Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Question 27. You are presented with a 30-year old male Question 32. A 40-year old patient comes in with acute onset
patient who presents with frequent falls on the right side of his of right-sided weakness. On neurologic examination, you were
body. Upon neurologic examination, you elicit that he has able to elicit 1/5 strength on the right side of face, right arm and
dysmetria and intention tremor on the right side, explaining his right leg, in addition to numbness of the entire right side and
tendency to fall on that side. Which of the following is the best (+) Babinski reflex.
method to test for a cerebellar lesion? A. Cortex
A. Finger to Nose Test B. Subcortex
B. Romberg’s Sign C. Brainstem
C. Tandem Gait D. Spinal Cord
Answer: B. Apply the steps in neurolocalizaton. Using these steps, we can localize the lesion to the subcortex due
D. Rapid Alternating Movements to equal affectation of the face, arm and legs.
Answer: A. The finger-to-nose test is the best test to test for a cerebellar lesion. Remember that a right-sided
dysmetria and intention tremor most likely indicates a right-sided cerebellar lesion. Romberg’s sign indicates a
multisensory deficit. Tandem gait tests mainly the motor system and cerebellar system. Rapid Alternating
Question 33. Patient W.S. is a 50-year old patient who came
Movements is used to elicit dysdiachokinesia. in due to right-sided numbness, tendency to fall on the left side
and left-sided facial numbness associated with dysarthria,
Question 28. A patient comes to your clinic due to complaints
dysphonia and vertigo. Without doing your neurologic
of weakness of his lower extremities. On neurologic
examination, where can this lesion be localized?
examination, you observe that he needs to lift his legs higher
than normal to be able to walk properly. This characteristic gait A. Cortex
is called ___ and is caused by foot drop due to loss of ___? B. Subcortex
C. Brainstem
A. Steppage Gait, Plantarflexion
D. Cerebellum
B. Waddling Gait, Knee Flexion Answer: C. Apply the steps in neurolocalizaton. Using these steps, we can localize the lesion to the brainstem due
C. Waddling Gait, Knee Extension to the crossed deficits, specifically in the medulla, a syndrome called Wallenberg Syndrome secondary to
occulusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery.
D. Steppage Gait, Dorsiflexion
Answer: D. The steppage gait is characterized by loss of dorsiflexion, and along with waddling gait, maybe one of
the earliest clinical signs of a motor neuron disease, such as ALS.
Question 34. Cerebellar lesions usually manifest with all of the
following symptoms, EXCEPT?
A. Decreased muscle tone
B. Nystagmus
C. Action tremor
D. Hemiparesis
Answer: D. Remember the mnemonic HANDST, which stands for hypotonia, asynergy of antagonist muscles,
nystagmus, dysmetria/dysarthria, stance and gait problems, and tremors (action/intention > resting).
Question 35. A 37-year old patient comes to your clinic for Question 41. A 40-year old male patient comes in complaining
long-standing shooting pain that radiates down his right leg. of weakness of right arm weakness followed by right leg
There is associated weakness of the bilateral extremities, weakness, left leg weakness and left arm weakness. There is
rendering him unable to stand and walk properly without now noted difficulty in swallowing. On neurologic examination,
assistance. Where can this lesion be localized? he has a hyporeflexic biceps and triceps reflex, and
A. Cortex hyperreflexic patellar and ankle reflexes, (+) Babinski sign.
B. Subcortex Where is the most likely location of the patient’s lesion?
C. Brainstem A. Motor Neuron
D. Spinal Cord B. Root
Answer: D. This is specifically a lesion probably in the lower thoracic to upper lumbar region of the spinal cord,
affecting nerve roots, hence causing the characteristic pain seen in radiculopathy. C. Peripheral Nerve
D. Nerve Plexus
Question 36. A 28-year old man is seen at the ER following a Answer: A. This is a case of motor neuron disease, commonly seen in ALS or Lou Gehrig’s Disease. Note the
hallmark of mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, and also characteristic asymmetry on initial presentation
motorcycle crash accident occurring a few minutes PTC. You becoming symmetric when the disease becomes chronic in duration.
A. Transient and irreversible alteration of behavior caused by a Question 65. The most common site for an intracerebral
paroxysmal, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from hemorrhage to occur is in the ___?
pathologically excitable neurons.
A. Putamen
B. Transient and reversible alteration of behavior caused by a
B. Subthalamic Nucleus
paroxysmal, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from
C. Internal Capsule
pathologically excitable neurons.
D. Cerebellum
C. Transient and irreversible alteration of behavior caused by a Answer: A.
occasional, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from
pathologically excitable neurons. Question 66. A 75-year old patient was brought to the ER after
D. Transient and reversible alteration of behavior caused by a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and numbness with
occasional, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from slurring of speech. He went to bed at 2300H and was seen with
pathologically excitable neurons. these symptoms at 0500H the following day. What is the time
Answer: B. This definition closely resembles that of syncope but there are indeed a few differences, especially in of ictus and time that thrombolytics can be given based on the
the pathophysiology of seizures
golden hour of stroke?
A. 2300H, thrombolytics must ideally be given at 0200H
Question 61. The correct definition for seizure is ___? B. 2300H, thrombolytics must ideally be given at 0330H
A. Transient and irreversible alteration of behavior caused by a C. 0500H, thrombolytics must ideally be given at 0800H
paroxysmal, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from D. 0500H, thrombolytics must ideally be given at 0930H
Answer: A. Note that the time of ictus is the time that the patient was last seen normal and not the time at which
pathologically excitable neurons. he/she woke up already manifesting with the aforementioned symptoms. Golden hour is ideally at 3 hours but it
B. Transient and reversible alteration of behavior caused by a can be stretched to 4.5 hours.
paroxysmal, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from Question 67. The patient above (refer to Question 68) has a
pathologically excitable neurons. stroke most probably localized to the MCA. What visual deficit
C. Transient and irreversible alteration of behavior caused by a can we expect from the patient given his other neurologic
occasional, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from symptoms?
pathologically excitable neurons. A. Inferior quadrantonopsia
D. Transient and reversible alteration of behavior caused by a B. Superior quadrantonopsia
occasional, abnormal and excessive neuronal discharge from C. Homonymous Hemianopsia
pathologically excitable neurons. D. Bitemporal Hemianopsia
Answer: B. This definition closely resembles that of syncope but there are indeed a few differences, especially in
Answer: A. Note and remember the visual pathway as it passes through the parietal lobe area, where the superior
the pathophysiology of seizures
loop of the optic radiations is located.
Question 68. The mnemonic “SNOOPS” can be used to
identify red flags for headache and the mnemonic covers all of
the following red flag symptoms, EXCEPT:
A. Fever and stiff neck
B. Sudden onset
C. Neurologic deficits
D. Recurrent but constant in intensity
Answer: D. recurrent but constant in intensity of headaches is not a red flag since this points towards a primary
benign etiology. However, if it is becoming more frequent and increasing in intensity, that is a red flag.