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TRƯỜNG THCS …………………… ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG

NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019


MÔN: Tiếng Anh LỚP 7

(Đề thi này có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể phát đề)

(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi)


ĐIỂM CỦA BÀI THI NGƯỜI CHẤM SỐ PHÁCH
(Ghi rõ họ tên và ký) (Do Ban chấm thi ghi)
Bằng số Bằng chữ
1. …………………………..

2. …………………………..
A. LISTENING: (2 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín
hiệu.

Part 1: You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach trip. For each
question, circle the correct answer. (1 pt)
1. What is the change of the plan?
A. They will visit two towns.
B. They will look round a university.
C. They will visit a wildlife park.
2. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. near a waterfall. B. by a lake. C. on a mountain.
3. The town of Brampton became well known because of its __________.
A. shops B. university C. museum
4. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkey C. tigers
5. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 6.45 C. 7.15

Part 2: You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a competition. For each question,
fill in the missing information from 6 to 10. You will hear the conversation twice. (1 pt)

THIS MONTH’S COMPETITION


Prize: a computer + a (6) _________________ printer.
Write a story:
- Length: (7) fewer than _________________ words.
- Subject: (8) a short _________________ story which take place in the future.
Write your names, address, telephone number and (9) ________________ at the end.
Story must arrive on or before (10)_________________
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B. PHONETICS, VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (6 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. (1 pt)
1. A. things B. airports C. stoves D. calculators
2. A. missed B. praised C. pleased D. raised
3. A. hurry B. hurt C. turn D. excursion
4. A. lamb B. climb C. pub D. climb
5. A. fool B. boot C. blood D. noodle
6. A. glass B. class C. grass D. mass
7. A. hear B. fear C. bear D. near
8. A. nation B. natural C. vacation D. teenager
9. A. order B. novel C. portable D. score
10. A. theme B. thought C. author D. though
II. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the rest. (0,5 pt)
1. A. complete B. detective C. gather D. event
2. A. mixture B. allow C. affect D. disease
3. A. exit B. cushion C. turtle D. improve
4. A. museum B. useful C. cavity D. wedding
5. A. receive B. order C. perform D. rehearse
III. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. (1,5 pts)
1. The news _________bad. She fainted after hearing that bad news.
A. was B. were C. is D. are
2. He ate some dirty vegetables last night, so he had a ________.
A. headache B. stomachache C. toothache D. bad cold
3. Would you like to have _________water?
A. some B. any C. a few D. many
4. _________interesting stories are! They are worth reading.
A. What B. Why C. How D. Which
5. I need some butter. I’m going to the ________.
A. stationer’s B. butcher’s C. baker’s D. grocer’s
6. I promise I _________ and visit you.
A. am coming B. will come C. have come D. am going to come
7. She is never late for school and _________is her sister.
A. either B. so C. neither D. too
8. The doctor says you should spend ________time playing video games.
A. lots of B. all your C. most of your D. a little
9. Nga decided ________how to use a sewing machine.
A. to learn B. learn C. learning D. learnt
10. You’ve made a lot of mistakes in your work. You should never do it _________.
A. hurry B. hurried C. in a hurry D. such hurry
11. Our school year usually starts in late August. It _________ for almost 9 months.
A. wastes B. lasts C. lengthens D. takes
12. Neighbors don’t spend _________ time together as they used to do in the past.
A. more B. less C. most D. as much
13. It’s a very busy airport. There are planes _________ and landing every 5 minutes.
A. going up B. taking off C. getting up D. driving off
14. "Would you like to go to the movie downtown?"- "Thanks, but I _______ that film already."
A. had seen B. was seeing C. have seen D. would see
15. “What about going to the movies?” – “_________”
A. That’s a good idea. B. thanks
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C. Yes, I’d love to. D. We are going to the movie
IV. Give the correct form/ tense of the verbs in brackets. (1 pt)
1. No one (enjoy) ______________________ going to hospital.
2. We (be) ________________________students in four years.
3. A new bridge (build) ________________________ in our city soon.
4. I will send him the message as soon as he (return) ________________________.
5. He sent a telegram for his mother (inform) _________________________good news.
6. You (see) the film on television last night? ___________________________
No, I (see) ________________________it twice.
7. She gets fat because she is always tasting things while she (cook) _____________________.
8. The package has (be) _______________ there tomorrow. It (be) there in time? ___________
- Don’t worry. I am going to send it by express mail.

V. Complete the following paragraph by filling in each numbered gap with an appropriate
form of the word in block capitals. (1pt)
1. I want to know what the _____________________ of this lake is. (DEEP)
2. This knife is _____________________ I can’t cut anything with it. (USE)
3. _____________________ are one of the animals which are harmful to our crops. (MOUSE)
4. During his ______________________the family used to live in the country side. (CHILD)
5. On a ____________________ day, we have to learn 4 hours with different subjects. (TYPE)
6. After the explosion, only two people were left _______________________. (LIVE)
7. Guitar is a _______________________instrument. (MUSIC)
8. I want to rent a ________________________apartment, please. (FURNITURE)
9. Walking in the rain gives me ________________________. (PLEASE)
10. You must be careful when playing video games. They can be _______________.(ADDICT)

VI. Circle the incorrect mistake (A, B, c or D) then correct it. (1 pt)
1. Measles are one of the infectious diseases that children get.
A B C D ____________
2. Nam looked very angrily because his friends said no words.
A B C D ____________
3. Neither my classmates nor my teacher are going on vacation this weekend.
A B C D ____________
4. Last night, Alice took a stomachache, so he had to see the doctor.
A B C D ____________
5. There are less TV programs for teenagers than there are for adults.
A B C D ____________
6. She is lazy, but her brother is very lazier.
A B C D ____________
7. He was absent from work yesterday because of he was ill.
A B C D ____________
8. I am terrible sorry. I didn’t mean to break your windows.
A B C D ____________
9. On the back of the school yard there is a big apple tree.
A B C D ____________
10. We left our luggage at the station and go to find something to eat.
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A B C D ____________
C. READING: (6 points)
I. Read the passage then answer the question by choosing (A, B, C or D). (1 pt)
English is my mother tongue. Besides, I can speak French and Spanish. I studied the two
languages when I was at high school. Now, I am still learning Spanish at the University. As for
me, mastering a foreign language is not easy. After studying a language, practice is very
necessary and useful. Traveling to the country where the target language is spoken is very
helpful, but if you cannot speak the language well enough you will certainly have troubles. I
also frequently go to the movies, watch movies on television, and listen to the radio in the
language I am trying to learn. Reading is another good way to learn. Books are good, but I
personally think newspapers and magazines are better. However, getting some knowledge of the
language is the most important thing. Grammar and vocabulary should be mastered before
learning anything then.
1. How many languages can the writer speak?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
2. The writer has learnt Spanish ___________.
A. in Spain B. at high school C. at University D. B and C
3. Traveling may cause troubles if __________.
A. you cannot speak the language fluently enough.
B. you can speak the language well enough.
C. you can speak the language bad enough.
D. you can communicate in the target language.
4. Which one is NOT true to show useful ways to practice your target language.
A. reading books in the language.
B. listening to the radio and watching TV in the language.
C. seeing films in the language.
D. Translating grammar and vocabulary.
5. According to the writer, what should be mastered first?
A. Vocabulary B. Vocabulary and grammar
C. Writing skill D. Reading skill

II. Read the passage and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2 pt)
If you live in a city, you probably see many people, hear the (1)__________________of
traffic, and smell the pollution (2)__________________cars and factories.
We are entering a new time in (3)_________________ history of the world. Before this, most
(4)__________________were farmers. They lived in the country. Now many people are
(5)__________________ the farms and moving into the cities. They are looking for better jobs.
The cities are growing very quickly. Most cities are very crowded. People are driving more cars,
burning more fuel, (6)___________________more water, eating more food, making more
garbage, and producing more things in factories than (7)_________________ before. Life is
becoming difficult.
Some governments are trying to plan for the future. They are building new roads, putting (8)
_________________new houses, looking for more water, and limiting growth in certain areas.
Still, city planners are getting worried. People are crowding into the cities (9) ______________

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than cities can take them. The cities are running out (10) ____________________rooms. What
is the answer to this problem?
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete. (2 pts)
British parents are always (1)__________that their children spend too much time
(2)__________TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A
(3)__________survey of people’s free time activities (4) __________that young people spend
about 23 hours a week in (5)__________of the television set, that means over 3 hours
(6)__________. (70)__________, the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every
household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (8)__________ to the
survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the kitchen
and in bed as well.
We can not deny that television also (9)__________ some negative effects especially
children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things.
Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered (10)__________results in studying at school.

1. A. complain B. complaining C. complains D. complained


2. A. to watch B. watch C. watching D. watched
3. A. recent B. recently C. late D. lately
4. A. show B. to show C. showing D. shows
5. A. back B. front C. side D. behind
6. A. a day B. a week C. a month D. a year
7. A. Surprise B. Surprised C. Surprisingly D. To surprise
8. A. Because B. Addition C. Besides D. According
9. A. have B. having C. has D. had
10. A. its B. their C. his D. her

IV. Read the passage then answer the questions. (1 pt)


Alexander Fleming was born in 1881 in Scotland. He went to a small school in a village,
and when he left school he didn’t go to university. He worked for five years in an office. But his
brother, Tom, was a doctor and helped Fleming go to university and study medicine. So he went
to London University and in 1906 he became a doctor. In 1915, Fleming married Sarah
McElroy, an Irish woman. They had one son. During the First World War, many soldiers died in
hospital because they didn’t have the right medicines. So after the war, Fleming tried to find a
drug that could help them. He worked for many years and in 1928 he discovered a new drug and
he called it “penicillin”. He later worked with an Australian and a German scientist to develop a
drug that doctors could use. In 1945, they won the Nobel Prize in medicine for their work on
penicillin.
1. Where was Alexander Fleming born?
________________________________________________________________________
2. Who helped him go to university?
________________________________________________________________________
3. What made him try to find out a drug?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
4. Did he work alone to develop a drug that doctors could use?
________________________________________________________________________
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5. When did they win the Nobel Prize in medicine?
________________________________________________________________________
D. WRITING. (6 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the. (2 pts)
1. Listening to English songs is very interesting to me.
I find it ______________________________________________________________
2. They took away his passport so that he wouldn’t leave the country.
They prevented ________________________________________________________
3. They prefer computer games to video games.
They like _____________________________________________________________
4. Despite his age, Mr. Thanh runs five kilometers every morning.
Even though ___________________________________________________________
5. If I were you, I would take that English course.
Why __________________________________________________________________?
6. The countryside doesn’t suffer as much pollution as the city.
The countryside _________________________________________________________
7. Taking photographs inside the museum is forbidden.
You are not _____________________________________________________________
8. My father used to play football when he was young.
My father doesn’t ________________________________________________________
9. You shouldn’t eat too much meat.
You’d _________________________________________________________________
10. He is a slower and more careful driver than I am.
He drives ______________________________________________________________

II. Make questions for the underlined parts of the following sentences. (2 pt)
1. The Flower Festival is celebrated every year.
_____________________________________________________________________?
2. We always have turkey on Thanksgiving.
_____________________________________________________________________?
3. Manh went to Da Nang with his parents last month.
_____________________________________________________________________?
4. They go to the English club on Thursday afternoon.
_____________________________________________________________________?
5. These are my brother’s pictures.
_____________________________________________________________________?
6. My little sister was scared when she crossed the road.
_____________________________________________________________________?
7. Her son is going to mend his bike.
_____________________________________________________________________?
8. People organize this festival to pray for better crops.
_____________________________________________________________________?
9. They prefer computer games to video games.
_____________________________________________________________________?

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10. The festival lasts only one hour and a half.
_____________________________________________________________________?
III. Nowadays, young children especially teenagers spend a lot of time using smart phones.
You should write a passage between 120 and 150 words to express your ideas about it.
(2 pts)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
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________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
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The end
GỢI Ý CHẤM ANH 7 (Thang 20)
A. LISTENING: (2 pts)
Part 1: (1 pt)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B
Part 2:
6. colour 7. 1,500 8. crime 9. age 10. March 8th

B. PHONETICS, VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR


I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. (1 pt)
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D

II. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the rest. (0,5 pt)
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B

III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (15 x 0,1 =1,5 points)
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. D
9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. A

IV. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets ( 1 pt)


1. enjoys 2. will be 3. will be built 4. returns 5. to inform
6. Did you see / have seen 7. is cooking 9. to be/ will it be

V. Complete the following paragraph by filling in each numbered gap with an appropriate
form of the word in block capitals. (1pt)
1. depth 2. useless 3. mice 4. childhood 5. typical
6. alive 7. musical 8. furnished 9. pleasure 10. addictive

VI. There is a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Identify your answer
by circling the corresponding letter A,B,C or D. (1 pt)
1. A -> is 3. B -> nor 5. A -> fewer 7. C -> because 9. A -> At
2. B -> angry 4. A -> had 6. C -> much 8. A -> terribly 10. C -> went

C. READING
I. Read the passage then answer the question by choosing (A, B, C or D). (1 pt)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B

II. Read the passage and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2 pt)
1. noise 3. the 5. leaving 7. ever 9. more
2. from 4. people 6. using 8. up 10. of

III. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete. (2 pts)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B

IV. Read the passage then answer the questions. (1 pt)


1. He was born in Scotland.
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2. His brother, Tom helped him go to university.
3. During the First World War, many soldiers died in hospital because they didn’t have the right
medicines.
4. No, he didn’t. (He worked with an Australian and a German scientist)
5. They won the Nobel Prize in medicine in 1945.

D. WRITING: (6 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10 x2 = 2 points)
1. I find it interesting to listen to English songs.
2. They prevented him from leaving the country by taking away his passport.
3. They like computer games better than video games.
4. Even though Mr. Thanh is old, he runs five kilometers every morning.
5. Why don’t you take that English course?
6. The countryside suffers less pollution than the city.
7. You are not allowed to take photographs inside the museum.
8. My father doesn’t play football anymore/ any longer.
9. You’d better not eat too much meat.
10. He drives more slowly and carefully than I do.

II. Make questions for the underlined parts of the following sentences. (10 x2 = 2 points)
1. How often is the Flower Festival celebrated?
2. What do you have on Thanksgiving?
3. Who did Manh go to Da Nang with last month?
4. When do they go to the English club?
5. Whose pictures are these?
6. How was your little sister when she crossed the road?
7. What is her son going to do?
8. What do people organize this festival for? Why do people organize this festival?
9. Which do they prefer, computer games or video games?
10. How long does the festival last?

III. Nowadays, young children especially teenagers spend a lot of time using smart phones.
You should write a passage between 120 and 150 words to express your ideas about it.
(2 pts)
- Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (0, 25 pts)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (0, 5 pts)
- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary and spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu
linh hoạt (đơn, phức.) (0, 5 pts)
- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (0, 5 pts)
- Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định, không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0, 25 pts)
Note: Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 2 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho điểm tối đa.

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