy, in spite of the fact that I reminded you ofthe
meeting scheduled to take place there this afternoon.
Secretary: Sir, I did instruct the cleaner to tidy up the place before the meeting scheduled totake
place there this afternoon.
Manager: Sir, I do not see what else I could have done, short of doing the job myself. Thecleaner is
a six-footer and I could not have intimated him physically.
Manager: I see, I wait your formal complaint against the cleaner, but I shall not forget that
youallowed a board meeting to take place in an untidy conference room.
6. The relationship between the manager and his secretary, as revealed in the passage, could be
said to be A. strained B. charged C. personal D. cordial
7. I would not describe you as an inefficient worker …… suggests that the manager A. is quite
pleased with the level of diligence of his secretary B. has had cause in the past to complain
against his secretary C. is dissatisfied with the level of performance of his secretary D. is
non-committal over the efficiency of his secretary
8. It would appear that the manager feels that the secretary ….. A. should have, if possible
personally cleaned the conference room B. should have ensured that someone else cleaned
the conference room C. should have ensured that the cleaner did his job D. is a coward
9. The secretary's attitude seems to be …… A. manager Sir, you employed this huge and
recalcitrant cleaner and I am not going to do his job for him B. it is not the duty of a secretary
to enforce the instructions he gives to his junior worker C. I am a secretary by profession, not
cleaner D. it is not terribly important how tidy the conference room is for themselves
10. The last comment by the manager suggests that he ……. A. is going to hold the secretary
responsible for what has happened B. is likely to reprimand both the secretary and the cleaner
for dereliction of duty C. will punish the cleaner but warn the secretary D. will warn the
cleaner but punish the secretary
Passage III
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a meansof
cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of makingfire, he
had to preserve it and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him
His discovery that the firebrand, from which the tough may well have developed, could be used for
illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame
Lamps, too, probably developed by accident. Early man may have has his first conception of a lamp
while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from roasting carcass
All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain fat and float reed in it. Such lamps, which were
made of hollowed stones or identical form up to quite recent times.
11. According to the passage, the torch probably developed from a ……. A. firebrand B. twig
C. lamp D. fibre
12. Primitive man was least concerned with fire as a ……… A. means of cooking B. source of
warmth C. sources of light D. means of traveling
13. One way early man made a lamp was by putting a lighted reed in a A. hollowed stone B. sea
shell C. vessel D. means of traveling
19
14. Primitive man preserved fire because …….. A. he used it for illumination during his travels
B. his method of making fire was laborious C. he wanted to discover how to make a lamp
D. he wanted to develop the torch
In questions 15 - 40, choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which best fills the gaps
15. I was ……… hearing distances of the speaker A. on B. at C. within D. in
16. Peter was such a skillful boxer that he was not afraid to take …….. anybody
A. to B. upon C. on D. in
17. Owing to the constant harassment of the populace by armed robbers, all night guard have been
moving things A. at sight B. by sight C. in sight D. off sight
18. My wife and I were to celebrate our silver wedding anniversary last Sunday, unfortunately on
that ………. day, my father in-law died mysteriously A. fruitless B. faithful C. futile D. fateful
19. The first graduation ceremony of the university was attended by men from all …… of life
A. works B. areas C. walks D. parts
20. …. guests enjoyed Joy's birthday party A. the whole B. all the C. every D. those very
21. One would wish …….. missed that opportunity to be present at the graduation hall.
A. to have not B. for having not C. to having D. not to have
22. The ceremony was rounded …….. very late. A. up B. off C. of D. out
23. My ……... brother intends to get married in December. A. senior B. elder C. older D. oldest
24. The …….. Affairs Officer is expecting all of us in the dinning room.
A. student B. student's C. students D. students'
25. Many candidates …… to realize the difference between written and spoken English
A. fails B. fail C. have failed D. is failing
26. Chinyere has not really described the cabinet as irresponsible. She only ……. It in her speech
A. alluded to B. implied C. applied D. suggested
27. …… at 9.30 for more news said the announcers A. switch on B. tune in C. hook on
D. channel in
28. The way that bid boy bullied his sister with relish makes me think he could be a …..
A. bully B. sadist C. pugist D. tyrant
29. All ……… well with peter A. are not B. have not been C. were not D. is not
30. Ore …… so if she had thought it necessary A. would have said B. would say C. may have
said D. could say
31. We have gone three quarters of the journey already; we ……. as well see the end of it
A. can B. might C. could D. may
32. My little daughter has sight; hence, she now wears glasses A. diminutive B. blurred C. painful
D. defective
33. Basseys's evidence led ……. Okon being imprisoned for life A. at B. into C. in D. to
34. My boss is usually a charming man but …… he can be very irritable A. at times B. atimes
C. those times D. with times
35. We surely ought to have an ……… arrangement in case somebody discover the present
already A. alternate B. alternating C. alternative D. aternant
36. The nurse kept apologizing to mothers as she stuck her needle ……. every baby at the clinic.
A. in B. onto C. unto D. into
37. One of the ladies who …….. in the premises ……. been asked to withdraw
A. sells/have B. sell/have C. sells/has D. sell/has
38. A tale of two cities ……. the ……. we are studying for the examination
A. are/novels B. was/novels C. were/novel D. is/novel
39. We must not take with us the feelings of inadequacy ……. experienced during our preparations
for the debate. A. that were B. those were C. that was D. that is
40. Omogbai reported that the examinations ……… before he arrived in the hall.
A. started B. have started C. had started D. are started
20
BIOLOGY
41. Which of the following is the youngest plant tissue? A. meristem B. phloem C. epidermis
D. xylem
42. Viruses differ from all forms of life because they …….. A. have a thick cell wall B. feed on
waste products of other organisms C. cause infectious diseases D. require other living cells
to multiply
43. The endoplasm cells found in hydra are used for A. reproduction B. offence and defense
C. locomotion and nutrition D. food collection
44. Annelids differ from nematodes in that they …… A. exhibit bilateral symmetry B. are
triploblastic C. are metamerically segmented D. possess complete digestive system
45. Which of the following perform similar functions? A. ascospores and ascocarp
B. antherozoids and rhizoids C. sorus and indusium D. strobili and inflorenscence
46. In ferns, the sporophyte …… A. develops from a haploid zygote B. produce spores
C. is haploid and dependent on the gametophyte D. is haploid and independent of the
gametophyte
47. The group of insects that undergoes metamorphosis is ……. A. house flies, beetles and
cockroaches B. cockroaches, grasshopper and bees C. house flies, beetle and butterflies
D. aphids, grasshoppers and butterflies
48. The nitrogenous substance that is excreted by birds in order to conserve water is ….
A. ammonia B. urea C. uric acid D. nitric acid
49. In mammals, the exchange of nutrients and metabolic products occurs in the ….
A. lymph B. lungs C. heart D. liver
50. The part of the stomach nearer the gullet is called the …… A. epiglottis B. cardiac sphincter
C. duodenum D. pyloric sphincter
51. Trace elements are required by plants mainly for the ……. A. formation of pigments and
enzymes B. production of energy and hormones C. manufacture of carbohydrates
D. manufacture of proteins
52. A food substance was treated with a few drops of sudan iii solution and a red coloration was
obtained. The food contained is …… A. protein B. starch C. fat D. mineral salt
53. Oozing out of water from leaves of plants in humid environment is known as ….
A. transpiration B. osmosis C. pinocytosis D. guttation
54. The element that is essential for the coagulation of blood is …… A. potassium B. calcium
C. phosphorus D. iron
55. Anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration by the production of ……..
A. less amount of energy and water B. greater amount of energy and alcohol C. less amount
of energy and alcohol D. greater amount of energy and water
56. Stomata pores open when there is ……… A. an increase in the sugar content of guard cells
B. a decrease in the osmotic concentration of guard cells C. a decrease in the sugar content
of mesophyll cells
57. The process of deamination is essential for the …. A. digestion of protein B. secretion of bile
C. formation of urea D. formation of antibody
58. A band of connective tissue linking two bones in a joint is known as …..
A. tendon B. cartilage C. synovial membrane D. ligament
59. The appendicular skeleton is composed of the pectoral girdle. A. pelvic, fore and hind limbs
B. pelvic, girdle and fore limbs C. lumbar vertebrae and pelvic girdle D. lumber vertebrae,
fore and hind limbs
60. The companion cells are part of the A. pericycleB. phloem C. pith D. xylem
CHEMISTRY
21
61. 25cm3 of a gas x contains z molecules at 150c and 75mmhg. How many molecules will 25cm 3
of another gas y contain at the same temperature and pressure? A. 2y B. 2z C. zD. y
62. What mass of water is produced when 8.0g of hydrogen reacts with excess oxygen?
A. 36.0g B. 8.0g C. 72.0g D. 16.0g [H = 1, O = 16]
63. A particle that contains 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 10 electrons is a …A. negative atom ion
B. positive ion C. neutral atom of a non-metal D. neutral atom of metal
64. Cancerous growths are cured by exposure to … A. γ-rays B. β-rays C. A-raysD. x-rays
65. An oxide XO2 has a vapour density of 32. What is the atomic mass of x?
A. 32 B. 20 C. 14 D. 12
66. Millikan’s contribution to the development of atomic theory is the determination of ….
A. charge on electron B. positive rays C. charge to mass ratio D. cathode rays
67. Four elements W, X, Y and Z have atomic number 2, 6, 16 and 20 respectively. Which of these
elements is a metal? A. X B. W C. Z D. Y
68. An element X with relative atomic mass 16.2 contains two isotopes 168X with 8mX with relative
abundance of 10%. The value of m is ….. A. 16 B. 18 C. 12 D. 14
69. Which of the following statements is correct about the average kinetic energy of the molecules
of a gas? A. it increases with increase in pressure B. it increases with increase in temperature
C. it increases with increase in pressure D. it increases with increase in volume
70. The pollution from petroleum spillage in rivers and lakes can be best dispersed by …..
A. pouring detergents B. passing of ships through the area C. pouring of solvents
D. evaporation
71. Deliquescent substances are used for …… A. cooling B. wettingC. melting D. drying
72. Pure solvents are obtained by …. A. distillation B. condensation C. extraction D. evaporation
73. What is the decrease in volume of air when the decrease in pyrogallol is shaken with 30.0cm 3
of air? A. 15.00cm3 B. 6.30cm3 C. 0.63cm3 D. 0.06cm3
74. Environmental pollution is worsened byy the release of … A. water vapour B. steam C. smoke
D. heavy metals
75. Phosphorous is stored under water to prevent it from ……. A. dehydrating B. becoming inert
C. smelling D. catching fire
76. A metal M displaced zinc chloride solution. This shows that A. M is more electronegative than
zinc B. zinc is more electropositive than M C. M is more electropositive than zinc D. electrons
flow from zinc to M
77. What current in amperes will deposit 2.7g of aluminium in 2 hours? A. 32 B. 8 C. 4 D. 16
[Al = 27, 1F = 96500C/mol]
78. Ethanoic acid is ……… A. tribasic B. unionize able C. monobasic D. dibasic
79. When ΔH is negative, a reaction is said to be …. A. ionic B. reversible C. exothermic
D. endothermic
80. As the concentration of an electrolyte reduces, the conductivity A. reduces to zero
B. decreases C. increases D. is unaffected
PHYSICS
81. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with applied force F. if the
stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F are.
A. 4.0 x 104N B. 4.0 x 103N C. 2.0 x 103N D. 4.0 x 102N
82. A handbag containing some load weighing 162N is carried by two students each holding the
handle of the bag next to him. If each handle is pulled 600 to the vertical, find the force on each
student's arm. A. 324N B. 162N C. 121N D. 81N
83. i. the frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in contact ii. The frictional force
depends on the nature of the surface in contact iii. The frictional force depends on the speed
of sliding iv. The frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction. Which
combination of the above is true of sliding friction? A. I, ii and iv B. I, ii and iii C. I, iii and iv
22
D. ii, iii and iv
84. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water
surface will A. remain the same B. increase C. decrease D. increase then decrease
85. A simple pendulum has a period of 17.0s. When the length is shortened by 1.5m, its period is
8.5s, calculate the original length of the pendulum.A. 1.55m B. 2.0m C. 3.0m D. 4.0m
86. At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downward is P1 and the pressure upward
is P2. it can be deduced that. A. P1 = P2 B. P1> P2C. P1< P2 D. P1> P2
87. i. its velocity is constant ii. no work is done on the body iii. it has constant acceleration
directed away from the centre iv. The centripetal force is directed towards the centre. Which
combination of the above is true of a body in a circular track? A. I and iii B. I and iv C. ii
and iii D. ii and iv
88. The velocity v of a particle in a time t is given by the equation v = 10t 2 + 2t. Find the
instantaneous acceleration after 5s. A. 10m/s B. 15m/s C. 20m/s D. 60m/s
89. If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of
the system is ……… A. doubled B. constant C. reduced to a quarter D. reduced by half
90. The velocity ration of a machine is 5 and it efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift
a load of 15N with the machine? A. 50N B. 40N C. 30N D. 20N
91. A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope
if, starting from rest, the mass requires a velocity of 4m/s in 8s
A. 105N B. 95N C. 50N D. 5N [g = 10m/s]
92. A stream is flowing at 0.7m/s and a boat heading perpendicular for the stream landed at the
opposite bank at an angle of 300. Calculate the velocity of the boat.
A. 0.65m/s B. 0.86m/s C. 1.00m/s D. 1.50m/s
93. i. coherence ii. Same frequency iii. same wavelength iv. Same intensity. Which of the
conditions above are necessary to produce interference fringes?
A. I, ii and iii B. I and iii C. I, ii and iv D. Ii and iii
94. An engineer intends to deviate a light ray from its path by 1200 through reflection from a plane
mirror. Calculate the angle of incidence. A. 200B. 300 C. 400 D. 600
95. Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from …… A. air to water B. water to glass
C. a dense medium to a less dense medium D. a less dense medium to a dense medium
96. One end of a long wire is fixed while a vibrator is attached to the other end. When the vibrator
is energized, the types of water generated in the wire are A. stationary and transverse B.
progressive and transverse C. stationary and longitudinal D. progressive and longitudinal
97. A boy observes a piece of stone at the bottom of river 6.0m deep. If he looks at the surface of
the river, what is the apparent distance of the stone from him?
A. 4.5m B. 5.0m C. 5.5m D. 8.0m [refractive index of water = 4/3]
98. A metal of mass 0.5kg is heated to 1000c and then transferred to a well-lagged calorimeter of
heat capacity 80J/k containing water of heat capacity 420J/k at 15 0c. If the final steady
temperature of the mixture is 250c, find the specific heat capacity of the metal. A. 92J/kg/k B.
133J/kg/k C. 286J/kg/k
D. 877J/kg/k
99. A quantity of water at 00c is heated to about 30 0c. At each degree rise in temperature, its
density will …. A. rise steadily B. rise then fall C. fall steadily D. fall then rise
100. A thin wire with heavy weights attached to both ends is hung over a block of ice resting on two
supports. If the wire cut through the ice block while the block remains solid behind the wire, the
process is called ….. A. fusion B. sublimation C. condensation D. regelation
SOLUTION TO ABSU 2012/2013 SCREENING TEST

ENGLISH
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. B
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. C
23
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. D
25. B 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. D
33. D 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. C
BIOLOGY
41. A 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. C
49. A 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. B
57. A 58. D 59. B 60. A
CHEMISTRY
61. C SEE MULTI -PURPOSE
CALCULATIONS IN CHEMISTRY by
62. 2H2 + O2→ 2H2O J. O Onuoha for more Problems &
Solutions
2(2 x 1)g of H2 gave 2(18)g of H2O
:. 8g of H2 will give Xg of H2O [cross multiplying, we have] 63. A 64. D
Xg = 8 x 36/4 = 72g Ans: C
65. Molar mass of XO2 = X + (16 x 2) = 32 x 2 = 64 66. C 67. C
X = 64 - 32 = 32 Ans: A SEE MULTI -PURPOSE
68. R.A.M = (16 x 10) + (m x 10) = 16.2 CALCULATIONS IN PHYSICS by J.
O Onuoha for more Problems &
100 Solutions
160 + 10m = 1620; 10m = 1620 - 160 = 1460

:. m = 1460/10 = 146
69. B 70. D 71. D 72. D 73. 74. C 75. A 76. A
77. 78. C 79. C 80. B
PHYSICS
81. D 82. D 83. D 84. B 85. C 86. C 87. A 88. A
89. A 90. B 91. C 92. A 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. B
97. A 98. D 99. D 100. A
ENGLISH
Read passage 1 carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
The root of the problems which bedevil rural dwellers in Nigeria can be traced to the sad fact that
work opportunities are so restricted that they cannot work their way out of poverty and misery.
Though a great number of Nigerians still live in the villages and small towns, work opportunities exist
mainly in the big cities where development efforts are concentrated. The reason usually given for this
obvious lapse is that it is easier to establish industries and to find finance and markets to keep them
going in the big cities and towns than in the rural areas where productivity is low because of mass
illiteracy and poverty
As capital is the product of human work, rural dwellers who are desperate enough to overcome
poverty often leaves the villages in search of some kind of existence in the big cities and towns.
Therefore, rural unemployment in Nigeria produces mass migration into the cities, leading to a rate
of urban growth which taxes the resources of even the biggest cities like Ibadan, Lagos, Abuja and
Kano. From the sad experiences of these cities, it is easy to see how rural unemployment can
24
become urban unemployment with the attendant social problems like robbery, overcrowding and the
growth of shanties or slums
Such problems cannot be wished away but will remain with us until deliberate efforts are made to
bring health to economic life outside the big cities in order to check the migration of destitute rural
dwellers into towns and cities that cannot absorb them.
It is necessary, therefore, that at least an important part of the development effort should bypass the
big cities and be concerned with the provision of viable infrastructure in the small towns and villages.
In this connection, it is necessary to emphasize that the primary need is workplaces. The task should
be to bring into existence thousands or millions of new workplaces in the rural areas and small towns
in order to maximize work opportunities for rural dwellers
For this proposition to make sense, first, the work opportunities should be created in the rural areas
where the majority of the people live, not where they tend to migrate for lack of opportunities.
Secondly, the demands for high skills are minimized, not only in the production process itself but
also in matters of organization, raw materials supply, financing, marketing and so forth; third, the
production should be mainly from local materials and for local use. Lastly, rural workplaces should
be cheap enough so that they can be created in large numbers. These four requirements together
meet the description of what is usually called “cottage industry”. Millions of them are needed for rural
transformation in Nigeria and to check the dangerous process of mutual poisoning between urban
areas in the country
1. The expression as capital is the product of human work seems to support the argument that A.
rural people are poor because they lack wok opportunities to fight poverty B. urban
productivity is affected by mass migration from the rural areas C. urban areas will continue to
experience overcrowding as long as workplaces are concentrated there D. rural dwellers who
move to capital cities often overcome poverty
2. The expression mutual poisoning as used in the passage suggests that A. migration negates
effective urban and rural life B. migration can make urban and rural people sick C. rural and
urban areas complement each other D. rural people violent urban hygiene
3. The writer describes the features of a collage industry” as A. remedying urban migration,
available employment, simplicity of operations and affordable products B. rural location,
simplicity, local sourcing of raw materials and affordability of products C. affordable energy
sources, availability of manpower, cheap products and easy marketing of products
D. availability of capital, high productivity, low capital demand and simplicity of operations
4. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage? A. urban workplaces are
responsible for rural poverty and misery B. providing work opportunity in the rural areas will
lead to low productivity, illiteracy and poverty, rural work opportunity, could reduce urban
unemployment, urban workplaces absorb rural/urban migrants
5. In the first sentence of the passage, the word work, used differently, can be explained as
A. industrial and cam B. job and struggle C. employment and insure D. career and prepare
In each of the questions 6 to 24, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s)/phrase
in italics
6. After the surgical operation, the doctor gave the indication that Mr. Igogo will pull through
A. be maimed B. offers C. projects D. be revived
7. His cruelty to mother defies logical explanation A. demand B. offer C. project D. precludes
8. The tennis player surreptitiously swapped rackets after the first set A. openly retained
B. overtly C. quietly surrendered D. violently swung
9. They attacked all regulations designed to emasculate student militancy A. condone
25
B. conserving C. marshalling D. storing
10. There is no point dissipating energy on a useless argument A. destroying B. pleases
C. honourD. discredits
11. The secretary runs down anybody that does not sing 264 his praise A. hate B. pleases
C. honours D. discredits
12. Everyone including the principal, believed that he was a very assiduous student
A. assertive B. industrious C. aggressive D. casual
13. The dancing troupe put up a flawless performance A. an interesting B. an imperfect C. a
satisfactory D. a careless
14. My brother married a loquacious woman A. quiet B. noisy C. talkative D. beautiful
15. My elder brother is now faced with the vicissitudes of married life.A. amazement B. sweetness
C. amiability D. stability
16. My father's advice to me was quite invaluable A. useless B. useful C. helpful D. unsolicited
17. The minister has finally been dropped from the present cabinet because of his ignoble act.
A. criminal B. ignorant C. honourable D. selfish
18. Orinya balances the pail on her head with accustomed, ease. A. convincing B. surprising
C. unwary D. unusual
In questions 25 - 28, fill in the right word/phrase

19. There is no …… sense in what that politician has just said A. many B. plenty C. lot of D.
much E. big
20. There is much indifference in his nonchalance inconsistency A. concern B. nonchalance
C. willingness D. inconsistency
21. Most warring countries end up in a state of salvation. A. hunger B. thirst C. danger D. famine
22. The officer asked for a more temperate assessment of the matter A. extreme B. moderate
C. radical D. human
23. The lectures were advised to carry out a cursory survey of Nigeria languages
A. detailed study B. careful teaching C. careful description D. partial consideration
24. Musa hates Hadiza for her constant bellicose behaviour. A. violent B. gentle C. meek
D. troublesome
25. Abdul is fond of his teacher though he sometimes makes derogatory remarks about him
A. unpleasant B. complimentary C. expressive D. inconsiderate
26. The policeman was sent to …….allegation made by the man. A. investigate B. examine
C. probe D. enquire C. observe
In questions 29 - 33, which of the options expresses the same idea as the one in quotes?
27. To be in the red is to be A. in debt B. rich C. a socialist D. red E. dressed in red
28. To beat down the price is to A. flog the price B. reduce the price C. beat the salesman
D. attack the seller E. control the price
29. “To ask after a friend” is to A. ask questions about the friend B. inquire about the friend's
welfare C. go after the friend D. like the friend E. take after the friend
30. An open secret means A. a fact that is very secret B. an open matter C. a secret known to
everybody D. a confidential matter
31. To put something aside is to A. put it by one's side B. put it in a side pocket for future use
C. keep something for some special purpose D. keep in safety E. protect it
In questions 34 - 41, choose the phrase or word which best complete the meaning of each
sentence
32. One of the ……. during the football match led to fight between the teams.
A. incidence B. incidences C. incidents D. occasions E. linesmen
26
33. He used to play tennis, but he doesn't …… A. as of now B. any longer C. again D. presently
E. since
34. He was ……. he had no time to eat A. so busy that B. very busy C. very busy that D. too
busy that E. busy that
35. It had been raining before the match started, ….? A. isn't it B. hasn't it C. hadn't it D. wasn't
it E. is it
36. The mechanic said that he ……. mend my car before Saturday A. can't B. couldn't C. can't
be able to D. couldn't be able to E. won't be able to
37. There was a fire in the market last week which resulted …….. a terrible destruction of property
A. in B. to C. from D. into E. with
38. At the end of the month, we …….. each other for five years. A. would know B. should have
known C. should be knowing D. would have been knowing E. used to know
39. The body is sensitive to changes in velocity which, if too sudden A. consciousness may be
lost B. it may lose consciousness C. one may become unconscious D. may cause loss of
consciousness E. may lose consciousness
Each of question 42 to 45 consists of a sentence with a phrase or word underlined. Select the
option that best expresses the meaning of the phrase or word underlined
40. The thought of his admission to the University keyed Olu up to a state of great excitement
A. stimulated Olu B. ushered Olu C. opened Olu D. frightened Olu E. allowed Olu
41. After a careful review of Adamu's last examination result, the principal concluded that his
performance left much to be desired. A. was very unsatisfactory B. was very satisfactory
C. was extremely desirable D. was very brilliant E. was extremely commendable
42. The president stood his ground because the committee members would not be persuaded to
arrive at a compromise on the issue being debated A. yielded his position B. shifted his
position C. maintained his position D. defended his position E. resisted his position
43. The lake home pay of many workers is such that they can hardly make both ends meet
A. lived an honest life B. finish their schedule of work C. keep two jobs at a time D. live
within their income E. live on both ends
BIOLOGY
44. On what structure are the units of inheritance situated? A. golgi bodies B. ribosomes
C. chromosomes D. endoplasmic reticulum
45. Production of naked seeds is a distinctive feature of the group of plant called?
A. grasses B. conifes C. legumes D. palms
46. In which of these is features do bryophyes differ from pterisophytes? A. absence of flower
B. alternation of generation C. dependence on water for reproduction D. presence of a
vascular system
47. Which of the following organs or cell components are common to both the sporophyte and the
ametophyte of a fern? A. rhizoids B. roots C. chloroplasts D. leaves
48. In which of the following organisms does a single cell perform all the function of movement,
nutrition, growth, excretion and photosynthesis? A. paramecium B. euglena C. amoeba
D. spirogyra
49. In which of the following organisms would glycogen be stored? A. spirogyra B. clamydomonas
C. rattus D. magnifera
50. The most successful group of animals in terms of diversity of species is
A. Mollusca B. arthropoda C. mammalian D. playthehelminthes
51. Flame cells are the A. excretory system of worm B. excretory and respiratory system of
earthworms C. excretory system of natworm D. excretory system of flatworms
52. Which of the following parts of a cell is living? A. cell wall B. mitochondria C. food vacuole
D. calcium oxalate
27
53. The main function of blood in mammals is to transport A. excretory materials from tissues
B. carbon oxide from lungs to tissues C. digested food from all the body tissues D. oxygen to
the lungs
54. Members of the phylum protozoa use the contractile vacuole A. to remove excess food B. for
movement C. for digestion D. to remove excess water
55. The response shown by the tips of the root and shoot of a plant to the stimulus of gravity is
A. haptropism B. phototropism C. hydrotropism D. geotropism
56. Which of the following is the correct order of the vertebrae along the spinal column?
A. axis atlas thoracic lumbar cervical sacral B. atlas cervical axis thoracic lumbar sacral
C. atlas axis cervical thoracic lumbar sacral D. axis cervical thoracic sacral lumbar
57. Which of the following is TRUE of the process of conjugation in Paramecium?
A. micronucleus disintegrate B. each exconjugatant divides only once C. macronucleus
undergoes division D. each micronucleus divides twice
58. The bright colours of the comb feather in the peacock are for sex differentiation.
A. sex differentiation B. beauty C. courtship D. defense
CHEMISTRY
59. What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in Al2(SO4)3? A. 14.29% B. 25.39% C. 50.79%
D. 59.25 [Al = 27, S = 32, H = 1, O = 16]
60. The filter in a cigarette reduces the nicotine content by A. burning B. absorption C. evaporation
D. absorption
61. 3Cu + PHISO3→ 3Cu(NO3)2 + 4H + xNO
In the equation above, the values of P and x respectively are A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 6 and
2 D. 8 and 2
62. Which of the following is composed of Al, Si, O and H? A. clay B. limestone C. Epsom salt
D. urea
63. The noble gases owe their inactivity to A. octet configuration B. cyclic shape C. hexagonal
shape D. obtuse configuration
64. According to the kinetic theory, an increase in temperature causes the kinetic energy of
particles to A. decrease B. increase C. remain constant D. be zero
65. Steam changes the colour of anhydrous cobalt (ii) chloride. A. white to red B. blue to white
C. white to green D. blue to pink
66. When sugar is dissolved in tea, the reaction is always accompanied by A. a minimum entropy
change B. no entropy change C. positive entropy change D. negative entropy change
67. A gas exerts pressure on its container because A. some of its molecules are moving faster
than others B. of the mass of each other C. of the mass of the molecules of gas D. the
molecules of a gas collide with walls of the container
68. When cathode rays are deflected onto the electrode of an electrometer, the instrument
becomes A. negatively charged B. positively charged C. neutral D. bipolar
69. The weakest attractive forces that can be observed between two molecules is
A. ionic B. covalent C. coordinate D. vander waals
70. A consequence of global warming is A. air pollution B. water pollution C. increase humidity
D. flooding
71. Which of the following ions is acidic? A. C2- B. NO2- C. S2-D. H3O+
72. The air pollutant unknown in nature is A. DDT B. CO C. HCHO D. NO
73. The chromatographic separation of ink is based on the ability of the component to
A. react with each other B. react with the solvent C. dissolve in each other in the column
D. move at different speeds in the column
74. A liquid that will dissolve fat is A. hydrochloric acid B. calcium hydroxide C. kerosene
D. water
75. What mass of K2CrO4, is required to prepare 250cm3 of 0.020mol/dm3 solution?
28
A. 0.97g B. 9.70g C. 19.42g D. 97.10g [K2CrO4 = 194.2g/mol]
Brick cord
PHYSICS pull
76.
Fig. 2
A brick at rest on a horizontal table is pulled by a horizontal cord, as shown in fig. 2. the force of
friction on the brick A. increase if the pull increases but the brick does not move B. is directly
horizontal to the right C. decreases if an identical brick is placed on the first D. is zero if the
brick is pulled hard enough to make it slide E. change if the brick is turned on its side
77. The force with which an object is attracted to the earth is called its A. acceleration B. mass
C. gravity D. impulse E. weight
78. The refractive index of a liquid is 1.5. if the velocity of light in vacuum is 3.0 x 10 8m/s, the
velocity of light in the liquid is A. 1.5 x 103m/s B. 2.0 x 103m/s C. 3.0 x 103m/s D. 4.5 x
103m/s E. 9.5 x 103m/s
79. If the relative density of a metal is 19, what will be the mass of 20cm of the metal when
immersed in water? A. 380g B. 400g C. 360g D. 39g E. 180g
80. The electromagnetic wave that can produce a heating effect on the environment is
A. x-rays B. ultraviolet rays C. infrared rays D. gamma rays
81. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity A. force B. altitude C. weight D. displacement
E. acceleration
82. A piece of stone attached to one end of a string is whirled round in a horizontal circle and string
suddenly cuts. The stone will fly off in a direction. A. perpendicular to the circular path
B. parallel to the circular path C. tangential to the circular path D. toward the center of the
circle
83. Which of the following statements about friction is NOT correct? A. the force of kinetic friction is
less than the force of static friction B. the force of kinetic friction between two surface is
independent of the areas in contact provided the normal reaction is unchanged C. the force of
rolling friction between two surfaces is less than the force of sliding friction D. the angle of
friction is the angle between the normal reaction and the force of friction E. friction may be
reduced by lubrication
84. A ship traveling towards a cliff received the echo of its whistle after 3.5s. A short while later, it
received the echo after 2.5s. if the speed of sound in air under the prevailing conditions is
250m/s, how much closer is the ship to the cliff? A. 10mB. 125m C. 175m D. 350m
E. 1,000m
85. Which of the following is NOT correct? i. the pitch of a sound note depends on the frequency of
vibrations ii. The intensity of a sound note is proportional to the amplitude of vibrations iii.
Beats are produce by two sources of sound because one wave is traveling faster than the other
iv. when two sources of sound of frequencies 500Hz and 502Hz are sounded together, a net
frequency of 2Hz is observed v. the first harmonic of a note has double the frequency of the
fundamental note.A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. I and ii D. iii and iv E. iv and v
86. Which of the following statements about defects of vision is/are CORRECT
i. for a long sighted person, close objects appear blurred ii. For a short sighted person, distant
objects appear blurred iii. short sighted is corrected by using a pair of converging lenses.
A. I only B. ii only C. I and ii only D. ii and iii only E. I, ii and iii
87. The range of wavelengths of the visible spectrum is 400nm - 700nm. The wavelength of
gamma rays is A. longer than 700nm B. shorter than 700nm but longer than 400nm C.
550nm D. shorterthan 400nm E. infinite
88. If the pressure in 100cm3 of an ideal gas is doubled while its Kelvin temperature is halved, then
the new volume of the gas will become. A. 25cm3B. 50cm3C. 100cm3D. 200cm3E. 16m/s
89. A train has an initial velocity of 44m/s and an acceleration of 4m/s2. Its velocity after 10s is
A. 2m/s B. 4m/s C. 8m/s D. 2m/s E. a6m/s
29
90. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stairs 5m high in 5s. If the acceleration due to gravity is
10m/s2, what is the power expended? A. 100W B. 300W C. 250W D. 400W E. 500W
MATHEMATICS
91. Find the principal which amounts to A. N5,000 B. N4900 C. N4800 D. N4700
92. A car dealer bought a second-hand car for N250,000.00 and spent N70,000.00 refurbishing it.
He then sold the car for N400,000.00. What is the percentage gain? A. 20% B. 25% C. 32%
D. 60%
93. Evaluate 21.05347 ÷1.6324 x 0.43 to 3 decimal places.A. 20.351 B. 20.352 C. 20.980
D. 20.981
94. Evaluate (0.142 x 0.275) correct to 3 decimal places A. 0.033 B. 0.039 C. 0.308 D. 0.358
7(0.02)
95. Simplify 71/12 - 43/4 + 21/2A. 4 B. 41/6 C. 45/6 D. 51/6
96. A cylindrical tank has a capacity of 3080m 3. What is the depth of the tank if the diameter of its
base is 14m? A. 20m B. 22m C. 23m D. 25m
0
97. A sector of a circle of radius 7.2cm which subtends an angle 300 at the centre is used to form
a cone. What is the radius of the base of the cone? A. 6cm B. 7cm C. 8cm D. 9cm
98. The chord ST of a circle is equal to the radius, r of the circle. Find the length of arc ST
A. πr/2 B. πr/3 C. πr/3 D. πr/12
99. A point P moves such that it is equidistant from the points Q and R. find QR when PR = 8cm
and <PRQ = 300. A. 4cm B. 4√3cm C. 8cm2 D. 8√3cm
3 1
100. Evaluate /8 ÷ ½ - /3 A. ¼ 1
B. /3 C. ½ D. 1
1/ x 2/ + 1/
8 3 3
SOLUTION TO ABSU 2011/2012 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

ENGLISH
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. A
9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B
17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D
25. D 26. A 27. E 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. C
33. C 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. B
41. D 42. A 43. A
BIOLOGY
44. C 45. D 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. B
52. B 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. D 57. D 58. D
CHEMISTRY
59. D 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. D 64. 65. A 66. B
67. D 68. D 69. A 70. D 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. C
75. B
[See Multipurpose Calculations in Physics by J.O. Onuoha for explanations]
PHYSICS
76. A 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. B 81. B 82. E 83. A
84. C 85. D 86. C 87. B 88. D 89. B 90. E
[See Multipurpose Calculations in Physics by J.O. Onuoha for explanations]
MATHEMATICS
91. D 92. A 93. B 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. A 98. A
99. A 100. D
30
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
The young are not listening to their elders, and perhaps they ever have. But now it happens that,
with many of them, the reason may be medical. The young aren't listening because they can't hear.
Just as nagging parents have long suspected, otologists (hearing specialists) now report that
youngsters are piling dear is a result of blasting their ear drum with electronically amplified rock 'n'
roll.
The hearing specialists used to worry about loud noise as a cause of deafness only in industrial and
military situations. They knew that eight hours daily exposure; year in and year out, to the heat of the
proverbial boiler factory, would eventually result in permanent hearing loss. Riveters were
particularly susceptible. Then they learned that the same thing happened to aviators. After the
advent of jets, the hazard applied to ground crews airports and flight-deck personnel aboard aircraft
carriers hence the introduction of insulated, noise-absorbing plastic earmuff.
In discotheques and rock 'n' roll joints. The trouble is not much in the instruction themselves or the
close quarters. The blame goes to the electronic amplifiers. An old-fashioned military band; playing a
march in Ramat Park. Generated as much sound. But the sound was not amplified and was
dissipated in the open air. A trombonist sitting in front of a tuba player might be a bit deaf for an hour
or so after a concert; then his hearing returned to normal. A microphone hooked up to a public
address system did not appreciably increase the hearing hazard. What he did was multiple
microphone and speakers, and the installation of international microphone in such instruments as
guitars and bouzouki is.
1. The young are not listening to their elders because A. they never have B. their parents nag
constantly C. they are permanently deaf D. they appear to be going deaf
2. Just as nagging parents have long suspected implies that the parents suspected that
A. their children did not listen to them B. children could not hear properly after listening to
amplified music C. otologists were always right D. children were disobedient because they
did not listen to their parents
3. What is the result of being subjected to the din of the proverbial boiler factory for a prolonged
length of time? A. loss of hearing which will never improve B. total deafness eight hours a day
C. temporary deafness D. hearing loss which can be corrected by medical treatment
4. The same thing happened to aviators'. This except according to the passage means
A. that riveters were particularly susceptible B. industrial and military deafness C. that
continued loud noise resulted in deafness D. that working in a boiler factory affected one's
hearing
5. What is the difference between an old-fashioned military band on in one hand and
discotheques and rock 'n' roll joints on the other? A. one is old-fashioned while the other is
modem B. One produces sounds for marching, the other for disco C. one has drums, the
other has guitars D. one produces amplified sounds, the other does no
31
PASSAGE II
The preparation which a study of the humanities can produce stems from three observations about
education in our world of accelerating social and technological change. First, with the rate of change,
we cannot hope to train our students for specific technologies. That kind of vocational education is
obsolescent. By the time the specific training will have been completed, the world will have moved
on. In our education of narrow training, we will not be prepared to change. Second, and
paradoxically, what our students desires from their education is preparation for specific careers,
business, engineering, medicine, computer programming and the like. But we will not be able to train
them for a life-long career. Their confronting the depressed job market gives our students a certain
anxiety, but the solution they seek in vocation training is not sufficient. Third, we sense in our
students a narrowing materialism, with the good life defined in terms of material comforts Education,
then means learning to do a job which will make money. I see in this definition a limiting sense of
what education and thus life offer, a definition which excludes joy and meaning. Our approach to the
study of the humanities responds to these three related problems. In our changing, yet narrowing
world, the teaching of the humanities finds one powerful justification it teaches students how to
think.
6. Our world of accelerating social and technological change means that A. our world is moving
too fast socially and technologically B. our world is going through more rapid, social and
technological change C. the social and technological change is more accelerating our world
7. What is the major weakness of training students for specific technologies?
A. it trains the students for only one type of career B. it helps students to acquire money later
when they are employed C. it makes them anxious for a job in the market D. it cannot help
students to cope with the rapid changes in the world
8. We sense in our students a narrowing materialism means that our students concept of
education is one that A. prepares them for money, joy and meaning B. makes them ready to
confront the depressed job market C. only prepare them to acquire material comforts D.
trains them for a life-long career
9. According to the writer, a study of the humanities A. is accepted by present day students as
essential B. prepares students for specific careers C. provides a missing link in the
technological education of our students D. is the best solution to the problem of
unemployment
10. What type of education does the writer advocate for our students A. vocational as well as
technological education B. business engineering, medicine and computer programming
C. technological education plus the humanities D. technological education only
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

In each of questions 11 - 15, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word in italics
11. I am happy to inform you that your boys are conscientious. A. industrious B. carefree C. direful
D. corrupt
12. My father is a very prosperous businessman A. ungrateful B. inscrupulous C. unskilled
D. unsuccessful
13. The hostess greeted her guests in a very relaxed manner
A. energetic B. athletic C. stiff D. perplexed
14. Ayo takes his studies rather lightly A. humorously B. tediously C. carefully D. seriously
15. The doctor was very gentle with his patients in the examining room.
A. harsh B. rude C. tough D. unkind
In each questions 16 to 26, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in
italics
32
16. There is no love lost between Hassan and Hassana. A. dislike each other B. are head over
heels in love C. will love each other D. are still good friends
17. Whether the village head should identify himself with the activities of religious denomination
has remained a burning question A. a subject of discord B. a perennial issue C. a matter of
serious controversy D. a sensitive matter
18. I would rather not attend the party. A. detest attending B. do not have the enthusiasm
C. must not attend D. have a choice to attend or not to
19. If Garba has listened to advice, he would not have had to be rushed to the hospital
A. deliberately desired to be rushed B. was in position to have prevented the need to be
rushed C. was rushed against his wish D. was given a cheque, but preferred to go
20. Aduke: Ngozi, let's visit the market Ngozi: if you insist. Ngozi A. is very willing to accompany
Aduke B. must accompany Aduke C. is not keen on going with Aduke D. is pretending not
to be interested in idling with Aduke
21. The new leader hands out an olive branch A. sues for peace B. gives out branches of the
olive tree C. challenges his opponents to a fight D. blesses his supporters
22. When you go to a foreign country to study, you will discover that life there is not a bed of roses.
A. as pleasant as one thought B. a bed with roses C. an unmitigated disappointment D. as
expected
23. Because our representative is immature and biased, he takes jaundiced view of our problems
A. hazy B. unclear C. prejudiced D. bleak
24. The president has his regrets. He is unable to attend the meeting A. explanation B. anxieties
C. unhappiness D. apologies
25. The woman acted courageously when she was attacked by thieves
A. shyly B. fearlessly C. timidly D. carelessly
26. We all have both good and bad characteristics. Either is, however, easily manifested in times of
crisis. A. demanded B. highlighted C. submerged D. determined
In each questions 27 - 40, choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which best fill(s) the gaps.
27. The sea waves continue to ………… the cliff on the west coast constantly.
A. impair B. rub C. knock D. crude
28. The college bus was traveling at a high ……. when the accident occurred.
A. velocity B. acceleration C. rapidity D. speed
29. Note that only senior members of staff have the ……. of using the toilet upstairs.
A. permission B. occasion C. privilege D. habit
30. The chief priest will …….. the men into the cull today A. indoctrinate B. usher C. convert
D. initiate
31. Jimoh is noted for his ……. altitude to his seniors at school. A. receptive B. respective
C. respectful D. respectable
32. The girl that my brother introduced to us last week is pretty …… ill-mannered.
A. and B. but also C. is well as D. respectable
33. The police report was …… to that of the eye witness. A. contraryB. inconsistent C. different
D. congruent
34. The African extended family system gives security to … members A. his B. her C. its D. inch
35. I know I …….. read more, but I am tired. A. may B. ought to C. would D. could
36. Insects can become …. to insecticides. A. immunized B. resistant C. reticent D. immobilized
37. The council chairman …….. the tension between the villagers and the tax collectors.
A. dispersed B. defused C. diffused D. disputed
38. If I had been told of the mailer earlier, I ……. there so late. A. would not go B. should not go
C. will not have gone D. would not have gone
39. Each of the candidates that came late …… to complete …… A. have/this form B. are having/these
forms C. have/theses forms D. has/this form
10
33 8
6
4
2
PHYSICS
40. The graph above describes the motion of a particle
The acceleration of the particle during the motion is
A. 0.001m/s2 B. 0.25m/s2 C. 4.00m/s2 D. 8.00m/s2
E. 10.00m/s2
41. A body falls freely under gravity (g = 9.8m/s2) from a height of 10m on top of a platform 0.8m above the
ground. Its velocity on reaching the platform is
A. 7848m/s B. 80m/s C. 78m/s D. 27.78m/s
42. A hydrometer is an instrument used for measuring the A. the depth of water in a vessel
B. relative density of a liquid by method of flotation C. relative density of a liquid by finding the apparent
loss in weight D. relative humidity of the atmosphere
43. A bead traveling on a straight wire is brought to rest at 0.2m by friction. If the mass of the bead is 0.01kg
and the coefficient of friction between the bead and the wire is 0.1. Determine the work done by
friction.A. 2 x 10-4J B. 2 x 10-3J C. 2 x 101J D. 2 x 102J
44. A machine whose efficiency is 60% has a velocity ratio of 5. If a force of 500N is applied to lift a load of
P(N), what is the magnitude of P?A. 750N B. 4166N C. 500N D. 1500N
45. A mass of gas at 70C and 70cm of mercury has a volume of 1200cm3. Determine its volume at 270C and
a pressure at 75cm of mercury A. 1200cm3 B. 1378cm3 C. 4320cm3 D. 4629cm3
46. If a car starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 10m/s 2 for 10s, the distance it covers
in the last one second of the motion is. A. 95m B. 100m C. 500m D. 905m E. 1000
47. A block of mass 2.0kg resting on a smooth horizontal plane is acted upon simultaneously by two forces
10N due North and 10N due East. The magnitude of the acceleration produced by the forces on the
block is. A. 10.00m/s2 B. 7.05m/s2 C. 10.00m/s2 D. 14.10m/s2 E. 20.00m/s2
48. A metal block of mass 5kg lies on a rough horizontal platform. With a horizontal force of 8N applied to
the block through its centre of mass just slide block the block on the platform, then the coefficient of
limiting friction between the block and the platform is
A. 0.16 B. 0.63 C. 0.80 D. 1.60 E. 2.00
49. Which of the following is NOT a force? A. friction B. tension C. upthrust D. weight E. impulse
50. Two masses 40g and 60g respectively, are attached firmly to the ends of a light metre rule. The centre
of gravity of the system is A. at the mid-point of the metre rule B. 40cm from the lighter mass C.
40cm from the heavier mass D. 60cm from the heavier mass indeterminate because the metre-rule is
light
51. The half-life of a radioactive element is 9days. Calculate the fraction that remains after 36days?
A. 1/32 B. 1/16 C. ¼ D. 15/32
52. The graphite rods surrounding the uranium fuel rods in a nuclear reactor are used to
A. absorb the neutrons and hence halt the nuclear process B. create the neutrons and hence slow
down the nuclear process C. slow down the neutrons and hence slow down the nuclear process D.
speed up the neutrons and hence speed up the nuclear process
53. A force of 100N stretches an elastic string to a total length of 20cm. if an additional force of 100N
stretches the string 5cm further; find the natural length of the string.
A. 15cm B. 12cm C. 10cm D. 8cm E. 5cm
54. Two drivers G and H are at depths 20m and 40m respectively below the water surface in a lake. The
pressure on G is P1 while the pressure on H is P2. If the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10m of
water, then the value of P2/P1 is A. 0.50 B. 0.60 C. 1.67 D. 2.00 E. 3.00
55. The areas of the effort and load pistons of a hydraulic press are 0.5m and 5m respectively. If a force F1
of 100N is applied on the effort piston, the force F2 on the load is A. 10N B. 100N C. 500N D.
1000N E. 5000N
56. A metal cube of volume 10mm3 is lowered into a measuring cylinder containing water. If the internal
cross sectional area of the cylinder is 1.5 x 102mm2, by how much does the water level rise in the
cylinder? A. 6.67 x 103mm B. 8.50 x 102mm C. 1.15 x 103mm D. 2.50 x 103m E. 1.50 x
5
10 mm
57. A uniform cylindrical block of wood floats in water with one-third of its height above the water level. In a
liquid of relative density 0.8. What fraction of its height will be above the liquid level?
A. 1/6 B. 1/5 C. 1/3 D. 4/5 E. 5/6
34
58. A thin aluminium plate has a surface area of 1,500m2 at 200c. What will be its surface area when it is
cooled to 200c? (take the linear expansivity of aluminium to be 2.5 x 105k-1). A. 1.503m2B. 1.500m2 C.
1.498m2D. 1.497m2E. 440m2
59. Two liquids, P at a temperature of 200c and Q at a temperature of 800c have specific heat capacities of
1.0J/kg0c respectively. If equal masses of P and Q are mixed in rugged calorimeter, then the equilibrium
temperature is A. 440c B. 500c C. 560c D. 530c E. 700c
0
60. A quantity of gas occupied a certain volume when the temperature is 73 c and the pressure is increased
to 4.5 atmosphere. The volume is halved at the same time, what will be the new temperature of the
gas? A. 5730C B. 3270C C. 560C D. 500C E. 700C
CHEMISTRY
61. Catalyst is important in chemical industry in the A. it affects the purity of the products B. it affects the
quantity of the products C. it increases the time for the reaching equilibrium
D. bond breaking is slowed down
62. 56.00cm3 of a gas at s.t.p weighed 0.11g. What is the vapour density of the gas?
A. 11.00 B. 22.00 C. 33.00 D. 44.00 [molar volume of a gas at s.t.p = 22.4dm3]
63. Which of the following gases will diffuse fastest when passed through a porous plug?
A. propane B. oxygen C. methane D. ammonia [H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16]
64. Which of the following will have its mass increased when healed in air?
A. helium B. magnesium C. copper pyrites D. glass
65. What is the temperature of a given mass of a gas initially at 00c and 9atm, if the pressure is reduced to 3
p
atmospheres at constant volume? A. 91K B. 182K C. 273K D. 819K q
66. in the diagram above, the mixture of the solids p and q Solubility
3
can be separated by A. distillation B. fractional distillation (mol/dm )
C. crystallization D. fractional crystallization

Temp. (k)
67. Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq)→ MgCl2 + H2(g)

From the equation above, the mass of magnesium required to react with 250cm 3 of HCl is
A. 0.3g B. 1.5g C. 2.4g D. 3.0g [Mg = 27, Cl = 35.5]
68. Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing solids particle of A. small sizes B. large
sizes C. the same size D. different sizes
69. In which of the following are water molecule in the most disorderly arrangement. A. ice at -100c B. ice
at -00c C. water at 100oc D. steam at 1000c
70. In order to remove one electron from 3s-orbital of gaseous sodium atom, about 496kJ/mol of energy is
required. This energy is referred to as A. electron affinity B. ionization energy C. activation energy
D. electro negativity
71. Nitrogen obtained from the liquefaction of air has a higher density than that obtained from nitrogen
containing compounds because the former contains A. water vapour B. oxygen C. carbon (iv)
oxide D. rare gases
72. The method that can be used to convert hard water to soft water is A. chlorination B. passage over
activated charcoal C. the use of an ion exchange D. aeration
Use the table below to answer question 73 and 74
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
O
X Z
W Y
73. The element that is likely to participate in covalent rather than ionic bonding is
A. Z B. Y C. X D. W
74. The least reactive elements is A. W B. X C. Y D. Z
75. A gas that is not associated with global warming is A. CO2B. SO3C. H2D. CH4
35
76. What mass of water is produced when 8.0g of hydrogen reacts with excess oxygen?
A. 72.0g B. 36.0g C. 16.0g D. 8.0g
77. The oxide XO2 has a vapour density of 32. What is the atomic number if the resultant mixture is
from mass of x? A. 20 B. 32 C. 14 D. 12
78. The fundamental difference between the three states of matter is the A. degree of movement
of their particles B. number of particles in each state C. shape of the container they occupy
D. shape of their particles
79. The set of pollutants that is most likely to be produced when petrol is accidentally spilled on
plastic materials and ignited is A. CO, CO2 and SO2 B. CO, HCl and SO2 C. SO2, CO2 and
HCl D. Na, K, O2
BIOLOGY
80. What is observed when aqueous solution of each of tetraoxosulphate (vi) acid, potassium trioxo (v) and
potassium iodine are mixed together? A. white precipitate is formed B. a green precipitate is formed
C. the mixture turns reddish-brown
81. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during A. meiosisB. cytolysis C. mitosis D. cleavage
82. An example of a caryoposis is A. coconut B. tomato C. guava D. maize grain
83. A limiting factor In a plant population near a chemical factory is likely to be
A. humidity B. pH C. wind D. light
84. The pioneer organisms in ecological succession are usually the A. lichens B. algae C. ferns D. moses
85. Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi and A. roots and higher plants B. filamentous algae
C. bacteria D. protozoans
86. A density dependent factor that regulates the population size of organisms is
A. sudden flood B. disease C. fire outbreak D. drought
87. The most effective method of dealing with non-biodegradable pollution is by
A. burying B. dumping C. incineration D. recycling
88. Soil fertility can best be conserved and renewed by the activities of A. microbes B. earthworms
C. man D. rodents
89. The correct sequence of biomes from northern to sourthern Nigeria is A. estuarine, a tropical rain
forest, a guinea savanna, a sahel savanna B. sahel, a sudan savanna, a guinea savanna, a tropical
rain forest, a estuarine C. sahel savanna, a tropical rain forest, a estuarine, a guinea savanna D.
guinea savanna, a sudan savanna, a tropical rain forest, a sahel savanna, a estuarine
90. One example of fossil fuels is A. coral B. limestone C. firewood D. coal
91. If the pair of alleles for baldness is given as Bb, a female carrier will be denoted by
A. XBXb B. XBXB C. XbY D. XBY
92. All organisms that has been extensively used to test the chromosome theory of heredity are
A. homo sapiens B. drosphila C. zea mays D. musca domestica
93. A feature associated with the Y chromosomes in humans is A. facial hairs B. prominent fingernails
C. long eyelashes D. enlarged breast
94. A man and his wife are both heterozygous for the sickle cell trait. The likely percentage of their offspring
that will be either carriers of sicklers is A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
95. The type of reproduction that leads to variation in animal and plant population is
A. budding B. vegetable C. asexual D. sexual
96. If a DNA strand has a base sequence TCA, its complementary strand must be A. ATG B. GAT
C. AGT D. TAG
97. Which of the following requires the use of carbon dating to prove that evolution has occurred?
A. biochemical similarities B. molecular records C. fossil records D. comparative anatomy
98. The presence of sunken stomata and the folding of leaves are adaptation that A. prevent entry of
pathogens B. prevent guttation C. remove excess water D. reduce water loss
99. Spines and shells on animals are adaptations for A. physical defense B. camouflage C. chemical
defense D. mimicry
100. The inactive state exhibited by an animal during hot dry seasons is termed.
A. aestivation B. dormancy C. resting D. hibernation

36
ENGLISH
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C
9. 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. B
17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. A 23. D 24. C
25. B 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. D 40.
PHYSICS
41. E 42. B
43. w = Fs = μmgs = 0.1 x 0.01 x 10 x 0.2
= 2 x 10-3J Ans: B
M.A L/E
44. Efficiency = /V.R = /V.R
SEE MULTIPURPOSE
60 P(N)
/100 x 5 = /500
P(N) = 0.6 x 5 x 500 = 1500N Ans: D
45. T1 = 70C + 273 = 280K, P1 = 70cmHg, V1 = 1200cm3, V2 = ? CALCULATIONS IN
T2 = 270C + 273 = 300K, P2 = 75cmHg
From P1V1 = P2V2 PHYSICSBY ENGR. J.
T1 T2 OONUOHA
70 x 1200 = 75 x V2
280 300 FOR MORE PROBLEMS
3
V2 = 70 x 1200 x 300 = 1200cm Ans: A
280 x 75
46. s10 = ½ at2 = ½ x 10 x 102 = 500m
S9 = ½ at2 = ½ x 10 x 92 = 405m
Distance covered at the last one second = 500m - 405m = 95m Ans: A
47. Resultant force F = √(102 + 102) = 14.14N
but F = ma
a = F/m = 14.14/2 = 7.07m/s2 Ans: B
48. F = μmg;
8 = μ x 5 x 10
μ = 8/50 = 0.16 Ans: A 49. E 50. C 51. B 52. 53. A
54. D 55. D 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. B 60. E
CHEMISTRY
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. C
68. D 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. C 73. C 74. D
75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. C
BIOLOGY
80. A 81. A 82. D 83. B 84. D 85. A 86. C
87. D 88. B 89. B 90. D 91. A 92. C 93. A
94. A 95. D 96. A 97. C 98. D 99. A 100. A

Answer All Questions: Shade the Answer Sheet As Appropriate With HB Pencil Only
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
PASSAGE I
37
The approach to the university is being restructured to ease the flow of traffic, give better security and provide
an appropriate introduction to a seat of higher learning. The works and services complex is also under
construction, and we intend to move into the completed (major) part of it within the next few weeks.
All these projects are being executed with an eye to aesthetics, for we recognize the important influence of a
beautiful and healthy environment on its inhabitants and feel that a cluster of building on a small space such
as we have should be so well designed as to have a beneficial psychological and sociological effect on all
members of the community.
I have gone to these lengths to itemize these examples of current development for two main reason. Firstly, to
advise you that the road diversions and other physical inconveniences currently being experienced will be on
the increase because of intense development activity. We therefore appeal to you to bear with us in full
knowledge and consolation that such inconvenience are temporary and will soon yield final tangible results.
Secondly, to demonstrate your capacity for executing approved projects with dispatch, and to assure
government that we are up to the task. Indeed, I can assure government that its ability to disburse funds to us
will be more than matched by your capacity to collect and expand them on executing various worthy projects
in record time.
1. From the passage we can gather that A. there is not much consideration for the health of the
inhabitants B. there is deliberate effort to inconvenience the people C. buildings are put up anyhow D.
projects are carried out without approval E. the inconveniences suffered by the inhabitants will be for a
while
2. Unless it can be shown that the money voted for A. the development activity will not intense
B. it will not be easy to convince the government of our executive ability C. it will not be difficult to ask
government for funds D. our final results will be unreliable
E. the road diversions and other inconveniences will continue
3. An eye to aesthetics in this passage means A. regard for space B. beneficial psychological effects
C. regard for health D. consideration for beauty E. a cluster of buildings
4. In this passage the author tries to explain why A. it is necessary to establish the works and services
complex in the university B. beauty should not be taken into consideration when building on such a
small space as we have C. the gateway to the university is being rebuilt
D. major part of the project should be completed in the next few weeks E. visitors should be debated
from using the gates in the meantime
5. Which of these is NOT among the reasons given by the author for enumerating the examples of the
current development? A. to show that we are capable of executing approval projects B. to convince
the government that we are trusted with task C. the inconveniences currently being experienced will go
on indefinitely D. we are fully aware of the inconveniences being caused but we do not want you to
complain E. we have the capacity to complete worthy projects within the scheduled time.
PASSAGE II
Is work for prisoners a privilege to save them from the demoralizing effects and misery of endless unoccupied
hours it is something added to a prison sentence to make it harder and more unpleasant, or something which
should have a positive value as part of a system or rehabilitation?
Those magistrates who clung to sentences of hard labour doubtless looked upon strenuous work as an
additional punishment. This point of view is widely accepted as right and proper, but it ignores the fact that
unwillingness to work is often one of the immediate causes of criminality. To send prisoners back to the
outside world, more than ever convinced that labour is an evil to be avoided, is to confirm them in their old
way of life.
It has been said that the purpose of prison work in a program me of rehabilitation is two fold: training for work
and training by work. The prisoner, that is to say, needs to be trained by work. The prisoner, that is to say,
needs to be trained by habits of industry, but over and above this, he will gain immeasurably if it is possible to
rouse in him the consciousness of self-mastery and of purpose that the completion of any worthwhile piece of
work can give to the door. He may find a pride of achievement in something more satisfying and more socially
38
desirable, than crime. But these thins can only come when the work itself has a purpose and demands an
effort.
6. According to the author, some magistrates sentence prisoners to hard labour because
A. some prisoners are unwilling to work B. work is a privilege C. prisoners need to learn a trade D. it
is an additional punishment E. it is a means of rehabilitation
7. Which of these is NOT the purpose of work in a programme of rehabilitation A. training the prisoners to
have satisfaction in work B. developing in them a pride in a sense of achievement C. developing in
them more satisfaction in work than in crime D. helping them to accelerate their reform and discharge
E. training them for work and by work
8. The author thinks that strenuous work in prison A. is a privilege for the prisoners B. may do more
harm than good C. is part of their punishment D. is a right and proper thing E. should be an
additional punishment
9. What the author is trying to put across in this passage is that A. crime does not pay B. prisoners
should be made to work hard C. work is more desirable than crime D. life in prison is one of misery
E. work in prison without a purpose is bad
10. Demoralizing in this passage means A. deforming B. reforming C. destruction D. destructive E.
corruption
PASSAGE III
The save the children fund (SCF) was first started in London on 19th May, 1919 by an English woman named
Miss Jebb. It is now a worldwide organization dedicated to helping needy child everywhere. The SCF of
Malawi was formed in 1953, under the patronage of His Excellency the Life President Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu
Banda.
Our job in Malawi is to give those unfortunate children the rights that they are deprived of though no fault of
theirs. These are internationally recognized as the ten rights of children and include protection, care, food and
accommodation and relief, a spokeman for the fund explained.
One of those who benefited from the help of the fund is Samuel Mpetechula, a graduate of Chancellor. His
sponsorship started in 1967. the SCF of Malawi found him sponsors. They were Mr and Mrs Sutton of
Australia who paid his school fees and continued to help him financially throughout his university education.
Mr Mpetechula said, “they even built a house for me at home and looked after my family while I was a
student. They were really helpful to me and the thought that there were these sponsors caring for me from
thousands of kilometers away from here was an encouragement for me to work hard at college”.
Another important function of the work of the SCF is in the field of nutrition. With the help of the Australian
government, the SCF established two nutrition rehabilitation centers for children, one at Mpemba and another
in Muanje. The object of the centre, explained Mr Fetre Chimbe, the executive secretary of the Fund, is to
combat malnutrition in children, by giving them the proper food.
11. In Malawi, the Save the Children Fund was formed A. by an English woman name Miss Jebb in 1919
B. in 1919 under the patronage of His Excellency the Life President Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu Banda in
1953 C. in 1953 under the patronage of His Excellency the life President Ngawazi Dr. H. Kamuzu
Banda D. in 1953 by a group of social workers headed by Dr. Mbagunda E. none of the above
12. The Save the Children Fund in Malawi helps needy children by A. finding families which are willing to
adopt the children B. finding sponsors for the children's education and by opening nutrition centers
C. giving loans and scholarships to students who cannot afford to continue their education D. running
institutions which give free fund E. clothing and lodging poor children without parents
13. Samuel Mpetechula was able to graduate from Chancellor because A. of the financial assistance given
to him by his sponsors B. his uncle paid his education fees C. he was able to win a scholarship to the
university D. the SCF subsidized his educational expenses by Australian government
In question 14 and 15, choose the meaning which best fits the underlined phrases taken from the
passage.
39
14. Combat malnutrition means A. struggle against the easing of the wrong type of food B. fight ill health
caused by over feeding C. wipe out ignorance D. fight to wipe out ill health caused by lack of food
E. fight against hunger
15. Deprived of means A. spared B. prevented from getting C. robbed of D. unable to take
E. snatched from
PASSAGE IV
At the time of the troubles in Ireland, a priest said, man is half beast, a diplomat replied, yes, and the beast is
the half I like the best. The priest meant that few beasts behave badly. If you look at the fool and cruelty of
today's world, it is hard to disagree with the diplomat or the priest. But human nature can be changed.
Anybody, if that is what they most want to do, can change the most difficult person they know. The art of
changing people has been lost in the modem world. That is why the modem world has lost its way
There are two ways of looking at human nature. One is to make the best of it as it is and assume that it is the
raw material of life which cannot be altered. That is what most people in the free world do today. In these
circumstances, if you expect the worst, you are seldom disappointed. Faith today has become irrelevant to the
everyday needs of so many people in positions of responsibility because they do not expect faith in change
men.
Another way of dealing with human nature is to exploit it. All materialists, whether of the right or of the left, do
this. All over the world vanity, fear, ambition, lust and greed are used to control the life of men, and if the
control breaks the man does not hesitate to use force, or to destroy life. The end, he says, justifies the means
and men are only of value in so far as they art a means towards the achievement of his ambition. If they
cannot be bribed or forced to play their part, then they must be liquidated.
16. The priest meant that A. man is both beast and human B. man could be sores than a beast if he
wants to C. he liked beasts more than man D. he liked both man and beat E. really, a man cannot
be a beast
17. The modern world has lost its way because A. it no longer believes in God B. ambition has
made people greedy C. people are no longer interested in one another D. the technique of influencing
people is no more E. people are just too selfish
18. What most people do in the free world today is to A. leave other people alone B. assume that
human nature is bad C. accept human nature as it is since it is immutable D. attempt to change the
world
E. leave the world as it is
19. Faith today is by an large irrelevant because A. nobody thinks it can alter human nature
B. most people do not believe in God C. being in a position of responsibility nullifies the important of
faith D. responsible people need not bother about faith E. the faithful are very few in the world anyway
]20. Materialists can be found A. in capitalist countries B. in communist countries C. in less developed
countries D. among people who do not have neighbours E. all over the world
PASSAGE V
Typical Zacharia Devil may care and irreverent as ever. No doubt he was just the same when he was cook to
a Greek trader in the town. In fact, I suspect that to him the Reverend Father is just another son of trader.
Conceited ass, thinking himself superior to the Father. And in what is he superior? Success with women,
perhabs? Zacharia knows that they all admire him and is always striving for still more admiration.
He dresses sharply and walks in a haughty manner that suits his tallness and then he feeds his pride on the
swarms of girls who run after him. It's maddening to think how little you need to attract them. I remember my
mother coming home from market in the town, after selling her vegetables and cocoa. How indignant she was,
'it's so shameful, she cried, our best-looking and most respectable girls go to town and throw themselves at
strangers as ugly as sin, speaking the most outlandish tongues.
Men I can scarcely look at without shuddering! And why? Just money! Money! Ah, what a word! And my father
replied in a buried voice, it's the times! 'the times! Shouted mother, can you imagine my child Ann with
creatures like those?' but perhabs the girls who chase Zacharia aren't drawn by his tallness of his leather
40
shoes. Perhabs they're only after childish things, a bit of bread or a pot of jam, knowing that he's a cook. My
father often says women are like children in their desires. And after all, I too can boast a little. Plenty of
women turn to look at me, especially when I'm dressed all in white! But I'm not vain enough to fuse over a little
thing like that. Not like Zacharia who doesn't know women are simply children
21. Zacharia A. was the cook of a trader B. worked for a priest C. worked for the speaker's mother D.
was a rich man E. was a handsome man
22. Which of the following was NOT a quality of Zacharia's A. vanity B. lack of respect for others
C. humility D. arrogance E. insubordination
23. The girls were apparently attracted to Zacharia by A. wealth B. the life of the towns C. the
appearance D. the fact that the young men spoke strange dialects E. food
24. From the passage, we can conclude that the young girls were A. attractive B. religious
C. modern D. easily led E. indifferent
25. The speaker's mother considered that A. things were not a good as they used to be
B. women were foolish C. the world was corrupt D. the love of money was the root of all evil
E. it was necessary for attitudes to change
In questions 26 - 34, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined

26. The story has to be taken with a grain of salt. This means that A. you need some salt to listen to the
story B. there is no salt in the story C. the story is questionable D. the story is true E. you have too
much salt in the story
27. It is usually hard to change the course of action when one crosses the Rubicon. The underlined
expression, as used in this sentence, means to A. pass through a place called Rubicon
B. cross a river called Rubicon C. cross a bridge called Rubicon D. pass a special test E. be
irrevocably committed
28. The salenian tried to pull the wool over my eyes. This implies that the salesman tried to
A. force me to buy his goods B. offer me cotton wool C. make me buy his wool D. dupe me E.
cover my eyes with wool
29. Ijeoma counted her chickens before they were hatched. This means that Ijeoma
A. regarded her chicken B. hatched the eggs prematurely C. assumed that her expectations has
already been realized D. protected her eggs from breaking E. insured the eggs
30. Solo has resigned his job with the Textile Millls. He doesn't seem to worry about getting another job. His
plans are still quitein the air. This means that the plans are A. airmailed B. airtight C. uncertain
D. certain E. airborne
31. Ike is head over heels in love with Ngozi. This means that A. Ike is friendly with Ngozi B. Ike is trying
to fall in love with Ngozi C. Ngozi feel on Ike's heel and both of them feel in love D. Ike is madly in
love with Ngozi E. none of the above
32. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after he had been walked out of the Assembly for
violating basic procedure of the House. This means that the legislator has decided to
A. oppose every motion in the house B. suppose every motion in the house C. condemn every
motion D. support the lead given by others E. become active in the house
33. Old customs die hard. This implies that old customs A. cause a lot of hardship and death B.
must be stopped C. never die out D. cause hardship for younger people E. tend to last for a long time
34. The convict said he was tire of leading a dog's life. To lead a dog's life means to live
A. carelessly B. in disgrace C. in solitude D. in misery E. in poverty
In questions 35 - 4o, choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence.
35. After the initial confusion, the manager's suggestion brought ……. to the depressed in vestors A. a
glitter of hope B. a glimmer of hope C. a sparkle of hope D. a raise of hope E. a shower of hope
36. The farmer has brought the insecticide because he was bent on …….. the insects in his farm.
A. exterminating B. estimating C. extenuating D. extinguishing E. exemplifying
37. The young lady decided to …… A. do away with the many advices given by her relatives
B. rejects all the advices given by her relatives C. take to all the advices given by her relatives D.
eject all the advices given by her relatives
38. Two ministers found it very difficult to get …….. in the cabinet A. through with each other
B. by with one another C. through with one another D. off from each other E. on with each other
41
39. The school Board has placed an order for ….. A. all the furniture and equipments required in the new
schools B. all the furniture and equipment required in the new school C. all of the furniture and
equipments required in the schools D. many of the furniture and equipments required in the new
school
40. On his way back, the boy ran into a long procession of men, women and children in ……
A. white beautiful exceedingly flowing gowns B. exceedingly flowing white beautiful gowns
C. exceedingly beautiful white flowing gowns D. white flowing exceedingly beautiful gowns
E. flowing exceedingly white beautiful gowns
41. Viruses are regarded as non-living because they A. can neither reproduce asexually nor sexually B.
cannot survive in their respective environments C. do not posses characteristics to the next generation
D. can neither respire nor excrete
42. Which of the following pairs are fully adapted to terrestrial life? A. ferns and algae
B. ferns and mosses C. bryophyte and flowering plants D. flowering plants and conifers
43. Which of these animals is radically symmetrical? A. squidB. hydra C. snail D. cockroach
44. Which of the following has cones? A. angiosperm B. gymnosperm C. pteridophyte D. bryophyte
45. For effective functioning of a bird's quill feather hooks fir on the ridges of the
A. vane B. rachis C. barbules D. barbs
46. Which of the following is NOT true of spirogyra? A. reproduces by conjugation
B. reproduces by fragmentation C. consists of branched filaments D. consists of unbranched
filaments
47. Which of the following lacks chaetae, tentacles and antennae? A. snail B. crab C. millipede
D. earthworm
48. There is incomplete metamorphosis in the A. butterfly B. grasshopper C. mosquito D. housefly
49. Fishes are cold-blooded because their body temperature is A. constantly low B. constantly high C.
dependent on that of their surroundings D. regulated at will
50. When the original king and queen of termites dies, they are replaced by A. the king and queen of
another colony B. some adult reproductive from the same colony C. some adult workers which are
specially fed to breed D. developing nymphs nurtured as secondary reproductive.
51. The male cockroach differs from the female by having A. mandibles B. a pair of styles
C. spiracles D. a pair of cerci
52. The fans making up the limbs of the bony fish are A. causal and ventral B. ventral and pelvic C.
pelvic and pectoral D. pectoral and dorsal
53. The stem differs from the root in having the xylem and phloem strands. A. on the same radii
B. scattered C. on alternate radii D. towards the pith
54. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis has been demonstrated to come fromA. carbon dioxideB. air
C. water D. chlorophyll
55. Which of the following parts of a cell is living? A. cell wall B. calcium oxalate C. food vacuole D.
mitochondria
56. What is the consequence of increasing pressure on the equilibrium reaction?
ZnO(s) + H2(g)→ Zn(s) + H2O(l) A. the equilibrium is driven to the left B. the equilibrium is driven
to the right C. there is no effect D. more ZnO is produced
57. The approximate volume of air containing 10cm3 of oxygen is A. 28cm3B. 25cm3C. 50cm3 D. 100cm3
58. The reaction: Mg + H2O → MgO + H2, take place only in the presence of
A. excess Mg ribbon B. excess cold water C. very hot water D. steam
59. When steam is passed through red hot carbon which of the following is produced?
A. hydrogen and oxygen and carbon (iv) oxide B. hydrogen and carbon (iv) oxide
C. hydrogen and carbon (ii) oxide D. hydrogen and trioxocarbonate (iv) acid
60. Which of the following contains an efflorescent, a deliquescent and a hydroscopic substance
respectively? A. Na2SO4, conc H2SO4, CaCl B. Na, CO, 10H, FeSO4.7H2O, conc H2SO4
C. NaCO3.10H2O, FeCl, conc H2SO4 D. conc H2SO4, FeSO4.7H2O, MgCl
61. Radioisotopes are used for the following EXCEPT A. development of photographic films
B. generation of electricity C. radio carbon dating C. tracers in chemical reactions
62. The exhaust fumes from a garage in a place that uses petrol of high sulphur content are bound to
contain. A. CO and SO B. CO and SO C. CO2, SO2 and SO D. CO and H2S
63. Oxygen-demanding wastes are considered to be a water pollutant because they
A. depletes oxygen which is necessary for the survival of aquatic organisms
42
B. increase oxygen which is necessary for the survival of aquatic organisms
C. increase other gaseous species which are necessary for the survival of aquatic organisms
D. deplete for the survival of aquatic organisms.
64. Which of the following will react further with oxygen to form a higher oxide? A. NO and N 2O B. CO and
CO2 C. SO2 and NO2 D. CO2 and H2O
65. In the course of an experiment, two gases X and Y were produced. X turned wet lead ethanoate to black
and Y bleached moist litmus paper. What are the elements in each of the gases X and Y respectively?
A. H and S, Cl B. H and O, Cl C. H and SC and O D. H and Cl; S and O
66. Which of the following sulphides is insoluble in dilute HCl? A. Na2S B. ZnS C. CuS D. CuCl
67. When chlorine is passed into water and subsequently exposed to sunlight, the gas evolved is
A. Fe B. Al C. HOCl D. Zn E. Pb
68. Which of the following metals does NOT form a stable trioxocarbonate (iv).
A. Fe B. Al C. Zn D. Pb
69. Which of the following metals will react with NaOH to give salt and water only. When Z is treated with
dilute HCl, a gas is evolved which gives a yellow suspension on passing into concentrated K2SO4.
substance Z is. A. NaHS B. Na2SO4 C. NaS D. NaHSO4
70. Ammonia gas is normally dried with A. concentrated sulphuric acid B. quick time C. anhydrous
calcium chloride D. magnesium sulphate
71. A load of 5N gives an extension of 0.56cm in a wire which obeys Hooke's law. What is the extension
caused by a load of 20N. A. 1.12cm B. 14cm C. 2.24cm D. 2.52cm
72. The light from the sun reaches the earth mainly by A. convectionB. conduction C. radiation
D. reflection
73. The distance between the fixed points of a centigrade thermometer is 20cm. what is the temperature
when the mercury level is 4.5cm above the lower mark? A. 22.50C B. 29.00CC. 90.00C D.
0
100.0 C
74. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the A. different hidden colours of the glass B. different
speeds of the various colours in glass C. defects in the glass D. high density of glass
75. A body of mass 100g moves with a velocity of 10.0m/s and collides with a wall. After collision, the body
moves with a velocity of 2.0m/s in the opposite direction. The change in momentum is.
A. 8.0Ns B. 1.2Ns C. 12.0Ns D. 80Ns
76. The combination of sound waves with different frequencies is known as A. interference
B. diffraction C. superposition D. resonance
77. Which of the following characteristics of a wave is used in the measurement of the depth of the sea?
A. refraction B. reflection C. diffraction D. interference
78. Hot water is added to three times its mass of water at 100c and the resulting temperature is 200c. What
is the initial temperature of the hot water?
A. 1000c B. 800c C. 500c D. 400c
79. A hydrometer is an instrument used for measuring the A. the depth of water in a vessel
B. relative density of a liquid by method of flotation C. relative density of a liquid by finding the
apparent loss in weight D. relative humidity of the atmosphere
80. Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 2kg ice at 20c to water at 00c. [specific heat capacity of
ice = 2090jkgC, specific heat of fusion = 33kjkg] A. 666JB. 8360J C. 666000J D. 674360J
81. In which of the following are the substances arranged in descending order of their thermal
conductivities? A. copper, steel, glass B. steel, glass, copper C. steel, glass, copper
D. copper, glass, steel
82. The vacuum in the Thermos flask helps to reduce heat transfer by A. convection and radiation
B. convection and conduction C. conduction and radiation D. radiation only
83. The probability of either event A or B is 5/6, while that of event B is 1/6. If the probability of both A and B
is ½, what is the probability of event A. A. ¾ B. 5/6 C. ¼ D. 3/5
2
84. The chances of three independent events X, Y, Z occurring are ½, /3, ¼ respectively. What are the
chances of Y and Z only occurring? A. 1/8 B. 1/24 C. 1/12 D. ¼
85. Some red balls were put in a basket containing 12 white balls and 16 blue balls. If the probability of
picking a red ball from the basket is 3/7, how many red balls were introduced?
A. 13 B. 20 C. 12 D. 21
86. Find the co-ordinates of the mid-point of the line joining (2, 7) and (1, -6).
A. (1/2, 13/2) B. (3/2, ½) C. (1/2, ½) D. (3/2, 13/2)
43
87. An equilateral triangle of sides 2cm is inscribed in a circle. Find the area of the circle.
A. 4πcm2 B. 8πcm2 C. 4π/3cm2 D. 3π/4cm2
88. The chord PQ of a circle is equal to the radius, r of the circle. Find the length of the arc PQ
A. 3πr/4 B. πr/4 C. πr/3 D. πr/6
89. If 2609 ÷ 1002 = 66n. find n A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 8
90. Find the values of x such that 2 7 x = 10
3 ½ y 7
A. x = y = 2 B. x = 2, y = -2 C. x = -2, y = 2 D. x = y = -2
91. A chord of a circle of radius 13cm is drawn 5cm from the centre of the circle. Find the length of the
chord. A. 12cm B. 24cm C. 18cm D. √194cm
3 2 8 10
92. If x - 2 is a factor of px + 2x - 2p + 12, find the value of p A. /5 B. - /3 C. 2D. -2
93. In a regular pentagon ABCDE, AC intersects BD at P. calculate <CPD.
A. 1080 B. 360 C. 720 D. 480
94. Subject Biology Chemistry Maths Physics
Marks 95 2x + 10 x75
The table above shows the marks obtained by a student in an examination. If the total mark obtained is
300, what is the angle corresponding to the mark obtained in Chemistry if the information is represented
in a pie chart? A. 1200B. 1440C. 480 D. 1080
95. A ladder 17m rests against a vertical wall so that its foot is 8.5cm from the wall. Find the angle of
inclination of the ladder to the horizontal floor. A. 300 B. 600C. 450D. 550
96. Evaluate limx→2 x2 + x - 6 A. 0 B. 5 C. 8 D. 1
x-2
97. If dy/dx = 6x - 3 and y(-1) = 8, find y(x).
A. 3x2- 3x 8 B. 3x2- 3x + 8 C. 3x2- 3x - 2 D. 3x2- 3x + 2
2
98. The minimum of the function f(x) = 2x - 12x + 5 is A. 59 B. -59 C. 3 D. -3
99. A basket contains 5 MTN cards, 6 GLO cards, 3 MTEL cards and 6 V-mobile cards. What is the
probability that a card selected from the basket at random will be MTN or MTEL card?
A. 3/20 B. ¾ C. ¼ D. 2/5
100. Find the range of the numbers /3, ½, /5, /5, /3, 6/7, 8/9
1 3 4 2
A. 7/27 B. 13/45 C. 9/5 D. 5/9

1. E 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. D
9. E 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. B
17. D 18. C 19. C 20. E 21. A 22. C 23. E 24. A
25. D 26. C 27. E 28. D 29. C 30. C 31. D 32. D
33. E 34. D 35. C 36. A 37. C 38. E 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. B 48. B
49. C 50. D 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. C
57. 58. B 59. B 60. D 61. 62. B 63. A 64. B
65. B 66. C 67. C 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. F α e; F = ke
F1 = F2
e1 e2
e2 = F2e1/F1 = 20 x 0.56/5 = 2.24cm Ans: C 72. C
73. 4.5 - 0 = 20 - 0
x-0 100 - 0
x = 4.5 x 100/20 = 22.50 Ans: A 74. B 75. D 76. C 77. B
78. D 79. B 80. D 81. A 82. C
83. no correct option
84. pr(of x and y occurring) = pr(x) x pr(y) = 2/3 x ¼ = 1/6 Ans: D
85. Let no. of red balls = x
no. of blue balls = 16
44
no. of white balls =12
total no. of balls = x + 12 + 16 = x + 28
pr(picking red ball) = x/x+28 = 3/7 [cross multiplying, we have]
x x 7 = 3x + 84
4x = 84
:. x = 84/4 = 21 Ans: D
86.D 87. C 88. C 89. D 90. D
91. x2 = 132 - 52 = 169 - 25 = 144; x = √144 = 12cm
Length of the chord = 2x = 2 x 12 = 24cm Ans: B
92 If x - 2 is a factor, then x - 2 = 0; x = 2
F(2) = p(2)3 + 2(2)2 - 2p + 12 = 0
8p - 2p + 8 + 12 = 0; 6p = -20; p = -20/6 = -10/3 Ans: B
93. C 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. D
98. f(x) = 2x2 - 12x + 5
f''(x) = 4x - 12 = 0; 4x = 12
x = 12/4 = 3 Ans: C
99. Total cards = 5 + 6 + 3 + 6 = 20; Pr(MTN cards) = 5/20, Pr(MTEL cards) = 3/20
Pr(MTN or MTEL cards) = 5/20 + 3/20 = 8/20 = 2/5 Ans: D
100. Range = 8/9 - 1/3 = 5/9 Ans: D
45

ABSU Post-UTME Past Questions and Answers For Science Students (Sciences, Medicine, Engineering and Agriculture)

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ABSU post-UTME 2015/2016 ……………………………………………………… 7–9

ABSU post-UTME 2014/2015 ……………………………………………………… 10 – 13

ABSU post-UTME 2013/2014 ……………………………………………………… 13 – 15

ABSU post-UTME 2012/2013 ……………………………………………………… 15 – 18

ABSU post-UTME 2011/2012 ……………………………………………………… 18 – 24

ABSU post-UTME 2010/2011 ……………………………………………………… 25 – 31

ABSU post-UTME 2009/2010 ……………………………………………………… 31 – 36

ABSU post-UTME 2008/2009 ……………………………………………………… 40 – 48

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SOLUTION TO ABSU 2018/2019 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2017/2018 POSTUTME EXAM

Force = pressure x Area = 206 x 0.5 = 1.03 x 103N Ans: E 29. A

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2015/2016 POSTUTME EXAM

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2014/2015 POSTUTME EXAM

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2013/2014 POSTUTME EXAM

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2012/2013 SCREENING TEST

160 + 10m = 1620; 10m = 1620 - 160 = 1460

In questions 25 - 28, fill in the right word/phrase

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2011/2012 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

C. crystallization D. fractional crystallization

67. Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq)→ MgCl2 + H2(g)

SOLUTION TO ABSU 2010/2011 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

ABIA STATE UNIVERSITY, UTURU

In questions 26 - 34, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined

94. Subject Biology Chemistry Maths Physics

A. 7/27 B. 13/45 C. 9/5 D. 5/9

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