Baba Polity-2

Exam Title : 2019 - Test 6-Polity & Curr...
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Note: If the exam is multi-lingual i.e. English and Hindi. Hindi solutions will be
after the completion of English solutions.
QUESTION 1. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRV
UVTVElPTiAw
Consider the following statements regarding fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian
constitution.
1. They protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State only.
2. They play a crucial role in establishing the rule of men who are elected by people.
Choose the correct code from the below options
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India . It contains a
very long and comprehensive list of ‘justiciable’ Fundamental Rights.
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any
discrimination.
They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger
public interest and unity of the nation .
The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy . They
prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the
liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State. They operate as limitati
ons on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature . In short, they
aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’ .
Note- Fundamental rights accorded to the citizens protect their liberties and freedoms not only
against the invasion by the State but also against the invasion by other fellow citizens
and institutions .
UVTVElPTiAx
The state can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights. In doing so who is the
competent authority to decide which restrictions are reasonable?
a) Judiciary
b) Parliament
c) President
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d) Governor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Fundamental rights are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable
restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. T
hus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a
whole, between individual liberty and social control.
UVTVElPTiAy
Consider the following statements
1. In case of violation of fundamental rights the aggrieved person has to exhaust the remedy
under concerned high court before moving the Supreme Court.
2. The fundamental rights guaranteed under the articles 20 and 21 do not get automatically
suspended during National Emergency.
3. The parliament cannot curtail or repeal the fundamental rights.
Choose the incorrect code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Fundamental rights are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court . Hence, the
aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court , not necessarily by way of appeal
against the judgement of the high courts.
They are not sacrosanct or permanent . The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but
only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be
done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be
suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e.,
external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion.
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UVTVElPTiAz
Which of the following are included in the definition of state?
1. District boards
2. Panchayat
3. LIC
4. RBI
5. SEBI
Choose the correct code
a) 1,2,3 and 5 only

b) 2,3,4 and 5 only
c) 1,2,4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.
Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State
includes the following:
(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union
government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts,
etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL,
etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions
of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an

instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12.
UVTVElPTiA0
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Match the following fundamental rights with their provisions.
Fundamental rights Provisions
A) saving of laws providing for acquisition

1) Article 31A
of estates, etc
B) saving of laws giving effect to certain

2) Article 31B
directive principles
C) validation of certain acts and

3) Article 31C
regulations included in the 9 th Schedule
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C

b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Self-explanatory
UVTVElPTiA1
Which of the following are covered under right against exploitation?
a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

b) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
c) Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice.
d) Protection of life and personal liberty
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (c)
Quo - Warranto
In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire
into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of
public office by a person.
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The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character
created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or
private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Think
· Writ jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court
· Soul of Constitution
UVTVElPTiA2
Which of the following rights are covered under right to life as provided by article 21?
1. Right to reputation
2. Right against handcuffing
3. Right to information
4. Right to speedy trial
5. Right to travel abroad
Choose the correct code from given below
a) 1,2,3 and 5 only

b) 1,2,4 and 5 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Self-explanatory
UVTVElPTiA3
Which of the following writs does not require locus standi?
a) Habeas corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Certiorari
d) Quo warranto
Correct Answer: A D
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Explanation
Solution (d) (a)
Locus standi is the ability of a party to demonstrate to the court sufficient connection to and
harm from the law or action challenged to support that party’s participation in the case.
Traditionally, the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari can be sought only
by the aggrieved person whereas the writ of quo warranto can be sought by any interested
person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
However, SC, in order to protect Human Rights, have taken the writ of Habeus Corpus out of
the perview of Locus Standi. So here the answer should be both (a) and (d).
UVTVElPTiA4
Which of the following are described as novel features by Dr. B.R Ambedkar?
a) Fundamental rights
b) Directive principles of state policy
c) Fundamental duties
d) Fundamental rights and Directive principles of state policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Directive principles of state policy are enumerated in Part 4 of the constitution from Article 36
to Article 51.
They were borrowed from Irish constitution of 1937 which had copied it from Spanish
constitution.
Dr. B.R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The
Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the
Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution.
Do you know?
Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the
‘Conscience of the Constitution’.

UVTVElPTiA5
Consider the following statements about Directive principles of state policy.
1. The Constitution contains classification of Directive Principles on the basis of their content.
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2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor is covered under Gandhian
principle.
3. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health is
covered under the socialistic principle.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on
the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories,
namely, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual .
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor is covered under socialistic
principle.
To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health is
covered under the Gandhian principle.
QUESTION 11. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

ElPTiAxMA==
Which among the following Directive principles were added through 42nd Amendment Act of
1976?
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife
and to have compassion for living creatures.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
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The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They
require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article
43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State
to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38)
To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and
to have compassion for living creatures is a fundamental duty not a directive principle .

lPTiAxMQ==
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature but, which of the following article imposes
a moral obligation on the state to apply these principles in making laws?
a) Article 37
b) Article 35
c) Article 36
d) Article 34
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Dr B R Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a government which rests on popular
vote can hardly ignore the Directive Principles while shaping its policy. If any government
ignores them, it will certainly have to answer for that before the electorate at the election time.
Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear
that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty
of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on
the state authorities for their application.

ElPTiAxMg==
Which of the following is not a Directive principle of state policy?
a) To raise the level of nutrition

b) To develop the scientific temper
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c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections

d) To separate the judiciary from executive
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
To develop the scientific temper is a fundamental duty not a Directive principle.

lPTiAxMw==
Which of the following Directive principle is based on liberal-intellectual ideology?
a) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines

b) To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle
c) To make provision for just and humane conditions for work
d) To provide equal pay for equal work for men and women
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle- Gandhian ideology
To make provision for just and humane conditions for work – socialistic ideology
To provide equal pay for equal work for men and women - socialistic ideology

ElPTiAxNA==
In the constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in which
of the following?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental duties
c) Directive principles of state policy
d) Rules of the house of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
In the constitution of India, Article 51 contains the provision that is, “To promote international
peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster
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respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of
international disputes by arbitration”
It comes under liberal-intellectual ideology.

ElPTiAxNQ==
consider the following statements about the fundamental duties enumerated in the Indian
constitution
1. The Indian constitution does not have any provision for the direct enforcement of
fundamental duties.
2. One of the fundamental duties is to vote in general election so as to maintain the vibrant
democracy of India.
3. There are 11 fundamental duties enshrined in the constitution for every citizen of India
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Article 51A for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens. Though
the Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the
Constitution, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties.
In 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was added. So at present Article 51A contains 11
fundamental duties for the citizens of India.
Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable . The
Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts . Moreover, there
is not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by
suitable legislation.

ElPTiAxNg==
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Indian constitution.
1. The bill concerning the amendment requires prior permission of the president.
2. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, the president must convene a joint sitting
of the two House to resolve the dead lock.
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3. Every constitutional amendment bill must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states
by a simple majority.
Choose the incorrect code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the president . Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a
disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of
the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution , it must also be ratifi
ed by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority , that is, a majority of the
members of the House present and voting. (Not all amendment bills are required to be ratified
by the State Legislatures.)

ElPTiAxNw==
The Indian constitution is flexible as it allows for its amendment according to the needs of the
time. How many types of amendments are specified in Article 368?
a) Two types
b) Three types
c) Four types
d) No such provision is mentioned in Article 368
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments , that is, by a special majority of
Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority.
But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by
a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and
voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process).
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Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the
purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state
Legislatures.

ElPTiAxOA==
Which of the following amendments can be done through simple majority?
1. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states
2. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
3. Delimitation of constituencies
4. Supreme Court and high courts
5. Election of the President and its manner
a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) 2,4 and 5 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The following provisions can be amended using simple majority
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Quorum in Parliament.
5. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
6. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
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7. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
8. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
9. Delimitation of constituencies.
10. Union territories etc

ElPTiAxOQ==
A Constitutional Amendment Act is also a law within the meaning of Article 13 is proclaimed in
which of the following cases?
a) Golak Nath case

b) Shankari Prasad case
c) Kesavananda Bharati case
d) Minerva mills case
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Fundamental Rights are given a
‘transcendental and immutable’ position and hence, the Parliament cannot abridge or take
away any of these rights.
A constitutional amendment act is also a law within the meaning of Article 13 and hence, would
be void for violating any of the Fundamental Rights.

ElPTiAyMA==
Which of the following are features of the parliamentary form of government?
1. The executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
2. The cabinet is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the
latter’s confidence.
3. Presence of Integrated Judiciary to deliver timely justice.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 only
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the
legislature for its policies and acts.
The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the
real executive) is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the
latter’s confidence.
It is described as ‘Westminster model of government’ after the location of the British

Parliament, where the parliamentary system originated.
Integrated judiciary has nothing to do with parliamentary form of government .

Countries can have Integrated judiciary and still follow other forms of government.

ElPTiAyMQ==
The Indian Parliament is not supreme unlike the British parliament due to the presence of
which of the following features?
1. Written constitution
2. Federal system
3. Judicial review
4. Fundamental rights
a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system . In other words, the
Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain
(that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the
Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written
Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
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ElPTiAyMg==
Which of the following does not characterises unitary form of government?
1. Rigid constitution
2. No division of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Bicameral legislature
a) 1,2 and 4 only

b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) 1,3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Rigid constitution, Independent judiciary, Bicameral legislature, supremacy of the constitution

and written constitution are all the features of federal government.

ElPTiAyMw==
The Indian federal system is based on which of the following models?
a) American model
b) British model
c) Canadian model
d) Japanese model
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’.
The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so far as it establishes
a very strong centre. The Indian federation resembles the Canadian federation.
1) in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);
2) in its preference to the term ‘Union’ (the Canadian federation is also called a ‘Union’); and
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3) in its centralising tendency (i.e., vesting more powers in the centre vis-a-vis the states)

ElPTiAyNA==
consider the following statements about territorial extent centre-state legislation
1. Extra-territorial legislation can be made by parliament only.
2. The president is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled
area in the state.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Constitution defines the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and
the states in the following way:
1) The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India
2) A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a
state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus
between the state and the object.
3) The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’ . Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the
world.
The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled
area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.

ElPTiAyNQ==
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the writ ‘Quo-Warranto’:
1. It prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
2. It cannot be issued in case of Ministerial office or private office.
Select the code from following:
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Quo - Warranto
In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire
into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of
public office by a person.
The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character
created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or
private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Think
• Writ jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court

• Soul of Constitution

ElPTiAyNg==
Article 34 of the Indian Constitution provides for the restriction on fundamental rights while
‘Martial Law’ is in force in any area within the territory of India. Which of the following
statements regarding ‘Martial Law’ are correct?
1. The concept of Martial law has been borrowed from the ‘Weimar Constitution of Germany.
2. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by military authorities according to

their own rules and regulations.
3. The expression ‘Martial Law’ has not been defined anywhere in the constitution.
Select the correct code from the following:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
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Martial Law
The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However,
the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. Literally, it
means ‘military rule’. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military
authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. It thus
imply the suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is different
from the military law that is applicable to the armed forces.
There is also no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorises the executive to
declare martial law. However, it is implicit in Article 34 under which martial law can be
declared in any area within the territory of India. The martial law is imposed under the
extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent
resistance to law. Its justification is to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in
the society. During the operation of martial law, the military authorities are vested with
abnormal powers to take all necessary steps. They impose restrictions and regulations on the
rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death.
Do you know?
The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the
suspension of the writ of habeas corpus .
The declaration of a martial law under Article 34 is different from the declaration of a national
emergency under Article 352.
Think
· Difference between Martial Law and National Emergency

ElPTiAyNw==
Consider the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code:
1. It is a Directive Principle of State Policy given under article 45 of Indian Constitution.
2. It is a Gandhian directive principle.
3. Uniform Civil Code refers to the body of laws governing rights and duties pertaining to
property and personal matters like marriage, divorce, adoption and inheritance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) All of the above

b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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Solution (d)
· It is a DPSP given in article-44
· It is a Liberal- Intellectual principle.
Think
Directives outside Part IV of Constitution.

ElPTiAyOA==
Consider the following statements:
1. Right to free and compulsory Higher education comes under Fundamental right to freedom.
2. Right to elementary education is available to citizens only.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Note: Incorrect options have been asked.
Right to Education
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children
of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. Thus, this
provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional
education.
This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002. This amendment
is a major milestone in the country’s aim to achieve ‘Education for All’. The government
described this step as ‘the dawn of the second revolution in the chapter of citizens’ rights’.
It is available to both citizens and aliens.
Do you know?
Even before this amendment, the Constitution contained a provision for free and compulsory
education for children under Article 45 in Part IV. However, being a directive principle, it was
not enforceable by the courts. Now, there is scope for judicial intervention in this regard.
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ElPTiAyOQ==
Which of the following is known ‘Conscience of the Constitution’ by Granville Austin?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. DPSPs
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Parliament
Select the code from below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the
Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the
Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the
Constitution’
Think
· Granville Austin
· Soul of the Constitution

ElPTiAzMA==
consider the following statements
a) Fundamental duties were not present in original constitution

b) All Fundamental duties were added by 42 nd CAA, in 1976.
c) Fundamental duties were introduced after recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee

d) Fundamental duties are confined to only citizens and not to foreigner
Which of the above statements is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Solution (b)
86 th CAA in 2002 added "To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between
the ages of 6 – 14yrs"
Think
· Right to Education
· Definition of Child in India

ElPTiAzMQ==
Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of India
1. Territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the

Constitution.
2. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth but not on the ground of residence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or
union territory. In other words, Parliament can redraw the political map of India
according to its will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not
guaranteed by the Constitution.

ElPTiAzMg==
Article 18 abolishes the titles to ensure the ‘Right to Equality’. Which of the following
titles come under this provision of abolishment?
a) Major, Colonel, General etc.

b) Doctor (Ph.D., MBBS), Professor, Lecturer and Scientist.
c) Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai Bahadur, Rai Saheb, Dewan Bahadur.
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d) Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Article 18 abolishes titles and makes four provisions in that regard:
It prohibits the state from conferring any title (except a military or academic distinction)
on anybody, whether a citizen or a foreigner.
It prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title from any foreign state.
A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the state cannot accept any title
from any foreign state without the consent of the president.
No citizen or foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the State is to accept
any present, emolument or office from or under any foreign State without the consent of
the president.
From the above, it is clear that the hereditary titles of nobility like Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai
Bahadur, Rai Saheb, Dewan Bahadur, etc., which were conferred by colonial States are banned
by Article 18 as these are against the principle of equal status of all.
Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards — Bharat Ratna,
Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri. It ruled that these awards do not
amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of
nobility. Therefore, they are not violative of Article 18 as the theory of equality does not
mandate that merit should not be recognized. However, it also ruled that they should not be
used as suffixes or prefixes to the names of awardees. Otherwise, they should forfeit the
awards.

ElPTiAzMw==
Which of the following programs or schemes strives to implement Directive Principles
of State Policy?
1. National programme for bovine breeding & dairy development (NPBBDD).
2. Legal Services Authorities Act 1987.
3. Maternity Benefit Act 1961.
4. Hill Area Development Program.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All the above
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
To organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48)
– National programme for bovine breeding & dairy development (NPBBDD).
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article39 A) – Legal
Services Authorities Act 1987.
To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42) –
Maternity Benefit Act 1961.
To secure the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;(Article 39) – Hill
Area Development Program.
Q. 35) Solution (d)
Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or
foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners.
Though the rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable, the original
constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties. In
other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the
fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution. However, they incorporated the du
ties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of
State Polity. Later in 1976, the fundamental duties of citizens were added in the Constitution.
Do you know?
Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non - justiciable.

ElPTiAzNA==
Consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental duties of constitution are compulsory for citizens and foreigners.
2. Constitution contains duties of citizens and not the duties of state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
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ElPTiAzNQ==
The provision which says – “to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women” in
Indian Constitution is provided in
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Fundamental Duties
d) DPSPs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Article 51 A (e) provides that – It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote
harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women.

ElPTiAzNg==
Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners:
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Equal opportunity in matters of public employment.
3. Freedom of speech and expression.
4. Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
a) 4 only
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
FRs available only to citizens and not to foreigners are:
Article 15 - prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
birth.
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Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Article 19 - Six freedoms.
Article 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Article 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

ElPTiAzNw==
Which of the following statements are a correct comparison between Fundamental Rights (FR)
and Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. FRs are justiciable while DPSPs are not.
2. FRs are negative as they prohibit state from doing certain things while DPSPs are positive as
they require state to do certain things.
3. In a conflict between DPSPs and FRs, FRs always prevails.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Directive Principles given in Article 39 (b) and (c) have been given superiority over Article 14
and Article 19.

ElPTiAzOA==
The constitution makers of India were aware of the dynamic nature of time. Hence they made
constitution a living document in which amendments can be made. According to the provision
given in The Constitution, in which of the following ways, the articles of the constitution can be
amended?
1. By simple majority of the two houses.
2. By Special majority that is majority of the total membership of each house and by majority of
not less than two thirds of the members of each house present and voting.
3. Special majority and ratification of half of the State Legislatures.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Different Parts (Articles) of the constitution can be amended in different ways. All the three
processes are used.
Types of Amendments:
The original constitution provided for three categories of amendments.
Simple Majority i.e More than 50% of present and voting.
The first category of amendments are those contemplated in articles 4 (2), 169 (3) -1962, 239A
(2) -1962, 239AA (7b) -1991, 243M (4b) -1992, 243ZC (3) -1992, 244A (4) -1969, 356 (1)c, para
7(2) of Schedule V and para 21(2) of Schedule VI.
These amendments can be effected by Parliament by a simple majority such as that required for
the passing of any ordinary law. The amendments under this category are specifically excluded
from the purview of article 368 which is the specific provision in the Constitution dealing with
the power and the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution. Article 4 provides that
laws made by Parliament under article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)
and article 3 (relating to formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing States) effecting amendments in the First Schedule or the Fourth Schedule and
supplemental, incidental and consequential matters, shall not be deemed to be amendments of
the Constitution for the purposes of article 368
The second category includes amendments that can be effected by Parliament by a prescribed ‘
special majority’ ; and
the third category of amendments includes those that require, in addition to such "special
majority", ratification by at least one half of the State Legislatures. The last two
categories are governed by article 368.

ElPTiAzOQ==
Article 39 (b) and 39 (c) of DPSP are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights. Which of
the following statements is/are correct regarding these articles?
1. No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or
(c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article
14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in
respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
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2. No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned
in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
In 1971, by 25 th Amendment, Article 31C was inserted with the following provisions.
1. No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or
(c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article
14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in
respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
2. No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned
in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case23 (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above second
provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a
basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. However, the above first
provision of Article 31C was held to be constitutional and valid.
For Your Information:
The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) extended the scope of the above first provision of Article 31C
by including within its protection any law to implement any of the directive principles specified
in Part IV of the Constitution and not merely in Article 39 (b) or (c). However, this extention was
declared as unconstitutional and invalid by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980).

lPTiA0MA==
Which of the following personalities has referred to Article 32 as ‘Heart And Soul of Indian
Constitution’. ?
a) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. B R Ambedkar
c) Granville Austin
d) Subhash Kashyap
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
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Solution (b)
The Article 32 of The Indian Constitution gives the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional remedies which means that a person has right to
move to Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his fundamental rights protected.
While Supreme Court has power to issue writs under article 32, High Courts have been given
same powers under article 226. Further, the power to issue writs can also be extended to any
other courts (including local courts) by Parliament via making a law for local limits of
jurisdiction of such courts. Kindly note that Court Martial i.e. the tribunals established under
the military law have been exempted from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the
high courts via article 33.
Importance of Article 32
• Article 32 was called the “ soul of the constitution and very heart of it ” by Dr. Ambedkar.
Supreme Court has included it in basic structure doctrine. Further, it is made clear that
right to move to Supreme Court cannot be suspended except otherwise provided by the
Constitution. This implies that this right suspended during a national emergency under
article 359.
• Article 32 makes the Supreme Court the defender and guarantor of the fundamental
rights. Further, power to issue writs comes under original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court. This means that a person may approach SC directly for remedy rather than by way
of appeal.
• Article 32 can be invoked only to get a remedy related to fundamental rights. It is not
there for any other constitutional or legal right for which different laws are available.

lPTiA0MQ==
Which of the following writs can be issued to force a public authority to perform a public or
statutory duty?
a) Mandamus
b) Habeas Corpus
c) Certiorari
d) Quo Warranto
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Mandamus
Mandamus is a Latin word, which means "We Command". Mandamus is an order from the
Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a
public or statutory duty. This writ of command is issued by the Supreme Court or High court
when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but
fails to do so.
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Points to remember:
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
· against a private individual or body;
· to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
· when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
· to enforce a contractual obligation;
· against the president of India or the state governors; and
· against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.

ElPTiA0Mg==
Consider the following provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the
Constitution of India.
1. To promote educational and economic interests of SCs and STs.

2. To provide equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.
3. To protect monuments of national importance
4. To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
5. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
Which of the above are the Liberal-Intellectual principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?
a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1, 4 and 5
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) All the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Promotion of educational and economic interests of SCs and STs comes under the Gandhian
Principles of DPSP whereas providing equal justice and free legal aid to the poor comes under
the Socialistic Principles of DPSP.
Source: Lakshmikanth Chapter 8 ‘Directive Principles of States Policy’

lPTiA0Mw==
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Which of the following statements are correct about the ‘Right to Property’?
1. It is a Constitutional Right.
2. If the right is violated, Supreme Court can issue a Writ Jurisdiction.
3. The Right was deleted from the Fundamental Right by 44 th Amendment Act.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by
repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article
300A in Part XII. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority
of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no
longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Writs are
issued by Supreme Court only for the violation of the Fundamental Rights not legal rights.
Do you know?
The term property as used in the Indian Constitution has been left undefined and it is used in
vague manner. Its scope would depend upon the narrow or wider construction of the courts
might put upon it. The subject of property right was considered by the Supreme Court for the
first time in Chiranjit lal Chandhari v. Union of India.

ElPTiA0NA==
In the light of Indian Constitution, ‘Equal Pay for Equal Work’ is a
a) Fundamental Right
b) Directive Principle of State Policy
c) Constitutional Right but not Fundamental
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
‘Equal Pay for Equal Work’ is a Directive Principle under article 39 of Indian Constitution.
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Article 39 in The Constitution Of India
39. Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State: The State shall, in particular, direct
its policy towards securing
(a) that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means to livelihood;
( b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so
distributed as best to subserve the common good;
(c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and
means of production to the common detriment;
(d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women;
(e) that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are
not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited
to their age or strength;
(f) that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in
conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against
exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.

ElPTiA0NQ==
The Constitution was adopted by the Indian Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and
came into effect on 26 January 1950. Why was this date chosen?
a) The Indian National Army won a decisive battle against British on 26 th Jan 1945.
b) INC proclaimed Poorna Swaraj in 1930.

c) Government of India Act 1935 was enacted.
d) Self Government was formed after Quit India Movement.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect on 26
January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India.
The Constitution was adopted by the Indian Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and
came into effect on 26 January 1950 with a democratic government system, completing the
country's transition towards becoming an independent republic. 26 January was chosen as the
Republic day because it was on this day in 1930 when Declaration of Indian Independence
(Purna Swaraj) was proclaimed by the Indian National Congress as opposed to the Dominion
status offered by British Regime.
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ElPTiA0Ng==
Which Articles in the Constitution grants us the Right to Freedom of Religion?
a) Article 14-18
b) Article 23-24
c) Article 25-28
d) Article 368
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The provisions relating to “ Right of Freedom of Religion ” of the Articles 25 & 28 of the
Constitution of India make India a secular state. To make assurance doubly sure, the 42nd
amendment of the constitution inserts the term “ secular ” in the preamble of the constitution.

ElPTiA0Nw==
In which of the following landmark judgements was it declared that Preamble is a part of the
Constitution?
a) Keshavananda bharti case

b) Vishakha Vs State of Rajasthan
c) Menaka Gandhi Vs Union of India
d) Minerva mills case
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
This is probably the most landmark case in Indian judicial history, and the length of
the judgment delivered is also a record: it was around 800 pages long and had more
than 4,20,000 words. The doctrine of 'basic structure' came into being after this case.
The case will be dealt in detail in another question related to ‘Basic Structure’.

ElPTiA0OA==
Which of the following statements are ‘incorrect’ regarding suspension of Fundamental Rights?
1. T he Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any

circumstances
2. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the Parliament by a two-
third majority
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3. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the
National Emergency
4. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the
National Emergency as well as during the emergency arising due to breakdown of
Constitutional machinery in a State.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Only 3 rd statement is correct. All other statements are incorrect.

Note: the question is asking about the incorrect options.
Suspension of Fundamental Rights
During the period of emergency, as declared under the either of the two categories discussed
above, the State is empowered to suspend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19
of the Constitution. The term 'State' is used here in the same sense in which it has been used in
the Chapter on Fundamental Rights. It means that the power to suspend the operation of these
Fundamental Rights is vested not only in Parliament but also in the Union Executive and even in
subordinate authority. Further, the Constitution empowers the President to suspend the right to
move any court of law for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights. It means that
virtually the whole Chapter on Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the operation of
the emergency. However, such order is to be placed before Parliament as soon as possible for its
approval.
But art. 20 and art.21 cannot be suspended in any case.

ElPTiA0OQ==
The doctrine of ‘severability’ advocated in connection with the judicial review means
a) The Supreme Court can substitute new provisions for the objectionable portions of law to
make it conform to the provisions of the Constitution.
b) The Supreme Court has to declare the entire law as void even if some portions of the law
contravene
c) The Constitution the Supreme Court can declare only such portion of law as void which is
inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution.
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation
Solution (c)
Supremacy of law is essence of Judicial Review. It is power of the court to review the actions of
legislative and executive and also review the actions of judiciary , it is the power to scrutinize
the validity of law or any action whether it is valid or not. It is a concept of Rule of Law. Judicial
Review is the check and balance mechanism to maintain the separation of powers. Separation
of power has rooted the scope of Judicial Review. It is the great weapon in the hands of the
court to hold unconstitutional and unenforceable any law and order which is inconsistent or in
conflict with the basic law of the land.
The two principal basis of judicial review are “Theory of Limited Government” and “Supremacy
of constitution with the requirement that ordinary law must confirm to the Constitutional law.”
Supreme Court of India formulated various doctrines on the basis of Judicial Review like
“Doctrine of Severability, Doctrine of Eclipse, Doctrine of Prospective Overruling” etc. In India
Judicial Review based on three important dimensions , these are” Judicial Review
ofConstitutional Amendments”, Judicial Review of Legislative Actions, “Judicial Review
ofAdministrative Actions”.

lPTiA1MA==
Consider the following statements about ‘Humboldt penguins’
1. They are found only in the Antarctica
2. They are listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List
Select the correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Humboldt penguin
News: India's first Humboldt penguin chick was born in Byculla Zoo, Mumbai
About
· It is a South American penguin that breeds in coastal Chile and Peru
· It is named after the cold water current (Humboldt Current)
· In South America the Humboldt penguin is found only along the Pacific coast
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· It is listed as Vulnerable by the IUCN.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-first-
penguin-chick-born-at-mumbai-zoo/article24704742.ece

lPTiA1MQ==
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary

b) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is chaired by the Prime Minister
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Both the statements are correct.
National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC)
· It is set up for effective implementation of relief measures in the wake of a natural calamity
· It is chaired by the Cabinet secretary
National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
· It is an agency of the Ministry of Home Affairs whose primary purpose is to coordinate

response to natural or man-made disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and
crisis response
· It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

ElPTiA1Mg==
‘A.S. Anand Committee’ is associated with
a) Mullaperiyar Dam
b) Public Credit Registry (PCR)
c) IPO-related issues
d) Mutual Funds’ Total expense ratio (TER)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Justice A.S. Anand Committee was constituted to study all the issues of Mullaperiyar Dam.
Mullaperiyar Dam
· It is a masonry gravity dam on the Periyar River in Kerala
· The dispute between Kerala and Tamil Nadu states is because of the control and safety of the
dam and the validity and fairness of the lease agreement.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/reduce-water-level-in-
mullaperiyar-to-139-ft-orders-sc/article24708925.ece

lPTiA1Mw==
Consider the following statements about ‘Collection of Statistics Act, 2008’
1. It facilitates the collection of statistics related to social, economic, demographic, scientific

and environmental aspects, by central, state and local governments.
2. It is not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
3. It provides that the information collected under it can only be used for statistical purposes.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
‘Collection of Statistics Act, 2008’
· The 2008 Act facilitates the collection of statistics related to social, economic, demographic,
scientific and environmental aspects, by central, state and local governments. It allows the
appointment of statistics officers to collect information, and contains provisions to ensure
security of information.
· The 2008 Act is not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
· The 2008 Act provides that the information collected under it can only be used for statistical
purposes.
Collection of Statistics (Amendment) Act, 2017
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· It was enacted to facilitate the collection of statistics on economic, demographic, social,

scientific and environmental aspects, among others
· It authorises the Centre to decide the manner in which statistical information collected can be
used.
· It empowers the Central government to make rules on the powers and duties of a nodal officer
who may be designated to coordinate and supervise statistical activities in the Central
government or a State government or Union Territory administration
· It empowers the Central Government to make rules relating to the manner of using any
information by the statistics officer or any person or agency for statistical purpose
· It extends the jurisdiction to Jammu and Kashmir on statistics relevant to any matters under
any of the entries specified in List I (Union List) and List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh
Schedule to the Constitution, as applicable to Jammu and Kashmir under the Constitution
(Application to Jammu & Kashmir) Order, 1954.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/how-statistical-information-can-be-
used/article24708748.ece

ElPTiA1NA==
Consider the following statements
1. The Coriolis Effect makes storms swirl counter-clockwise in the Southern hemisphere and
clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Coriolis Effect is zero at equator and maximum at poles
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Coriolis Effect
· It refers to the phenomenon wherein objects travelling across the earth’s surface witness a
spin in a certain direction.
· Coriolis force is an inertial force that acts on objects that are in motion relative to a rotating
reference frame.
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· Flying objects in the earth’s northern hemisphere, for instance, witness a spin in the counter
clockwise direction while objects in the southern hemisphere experience a spin in the clockwise
direction due to this effect.
· This is believed to occur because the earth rotates around its axis from west to east, thus
exerting inertial force on moving objects.
· The effect has been used to explain the direction of hurricanes. It has a crucial impact on the
ocean currents and wind directions.
· It is non-existent at the equator but increases with latitude, reaching a maximum at the poles.
Hence, Coriolis Effect is zero at equator and maximum at poles.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-coriolis-effect-in-physics/
article24708731.ece

ElPTiA1NQ==
Consider the following statements about ‘Unified Payment Interface (UPI)’
1. It eliminates the need to enter bank details or other sensitive information each time a
customer initiates a transaction.
2. It enables peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication

process.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
· It is a single-window mobile payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation

of India (NPCI). It eliminates the need to enter bank details or other sensitive information each
time a customer initiates a transaction.
· The Unified Payment Interface is a real-time payment system. It is designed to enable peer-to-
peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process. The interface
is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India's central bank. It works by transferring
money between two bank accounts along a mobile platform.
· UPI platform facilitates instant fund transfer between two bank accounts on a mobile platform,
without requiring details of the beneficiary’s bank account.
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· It is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any
participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant
payments into one hood.
· It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per
requirement and convenience.
UPI 2.0 - Features
· In addition to current and savings accounts, customers can link their overdraft account to UPI.
· UPI mandate could be used in a scenario where money is to be transferred later by providing
commitment at present. Customers can pre-authorise a transaction and pay at a later date.
· Customers can check the invoice sent by merchant prior to making payment.
· Customers can check the authenticity of merchants while scanning QR or quick response code.
It notifies the user with information to ascertain whether the merchant is verified UPI merchant
or not. This provides an additional security to the QR as well as intent.
· Transactions are processed faster as app passcode is not required in case of signed intent. It
also negates the chances of QR tampering.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/npci-launches-upi-20-with-
overdraft-facility/article24706728.ece

ElPTiA1Ng==
If you want to see ‘Irrawaday Dolphins’ in their natural habitat, which one of the following is
the best place to visit?
a) Pulicat Lake
b) Chilika Lake
c) Deepor Beel
d) Lonar Lake
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Irrawaddy dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is the flagship species of Chilika Lake.
It is not a true river dolphin, but an oceanic dolphin that lives in brackish water near coasts,
river mouths and in estuaries.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/aerodrome-would-hit-
chilikas-biodiversity/article24719781.ece
IASbaba
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ElPTiA1Nw==
‘Xinjiang Province’ of China is bordered by which of the following?
1. Mongolia
2. Kazakhstan
3. Turkmenistan
Select the correct code:
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Xinjiang borders the countries of Mongolia, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,

Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/chinese-uighurs-feel-states-long-
reach/article24718955.ece
IASbaba
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ElPTiA1OA==
Consider the following statements about ‘Financial Stability Board (FSB)’
1. It was established to assess vulnerabilities affecting the global financial system
2. It is hosted and funded by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
3. Policies agreed by the FSB are not legally binding, nor are they intended to replace the
normal national and regional regulatory process.
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes
recommendations about the global financial system. It was established after the G20 London
summit in April 2009 as a successor to the Financial Stability Forum (FSF). The Board includes
all G20 major economies, FSF members, and the European Commission. Hosted and funded by
the Bank for International Settlements, the board is based in Basel, Switzerland.
The FSB, which comprises 24 member countries, the European Commission and numerous
international bodies, is an outgrowth of the Financial Stability Forum (FSF) founded in 1999 by
the member countries of the Group of Seven (G-7).
Policies agreed by the FSB are not legally binding, nor are they intended to replace the normal
national and regional regulatory process. Instead, the FSB acts as a coordinating body, to drive
forward the policy agenda to strengthen financial stability. It operates by moral suasion and
peer pressure, to set internationally agreed policies and minimum standards that its members
commit to implement at national level.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/india-scores-well-
on-fsb-reform-report-card-to-g20/article9748008.ece

ElPTiA1OQ==
Which of the following factors are contributing to the ‘Turkish Lira's fall’?
1. Increasing tensions with the US
2. Huge dollar debts
3. Rising inflation
IASbaba
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a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Turkey's economy is grappling with high levels of debt in the private sector and significant
foreign funding in the banking system. Turkey relies on foreign-currency debt more than any
other major emerging market. Corporate, financial and other foreign currency debt, mostly
dollar-denominated, represent about 70 percent of Turkey’s economy.
According to data from the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), Turkish borrowers owe
Spanish banks \(83.3 billion, French banks \) 38.4 billion; Italian banks \(17 billion; Japanese
banks \) 14 billion; UK banks \(19.2 billion; and the United States about \) 18 billion.
Besides, the country's inflation rose to an annual rate of 15.9 percent in July – more than five
times the average rate for wealthy nations. According to a Guardian report, there are also fears
of a crash in the construction sector, which has been growing at a scorching pace for the last
many years. If that happens, banks that have lend money to these companies will be in trouble.
US doubled steel and aluminium tariffs on Turkey, aggravating the problems in the Turkish
economy.
Source: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/explained-5-reasons-why-the-
turkish-lira-is-falling-2841971.html

lPTiA2MA==
Consider the following statements about ‘Border Roads Organisation (BRO)’
1. It is staffed by officers and troops drawn from the Indian Army
2. It is under the Ministry of Home Affairs
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Nether 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
IASbaba
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Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
· It develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly neighbouring
countries.
· It is staffed by officers and troops drawn from the Indian Army's Corps of Engineers, Electrical
and Mechanical Engineers, Army Service Corps, Military Police and army personnel on extra
regimental employment.
· It is under the aegis of Ministry of Defence
THINK!
· Project HIMANK
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sovereignty-and-sensitivity/
article24731900.ece

lPTiA2MQ==
Consider the following statements about ‘Project DANTAK’
1. It is a dedicated submarine Optical Fibre Cable (OFC) between Chennai and Port Blair & five
other islands - Little Andaman, Car Nicobar, Havelock, Kamorta and Great Nicobar.
2. It is the longest 100Gbps submarine cable in Asia.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Project DANTAK
· Project DANTAK of the Border Roads Organisation, a subdivision of the Indian Army Corps of
Engineers, has been operating in Bhutan since May 1961.
· It has contributed to economic growth of Bhutan by not only developing roads and tele-
communication networks but also other prestigious works throughout Bhutan.
· Over the years, Project Dantak has constructed 1500 Km of roads, airfield at Paro and
Yangphula, number of helipads, tele-communication network in Bhutan, Indo-Bhutan Microwave
link, Bhutan Broadcasting Station, the prestigious India House Complex, Chukha Hydel Housing
Complex, Hydel Sub-stations, river training works, Schools and Colleges.
IASbaba
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Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sovereignty-and-sensitivity/
article24731900.ece

ElPTiA2Mg==
Consider the following statements about ‘World Urban Forum’
1. It is organised and run by the United Nations Human Settlements Programme
2. The ninth session of the World Urban Forum will be the first session to focus on the
implementation of the New Urban Agenda adopted in Habitat III.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
World Urban Forum
· It is an international conference dedicated to urban issues, organized by United Nations

Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat).
· It was established by the United Nations to examine one of the most pressing issues facing the
world today: rapid urbanization and how to ensure a sustainable urban development.
· It is organized biennially in the years between the UN-Habitat governing councils.
· The Ninth Session of the World Urban Forum will be the first session to focus on the
implementation of the New Urban Agenda adopted in Habitat III.

lPTiA2Mw==
Consider the following statements about Smart Anti-Airfield Weapon (SAAW)
1. It is capable of destroying a variety of ground targets using precision navigation.
2. It has an operational range of 100 kilometres
3. It is developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation and Elbit Systems
IASbaba
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a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
SAAW (Smart Anti-Airfield

Weapon)
· It is a long-range precision-guided anti-airfield weapon currently being developed by DRDO
· It is capable of destroying a variety of ground targets using precision navigation.
· Operational range - 100 km 173878
· It can be launched from the SEPECAT Jaguar and Su-30MKI aircraft.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indigenous-weapon-systems-tested/
article24731942.ece

ElPTiA2NA==
What are the possible implications of ‘Falling Rupee’?
1. The imports will become more expensive and exports cheaper
2. The domestic tourism will grow
3. Create inflationary pressure in the economy
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
What happens when the rupee falls?
· Country’s imports become more expensive and exports cheaper. It takes more rupees to pay
for the same quantum of imports and fewer dollars for a buyer to pay for the same quantity of
exports.
IASbaba
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· More expensive imports are likely to drive inflation upward, especially in India where input
products constitute a large part of our imports. It impacts the oil import bill since it costs more
rupees per barrel of oil, which plays its own part in pushing inflation up.
· GDP growth - On the one hand, costlier inputs and the subsequent increase in the prices of
finished goods should have a positive impact on GDP. But the consequent decrease in demand
due to higher prices could nullify this. ‘Household consumption of goods and services’ plays a
big role here.
· Domestic tourism could grow as more tourists visit India since their currency now buys more
here. In the medium term, export-oriented industries may also create more jobs.
· The eroding rupee is likely to create inflationary pressure in the economy by making imports
costlier. The industries that use imported components will witness a surge in their raw material
cost and some of them will pass on the increased cost to the consumers in form of higher prices.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-does-the-falling-rupee-
mean-for-you-and-economy/article24732052.ece?
utm_source=economy&utm_medium=sticky_footer

ElPTiA2NQ==
Which of the following states is responsible for the major chunk of Areca nut production?
a) Karnataka
b) Assam
c) West Bengal
d) Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Areca nut
· Areca nut (Areca catechu), a tropical crop, is popularly known as betel nut, as its common
usage in the country is for mastication with betel leaves.
· Areca nut production in India is dominant in the coastal region within 400 kilometres from the
coast line, and also in some other non-coastal states of India.
· Areca nut production in India is the largest in the world, as per FAO statistics
· Karnataka produces 62.69 percent of the crop followed by Kerala and Assam; all three states
together account for 88.59 percent of its production.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/kole-roga-strikes-
arecanut-plantations-in-dakshina-kannada-again/article24739681.ece
IASbaba
Page 46
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ElPTiA2Ng==
Consider the following statements about ‘Sangam Radio’
1. It is India’s first community radio
2. It is run by Deccan Development Society (DDS)
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Sangam Radio
· It was established in 2008, and run by Deccan Development Society (DDS) from a village in
Telangana.
· It is India’s first community radio station owned and run by 5,000 poor, mostly Dalit women in
one of India’s most underdeveloped areas
· It is run by women, and all of them have been educated only till Class 10 – some even lesser.
· Sangam Radio has put the small and marginalised woman at the frontier of communication
THINK!
· Bultoo Radio
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/crowdfunding-plea-to-save-
dalit-womens-radio/article24739509.ece

ElPTiA2Nw==
Which of the following countries are NOT members of the proposed ‘Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP)’?
1. Cambodia
2. Japan
3. Myanmar
IASbaba
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4. South Korea
5. Chile
6. Argentina
a) 5 and 6
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 5 and 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
It is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between
· Ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Cambodia,
Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and
· Six Asia-Pacific states with which ASEAN has existing free trade agreements (Australia, China,
India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand)
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/stay-with-rcep/
article24739401.ece

ElPTiA2OA==
Consider the following statements about ‘BIMSTEC’
1. It is a multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation of seven nations of South Asia and
South East Asia
2. India will be hosting the first military exercise of the BIMSTEC focussing on counter-
terrorism in September 2018.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
IASbaba
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Solution (c)
Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation

(BIMSTEC)
· It is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent
areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.
· It came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
· It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and
Thailand.
· The regional group constitutes a bridge between South and South East Asia and represents a
reinforcement of relations among these countries.
· India will host the first military exercise of the BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) group focussing on counter-terrorism in
September. The exercise is scheduled to be held in Pune in the second week of September
2018. The aim of the exercise is to promote strategic alignment among the member-states and
to share best practices in the area of counter-terrorism.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bimstec-envoys-bat-for-fta/
article24739370.ece

ElPTiA2OQ==
Consider the following statements about ‘European Stability Mechanism (ESM)’
1. It was established as a permanent firewall for the Eurozone, to safeguard and provide instant
access to financial assistance programmes for member states of the Eurozone in financial
difficulty
2. It is an intergovernmental organization located in Geneva
3. It operates under public international law for all Eurozone Member States having ratified a
special ESM intergovernmental treaty
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
European Stability Mechanism (ESM)
IASbaba
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· It is an intergovernmental organization located in Luxembourg City, which operates under

public international law for all Eurozone Member States having ratified a special ESM
intergovernmental treaty.
· ESM’s mission is to provide financial assistance to euro area countries when needed.
· The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) is part of the EU strategy designed to safeguard
financial stability in the euro area.
· Like its predecessor, the temporary European Financial Stability Facility (EFSF), the ESM
provides financial assistance to euro area countries experiencing or threatened by financing
difficulties.
· It was established on 27 September 2012 as a permanent firewall for the Eurozone, to

safeguard and provide instant access to financial assistance programmes for member states of
the Eurozone in financial difficulty, with a maximum lending capacity of €500 billion.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/greece-emerges-from-eurozone-
bailout/article24739194.ece

lPTiA3MA==
Consider the following statements about ‘International Buddhist Conclave (IBC)’
1. It is organised by the Ministry of Tourism biennially.
2. The IBC 2018 will be organised in collaboration with the State Governments of Maharashtra,
Bihar and Uttar Pradesh and Japan as the partner country
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
International Buddhist Conclave (IBC), 2018
· It is being organized by the Ministry of Tourism in collaboration with the State Governments of
Maharashtra, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh from 23rd – 26th August, 2018 at New Delhi and Ajanta
(Maharashtra), followed by site visits to Rajgir, Nalanda and Bodhgaya (Bihar) and Sarnath
(Uttar Pradesh).
· Ministry of Tourism has been organizing the International Buddhist Conclave biennially.
· The earlier International Buddhist Conclaves were organized in New Delhi and Bodhgaya
(February 2004), Nalanda and Bodhgaya (February 2010), Varanasi and Bodhgaya (September
IASbaba
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2012), Bodhgaya and Varanasi (September 2014) and in Sarnath/Varanasi and Bodhgaya
(October 2016).
· The “ASEAN” was the Guest of Honor during IBC, 2016 and Japan would be the ‘Partner
Country for IBC-2018

lPTiA3MQ==
‘India Wage Report: Wage policies for decent work and inclusive growth’ is published by
a) International Labour Organisation

b) World Bank
c) Oxfam International
d) World Trade Organisation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
While India’s economy in the past two decades has seen an annual average GDP rate of 7% –
low pay and inequality persist according to the India Wage Report: Wage policies for decent
work and inclusive growth, published by the International Labour Organization.
Highlights
· Real average daily wages in India almost doubled in the first two decades after economic
reforms, but low pay and wage inequality remains a serious challenge to inclusive growth
· It has called for stronger implementation of minimum wage laws and strengthening of the
frameworks for collective bargaining by workers to combat persistent low pay in some sectors
and to bridge the wage gaps between rural and urban, male and female, and regular and casual
workers.
· Daily wages in urban areas (₹384) remain more than twice as high as those in rural areas
(₹175)
· The gender wage gap decreased from 48% in 1993-94 to 34% in 2011-12, but still remains
high by international standards.
· Regional disparities in average wages have actually increased over time, with wages rising
more rapidly in high-wage States than in low-wage ones.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ilo-report-flags-wage-inequality-in-
india/article24747231.ece

ElPTiA3Mg==
‘Fields Medal’ is awarded for
IASbaba
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a) Mathematics
b) Literature
c) Astronomy
d) Oceanography
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Fields Medal, popularly seen as the equivalent of a Nobel Prize, is awarded once in four years
to two-four mathematicians below the age of 40.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/in-search-of-greatness/
article24754584.ece

lPTiA3Mw==
TAPI Pipeline passes through which of the following?
1. Tajikistan
2. Afghanistan
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI)
· It is a natural gas pipeline being developed by the Galkynysh – TAPI Pipeline Company Limited
with participation of the Asian Development Bank.
· It will transport natural gas from the Galkynysh Gas Field in Turkmenistan through
Afghanistan into Pakistan and then to India.
· It starts from the Galkynysh gas field. In Afghanistan, TAPI pipeline will be constructed
alongside the Kandahar–Herat Highway in western Afghanistan, and then via Quetta and
Multan in Pakistan.
IASbaba
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· The final destination of the pipeline will be the Indian town of Fazilka, near the border
between Pakistan and India.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-seeks-revision-in-price-of-gas-via-
tapi-line/article24754144.ece

ElPTiA3NA==
‘#MeToo Movement’ is against
a) Sexual harassment
b) Data Privacy
c) Global Inequality
d) Global Hunger
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Me Too Movement (or #MeToo Movement) with many local/international alternatives is a
movement against sexual harassment and assault.
#MeToo spread virally as a hashtag used on social media in an attempt to demonstrate the
widespread prevalence of sexual assault and harassment, especially in the workplace
IASbaba
Page 53

Baba Polity-2

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Exam Title : 2019 - Test 6-Polity & Curr...

Choose the correct code from the below options

3. The parliament cannot curtail or repeal the fundamental rights.

Choose the incorrect code

Choose the correct code

a) 1,2,3 and 5 only

According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an

Match the following fundamental rights with their provisions.

Fundamental rights Provisions

A) saving of laws providing for acquisition

B) saving of laws giving eﬀect to certain

C) validation of certain acts and

Choose the correct code

a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C

a) Prohibition of traﬀic in human beings and forced labour.

· Writ jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court

2. Right against handcuﬀing

4. Right to speedy trial

5. Right to travel abroad

Choose the correct code from given below

a) 1,2,3 and 5 only

Solution (d) (a)

QUESTION 10. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRV

Choose the correct code

QUESTION 11. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.

Choose the correct code

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

QUESTION 12. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

QUESTION 13. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

a) To raise the level of nutrition

c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections

To develop the scientiﬁc temper is a fundamental duty not a Directive principle.

QUESTION 14. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

a) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientiﬁc lines

QUESTION 15. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

It comes under liberal-intellectual ideology.

QUESTION 16. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Choose the correct code

QUESTION 17. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Choose the incorrect code

QUESTION 18. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:

(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,

(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and

QUESTION 19. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

2. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states

4. Supreme Court and high courts

5. Election of the President and its manner

Choose the correct code

a) 1,2 and 3 only

The following provisions can be amended using simple majority

1. Admission or establishment of new states.

3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

5. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.

6. Rules of procedure in Parliament.

7. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.

8. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

10. Union territories etc

QUESTION 20. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

a) Golak Nath case

QUESTION 21. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV