Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Question 01. Find the odd word out.
a. Volume
b. Shape
c. Weight
d. Large
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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Large is an adjective but others are nouns.
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
All except the heart are present in pairs in the human body.
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Question 03. Find the odd word out.
a. April
b. May
c. July
d. September
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
All months except April come in odd positions when counting from January.
Solution:
Fog, clouds and vapours are formed by evaporated water (the first two by
condensation on particles and the third by evaporation alone) and stay suspended
in the atmosphere. However, rain is formed by the precipitation of water to the
Earth's surface.
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d. Cucumber
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Papaya is the only fruit among the given options, all others are vegetables.
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a. Haryana
b. Gujrat
c. Kerala
d. Tamilnadu
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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All states except Haryana have coastal boundaries.
a. Assam
b. Tripura
c. Mizoram
d. West Bengal
Answer: (d)
Solution:
West Bengal is not one of the northeastern seven sister states while others are.
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The seven sisters are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
Swan is the only water bird and has webbed feet among the given options.
a. Wheat
b. Paddy
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Question 09. Find the odd word out.
c. Maize
d. Mustard
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
Wheat, Paddy, and Maize are food grains while Mustard is an oilseed.
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
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a. 42, 4
b. 36, 6
c. 32, 2
d. 15, 5
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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42 is not a multiple of 4 while in other pairs the first number is a multiple of the
second number.
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Question 12. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 13, 21
b. 19, 27
c. 15, 23
d. 16, 24
Answer: (d)
Solution:
All other pairs consist of odd numbers while the last pair consist of even numbers.
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OR
All other pairs of numbers are co-prime numbers whereas 16, 24 are not coprime
as they have HCF of 8.
Question 13. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 7, 18
b. 9, 26
c. 11, 36
d. 13, 42
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
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The pattern follows in all options as:
7 × 4 - 10 = 18
9 × 4 - 10 = 26
13 ×4 - 10 = 42
But, for the third option: 11 × 4 - 10 = 34 ≠ 36, this pattern is not followed here.
Question 14. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
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a. 3, 4
b. 4, 7
c. 5, 12
d. 20, 21
Answer: (d)
Solution:
All other options except the last one consist of one composite and one prime
number. In option d, both the numbers are composite.
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Question 15. Find the odd numeral pair in each of the following questions.
a. 9, 3
1 1
b. 2
, 8
1 1
c. 3
, 12
d. 24, 6
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
a. Forest
b. Land
c. Mountain
d. Desert
Answer: (d)
Solution:
The ship is used to travel by sea. Similarly, camels are used to travel in the desert.
Moreover, camels are also called ships of the desert.
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Question 17. Coconut : Shell :: Letter : ?
a. Letter-box
b. Stamp
c. Mail
d. Envelope
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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The coconut is enclosed in a shell. Similarly, the letter is enclosed in an envelope.
Solution:
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Answer: (b)
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Solution:
The President is the constitutional head of India. Similarly, the Governor is the
constitutional head of the state in India.
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d. Pillars
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Bad is the antonym of good. Similarly, the floor is the antonym of the roof.
Question 21. 4 : 19 :: 7 : ?
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a. 54
b. 55
c. 57
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d. 59
Answer: (b)
Solution:
4 × 5 - 1 = 20 -1 = 19
Similarly, 7 × 8 - 1 = 56 - 1 = 55
Question 22. 82 : 9 :: 26 : ?
a. 5
9
b. 6
c. 4
d. 9
Answer: (a)
Solution:
92 + 1 = 81 + 1 = 82
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Similarly, 52 + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26
Question 23. 5 : 9 :: 10 : ?
a. 17
b. 28
c. 65
d. 126
Answer: (b)
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Solution:
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22 + 1 = 5 : 23 + 1 = 9
Similarly, 32 + 1 = 10 : 33 + 1 = 28
Question 24. 18 : 30 :: 36 : ?
a. 54
b. 62
c. 64
d. 66
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
18 × 2 - 6 = 36 - 6 = 30
Similarly, 36 × 2 - 6 = 72 - 6 = 66
Question 25. 8 : 32 :: 10 : ?
a. 42
b. 44
c. 45
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d. 50
Answer: (d)
64
82 = 64 : = 32
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Directions (Q. No. 26-35) Choose the odd letter group or odd numeral group:
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Question 26.
a. CFIL
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b. PSVX
c. JMPS
d. ORUX
Answer: (b)
Solution:
11
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Question 27.
a. CZHK
b. SENO
c. XUBU
d. YDFP
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Answer: (c)
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Solution:
We can see that except XUBU, in no other option the letter is getting repeated. So,
the correct answer for the odd one out is XUBU.
Question 28.
a. XW
b. PO
c. ML
d. FG
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
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Question 29.
a. JOT
b. OUT
c. DOG
d. DIN
Answer: (b)
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Solution:
Question 30.
a. HGF
b. XWV
c. NML
d. OPQ
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
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Question 31.
a. 383
b. 551
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c. 242
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d. 263
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
If we observe, we can see that the middle digit is the product of the other two
digits. But 383 does not follow this pattern.
For example in 551, 5 × 1 = 5 (middle digit)
In 242, 2 × 2 = 4 (middle digit)
In 263, 2 × 3 = 6 (middle digit)
But in 383, 3 × 3 = 9 ≠ middle digit
Question 32.
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a. 8
b. 28
c. 216
d. 125
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Except, 28 all others are perfect cubes.
8 = (23)
216 = (63)
125 = (53)
Question 33.
a. 19
b. 17
c. 15
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d. 13
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
All numbers are prime numbers except 15, which is a composite number.
Question 34.
a. 21
b. 69
c. 81
d. 83
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
21 has 4 factors.
69 has 4 factors.
81 has 5 factors.
Hence these three numbers are composite and on the other hand, 83 is a prime
number means it has only two factors: 1 and itself.
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Question 35.
a. 392
b. 326
c. 414
d. 248
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
16
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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a. 58
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Question 37. 17, 19, 22, 27, 34, 45, ___
b. 57
c. 56
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d. 59
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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Question 38. 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, ___
a. 210
b. 213
c. 215
d. 219
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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We can observe the following pattern:
2 = (1)3+1
7 = (2)3-1
28 = (3)3+1
63 = (4)3-1
126 = (5)3+1
215 = (6)3-1
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Question 39. ND, IY, DT, YO, TJ, ___
a. MP
b. NQ
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c. OF
d. OE
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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Question 40. Z, X, V, T, R, P, ___
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a. N
b. M
c. K
d. S
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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Question 41.
(1) Consultation (2) Illness
(3) Doctor (4) Treatment
(5) Recovery
a. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
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c. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
d. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
Answer: (a)
Solution:
First, we should have an illness, to go to the doctor. We take the consultation from
him, and he provides the treatment using which we recover.
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So, the order is: (2) Illness, (3) Doctor, (1) Consultation, (4) Treatment, (5)
Recovery.
Question 42.
(1) Country (2) Furniture
(3) Forest
(5) Trees
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a. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
b. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
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c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
d. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
We have forests in the country. In the forests we can find trees which have wood,
using which we can make furniture.
So, the order is: (1) Country, (3) Forest, (5) Trees, (4) Wood, (2) Furniture
Question 43.
(1) Mother (2) Child
(3) Milk (4) Cry
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(5) Smile
a. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
d. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Whenever a child starts crying, the mother comes and feeds the baby using milk,
making the child smile.
So, the order is: (2) Child, (4) Cry, (1) Mother, (3) Milk, (5) Smile
Question 44.
(1) Study
(3) Examination
(5) Apply
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(4) Earn
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
c. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
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d. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
Answer: (d)
Solution:
We have to study and give examinations first. Then we can apply for a job and
earn money.
So, the order is: (1) Study, (3) Examination, (5) Apply, (2) Job, (4) Earn
Question 45.
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(1) Curd (2) Grass
(3) Butter (4) Milk
(5) Cow
a. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
b. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
c. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
d. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
The cow eats grass to produce milk. Using the curdling process, we can make the
curd from the milk, which then is churned to get the butter.
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So, the order is (5) Cow, (2) Grass, (4) Milk, (1) Curd, (3) Butter
Directions (Q. No 46-48) Find which one word can be made from the letters of
the given word:
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Question 46. MEASUREMENT
a. MASTER
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b. MANTLE
c. SUMMIT
d. ASSURE
Answer: (a)
Solution:
All the letters of the word MASTER are present in MEASUREMENT as highlighted.
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a. TELL
b. HEALTH
c. LATE
d. COOLER
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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All the letters of the word LATE are present in CHOCOLATE as highlighted.
Answer: (b)
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Solution:
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Question 49. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘–’, then
36 × 12 + 4 ÷ 6 + 2 =?
a. 2
b. 18
c. 42
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d. 6 2
Answer: BONUS
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Solution:
Question 50. If ‘P’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘×’, ‘R’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘S’ denotes ‘–’,
then the value of 18Q12P4R5S6 is:-
a. 53
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b. 59
c. 65
d. 51
Answer: (a)
Solution:
We know that,
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P denotes ÷, Q denotes ×, R denotes + and S denotes -.
Therefore, 18Q12P4R5S6 = 18×12÷4+5-6
= 18×3+5-6
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= 54+5-6 = 53
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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The pattern follows as:
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If 9 × 3 = 36; 9 + 3 = 12 then 2
= 6 and 62 = 36
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If 11 × 7 = 81; 11 + 7 = 18 then 2
= 9 and 92 = 81
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Similarly, 5 × 3 = 81; because 5 + 13 = 18 then 2
= 9 and 92 = 81
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b. 44
c. 65
d. 130
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Directions (Q. No 53-55) Find the absolute truth out of the given alternatives :
Question 53. A fan always has
a. Switch
b. Blades
c. Current
d. Wire
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Blades are a mandatory component of the fan whereas switch, current, and wire
are not.
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
constituent of milk.
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Sugar, fats, and water can be a part of the milk but calcium is the most essential
d. Education
Answer: (c)
Solution:
Toys, friends, and education are not important for the existence of a child.
However, parents are a necessity to bear the child. Hence, a child must have
parents.
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Question 56. A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. A’s son is D's brother.
How is B related to C?
a. Father
b. Brother
c. Uncle
d. Grand Father
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
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C is the sister of son of A. Hence, C is daughter of A. So, C is the daughter of B’s
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Question 57. Kumud is the brother of Anil. Kumud is the son of Parimal. Bimal is
Parimal’s father. How is Anil related to Bimal?
a. Son
b. Grandson
c. Brother
d. Grand Father
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Question 58. ‘A + B’ means 'A is the son of B’ A – B' means 'A is the wife of B’.
What does P + R – Q mean?
a. ‘Q’ is the father of ‘P’
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b. ‘Q’ is the son of ‘P’
c. ‘Q’ is the uncle of ‘P’
d. ‘Q’ is the brother of ‘P’
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
28
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Question 59. ‘A × B’ means 'A is the brother of B’ ‘A ÷ B' means 'A is the mother
of B’. What does P × R ÷ Q mean?
a. ‘P’ is the brother of ‘Q’
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b. ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’
c. ‘P’ is the uncle of ‘Q’
d. ‘P’ is the nephew of ‘Q’
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
BY
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Question 60. A + B’ means 'A is the father of B’ ‘A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter
of B’. What does P ÷ R + Q mean?
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a. ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’
b. ‘P’ is the brother of ‘Q’
c. ‘P’ is the mother of ‘Q’
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
30
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Directions (Q. No 61-65)
In each of the following questions, three figures are similar in a certain way.
Choose the figure which is different from the rest :
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Question 61.
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
In all the circles except the circle labelled (c), the line passes through the centre of
the circle.
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Question 62.
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
The figure labelled (d) is the only figure which shows a complete arrow along a
single diameter of the circle.
Question 63.
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
The figure labelled (c) is the only figure which starts with a caret (^) symbol and
hence the odd one out.
Question 64.
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
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In all the figures except in (b) mirror images are present. The correct mirror image
of in (b) should have been
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Question 65.
Answer: (c)
Solution:
It can be seen in figures (a), (b) and (d) the line inside the square lies on the 4th
vertex and in (c) it is on the 3rd vertex. In all the images, the line inside the square
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intersects at the upper end, whereas in the image labelled (c) it intersects at the
lower end.
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Directions (Q. No. 66-70) In each of the following questions, there are three
problem figures followed by a question mark (?) for the fourth one. There exists
a relationship between the first two problem figures. A similar relationship
should exist between the third and fourth figures. Find the one from the answer
figures that correctly replaces the question mark :
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Question 66. Problem Figures :
J
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Answer Figures :
Answer: (a)
Solution:
The two circles of the first figure overlap in the second figure.
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Similarly, two pointed structures of the third figure overlap in the fourth figure.
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Question 67. Problem Figures :
J U
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Answer Figures :
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
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Similarly, one dot is added at the centre in the fourth figure.
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Question 68. Problem Figures :
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Answer Figures :
36
Answer: BONUS
Solution:
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Two white dots from the first figure go out of the shape and one black dot takes
their place in the second figure.
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Similarly, two white dots are taken out of the shape and one black dot is placed at
their position in the fourth figure.
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Answer Figures :
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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There is an increment of one side in both the interior triangle and exterior triangle
to form two rectangles. So, from a square which has 4 sides (both inside and
outside), we’ll obtain a figure that has 5 sides both inside and outside. Most
suitable is (b).
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Question 70. Problem Figures :
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Answer Figures :
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
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Question 71. How many straight lines are contained in the figure given below?
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a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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It is clear from the figure that:
Horizontal lines = 2
Vertical lines = 3
Slanting lines = 4
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Hence, the figure contains 9 straight lines.
Question 72. How many triangles are contained in the figure given below?
J
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a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
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Total number of triangles = 4+4+2+2 = 12
Question 73. How many squares are contained in the following figure?
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a. 6
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b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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Total number of squares = 6+1+1+1 = 9
Question 74. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?
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a.
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8
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b. 17
c. 18
d. 19
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
There are 18 rectangles contained in the figure as shown.
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Total number of rectangles = 8+5+2+2+1 = 18
Question 75. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
J
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a. 8
b. 9
c. 16
d. 11
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
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Total number of triangles = 6+3+6+1 = 16
Directions (Q. No. 76-82) In each of the following questions, numbers are placed
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in the figures on the basis of some logic. One place is vacant and indicated by a
question mark (?). Find out the correct alternatives to replace the question
mark.
Question 76.
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
44
a. 4
b. 8
c. 2
d. 16
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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If we see column-wise, we can observe that the bottom-most number is obtained
on multiplication of the above three numbers.
For the first column, 6×5×4 = 120
For second column, 6×7×3 = 126
Similarly, 8×5×? = 320
? = 320/40 = 8
Question 77.
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1 4 ?
4 2 5
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2 2 3
49 64 169
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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If we see column-wise, we can observe that the bottom-most number is the
square of the sum of the above three numbers.
For first column, (1+4+2)2 = 72 = 49
For second column, (4+2+2)2 = 82 = 64
Similarly, (?+5+3)2= 169 = 132
?+5+3 = 13
?=5
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Question 78.
3 6 8
5 8 4
4
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a.
b.
6
7
7 ?
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c. 8
d. 9
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
If we see row-wise, we can observe that the sum of the three numbers is constant.
For first row, 3+6+8 = 17
For second row, 5+8+4 = 17
Similarly, 4+7+?= 17
?=6
Question 79.
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6 9 15
8 12 20
4 6 ?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
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d. 21
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Question 80.
2 4 0
1 2 4
3 1 3
36 ? 91
a. 25
b. 48
47
c. 59
d. 73
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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For first column, 23 + 13 + 33 = 8 +1 + 27 = 36
For third column, 03 + 43 + 33 = 0 + 64 + 27 = 91
Similarly, 43 + 23 + 13 = 64 + 8 + 1 = ? = 73
Question 81.
13
7
J
54
45
U ?
32
27 144 68
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a. 42
b. 36
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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For first column, 13 + (7×2) = 27
For second column, 54 + (45×2) = 144
Similarly, ? + (32×2) = 68
? = 68 - 64 = 4
Question 82.
28 20 7
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84 35 12
45 ? 9
a. 15
b.
c.
d.
J 18
20
25
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
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If we see row-wise, we can observe that the middle number is obtained by the
following pattern:
𝑅𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
𝐿𝑒𝑓𝑡𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
× 5 = 𝑀𝑖𝑑𝑑𝑙𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
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For the first row, 7
× 5= 4×5 =20
84
For second row, 12
× 5 = 7×5 = 35
45
Similarly, 9
× 5 = 5×5 = ? = 25
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Study the following diagram and answer the given questions :
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Question 83.
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a. 11
b. 13
c. 15
d. 17
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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Therefore, 14×? = 154
? = 154/14 = 11
OR
If we observe the common diagram, we see that 85-64 = 21, which is also equal to
13+8.
Similarly, here 221-196 = 25
Now 14+? = 25
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? = 11
Question 84.
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a. 125
b. 90
c. 105
d. 225
Answer: (d)
Solution:
If we observe the common diagram, we see that on the left side box with the
number (8) and its square (64) is on the right-hand side box.
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Similarly, here we should get the square of 15 on the right-hand side box.
152 = 225
Question 85.
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a. 33
b.
c.
d.
J 81
243
42
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Directions (Q. No. 86-90) In each of these questions, which character from the
given options when placed at the sign of question mark (?) shall complete the
matrix?
Question 86.
52
A D H
F I M
? N R
a. K
b. N
c. O
d. P
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
U
We can see the pattern along the row as:
J
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Question 87.
B G N
D J R
G N ?
a. U
b. V
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c. W
d. X
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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Question 88.
A
J
M
U
B N
R C S D
E U F ?
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a. G
b. R
c. T
d. V
Answer: (d)
Solution:
54
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Question 89.
P T ?
M
J Q
N
U S
a. I
b. L
c. O
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d. U
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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Hence, the gap needs to be constant for the other major diagonal as well. The
difference between MQ is 4, which should be equal to the difference between Q
and the next letter. Therefore, the next letter is U.
Question 90.
A D G
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D I N
I P ?
a. V
Jb.
c.
d.
W
X
Y
Answer: (b)
U
Solution:
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Directions (Q. No. 91-95) Study the following figure carefully and answer the
questions given below it. The rectangle represents artists, the circle represents
players and the triangle represents doctors :
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b. 8
c. 22
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Question 91. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?
a. 3
d. 25
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
Players who are neither artists nor doctors = part of the circle which is not in the
rectangle nor in the triangle
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Question 92. How many artists are players ?
a. 30
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b. 29
c. 25
d. 22
Answer: (c)
Solution:
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Artists who are players = Part of the rectangle which is inside the circle.
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Question 93. How many doctors are both players and artists?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 8
d. 11
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
Doctors who are both players and artists = Area of the triangle both in the circle as
well as the rectangle.
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a. 30
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Question 94. How many doctors are neither players nor artists?
b. 27
c. 22
d. 8
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
Doctors who are neither players nor artists = Area of the triangle which is not in
circle or rectangle
59
Question 95. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?
'S
a. 22
b. 24
c. 29
d. 30
Answer: (d)
Solution:
J U
Artists who are neither players nor doctors = Area of the rectangle which is not in
circle or triangle
BY
Question 96. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the
relationships among the given three classes Tennis fans, Cricket players,
Students
60
a.
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b.
c.
J U
BY
d.
Answer: (a)
Solution:
In a group of students, some can be tennis fans and some can be cricket players.
Now, out of the cricket players, some can be tennis fans as well and not all of the
players or fans must be students.
61
'S
Question 97. Choose from the four diagrams given below, the one that
illustrates the relationship among : Language, French, German
a.
J U
BY
b.
c.
62
d.
Answer: (c)
Solution:
'S
German and French both are languages spoken in two different countries.
J U
BY
Question 98. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best
illustrates the relationship among the three classes : Pigeons, Birds, Dogs
63
a.
'S
b.
J U
c.
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d.
Answer: (a)
Solution:
64
All pigeons are birds. But dogs are different from birds and hence in a different
category.
'S
Directions (Q. No. 99-100)
U
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions:
i) Arati is older than Sanu.
ii) Muskan is elder than Arati but younger than Kailash.
iii) Kailash is elder than Sanu.
J
iv) Sanu is longer than Muskan.
v) Gargi is the eldest
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Answer: (d)
Solution:
65
A>S
K>M>A
K>S
S<M or M>S
But S is taller than M.
Finally, G is the eldest. So,
Gargi > Kailash > Muskan > Arati > Sanu
So, we can see that Sanu is the youngest.
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Question 100. Agewise, who is in the middle?
a. Kailash
b. Muskan
c. Arati
d. Sanu
Answer: (b)
Solution:
J U
According to the information given,
Gargi > Kailash > Muskan > Arati > Sanu
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So, we can see that Muskan is the middle one according to age.
66
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
(NTSE 2021) STAGE - 1
'S
Question 01. The Regulating act legislation was passed by the British Parliament
in -
a. 1753
b. 1763
c. 1773
d. 1783
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
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The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed by the British Parliament. It was an
attempt to check on the misgovernment of the British East India Company in
India.
Question 02. Under which Viceroy the Partition of Bengal took place ?
a. Robert Clive
b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Curzon
d. Lord Minto
Answer: (c)
1
Solution:
Curzon announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905. The partition came into
effect on 16 October, 1905. He used the partition as a political tool to weaken the
growing nationalist movement in Bengal. The partition was annulled in 1911.
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c. 1826
d. 1857
Answer: (d)
Solution:
U
The Sepoy Mutiny took place in the year 1857. It is also referred to as the First
War of Independence by some historians. Although unsuccessful, it was the first
J
organised rebellion by the Indians against the British colonial powers.
Question 04. The capital of the province of "Eastern Bengal and Assam" was
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a. Shillong
b. Jorhat
c. Tinsukia
d. Dhaka
Answer: (d)
Solution:
2
The partition of Bengal in 1905 created the Eastern Bengal and Assam province.
Dhaka served as the capital of this province from 1905 to 1912. The partition was
annulled in 1911.
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
U
Anandaram Borooah was the first Indian Civil Servant from Assam. He was a
Sanskrit scholar, first graduate from Assam and also an eminent lawyer.
Question 06. The infamous Rowlatt Act was passed by the Imperial legislative
J
Council in a. 1909
b. 1919
c. 1929
BY
d. 1939
Answer: (b)
Solution:
The Imperial Legislative Council passed the Rowlatt Act on 18th March 1919. It
was a draconian law which extended the emergency measures of indefinite
preventive detention and incarceration without trial and judicial review for an
indefinite period.
3
Question 07. Who wrote the famous Book "Gitanjali"?
a. Rabindranath Thakur
b. Abanindranath Thakur
c. Bipin Chandra Pal
d. Aurobindo Ghosh
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
U
Question 08. Who was the founder of Assam Association
a. Manik Chandra Baruah
b. Nabin Chandra Bordoloi
c. Anandaram Dhekiyal Phukan
J
d. Tarun Ram Phukan
Answer: (a)
BY
Solution:
Manik Chandra Baruah formed the Assam Association in 1903. The association
was the centre of political activities in Assam.
Question 09. In which year was the 'Gyan Pradavin Sabha' founded '?
a. 1827
b. 1837
c. 1847
d. 1857
4
Answer: (d)
Solution:
The Gyan Pradavin Sabha was founded by Anandaram Dhekiyal Phukan in 1857.
The sabha was founded to discuss important social reforms and other issues.
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a. Madhavdeva
b. Bhatadeva
c. Ananta Kandali
d. Srimanta Sankardeva
Answer: (d)
Solution:
J U
Srimanta Sankardeva composed the Kirtan Ghosa during medieval times. It is a
collection of poems meant to be sung by communities in the Eaksarna religion.
BY
Answer: (c)
Solution:
5
Irrigation canals are artificial channels of water. These are man-made structures
constructed to transport water from one place to another, usually to supply water
for farms or fields.
'S
Answer: (a)
Solution:
U
Abiotic resources are non-living chemical and physical components of our
environment that affect living organisms and the functioning of ecosystems.
Sunlight, air, precipitation, minerals, and soil are some examples of abiotic
factors.
J
Question 13. Which of the following is non-renewable resource?
a. Air
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b. Water
c. Crops
d. Coal
Answer: (d)
Solution:
6
limited supply. Non-renewable resources include fossil fuels such as coal,
petroleum, natural gas etc.
'S
Answer: Bonus
Solution:
The International Union for Conservation of Nature is an independent
U
international organization working in the field of nature conservation and
sustainable use of natural resources.
d. Tinsukia
Answer: (d)
Solution:
Baghjan is located in the district of Tinsukia, Assam. Oil India Limited operates an
oilfield in Baghjan.
7
b. Europe
c. Antarctica
d. Oceania
Answer: (d)
Solution:
'S
includes thousands of tiny islands of the Central Pacific and South Pacific, most
notably Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Question 17. Which sea has separated the continents of Asia and Africa?
a. Mediterrancean Sea
b. Red Sea
c. Caspian Sea
d. Arabian Sea
J U
Answer: (b)
Solution:
BY
The Red Sea separates the continents of Asia and Africa. It connects the Gulf of
Suez in the north and the Gulf of Aden in the south. Countries like Saudi Arabia
and Yemen are located to the right, and African countries like Sudan, Ethiopia and
Egypt are located to the left of the Red Sea.
8
Answer: (a)
Solution:
The Ural Mountain range or Urals are a rugged range that runs across western
Russia. Extending about 2,500 km, this range forms the natural boundary
between Europe and Asia.
'S
Question 19. Which is the largest agro-based industry of Assam?
a. Silk industry
b. Rubber industry
c. Tea industry
d. Fishery
Answer: (c)
Solution:
J U
Assam alone contributes to more than half of India’s tea production. The total
area under tea cultivation in Assam accounts for more than half of the country’s
BY
total area under tea. The tea industry is the largest agro-based industry of Assam.
Answer: Bonus
Solution:
9
Question is not clear
Question 21. The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi on
9th December
a. 1945
b. 1946
c. 1947
d. 1948
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in New Delhi on 9th December,
U
1946 in the Constitution Hall, also known as the Central Hall of Parliament House.
Question 22. Which article of the Indian Constitution declares India as "Union of
States"?
J
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. Article 3
BY
d. Article 4
Answer: (a)
Solution:
Question 23. Which of the following is not a part of the Indian Parliament?
10
a. President
b. Lok Sabha
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Supreme Court
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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The Supreme Court of India is the apex court of the country. It is a part of
Judiciary and not a part of the Parliament of India. The Supreme Court of India is
located in New Delhi.
Solution:
The Governing Council of the NITI AAYOG has the Prime Minister of India as its
chairperson and it also consists of Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant
Governors of Union Territories. NITI stands for National Institution for
Transforming India which is the premier policy-making institution that is expected
to foster the economic growth of the country.
11
c. V.V. Giri
d. Dr. Zakir Hussain
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of independent India and served his
term from 1950 to 1962. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was a lawyer and an ardent follower
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of Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer: (b)
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c. The Prime Minister of India
Solution:
BY
According to Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India appoints
the Governor of a state in India. The President also removes the Governor of a
state under the advice of the cabinet.
Question 27. In which year was the Right to Education Act enacted in India?
a. 2006
b. 2007
c. 2008
d. 2009
Answer: (d)
12
Solution:
The parliament of India enacted the Right to Education Act on 4th August 2009.
The Right to Education describes modalities for free and compulsory education
for children between the ages of six and fourteen. It is enlisted under Article 21
(A) of India's Constitution and hence recognised as a fundamental right.
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a. 1980
b. 1981
c. 1982
d. 1983
Answer: (d)
Solution:
J U
The Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Government of India in 1983 to
scrutinise the centre-state relations and suggest recommendations within the
constitutional framework. The commission was led by a retired Supreme Court
BY
Question 29. Which one of the following is the largest organ of UNO?
a. Security Council
b. General Assembly
c. The Economic and Social Council
d. Trusteeship Council
Answer: (b)
Solution:
13
The United Nations General Assembly is the policy making and representative
organ of the United Nations. The General Assembly has 193 member states and
hence forms the largest organ of the United Nations.
Question 30. National Human Rights Commission was created in the year
a. 1990
b. 1991
c. 1992
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d. 1993
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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The National Human Rights Commission was constituted on 12th October, 1993. It
is a statutory body. The NHRC is responsible for promoting and protecting human
rights and ensuring that individuals enjoy liberty, equality and dignity.
J
Question 31. Who is known as the Father of Economics ?
a. Adam Smith
BY
b. Chanakya
c. Marshall
d. None of the above
Answer: (a)
Solution:
14
Question 32. Which of the following is not a direct tax?
a. Sales Tax
b. Income tax
c. Wealth Tax
d. Estate duty
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
Indirect taxes are called so because the point of levy and burden of payment are
not on the same entity, unlike direct tax. For example, the government levies tax
on the seller of a particular good. But the burden of tax payment falls on the
U
consumer who purchases that good. The consumer pays the respective tax
amount with the product’s price. The seller in turn pays the respective tax
amount to the government. Sales tax, excise duty and entertainment tax are
some of the examples of indirect taxes.
J
Question 33. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
a. 1925
BY
b. 1935
c. 1945
d. 1955
Answer: (b)
Solution:
The RBI is the central bank of India. It works as the official banker to the central
and state governments. It is also a banker to banks as it maintains the banking
15
accounts of other scheduled banks. The RBI was established on 1st April, 1935 in
Kolkata based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
'S
Answer: (c)
Solution:
Cash crops are harvested for commercial purposes on a large scale in order to
U
reap huge profits. Jute, ground nuts and sugarcane are cash crops whereas jowar
is not. Jowar is a food and cereal crop.
Answer: (b)
Solution:
NITI stands for National Institution for Transforming India which is the premier
policy-making institution that is expected to foster the economic growth of the
country. It was formed on 1st January, 2015 replacing the Planning Commission of
India.
16
Question 36. Goods and Services Tax is
a. a direct tax
b. a central tax
c. a state tax
d. an indirect tax
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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The Goods and Services Tax or the GST is an indirect tax in India that has replaced
other taxes like the Value-added tax (VAT), excise duty and service taxes.
Solution:
Horticulture refers to the cultivation of fruits and vegetables. After the Golden
Revolution, India became the world’s second largest producer of fruits and
vegetables. The Golden Revolution made a fruitful impact on the lives of workers
involved in honey and horticultural production in India.
Question 38. Which of the following does not belong to the Primary Sector?
a. Forestry
b. Mining
c. Agriculture
17
d. Construction
Answer: (d)
Solution:
The Primary sector contains activities which utilises natural resources on earth.
Thus it includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry,
agriculture, and mining and quarrying.. Secondary sector refers to activities which
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involve the production of a finished product from the extracted raw materials like
construction.
Question 39. Which one of the following organizations estimates the National
Income of India?
c. Planning Commission
U
a. National Income Committee
b. Central Statistical Organization
Solution:
18
d. Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (b)
Solution:
'S
the bank went defunct in 1832.
Question 41. Which among the following is getting reduced in the following
reaction?
F e2 O3 + 3CO → 2F e + 3CO2
a. CO
b. Fe
c. C O2
d. F e2 O3
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Answer: (d)
BY
Solution:
Question 42. Exposure of Silver Chloride to Sunlight for a long duration turns
grey due to -
a. Formation of silver
b. Sublimation of silver chloride
c. Evolution of Chlorine gas
19
d. Oxidation of silver chloride
Answer: (a)
Solution:
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to the
formation of silver. The reaction involved in the process is as follows:
'S
Silver chloride is white in colour while silver metal is grey and chlorine evolved in
the reaction has a yellowish-green colour.
Solution:
Red litmus turns blue with basic solution. Basic solutions have a pH more than 7.
Thus, the pH of the solution mentioned in the question will be 10.
20
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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a. Oxygen
b. Fluorine
c. Sulphur
d. Bromine
Answer: (d)
Solution:
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The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is Bromine. At room
temperature, oxygen and fluorine exist as gas whereas sulphur is in solid form.
BY
Answer: (b)
Solution:
21
An alloy is a mixture of metals or a mixture of metal and other elements. Alloys
can be both homogeneous or heterogeneous.
'S
Answer: (c)
Solution:
U
Aqua regia is composed of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in the ratio 3:1.
d. S, Se, Te
Answer: (b)
Solution:
According to Dobereiner, the atomic mass of the middle element was
approximately equal to the arithmetic mean (average) of the atomic masses of
the other two elements of that triad when they are arranged in their increasing
order of atomic mass.
22
Question 49. Newland gave the idea of reoccurence of properties of every -
a. 7th
b. 8th
c. 6th
d. 4th
Answer: (b)
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Solution:
a. Fluorine
b. Oxygen
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Question 50. Which of the following element will form bivalent anion?
c. Chlorine
d. Nitrogen
BY
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Question 51. An element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine with
the element with atomic number
a. 17
23
b. 11
c. 18
d. 20
Answer: (a)
Solution:
The element with atomic number 19 (Potassium) has 1 valence electron and will
'S
most likely combine with an element having 7 electrons in its valence shell.
Z = 17: 2, 8, 7
Thus, an element with atomic number 19 will most likely combine with the
element with atomic number 17.
a. Sodium
b. Silicon
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Question 52. Which of the following shows an electronic configuration of 2, 8,
4?
c. Sulphur
d. Aluminium
BY
Answer: (b)
Solution:
Sodium: 2, 8, 1
Silicon: 2, 8, 4
Sulphur: 2, 8, 6
Aluminium: 2, 8, 3
24
b. Atom
c. Electron
d. Neutron
Answer: (a)
Solution:
'S
nucleus.
Answer: (a)
J U
Solution:
BY
Protium (Isotope of Hydrogen) has a mass number of 1 and contains one proton.
Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons
⇒Number of neutrons = 0
Answer: (c)
25
Solution:
Elements with valency 1 are either metals (Li, Na, K, Rb) or nonmetals (F, Cl, Br, I).
'S
c. N
d. Ar
Answer: (a)
Solution:
U
The electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 belongs to the element having atomic number
11 (Sodium). Any other element which belongs to the same group as that of
J
sodium will have a similar sort of chemical reactivity. Thus, potassium which
belongs to the same group as that of sodium will have similar chemical reactivity.
BY
Answer: (c)
Solution:
26
All the carbon atoms of diamond possess strong chemical bonds with that of the
four other carbon atoms. And the bond lengths of the carbon-carbon atoms are
equal. Hence, diamond forms a three-dimensional network of strong covalent
bonds.
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Question 58. Which of the following is not a saturated Hydrocarbon?
a. Cyclohexane
b. Benzene
c. Butane
d. Isobutane
J U
Answer: (b)
BY
Solution:
27
Question 59. Buckminster fullerene is an allotropic form of
a. Phosphorus
b. Sulphur
c. Carbon
d. Tin
Answer: (c)
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Solution:
Question 60. The compound containing both ionic and covalent bond is
a. AlCl3
b. C aO
c. M gCl2
d. N H 4 Cl
J U
Answer: (d)
BY
Solution:
The compound containing both ionic and covalent bonds is NH4Cl. The covalent
bonds exist between nitrogen and hydrogen atoms while ionic bonds exist
between NH4+ and Cl-.
28
Question 61. The LCM of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be
'S
their HCF?
a. 600
b. 500
c. 400
d. 200
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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Let the two numbers be A and B.
BY
Question 62. The number of decimal places after which the decimal expansion
of the rational number 14587
1250
will terminate is
a. 1
b. 2
29
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: (d)
Solution:
14587
1250 = 14587×8
1250×8 = 14587×8
10000 = (14587 × 8) × 10 −4
14587
Hence, the decimal expansion of 1250
terminates after 4 decimal places.
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Question 63. The expression (2 + √3) (2 − √3) is
a. a rational number
b. a natural number
c. an integer
d. All the above
Answer: (d)
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Solution:
BY
Question 64. If the graph of the polynomial y = f(x) intersects the x - axis at two
points then the number of zeros of f(x) is
a. 0
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2
Answer: (d)
30
Solution:
y = f(x) is a polynomial in x such that it intersects at two points on the x axis. I.e.,
at two different values of x, y = 0 or f(x) = 0. Hence, the polynomial f(x) has two
zeros, ie., where y = f(x) becomes zero.
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b. 4
c. -2
d. -4
Answer: (b)
Solution:
U
Sum of zeroes of a cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is given by α + β + γ =
J
−b
a
Where, α, β , γ are roots of the cubic polynomial.
−(−3k)
So, for 2x3 − 3kx2 + 4x − 5 , sum of roots = 2 =6
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k=4
Answer: (d)
Solution:
31
Two linear equations a1x+b1y = c1 and a2x+b2y = c2 have infinitely many solutions
a1 b1 c1
when, a2 = b2 = c2
2 3 5
For the given set of equations, this can be written as 4
= k
= 10
3 1
k
= 2
, k=6
Question 67. The area of the triangle formed by the lines y = x, x = 6 and y = 0 is
a. 36 sq. units
b. 18 sq. units
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c. 9 sq. units
d. 72 sq. units
Answer: (b)
Solution:
U
When the three lines are plotted, they enclose a right angled triangle as shown.
J
The length of base made by y = 0, is 6 units.
The height of the triangle made by x = 6, is 6 units. x = y is the hypotenuse.
Area of triangle = 12 × 6 × 6 = 18 sq. units
BY
32
'S
U
Question 68. If x = 1 is a common root of the equation ax2 + ax + 3 = 0 and
x2 + x + b = 0 then the value of ab is
a. 3
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b. 3.5
c. 6
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d. -3
Answer: (a)
Solution:
33
Question 69. The value of √6 + √6 + √6 + ......... is
a. 4
b. 3
c. -2
d. 3.5
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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√
Let the value of 6 + √6 + √6 + ......... = x
Then, √6 + x = x
Squaring both sides.
x2 - x - 6 = 0
x2 - 3x + 2x - 6 = 0
(x-3)(x+2) = 0
x= 3 or x = -2.
U
However, we know that a square root can never be negative. Hence, x = 3.
J
Question 70. The first and last terms of an A.P. are 1 and 11. If the sum of its
terms is 36 then the number of terms will be -
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a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer: (b)
Solution:
34
n=6
Answer: (d)
'S
Solution:
a. 2 : 3
b. 4 : 9
c. 81:16
d. 16:81
Answer: (d)
Solution:
35
Question 73. If ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar triangles such that ∠A = 47º
and ∠E = 83º then ∠F = ?
a. 50o
b. 60o
c. 70o
d. 80o
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
b. 6
c. 7.5
d. 12
Answer: (d)
Solution:
(0,4) lies on the x-axis, (0,0) is the origin and (3,0) lies on the y-axis. Hence, the
triangle formed is a right angled triangle with two sides’ length equal to 3 units
and 4 units lying on the y and x axis respectively.
The third side by pythagoras theorem is (32+42)½ = 5 units
36
Perimeter of the triangle = 3+4+5 = 12 units
Question 75. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from points (-1,0) and
(5,0) is
a. (0,2)
b. (2,0)
c. (3,0)
d. (0,3)
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Answer: (b)
Solution:
The points equidistant from A(-1,0) and B(5,0) will lie on a line.
J U
A is on x axis, B is on x-axis as well.
The point exactly in the middle of them will also lie on the x-axis.
Hence, the point is M ( −1+52
, 0+0
2
) = M (2, 0)
b. 1
c. 0
d. 2
Answer: (b)
Solution:
37
Putting in cos2 θ + cos4 θ
cos2 θ + sin2 θ = 1
'S
Answer: (d)
Solution:
sec q + tan q = x
Also, 1
sec q + tan q
= 1
x
U …(i)
(i) - (ii)
1
2tan q = x − x
2
x −1
tan q = 2x
Question 78. The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 : √3 . The angle
of elevation of the Sun is
a. 30o
b. 45o
c. 60o
d. 90o
38
Answer: (a)
Solution:
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AB 1
Given that AC
= √3 U
AB
Also, AC
= tan ∠ACB
Hence, ∠ACB = 30º , which is the elevation of the Sun.
J
Question 79. Which of the following is correct ?
a. Mode = 2 Median - 3 Mean
b. Mode = 2 Median + 3 Mean
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
The correct relation between Mean, Median and Mode is given by:
Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
39
b. -1.5
c. 15%
d. 0.7
Answer: (b)
Solution:
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meaning. Probability can be anything falling ≥ 0 and ≤1.
Hence, -1.5 cannot be the probability of an event.
Solution:
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Answer: (c)
40
Solution:
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Question 83. In the process of sublimation
a. Solid goes to gas state
b. Liquid goes to gas state
c. Solid goes to liquid state
Answer: (a)
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d. Liquid goes to solid state
Solution:
The process of conversion of the solid state to the gas state, without passing
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Answer: (c)
41
Solution:
Number of atoms or molecules in one mole of any substance = Avogadro’s
number = 6.022 × 1023
'S
Answer: (a) and (b)
Solution:
U
Force can cause a change in motion or even cause the motion. Every time the
motion of an object changes it is because a force has been applied. Force can
cause a stationary object to move or a moving object to change its speed or
direction.
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Question 86. A body with an initial velocity 10 km/hour comes to rest after 15
minutes. Then the distance covered by the body is -
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a. 2.5 km
b. 1.25 km
c. 5 km
d. 10 km
Answer: (b)
Solution:
42
Final velocity = v = 0 km/h
Now, acceleration is change in velocity per unit time = (v-u)/t
a = (v-u)/t
= (0-10)/(¼) = -40 km/h2
Using the equation of motion, v2-u2 = 2as
s = (v2-u2)/2a
= (0-100)/(2× -40)
= -100/-80
= 100/80
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= 5/4
= 1.25 km
Question 87. The mass of moon is 7.34 x 1022 kg and the radius of the moon is
1737 km. The escape velocity at moon is -
a. 1.25 km/sec
b. 2.37 km/sec
c. 11.29 km/sec
d. 5 km/sec
J U
Answer: (b)
BY
Solution:
√
ve = 2GM
R
−11 22
=
√ 2×6.67×10 ×7.34×10
1737×10
3
3
= √5.637 × 10 m/s
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= 2.37 × 103 m/s
= 2.37 km/s
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Answer: (a)
Solution:
Answer: (b)
Solution:
44
Distance upto which it is lifted = 2 m
We know that,
Work done = Force × distance moved
W = Fs
Now, Force = mg
W = mgh (s = h = height upto which the ball is lifted)
= (2 kg)(9.8 m/s2)(2 m)
= 39.2 J
'S
Question 90. To see the full image of an object the minimum size of a plane
mirror should be-
a. half the size of the object
b. equal to the size of the object
c. double the size of the object
Answer: (a)
J U
d. four times the object size
Solution:
In order to see the full image of a person, the minimum size of the mirror should
BY
Question 91. Which of the following is responsible for absorption of light energy
during photosynthesis?
a. Chlorophyll
b. Stomata
c. Stem
d. Root
Answer: (a)
45
Solution:
Chlorophyll is the light absorbing pigment present in the chloroplasts which helps
in light reaction of the photosynthesis.
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d. Bark
Answer: (c)
Solution:
U
Roots are negatively phototropic and grow away from sunlight.
Question 93. In Bryophyllum, which plant part is used for developing a new
J
plant?
a. Chlorophyll
b. Root
BY
c. Bud
d. Leaf
Answer: (d)
Solution:
In Bryophyllum, leaf is used as a vegetative propagule where adventitious buds
originate from the margins of the leaf.
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b. Rose
c. Papaya
d. Mustard
Answer: (c)
Solution:
Papaya has unisexual flowers that is it contains either stamens or carpels only.
'S
Question 95. Which of the following helps in the activation of enzyme pepsin M
stomach?
a. HCl
b. NaCl
c. Potassium
d. Calcium
J U
Answer: (a)
Solution:
BY
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) creates an acidic medium of pH about 1-2 during digestion
which activates the enzyme pepsin which helps in the breakdown of proteins.
Question 96. In human muscle cells, which of the following is produced after
breakdown of glucose in absence of Oxygen?
a. Ethanol
b. Starch
c. Lactic Acid
d. Pyruvate
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
In human muscle cells, in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted into lactic
acid via lactic acid fermentation.
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Question 97. The instrument which is used for the measurement of blood
pressure is known
a. Oxymeter
b. Thermometer
c. Sphygmomanometer
d. Glucometer
Answer: (c)
J U
Solution:
48
Question 98. If a human Zygote, cell carries sex chromosomes XY, then it will
develop into a -
a. Male
b. Female
c. Bisexual
d. Genetically abnormal child
Answer: (a)
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Solution:
a. Wood
b. Gobar Gas
J U
Question 99. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy
source?
c. Nuclear energy
d. Coal
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Answer: (c)
Solution:
49
Question 100. In energy flow diagram of ecosystem, which trophic level lies at
the bottom?
a. Primary Consumer
b. Producer
c. Tertiary Consumer
d. Decomposer
Answer: (b)
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Solution:
50