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Key for M.C.Qs [12 Electrostatics]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
1 1 1
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) 5 A
45 10 5
37. Five resistances are connected as shown in figure below. The equivalent resistance of the given circuit is
[FBISE 15]
(a) 35Ω (b) 25Ω (c) 15Ω (d) None of these
38. Refer to the figure given below. The effective resistance of the circuit is [FIBSE 12]
5
(a) 5R (b) 2R (c) R (d) 3R
2
39. It is required to increase the current to double in a circuit of total resistance ‘R’. For this purpose, a new
resistance Rx is connected to ‘R’ then [FBISE 14]
R
(a) Rx ( Rx in parallel to R ) (b) Rx 2 R ( Rx in series to R )
2
R
(c) Rx R ( Rx in parallel to R ) (d) Rx ( Rx in series to R )
2
40. In the given circuit when switch ‘S’ is closed, the current through all the branches are [FBISE 14]
I1 6 A, I1 0, I1 3 A, I1 0,
(a) I 2 2 A,
(b) I 2 2 A,
(c) I 2 0,
(d) I 2 0,
I 3 3 A I 3 6 A I 3 0 I 3 0
41. Ceramic materials exhibit super conductivity at [FBISE 13]
(a) 0oK (b) 273K (c) 60K (d) 30K
42. Resistivity at a gvien temperature depends upon [LHR 14, 15]
(a) Area of cross section (b) Length (c) Nature of material of conductor (d) Both length and
area
43. Resistivity is reciprocal of [FSD 08]
(a) Conductance (b) Conductivity (c) Induction (d) None of these
44. The reciprocal of resistance is called [DGK 15-II, GRW 04, MLN 11]
(a) Resistivity (b) Conductivity (c) Ω-1 (d) None of these
45. The resistivity of a conductor increases with [GRW 10]
(a) Increases in it length (b) Increases in it area (c) Increase in its temperature (d) Decrease in its length
46. If the conductivity of a material is high, then it is [LHR 08, RWP 11]
(a) An insulator (b) A semiconductor (c) A good conductor (d) A super conductor
47. mho-m-1 is the unit of [BHW 14, MLN 10]
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance (c) Resistivity (d) Conductivity
48. Siemen is the unit of [GRW 10, 11]
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance (c) Resistivity (d) Conductivity
49. Aluminium is a/an [FBISE 12]
(a) Photo conductor (b) Insulator (c) Excellent conductor (d) Bad conductor
[Carbon Resistor, Rheostat, Thermistor]
50. The colour code for carbon resistances usually consists of [DGK 11, MLN 09]
(a) 2 bands (b) 4 bands (c) 5 bands (d) 7 bands
51. Tolerance gold colour is [FSD 08]
(a) ±50% (b) ±5% (c) ±20% (d) ±30%
52. Tolerance of silver band is [BW[ 12, LHR 13, RWP 10]
(a) ±10% (b) ±15% (c) ±20% (d) ±2%
53. If fourth band on the carbon resistor is of silver colour, then its tolerance is [BHW 12, LHR 15-II, RWP 10]
(a) ±1% (b) ±5% (c) ±10% (d) ±20%
54. If fourth band is missing, then tolerance is considered to be [AJK 12]
(a) ±50% (b) ±10% (c) ±20% (d) ±2%
55. In carbon resistors what is the value of violet colour? [FBISE 11, FSD 11]
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
56. In carbon resistors what is the value of blue colour? [MLN 15-II]
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9
57. The colour code of yellow is [BHW 14-O]
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
58. The numerical value of black colour code carbon resistor is [SAR 09]
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
59. The numerical value of orange colour code carbon resistor is [DGK 12]
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 8
60. The numerical value of green colour code carbon resistor is [RWP 11]
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
61. The colour of strips on a carbon resistor from extreme left are yellow, black and brown respectively its
resistance is
(a) 4 kΩ (b) 400 Ω (c) 40 Ω (d) 40 kΩ
62. A rheostat can be used as a [BHW 09, LHR 07, MLN 10]
(a) Variable resistor (b) Potential divider (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
63. Temperature coefficient of thermistor is [FBISE 10]
(a) Always negative (b) Always positive
(c) Changing from positive to negative and vice versa (d) May be positive or may be negative
64. Themistor is [LHR 08]
(a) A resistor (b) Themally sensitive resistor (c) Adiabatic resistor (d) An isothermal resistor
65. Heat sensitive resistors are called [SAR 10]
(a) Resistors (b) Capacitors (c) Thermistor (d) Inductors
66. Substances like Germanium, Silicon have [MLN 08]
(a) Positive temperature coefficient (b) Negative temperature coefficient
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
67. The thermistors convert changes of temeprature into [FSD 15]
(a) Light energy (b) Electrical energy (c) Heat (d) Sound
68. A thermistor is a heat sensitive [RWP 10]
(a) Capacitor (b) Diode (c) Resistor (d) Inductor
[Electric Power, Emf and Potential Difference]
69. The terminal potential difference of a cell is given by [FBISE 09]
E E
(a) Vt (b) Vt E IR (c) Vt (d) None of these
Rr IR
70. The terminal potential difference of a short-circuit battery of emf ε is equal to
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 0
2
71. The terminal potential difference of a battery of internal resistance r and electromotive force is given
by [FBISE 13, SAR 12]
r r
(a) Vt Ir (b) Vt Ir (c) Vt (d) Vt
r I
72. The relation between emf and terminal potential difference of a battery is [FBISE 14]
(a) V Ir (b) V Ir (c) V (d) None of these
Ir
73. Whenever current is drawn from a cell, its terminal potential difference and emf become [LHR 06]
(a) Different (b) Same (c) Zero (d) Negative
74. For a closed circuit [AJK 09]
(a) E Vt (b) E Vt (c) E Vt (d) E Vt Ir
75. Practical unit of electric power is [DGK 08]
(a) Watt (b) Kilowatt (c) Joule (d) KWh
76. The power of an electric generator of voltage V and driving current I through an appliance [BAN 10, FBISE
11]
V2
(a) P IV (b) P I V2
(c) P (d) All of these
R
77. Watt-hour measures [FBISE 10, 12]
(a) Current (b) Electric energy (c) Power (d) Voltage
78. Electrical energy is measured in [FSD 10, LHR 10, RWP 08]
(a) Kilowatt (b) Horse power (c) Watt (d) Kilowatt-hour
79. Power dissipation is expressed by [GRW 06]
V
(a) P (b) P RV (c) RV 2 P (d) P I R
2
R
80. If the current through a resistance is halved, then the [RWP 12]
(a) Power is halved (b) Heat dissipated is halved (c) Potential difference is halved (d) Resistance is
doubled
81. The power output of a lamp is 6W, how much energy does the lamp give out in 2 minutes? [GRW 09, LHR
11]
(a) 3J (b) 12J (c) 120J (d) 720J
82. A 100W bulb is operated by 200V, the current flowing through the bulb is [RWP 08]
(a) 0.5A (b) 1A (c) 2A (d) 2.5A
83. Which electric bulb has the least resistance? [FBISE 13]
(a) 60W (b) 100W (c) 200W (d) 500W
84. When the internal resistance of a source is equal to the load, the maximum power dissipated is [AJK 09,
10, BWP 09, 10, 13]
E2 E2 2 2
(a) (b) (c) 4E (d) 4rE
4 4r
85. Power out put is given by [MLN 09]
E2R E2R 2
(a) (b) (c) I R (d) All of these
(R r) 2
( R r ) 4 Rr
2
86. Which equation represents maximum output power? [BHW 09, BHW 13, DGK 12, FBISE 11, FSD 10, LHR
10, RWP 07]
E2 E2 E2 E2
(a) P (b) P (c) P (d) P
4R 4r 4R2 4r 2
87. The ‘emf’ is always _____ even when no current is drawn through the battery of cell [GRW 12]
(a) Zero (b) Present (c) Absent (d) Maximum
88. Electromotive force is most closely related to [RWP 13]
(a) Charge (b) Current (c) Potential difference (d) Resistance
89. SI unit of electromotive force is [AJK 12, SAR 15]
(a) Cs-1 (b) JC-1 (c) CV-1 (d) VA-1
[Kirchhoff’s Rules, Wheatstone Bridge, Potentiometer]
90. The algebraic sum of potential changes for a closed circuit is [GRW 07]
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Greater than unity
91. Kirchhoff’s first rule is [SAR 09]
(a) V 0 (b) R 0 (c) I 0 (d) I 0
92. Kirchhoff’s first rule is based on conservation of [BHW 11, FSD 09, 14]
(a) Energy (b) Voltage (c) Charge (d) Mass
93. Kirchhoff’s second rule (loop rule) for electric circuits is essentially a statement of _______ electric circuits
[FBISE 15]
(a) Conservation of energy (b) Conservation of charge (c) Conservation of temperature (d)
Conservation of resistance
94. If resistance is traversed in the direction of current the change in potential is [BHW 10]
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Neutral
95. Total applied voltage in the given circuit is [FBISE 14]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b c d b a c a c b b b c b d b b a b a a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b b a b d b a b d d c a d c a b b c d d
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
d c b d c c c a a c b d a b b d d a d b
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
a b b b c d d b d
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98
CHAPTER 14 ELECTROMAGNETISM [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
[Magnetic field, Magnetic force on a current carrying conductor]
1. Charge in motion produces [RWP 12]
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) No field
2. Magnetic effect of electric current was observed by [FSD 10]
(a) Oersted (b) Michal Faraday (c) Lenz (d) Joseph Henry
3. The fact that the electric current produces magnetic field was discovered by [MLN 13]
(a) Newton (b) Maxwell (c) Henry (d) Oersted
4. Magnetic field is produced due to [ABT 09, 10, HYD 10]
(a) Static charge (b) moving charge (c) point charge (d) charged plat
5. An electric current on passing through a conductor produces around it [KBISE 12]
(a) An electric field (b) a magnetic field
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) first a magnetic field then electric field
6. Tesla is the unit of [ABT 09]
(a) Flux (b) density (c) magnetic induction (d) induction
7. SI unit of magnetic induction is [MLN 10, SAR 11, FBISE 12]
(a) Weber (b) Tesla (c) Gauss (d) Farad
8. 1 Tesla equals [BHW 13, DGK 10, FBISE 12, MLN 08, 11, LHR 09, 11, 15, MLN 08, 11, 15-II, SAR 09, 14]
(a) 1 NA-1m-1 (b) 1 NA-1m (c) 1 NAm-1 (d) 1 NAm
9. The current I is flowing upward in the z direction along a straight conductor. Its lines of magnetic field are
[ABT 10, BANNU 10, DIK 10, KOHAT 10, MLN 11]
(a) Parallel to current (b) anti-parallel to current
(c) Clockwise round the conductor (d) anti-clockwise round the conductor
10. A current flowing towards the reader is denoted by [MLN 15]
(a) Cross (b) A bracket (c) A dot (d) Positive sign
11. If current flow from top towards bottom through a wire then direction of lines of force would be [BAN
10, DIK 10, LHR 08, SAR 10]
(a) Parallel to the wire (b) Perpendicular to the wire (c) Clockwise (d) Anti-clockwise
12. Two current carrying conductors are placed parallel to each other then [FBISE 14, MLN 13, SWL 15]
(a) They attract each other for the same direction of currents
(b) They attract each other for the opposite direction of currents
(c) They repel each other for the same direction of currents
(d) No force is present between them
13. An electron beam is moving parallel. The nature of force between them is [FBISE 10]
(a) Attractive (b) Repulsive (c) Attractive or repulsive depends on the magnitude of
velocity (d) None of these
14. If fingers of right hand show the direciton of magnetic field and palm shows the direction of force then
thumb points for [GRW 13]
(a) Current (b) EMF (c) Force (d) Temperature
15. Right hand palm rule is used to find the direction of [AJK 12, FSD 08]
(a) Current (b) EMF (c) Force (d) Temperature
16. The magnetic force is simply a [DGK 11, GRW 09]
(a) Reflecting force (b) Deflecting force (c) Restoring force (d) Gravitational force
17. Direction of the vector L x B is same as [MLN 12]
(a) Force (b) Magnetic field (c) Electric field (d) Length of the conductor
18. Work done is always zero by [FSD 10]
(a) Electrostatic force (b) Frictional force (c) Magnetic force (d) Gravitational force
19. A device used to detect very weak magnetic field produced by brain is named as [BHW 15-II]
(a) MRI (b) CAT Scan (c) Squid (d) CRO
20. Work done by magnetic force is [MLN 10]
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Maximum
[Magnetic flux]
21. Joule/Ampere is the unit of [FBISE 15]
(a) Magnetic induction (b) Magnetic flux density (c) Magnetic flux (d) Potential gradient
22. What is the unit of magnetic flux? [BHW 15-II, DGK 10, DIK 10, FBISE 11, LHR 15-II]
(a) Nm-1A-1 (b) NmA-1 (c) Nm-1A (d) Wb.m-2
23. SI unit of magnetic flux is [BHW 12, DGK 10, MLN 09, 12]
(a) Wb (b) Wbm-2 (c) Wbm-1 (d) T
24. Magnetic flux is measured in [BHW 12, AJK 10, MLN 08]
(a) Tesla (b) Weber (c) Ampere-meter (d) Gauss
25. The unit of magnetic flux is [GRW 14, MLN 15]
(a) Weber (b) Curie (d) Newton (d) Farad
26. The unit of magnetic flux is [RWP 08, 13]
(a) Weber (b) Henry (d) Weber-m2 (d) None of these
27. One Weber is equal to [LHR 13, SWL 13]
(a) NmA-1 (b) Nm-1A (c) NA-1m-1 (d) NA-1m-2
28. Wb/m2 is the unit of [FBISE 15]
(a) Magnetic dipole (b) Magnetic flux density (c) Magnetic flux (d) Potential gradient
29. 1 Wb/m2 is equal to [MLN 09]
(a) 103 Gauss (b) 106 Gauss (c) 104 Gauss (d) 105 Gauss
30. The unit of magnetic flux density is [ABT 11, 13, BHW 14, BAN 10, 13, DIK 10, 12, KBISE 10, SWL 13]
(a)Weber/m2 (b) tesla (c) NA-1m-1 (d) all of these
31. Which one of the following relations is correct? [RWP 09]
(a) 1 Wbm2 = 1 Nm-1A-1 (b) 1 T = 104Gausses (c) 1 Wbm2 = 1T (d) All of these
-2
32. Nm is also called [FSD 11]
(a) Tesla (b) Weber (c) Pascal (d) Gauss
33. Magnetic flux φ through an area A is [BHW 10]
(a) φ = B x A (b) φ = B . A (c) φ = A x B (d) φ = B – A
34. Magnetic density at a point due to current carrying conductor can be determined by [MLN 11]
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Faraday’s law (c) Newton’s law (d) Lenz’s law
35. Magnetic field B = (4i + 18k) Wbm-2 passes through (5k) m2 area. Net flux through the area is [GRW 11]
(a) 20 Wb (b) 90 Wb (c) 110 Wb (d) 92.2 Wb
[Ampere’s law, Magnetic field inside Solenoid]
36. The magnetic field produced by current carrying conductor at distance r is [AJK 09, GRW 08]
o I 2o
2 r I
(a) 2 r (b) (c) Ir (d)
o I 2o r
37. Magnetic induction in a solenoid is [BHW 10, FSD 08]
(a) B o nI (b) B o NI (c) B o N I (d) B o nI
2 2
n
38. The mathematical expression ( B.L)
i 1
i o I is known as [FSD 10, LHR 10, 12]
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Ampere’s law (c) Gauss’ law (d) Faraday’s law
39. Inside currenty carrying solenoid, the direction of magnetic field [MLN 08]
(a) Is perpendicular to the axis of solenoid (b) at 60o with axis
(c) is along the axis (d) None of these
I
40. The relation B o is called [MLN 08]
2 r
(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law (c) Ampere’s law (d) Gauss’ law
41. In SI unit the value of o is [FBISE 09]
(a) 4 107 WbA1m1 (b) 4 107 WbA1m (c) 4 107 WbAm1 (d) 4 107 WbA1m1
42. The SI unit of magnetic permeability is [DGK 14, GRW 14]
(a) WbA-1m-1 (b) Wbm2 (c) WbmA-1 (d) WbAm-1
43. The magnetic field inside the solenoid when current “I” passed through it will be [GRW 07, SAR 12]
(a) Weak (b) Strong (c) Zero (d) first strong then weak
44. Ampere’s law is analogous to [LAR 10]
(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law (c) Gauss’s law (d) None
45. If the number of turns becomes double but length remain same, then magnetic field in the solenoid
becomes [GRW 15]
(a) Less than electron (b) Greater than electron (c) Zero (d) The same as electron
[Magnetic force on a moving charged particle]
46. The chrages moving perpendicular to magnetic field experience force [FSD 15]
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) Infinite
47. Magnetic field exerts no force on a charge moving _________ to the field [ABT 09, DIK 12]
(a) Perpendicular (b) Parallel (c) With speed of light (d) With low speed
48. When charged particle is projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, its trajectory is [BAN 13,
BHW 10, GRW 14, RWP 07, SWL 15]
(a) A circle (b) An ellipse (c) A straight line (d) of any shape
49. Magnetic field exerts no force on a charge moving [BANNU 12]
(a) Perpendicular to the field (b) Parallel to the field
(c) moving 45o to the field (d) None
50. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a resultant force [RWP 08, MLN 12]
(a) In the direction of the field (b) in the direction of its motion
(c) in the direction opposite to its motion (d) in the direction perpendicular to field and its motion
51. Force on a charged particle is zero when projected at angle with the magnetic field [MLN 15-II]
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 45o (d) 270o
52. Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic field will be maximum when the angle between v and B is
[BHW 08, SAR 12]
(a) 0o (b) 30o (c) 60o (d) 90o
53. Magnetic force on a charged particle is perpendicular to [GRW 12]
(a) Magnetic field (b) Electric field (c) Velocity of particle (d) Magnetic field and velocity
54. A magnetic force acts on a charged particle so as to change its [GRW 10, LHR 06]
(a) Speed (b) Energy (c) Direction of motion(d) All of these
55. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a magnetic force given by [GRW 06, LHR 07,
RWP 12]
(a) F = q (v x B) (b) q (v . B) (c) v x B/q (d) v . B/q
56. Magnetic force acting on a unit +ve charge moving at right angle to the magnetic field with unit velocity
is called [MLN 09]
(a) Magnetic flux (b) Induced emf (c) Motional emf (d) Magnetic induction
-1 -1 -1
57. The unit of E is NC and that of B is NA m , the unit of E/B is [MLN 11]
(a) ms-2 (b) ms (c) ms-1 (d) m-1s-1
58. If a charged particle movies in staight line thourgh some region of space, then [MLN 08]
(a) No magnetic field in that region (b) Magnetic field is parallel or antiparallel to motion of
particle
(c) Mangetic field is perpendicular to motion of particle (d) Both a and b
59. A charge ‘q’ is placed stationary in a region where both the electric and magnetic fields are present. The
charge will experience [FBISE 14]
(a) Both electric and magnetic force (b) Electric force
(c) Magnetic force (d) No force at all
60. A moving proton develops in the surrounding space [GRW 06]
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Electromotive force (d) None of these
61. The sum of electric and magnetic field is called [SAR 15]
(a) Maxwell force (b) Lorentz force (c) Newton’s force (d) Centripetal force
62. The Lorentz force can be measured by [RWP 15]
(a) q( E v B) (b) q( E v B) (c) q | E (v B) | (d) q(v v B)
63. The Lorentz force on a charge particle moving in electric field E and magnetic field B is given by [BHW 14]
F
(a) F FE FB (b) F FE FB (c) F B (d) F FE FB
FE
[Charge to mass ratio of electron]
64. The value of e/m is smallest for [DGK 09]
(a) Proton (b) Electron (c) β-particle (d) All of these
65. e/m of an electron is [FSD 12, GRW 14]
B2r 2 Br 2 2V 2V 2
2 2 2 2
(a) 2V (b) 2V (c) B r (d) B r
e e
66. ratio of an electron can be calculated by = [AJK 09]
m m
2
B R 2V V2 2V
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 2 2
2V B R BR B R
e
67. The of an electron moving with the speed along a circular path in a magnetic field is given as [FBISE 09]
m
e B2 R e E e E2 e ER
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 2
m E m B R m B R m B
68. The value of e/m of neutron is [FSD 13, MLN 10]
(a) 1.75 x 1011 C/kg (b) 1.75 x 10-11 C/kg (c) 1.6 x 10-19 C/kg (d) Zero
69. e/m of an electron was determined by [HYD 11]
(a) Faraday (b) Millikan (c) Rutherford (d) J. J. Thomson
70. An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ is moving in a circle of radius ‘r’ with speed ‘v’ in a uniform magnetic
field of strength ‘B’ then [SAR 13]
1 1
(a) r m (b) r B (c) r (d) r
v m
71. when a particle of charge “q” and mass “m” enters a region of constant magnetic induction “B”, traveling
with the velocity “v” perpendicular to the direction of the field, it describes a circular orbit of radius: [FBISE
15]
mq mqv mv Bq
(a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R
vB B qB mv
72. Charge to mass ratio of an electron was experimentally determined by [LAR 11]
(a) Newton (b) J.J.Thomson (c) Ampere (d) Kelvin
[Magnetic Torque]
73. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by [GRW 15, LHR 13, RWP 10]
(a) NIAB cos (b) BIL sin (c) NIAB sin (d) BIL cos
74. Maximum torque on a current carrying coil of “N” turns is [FSD 11, GRW 14, LHR 12, SRG 13]
(a) NIVAB sin (b) NIAB (c) IAB sin (d) NIVAB
75. A current carrying coil placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences maximum torque when angle
between plane of coil and magnetic field is [GRW 11]
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) 90o
[Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO)]
76. Cathode Ray Oscilloscope works by deflecting a beam of [LHR 14, MLN 13]
(a) Neutrons (b) Protons (c) Electrons (d) Positrons
77. In CRO time base circuit is connected to the [ABT 12, BAN 10, FBISE 12, DIK 10, KBISE 10]
(a) Y-plates (b) electron gun (c) x-plates (d) accelerating electrodes
78. The grid in CRO [BISE RWP 2011, FBISE 2013, LHR 14]
(a) Controls number of waves (b) controls the brightness of the spot formed
(c) has positive potential w.r.t. cathode (d) accelerates electrons
79. In CRO, output wave form of time base generator is [FSD 12]
(a) Circular (b) Square (c) Sinusoidal (d) Saw-toothed
80. The brightness of the spot of the CRO on screen is controlled by [FSD 13, 15, GRW 08, LHR 15, MLN 09]
(a) Cathode (b) Anode (c) Grid (d) Plate
81. In CRO, the number of electrons is controlled by operating [DGK 15, MLN 10]
(a) Anodes (b) Cathodes (c) Grid (d) Filament
82. The anode in the CRO is [LHR 13]
(a) Anodes (b) Cathodes (c) Grid (d) Filament
83. The number of anodes in CRO is [SAR 14]
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
[Galvanometer, Voltmeter, Ammeter, AVOmeter, Multimeter]
84. Instrument used for the detection of the current [MLN 12]
(a) Galvanometer (b) Ammeter (c) Voltmeter (d) Ohm-meter
85. An instrument that gives a pointer deflection proportional to the current through itself is called a [LHR
09]
(a) Voltmeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Wattmeter (d) Potentiometer
86. The high resistance Rh that should be connected in series with a Galvanometer of resistance Rg to
convert it into voltmeter of range 0-V is given by [BHW 12]
V Ig I R V
(a) Rg (b) Rg (c) g g (d) Rg
Ig V V Ig Ig
87. An ideal voltmeter is one which has _________ resistance [ABT 11]
(a) Zero (b) finite (c) infinite (d) none
88. Resistance of the voltmeter should be _________ as compared to the resistance across which it is
connected [GRW 12]
(a) High (b) Very high (c) Low (d) Very low
89. In order to increase range of a voltmeter, the series resistance is [BHW 09]
(a) Kept constant (b) decreased (c) increased (d) made zero
90. To convert the galvanometer into voltmeter the series high resistance is given by [AJK 12, BHW 12, GRW
05, FBISE 13, SAR 13]
V V V V
Rh Ig Rh Rg Rh Rg Rh Ig
Rg Ig Ig Rg
(a) (b) (c) (d)
91. For measurement of voltage across a resistor, voltmeter is always connected in [AJK 15, DGK 09, 11,
GRW 09]
(a) Parallel (b) Series (c) High resistance (d) Low resistance
92. The accurate potential measuring device should be of [FBISE 13]
(a) Very low resistance (b) Very high resistance
(c) Neither very low nor very high resistance (d) Infinite resistance
93. The galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by connecting [LAR 10]
(a) low resistance in parallel (b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series (d) high resistance in series
94. Ammeter is used to measure [ABT 09, SAR 13]
(a) Current (b) charge (c) voltage (d) power
95. To convert the galvanometer into ammeter the parallel shunt resistance is equal to [BHW 14-O, RWP 12,
13]
V I Ig I Ig
RS Ig RS Rg RS Rg RS Rg
Rg Ig I Ig I Ig
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. Shunt resistance is called
(a) by pass resistor (b) specific resistor (c) reactance (d) Impedance
97. An Ammeter is a galvanometer with [GRW 04]
(a) high resistance (b) low resistance (c) zero resistance (d) No of these
98. A galvanometer is converted into milli ammeter. The electrical resistance of the milli ammeter as
compared with that of the galvanometer is [ABT 10]
(a) Less (b) more (c) equal (d) one half
99. The deflection angle in galvanometer fall from 50 divisions to 25 divisions when a 20 ohm shunt is
applied. The galvanometer’s resistance is [MLN 08]
(a) 10 Ω (b) 20 Ω (c) 30 Ω (d) 40 Ω
100. Shunted galvanometer is called [ABT 13, BAN 13, BHW 13, FSD 11, LHR 13]
(a) Multimeter (b) Ammeter (c) AVO meter (d) Voltmeter
101. Which of the following likely to have least resistance? [BHW 11]
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer (c) VTVM (d) Voltmeter
102. In case of conversion of galvanometer into ammeter the shunt resistance is connected [SAR 15]
(a) In parallel (b) In series (c) Neither parallel nor series (d) Both a and b
103. To measure the current in a circuit, Ammeter is always connected in [FSD 10, LHR 10]
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(c) Sometimes parallel sometimes series (d) Neither parallel nor series
104. In AVO meter the current is measured when number of low resistances are connected in
Galvanometer in [MLN 11]
(a) Series (b) Parallel (c) Series and parallel (d) Perpendicular
105. An Ammeter is a galvanometer with [GRW 04]
(a) high resistance (b) low resistance (c) zero resistance (d) No of these
106. The resistance of an ideal Ammeter and that of an ideal Voltmeter are respectively [FBISE 14]
RA 0 RA RA 0
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
RV RV 0 RV 0
107. The sensitivity of galvanometer is given [AJK 08, 15, BHW 14-O, DGK 15-II]
B BAN N C
(a) CAN (b) C (c) BAC (d) BAN
108. The couple C for unit twise of the suspension wire can be decreased by [DGK 12]
(a) Increasing its length (b) Decreasing its length
(c) Increasing its diameter (d) It cannot be decreased
C
109. Galvanometer can be made sensitive if the value of the factor is [BHW 09, 11, RWP 11]
BAN
(a) Made large (b) Made small (c) Remains constant (d) None of these
110. The relation between current I and deflection θ in a moving coil galvanometer is [BHW 10, RWP 15]
(b) I cos (c) I sin (d) I
1
(a) I
111. The Galvanometer constant in a moving coil galvanometer is given by [RWP 10]
NB C NAB CA
K K K K
(a) CA (b) NAB (c) C (d) NB
112. The deflecting couple in Galvanometer is given by [FBISE 12]
NI ABI
(a) (b) NIAB (c) (d) None of these
AB N
113. The effective way to decrease the sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is [BWP 15-II]
(a) Increase the area of the coil (b) Increaase the number of turns of the coil
(c) Increase the magnetic field (d) Increase the value of constant C
114. Sensitivity of Galvanometer can be increased by [BHW 15, GRW 10, LHR 14]
(a) Decreasing the area of the coil (b) decreasing the number of turns of the coil
(c) Increasing the magnetic field (d) using a fine suspension
115. In a galvanometer pole pieces are made concave to make magnetic field lines [AJK 10]
(a) Radial (b) Parallel (c) Circular (d) Rectangular
116. When Ohm meter gives full scale deflection it indicates [DGK 14, GRW 14]
(a) Zero resistance (b) Infinite resistance (c) Small resistance (d) Very high resistance
117. An instrument which can measure current, potential difference and resistance is called [GRW 06]
(a) Voltmeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Ammeter (d) AVO meter
118. AVO meter is used to measure [KBISE 12]
(a) Electric current (b) Voltage (c) Resistance (d) All of these
119. Voltmeter is used to measure [SAR 09]
(a) Current (b) Resistance (c) Temperature (d) Voltage
120. An AVO meter is also called [GRW 08, 13]
(a) Ammeter (b) Voltmeter (c) Ohmmeter (d) Multimeter
121. Which of the following statements in NOT CORRET? [FBISE 13]
(a) An ammeter is moving coil galvanometer of low resistance
(b) A voltmeter is moving coil galvanometer of high resistance
(c) The terminals of an ammeter are made of thick bar metal while that of a voltmeter are light and well
insulated
(d) A voltmeter is always connected in series with the circuit while an ammeter is always connected in parallel
to a circuit
Key for M.C.Qs [14 Electromagnetism]
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
CHAPTER 16 ALTERNATING CURRENT [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
41 42 43
CHAPTER 17 PHYSICS OF SOLIDS [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
CHAPTER 18 ELECTRONICS [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
(a) Conduction band (b) Valence band (c) Forbidden band (d) Both a and b
[Transistor as an Amplifier, Transistor as Switch]
10. If IE, IB, IC are emitter current, base current and collector current respectively in a transistor then [BHW 12]
(a) I C I B I E (b) I B I E I C (c) I E I B I C (d) I C I E I B
12. If R1 10k and R2 100k , then the gain of the amplifier is [FBISE 2012]
(a) 1000kΩ (b) 10kΩ (c) 10 (d) -10
11. The thickness of the base is of the order of [BHW 14-O]
(a) 10-5 m (b) 10-6 m (c) 10-8 m (d) 10-10 m
12. In common base amplifier, the phase difference between the input signal voltage and output signal
voltage is [FBISE 2015]
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)
4 2
13. The common emitter current amplification factor is given by [FBISE 2011]
I I I I
(a) C (b) C (c) E (d) B
IE IB IB IE
[Operational Amplifier, Inverting, Non-inverting Amplifier]
14. The gain of Amplifier is given as [BHW 15]
RC r R R2
(a) (b) ie (c) 2 (d) 1
rie RC R1 R1
15. The voltage gain of an inverting OP-Amplifier is [FBISE 2014]
R2 R R
(a) G 1 (b) G 1 (c) G 1 2 (d) None of these
R1 R2 R1
16. The voltage gain of an non-inverting OP-Amplifier is [FBISE 2014]
R R R R
(a) 1 2 (b) 1 2 (c) 1 1 (d) 1 1
R1 R1 R2 R2
o
17. The circuit which changes input signal at output with phase difference of 180 is called [DGK 08, FBISE 12]
(a) Amplifier (b) Inverter (c) Non-invertor (d) Switch
[OP-AMP as Comparator, Comparator as Night Switch]
[Logic Gates]
18. Which one of the following is called as fundamental gate [BHW 10]
(a) NOR gate (b) NOT gate (c) NAND gate (d) XOR gate
19. The output will be LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero in a(n): [FBISE 2015]
(a) AND gate (b) NAND gate (c) NOT gate (d) OR gate
20. The truth table of logic function: [FBISE 2015]
(a) Summarizes its output values (b) Tabulates all its input conditions only
(c) Display all its input/output possibilities (c) Is not based on logic gates
21. The Boolean expression X A.B represents [FBISE 2014]
(a) XNOR gate (b) OR gate (c) NAND gate (d) AND gate
22. The mathematical notation for NOT operation is [BHW 09]
(a) X A.B (b) X A.B (c) X A (d) X A B
23. The mathematical relation for NOR operation is [FBISE 2014]
(a) X A.B (b) X A B (c) X A.B (d) X A.B
24. The NAND gate notation is [BHW 14-O]
(a) A B (b) A.B (c) A.B A.B (d) A B
25. The term invertor is used for [BHW 12]
(a) NOR gate (b) NAND gate (c) XNOR gate (d) NOT gate
26. In which type of logic gate, the output is one when both inputs are zero? [FBISE 2011]
(a) OR gate (b) AND gate (c) NOT gate (d) NOR gate
27. Which of the following in NOT basic operation of Boolean variables? [FBISE 2009, 2013]
(a) YES operation (b) NOT operation (c) AND operation (d) OR operation
28. The output of two inputs OR gate is 0 only when its [FBISE 2010]
(a) Both inputs are 0 (b) Either input is 1 (c) Both inputs are 1 (d) Either input is 0
29. Two input NAND gate with inputs A and B has one output zero if [DGK 08]
(a) B = 0 (b) Both A = B = 1 (c) Both A = B = 0 (d) None of these
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
CHAPTER 19 DAWN OF MODERN PHYSICS [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
[Relative Motion, Theory of Relativity]
1. At what speed would the mass of electron become double of its rest mass? [FBISE 11]
(a) 0.5c (b) 0.707c (c) 0.866c (d) 0.99c
2. Special theory of relativity is related to [ABT 09]
(a) Inertial frame (b) Positive frame (c) Negative frame (d) Non-inertial frame
3. Using relativistic effects the location of an air craft after an hr flight can be predicted about
(a) 20 m (b) 50 m (c) 760 m (d) 780 m
4. Relativistic velocity is of the order of [FBISE 13]
(a) 1/15th of the velocity of light (b) 1/20th of the velocity of light (c) 1/10th or more of the velocity of light (d) All of these
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
CHAPTER 20 ATOMIC SPECTRA [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
[Spectroscopy, Atomic Spectrum of Hydrogen Atom]
1. SI unit of Rydberg’s constant is [BHW 09, DGK 14]
(a) m-2 (b) ms (c) m-1 (d) ms-1
2. The value of Rydberg’s constant is [BHW 14-O, DGK 08, FBISE 15]
(a) 1.0274 x 107m-1 (b) 1.0794 x 107m-1 (c) 1.0974 x 10-7m-1 (d) 1.5974 x 10-7m-1
1 1 1
3. A series of spectral lines emitted by the H-atom according to the formula RH 2 2 , n 4,5, 6...
3 n
represents [FBISE 14]
(a) Bracket series (b) Pfund series (c) Balmer series (d) Paschen series
4. In hydrogen spectrum which one of the following series lies in the ultraviolet region? [FBISE 15]
(a) Balmer series (b) Paschen series (c) Pfund series (d) Lyman series
5. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum of Hydrogen, the balmer series lies? [FBISE 11]
(a) Infrared (b) Visible (c) Ultraviolet (d) Farultraviolet
[Bohr’s Atomic Model, Hydrogen Emission Spectrum]
6. The speed of an electron in nth orbit is given as [BHW 15]
4 2 ke 2 2 ke 2 4 ke 2 2 ke 2
(a) (b) (c) 2 2 (d)
nh nh nh nh
7. The velocity of electron in 1st orbit of H-atom is [DGK 14]
(a) 2.09 x 106 m/s (b) 2.19 x 106 m/s (c) 2.18 x 106 m/s (d) 3.18 x 106 m/s
8. As per Bohr’s atomic model, a minimum energy (eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state
of doubly ionized Li-atom is [FBISE 10]
(a) 1.51 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 40.8 eV (d) 122.4 eV
9. If an electron jumps from nth orbit of energy En to pth orbit of energy Ep and a photon of frequency f and
wavelenght λ is thus emitted then [BHW 12]
hc
(a) f En E p (b) En E (c) hf E p En (d) h E p En
10. The numerical value of ground state energy for hydrogen atom in electron volt is [BHW 11]
(a) -10 (b) 13.6 (c) 10 (d) -13.6
11. The radius of Hydrogen atoms of first shell was quantized which is [DGK 14, DGK 15]
(a) 0.0053 mm (b) 0.053 mm (c) 0.53 nm (d) 0.053nm
12. Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom is greater than radius of 1st orbit by [FBISE 12]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
13. If the ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, its ionization potential will be [FBISE 13]
(a) 13.6V (b) 136.0V (c) 3.4V (d) None of these
14. Which of the following is the innermost shell? [FBISE 13]
(a) M-shell (b) K-shell (c) L-shell (d) N-shell
15. If one or more electrons are completely removed from an atom, then atom is said to be [BHW 10]
(a) Excited (b) Ionized (c) Polarized (d) Stabilized
[X-Rays, CAT Scanner]
16. X-rays photon moves with a velocity of [DGK 11]
(a) Light (b) Less than velocity of light (c) Greater than velocity of light (d) Sound
17. X-rays are [DGK 09]
(a) High energy electrons (b) High energy photons (c) High energy protons(d) High energy neutrons
18. X-rays are similar in nature to [DGK 13]
(a) Cathode rays (b) Gamma rays (c) Positive rays (d) Alpha rays
19. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? [FBISE 2013]
(a) X-rays can damage the living tissues
(b) X-rays can cause ionization of atoms through photo ionization
(c) X-rays can be diffracted by crystal lattice
(d) X-rays cannot cause photoelectric effect
20. The radiation used to diagnose diseases of eye is [DGK 12]
(a) Ultraviolet rays (b) X-rays (c) He-Ne laser (d) Radio waves
21. When X-rays are passed through successive aluminum sheets, their hardness [FBISE 09, 13]
(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains same (d) None of these
22. The rest mass of X-ray photon is [BHW 10]
(a) Infinite (b) 9.1 x 10-31 kg (c) 1.67 x 10-27 kg (d) Zero
[LASER]
23. Laser process involves [FBISE 14]
(a) Induced absorption and spontaneous emission (b) Induced absorption and stimulated emission
(c) Spontaneous absorption and spontaneous emission (d) Spontaneous absorption and induced emission
24. Helium Neon laser beam emitted from a discharge tube has a colour [DGK 14]
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) Red (d) Black
25. He-Ne laser discharge tube contains Ne [DGK 08]
(a) 15 % (b) 18 % (c) 25 % (d) 80 %
26. Laser can only be produced in an atom is in its [DGK 11]
(a) Normal state (b) Excited state (c) Ionized state (d) De-excited state
27. Laser can be made by creating [BHW 14]
(a) Meta stable state (b) Population inversion (c) Excited state (d) All of these
28. An atom can reside in excited state for [DGK 13]
(a) 10-8s (b) One sec (c) 10-3s (d) 10-10s
29. The residing time of atoms in meta stable state in case of laser action is [BHW 11, FBISE 12]
(a) 10-5s (b) 10-8s (c) 10-3s (d) 103s
30. If number of atoms in metastable state (E2) is “N2” and in ground state (E1) is “N1”, the population inversion
means [FBISE 14]
N E
(a) N 2 N1 (b) N 2 N1 (c) N 2 N1 (d) 1 2
N 2 E1
31. For holograph we use a beam of [BHW 13]
(a) γ-rays (b) X-rays (c) β-rays (d) Laser
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
CHAPTER 21 NUCLEAR PHYSICS [PAST PAPERS]
Note: Each statement has FOUR possible answers. Select the correct answer and tick it.
[Atomic Nucleus, Nuclear Mass]
1. The number of neutrons in a nucleus is [FSD 08]
A Z A Z
(a) N A Z (b) N A Z (c) N (d) N
2 2
2. The number of protons in any atom are always eual to [FSD 10, LHR 10, LHR 13]
(a) Electrons (b) Neutrons (c) Positrons (d) Mesons
3. Neutron was discovered by [DKG 15, LHR 11, LHR 12, MLN 10]
(a) Thomson (b) Rutherford (c) Chadwick (d) Dalton
4. The chemical properties of an element depends only upon the number of [GRW 09, RWP 10]
(a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Electrons (d) Mesons
5. The particle which has its mass number and charge number equal to zero is [RWP 09]
(a) Proton (b) Electron (c) Neutron (d) Photon
235
6. Number of neutrons in 92U are [DGK 13]
(a) 92 (b) 235 (c) 143 (d) 100
7. As mass number increase, which of the following does not change? [FBISE 2010]
(a) Mass (b) Volume (c) Density (d) Binding energy
8. On unified mass scale, 1u equals [LHR 04, MLN 12]
(a) 12 g (b) 1.66 x 10-12 g (c) 1.66 x 10-24 g (d) 1.66 x 10-12 kg
9. The rest mass of X-ray photon is [GRW 05]
(a) 9.1 x 10-31 kg (b) 1.67 x 10-31 kg (c) 1.60 x 10-31 kg (d) Zero
[Isotopes, Mass Spectrograph, Mass Defect, Binding Energy]
10. The number of isotopes of Helium is [SAR 11]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
11. The number of isotopes of caesium are [LHR 15]
(a) 4 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 22
12. Both Xenon and Cesium each have isotopes [DGK 13, 15, MLN 11]
(a) 12 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) 39
235
13. The quantity of 92U in the naturally occuring uranium is [DGK 14]
(a) 0.2% (b) 0.3% (c) 0.7% (d) 4%
14. In mass specrograph mass of each ion reaching the detector is proportional to [MLN 12]
(a) 92U 235 (b) 92U 234 (c) 92U 238 (d) None of these
15. Binding energy can be found by relation [BHW 10]
m 1
(a) E 2 (b) E mc 2 (c) E mv 2 (d) E mgh
c 2
16. The energy equivalent to one atomic mass unit is [FBISE 09]
(a) 1.6 x 10-19J (b) 6.02 x 1023J (c) 931MeV (d) 9.31MeV
17. One amu is equal to [DGK 08, FBISE 13, 14, SAR 15, DGK 12, FBISE 11, FSD 13]
(a) 931 MeV (b) 9.31 MeV (c) 93.1 MeV (d) 0.931 MeV
18. The energy required to break a nucleus of an atom is called
(a) Atomic energy (b) Nuclear energy (c) Binding energy (d) Breaking energy
19. Binding energy for deutron nucleus is given by [LHR 15]
(a) 2.8 MeV (b) 2.23 MeV (c) 2.28 MeV (d) 2.25 MeV
20. The binding energy of iron is [DGK 15]
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 8.6 MeV (c) 8.8 MeV (d) 6.6 MeV
[Radioactivity, Nuclear Transmutation, α-, β-, γ-Decays, Half Life]
21. Radioactivity happens due to disintegration of [SAL 13]
(a) Nucleus (b) Mass (c) Electrons (d) Protons
22. Curie is a unit of [MLN 08]
(a) Conductivity (b) Binding energy (c) Resistivity (d) Radioactivity
23. One Curie is equal to [SAR 10]
(a) 3.70 x 10-10 Bq (b) Binding energy (c) Resistivity (d) Radioactivity
24. Radiations emitted by a radioactive element are [DGK 08]
(a) Visible (b) Visible by pyrex glass (c) Invisible (d) None of these
25. The element formed due to a radioactive decay is called [DGK 08]
(a) Parent element (b) Daughter element (c) Mother element (d) None of these
26. α-particle contains [SAR 12]
(a) 1 proton and 1 neutron (b) 2 protons and 2 neutrons (c) 3 protons and 3 neutrons (d) 4 protons and 4
neutrons
27. α-particle consist of [RWP 10]
(a) Positively charged particles (b) Negatively charged particles
(c) Neutral particles (d) Photons
28. α-particle carries a charge [BHW 15, GRW 15]
(a) -e (b) +2e (c) -2e (d) No charge
29. By emitting α particle, the nucleus losses its mass by [DGK 14]
(a) 1 amu (b) 2 amu (c) 3 amu (d) 4 amu
30. When a nucleus emits α-particle, its mass number drops by [SAL 13]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
31. When α particle is emitted from any nucleus, its mass number ____ and its charge number ____ [GRW 12]
(a) increases by 2, increases by 2 (b) decreases by 4, increases by 2
(c) decreases by 4, decreases by 2 (d) decreases by 4, decreases by 4
32. When a nucleus emits an alpha particle, its atomic mass decreases by [DGK 15]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
233
33. If 92U is decayed twice by α-emission, then the resulting isotope is [FBISE 15]
229 233 233 225
(a) 92 Y (b) Y
88 (c) Y
92 (d) Y
88
226 A
34. The emission of α-particle from 88 Ra results into the formation of new element Y in a reaction
Z
226
88 Ra Y , where Y stands for [FBISE 2014]
A
Z
A
Z
230 234 222 226
(a) 88 Y (b) Y
84 (c) Y
86 (d) Y
84
37. When a β particle is emiited, out of any nucleus, then its mass number [MLN 11]
(a) Increase (b) No change (c) Decrease (d) Infinity
38. By emitting β-particle and γ-particle simultaneously the nucleus changes its charge by [LHR 12]
(a) Losses by 1 (b) Increases by 1 (c) Increases by 2 (d) No change will be
observed
39. β-particle carries a charge [LHR 14]
(a) +e (b) -e (c) +2e (d) All of these
40. The mass of β-particles is equal to the mass of [BHW 14, FSD 16, LHR 05]
(a) Protons (b) Electron (c) Neutron (d) Boson
41. The ionizing power of β particle is [DGK 14]
(a) Equal to α particle (b) Equal to γ particle (c) Greater than α particle (d) less than α particle
42. When a radioactive nucleus emits a β particle, the proton-neutron ratio [GRW 10]
(a) Remains the same (b) Increases (c) Decreases (d) Equals 1
43. Which is the equation of beta decay? [FSD 11]
(a) ZA X Z A1Y 10e (b) ZA X AZ1Y 10e (c) ZA X Z A1Y 10e (d) ZA X ZA11Y 10e
44. γ-emission from the nucleus of an atom causes a [SAR 15]
(a) Change in Z (b) Change in A (c) Change in both A & Z (d) No change in A & Z
233
45. If 92U is decayed twice by γ-emission, then the resulting isotope is [FBISE 15]
(a) 229
92 M (b) 232
92 M (c) 243
80 M (d) None of these
46. Cobalt-60 emits γ-rays of energy [FBISE 13]
(a) 117 MeV (b) 11.7 MeV (c) 1.17 MeV (d) 1.17 BeV
47. Which one is a better shield against γ-rays? [MLN 12]
(a) Wood (b) Lead (c) Aluminium (d) Water
48. Which particle has larger range in air [LHR 15]
(a) α-particle (b) γ-particle (c) β-particle (d) Neutron
49. Extremely penetrating particles are [GRW 13, MLN 09, RWP 08]
(a) Neutrons (b) α particles (c) β particles (d) γ particles
50. Which of the following has no charge [BHW 14, LHR 13]
(a) α-rays (b) β -rays (c) γ -rays (d) Cathode rays
51. Which of the following is similar to electron [BHW 11]
(a) α-particle (b) β-particle (c) Neutrino (d) Photon
52. An electric force can deflect [DGK 08, FBISE 10]
(a) Neutrons (b) γ-Rays (c) Both a and b (d) None
53. Which is true for both α-particles and γ-rays [LHR 14]
(a) They cause ionization in air (b) They can be deflected by electric field
(c) They can be deflected by electric field (d) They can penetrate a few millimeter of
aluminum
54. A mutually occurring disintegration involving the emission of high energy electrons is called [FBISE 15]
(a) Positron Decay (b) Beta Decay (c) Gamma Decay (d) Alpha Decay
55. Which of the following is not the nuclear radiaton? [DGK 10]
(a) Alpha particle (b) Beta particle (c) Gamma rays (d) X-rays
56. Colour television (while operating) emits [BHW 12]
(a) α-particle (b) β-particle (c) γ-ryas (d) X-rays
57. The half-life of radioactive element is [FBISE 13]
0.693
(a) T1 (b) T1 1.43 (c) T1 0.693 (d) None of these
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