Adda247 Magazine 277

10 Previous Year’s Papers
with Detailed Solutions

IBPS PO | SBI CLERK | SBI PO
CONTENTS
Mock 01: IBPS PO Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 03
Mock 05: SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 60
Mock 06: SBI Clerk Prelims 2020 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 74
Mock 07: SBI Clerk Prelims 2019 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 87
Mock 08: SBI PO Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 99
Mock 09: SBI PO Prelims 2020 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115
Mock 10: SBI PO Prelims 2019 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 130

Mock IBPS PO Prelims 2021
01
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-3): A word has been given in each question

With the advancement of digital technology, excessive
and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify
screen time has become a grave concern. This has pushed
the statements where the word has been used in a
researchers and practitioners to focus on digital well-
contextually and grammatically correct manner. If the
being. Screen time during COVID-19 has further increased
word has been used incorrectly in all the statements,
as a result of public health measures enforced by
mark (e), “None of these”, as your answer.
governments to curb the pandemic. A lack of
1. Fellow comprehensive empirical overviews on screen time in the
(i) The Central Vigilance Commission asked all COVID-19 era in the present literature prompted us to
public sector banks to fellow time limit set by it conduct this review. The present review attempts to
for timely completion of disciplinary understand the virtual social connectedness, excessive use
proceedings. of digital technology, its consequences and suggest
(ii) Company is seeking highly motivated research strategies to maintain healthy use of digital technology.
fellow to perform high-impact Though there are mixed consequences of prolonged screen
(iii) Volunteers help fellow villagers access time use and blurred understanding between healthy and
healthcare in conflict-affected eastern Ukraine. unhealthy social connectedness over digital media, the
(a) only (i) (b) only (ii) (c) both (ii) and (i) suggestions for negative implications on (physical and)
(d) both (ii) and (iii) (e) none of these mental health warrant a strict need for inculcating healthy
digital habits, especially knowing that digital technology is
2. Accent
here to stay and grow with time.
(i) There has been much discussion about
celebrity’s accent in a reality show. The last two decades have seen a thriving future in the use
(ii) Temple jewellery was mostly made from gold of digital technology. It has accelerated human exposure to
and silver and finished with handcrafted prolonged bright screen which is becoming a growing
accents. concern. Digital technology is essentially the use of
(iii) Succeeding public authorities cannot accent the electronic devices to store, generate or process data; it
work of their predecessors. facilitates communication and virtual interactions on
(a) only (ii) social media platforms using the internet. The COVID-19
(b) both (i) and (ii) pandemic has forced people to rely on digital networks as
(c) both (ii) and (iii) their only method of maintaining a socio-emotional
(d) all (i), (ii), (iii) connection, but it has also made it a shallow one. Digital
(e) none of these technology is influencing how people use digital devices to
maintain, or avoid social relations or how much time to
3. Wind
spend on virtual social connectedness. Screen time refers
(i) It stated that the Officers must establish a close
to the amount of time spent and the diverse activities
wind with laboratories for expediting the results
performed online using digital devices. For instance,
of genomic analysis
screen time encompasses both, using digital devices for
(ii) Wind your arm with a bandage.
work purposes as well as for leisure and entertainment.
(iii) The wind of a university is often judged by the
collective achievements of its alumni The COVID-19 pandemic came with restrictions,
(a) only (ii) regulations and stay-at-home orders. Many individuals
(b) both (i) and (ii) could not return to their homes, many stuck in foreign
(c) both (ii) and (iii) lands and many in solitude. As a result, the usage of digital
(d) all (i), (ii), (iii) devices has increased manifold across the globe. The
(e) none of these addiction to the digital devices has started to run in the
genes of individuals. Irrespective of age, people are pushed
Directions (4-13): Read the following passage and answer to rely on digital platforms. Education, shopping, working,
the given questions based on the information provided in meeting, entertaining and socializing suddenly leaped
the passage.
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from offline to online. Here, digital technology came as a 8. Why has prolonged screen time caused concerns on
blessing in disguise, enabling individuals to remain physical and mental health?
emotionally connected despite social distancing. At the (a) It has resulted in a slew of psychological issues.
same time, prolonged screen time has caused concerns (b) Individuals have become emotionally stable as a
related to its impact on physical and mental health. While result of it.
mindful use of digital devices is linked with well-being, (c) It has increased the risk of depression and anxiety.
excessive screen time is reported to be associated with a (d) Only (a) and (c)
range of negative mental health outcomes such as (e) Both (a) and (b)
psychological problems, low emotional stability, and a 9. Which of the following statements with reference to
greater risk for depression or anxiety. the information provided in the given passage is/are
4. What, according to the author, is/are the major incorrect?
objective(s) of conducting a review on the usage of (a) Researchers have turned their attention to digital
digital technology? well-being as a result of excessive screen time on
(a) To recognize the idea of virtual social togetherness digital gadgets.
(b) The advancement of digital technology has seen a
(b) To suggest ideas for discontinuing the use of digital
promising future in the recent two decades.
technology
(c) Concerns about the impact of excessive screen
(c) To comprehend the suitable limit of digital
usage on physical and mental health have surfaced.
technology usage
(d) Only (a) and (b)
(d) Only (a) and (c)
(e) None of these
(e) Both (a) and (b)
10. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word
5. Why has the use of digital technology become more ‘RUN’, as highlighted in the given passage.
than a matter of concern? (a) Coast (b) Slide (c) Flow
(a) Because the future of digital technology is bright (d) Swipe (e) Ruin
for the next generation.
(b) Because it has suffocated interpersonal relations 11. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word
with its wide usage. ‘BRIGHT’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(c) Because it has elevated human exposure to long (a) Lucid (b) Dim (c) Glare
durations spent in front of a screen. (d) Canny (e) Ablaze
(d) Because it has seen a decrease in virtual 12. Which of the following statements best illustrates the
interactions on social media platforms. meaning of the phrase "digital technology came as a
(e) None of these blessing in disguise”, as expressed in the passage?
(a) Issues have been expressed about the effects of
6. Which of the following statements with reference to
excessive screen time on health.
screen time is/are correct?
(b) The activity of entertaining and gathering shifted
(a) It refers to the amount of time spent on digital
from offline to online.
devices while online. (c) Despite the social distance, digital technology has
(b) It refers to the amount of time incurred while enabled people to stay emotionally tied.
doing a variety of online activities carried out with (d) Long periods of screen time have raised worries
the use of digital gadgets. about physical and mental health.
(c) Only time spent on leisure and entertainment (e) All of these
activities is included in it.
(d) Only (a) and (c) 13. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word
(e) Both (a) and (b) ‘SHALLOW’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(a) superficial (b) frivolous (c) trivial
7. Why has the usage of digital devices increased (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) All of these
manifold across the globe?
(a) As a result of the regulations put in place to combat Directions (14-18): In each of the questions given below
the COVID-19 pandemic. a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the
option which gives the correct sequence of these words to
(b) Because of pandemic restrictions, many people
make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
remain trapped in foreign countries.
(c) Because interaction and amusement moved from 14. As the staying (A) lifestyle continues to evolve; a
the offline to the online world. phenomenon (B) that has been further accelerated
(d) Only (a) and (b) during the pandemic, is that of ‘modern (C) at home.’
(e) All of these (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA
(d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
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15. The death of five elephants has again reduce (A) the 21. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
gaps in efforts to highlighted (B) man-animal after rearrangement?
conflicts (C) in the country. (a) A (b) B (c) C
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) D (e) F
22. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence
16. The leap of artificial (A) intelligence in the students after rearrangement?
(B) sector has helped education (C) and educators. (a) A (b) B (c) E
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) D (e) F
23. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence
17. The additional budget for MGNREGA was among the
after rearrangement?
most threatened (A) awaited, as pending payments
for wages have keenly (B) to cripple implementation (a) A (b) B (c) C
(C) of the scheme. (d) D (e) F
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB Directions (24-25): In the following question, sentences
(d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold
18. The cyclone will briefly gain in severe (A) and become may or may not contain an error. The options following can
a conventional (B) cyclonic storm, but is unlikely to replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to
make a strength (C) landfall. be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB correct then select ‘No improvement required’ as your
(d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required answer.
Directions (19-23): In the following questions six 24. The Government’s new policies intended to double
sentences are given. Further, these sentences may or may incomes of farmers, which has been languishing while
not form a contextually meaningful sequence. You have to stock markets are soaring.
rearrange these sentences to make a contextually (a) who have been
meaningful paragraph. The sentence (F), which has already (b) that has being
been highlighted, would be the LAST sentence after (c) which was been
rearrangement. Later, answer the follow-up questions. (d) which have been
(A) The train initially operated on horse-drawn traffic (e) No improvement required
were later replaced in 1856 by steam locomotives.
(B) The ability of Serbian Railways to transport goods and 25. Prime Minister will came Dehradun on next Monday
people efficiently made economic development to inaugurate and lay the foundation stone of multiple
possible. projects.
(C) The history of rail transport in Serbia began in the mid- (a) will visit (b) was coming (c) have gone
19th century when most of the territory was still held (d) had visited (e) No improvement required
by the Austro-Hungarian and Ottoman Empires.
(D) Part of the line was located in Serbia passing through Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out
Bela Crkva while the rest is in Romania. whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
(E) The first rail line on the present-day territory of Serbia The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
was inaugurated on 20 August 1854, between Lisava- number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the
Oravica-Bazijaš . answer is ‘e’). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
(F) It continued with modified business activity:
26. The Manager (A)/, as well as (B)/ the team members,
engineering and technical consulting, consulting
(C)/ are excited. (D)
activities in the field of information technology and
(a) A (b) B (c) C
other information technology services etc.
(d) D (e) No error
19. Which of the following would be the correct order of
sentences after rearrangement? 27. Diabetes affect(A)/ many people (B)/ around (C)/ the
(a) DEBACF (b) CDEBAF (c) ABCEDF world. (D)
(d) BACEDF (e) CEDABF (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) No error
20. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement? 28. Not for a moment (A)/ I think I would be (B)/ offered
(a) A (b) B (c) C the job, (C)/ so I was amazed when I got it. (D)
(d) D (e) F (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) No error

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29. Sheela will have (A)/ reached her (B)/ grandparents’ 30. It had (A)/ stopped raining (B)/ when I (C)/ had left
house (C)/ by this time next week.(D) the office. (D)
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) No error (d) D (e) No error
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (31 – 35): What will come in the place of 39. If shop X sold 50% more pens than shop A and total
questions (?) mark in following number series. books sold by shop X is 20 less than that of by shop C,
31. 8, 12, 30, 105, ?, 2598.75 then find total pens sold by X is what percent more
(a) 472.5 (b) 470.5 (c) 476.5 than total books sold by X?
(d) 471.5 (e) 468.5 (a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 30%
32. 9, 19, 39, 79, ?, 319 (d) 40% (e) 10%
(a) 221 (b) 175 (c) 125 40. Find the ratio of total pens sold by shop A to total books
(d) 159 (e) 199 sold by shop C?
33. 580, 557, 528, 497, ?, 419 (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 4
(a) 463 (b) 457 (c) 461 (d) 2 : 5 (e) 1 : 4
(d) 459 (e) 460
Directions (41–45): In the following questions, there are
34. 81, 72, 136, 111, ?, 278 two equations in x and y. You have to solve both the
(a) 325 (b) 347 (c) 323 equations and give answer.
(d) 327 (e) 321 (a) if x > y
35. 14, 20, 28, 39, ?, 74 (b) if x < y
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 54 (c) if x ≥ y
(d) 56 (e) 59 (d) if x ≤ y
(e) if x = y or there is no relation between x and y
Direction (36 – 40): Table given below shows ratio of
books to pens sold by four different shops and it also shows 41. I. 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 40 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 − 11𝑦 + 30 = 0
average number of books and pens sold by these four
shops. 42. I. 2𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 − 15 = 0 II. 3𝑦 2 + 5𝑦 − 12 = 0
Ratio of total books Average number 43. I. 2𝑥 2 + 26𝑥 + 84 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 + 15𝑦 + 56 = 0

Shops to pen sold of books & 44. I. 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 221 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 − 𝑦 − 132 = 0
(books : Pens) Pens sold
A 4:1 100 45. I. 𝑥 2 − 13𝑥 + 42 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 − 17𝑦 + 72 = 0
B 1:3 60 46. Jaya & Shivani invested Rs. 5000 & Rs. 6000
C 2:3 75 respectively in a business. After six-month Riya join
D 3:2 90 the business with capital of Rs. 3000 and Jaya left the
business. If at the end of one year the difference
36. If shop D sold each book at Rs. 75 & each pen at Rs. 30, between profit share of Jaya & Riya is Rs. 200, then find
then find the total earning (in Rs.) of shop D by selling the profit share (in Rs.) of Shivani.
all the books and pens? (a) 3000 (b) 2400 (c) 4200
(a) 10220 (b) 10240 (c) 10260 (d) 3600 (e) 1200
(d) 10360 (e) 10460
47. If ratio of radius to height of a cylinder in 7 : 6 and
37. Total books sold by shop B is what percent less than curved surface area of cylinder is 1056 cm 2 , then find
total pens sold by shop C? the total surface area of cylinder?
2 1 2
(a) 63 3 % (b) 33 3 % (c) 60 3 % (a) 2218 cm2 (b) 2228 cm2 (c) 2248 cm2
2 1 (d) 2288 cm 2 (e) 2268 cm 2
(d) 66 3 % (e) 66 3 %
48. Ram spend 20% of his monthly income on rent, 10%
38. Find difference between average number of books sold
from the remaining income he spends on food, 30% on
by A & C and total pens sold by B? 2
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 15 travel and th amount he gives to his mother. If the
5
(d) 25 (e) 20 difference between amount he spends on travel &

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amount he gives to his mother is Rs. 11200, then find Directions (56-60): Study the charts given below
the monthly income of Ram? carefully and answer the following questions.
(a) 120000 Rs. (b) 140000 Rs. (c) 150000 Rs.
Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total
(d) 180000 Rs. (e) 130000 Rs.
students (Science +Commerce) in 12th class of five different
49. Speed of bike is 10% less than speed of car and bike Zones and table shows the number of students in same
takes two hours more than car to cover 180 km class in science of same zones.
distance, while car covers 300 km. Find the speed (in
Total students (Science + Commerce) = 4000
km/hr) of bike?
(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 36
(d) 54 (e) 27
50. The ratio of present age of Aman to that of David is 2 :
Western Northern
5 and after ten years the sum of their age will be 69 Zone
years. Find the difference between present age of Zone
30% 25%
Aman & David?
(a) 14 years (b) 21 years (c) 17 years
(d) 19 years (e) 7 years Easter Zone
Central 10%
51. A vessel contains total 95 liter mixture of milk & water
Zone Southern
in the ratio of 15 : 4 respectively. X liter mixture of
20% Zone
mixture taken out from the vessel and 18 liters water
15%
added in the remaining mixture, then the new ratio of
milk to water becomes 3 : 2, find the value of X?
(a) 9.5 (b) 57 (c) 27.5
(d) 19 (e) 38 Zone Students in Science
Northern Zone 400
52. The ratio of speed of a boat in downstream to upstream Eastern Zone 310
is 5 : 3 and total time taken by boat to cover 30 km Southern Zone 430
distance in upstream is 5 hours. Find time taken by Central Zone 600
boat to cover 40 km in downstream. Western Zone 750
(a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 8 hours
(d) 2 hours (e) 3 hours 56. Number of students of commerce stream in Northern
Zone are what percent more or less than number of
53. A man invested Rs. 8000 in each schemes A & B. total students in Southern Zone.
Scheme A offers simple interest at the rate of 9% p.a. (a) 20% (b) 0% (c) 5%
for three years, while scheme B offers simple interest (d) 10% (e) 12.5%
at the rate of 8% p.a. for four years. Find the total
interest (in Rs.) get by man from both schemes. 57. Number of Commerce students in Western zone are
how much more than Science students in Northern
(a) 4700 (b) 4760 (c) 4780
zone, Eastern zone and Southern zone together.
(d) 4520 (e) 4720
(a) 660 (b) 770 (c) 630
2 (d) 730 (e) 690
54. A can do 25% of a work in 7 days, while B can do th of
7
the same work in 12 days. A and B start work together 58. If monthly library fee per student in Central zone for
and after 12 days both replace by C, who complete the commerce students is Rs.60 which is Rs.20 less than
remaining work in three days. Find in how many days that for science students, then find total monthly fee of
C can complete the same work alone? library of Central zone.
(a) 6.5 days (b) 7.5 days (c) 8.5 days (a) Rs.60000 (b) Rs.45000 (c) Rs.42000
(d) 10.5 days (e) 12.5 days (d) Rs.54000 (e) Rs.63000
55. A shopkeeper sold a table at 20% profit and a chair at 59. If Western zone also have Arts students and ratio of
profit of 25%. If the cost price of the chair is equal to sum of students of science and commerce in western
zone and Arts students in western zone is 5 : 7, then
the selling price of table and shopkeeper earned an
find Arts students in western zone are how much more
overall profit of Rs. 400, then find the sum of selling
than commerce students in Southern zone.
price of both the articles together?
(a) 1510 (b) 1430 (c) 1570
(a) 2160 Rs. (b) 1760 Rs. (c) 1960 Rs. (d) 1620 (e) 1690
(d) 2260 Rs. (e) 2460 Rs.
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60. Find ratio of science students in Western Zone to 62. Fabric bag sold by shop A is what percentage more
Commerce students in eastern zone. than paper bag sold by shop C?
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 22 : 9 (c) 21 : 8 (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 200%
(d) 17 : 5 (e) 25 : 3 (d) 100% (e) 150%
Directions (61-65): Read the given data carefully and 63. What is the difference between average number of
answer the following questions.
paper bag sold by all the shops and fabric bag sold by
There are 1080 (Fabric + paper) bag sold by shop A, B and all the shops?
C. (a) 110 (b) 108 (c) 106
(i) Shop A sold (paper + fabric) bag 25% more than shop (d) 103 (e) 115
B. Equal number of paper and fabric bag sold by shop
B. 64. Fabric bags sold by shop A and C together is how much
(ii) The number of paper bag sold by shop B is double the more or less than paper bag sold by shop B and C
fabric bag sold by A. together?
(iii) The number of paper bag sold by shop C is 50% of (a) 90 (b) 102 (c) 116
fabric bag sold by shop A. (d) 108 (e) 124
(iv) The number of fabric bag sold by shop C is 25% of that
by shop B. 65. Each paper bag and each fabric bag of shop A sold at
Rs. 10 and Rs.15 respectively. Find total revenue from
61. Find the ratio between paper bag sold by B and fabric selling paper bag and fabric bag of shop A?
bag sold by C?
(a) Rs.4750 (b) Rs.5280 (c) Rs.5940
(a) 4: 1 (b) 3: 2 (c) 5: 2
(d) Rs.5480 (e) Rs.6220
(d) 5: 4 (e) 5: 1
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (66-70): Study the following information and 69. Who among the following sits fourth to the right of the
answer the questions given below: one who faces Z?
(a) Y (b) P (c) K
Fourteen persons viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, S, K, L, M, N, Y and
(d) L (e) B
Z sit in two parallel rows (but not necessarily in the same
order) in such a way that seven persons sit in each row. A, 70. Four among the following five are alike in a certain way
B, P, Q, K, L and Y sit in row 1 and face north while C, D, R, and related to a group, who among the following does
S, M, N and Z sit in row 2 and face south. The persons in row not belong to the group?
1 sit exactly opposite to the persons sit in row 2. (a) Z (b) C (c) Q
(d) R (e) Y
Y sits diagonally opposite to Z. One person sits between Z
and R. P faces R and sits immediate right of A. The number 71. In the given number ‘85274369’, if all the odd digits
of persons sit between Y and A is same as the number of are decreased by 1 and all the even digits are
persons sit to the right of M. B sits second to the right of the decreased by 2, then what would be the sum of the
one who faces R. Three persons sit between B and Q. C sits digits which are not repeated in the new number
diagonally opposite to Q. C and D are immediate formed after rearrangement?
neighbours. N faces K. (a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 2
(d) 8 (e) None of these
66. Who among the following faces S?
(a) P (b) L (c) A Directions (72-74): In each of the questions below are
(d) B (e) None of these given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even, if they
67. Who among the following sits third to the left of L?
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
(a) Q (b) A (c) P
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
(d) K (e) Y
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
68. What is the position of M with respect to D? disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) Immediate right (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) Immediate left (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) Third to the left (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Second to the left (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) Second to the right (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

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72. Statements: Some key is chain. 79. Find the total number of persons sit in the row?
Some chain is plant. (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 15
All plant is lock. (d) 16 (e) Can’t be determined
Conclusion: I. No key is lock is a possibility.
II. All lock is plant. 80. If P sits exactly between V and R, then how many
persons sit between R and G?
73. Statements: Only a few story is real. (a) Three (b) Four (c) Seven
No real is drama. (d) Six (e) None of these
No drama is news.
Conclusion: I. Some story is not real. 81. What is the position of A with respect to W, if only four
II. Some news can be real. persons sits to the right of W?
(a) Immediate right
74. Statements: Only pen is city. (b) Third to the left
Some pen is black. (c) Fourth to the right
Only a few office is black. (d) Immediate left
Conclusion: I. Some black is not pen. (e) Second to the right
II. All office is pen.
Direction (82-85): In these questions, relationship
Direction (75-78): Study the following information and between different elements is shown in the statements.
answer the questions given below: The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the
Nine persons i.e., H, I, J, K, L, M, B, P and T visit three conclusions based on the given statements and select the
different cities viz. Mumbai, Pune and Bangalore but not appropriate answer:
necessarily in the same order. At least two persons but not (a) If only conclusion I follows.
more than four persons visit the same city. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
H visits with T. T does not visit Pune. K visits Mumbai. B (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
visits neither Pune nor with K. J visits only with P. More (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
than three persons visit Mumbai. L and I visit together. M
82. Statements: W > Q ≥ P < N ≤ A; N > R = X
does not visit with I.
Conclusions: I. A > X II. Q > N
75. Who among the following visits Pune?
83. Statements: V ≤ B ≤ M = S ≥ F ≥ G = H
(a) L (b) P (c) J
Conclusions: I. M > G II. M = H
(d) M (e) Both (b) and (c)
84. Statements: L ≤ C ≥ F > K ≥ D > M
76. Who among the following visits with K?
Conclusions: I. L < F II. C > D
(a) H (b) T (c) L
(d) Both (a) and (b) (e) None of these 85. Statements: N > V ≥ L ≥ O ≤ W ≤ A > D
Conclusions: I. N > O II. A > O
77. Four among the following five are same in a certain
manner and related to a group, who among the Direction (86-90): Study the following information
following does not belong the group? carefully to answer the given questions:
(a) K (b) B (c) M Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U live in a three-storey building
(d) T (e) H such that ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2
78. Which among the following pair is incorrect as per the then topmost floor is numbered as 3. Each of the floor has
data given? 2 flats in it as flat-A and flat-B. Flat-A of floor-2 is
(a) I-L (b) P-J (c) L-M immediately above flat-A of floor-1 and immediately below
(d) T-K (e) H-M flat-A of floor-3 and so on. In the same way flat-B of floor-2
is immediately above flat-B of floor-1 and immediately
Direction (79-81): Study the given information and below flat-B of floor-3 and so on. Flat-A is in west of flat-B.
answer the following questions: They like different country.
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and all face R lives in the east of the one who likes Norway. One person
north. Four persons sit between A and B. G sits second to lives between U and R but not live in the same flat number.
the right of B. One person sits between G and K. The The one who likes Russia live in the south-west of Q, who
number of persons sit between B and K is same as the live just above T’s flat. The one who likes Latvia does not
number of persons sit to the right of K. V sits fifth to the left live-in flat B. P lives just above S’s flat but not like Norway.
of G. P sits third from one of the extreme ends. P sits just The one who likes Kosovo lives above the one who likes
left of V. P sits to the left of A. Greece and live below the one who likes Serbia.

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86. Who among the following lives just below P’s flat? (a) 10m (b) 12m (c) 13m
(a) The one who likes Greece (d) 17m (e) None of these
(b) U (c) The one who likes Norway
94. If Point N is 12m to the East of Point Q, then what is the
(d) R (e) None of these
shortest distance between Point K and Point N?
87. Which of the following statement is true? (a) 12m (b) 10m (c) 9m
I. U lives on the 3rd floor (d) 8m (e) 16m
II. T does not like Kosovo
III. R lives in the odd number floor. Directions (95-99): Study the following information and
(a) Both I and III (b) Only I (c) Both II and III answer the given questions.
(d) Only II (e) Only III 5 persons like different color one after another. Only two
88. Who lives in Flat B of 2nd
floor? persons after the one who likes red. One person between D
(a) P (b) S (c) Q and the one who likes red. There are as many persons after
(d) T (e) R D as same as before the one who likes white. The one who
89. Who lives in the west of the one who likes Kosovo? likes Purple is before than one who likes White and after
(a) P the one who likes Yellow but not just after. O is before L
(b) The one who likes Russia and after M, who does not like Green. K is between M and
(c) Q O.
(d) The one who likes Norway 95. How many persons after M?
(e) Both (a) and (b) (a) Three (b) One (c) None
90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (d) Two (e) Four
so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to
96. Who among the following like Purple?
that group?
(a) L (b) K (c) O
(a) U-Serbia (b) P-Russia (c) T-Greece
(d) M (e) None of these
(d) S-Kosovo (e) Q-Latvia
97. The number of persons between O and L is same as the
91. In the given word “LAVISHLY” if all the consonants
replaced with its previous letter and all the vowels number of persons between __ and __?
replaced with its next letter after that remove all the (a) M-O (b) D-K (c) K-L
repeated letter and arranged them in alphabetical (d) M-K (e) O-D
order then, which of the following letters is 3rd from 98. How many persons between M and the one who likes
the left end? white?
(a) J (b) R (c) U (a) None (b) Two (c) Three
(d) G (e) B
(d) Either (b) or (c) (e) None of these
Directions (92-94): Study the following information and
99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
answer the given questions
Point K is 12m to the West of point G. Point M is 4m to the that group?
North of Point K. Point J is 10m to the South of Point L. Point (a) L-Purple (b) M-Yellow (c) O-Purple
F is 6m to the West of point J. Point G lies exactly between (d) K-Red (e) D-Green
Point L and Point J. Point F is 5m north of point O. Point Q
is 18m west of point O. 100. In the word ‘OBSEQUIOUS’, how many pairs of the letters
have the same number of letters between them in both
92. In which direction is Point J with respect to Point M? forward and backward direction in the word as in
(a) North (b) Northwest (c) South alphabetical series?
(d) Southeast (e) None of these
(a) More than four (b) One (c) None
93. What is the shortest distance between Point K and
(d) Three (e) Two
Point L?

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Solutions
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (d): The correct choice is option (d). The usage of on the information provided in the given passage.
fellow is correct in statement (ii) and statement Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
(iii) while in statement (i), fellow should be Refer to the last lines of the second paragraph,
replaced with ‘follow’. “Screen time refers to the amount of time spent and
Fellow means a person in the same position, the diverse activities performed online using digital
involved in the same activity, or otherwise devices. For instance, screen time encompasses
associated with another. both, using digital devices for work purposes as well
as for leisure and entertainment.”
2. (b): The correct choice is option (b). The usage of
accent is correct in statement (i) and statement 7. (e): All of the given statements are correct with
(ii) while in statement (iii), ‘accent’ should be reference to the context of the given question.
replaced with ‘undo’. Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
Accent means a distinctive way of pronouncing a Refer to the starting lines of the third paragraph,
language, especially one associated with a “The COVID-19 pandemic came with restrictions,
particular country, area, or social class. regulations and stay-at-home orders. Many
Accent in statement (ii) means a feature which individuals could not return to their homes, many
gives a distinctive visual emphasis to something. stuck in foreign lands and many in solitude. As a
Undo means cancel or reverse the effects or result, the run of digital devices has increased
results of (a previous action or measure). manifold across the globe. Irrespective of age,
people are pushed to rely on digital platforms.
3. (a): The correct choice is option (a). The usage of wind
Education, shopping, working, meeting,
is correct only in statement (ii) while in statement
entertaining and socializing suddenly leaped from
(i), ‘wind’ should be replaced with ‘coordination’
offline to online.”
and in statement (iii), ‘wind’ should be replaced by
‘significance’. Wind means to wrap. 8. (d): Among the given statements, only (a) and (c) are
correct with reference to the context of the given
4. (d): Among the given options, only (a) and (c) are
question. While statement (b) is incorrect. Hence,
option (d) is the right answer choice.
question. While statement (b) is incorrect. Hence,
Refer to the last lines of the third paragraph, “At
the same time, prolonged screen time has caused
Refer to the mid-lines of the first paragraph, “The
concerns related to its impact on physical and
present review attempts to understand the virtual
mental health. While mindful use of digital devices
social connectedness, excessive use of digital
is linked with well-being, excessive screen time is
technology, its consequences and suggest strategies
reported to be associated with a range of negative
to maintain healthy use of digital technology.”
mental health outcomes such as psychological
5. (c): Because it has increased human exposure to long problems, low emotional stability, and a greater
periods of time spent in front of a screen, the risk for depression or anxiety.”
usage of digital technology has become more than
9. (e): All of the given statements are correct with
a source of concern. Thus, we can infer that option
reference to the information provided in the given
(c) is the right answer choice.
passage. Thus, there is no incorrect statement.
Refer to the starting lines of the second paragraph,
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
“The last two decades have seen a bright future in
the use of digital technology. It has accelerated 10. (c): Among the given options, ‘flow’ is the most
human exposure to prolonged screen time which is appropriate synonym of the highlighted word.
becoming a growing concern.” Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. The
word ‘run’ means to pass or cause to pass quickly
6. (e): Among the given options, both (a) and (b) are
in a particular direction.
(a) Coast- the part of the land adjoining or near the
question. While statement (c) is incorrect based
sea.

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(b) Slide- move smoothly along a surface while 17. (b): The correct sequence is BAC. Therefore the
maintaining continuous contact with it. correct sentence will be “The additional budget
(c) Flow- the action or fact of moving along in a for MGNREGA was among the most keenly
steady, continuous stream. awaited, as pending payments for wages have
(d) Swipe- hit or try to hit with a swinging blow. threatened to cripple implementation of the
(e) Ruin- reduce (a building or place) to a state of scheme.”
decay, collapse, or disintegration. 18. (c): The correct sequence is CAB. Therefore the
11. (b): Among the given options, ‘dim’ is the most correct sentence will be “The cyclone will briefly
appropriate antonym of the highlighted word. gain in strength and become a severe cyclonic
Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. The storm, but is unlikely to make a conventional
word ‘bright’ means giving out or reflecting much landfall.
light; shining. While ‘dim’ means (of a light, colour, 19. (e): Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as
or illuminated object) not shining brightly or it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
clearly. which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
(a) Lucid- expressed clearly; easy to understand. Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions
(c) Glare- stare in an angry or fierce way. the inauguration of the first rail line. Further,
(d) Canny- having or showing shrewdness and sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it
good judgement. further describes the location of part of the rail
(e) Ablaze- filled with anger or another strong line which has already been described in
emotion. statement (E). Now, sentence (D) will be followed
by sentence (A) as it further describes the
12. (c): Among the given options, statement (c) best transformation of the type of train engine later.
illustrates the meaning of the highlighted phrase. Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. The (B) because it states the benefits of the train
phrase “blessing in disguise” means an apparent invention to the country’s economic development.
misfortune that eventually has good results. And it is given that sentence (F) will be the last
13. (e): All of the given words are similar in meaning to sentence Therefore, the correct rearrangement of
the highlighted word. Hence, option (e) is the right the given sentences would be “CEDABF”.
answer choice. The word ‘shallow’ means not 20. (d): Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as
exhibiting, requiring, or capable of serious it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
thought. which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
(a) superficial- lacking depth of character or Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions
understanding. the inauguration of the first rail line. Further,
(b) frivolous- not having any serious purpose or sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it
value. further describes the location of part of the rail
(c) trivial- of little value or importance. line which has already been described in
statement (E). Now, sentence (D) will be followed
14. (c): The correct sequence is CBA. Therefore, the
by sentence (A) as it further describes the
correct sentence will be” As the modern lifestyle
transformation of the type of train engine later.
continues to evolve; a phenomenon that has been
Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence
further accelerated during the pandemic, is that of (B) because it states the benefits of the train
‘staying at home.’” invention to the country’s economic development.
15. (b): The correct sequence is BAC. Therefore the And it is given that sentence (F) will be the last
correct sentence will be ‘The death of five sentence Therefore, the correct rearrangement of
elephants has again highlighted the gaps in the given sentences would be “CEDABF”.
efforts to reduce man-animal conflicts in the 21. (c): Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as
country. it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
16. (a): The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore the which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions
correct sentence will be “The leap of artificial
the inauguration of the first rail line. Further,
intelligence in the education sector has helped
sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it
students and educators. further describes the location of part of the rail

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line which has already been described in And it is given that sentence (F) will be the last
statement (E). Now, sentence (D) will be followed sentence Therefore, the correct rearrangement of
by sentence (A) as it further describes the the given sentences would be “CEDABF”.
transformation of the type of train engine later.
24. (d): The highlighted phrase in the given sentence is
Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence
incorrect. Because noun ‘incomes’ is plural so we
(B) because it states the benefits of the train
invention to the country’s economic development. need plural verb ‘have’ here therefore option (b)
And it is given that sentence (F) will be the last is also incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because
sentence Therefore, the correct rearrangement of we use ‘who’ as relative pronoun for living beings.
the given sentences would be “CEDABF”. Option (c) ‘was been’ is grammatically incorrect.
Therefore option (d) is correct choice.
22. (b): Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as
it best presents the theme of the given paragraph 25. (a): The highlighted phrase in the given sentence is
which is the history of the introduction of Serbian incorrect. The correct replacement should be “will
Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions visit”. The sentence is in simple future tense.
the inauguration of the first rail line. Further, Therefore, the structure should be Subject+ will +
sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it V1.
further describes the location of part of the rail
line which has already been described in 26. (d): When a phrase comes between the subject and the
statement (E). Now, sentence (D) will be followed verb, remember that the verb still agrees with the
by sentence (A) as it further describes the subject, not the noun or pronoun in the phrase
transformation of the type of train engine later. following the subject of the sentence. Since the
Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence subject “manager” is singular, the verb following
(B) because it states the benefits of the train should also be singular i.e., ‘is’.
invention to the country’s economic development.
27. (a): ‘Diabetes’ is a non-countable noun and all
And it is given that sentence (F) will be the last
Noncount nouns take a singular verb. Thus, ‘affect’
sentence Therefore, the correct rearrangement of
should be replaced by ‘affects’.
the given sentences would be “CEDABF”.
23. (a): Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as 28. (b): The error lies in part (B) of the sentence. We
it best presents the theme of the given paragraph invert the subject and verb if not + a prepositional
which is the history of the introduction of Serbian phrase or a clause is in the initial position. The
Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions correct phrase should be “ did I think I would be”.
the inauguration of the first rail line. Further, 29. (e): Future Perfect Tense is used to refer to an action,
sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it which would be completed at a time later on. Since
further describes the location of part of the rail the sentence correctly follows the structure of
line which has already been described in
future perfect tense, there is no error in it.
statement (E). Now, sentence (D) will be followed
by sentence (A) as it further describes the 30. (d): When two events of past are mentioned. The event
transformation of the type of train engine later. that occurred earlier will be in past perfect tense,
Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence while later event should follow the structure of
(B) because it states the benefits of the train simple past tense. Therefore, ‘had’ should be
invention to the country’s economic development. eliminated in part (D) of the sentence.
31. (a): Pattern of series – 79 × 2 + 1 = 159
8 × 1.5 = 12 159 × 2 + 1 = 319
12 × 2.5 = 30
30 × 3.5 = 105 33. (e): Pattern of series –
105 × 4.5 = 472.5 Subtraction of consecutive prime number –
472.5 × 5.5 = 2598.75 580 −23 = 557
557 −29 = 528
32. (d): Pattern of series – 528 − 31 = 497
9 × 2 + 1= 19 497 −37 = 460
19 × 2 + 1 = 39
460 − 41= 419
39 × 2 + 1 = 79

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34. (d): Pattern of series – 43. (c): I. 2𝑥 2 + 26𝑥 + 84 = 0
81 – 32 = 72 𝑥 2 + 13𝑥 + 42 = 0
72 + 43 = 136 𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 + 7𝑥 + 42 = 0
136 – 52 = 111 𝑥(𝑥 + 6) + 7(𝑥 + 6) = 0
111 + 63 = 327 (𝑥 + 6)(𝑥 + 7) = 0
327 – 72 = 278 𝑥 = −6, −7
35. (c): Pattern of series – II. 𝑦 2 + 7𝑦 + 8𝑦 + 56 = 0
𝑦(𝑦 + 7) + 8(𝑦 + 7) = 0
(𝑦 + 7)(𝑦 + 8) = 0
𝑦 = −7, −8
36. (c): Total earning of shop D = (90 × 2 × 5 × 75) +
3 So, 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
2
(90 × 2 × 5 × 30) 44. (e): I. 𝑥 2 − 17𝑥 + 13𝑥 − 221 = 0
𝑥(𝑥 − 17) + 13(𝑥 − 17) = 0
= 8100 + 2160 = 10260 Rs. (𝑥 − 17)(𝑥 + 13) = 0
1
37. (d): Total books sold by shop B = 60 × 2 × = 30 𝑥 = −13, 17
4
3 II. 𝑦 2 − 12𝑦 + 11𝑦 − 132 = 0
Total pens sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × 5 = 90
y(𝑦 − 12) + 11(𝑦 − 12) = 0
90−30 2
Required percentage = × 100 = 66 % (𝑦 − 12)(𝑦 + 11) = 0
90 3
4
𝑦 = −11, 12
38. (e): Total books sold by shop A = 100 × 2 × 5 = 160 So, no relation can be established
2
Total books sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × = 60 45. (b): I. 𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 − 6𝑥 + 42 = 0
5
Average number of books sold by shop A & C = x(x – 7) −6(x – 7) = 0
160+60
= 110 (x-7) (x-6) = 0
2
3 x = 6, 7
Total pens sold by shop B = 60 × 2 × = 90
4 II. 𝑦 2 − 9𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 72 = 0
Required difference = 110 – 90 = 20 y(y – 9) − 8(y – 9) = 0
1 150 (y-8) (y-9) =0
39. (b): Total pens sold by shop X =100 × 2 × 5 ×100 = 60
2
y = 8, 9
Total books sold by shop X = 75 × 2 × − 20 = 40 clearly, x < y
5
60−40
Required percentage = 40
× 100 = 50% 46. (e): Profit ratio of Jaya, Shivani & Riya = (5000 × 6) ∶
1 (6000 × 12): (3000 × 6)
40. (b): Total pens sold by shop A = 100 × 2 × = 40 = 5 : 12 : 3
5
2
Total books sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × = 60 ATQ –
5
Required ratio = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3 5 – 3 = 200
1 = 100 Rs.
41. (d): I. 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 − 5𝑥 − 40 = 0 So, 12 = 1200 Rs.
𝑥(𝑥 + 8) − 5(𝑥 + 8) = 0
(𝑥 + 8)(𝑥 − 5) = 0 47. (d): Let radius of cylinder = 7x
𝑥 = −8, 5 And, height of cylinder = 6x
II. 𝑦 2 − 11𝑦 + 30 = 0 ATQ –
22
𝑦 2 − 6𝑦 − 5𝑦 + 30 = 0 2 × × 7𝑥 × 6𝑥 = 1056
7
𝑦(𝑦 − 6) − 5(𝑦 − 6) = 0 x = 2 cm
(𝑦 − 6)(𝑦 − 5) = 0 22
𝑦 = 5, 6 Total surface area of cylinder = 2 × × 14 ×
7
So, 𝑦 ≥ 𝑥 (12 + 14) = 2288 cm2
42. (e): I. 2𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 − 3𝑥 − 15 = 0 48. (b): Let monthly income of Ram = 100x
20
2𝑥(𝑥 + 5) − 3(𝑥 + 5) = 0 So, total amount spends on Rent=100x ×100 = 20𝑥
(𝑥 + 5)(2𝑥 − 3) = 0
3 Total amount spends on food = (100x – 20x)
𝑥 = −5, 10
2 × 100 = 8𝑥
II. 3𝑦 2 + 9𝑦 − 4𝑦 − 12 = 0
Total amount spends on travel = (100x–20x)
3𝑦(𝑦 + 3) − 4(𝑦 + 3) = 0 30
(𝑦 + 3)(3𝑦 − 4) = 0 × 100 = 24𝑥
4 Amount he gives to his mother = (100x – 20x)
𝑦 = −3, 3
2
So, no relation can be established. × 5 = 32𝑥

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ATQ – ATQ,
32x – 24x = 11200 1 1
12 (28 + 42) + 3𝑥 = 1
x = 1400 2
So, monthly income of Ram = 140000 Rs. 𝑥= unit/day.
21
21
49. (b): Let speed of car = 10x km/hr Required time = = 10.5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠.
2
90
So, speed of bike = 10x × 100 = 9𝑥 km/hr 55. (a): Let cost price of table = 100a
120
ATQ – So, selling price of table = 100a × 100 = 120𝑎
300 180
10𝑥
− 9𝑥 = 2 And cost price of chair = 120a
125
x=5 Then, selling price of chair = 120a x 100 = 150𝑎
Speed of bike = 45 km/hr ATQ –
50. (b): Let present age of Aman & David be 2s and 5s (120a + 150a) - (100a + 120a) = 400
respectively a = 8 Rs.
ATQ – So, selling price of both articles together = (120
(2s + 10) + (5s + 10) = 69 × 8 + 150 × 8) = 2160 Rs.
7s = 49 56. (b): Commerce students in Northern zone
S = 7 years 25
Required difference = (5 -2) × 7 = 21 years = (4000 × ) − 400 = 600
100
15 Total students in Southern zone
51. (e): Total milk in mixture initially= 95 × =75 liters 15
19
4
= (4000 × 100) = 600
Total water in mixture initially = 95 × 19=20 liters 600−600
15
Required % = × 100 = 0
75−𝑋× 600
3
ATQ – 4
19
=2 57. (e): Commerce students in Western zone
20−𝑋× +18
19
30
X = 38 liters = (4000 × ) − 750 = 450
100
52. (a): Let speed of boat in still water and speed of stream Science students in Northern zone, Eastern zone
be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively and Southern zone = 400 + 310 + 430 = 1140
(𝑥+𝑦) 5
= Required difference = 1140 – 450 = 690
(𝑥−𝑦) 3
3x + 3y = 5x – 5y 58. (a): Commerce students in Central zone
4000×20
2x = 8y = 100 −600 = 200
x:y=4:1 Total monthly library fee = 600 × 80 + 200 × 60
ATQ = 48000 + 12000
Let speed of boat in still water = 4s km/hr = Rs.60000
And speed of stream = s km/hr
30 59. (a): Arts students in Western zone
=5 30 7
3𝑠 = (4000 × ) × = 1680
S = 2 km/hr 100 5
40 Commerce students in Southern zone
Required time = = 4 hours 15
(5×2)
= (4000 × 100) − 430 = 170
Alternate method
𝑢𝑝𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑚 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 3𝑥 Required difference = 1680 – 170 = 1510
𝑑𝑜𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑚 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑
= 5𝑥
30 60. (e): Commerce students in Eastern Zone
Upstream speed of boat= 5 = 6𝑘𝑚 /ℎ𝑟 10
= (4000 × ) − 310 = 90
3x=6=> x=2 100
Downstream speed= 5x= 5×2= 10km /hr Required ratio = 750 : 90 = 25 : 3
40
Time taken by boat in downstream= 10 = 4 ℎ𝑟𝑠 Solutions (61-65):
Total number of bag sold by A, B, C → 1080
9×3 8×4
53. (e): Required sum = 8000 × 100 + 8000 × 100 Let total bag sold by shop B be 4x.
= 2160 + 2560 = Rs 4720 Shop A sold → 5x (paper + fabric) bag.
54. (d): Time taken by A to complete the whole work = 28 Shop B sold equal no. of paper and fabric bag =
days. No. of paper bag sold by shop B = 2x
Time taken by B to complete the whole work = 12 No. of fabric bag sold by shop B = 2x.
7 2𝑥
× 2 = 42 days. No. of fabric bag sold by A = =x
2
Let the efficiency of C = x units/day Number of fabric bag sold by C = 0.5x

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50 216 4
Number of paper bag sold by C = 𝑥 × 100 = 0.5𝑥 61. (a): Required ratio = 54
=1
ATQ. 108−54
4𝑥 + 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 0.5𝑥 + 0.5𝑥 = 1080 62. (d): Required percentage = 54
× 100 = 100%
𝑥 = 108 702 378
63. (b): Required difference = − = 108
Shop Paper Fabric Total 3 3
A 432 108 540 64. (d): Required difference = (216 + 54) − (108 + 54)
B 216 216 432 = 270 − 162 = 108
C 54 54 108
Total 702 378 1080 65. (c): Required sum = 108 × 15 + 432 × 10 = Rs.5940
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (66-70): 83. (c): I. M > G (False) II. M = H (False)
84. (b): I. L < F (False) II. C > D (True)
85. (a): I. N > O (True) II. A > O (False)
Solutions (86-90):
66. (c): 67. (c): 68. (a): Floor Flat-A Flat-B
69. (e): 70. (d): 71. (d): 3 U-Latvia Q-Serbia
72. (a): 2 P-Russia T-Kosovo
1 S-Norway R-Greece
86. (c): 87. (a): 88. (d):
89. (e): 90. (b): 91. (a):
73. (e): Solutions (92-94):
74. (d):
Solutions (75-78):
Bangalore Pune Mumbai
92. (d):
B P H 93. (c):
I J T 94. (b):
L K Solutions (95-99):
M
75. (e): 76. (d): 77. (b):
78. (c): 95. (a): 96. (c): 97. (d):
Solutions (79-81): 98. (b): 99. (a):
100. (d):
79. (a): 80. (d): 81. (e):

82. (a): I. A > X (True) II. Q > N (False)

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02
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-4): In each of the questions given below a 7. Students feel autonomous when they are able to
sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the willing engage time and energy to their studies
option which gives the correct sequence of these words to (a) Readily devoted
make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. (b) full assign
(c) willingly devote
1. The role played by human rights organisations in
(d) cooperate willingly
documenting (A) and questioning state component (e) None of these
(B) and excesses is a necessary functioning(C) of civil
society activism Directions (8-12): In each of the questions given below, a
(a) BAC (b) None of these (c) CAB sentence has been divided into FIVE parts. Rearrange the
(d) BCA (e) ACB parts of the sentence to make a grammatically correct and
contextually meaningful statement.
2. The C&AG’s observations in its divisible (A) audit
report relate to the denial of States’ financial (B) in the 8. (A) a health bulletin released by the Delhi government
share(C) taxes pool. (B) in the Capital in the past 24 hours taking
(a) CBA (b) BAC (c) ACB (C) as many as 3,227 new COVID-19 cases were
(d) None of these (e) BCA reported
(D) the total number of cases
3. Many countries have chosen to ignore the connection (E) to 2,76,325, according to
between biodiversity and well-being, and pursuit (A) (a) EACDB
ecological capital in prosperity (B) of financial (b) CBDEA
depleted (C). (c) No rearrangement required
(a) None of these (b) CAB (c) ABC (d) BDCEA
(d) BCA (e) CBA (e) DEABC
4. Gandhi’s repeated thought (A) on service to all human 9. (A) The Delhi High Court allowed
beings from all traditions of emphasis (B) was the (B) the CBI and ED’s appeal
essence (C) of his non-violent democratic theory. (C) former Telecom Minister A. Raja and others
(a) ABC (b) ACB (c) CAB (D) for an early hearing on its leave to appeal
(d) BAC (e) None of these (E) against the 2G case verdict acquitting
(a) ABDEC (b) CBDAE (c) DABEC
Directions (5-7): Which of the phrase/ word from the
(d) BDECA (e) No rearrangement required
options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make 10. (A) intensify their agitation from October 1,
the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is (B) which will include an indefinite “rail roko”
correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No replacement required” as (C) protest and the social boycott of political leaders
the answer. (D) farmer outfits announced
(E) that they would
5. A truck had assumingly collide with a car.
(a) No rearrangement required
(a) evidently collided (b) CBDAE
(b) consequently met (c) DEABC
(c) virtually received (d) BDECA
(d) tremendously mishap (e) ACDBE
(e) No replacement required
11. (A) Maharashtra Governor issued a notification that
6. The politicians makes vague promise about tax cuts. (B) will enable tribal and other traditional
(a) has promises (C) forest dwelling families to
(b) would recalled policies (D) build houses in the
(c) made vague promises (E) neighbourhood forest areas.
(d) should conflict promise (a) ACDBE (b) CBDEA (c) DAEBC
(e) No replacement required (d) BEDCA (e) No rearrangement required
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12. (A) of the failure of due process Thus, Educational Technology is a systematic approach to
(b) the controversies surrounding the processes and resources of teaching, educational
(c) the reality that the technology, or EdTech, utilizes technology to improve the
(d) movement itself is a result performance of students.
(e) ‘Me Too’ are complicated by It identifies the needs of individuals, adapting technology
(a) ACDBE (b) CBDEA (c) DAEBC to classroom instruction and in the tracking of student
(d) BECDA (e) No rearrangement required development. It requires teachers to accurately reveal the
Directions (13-20): Read the following passage carefully needs of students in order to determine the relevant
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words technology to apply to the curriculum and to track the
results to determine the effectiveness of the measures.
have been printed in bold to help you locate them, while
Educational technology is a fairly new field in the
answering some of the questions. (RC was based on
education sector, and not all teachers are ready to start
education and technology-ibps po pre shift 1 2020) implementing such technologically-driven plans.
Although many people like to rely on traditional methods However, the cost of education has significantly reduced,
of teaching, the possibilities that open when technology is with options like online degrees and by eliminating the
brought into the classroom are endless. For one, access to need to buy physical textbooks. By accessing scholarly
education has been significantly broadened as a result, articles from your university’s database, for example, you
including a wide range of learning styles and degree can easily choose to continue your studies from another
options. Even if you are not a student or an education country or without leaving your home. Students don’t even
professional, it is crucial to note the importance of need to enroll in a full degree program to learn from the
technology in education. best universities in the world. Typically, free for students,
most academic journals will offer full digital versions of
To really utilize these tools, teachers should ask
books originally produced in print. Even if you are not
themselves why students want technology in the currently studying or involved in the education
classroom, not just why they need it. It can definitely help community, various articles, videos, etc., can be
education professionals in the monitoring of individual downloaded right to your phone, making the learning
development and innovative lesson planning; but the process both easily accessible as well as mobile.
students who learn through technology can create a set
of skills that will help them throughout their own future Because of technology, education is becoming more
flexible and accessible. We have seen a growing popularity
careers.
of online degrees and mobile learning, physical boundaries
Technology simplifies access to educational resources. have been removed, and many executives have embraced
Since students already rely on technology in their everyday technology to supplement the further education of their
lives, why not integrate it into the classroom? Children employees.
today frequently use their smartphones and tablets 13. Why do students need technology in the classroom?
outside of school hours, and should be trusted with the (I) It helps students prepare for their future careers
responsibility during school as well. Many believe that it (II) Technology helps the students to simultaneously
actually helps students stay engaged during class by using perform many activities.
a familiar tool for academic learning. (III) Technological goods help students stay engaged
By incorporating modern technology like artificial during class.
(a) Only (i)
intelligence, for instance, teachers can develop more
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
creative and innovative lesson plans to hold the attention
(c) Both (i) and (iii)
of their classes. Not to mention, as new methods of
(d) Only (iii)
teaching develop, so does the need for specialized (e) None of these
professionals both within and outside of the education
field. 14. How does technology aid specialized professionals?
(a) Specialized professionals can tap opportunities
Many believe that technology can enhance individual within and outside education field
learning, removing educational boundaries that teachers (b) teachers can develop more creative and innovative
may face. It enables online education, distance learning, lesson plans
and access to up-to-date information. Because each (c) They can conveniently follow the conventional
student interprets this information differently, technology methods
can enable more research into subjects that are more (d) Both (a) and (b)
difficult to learn. They can learn at their own pace. (e) All (a) (b) and (c)

15. How does technology benefit students in their Directions (21-26): Given below is a paragraph that has
learning? blank spaces. Corresponding to each blank, five options are
(a) they gain access to up-to-date information given, out of which only one is appropriate. Choose the
(b) Students can learn at their own pace option that fits most suitably in the given blank making
(c) They can further research the subjects that are sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
difficult to learn.
Gaseous refinery __________________(21) include hydrogen,
(d) They can access the lessons from any part of the
world. fuel gas, ethane, propane, and butane. Most of the hydrogen
(e) All of these is __________________(22) in refinery desulfurization facilities,
which remove hydrogen sulfide from the gas stream and
16. What could be the barrier while implementing then separate that compound into elemental hydrogen and
educational technology? sulfur; small quantities of the hydrogen may be delivered
(a) Teachers could be more hesitant while adapting to the refinery fuel system. Refinery fuel gas varies in
technologically driven plan composition but usually contains a __________________(23)
(b) Most of the students cannot afford technological amount of methane; it has a heating value similar to natural
goods gas and is consumed in plant operations. The drawback is
(c) Parents are dubious while selecting technological that periodic variability in heating value makes it
plans __________________(24) for delivery to consumer gas systems.
(d) Technology has several ill effects on the mental Ethane may be __________________(25) from the refinery fuel
and physical health of the students system for use as a petrochemical feedstock. In many cases,
(e) None of these these operations take place in relatively remote regions
17. How does technology help to reduce the cost of and affect only those employed by the industry, so that
learning? little or no __________________(26) is attempted.
(I) Removal of physical textbooks
21. (a) products (b) services (c) ideas
(II) Removal of transportation charges
(d) form (e) brand
(II) Most of the academic journals are free for students
(a) Only (i) 22. (a) enhanced (b) consumed (c) manufactured
(b) Both (i) and (ii) (d) presented (e) displayed
(c) Both (i) and (iii)
23. (a) terrible (b) versatile (c) importance
(d) Only (iii)
(d) significant (e) majorly
(e) All of these
24. (a) unsuitable (b) acceptable (c) satisfying
18. According to the author what could be the inference of
(d) appropriate (e) improperly
the sentence italicized in the given passage?
(a) EdTech is merely to increase the reach to the 25. (a) exhausted (b) worn out (c) recovered
students. (d) consumed (e) depleted
(b) Specialized professionals can mark their presence
26. (a) regulations (b) policies (c) authorities
outside the education field
(c) Technology aids students to achieve their goals (d) control (e) incitement
(d) Technology should be an integral part of learning Directions (27-30): There are three sentences given in
process each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are
(e) Both (a) and (b) grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the
19. Among the given options, choose the word which can best possible alternative among the five options given
replace the highlighted word in the given passage. below each question. If all the sentences are correct,
REQUENTLY choose (e) as your answer.
(a) repeating (b) regularly (c) habit 27. (i) The recent burglary came as a surprise for the
(d) casually (e) occasionally raided home is located in a relatively safe area.
20. Among the given options, choose the word with the (ii) Furniture makers often use plain woven burlap as
most similar meaning of the given word. a support of the inside of couches and chairs.
ELIMINATING (iii) Rescuers were forced to abandon their search.
(a) accomplish (b) adaptive (c) removal (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii)
(d) regulating (e) introducing (d) Both (i) and (ii) (e) All are correct

28. (i) His views have excited a lively controversy among (iii) They tried to assure him of their willingness to
fellow scientists. work.
(ii) Either party have the right to terminate the (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii)
agreement. (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All are correct
(iii) I am assuming that the present situation is going to 30. (i) The issue of animal experimentation is an emotive
continue. subject.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (ii) The King agreed for dissolve the present
(d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All are correct
commission.
29. (i) Praise always stimulates him to make greater (iii) She has endowed with intelligence as well as
efforts. beauty.
(ii) The houses were not considered habitable. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All are correct
Direction (31 – 35): The Line graph shows the number of people (Boys + girls) visited five (A, B, C, D & E) different parks
and the number of girls visited out of total people visited these five parks. Read the data carefully and answer the
questions.
80
70
Number of people
60
50
40
30
20
A B C D E
Parks
(Boys + Girls) (Girls)
31. Find total number of boys visited in park A, B & C 34. If park E charge Rs. 24 for each people (Boys + Girls)
together? who visited the park, then find the total revenue get by
(a) 104 (b) 102 (c) 106 park E?
(d) 108 (e) 96 (a) 1166 Rs. (b) 1296 Rs. (c) 1248 Rs.
(d) 1268 Rs. (e) 1284 Rs.
32. If total number of people visited in park F are 18 more
than total number of people visited in park C and D 35. Total people (Boys + Girls) who visited park B is what
4
together and out of total people visited in park F, 9 th percent more than total people (Boys + Girls) who
visited park E (Approximate)?
are girls, then find number of boys visited in park F?
(a) 90 (b) 92 (c) 96 (a) 25% (b) 39% (c) 43%
(d) 84 (e) 102 (d) 33% (e) 66%
Direction (36 – 40): What will come in the place of
33. What percent of girls visited in park A with respect to
question mark in following number series:
the total number of people (Boys + Girls) visited that
park (approximately)? 36. 9.8, ?, 8.9, 11.6, 8, 12.5
(a) 41% (b) 43% (c) 47% (a) 10.7 (b) 11.7 (c) 10.5
(d) 49% (e) 51% (d) 10.9 (e) 11.3

37. 400, 274, 209, 181, 172, ? to the mixture then find the ratio of milk and water in
(a) 169 (b) 173 (c) 168 the new mixture.
(d) 171 (e) 170 (a) 5 : 6 (b) 6 : 5 (c) 4 : 3
38. 1, 1, ?, 15, 105, 945 (d) 3 : 2 (e) 7 : 6
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 47. A sphere is melted and molded into solid cylinder. If
(d) 1.5 (e) 2.5 radius of both solids is equal, then find the ratio of total
39. 12, ?, 6, 9, 18, 45 surface area of sphere to the total surface area of
(a) 15 (b) 8 (c) 6 cylinder
(d) 12 (e) 4 (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 3 : 7
40. 34, 18, 10, 6, ?, 3 (d) 6 : 7 (e) 7 : 6
(a) 9 (b) 4 (c) 3 48. Three partners P, Q and R invested their amounts in
(d) 2 (e) 6 ratio of 2 : 5 : 7. At the end of 6 months, ‘P’ added some
41. A man invested a sum at a certain rate of interest on more amount such that his investment become equals
simple interest and he got 60% more amount after to half of sum of ‘Q’ and ‘R’ initial investment. If at the
eight year. If he invests Rs. 9600 at the same rate of end of the year, Q’s share in profit is Rs 425, then find
interest on SI, then find the total interest he would get the total profit
after four years? (a) Rs 1250 (b) Rs 1360 (c) Rs 1840
(a) 3840 Rs. (b) 2880 Rs. (c) 2520 Rs. (d) Rs 1050 (e) Rs 1450
(d) 2160 Rs. (e) 2260 Rs.
49. A shopkeeper marks up price of
42. A is 40% more efficient than B and both together can
3 LED 60% above its cost price and gives three
complete a work in 9 8 days. If A work for first five days 1
successive discounts of 12 %, d% and 25%. If
2
alone and remaining work complete by B, then find in
shopkeeper made a loss 16% on LED. Find the second
how many days total work will be competed?
1 1 discount allowed by shop?
(a) 20 days (b) 16 days (c) 15 days
2 5 (a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25%
1
(d) 20 days (e) 18 days (d) 16 ⅔% (e) 17.5%
5
43. Train ‘A’ running at speed of 54 km/hr crosses a 50. Speed of a boat in still water is 12 kmph and speed of
platform of length same as that of the train in 36 sec. If stream is ‘x’ kmph. If in traveling 270 km upstream
train B, which is 230 meters long crosses the same 2
boat takes 66 3 % more time than traveling 270 km
platform in 25 sec, then find speed of train B (in
km/hr)? downstream, then find the value of ‘x’.
(a) 54 km/hr (b) 72 km/hr (c) 84 km/hr (a) 2 kmph (b) 4 kmph (c) 1 kmph
(d) 90 km/hr (e) 108 km/hr (d) 3 kmph (e) 6 kmph
44. Four years ago, ratio of age of A and B was 3 ∶ 4. Directions (51-55): In the following two equations
Average of present age of A, B and C is 26 years. C is 11 questions numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to
years younger than B. what is the present age of B? solve both equations and Give answer
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 22 years (a) If x > y
(d) 32 years (e) 26 years (b) If x ≥ y
45. A man deposit 10% of his salary in PF. He saves 30% of (c) If y > x
the remaining. The ratio of his expense on medicine (d) If y ≥ x
and groceries is 3 :4 of the remaining salary after (e) If x = y or no relation can be established
saving. If his expense on the medicine was Rs 2700.
51. I. x² - 8x + 15 = 0 II. 2y² - 7y + 5 = 0
Find the monthly salary.
(a) Rs 10,000 (b) Rs 15,000 (c) Rs 30,000 52. I. 2x² + x – 28 = 0 II. 2y² - 23y + 56 = 0
(d) Rs 20,000 (e) None of these
53. I. 2x² - 7x – 60 = 0 II. 3y² + 13y + 4 = 0
46. In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of milk
by weight is 60%. If from the 80 gm mixture, 20 gm of 54. I. x² - 17x – 84 = 0 II. y² + 4y – 117 = 0
mixture is taken out and 6 gm of pure water is added 55. I. x2 = 92 II. (y – 8)2 = 9

Direction (56 – 60): Given below table shows total three
Direction (61 – 65): Given data shows total male and
types of items (A, B & C) sold by a store on five days of a
female employee in three companies in a seminar. Read
week. Table also shows total type A items sold by store and
percentage of items B and items C sold by store. Read the data carefully and answer the questions: -
data carefully and answer following questions: In annual seminar of three companies, A, B and C some
Note- only three types of items sold by the store. male and female employees represent their companies.
Days Items A % of items B % of items C Average number of female employees who represent A and
Monday 240 32% 20% B is 420. Total male employee in A and B is 1620. Number
2 2
Tuesday 320 48% 12% of female employees is 𝑟𝑑 and 𝑡ℎ of male employee in A
3 5
Wednesday 420 45% 20% and B respectively. Total female employee who represent
C are 25% more than total female employee who represent
Thursday 360 56% 20%
A and total male employee who represent C are 33
Friday 340 22% 10% 1
3
% more than total female employee who represent B.
56. Total items B sold by store on Monday & Friday
together are what percent less than total items C sold 61. Total employees who represent A is what percent
by store on Wednesday & Thursday together? more than total male employee who represent B ?
1 1 1
(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 20% (a) 33 3 % (b) 30 3 % (c) 27 3 %
(d) 30% (e) 10% 1 1
(d) 29 3 % (e) 39 3 %
57. Find the difference between average number of items
B sold by store on Tuesday & Thursday and average 62. 25% of total female employee and 20% of total male
number of items A sold by store on Thursday & Friday? employee who represent B & C together have MBA
(a) 260 (b) 264 (c) 262 degree, then find total employee who do not have MBA
(d) 272 (e) 268 degree?
58. If total items B sold by store on Sunday is 25% more (a) 1624 (b) 1424 (c) 1824
than that sold on Thursday and total items C sold on (d) 1648 (e) 1244
Sunday is 300% more than that sold on Friday, then
63. Find the ratio between total male employee who
find total number of items B & items C sold by store on
Sunday ? represent B & C together to total female employee who
(a) 1250 (b) 1150 (c) 1050 represent A & C together?
(d) 950 (e) 1350 (a) 23 : 13 (b) 23 : 14 (c) 23 : 18
(d) 23 : 12 (e) 23 : 20
59. Total items C sold by store on Wednesday is what
percent more than total items C sold by store on 64. Find difference between Total male employees who
Monday and Tuesday together? represent C and total female employee who represent
22
(a) 26 49 %
22
(b) 24 49 %
22
(c) 22 49 % B?
22 22 (a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 100
(d) 21 49 % (e) 18 49 % (d) 160 (e) 180
60. Find the ratio between total items sold by store on 65. Find average number female in B & C ?
Monday to total items sold by store on Thursday? (a) 480 (b) 420 (c) 520
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 7 (d) 540 (e) 600
(d) 1: 4 (e) 1 : 2
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (66-70): Study the following information P who stands in row 2 stands second to the right of T. L
carefully and answer the questions given below: faces K. Two students stand between K and A who is at one
of the extreme ends. G faces the immediate neighbor of V.
Twelve students stand in two rows with six students Only one person stands between V and L. Three students
standing in each row. Students in row 1 are facing north stand between F and W. F faces immediate neighbor of P. K
direction and students in row 2 are facing south direction. is second to the left of W. W does not face V. R stands to
Each student in row 1 faces a student in row 2. immediate right of S. R and S do not face A. Q stands in same
row as K.
66. How many students stand between P and S? 75. Which of the following words is correctly matched
(a) None (b) One (c) Two with its code?
(d) More than three (e) Three (a) work- rt (b) is- jk (c) worship-mn
(d) do- rt (e) hard-mn
67. If P is related to F, G is related to V then in same manner
L is related to _____? Direction (76-80): Study the following information
(a) W (b) Q (c) A carefully and answer the questions given below:
(d) R (e) K Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sits consecutive in
68. Who among the following faces the one who stand vertical row. Each person likes different fruits i.e. Grapes,
second to the right of S? Litchi, Guava, Orange, Banana, Kiwi and Apple. All the
(a) The one, who sits third right of F. information is not necessarily in the same order.
(b) The one, who sits immediate left of W. Two persons sits between B and the one, who likes Litchi.
(c) A A sits immediate above the one, who likes Litchi. B likes
(d) W Kiwi. More than four persons sits between G and F, who
(e) The one, who sits immediate right of G. likes Grapes. F sits at the bottommost position. A likes
69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and Guava and sits below G but not immediately below. D, who
hence form a group which of the following does not likes Orange sits below the one, who likes Banana and
belong to the group? above C. G does not like Banana.
(a) S-Q (b) L-G (c) A-V 76. Who among the following person likes Apple?
(d) T-G (e) K-R (a) G (b) C (c) E
70. Which of the following is not true regarding Q? (d) None of these (e) The one, who sits just below C
(a) Q stands second to the right of G 77. Which among the following statement is true
(b) Q faces R regarding E?
(c) Q faces immediate neighbor of T (a) E likes Banana
(d) Two students stand between Q and F (b) Two persons sit between E and A
(e) All are true (c) G sits immediately above E
Direction (71-75): Study the following information (d) More than three persons sit below E
carefully and answer the questions given below: (e) All are true
In a certain code language: 78. Four of the following five belongs to a group in a
“work is worship” is coded as “jk rt pq” certain way, find the one which does not belong to that
“work hard always” is coded as “jk mn uv” group?
“always do worship” is coded as “uv st pq” (a) G-Kiwi (b) E-Orange (c) D-Grapes
“hard time passes” is coded as “mn ab ef” (d) B-Guava (e) A-Grapes
71. What is the code of “time passes” as per the given code 79. How many persons sit between A and the one, who
language? likes Apple?
(a) ab uv (a) Four (b) Three (c) Five
(b) ef jk (d) Two (e) None of these
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) ab ef 80. What is the position of D?
(e) ef rt (a) Second from the topmost position
(b) Second from the bottommost position
72. What is the code of “worship” as per the given code (c) Fourth from the topmost position
language? (d) Both (c) and (d)
(a) pq (b) ab (c) mn (e) Third from the bottommost position
(d) ef (e) None of these
Direction (81-84): In each of the questions below are
73. Which among the following words is coded as “rt”? given some statements followed by two conclusions. You
(a) work (b) is (c) hard have to take the given statements to be true even if they
(d) time (e) None of these seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
74. Which among the following words is coded as “ab”? all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
(a) time (b) passes (c) is conclusions logically follows from the given statements
(d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these disregarding commonly known facts.

81. Statements: Some circles are not triangle. Indore. F does not go to Chennai. One of the persons visits
Only a few squares are triangle. Jaipur.
No rhombus is squares.
85. Who among the following goes on 16th March?
Conclusions: I. All rhombus being triangle is a
(a) The one who goes to Jaipur (b) A (c) F
possibility.
II. Some squares can never be circles. (d) The one who goes to Pune (e) None of these
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 86. The one who goes on 7th May, goes to which city?
(b) If only conclusion II follows. (a) Jaipur (b) Chennai (c) Indore
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) Pune (e) None of these
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 87. Which of the following statement is not true about E?
(a) B goes just before E
82. Statements: Only summer is hot. (b) E goes to Pune
Only a few summer is rainy. (c) Only two persons go between E and F
Some winter is rainy. (d) More than one person goes between E and D
Conclusions: I. All hot can be winter. (e) Both (b) and (d)
II. Some rainy is not summer.
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 88. Which of the combination is true?
(b) If only conclusion II follows. (a) D-7th March (b) B- Jaipur (c) C- 16th April
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) D- Varanasi (e) None of these
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 89. Who among the following person goes to Varanasi?
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (a) D (b) C (c) F
83. Statements: All bus is train. (d) B (e) None of these
Only a few bikes are train.
Directions (90-92): In these questions, relationships
Some bikes is not car.
between different elements are shown in the statements.
Conclusions: I. All bus being car is a possibility.
These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give
II. No bus is bikes.
(a) If only conclusion I follows. answer
(b) If only conclusion II follows. (a) if only conclusion I is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (b) if only conclusion II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true
84. Statements: No chocolates are biscuits.
Only a few biscuits are chips. 90. Statement: D>G≤H=J; J>F≥L; K=L
Some chips are juices. Conclusions: I. H>F II. K≤G
Conclusions: I. Some biscuits are juices.
91. Statement: V<Q≤R; W=R>M; W>P≥X
II. No biscuits are juices.
Conclusions: I. P>Q II. Q≥X
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows. 92. Statement: W>S=Q; S≤N=O≥Y
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. Conclusions: I. Q≤N II. W≥O
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 93. How many such pairs of digits are there in the given
number ‘73951286’ each of which has as many digits
Directions (85-89): Study the information carefully and between them in the number as in the Number series
answer the questions given below. (From both backward and forward)?
Six persons are going to the six different cities on two (a) Two (b) One (c) Four
different dates i.e. 7th and 16th of three different months i.e. (d) Three (e) More than four
March, April and May of the same year.
94. If vowels are arranged in alphabetical increasing order
B goes in the month which has an odd number of days and from left to right and then consonants are arranged in
on odd number date. Two persons go in between B and the alphabetical increasing order from left to right in the
one who goes to Pune. Only two persons go after the one given word ‘ALONGSIDE’. Then which letter is 4th from
who goes to Varanasi. A goes to Delhi on an odd-numbered the left side in the new word?
date. Only one person goes between A and F. As many (a) A (b) I (c) S
people who go before F, as many people go after C. More (d) O (e) None of these
than two persons go in between D and the E who goes to
Direction (95-99): Study the following information 98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
carefully and answer the questions given below: hence form a group which of the following does not
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row. All of them belong to the group?
faces in the north direction. P sits third to the right of S. (a) S (b) U (c) M
Only three persons sit between P and Q. U sits third to the (d) T (e) W
left of Q. U sits fifth from the left end of the row. R sits third
99. Who among the following person sit exactly between R
to the left of U. Only three persons sit between W and T who
is an immediate neighbor of R. Only six persons sits to the and Q?
right of W. M sits immediate left of O. Only three person sits (a) T (b) M (c) P
between M and H. O does not sit left of P. H does not sit at (d) H (e) U
the extreme end of the row.
100. In a family of three generations there are six family
95. How many persons sit in the row? members i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, and U. U is the Son in law of P.
(a) Eleven (b) Thirteen (c) Fourteen Q is the brother in law of S who has no siblings. S is the
(d) Ten (e) Twelve only child of R. R is married to P. T is niece of Q. How P
96. How many persons sit to the left of S? is related to T?
(a) R (b) T (c) H (a) Maternal Grandfather
(d) W (e) None (b) Maternal Grandmother
(c) Father
97. How many persons sit between U and S?
(d) Mother
(a) One (b) Two (c) None
(e) Cannot be determined
(d) Three (e) More than three
Solutions
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (e): ACB is the correct sequence. 6. (c): The correct phrase to replace the incorrect phrase
The role played by human rights organisations in is “made vague promises”. All the other given
documenting and questioning state functioning options are either grammatically incorrect or
and excesses is a necessary component of civil contextually meaningless.
society activism
7. (c): Option (c) is the correct choice.
2. (e): BCA is the correct sequence. Students feel autonomous when they are able to willingly
The C&AG’s observations in its financial audit devote time and energy to their studies
report relate to the denial of States’ share in the
8. (b): Going through the given parts of the sentence it
divisible taxes pool.
can be seen that given sentence is talking about
3. (b): CAB is the correct sequence the increase in the number of cases of COVID-19
Many countries have chosen to ignore the in the capital. So, on the basis of this it can be seen
connection between biodiversity and well-being, that the correct arrangement would be CBDEA
and depleted ecological capital in pursuit of and the sentence thus formed is:
financial prosperity. As many as 3,227 new COVID-19 cases were
reported in the Capital in the past 24 hours taking
4. (d): BAC is the correct sequence.
the total number of cases to 2,76,325, according to
Gandhi’s repeated emphasis on service to all
a health bulletin released by the Delhi government.
human beings from all traditions of thought was
the essence of his non-violent democratic theory. 9. (a): Given sentence is talking about the appeal made
by the CBI and ED’s regarding early hearing of the
5. (a): The correct phrase to replace the incorrect phrase
appeal against the 2G case verdict. So, on the basis
is “evidently collide”. ‘Collide’ means hit by
of this information it can be seen that correct
accident when moving. Since the sentence is in
arrangement would be ABDEC and the sentence
past perfect form, ‘collided’ should be used. All the
thus formed is:
other given options are either grammatically
incorrect or contextually meaningless.
The Delhi High Court allowed the CBI and ED’s 16. (a): Refer to the sentence “Educational technology is a
appeal for an early hearing on its leave to appeal fairly new field in the education sector, and not all
against the 2G case verdict acquitting former teachers are ready to start implementing such
Telecom Minister A. Raja and others. technologically-driven plans.”
10. (c): Given sentence is talking about the declaration of 17. (e): Refer to the lines “However, the cost of education
farmer outfits about intensifying their agitation. has significantly reduced, with options like online
So, on the basis of this information it can be seen degrees and by eliminating the need to buy
that correct arrangement would be DEABC and physical textbooks. By accessing scholarly
the sentence thus formed is: articles from your university’s database, for
Farmer outfits announced that they would intensify example, you can easily choose to continue your
their agitation from October 1, which will include studies from another country or without
an indefinite “rail roko” protest and the social leaving your home.” “Typically, free for
boycott of political leaders. students, most academic journals will offer full
digital versions of books originally produced in
11. (e): Given sentence is correct as it is and requires no print”. Hence, option (e) is correct.
rearrangement. So, the correct answer choice is
18. (d): The given sentence indicates that technology can
option (e).
not only helps students but also the education
12. (d): Given sentence is talking about the controversy professionals. It helps in the overall growth and
surrounding the “Me Too” campaign and how it development of the students and education
started. So, on the basis of this information it can professionals. Thus, after carefully reading the
be seen that correct arrangement would be passage, it can be inferred that technology should
BECDA and the sentence thus formed is: form an integral part of education system.
The controversies surrounding ‘Me Too’ are 19. (b): ‘Frequently’ means regularly or habitually; often.
complicated by the reality that the movement itself Thus, regularly can replace the given word in the
is a result of the failure of due process. passage.
13. (c): Refer to the lines “students who learn through 20. (c): Eliminating means completely remove or get rid
technology can create a set of skills that will help of (something). Hence, removal is the synonym of
them throughout their own future careers” and the given word.
“Many believe that it actually helps students stay
engaged during class by using a familiar tool for 21. (a): The most suitable word to fill the blank is
academic learning.” Hence, option (c) is correct. “products”. The phrase alongside the blank clearly
mentions the products that can be classified
14. (d): Refer to the lines “By incorporating modern under gaseous refinery. Hence, option (a) is the
technology like artificial intelligence, for instance, most appropriate choice.
teachers can develop more creative and
22. (b): The most suitable word to fill the given blank is
innovative lesson plans to hold the attention of
“consumed”. Since the given sentence explains the
their classes. Not to mention, as new methods of
process of refinery desulfurization facilities, it can
teaching develop, so does the need for
be understood that hydrogen is used to carry out
specialized professionals both within and
several procedures in the refinery. Hence, option
outside of the education field.” Hence, option (d) (b) is correct.
is correct.
23. (d): The most suitable for the given blank is
15. (e): Refer to the sentence “Many believe that “significant”. All the other options are either
technology can enhance individual learning, grammatically incorrect or contextually
removing educational boundaries that teachers meaningless.
may face. It enables online education, distance
learning, and access to up-to-date information. 24. (a): Since a drawback of refinery gas is mentioned in
Because each student interprets this information the given sentence, we can easily identify the
differently, technology can enable more research word which is apt for the blank. Among the given
into subjects that are more difficult to learn. They words only “unsuitable” adheres to the grammar
and context of the given passage. Hence, option
can learn at their own pace.” Hence option (e) is
(a) is the correct answer choice.
correct.

25. (c): The phrase alongside the blank has mentioned 27. (c): Only sentence (iii) is correct.
that ethane is used as a petrochemical feedstock, In sentence (i), replace ‘for’ by ‘since’.
which implies that it is recovered in the refinery In sentence (ii) replace ‘of’ by ‘for’.
fuel system. Hence, option (c) i.e. “recovered” 28. (d): Both the sentence (i) and (iii) are correct.
becomes the most viable answer choice. In Sentence (ii) ‘have’ should be replaced by ‘has’.
26. (d): According to the context of the passage, the most 29. (e): All the given sentences are correct.
suitable word for the given blank is “control. 30. (a): Sentence (i) is correct.
Hence, option (d) is the correct choice. In sentence (ii) ‘for’ should be replaced by ‘to’.
In sentence (iii) ‘has’ should be replaced by ‘is’.
31. (b): Required sum = (64 – 30) + (72 – 32) + (76 – 48) 40. (b): Pattern of series –
= 34 + 40 + 28 = 102 34 ÷ 2 + 1 = 18
18 ÷ 2 + 1 = 10
32. (a): Total people visited in park F
10 ÷ 2 + 1 = 6
= (76 + 68) + 18 = 162
?=6÷2+1 = 𝟒
So, number of boys visited in park F
5 4÷2+1= 3
= 162 × = 90
9
41. (b): Let sum invested by man = 100x
33. (c): Required percentage And amount he got = 100x ×
160
= 160x
30 100
= × 100 = 46.875 ≈ 47% Let rate of interest be ‘r’ % p.a.
64
34. (b): Required revenue = 24 × 54 = 1296 Rs. ATQ –

8
72−54
100x × r × = 160x − 100x
100
35. (d): Required percentage = × 100 r = 7.5
54
18 1 4
= 54 × 100 = 33 3 % ≈ 33% Required interest = 9600 × 7.5 × = 2880 Rs.
100
36. (a): Pattern of series – 42. (a): Let efficiency of B = 5x unit/day

?= 9 .8 + 0.9 = 10.7 So, efficiency of A = 5x ×
140
= 7x unit/day
100
10.7 − 1.8 = 8.9 75 225x
8.9 + 2.7 = 11.6 Total work = (7x + 5x) × = unit
8 2
11.6 - 3.6 = 8 Total work done by A in 5 days = 7x × 5 =
8 + 4.5 = 12.5 35x unit
225x
−35x 1
37. (e): Pattern of series – Total required days = 5 + 2
= 20 days
5x 2
400 – (53 + 1) = 274
274 − (43 + 1) = 209 43. (b): Let length of train ‘A’ and platform each be ‘L’
209 − (33 + 1) = 181 meters
181 – (23 + 1) = 172 ATQ –
L+L 5
?= 172 – (13 + 1) = 170 36
= 54 × 18
38. (b): Pattern of series – L = 270 meters
1×1=1 Let speed of train B be ‘s’ km/hr
230+270 5
?=1×3 = 𝟑 25
= s × 18
3 × 5 = 15 S = 72 km/hr
15 × 7 = 105
105 × 9 = 945 44. (d): Let present age of A, B and C be x, y and z years
respectively.
39. (c): Pattern of series – ATQ,
12 × 0.5 = 6 x−4
⟹ y−4 = 4
3
6×1=6
6 × 1.5 = 9 4x − 3y = 4 … … . (i)
9 × 2 = 18 ⟹ x + y + z = 26 × 3 = 78 … . . (ii)
18 × 2.5 = 45 ⟹ z = y − 11 … . . (iii)

From (i), (ii) and (iii) 49. (b): Let C.P. of LED = 100x Rs.
x = 25, y = 32, z = 21 M.P of LED = 160x Rs.
So, present age of B = y = 32 years First discount = 160x × 8
1
45. (a): Let monthly salary = Rs 100x = 20x Rs.

ATQ Second and third discount
90 70
100x × 100 × 100 = 63x (160x– 20x) ×
(100–d)
×
(100–25)
= 84x
100 100
Let total expense on medicine and groceries = 100–d 3
3y + 4y = 7y 140x × × = 84x
100 4
So, 7y = 63x 21 (100 – d) = 84 × 20
y = 9x 21d = 2100 – 1680
Given, 3y = 2700, 420
d= 21
So, y = 900
d = 20%
Now, x = 100
∴ monthly salary of the man = 100x = Rs 10,000 50. (d): Speed of boat in still water = 12 kmph
46. (b): Ratio of Milk and water in mixture = 60 : 40 = 3 : 2 Speed of Stream = x kmph
Quantity of Milk left in mixture after 20 gm of ATQ,
270 2 270
mixture is taken out (12–x)
= (100 + 66 3) % of 12+x
3
= 60 × = 36 gm. 270 2 270
5 ⇒ = (1 + ) ×
2 12–x 3 12+x
Quantity of water left = 60 × = 24 gm 270 5 270
36
5 ⇒ = ×
12–x 3 12+x
∴ Required ratio = =6:5
24+6 ⇒ (12 + x) × 3 = 5 × (12– x)
47. (d): Let radius of sphere and cylinder is ‘r’. ⇒x=3
4
So, volume of sphere = 3 πr³ So, speed of stream = x = 3 kmph
Volume of cylinder =Volume of sphere 51. (a): I. x² - 8x + 15 = 0
4
πr³ = πr²h x² - 3x – 5x + 15 = 0
3
4 (x – 3) (x – 5) = 0
h = 3r
x = 3, 5
TSA of sphere = 4πr² II. 2y² - 7y + 5 = 0
TSA of cylinder = 2πr (r + h) 2y² - 2y – 5y + 5 = 0
4
= 2πr (r + r) (y - 1) (2y - 5) = 0
3
14 5
= 3
πr² y = 1,
2
4πr² 6
Required ratio = 14 =7 x>y
πr²
3
=6:7 52. (d): I. 2x² + x – 28 = 0
2x² + 8x – 7x – 28 = 0
48. (b): Let investment of P, Q, R be 2x, 5x and 7x
2x (x + 4) – 7 (x + 4) = 0
respectively.
(2x – 7) (x + 4)= 0
Let extra amount added by ‘P’ after six months be 7
Rs. y x = −4, 2
ATQ, II. 2y² - 23y + 56 = 0
1
2x + y = 2 [ 5x + 7x] 2y² - 16y – 7y + 56 = 0
2x + y = 6x 2y(y – 8) – 7(y – 8) = 0
y = 4x (2y – 7) (y – 8) = 0
7
Ratio of profit share y = ,8
2
P : Q : R = 2x × 6 + (4x + 2x) × 6 ∶ 5x × 12 ∶ y≥x
7x × 12
Q’s share of profit = Rs 425 53. (e): I. 2x² - 7x – 60 = 0
⇒ 5 → 425 2x² - 15x + 8x – 60 = 0
⇒ 1 → 85 x (2x – 15 ) + 4 (2x – 15) = 0
⇒ (4 + 5 + 7) =16 → 16 × 85 = 1360 (x + 4) (2x − 15) = 0
Total profit = Rs. 1360 x = −4,
15
2

II. 3y² + 13y + 4 = 0 Total items C sold by store on Sunday
340 400
3y² + 12y + y + 4 = 0 = 68 × 10 × 100
3y (y + 4) + 1 (y + 4) = 0 = 200
(3y + 1) (y + 4) = 0 Total items B & items C sold by store on Sunday =
1
y = − 3 , −4 1050 + 200 = 1250
No relation between x and y 420
59. (c): Total items C sold on Wednesday = 35 × 20
54. (e): I. x² - 17x – 84 = 0 = 240
x² +4x – 21x – 84 = 0 Total items C sold on Monday & Tuesday together
(x + 4) (x – 21) = 0 240 320
= × 20 + × 12
x = -4, 21 48 40
II. y² + 4y – 117 = 0 = 100 + 96

y² - 9y + 13y – 117 = 0 = 196
240–196
(y – 9) (y + 13) = 0 Required percentage = 196 × 100
44
y = 9, -13 = × 100
196
No relation between x and y 22
= 22 49 %
55. (c): I. x2 = 92 240
x=9 ×100
60. (b): Required ratio = 360
48
II. (y – 8)2 = 32 24
×100
500
y = 11 =
1500
y>x =1:3
56. (b): Total items B sold by store on Monday and Friday
together Solutions (61 – 65): Total number of female employee
240 340 who represent A and B = 420 × 2 = 840
= × 32 + × 22
48 68 Let, Number of male employee who represent A = a
= 160 + 110 And, Number of male employee who represent B = b
= 270 ATQ,
Total items C sold by store in Wednesday & a + b = 1620 …(i)
Thursday together 2 2
a + b = 840 … (ii)
420 360 3 5
= 35 × 20 + 24 × 20
On solving (i) & (ii)
= 240 + 300 a = 720, b = 900
= 540 Number of female employees who represent A
540–270 2
Required percentage = × 100 = × 720
540 3
270
= × 100 = 480
540
= 50% Number of female employees who represent B
2
= 5 × 900
57. (c): Average number of items B sold by store on
= 360
Tuesday & Thursday 125
320 360
×48+ ×56 Total Female employee who represent C = 480 × = 600
100
= 40 24
4
2
384+840
Total male employee who represent C = 360 × = 480
3
= = 612
2 Companies Male Female
Average number of items A sold by store on A 720 480
Thrusday& Friday
360+340 B 900 360
= 2
C 480 600
700
= = 350
2
Required difference = 612 – 350 = 262 61. (a): Total employee who represent A = 720 + 480 =
1200
58. (a): Total items B sold by store on Sunday 1200−900
360 125 Required percentage = 900 × 100
= × 56 × 1
24 100
= 33 3 %
= 1050

62. (c): Total employee who represent B & C who do not (900+480)
63. (c): Required ratio = (480+600)
have MBA degree
80 75
= 23 : 18
= (900 + 480)× + (360 + 600) ×
100 100 64. (a): Required difference = 480 – 360
= 1104 + 720 = 120
= 1824 360+600
65. (a): Required average = 2
= 480
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (66-70): Direction (81-84):
81. (a):
82. (d):
66. (d): 67. (b): 68. (e) 83. (a):

69. (d): 70. (c):
Direction (71-75):
WORDS CODES 84. (c):
work jk
is rt
worship pq Solutions (85-89):
hard mn Date
Month 7th 16th
always uv
do st March A (Delhi) D (Pune)
Time/passes ab/ef April F (Jaipur) C (Varanasi)
May B (Chennai) E (Indore)
71. (d): 72. (a): 73. (b):
74. (d): 75. (e): 85. (d): 86. (b): 87. (b):
88. (c): 89. (b):
Direction (76-80):
Solutions (90-92):
Persons Fruits
90. (a): I. H>F (True) II. K≤G(False)
G Apple
91. (d): I. P>Q(False II. Q≥X(False)
E Banana
92. (a): I. Q≤N (True) II. W≥O (False)
B Kiwi
D Orange 93. (e):
A Guava
C Litchi
F Grapes
76. (a): 77. (e): 78. (c): 94. (d):

79. (b): 80. (c):

Solutions (95-99): 100. (e):
95. (b): 96. (e): 97. (d):

98. (c): 99. (e):

03
REASONING ABILITY
1. In the word ‘BRISKLY’, how many pairs of the letters 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
have the same number of letters between them in the and hence they form a group. Which one of the
word as in alphabet? following does not belong to that group?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) One (a) E (b) G (c) D
(d) Three (e) More than four (d) H (e) B
Direction (2-4): Study the following information carefully 7. Who among the following sits 3rd to the right of D?
and answer the questions given below: (a) E (b) H (c) C
(d) A (e) G
Seven members are living in the family. Q is the daughter
of P. B is the brother of R. G is the mother in law of A. B is 8. What is the position of F with respect to G?
married with A. B is the uncle of Q. D is the father of B. (a) 3rd to the right (b) 2nd to the right
(c) 2 to the left
nd (d) 3rd to the left
2. What is the relation of B with respect to P? (e) None of these
(a) Brother (b) Sister in law (c) Brother in law
(d) Mother (e) Aunt 9. How many persons sit between D and F when counted
to the right of D?
3. If C is the brother of B, then What is the relation of C (a) One (b) None (c) Two
with respect to Q? (d) Three (e) Four
(a) Aunt (b) Uncle (c) Father
(d) Mother (e) Sister 10. Who among the following faces to C?
(a) H (b) B (c) G
4. If P is the father of Q, then what is the relation of R (d) E (e) None of these
with respect to P?
(a) Wife (b) Husband (c) Father Direction (11-15): Study the following information
(d) Father in law (e) Mother carefully and answer the questions given below:
5. If ’’624739854’’ 1 is added to all the even number Ten persons L, M, N, O, P , Q, R, S, T, and U were born on two
and 1 is subtract from all the odd number, then what different dates 15 and 30 of five different months viz.
is the sum of the digits which is fifth from the left end January, March, April, September and November but not
and fourth from the right end? necessarily in the same order.
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 11 L was born on 15th of the month which has 31 days. Three
(d) 10 (e) None of these persons were born between L and P. Four persons were
born between P and O. O was born before L. The number of
Direction (6-10): Study the following information persons were born after O is same as the number of
carefully and answer the questions given below: persons born before N. One person was born between P
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a and R. M was born before T but not in the month of January.
rectangular table in such a way that four persons sit on T was born before P. U was born before S on same date.
each of the four corner of the table and other four persons 11. How many persons were born after U?
sit on the middle of each side. The one who sits at the (a) None (b) Four (c) More than five
corner of table faces outside the center of table and the one (d) Two (e) Five
who sits at the middle side of table faces towards the center
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
of table. Persons sitting on opposite sides are exactly
and hence they form a group. Which one of the
opposite to each other.
following does not belong to that group?
F sits at one of the middle side of the table. Two persons sit
(a) Q-L (b) R-P (c) O-S
between F and E. Only one person sits between F and C. E
(d) P-N (e) M-O
does not sit near to C. Either A sits 2nd to the left of H or 2nd
right of H. One person sits between A and C. B and G sit 13. How many persons were born between T and N?
opposite to each other. D sits 2nd to the left of B. G doesn’t (a) Six (b) Four (c) Two
sit next to F. (d) Three (e) None of these

14. The number of persons were born after P is same as 24. The code “el” is coded as which of the following word?
the number of persons born before___? (a) never (b) time (c) focus
(a) M (b) R (c) Q (d) be (e) None of these
(d) U (e) None of these 25. What may be the possible code for “focus real” in the
15. Which of the following is odd one? given code language?
(a) Q (b) L (c) R (a) ks ze (b) ro hy (c) hy tr
(d) P (e) S (d) either (a) or (c) (e) nt me
Direction (16-20): In each of the questions below are Direction (26-29): Study the following information
given some statements followed by two conclusions. You carefully and answer the questions given below:
have to take the given statements to be true even if they Six persons are sitting in a row facing to the north and they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read have different ages but not necessarily in the same order. C
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given sits 3rd from one of the end. The one who is 12 year old sits
conclusions logically follows from the given statements 2nd to the right of C. The number of persons sit right of the
disregarding commonly known facts. one who 12 year old is same as the number of persons sit
(a) If only conclusion I follows. to the left of D. O sits 2nd to the right of the one who is 6
(b) If only conclusion II follows. year old. Two persons sit between D and B, whose age is
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. twice than D. N sits to the right of P. The one who 36 year
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. old sits 3rd to the left of the one who 15 year old. The age of
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. O is 18 year.
16. Statements: A>M>R=F≥Z<X<C<V>B>N 26. If P is 3 year older than C, then which of the following
Conclusion: I: A≥Z II: Z<V is the age of P?
(a) 39 Years (b) 33 Years (c) 21 Years
17. Statements: Z<X<C≤V;B>C<G<H≤J (d) 9 Years (e) None of these
Conclusion: I: Z<G II: X<J
27. What is the total age of C and B?
18. Statements: Q≥W≥E≥R<T<Y≤U≤I (a) 44 (b) 48 (c) 18
Conclusion: I: Q≥T II: R≤I (d) 42 (e) 27
19. Statements: A<S<D=F>G;H>D<Z<X<C 28. How many persons sit between P and D?
Conclusion: I: A<C II: C≥G (a) More than three (b) None
(c) Two (d) One (e) None of these
20. Statements: C=V>B>N>M<S<D<F<G
Conclusion: I: B>M II: M<G 29. Who among the following sits at the extreme end of
the row?
Direction (21-25): Study the following information (a) C (b) B (c) N
carefully and answer the questions given below (d) O (e) D
In a certain code language:
“Never talk between others” is coded as “sm nt ro fi” Direction (30-34): Study the following information
“Others should be helpful” is coded as “ro el ac jq” carefully and answer the questions given below:
“Never be time specific” is coded as “fi dg el pa” Seven persons were born in different years i.e. 1953, 1963,
“Focus between specific hours” is coded as “hy dg nt ks” 1968, 1976, 1990, 1993, 1998. 2019 is the base year for
measuring the age of all persons.
21. What is the code for “Never together” in the given
Not more than two persons were born before P. One
code language?
person was born between V and S and none of them have
(a) nt ro (b) ro fi (c) fi uy
even numbered age. There are as many persons were born
(d) jq nt (e) None of these before U as after Q. Difference between the age of T and S
22. What is the code for “specific” in the given code is not less than 20 years. T was born before Q and after R.
language? Either P or U have odd numbered age.
(a) dg (b) ac (c) jq 30. In which of the following year T was born?
(d) fi (e) None of these (a) 1953 (b) 1968 (c) 1990
23. What is the code for “Others” in the given code (d) 1998 (e) None of these
language? 31. What is the sum of the age of R and S?
(a) sm (b) ro (c) el (a) 92 (b) 69 (c) 87
(d) pa (e) None of these (d) 50 (e) None of these

32. Who among the following is the oldest person? 35. In the given word ‘SPLENDOR’, in which consonant
(a) P (b) Q (c) R changed into its previous letter and the vowel into its
(d) T (e) None of these
next letter (according to the alphabetical order) and
33. Which of the following pair of combination is true?
then all letters are arranged in alphabetical order
(a) P- 29 (b) Q-26 (c) R-56
(d) S-43 (e) None is true from left to right then which of the following letter is
fifth from the left end?
34. How many persons are younger than U?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (a) R (b) O (c) K
(d) Three (e) More than three (d) M (e) C
Directions (36-40): Given table shows the data of 42. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of
population in 5 different parks. Study the data carefully stream is 8 : 1. It takes 4 hours by boat to cover 54 km
and answer the questions. in downstream & 42 km in upstream. Find the
Parks Total Population Female population
downstream speed of boat.
A 400 150
(a) 25 kmph (b) 24 kmph (c) 21 kmph
B 500 200
C 700 350 (d) 27 kmph (e) 23 kmph
D 800 450 43. Manoj gave 60% of his salary to his wife and invested
E 900 500
rest amount in mutual funds. His wife spends 30%
(Total population = Male population + Female population)
amount on grocery and 20% on rent. From remaining
36. If 20% of total population did not visit on a particular amount, she purchased gold worth Rs. 18000. Find
day in park A of which male population was 60% then
salary of Manoj.
what percent of total population in park B is male
population who visited in park A? (a) Rs 60000 (b) Rs 54000 (c) Rs 64000
(a) 45% (b) 40.4% (c) 39.2% (d) Rs 58000 (e) Rs 66000
(d) 48.6% (e) None of these
44. The length & breadth of a rectangle is in ratio 4 : 7. If
37. What is average of male population in park B, C and perimeter is 88 cm. find area of rectangle.
D? (a) 414 𝑐𝑚2 (b) 336 𝑐𝑚2 (c) 448𝑐𝑚2
(a) 343.33 (b) 313.33 (c) 323.33
(d) 524 𝑐𝑚2 (e) 396 𝑐𝑚2
(d) 333.33 (e) 353.33
38. By what percent female population in park D is more 45. The radius of a circle is 14 cm. what is area of another
or less than the male population in park E? circle having radius 1.5 times of the actual circle?
(a) 15% (b) 9.09% (c) 11.11% (a) 1296 𝑐𝑚2 (b) 1386 𝑐𝑚2 (c) 1352 𝑐𝑚2
(d) 14.28% (e) 12.5% (d) 1485 𝑐𝑚2 (e) 1276 𝑐𝑚2
39. What is ratio of male population in park A & D
together to female population in park B & E together? Directions (46-50): In the following two equations
(a) 6 ∶ 7 (b) 1 ∶ 1 (c) 7 ∶ 6 questions numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to
(d) 5 ∶ 6 (e) 5 ∶ 7 solve both equations and Give answer
40. If 30 females from each park are above 80 years age (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y
then find the average of no. of females who are below (c) If y > x (d) If y ≥ x
or equal to the age of 80 years from all the parks. (e) If x = y or no relation can be established
(a) 295 (b) 285 (c) 300
(d) 280 (e) 290 46. I. x² - 7x + 12 = 0 II. y² - 8y + 12 = 0
41. The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years ago was 5 : 3. The 47. I. 2x² + x – 28 = 0 II. 2y² - 23y + 56 = 0
sum of present ages of A, B and C is 80 years. If present
age of C is equal to sum of present ages of A and B. find 48. I. 2x² - 7x – 60 = 0 II. 3y² + 13y + 4 = 0
the present age of A. 49. I. x² - 17x – 84 = 0 II. y² + 4y – 117 = 0
(a) 17 years (b) 24 years (c) 20 years
(d) 22 years (e) 18 years 50. I. x2 = 81 II. (y-9)2 = 0

Directions (51-55): Given line graph shows the data of male & female population in 5 different cities. Read the data
carefully and answer the questions.
Male Population Female Population
600
500
400
300
200
100
A B C D E
(Total population = Male population + Female population)

51. By what percent total population of city A is more or 57. A can do a work in 36 days while B can do the same in
less than that of city D? 48 days. If A work for ‘x’ days while B work for ‘x+2’
(a) 45% (b) 35% (c) 70% days then one-third of the work is complete. Find the
(d) 30% (e) 60% value of x.
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6
52. If in city A, the ratio of male graduates to female (d) 7 (e) 5
graduates is 3 : 4 and total graduates in the city are
70% of total population. Find population of females 58. A shopkeeper marked the price of an article by 40%
above cost price and gave discount of Rs. 224. On the
who are not graduate.
final amount, he charged 10% tax. In the whole
(a) 120 (b) 50 (c) 90
transaction, he earned Rs. 158.6. Find cost price of the
(d) 70 (e) 135 article.
53. What is average of male population in all cities? (a) Rs 750 (b) Rs 760 (c) Rs 744
(a) 465 (b) 455 (c) 440 (d) Rs 757 (e) Rs 748
(d) 460 (e) 430 59. Two friends Pinki and Rinki entered into a
54. What percent of Female population in city C is male partnership by investing an amount of Rs 6000 and Rs
9000 respectively and ratio of their period of
population in city E?
investment is 2: 3. Find the profit share of Pinki if
(a) 90.2% (b) 87.5% (c) 84.5%
profit share of Rinki is Rs 45,000.
(d) 85.5% (e) 114.2% (a) Rs 24,000 (b) Rs 20,000 (c) Rs 18,000
55. In city B & C, ratio of postgraduates is 7 : 8. Total (d) Rs 28,000 (e) Rs 25,000
population who is postgraduate in city B is equal to 60. Time taken to travel a certain distance of ‘x’ km at
total population of city A. find ratio of non- speed of 40 km/h is 2 hours more than the time taken
postgraduate population in city B to that of city C. to travel (x+20) km at speed of 60km/h. Find the time
(a) 7 : 3 (b) 8 : 3 (c) 7 : 1 taken to travel (x+40) km at the speed of 40 km/h?
(d) 3 : 1 (e) 8 : 1 (a) 9 hours (b) 5 hours (c) 8 hours
(d) 6 hours (e) 7.5 hours
56. X liters of milk is taken out and replaced with water
from a container having 240 liters milk. Now, 20% of Directions (61-65): What approximate value should come
the mixture is taken out and replaced with water. In in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
final mixture, the difference in quantity of milk & Note:- (you are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
water is 128 liters. Find X. 61. 111.01 + 41.23 + (4.96)2 + (2.09)2 =?
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 9 (a) 195 (b) 162 (c) 181
(d) 11 (e) 8 (d) 170 (e) 189

61
62. 109.07√?− 21.02 ×? = 47.96√? 66. Difference between number of boys and girls in hostel
(a) 441 (b) 169 (c) 250 D is what percent of difference between boys and girls
(d) 121 (e) 324 in hostel B?
(a) 53% (b) 58% (c) 63%
63. 1332.89 + 171.928 + 17.01 + ?² = 1690.87
(a) 27 (b) 17 (c) 9 (d) 60% (e) 57.5%
(d) 13 (e) 19 67. Find difference between total number of boys and
322.9
64. 150.09% of 20 + 17.02 + √? = (8.96)² girls together in hostel A and that in hostel D?
(a) 984 (b) 1024 (c) 1360 (a) 108 (b) 118 (c) 112
(d) 1225 (e) 674 (d) 98 (e) 128
1
65. 56.08% of 149.92 + √28.02 × 6.98 - 119% of 998.9 = ? 68. Find ratio of total number of boys and girls together
(a) 17 (b) -13 (c) 8 in hostel B to that of in hostel C?
(d) -16 (e) 22 (a) 3: 5 (b) 2: 5 (c) 3: 4
Directions (66-70):- Read the given information carefully (d) 4: 5 (e) 6: 5
and answer the following questions. 69. If 20 boys from each hostel left their hostel then find
There are four hostels i.e. A, B, C and D. the average of remaining number of boys in all the
In hostel A: Number of boys are 120 and number of girls hostels?
are 30% more than that of number of girls in hostel B. (a) 239.5 (b) 235 (c) 250.5
In hostel B: Number of boys are double than that of number
(d) 240.5 (e) 245.5
of girls.
In hostel C: Number of boys are 100 more than that of boys 70. Total number of boys in hostel A and that of girls in
in hostel A and total boys and girls in C is 1000. hostel C is what percent more than number of boys in
In hostel D: Number of boys is 182 more than the number
hostel B?
of boys in hostel A. Average of number of girls of hostel A
and that of hostel D is 223.Number of boys in hostel D is 98 (a) 100% (b) 125% (c) 150%
less that of boys in hostel B. (d) 137.5% (e) 175%
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (71-75): Read each sentence to find out if there 74. Delhi could get its first (1)/ stretch of metrolite, a
is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, cheaper, (2)/ smaller and slow urban rail (3)/ transit
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of system compared to metro rail (4)
part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) No Error
71. Both leaders agreed to work together (1)/ to ensure
that “radicalisation and terrorism” did not (2)/ affect 75. These sales (1)/ led us to think that (2)/ there is not
the fabric of the “multi-cultural, multi-ethnic and (3)/ much of a market (3)/ for this kind of product (4)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
multi-religious societies” of there countries (4)
(d) 4 (e) No Error
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) No Error Directions (76-80): In the following passage, there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
72. He moved up the (1)/corporate ladder in (2)/ the are printed below the passage and against each, four words
early days of his career and (3)/ become president in are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
1982. (4) Find out the appropriate word in each case.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 The two words ‘growth’ and ‘development’ were often
(d) 4 (e) No Error used (76) in economic discussion.
As soon as ‘development economics’ emerged as a distinct
73. The chargesheet has (1)/ been filed before (2)/a
field of study after the World War II, it ‘had the appearance
Lucknow court, against all (3)/ those named in the
of being a child of growth economics’ and, in fact, this child
FIR (4) did not differ from what could be expected from a genuine
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 ‘son of growth economics’. But, technically speaking, they
(d) 4 (e) No Error are not the same.

To a layman, these two terms appear to be (77). However, Useful goals should be challenging and achievable. Setting
in the 1950s and 1960s, economists drew a line of a sales target that you'll almost certainly reach may make
demarcation between economic growth and economic you and your coworkers feel good about yourselves, but it
development. True enough, the concept of economic won't spur you to work harder and achieve your potential.
development is broader than economic growth. Develop- Setting a sales target that is nearly impossible to reach
ment is taken to mean ‘growth plus change’, whereas won't make your staff work harder, because they'll know
economic growth means growth only quantitative
the outcome will inevitably fall short. To be truly useful,
expansion of an economy. Economic growth is, thus, a
goals should also be clear and – whenever possible –
quantitative concept, while economic development is a
quantifiable.
(78) concept. C. P. Kindleberger says that growth involves
focusing on height or weight while development focuses on It is more effective to say that you want your company to
the change in functional capacity. expand into two new markets during the next two years
Economic growth is defined in positive terms. It is than to say that you want it to grow considerably. The
measured by the sustained increase in real, national or per former provides clear criteria that drive you to achieve,
capita income of a nation over time. Economic growth is and indicators that tell you when you've succeeded. The
usually measured in terms of an increase in real GNP or latter is so vague that you won't really know what you're
GDP over time or an increase in income per head over time. working toward or if you've achieved it.
Growth is (79) as it enables a society to consume more To make your goal-setting meaningful and important, the
goods and services. members of your staff must have a clear idea of what
That is why growth is considered to be the basis of they're working toward, and they must have the tools and
advancing real living standards or human welfare. At the resources to achieve the goals you've created.
same time, it is also true that growth does not necessarily
Communicate your goals clearly in meetings and in memos.
lead to an increase in human welfare. Economic de-
Be available to answer questions, give feedback and offer
velopment is more (80) than economic growth.
support. Celebrate successes and reflect when your efforts
76. (a) Contrasting (b) Alternative fall short.
(c) Regular (d) Interchangeably Coordinate efforts among team members to work in a
(e) None of these. shared direction with the objective of achieving the goals
77. (a) Synonymous (b) Ambiguity you've set. Create a series of goals to be achieved over time,
(c) Hesitant (d) Intrinsic such as opening one store a year for five years. Align short-
(e) None of these. term goals, such as improving quarterly cash flow with
78. (a) Adaptive (b) Reciprocate (c) Qualitative longer term goals, such as opening new stores.
(d) Widening (e) None of these. In some ways, the process of setting and working toward
goals is even more important than whether or not you
79. actually achieve them. Circumstances unfold over time,
(a) Requiring (b) Desirable
such as changes in market conditions or unforeseen
(c) Retarding (d) Breakthrough
opportunities that make previously set goals obsolete.
(e) None of these.
Failure to reach a goal doesn't necessarily mean that your
80. (a) Superior (b) Continuous work has been unsuccessful. If your goals turn out to be
(c) Significantly (d) fundamental unrealistic, take a step back and set new goals that will
(e) None of these. guide your plans and processes in a more relevant
Directions (81-88): Read the following passage and direction.
answer the following questions. Some words are
81. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in
highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.
context of the given passage?
In terms of setting goals in your organization, if you know (a) Goal setting should be failure proof as the steps
where you want your organization to go, you'll be in a taken cannot be reverted
strong position to know whether or not you've arrived at (b) Long term goal can be divided into short term
that goal. Goal setting is an important tool not only for goals.
clarifying direction but also for assessing organizational
(c) Both (a) and (d)
progress. Set clear goals, as those enable you to be more
(d) Success of goal setting is based on the final result.
effective toward guiding your performance and
(e) None of these.
_____________ your results.
82. As per the passage, which of the following are the 89. Both the magistrate and the station-house officer has
prerequisite for the team members to achieve the arrived on a conclusion at a mere glance of the
desired goal? complaint.
(i) Skills (a) officers having arrived on a conclusion at
(ii) Tools (b) officer has arrived on the conclusion on
(iii) Clear objectives (c) officer have arrived on a conclusion at
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (d) officer has arrived on the conclusion on
(c) Both (ii) and (i) (d) Both (ii) and (iii) (e) No correction required
(e) All of these. 90. Jammu and Kashmir was emptied of its tourists and
the Amarnath pilgrims at the peak of the season on
83. Which of the following could be the appropriate filler
the pretext of terror threats.
for the blank given in the passage?
(a) Amarnath pilgrim at the peak of the
(a) Describe (b) Evaluating (c) Improve
(b) Amarnath pilgrims at the peek of the
(d) Degenerating (e) None of these. (c) Amarnath pilgrim at the peek of the
84. Which of the following characteristics of a good goal (d) Amarnath pilgrims at the peak on the
is/are mentioned in the passage? (e) No correction required
(i) Demanding 91. The decision to prosecute the advocate for filing false
(ii) Realistic complaints are an encouraging sign that his run
(iii) Precise may not last.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (a) complaints is an encouraging sign
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (b) complaints are a encouraging sign
(e) All of these. (c) complaints is a encouraging sign
(d) complaint is a encouraging sign
85. Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
(e) No correction required
word ‘REFLECT’ as used in the passage?
(a) Remorse (b) Deject (c) Apprehend 92. The government’s plan to rise a new class of local
(d) Express (e) None of these. leaders through Block Development Council
elections in Jammu and Kashmir is very impressive.
86. As per the passage, which of the following highlight (a) to rise a new class of local leader
the importance of details while setting goal? (b) to raise a new classes of local leaders
(a) Proper understanding of the objective (c) to rise a new classes of local leaders
(b) Motivation for goal accomplishment (d) to raise a new class of local leaders
(c) Easy to explain (e) No correction required
(d) Both (a) and (b)
93. The cemetery where the four bodies was exhume
(e) None of these.
stands testimony to the tragedy.
87. Which of the following phrase can be concluded from (a) four bodies were exhume
the sentence highlighted in the passage? (b) four bodies were exhumed
(a) The way to get started is to quit talking and begin (c) four body was exhumed
doing. (d) four body were exhume
(b) Success is a journey not a destination. (e) No correction required
(c) When you reach the end of your rope, tie a knot in Directions (94-98): In the following questions, each
it and hang on. sentence consists of a blank that can be filled with any of
(d) The future belongs to those who believe in the the given word (s) to make the sentence grammatically
beauty of their dreams. correct and contextually meaningful. Choose the most
(e) None of these. appropriate alternative reflecting the word (s) that fills the
blank. If all the given words can fill the blank correctly
88. Which of the following is similar in meaning to the choose option (e) i.e., “All of these” as your answer choice.
word ‘UNFOLD’ as used in the passage?
(a) Flatten (b) Recount (c) Extend 94. Politics is a field where you can make a big _____________
(d) Occur (e) None of these. contribution, wherever in the world you may be.
(A) Significantly
Directions (89-93): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c), (d) (B) Impactful
given below each sentence should replace the phrase (C) Excite
printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically (a) only (A) (b) only (B)
correct? If the sentence is correct as required, mark (e) as (c) only (B) and (C) (d) only (A) and (B)
the answer. (e) All of these

95. The Jammu and Kashmir government splashed full- 98. Nearly 500 terrorists are waiting in various training
page advertisements in local newspapers to _________ camps along the Line of Control, looking for ___________
people from taking part in the on-going shutdown. to sneak into Jammu and Kashmir
(A) Discourage (A) Opportunities
(B) Dissuade (B) Methods
(C) Prevented (C) Ways
(a) only (A) (b) only (B) (a) only (A) (b) only (B)
(c) only (A) and (C) (d) only (A) and (B) (c) only (B) and (C) (d) only (A) and (B)
(e) All of these (e) All of these
96. District Magistrate Naveen Kumar confirmed death of Directions (99-100): For each question is given a
one person and wounds received by three others in sentence or a group of sentences with four highlighted
the latest ____________. words. Among the four highlighted words, two words
(A) Violence needs to be interchanged to make the sentence
(B) Scenario grammatically and contextually correct. Choose the option
(C) Offer which mentions the correct interchange
(a) only (A) (b) only (B) 99. The risk come (A) is rising not because the tanker per
(c) only (B) and (C) (d) only (A) and (B) se contains enough oil to squeeze (B) the market, but
(e) All of these the risk that the incident (C) will be retaliated or
97. The Delhi High Court on Friday permitted Indiabulls more attacks would premium (D)
Housing Finance Ltd. to ___________ its plea to restrain (a) B-C (b) A-C (c) B-D
(d) C-D (e) A-D
BJP leader
(A) Amplifying 100. India’s hopes for retaining (A) the right to implement
(B) Withdraw data negotiators (B) laws remain alive as Indian
(C) Forecast localisation (C) declined to agree to the e-commerce
(a) only (A) (b) only (B) chapter (D) of RCEP agreement.
(c) only (B) and (C) (d) only (A) and (B) (a) B-C (b) A-C (c) B-D
(e) All of these (d) C-D (e) A-B
Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
1. (d); Solutions (6-10):
Solutions (2-4):
6. (d); 7. (b); 8. (a);

9. (b); 10. (a);
Solutions (11-15):
Months Dates Persons
2. (c); 3. (b); 4. (a); 15 Q
January
30 O
5. (d); 15 L
March
30 M
15 R
April
30 T
Months Dates Persons 21. (c); 22. (a); 23. (b);
15 P
September 24. (d); 25. (d);
30 U
15 N Solutions (26-29):
November
30 S
11. (d); 12. (c); 13. (c);
14. (a); 15. (e);
Solutions (16-20): 26. (a); 27. (b); 28. (b);
16. (b); I: A≥Z (False) II: Z<V (True) 29. (c);
17. (e); I: Z<G (True) II: X<J (True)
Solutions (30-34):
18. (d); I: Q≥T (False) II: R≤I (False)
Persons Years Age (in year based on 2019)
19. (a); I: A<C (True) II: C≥G (False)
R 1953 66
20. (e); I: B>M (True) II: M<G (True) U 1963 56
Solutions (21-25): P 1968 51
Words Codes T 1976 43
Never fi V 1990 29
talk sm Q 1993 26
between nt S 1998 21
others ro
Should jq / ac 30. (e); 31. (c); 32. (c);
be el
33. (b); 34. (e);
helpful ac /jq
time pa 35. (b);
specific dg
focus ks /hy
hours hy /ks
36. (b); male population who did not visit park A 40. (c); total female population
20 60
= 100 × 100 × 400 = 48 = 150 + 200 + 350 + 450 + 500 = 1650
Female population above 80 years age
Male population who visited in park A = 30 × 5 = 150
= 400 − (150 + 48) = 202 Required average =
1650−150
= 300
202 5
Required % = 500 × 100 = 40.4%
41. (b); let present age of A & B be x & y years
37. (d); male population in park B, C & D respectively
𝑥−4 5
= (500-200)+(700-350)+(800-450) = 1000 =
𝑦−4 3
1000
Required average = = 333.33 3𝑥 − 12 = 5𝑦 − 20
3
3𝑥 = 5𝑦 − 8 ……… (i)
38. (e); Male population in park E = 900 − 500 = 400 Let present age of C be z years
450−400 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 80
Required % = × 100 = 12.5%
400 𝑥+𝑦=𝑧
39. (a); male population in park A & D 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 40 …………. (ii)
On solving (i) & (ii)
= 400 − 150 + 800 − 450 = 600
𝑥 = 24 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Required ratio = 600 ∶ (200 + 500) = 6 ∶ 7 Present age of A = 24 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

42. (d); let speed of boat in still water & stream be 8x 49. (e); I. x² - 17x – 84 = 0
kmph & x kmph respectively x² +4x – 21x – 84 = 0
54 42
ATQ, + =4 (x + 4) (x – 21) = 0
8𝑥+𝑥 8𝑥−𝑥
6 6 x = -4, 21
+𝑥 = 4⇒𝑥 = 3
𝑥 II. y² + 4y – 117 = 0
Downstream speed = 8x + x = 27 kmph y² - 9y + 13y – 117 = 0
43. (a); let salary of Manoj be Rs 100x (y – 9) (y + 13) = 0
60 y = 9, -13
Amount given to wife = 100 × 100𝑥 = Rs.60x
50 No relation between x and y
ATQ, 60𝑥 × 100 = 18000
𝑥 = 600 50. (d); I. 𝑥 2 = 81
Salary of Manoj = 100𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠 60000 𝑥 = ±9
II. (𝑦 − 9)2 = 0
44. (c); let length & breadth of rectangle be 4x cm & 7x 𝑦=9
cm Clearly, 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
ATQ, 2(4𝑥 + 7𝑥) = 88
𝑥=4 51. (d); total population of city A = 300 + 400 = 700
Area of rectangle = 4𝑥 × 7𝑥 = 448 𝑐𝑚2 Total population of city D = 450 + 550 = 1000
1000−700
45. (b); radius of second circle = 1.5 × 14 = 21 𝑐𝑚 Required % = 1000 × 100 = 30% 𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠
22
Required area of circle = 𝜋𝑟 2 = × 21 × 21 70
7 52. (a); total graduate population = × (300 + 400)
= 1386 𝑐𝑚2 100
= 490
46. (e); I. x² - 7x + 12 = 0 4
Female graduate population = 7 × 490 = 280
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 12 = 0
(𝑥 − 4)(𝑥 − 3) = 0 Female population who is not graduate
𝑥 = 3,4 = 400 − 280 = 120
II. y² - 8y + 12 = 0 300+550+500+450+350
53. (e); Required average =
𝑦 2 − 6𝑦 − 2𝑦 + 12 = 0 5
2150
(𝑦 − 6)(𝑦 − 2) = 0 = = 430
5
𝑦 = 2,6
350
No relation can be established 54. (b); Required % = 400 × 100 = 87.5%
47. (d); I. 2x² + x – 28 = 0 55. (d); Postgraduate population in city B
2x² + 8x – 7x – 28 = 0 = 300 + 400 = 700
2x (x + 4) – 7 (x + 4) = 0
Postgraduate population in city C
(2x – 7) (x + 4)= 0 8
7 = × 700 = 800
𝑥 = −4, 2 7
Required ratio = (1000 − 700) ∶ (900 − 800)
II. 2y² - 23y + 56 = 0
2y² - 16y – 7y + 56 = 0 = 300 ∶ 100 = 3 ∶ 1
2y(y – 8) – 7(y – 8) = 0 56. (b); When X liter milk is taken out
(2y – 7) (y – 8) = 0 Quantity of milk left = (240-X) lit
7
𝑦 = 2,8 Quantity of water = X lit
y≥x When 20% of mixture taken out
80
48. (e); I. 2x² - 7x – 60 = 0 Remaining quantity of milk = 100 × (240 − 𝑋)
2x² - 15x + 8x – 60 = 0 = (192 – 0.8X) lit
x (2x – 15 ) + 4 (2x – 15) = 0 Remaining quantity of water
80 20
(x + 4) (2𝑥 − 15) = 0 = ×𝑋+ × 240 = (0.8𝑋 + 48) 𝑙𝑖𝑡
15 100 100
𝑥 = −4, 2 ATQ, (192 − 0.8𝑋) − (0.8𝑋 + 48) = 128
II. 3y² + 13y + 4 = 0 16 = 1.6𝑋 ⇒ 𝑋 = 10
3y² + 12y + y + 4 = 0
3y (y + 4) + 1 (y + 4) = 0 57. (c);
(3y + 1) (y + 4) = 0
1
𝑦 = − 3 , −4
No relation between x and y

322.9
Work completed by A and B in mentioned days 64. (b); 150.09% 𝑜𝑓 20 + 17.02 + √? = (8.96)2
1
= × 144 = 48 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 30 + 19 + √? = 81
3
ATQ, 4𝑥 + 3(𝑥 + 2) = 48 ? = 1024
𝑥=6 1
65. (b); 56.08% of 149.92 + √28.02 × 6.98 – 119%
58. (a); let cost price be Rs. 100x
140 998.9=?
Marked price = 100 × 100𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠 140𝑥 1
56% of 150 + √28 × 7 − 9 × 999 ≈?
Selling price = 𝑅𝑠 (140𝑥 − 224)
110 84 + 14 – 111 = -13
Selling price after tax = 100 × (140𝑥 − 224)
Solutions (66-70):
= Rs (154x − 246.4) Let number of girls in hostel B=100x
ATQ, 100𝑥 + 158.6 = 154𝑥 − 246.4 Then number of boys in hostel B=200x
𝑥 = 7.5 Number of girls in hostel A= 130x
Cost price of article = 100𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠 750 Number of boys in hostel C=120+100=220
59. (b); Let period of investment of Pinki and Rinki be 2x Number of girls in hostel C=1000-220=780
and 3x units respectively Total number of girls in hostel A and that of in hostel
Ratio of profit share D=446
Pinki Rinki Number of girls in hostel D=(446-130x)
6000× 2𝑥 : 9000× 3𝑥 ⇒ 4 : 9 Number of boys in hostel D=302
Profit share of Pinki=Rs 20,000 ATQ
200x – 302 = 98 ⇒ x = 2
60. (c); ATQ
𝑥 𝑥+20 Hostels Boys Girls
− =2
40 60 A 120 260
𝑥 = 280 km B 400 200
320
Required time= 40 = 8 hours C 220 780
D 302 186
61. (c); 111.01 + 41.23 + (4.96)2 + (2.09)2 =?
111 + 41 + 52 + 22 =? (302−186)
66. (b); Required percent=(400−200) × 100 = 58%
? = 152 + 25 + 4 = 181
61 67. (a); Required difference
62. (a); 109.07√?− 21.02 ×? = 47.96√?
= (302 + 186) − (120 + 260) = 108
61
109√?− 48√? ≈ ×? 600 3
21
61 68. (a); Required ratio = =
61√? = ×? 1000 5
21
100+380+200+282
? = 441 69. (d); Required average = = 240.5
4
63. (d); 1332.89 + 171.928 + 17.01 + ?² = 1690.67 70. (b); Total number of boys in hostel A and that of girls
1333 + 172 + 17 – 1691 ≈ -?² in hostel C = 900
?² = 169 900−400
Required %= 400 × 100 = 125%
? = 13
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
71. (d); In the given sentence, error lies in part (4). In it tense. Hence, the correct answer choice would
use of ‘there’ is incorrect instead it should be be option (d)
‘their’ because ‘there’ is used to refer
73. (e); There is no grammatical error in the given
particularly about a location and ‘their’ is
possessive form of ‘they’. As the given sentence question. Hence, the correct answer choice
is referring to the countries of both leaders, so would be option (e)
‘their’ should be used. Hence, the correct answer
choice would be option (d). 74. (c); In the given sentence, error lies in part (3). In it
use of ‘slow’ is incorrect instead it should be
72. (d); In the given sentence, error lies in part (4). In it ‘slower’ as per the rule of parallelism. Hence, the
use of ‘become’ is incorrect instead it should be
‘became’ because the given sentence is in past correct answer choice would be option (c)

75. (a); Here, error lies in part (2) of the given sentence. 82. (d); Evidence in support of the given answer can be
In it use of ‘led’ is incorrect instead it should be found in the fourth paragraph of the given
‘lead’ because the given sentence is in present passage in which it is stated that ‘To make your
tense and ‘led’ is past participle of ‘lead’. Hence, goal-setting meaningful and important, the
the correct answer choice would be option (a) members of your staff must have a clear idea of
76. (d); From the given options, ‘Interchangeably’ is the what they're working toward, and they must have
most appropriate answer choice because going the tools and resources to achieve the goals you've
through the given sentence it can be seen that created.’ From the given statement both (ii) and
the blank needs to be filled with adverb and not (iii) can be inferred clearly. However there is no
an adjective which eliminates the remaining mention of the ‘skill’ in the passage. Hence, the
options. Hence, the correct answer choice would correct answer choice would be option (d).
be option (d)
83. (b); From the given options, (d)doesn’t fit with the
77. (a); From the given options, ‘Ambiguity’ being a theme of the given passage. Also, (a) and (c) will
Noun cannot be the appropriate filler. And from make the given sentence grammatically
the remaining options only ‘Synonymous’ will fit incorrect because of the rule of parallelism. So,
the given blank to make the given sentence only option (b) it the required answer choice
grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, which fits the given blank contextually and
the correct answer choice would be option (a) makes the given sentence grammatically correct.
78. (c); From the given options, ‘Reciprocate’ and 84. (e); Evidence in support of the given answer can be
‘Widening’ cannot be used to fill the given blank
found in 2nd and 3rd paragraph of the given
because of the sentence structure which
passage in which it is stated that ‘Useful goals
requires adjective to be filled in the given blank.
should be challenging and achievable……,To be
From the remaining two ‘Qualitative’ is the most
suitable answer choice as can be seen from the truly useful, goals should also be clear and –
usage of ‘Quantitative’ in the preceding sentence. whenever possible – quantifiable…… and the
Hence, the correct answer choice would be latter is so vague that you won't really know what
option (c) you're working toward or if you've achieved it’.
Hence, the correct answer choice is option (e)
79. (b); Going through the passage it can be clearly seen
that the appropriate filler for the given blank 85. (d); Remorse means deep regret or guilt for a wrong
would be ‘desirable’ as it matches the theme of committed.
the given passage. Hence, the correct answer Deject means make sad or dispirited; depress
choice would be option (b) Apprehend means understand or perceive.
80. (d); From the given options, ‘superior’ will make the So from the given options only ‘Express’ is
given sentence superfluous. Also, ‘Continuous’ similar in meaning to the highlighted word.
and ‘significantly’ doesn’t make the given Hence, the correct answer choice would be
sentence contextually and grammatically option (d)
correct. So, only ‘fundamental’ matches the 86. (d); Evidence in support of the given argument can
theme of the given passage to make the given be found from the last line of the third paragraph
sentence contextually as well as grammatically in which it is stated that ‘The former provides
correct. Hence, the correct answer choice would clear criteria that drive you to achieve, and
be option (d) indicators that tell you when you've succeeded.
81. (b); From the given statements, only (b) is true. The latter is so vague that you won't really know
Evidence in support of the given argument can what you're working toward or if you've achieved
be found from the last line of the fifth paragraph it.’ From the given statement both (a) and (b) can
in which it is mentioned that ‘Align short-term be inferred clearly. Hence, the correct answer
goals, such as improving quarterly cash flow with choice would be option (d).
longer term goals, such as opening new stores’
From the given statement it can be clearly seen 87. (b); In the given sentence, author is saying that the
that long term goals can be divided into short process of setting goals is more important than
term goals. Also, statement (a) and (d) are achieving it. So, from the given quotes option (b)
incorrect as can be seen from the last few lines of expressed the most similar meaning to the
the last paragraph. Hence, the correct answer highlighted phrase and hence, the correct
choice would be option (b) answer choice.

88. (d); From the given options, all of the given words 95. (d); All of the given options are synonymous to each
are synonymous to the highlighted word but other but ‘prevented’ will make the given
option (d) is the most appropriate synonym of sentence grammatically incorrect. Remaining
the given word as used in the passage. Hence, the two can be used to fill the given blank to make a
correct answer choice would be option (d) grammatically correct and contextually
89. (c); In the highlighted phrase usage of ‘has’ is meaningful sentence. Hence, the correct answer
incorrect instead it should be ‘have’ because choice would be option (d)
when two or more subjects are joined with ‘and’
plural verb is used. Also, articles ‘a’ and ‘the’ can 96. (a); From the given options, only ‘violence’ can fit the
be used here interchangeably. Hence, the correct given blank to make the given sentence both
answer choice would be option (c) grammatically and contextually correct. Hence,
the correct answer choice would be option (a).
90. (e); There is no grammatical error in the highlighted
phrase. Hence, the correct answer choice would 97. (b); From the given options, (A) will make the given
be option (e) sentence grammatically incorrect whereas
91. (a); In the highlighted phrase, use of ‘are’ is incorrect ‘Forecast’ doesn’t fit the blank to make
because in the given sentence subject is contextually meaningful sentence. Only (B) fits
‘decision’ not ‘complaints’ and as per subject the given blank to make the given sentence both
verb agreement singular verb should be used for grammatically and contextually correct. Hence,
singular subject. Hence, the correct answer the correct answer choice is option (b)
choice would be option (a)
98. (e); All of the given fillers can be used to fill the given
92. (d); In the highlighted phrase, use of ‘rise’ is incorrect blank to make the given sentence both
instead it should be ‘raise’ because If you raise grammatically and contextually correct. Hence,
something, it means that you elevate it - you the correct answer choice would be option (e).
move it up or lift it to a higher level and If
something rises, it means that it elevates itself - 99. (e); In the given sentence, ‘come and premium’ are
it goes up itself. No external force is needed. Also, incorrect in their current position as can be seen
difference between them is that raise is from the ‘attacks would premium’ which is not
transitive (it must have a direct object) adding a valid meaning to the sentence but
and rise is intransitive (no direct object). Hence, interchanging them will make the given
the correct answer choice would be option (d). sentence both grammatically and contextually
93. (b); In the highlighted phrase use of ‘was’ is incorrect correct. Hence, the correct answer choice would
because the subject ‘Four bodies’ is plural. Also, be option (e)
the given sentence is in past tense, so at the place
of ‘exhume’ we should use ‘exhumed’. Hence, the 100. (a); In the given sentence, ‘localisation and
correct answer choice would be option (b) negotiators’ in their current position are
incorrect as they are not adding reasonable
94. (b); Going through the given sentence it can be
meaning to the sentence. But interchanging
clearly seen that the appropriate filler for the
given blank would be an adjective. So from the them will make the given sentence both
given options, only (B) satisfies the aforesaid grammatically and contextually correct. Hence,
criteria. Hence the correct answer choice. the correct answer choice would be option (a)

04
REASONING ABILITY
Directions (1-5): Study the following information 7. What is the code for the word ‘guest venue’ in the given
carefully and answer the questions given below: code language?
Nine boxes named P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are placed one (a) gt gk (b) fe mo (c) rs ra
above other but not necessarily in the same order. Only five (d) gt ra (e) None of these
boxes are placed between P and R. T is placed immediate 8. What is the code for the word ‘get’ in the given code
above R. Only three boxes are placed between T and S. As language?
many boxes placed between P and S as between Q and T. U (a) gt (b) fe (c) rs
is placed below Q, but not at bottom. More than four boxes (d) rd (e) None of these
are placed between T and U. One box is placed between U 9. If the code for the words ‘for _____’ is coded as ‘mo gk ’
and V. Box X is placed above box W. in the coded language then what will be the missing
word?
1. Which box is placed at bottom? (a) book (b) required (c) guest
(a) P (b) S (c) T (d) more (e) either (a) or (d)
(d) X (e) V
10. What is the code for ‘book’ in the given code language?
2. How many boxes are placed between X and P? (a) rs (b) gt (c) rd
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) kl (e) either (b) or (c)
(d) four (e) more than four Directions (11-15): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
3. If in a certain way S is related to X and P is related to W
then by which among the following Q is related? Eight friends A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a
square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners
(a) P (b) V (c) R
of the square while the other four sit in the middle of each
(d) T (e) S sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face outside while
4. Which box is placed immediate above and immediate those who sit in the middle of the sides face inside.
below Q? C is an immediate neighbor of A, who faces center. W sits
(a) R and W (b) X and U (c) U and S second to the left of C. Y sits fourth to the left of W. Two
(d) S and X (e) T and R persons sit between Y and D (either from left or right). C is not
an immediate neighbor of D. B sits second to the right of D. X
5. What is the position of W ? sits second to the right of B.
(a) fourth from the top 11. How many persons sits between Z and C when counted
(b) fifth from the top from left of Z?
(c) third form the bottom (a) None (b) One (c) Two
(d) sixth from the bottom (d) Three (e) More than three
(e) forth from the bottom 12. What is the position of Y with respect to D?
(a) Third to the right
Directions (6-10): Study the information and answer the (b) Second to the right
following questions: (c) Fourth to the left
In a certain code language (d) Third to the left
Get details for venue --- fe wi mo rs (e) None of these
Venue book required details --- rs gt rd wi 13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
Details required book guest --- wi gt rd ra form a group. Who among the following does not belong
Guest get more venue ---- ra fe gk rs to that group?
6. What is the code for ‘details’ in the given code (a) Z (b) W (c) D
(d) C (e) Y
language?
(a) fe (b) mo (c) wi 14. Who sits second to the right of A?
(a) B (b) X (c) Y
(d) ra (e) None of these
(d) D (e) None of these
15. Who among the following sits between B and C, when 22. Find the odd one out?
counted from the right of B? (a) JQK (b) BYC (c) LRM
(a) Y and Z (b) W and D (c) X and Y (d) CXD (e) OPX
(d) A and W (e) A and D
Direction (23-25): Study the information and answer the
Directions (16-20): In these questions, a relationship following questions:
between different elements is shown in the statements. D is 20m in south of A. C is 5m east of D. E is 10m north of
The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give C. F is 10m east of E. G is 15m south of F. X is 15m west of
answer G. B is 10m to the east of A. Z is 10m to the south of B. L is
16. Statement: L≤T≤I≥M<X, W<P≤L≥B≥K 10m to east of C.
I. K<X II. W>M
23. In which direction is point A with respect to point G?
(a) if only conclusion II is true.
(a) North-west (b) South-east (c) North
(b) if only conclusion I is true.
(d) South-west (e) North-east
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true. 24. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true. a group, which of the following does not belong to that
group?
17. Statement: Z<U≤D≤A≤M<S, Q>A≤Y<G (a) EF (b) EC (c) LG
I. Z<Y II. S>Q (d) BZ (e) CL
(a) if both conclusion I and II are true.
25. What is distance between point F and L?
(b) if only conclusion I is true.
(a) 10m (b) 5m (c) 15m
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. (d) 20m (e) 25m
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(e) if only conclusion II is true. Directions (26-30): Study the information and answer the
following questions:
18. Statement: L≤T≤I≥M<X, W<P≤L≥B≥K
Eight persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R sitting in a row. Some of
I. K≥M II. P>M
them are facing north while some are facing south. N sits fifth
(a) if only conclusion II is true. to the right of M but none of them sits at an extreme end. Q
(b) if either conclusion I or II is true. sits third to the right of N. L sits second to the right of Q. Only
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. one person sit between L and P. R sits third to the left of P. K
(d) if only conclusion I is true. sits second to the left of O. Both the person sitting at extreme
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true. ends faces opposite direction to each other. Both the
immediate neighbours of M faces same direction. R sits to the
19. Statement: Z<U≤D≤A≤M<S, Q>A≤Y<G left of L and both of them are facing opposite direction to each
I. M≥U II. G>Z other. R does not face north direction.
(a) if only conclusion II is true. 26. Who among the following sits third to the right of R?
(b) if only conclusion I is true. (a) Q (b) K (c) M
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. (d) N (e) None of these
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true. 27. Which among the following pair sit at the end of the
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true. row?
20. Statement: J>K≥H=U≥B≤T<F≤R (a) Q, L (b) R, K (c) O, P
I. J>B II. H<R (d) L, R (e) None of these
(a) if only conclusion II is true. 28. How many persons sits to the right of K?
(a) Two
(b) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(b) More than Three
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Three
(d) if only conclusion I is true. (d) One
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true. (e) None of these
21. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
“Streaming” having same number of letters between 29. Who among the following sits second to the right of Q?
them as they have between them according to the (a) L (b) N (c) M
alphabetical order. (d) O (e) None of these
(a) Two 30. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form
(b) More than Three a group, which of the following does not belong to that
(c) Three group?
(d) One (a) K (b) N (c) R
(e) None of these (d) O (e) P

Directions (31-35): Study the following information 31. Who among the following buys Nail paint?
carefully and answer the given questions: (a) U (b) G (c) H
Seven persons E, F, G, H, S, T and U buys seven different (d) T (e) None of These
items viz. Tie, Coat, Ring, Nail paint, Shirt, Diary and 32. Which item was bought immediately after Shirt?
Goggles on different days. One person buys one item in a (a) Diary (b) Goggles (c) Tie
day. (d) Coat (e) None of These
Four person buys items between E and the one who buys 33. How many persons buys items between S and F?
Tie. The one who buys coat buys immediately after the (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
one who buys Tie. Two persons buys items between H (d) Four (e) None of These
and the one who buys Tie. T buys immediately after H. F
34. Which of the following combination is true?
buys his item immediately after the one who buys Diary.
(a) G- Tie (b) H- Dairy (c) T- Goggles
Two person buys items between the one who buys coat
(d) E- Dairy (e) None is true
and the one who buys Shirt. S buys Ring. Goggles was
bought immediately after E. Two person buys item 35. Who among the following buys item immediately
between the one who buys Ring and the one who buys before Ring?
Diary. U buys his item before G. (a) U (b) G (c) H
(d) T (e) None of These
Direction (36-40):- Line chart given below shows number of labors (men and women) working in six different years.
Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Men Women
400
300
200
100
0
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
36. Total number of Men working in 2012 and 2013 (a) 561 (b) 456 (c) 489
together is what percent of the total number of labors (d) 594 (e) 630
(Men + Women) working in 2014?
(a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 80% 39. Find the ratio between total number of Labors working
(d) 90% (e) 40% in 2012 and 2013 together to total number of labors
37. Average number of Women working in 2014, 2015 and working in 2015 and 2016 together?
2016 together is how much more/less than average (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 35 : 66
number of Men working in 2011, 2014 and 2016 (d) 11 : 10 (e)None of the given options
together?
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 90 40. Total number of Men working in all six years is how
(d) 70 (e) None of the given options much more/less than total number of Women working
in all six years together?
38. Number of Men working in 2017 is 15% more than that (a) None of the given options
of 2015 while number of Women working in 2017 is
(b) 140 (c) 160
40% less than that of 2014. Find total number of labors
(Men + Women) working in 2017? (d) 180 (e) 200

Directions (41-46): Find the wrong number in the Females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is 13 : 7
following number series: Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72
more than number of females who use their coupon in Hair
41. 4, 5.1, 7.3, 10.6, 15, 20, 27.1 cutting. Total number of males who use their coupon in
(a) 5.1 (b) 4 (c) 7.3 Pedicure and Haircutting together is 174 more than total
(d) 20 (e) 27.1 number of females who use their coupon in Pedicure and
42. 2, 3, 8, 31, 154, 924, 6460 Haircutting together.
(a) 924 (b) 6460 (c) 154 51. Males who use their coupon in Pedicure is what
(d) 8 (e) 31 percent of the Males who use their coupons in
43. 251, 252, 254, 227, 243, 118, 154 Haircutting?
(a)200%
(a) 251 (b) 252 (c) 227
(b) 100%
(d) 243 (e) 154
(c)None of the given options
44. 141, 156, 147, 162, 153, 165, 159 (d) 0%
(a) 156 (b) 153 (c) 147 (e) 150%
(d) 165 (e) 159 52. Find the ratio between Total number persons who use
45. 2, 6, 10, 19, 36, 69, 134 their coupons in Pedicure to total number of persons
(a) 134 (b) 69 (c) 6 who use their coupons in Haircutting?
(d) 2 (e) 10 (a) 52 : 23
(b) None of the given options
46. 0.5, 2, 1, 4, 32, 512, 16384 (c) 8 : 9
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8 : 7
(d) 32 (e) 512 (e) 7 : 8
47. Ratio of present ages of A and B is 16:7. After 12 years, 53. Females who use their coupon in Haircutting is how
A’s age is twice of B’s age then find present ages of A much more than Females who use their coupon in
and B? Pedicure?
(a) 64yr; 28yr (b) 80yr; 35yr (a) 15 (b) 45 (c) 30
(c) None of these (d) 96yr; 42 yr (d) None of the given options (e) 60
(e) 102yr; 49yr 54. Out of males who use their coupons in Haircutting,
48. A man invested a certain sum in scheme A at 15% p.a. 25% belongs to city A, then find number of males who
for 2 years and earned Rs 1950 as simple interest. He use their coupons in Haircutting which doesn’t belongs
increased his sum by Rs. ‘x’ and invested in another to city A?
scheme B at 10% p.a. C.I. for 2 years and received Rs. (a) None of the give options (b) 108
1680 as compound interest. Find the value of ‘x’ ? (c) 126 (d) 117 (e) 135
(a) Rs. 1750 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 1250 55. Ratio between Males who use their coupon in Pedicure
(d) None of these (e) Rs. 1850 to that of in Spa is 4 : 5, while ratio between Females
49. In a class there are 30 girls and 15 boys and total who use their coupon in Haircutting to that of in Spa is
7 6 : 11. Find total number of people who use their
average weight of class is 47 15 kg. Total average
coupons in Spa?
weight of boys is 58 kg. Find the approximate average (a) 349 (b) 481 (c) 300
weight of girls ? (d) 440 (e) None of the given options
(a) 32 kg (b) 42 kg (c) 52 kg
Directions (56-61): In each of these questions, two
(d) 35 kg (e) 50 kg
equations (i) and (ii) are given, you have to solve both the
50. Ram bought a bike at 20% discount on MRP. After 1 equations and give answer accordingly.
year Ram sell the bike to Ramesh at 10% loss. After 1 56. (i) 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0
year more Ramesh sell the bike at 20% profit to (ii) 15y² + 16y + 4 = 0
Ranjan. If Ranjan paid Rs. 1,29,600, then find the M.R.P. (a) x > y
of the bike ? (b) x < y
(a) 1,50,000 (b) 2,25,000 (c) 1,40,000 (c) x ≥ y
(d) 2,00,000 (e) 1,80,000 (d) x ≤ y
Direction (51-55): There are 450 coupons which can be (e) x = y or no relation can be established between x &
used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between Males to y.

57. (i) 2x³ = √256 (c) x ≥ y
(ii) 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0 (d) x > y
(a) x = y or no relation can be established between x & (e) x < y
y. 62. ‘A’ can complete a work in 20 days while B is 25% more
(b) x < y efficient than ‘A’. B worked for 6 days and left,
(c) x ≤ y remaining work is completed by ‘C’ in 15 days. Find in
(d) x ≥ y
how many days ‘C’ can complete the whole work alone?
(e) x > y
(a) 27 days (b) 21 days (c)18 days
58. (i) 6x² – 11x + 4 = 0 (d) 24 days (e) 30 days
(ii) 3y² – 5y + 2 = 0
(a) x ≤ y 63. A man travels from Point P to Q with 90 km/hr and
(b) x < y from Q to R with 60 km/hr. Total distance between P
(c) x ≥ y to R is 200 km. If his average speed is 75 km/hr then
(d) x > y
(e) x = y or no relation can be established between x & find the distance between P and Q?
y. (a) 80 km
59. (i) 3x² + 11x + 10 = 0 (b) 120 km
(ii) 2y² + 11y + 14 = 0 (c) 100 km
(a) x ≥ y (d) 150 km
(b) x ≤ y (e) None of the given options
(c) x > y
(d) x < y 64. A mixture contains wine and water in the ratio
(e) x = y or no relation can be established between x & 5 : 1. On adding 5 litre of water, the ratio of wine to
y. water becomes 5 : 2. The quantity of wine in the
60. (i) 12x² + 11x + 2 = 0 mixture is ?
(ii) 12y²+ 7y + 1 = 0
(a) 20 ℓ (b) 22 ℓ (c) 24 ℓ
(a) x ≥ y
(b) x = y or no relation can be established between x & (d) 26 ℓ (e) None of these
y. 65. The average salary of the entire staff in an office is Rs
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y 3200 per month. The average salary of officers is Rs
(e) x > y 6800 and that of non-officers is Rs 2000. If the number
61. (i) 21x² + 10x + 1 = 0 of officers is 5, then find the number of non-officers in
(ii) 24y²+ 26y + 5 = 0 the office?
(a) x ≤ y (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 15
(b) x = y or no relation can be established between x &
y. (d) 5 (e) None of these
Directions (66-70): Given bar graph shows the number of plain books and lined books (in hundreds) available at three
different stores and the table shows the percentage of total books (Plain + lined) that was sold by different stores.
Plain book Lined book
35
30
Books (in hundred)
25
20
15
10
0
Store A Store B Store C

Stores % of sold books
A 20%
B 40%
C 30%
66. The number of plain books sold by store A and store B (a) 1750 (b) 1825 (c) 1850
was 30% and 40% respectively then find number of (d) 1950 (e) 1975
lined books sold by store A and store B together is what
69. Unsold books of store A is approximately is what
percent of total books available at store A ?
6 4 5 percent more or less than total unsold books of store B
(a) 22 % (b) 23 % (c) 25 % and C together.
7 7 7
(d) 25% (e) None of these (a) 48% (b) 54% (c) 59%
67. Average of total books sold by stores B and C together (d) 52% (e) 57%
is how much more than total unsold books of store A. 70. Selling price of each plain books and lined books sold
by store B is Rs. 250 and Rs. 175 respectively. Then,
(a) 1125 (b) 1075 (c) 1055
(d) 1175 (e) 1225 find the total amount earned by store B on selling these
books if 60% of lined books are sold by the store ?
68. Ratio of sold plain and lined books for store C is 5 : 4 (a) Rs. 2.5 lac (b) Rs. 3.6 lac (c) 3.5 lac
and for store B is 3 : 2. Then find the total plain books
sold by these two stores together? (d) 3.8 lac (e) 4.1 lac
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (71-80): Read the following passage carefully Home values may have rebounded, he said, but the factors
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are driving that recovery are very different than those that
given in bold to help you locate them while answering drove the growth in the market in the 1990s and 2000s.
some of the questions. Sanders said more than half of recent home purchases have
been made in cash, which signals investors and hedge
The effects of the worst economic downturn since the
funds are taking advantage of cheap properties. That could
Great Depression are forcing changes on state
freeze out average buyers and also means little real
governments and the U.S. economy that could linger for
economic growth underpins those sales. Those effects are
decades. By one Federal Reserve estimate, the country lost
clear in homeownership rates, which continue to decline.
almost an entire year's worth of economic activity – nearly
In the second quarter of this year, the U.S. homeownership
$14 trillion – during the recession from 2007 to 2009.The
rate was 65.1%, according to Census Bureau data, the
deep and persistent losses of the recession forced states
lowest since 1995. In the mid-2000s, it topped 69%,
to make broad cuts in spending and public workforces. For
capping a steady pace of growth that began after the early
businesses, the recession led to changes in expansion plans
1990s recession. Reversing that will be a challenge, in part
and worker compensation. And for individual Americans,
because credit has tightened and lending rules have been
it has meant a future postponed, as fewer buy houses and
toughened in an effort to avoid the mistakes that inflated
start families. Five years after the financial crash, the
the housing bubble in the first place.
country is still struggling to recover." In the aftermath of
[previous] recessions there were strong recoveries. That is "Credit expanded, and now contracted, and it's going to be
not true this time around," said Gary Burtless, a senior tight like this as far as the eye can see," Sanders said. "We
fellow at the Brookings Institution. "This is more like the so destroyed so many households when the bubble burst,
pace getting out of the Great Depression." For years, there's just not the groundswell to fill the demand again."
housing served as the backbone of economic growth and as Some are skeptical that the tight credit market and new
an investment opportunity that propelled generations of efforts to regulate the financial markets, like the Dodd-
Americans into the middle class. Frank law, will prove lasting. Americans have often
responded with calls for regulation after financial sector-
But the financial crisis burst the housing bubble and driven crises and accusations of mismanagement,
devastated the real estate market, leaving millions facing according to Brookings' Burtless. "But eventually, those
foreclosure, millions more underwater, and generally fires cool down," he said. "It's not as though this memory
stripping Americans of years' worth of accumulated of what can go wrong sticks with us very long." That can be
wealth. Anthony B. Sanders, a professor of real estate seen in the intense efforts to water down Dodd-Frank's
finance at George Mason University, said even the nascent regulations, Burtless said. Federal regulators have already
housing recovery can't escape the effects of the recession. made moves to relax requirements for some potential
homeowners who were victims of the recent housing crisis. 72. What can be sighted as the prime cause of this
Even those steps and an unlikely return to easy credit economic slump?
might not fuel a full housing recovery without economic (a) changes in expansion plans and worker
growth to back it up. As Sanders, referring to the growth in compensation.
low-wage and part-time employment, put it: "At those (b) the expansion in the Credit which has upheld the
wages, it's tough to scramble together down payments and investment in manufacturing sector
mortgages." (c) the tight credit market which has resulted in the
decline of real estate business
Turmoil in the housing market has already reshaped the
(d) deregulation of the financial markets which has
makeup of households nationwide. Homeownership rates
slowed down the economy
among people with children under 18 fell sharply during
(e) mismanagement of funds has led to huge confusion
the recession, declining 15% between 2005 and 2011,
among the citizens
according to Census Bureau data. In some states it was far
worse. For Michigan, the decline in homeownership was 73. Why have been the employers preferring part time
23%, and in Arizona and California it was 22%. Lackluster jobs to regular full time jobs since the downfall in
job growth has outlived the downturn. A study by the economy?
Economic Policy Institute showed wages for all workers, (I) to downslide the debt curtailed over the
when adjusted for inflation, grew just 1.5% between 2000 organizations
and 2007. But the last five years wiped out even those (II) so that more number of jobs can be raised from a
modest gains—the study found wages declined for the single job
bottom 70% of all workers since the recession began. (III) because lots of jobs lost during the recession have
However, some areas have seen manufacturing jobs climb not returned yet
back from recessionary lows, and the energy sector has (a) Only (I)
been a boon for some Midwestern states. One hopeful sign (b) Only (III)
for workers is the shift away from manufacturing growth (c) Both (II) and (III)
in the typically low-wage South back toward the Rust Belt (d) Both (I) and (III)
states, reversing a movement that was taking hold before (e) None is true
the downturn. That trend is documented in a 2012 report
74. Home ownership has drastically decreased since the
from the Brookings Institution, "Locating American
economic downturn. Explain.
Manufacturing: Trends in the Geography of Production."
(a) because of the changes made in the Credit laws
From 2000 to 2010, both the Midwest and South lost (b) due to the sudden shift in the nature of the federal
manufacturing jobs at about the national rate of 34%. But towards the middle class Americans
the Midwest has seen nearly half of all manufacturing jobs (c) due to sudden losss incurred in the real estate
gained since 2010, almost double the increase in the South. business of a large number of people
For Michigan, the growth was 19%; in Indiana, 12%. Even (d) because people are making broad cuts in their
with that growth, there are caveats. Autoworker unions spending
have ceded ground with companies on wages and benefits, (e) None of these
for example, allowing new hires to work for lower pay and
75. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE in
fewer benefits than those who've held their jobs longer.
the context of the passage?
Unemployment remains stubbornly high in some states,
(a) federals are tightening the lending rules to avoid
and the jobs created have leaned heavily toward part-time
mistakes which inflated housing bubble lately
and low-pay work. A study from the San Francisco Federal
(b) the U.S. economy could linger for decades due to
Reserve found the proportion of U.S. jobs that are part-time
this economic recession
is high, as many of the jobs lost during the recession have
(c) there has been steep increase in low pay work to
not returned.
reduce unemployment slowly but steadily
71. How, according to the passage, plunge in the economy (d) even after a decade of the financial crash, the
devastated the life of the Americans? country is still struggling to recover
(a) it has led to huge loss of revenues amounting (e) None of these
almost $14 trillion
76. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the
(b) due to degrading economy there has been
passage?
voluminous cuts in spending
(a) The economic downturn
(c) it has led to a wide scale increase in the number of
(b) The economic paralysis
people buying homes. (c) 2008 financial crisis impact still hurting states
(d) both (a) and (b) (d) The upsurge in unemployment
(e) All of the above (e) The declining economy

Directions (77-78): Choose the word/group of words (I) is in consonance with one another
which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of (II) are in consonant to one another
words printed in bold as used in passage. (III) is in consonance at each other
77. Downturn (a) Only (I) is correct
(a) operose (b) aeonian (c) abetment (b) Only (II) is correct
(d) descent (e) procurement (c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(d) Both (II) and (III) are correct
78. Persistent (e) No correction required
(a) merciful (b) tenacious (c) intermittent
(d) relenting (e) yielding 84. With cyberspace giving an opportunity to many to
Directions (79-80): Choose the word/group of words express themselves, the question that remains
which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of unanswered is whether their voices are heard?
words printed in bold as used in passage. (I) As cyberspace might be giving
(II) While cyberspace may have given
79. Foreclosure (III) Although cyberspace has given
(a) preclude (b) legalize (c) deprive (a) Only (I) is correct
(d) allow (e) prevent (b) Only (II) is correct
80. Skeptical (c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(a) dubious (b) dissenting (c) convinced (d) Both (II) and (III) are correct
(d) cynical (e) doubted (e) No correction required
Direction (81-90): Which of the following phrases (I), (II), 85. The “Hermit Kingdom” is increasingly isolating itself
and (III) given below each sentence should replace the because of its nuclear ambition that threatens its
phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence neighbourhood and the world at large.
grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the (I) isolated because of
five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase (II) isolating themselves because of
in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the (III) isolated themselves because of their
sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction (a) Only (I) is correct
required" as the answer. (b) Only (II) is correct
81. Every Open House we held since 2013 reaffirmed our (c) Only (III) is correct
belief that there is a need for human intervention to (d) Both (I) and (II) are correct
retain its trust and credibility over the age of (e) No correction required
anonymous communication. 86. Pointing out the benefits of the GST within a month of
(I) to retain trust and credibility in this age of its implementation, Modi said that goods are being
(II) to retaining trust and credibility ageing transported much faster, highways have become
(III) for retention of trust and credible age of clutter-free and pollution levels had gone down and
(a) Only (I) is correct increased speed of trucks.
(b) Only (III) is correct (I) are being lowered with the decreased
(c) Both (I) and (II) are correct (II) have come down with the increased
(d) Both (II) and (III) are correct (III) have been lowered because of decreasing
(e) No correction required (a) Only (I) is correct
82. How it is possible for a multi-edition newspaper to (b) Only (II) is correct
produce completely different newspapers for various (c) Only (III) is correct
cities? (d) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(I) Is it possible for (e) No correction required
(II) Does it possible to
87. Washing your hands at regular intervals could be the
(III) How is it possible for
most effective method to staying healthy and
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (II) is correct protecting yourself from various ailments.
(c) Only (III) is correct (I) is the most effective way of staying
(d) Both (I) and (III) are correct (II) can be the most effective way to stay
(e) No correction required (III) has the effective effect to stay
83. It is a process where continuity and change are in (b) Only (II) is correct
consonance with each other, where the introduction (c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
of a new segment does not subsume the importance of (d) All are correct
the existing segments. (e) No correction required

88. Quite a few research institutes are growing in free 93. (A) And act judiciously to bring the economy back on
India bearing the names of scientists winning track(B)/The start-up ecosystem cannot progress in a
recognition of Western countries, mainly Europe. disturbed business cycle(C)/The economy appears to
(I) has grown in free India which bears the names of be in a shambles(D)/ Leaders in the government are
(II) have grown up in free India that bears the names failing to recognise the pessimism(E)/ And despite the
of gloomy forecasts for the future,
(III) grew up in free India bearing the names of (a) DAEB (b) BEDA (c) CEDA
(a) Only (I) is correct (d) None of these (e) No correction required
(b) Only (II) is correct 94. (A)Even at the risk of reducing an appraisal(B)/ It
(c) Only (III) is correct
strove to make this evident, (C)/Of a great writer such
(d) Both (II) and (III) are correct
as Ishiguro to a trite high school essay (D)/While
(e) No correction required announcing the name, (E)/ That came its way last year
89. Southeast Asian countries today are far more (a) DBAC (b) ACBE (c) DCBE
integrated than they have ever been in the modern (d) None of these (e) No correction required
history of the region, but ASEAN has some way to go 95. (A) But laws do have the utility value (B) To heed the
before it can call itself a real community.
line between religious traditions and superstitious
(I) though ASEAN has something to do
practices (C) Of curbing the prevalence of inhuman
(II) as ASEAN has some places to go
rituals and practices (D) To eradicate superstition
(III) while ASEAN has to go some other way
from society,(E) Mere legislation is not enough
(a) Only (I) is correct (a) EBAC (b) DEBA (c) EDAC
(b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(d) None of these (e) No correction required
(c) Both (II) and (III) are correct
(d) All are correct 96. (A) As the LTTE displaced the other Tamil militias and
(e) No correction required became dominant, (B) To its ambition of a separate
state (C)The abuses perpetrated by the warring actors
90. The success of Mithali’s squad has generated fresh (D) They boldly challenged its political choices, (E)
interest in the women’s game in India, and as various
Which, they felt, subordinated the well-being of the
goodies have been dangled many are calling for a
Tamil people
female equivalent of the IPL.
(a) CEDB (b) DABE (c) ADEB
(I) besides various goodies being dangled
(d) None of these (e) No correction required
(II) various goodies are being dangled 97. (A)Are expected to bring their regional expertise(B)/
(III) apart from various goodies being dangled
Are in the exclusive domain of the Union government,
(C)/ The successful outcome of a request made by the
(b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
Kerala Chief Minister (D)/ Has been widely
(c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
applauded(E)/Although traditionalists may argue that
(d) All are correct foreign affairs
(a) EBCD (b) CDEA (c) EACD
Direction (91-100): Below in each questions some (d) None of these (e) No correction required
sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really 98. (A) It is this crucial human health angle (B)/ That has
contributing to the main theme and the of the passage or
spawned a mushrooming body of science centred (C)/
find the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining
On understanding the linkages between sleep and
sentences to make a coherent paragraph. If the given
normal metabolic activity, (D)/ And the potentially
sentence is correct as it is then choose option (e). If the deleterious effect of sleep deprivation (E)/ That helped
sequence is the one which is not given then choose option
complete the jigsaw puzzle
(d) as your choice.
(a) CABD (b) ABCE (c) AEBC
91. (A) keep their inner life (B)/ Tightly under control (C)/ (d) None of these (e) No correction required
Educational institutions seldom serve as precise
mirrors (D)/Of historical change because pedagogic 99. (A) Has to give way to (B)/ Avert accidents (C)/ At the
and administrative rituals (E)/ That have nicely cost of maintenance and safety (D)/ The present
preserved an empty shell of a special inherited identity system of running trains on a congested network (E)/
(a) CEDB (b) CDEB Safety consciousness in operations
(c) CDAB (d) None of these (a) DCAE (b) EABC (c) DCAB
(e) No correction required (d) None of these (e) No correction required
92. (A)Most importantly the labour market’(B)/We can 100. (A) It is increasingly manifested in their converging
expect to see continued spillovers (C)/Into other areas interests (B)/To invest in greater coordination
of the economy, (D)/Combined with a ‘broader security cooperation (C)/ to ensure Eurasian
unravelling of credit markets, (E)Parliament should connectivity plans (D) that are truly multilateral, (E)
act quickly to keep the economy from stalling and also financially and environmentally sustainable.
(a) DECA (b) DEAC (c) ECBD (a) ACDE (b) ADCE (c) BACE
(d) None of these (e) No correction required (d) None of these (e) No correction required

Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Directions (1-5): 20. (d); I. J>B(True) II. H<R(false)
T 21. (c);
R
X
Q
S 22. (e);
W
U
P
V
Direction (23-25):
1. (e); 2. (d); 3. (c);
4. (d); 5. (e);
Direction (6-10):
Words Code
Venue rs
Details wi
Get fe
For mo
Guest ra
book/ required gt/rd
23. (a); 24. (c); 25. (a);
More gk
Directions (26-30):
6. (c); 7. (c); 8. (b);
9. (d);10. (e);
Direction (11-15):
26. (c); 27. (c); 28. (a);

29. (a); 30. (e);
Direction (31-35):
Person Items
U Tie
G Coat
11. (d); 12. (a); 13. (c);
S Ring
14. (d); 15. (c);
H Nail paint
Direction (16-20):
T Shirt
16. (c); I. K<X (false) II. W>M(false)
E Diary
17. (b); I. Z<Y (True) II. S>Q (false)
F Goggles
18. (c); I. K≥M(false) II. P>M(false)
31. (c); 32. (a); 33. (c);
19. (e); I. M≥U (True) II. G>Z(True) 34. (d); 35. (b);

120+240 360 46. (b);
36. (d); Required % = ×100= ×100=90%
160+240 400
37. (a); Average number of Women working in 2014,

2015 and 2016 together
1 900
= [240 + 360 + 300] = = 300 47. (d); Let present age of A and B be 16x yr and 7x yr
3 3
respectively
Average number of Men working in 2011, 2014
1 ATQ
and 2016 together = [80 + 160 + 360] 16𝑥 + 12 2
3
600 =
= = 200 7𝑥 + 12 1
3 ⇒ 2𝑥 = 12 ⇒ 𝑥 = 6
Required difference = 300−200 = 100 Present age of A=96 yr
38. (c); Number of Men working in 2017 Present age of B= 42 yr
1950×100
115
= 100 × 300 = 345 48. (b); 𝑠𝑢𝑚 = 2×15 =Rs 6500
CI in 2 years at 10% per annum
Number of Women working in 2017 10×10
60 = 10+10+ 100 = 21%
= × 240 = 144
100 ATQ
Total number of labors working in 2017 21
(6500+x)× 100 = 1680
= 345 + 144 = 489
⇒ (6500 + 𝑥) = 8000
(120+180)+(240+120)
39. (b); Required Ratio = (300+360)+(360+300) 𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠1500
300+360 660 1 7
= 660+660 = 1320 = 2 49. (b); Total weight of students = 47 (15 + 30)
15
= 2136 kg
40. (e); Total number of Men working in all six years = Total weight of boys = 15× 58 = 870 kg
80 + 120 + 240 + 160 + 300 + 360 = 1260 2136–870
Average weight of girls = ( ) kg = 42.2 kg
Total number of Women working in all six years 30
= 260 + 180 + 120 + 240 + 360 + 300 = 1460 ≃ 42 kg

Required difference = 1460 − 1260 = 200 80
50. (a); 𝑅𝑎𝑚’𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 = 𝑀. 𝑅. 𝑃.× 100
80 90
41. (d); 𝑅𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑠ℎ 𝐶. 𝑃. = 𝑀. 𝑅. 𝑃.× 100 × 100
80 90 120
𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑗𝑎𝑛 𝐶. 𝑃. = 𝑀. 𝑅. 𝑃.× × ×
100 100 100
= 1,29,600
42. (a); ⇒ M.R.P. = Rs. 1,50,000
Direction (51-55) :- Let, Males and females who use their
coupons in Haircutting be 13x and 7x respectively.
⇒ Males who use their coupons in Pedicure
43. (b); = 7𝑥 + 72
Then Females who use their coupons in Pedicure
= 450 − 13𝑥 − 7𝑥 − 7𝑥 − 72 = 378 − 27𝑥
Pedicure Haircutting
Males Females Males Females
44. (d); 7x+72 378-27x 13x 7x
ATQ,
7𝑥 + 72 + 13𝑥 − (7𝑥 + 378 − 27𝑥) = 174
40x–306=174
45. (c); 40x = 480
X =12
Pedicure Haircutting
Males Females Males Females
156 54 156 84

156 7
51. (b); Required % = 156 × 100 = 100% y = –2, – 2
156+54 210 7
52. (e); Required Ratio = 156+84 = 240 = 8 x≥y
53. (c); Required difference = 84 − 54 = 30 60. (b); (i) 12x² + 8x + 3x + 2 = 0

4x (3x + 2) + 1 (3x + 2) = 0
54. (d); Number of males who use their coupons in –2 –1
x= ,
Haircutting which doesn’t belongs to city A 3 4
75 (ii) 12y² + 7y + 1 = 0
=156 × 100 = 117
12y² + 4y + 3y + 1 = 0
55. (a); Males who use their coupons in Spa 4y (3y + 1) +1 (3y + 1) = 0
5
= 156 × 4 = 195 –1 –1
y= 3 , 4
Females who use their coupons in Spa No relation between x and y
11
= 84 × 6 = 154
61. (b); (i) 21x² + 10x + 1 = 0
Total number of people who use their coupon in
21x² + 7x + 3x + 1 = 0
Spa = 195 + 154 = 349
7x (3x + 1) + 1 (3x + 1) = 0
56. (b); (i) 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0 –1 –1
x= 3, 7
2x² + (6 + 3) x + 9 = 0
(ii) 24y² + 26y + 5 = 0
2x (x + 3) + 3 (x + 3) = 0
–3 24y² + (20 + 6)y + 5 = 0
x = , –3 24y² + 20y + 6y + 5 = 0
2
(ii) 15y² + 16y + 4 = 0 4y (6y + 5) + 1 (6y + 5) = 0
15y² + 10y + 6y + 4 = 0 –5
y= ,–
1
5y (3y + 2) + 2 (3y + 2) = 0 6 4
–2 –2 No relation between x and y
y= ,
5 3 4
x<y 62. (d); B can complete work alone in = 20 × = 16 days
5
57. (c); (i) 2x³ = 16 Let C alone can complete work in ‘x’ days
x³ = 8 ATQ,
6 15
x=2 + =1
16 𝑥
(ii) 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0 ⇒
15 10
= 16 ⇒ 𝑥 =
15×16
= 24 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
2y² – (5 + 4) y + 10 = 0 𝑥 10
2y² – 5y – 4y + 10 = 0 63. (b); Let distance between P to Q and Q to R be ‘x’ and
y (2y – 5) – 2 (2y – 5) = 0 ‘y’ respectively.
5 200
y = 2, ATQ, 75 = 𝑥 𝑦
2 +
x≤y 90 60
1
60𝑥 + 90𝑦 = 200 × 90 × 60 × 75
58. (e); (i) 6x² – 11x + 4 = 0
2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 480
6x² – (8 + 3) x + 4 = 0
And 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 200
6x² - 8x – 3x + 4 = 0
⇒ 𝑥 = 120𝑘𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 80𝑘𝑚
2x (3x – 4) – 1 (3x – 4) = 0
1 4
x = 2, 3 64. (e); Let wine and water are = 5𝑥 ∶ 𝑥
5𝑥 5
(ii) 3y² – 5y + 2 = 0 𝑁𝑜𝑤, 𝑥+5 = 2 ⇒ 10𝑥 = 5𝑥 + 25
3y² – (3 + 2) y + 2 = 0 𝑥=5
3y² – 3y – 2y + 2 = 0 ⇒ 25 ∶ 5 25 ∶ 10
3y (y – 1) – 2 (y – 1) = 0 |
𝐵𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝐴𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
y = ⅔, 1 Quantity of wine = 25ℓ
No relation between x and y
65. (c);
59. (a); (i) 3x² + 11x + 10 = 0
3x² + 6x + 5x + 10 = 0
3x (x + 2) + 5 (x + 2) = 0
–5
x = – 2, 3
(ii) 2y² + 11y + 14 = 0
2y² + 7y + 4y + 14 = 0
y (2y + 7) +2 (2y + 7) = 0 No. of non-officers = 1 × 5 = 15
3

20 30
66. (c); Total books sold by store A = 3500 × 100 68. (d); Total books sold by store C = 45 × 100 × 100
= 700 = 1350
5
Total plain books sold by store A Plain books sold by C = 1350 × 9 = 750
30 3 40
= 2000 × = 600 Plain books sold by store B = 5 × 5000 × 100
100
Total lined books sold by store A = 1200
Required number of books = 1200 + 750
= 700 – 600 = 100
= 1950
Total books sold by store B
40 69. (b); Unsold books of store A
= 5000 × = 2000 80
100
= 3500 × = 2800
Plain books sold by store B 100
40 Unsold books of store B and C together
= 3000 × = 1200 60 70
100
= 5000 × 100 + 4500 × 100 = 6150
Total lined books sold by store B
6150–2800
= 2000 – 1200 = 800 Required % = 6150
× 100 = 54%
900 180 5
Required % = 3500 × 100 = % = 25 7 %
7 70. (e); Number of total books sold by store B
40
67. (a); Average of total books sold by stores B and C = 5000 × = 2000
100
1 40 30
= (50 × × 100 + 45 × × 100) Number of lined books sold
2 100 100 60
= 1675 = 2000 × = 1200
100
80
Unsold books of store A = 3500 ×100 = 2800 Total amount earned = Rs. (800 × 250 + 1200 ×
175) = Rs. 4.1 lac
Required difference = 2800 – 1675 = 1125
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
71. (d); Refer to paragraph1, it is clearly mentioned that 75. (d); Read the passage, it is nowhere explicitly
due to the degrading economy the states have mentioned that after a decade of financial crash
made a cut on spending and public workforces. the economy is struggling to recover, so
Also there has been a sudden decrease in the statement (d) is clearly incorrect as it doesn’t
number of people buying homes or starting relate to the content of the passage. Hence (d) is
families. Hence both the options (b) and (c) are
the correct option.
correct.
72. (d); Read paragraph4 carefully, it is mentioned that 76. (c); In the context of the passage, option(c) will be the
the Americans have often responded with calls for apt title as it relates to the content of the above
regulation after the financial sector-driven crises passage.
and have been accused of mismanagement. Hence
77. (d); Downturn means a decline in economic,
deregulation is the major cause of this economic
business, or other activity.
slump.
Operose means involving or displaying much
73. (b); Refer to paragraph5 of the passage, it is evident industry or effort.
that many of the jobs lost during the recession Aeonian means eternal; everlasting
have not returned and due to that there has been
Abetment means to encourage, support, or
a gradual increase in low wage and part-time jobs.
countenance by aid or approval, usually in
Hence (b) is the correct choice.
wrongdoing
74. (e); From the paragraph 2, we can easily infer that Descent means an act of moving downwards,
there is a decline in home ownership over the dropping, or falling
years as even in the second quarter of the year,
Procurement means the action of obtaining or
the U.S. homeownership rate was 65.1%, which is
procuring something.
the lowest since 1995 as in the mid-2000s it
topped with 69%. Hence none of the options is Hence descent has the similar meaning as
correct in the context of the passage. downturn.

78. (b); Persistent means continuing to exist or occur 82. (d); “Is it possible for” is the correct phrase to make
over a prolonged period the sentence grammatically correct. In the given
Merciful means compassion or forgiveness sentence, the phrase “How it is” is incorrect as the
shown towards someone whom it is within one's sentence is Interrogative. Thus the correct phrase
power to punish or harm should be “How is it possible for.” It is to be
Tenacious means persisting in existence; not noticed that the sentence is in Simple Present
easily dispelled Tense. Thus both (I) and (III) are the correct
Intermittent means occurring at irregular phrases that may replace the phrase given in bold
intervals; not continuous or steady. to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Relenting means become less severe or intense. Hence (d) is the correct option.
Yielding means not hard or rigid.
83. (e); The given sentence is grammatically correct as
Hence tenacious has similar meaning as
the plural verb “are” is used in accordance to its
persistent.
plural subjects “continuity and change”.
79. (d); Foreclosure means Legal process by which a Moreover, the phrase “with each other” is used to
lender cancels (forecloses) a borrower's right of frame a relation with the two. Hence the sentence
redemption of the mortgaged property through a doesn’t require any correction. The three given
court order (called foreclosure order). phrases in the options make no relevant
Preclude means prevent from happening; make substitution to the phrase given in bold in the
impossible. sentence as they do not follow the correct
Legalize means make (something that was grammar syntax required for the sentence. Hence
previously illegal) permissible by law. (e) is the correct option.
Deprive means prevent (a person or place) from
84. (d); “While cyberspace may have given” is the correct
having or using something.
phrase to make the sentence grammatically
Allow means let (someone) have or do something
correct. First of all, it is to be noted that the
Hence allow will be the exact opposite of
sentence is conditional as the second part of the
foreclosure.
sentence is dependent on the first part. When we
80. (c); Skeptical means not easily convinced; having consider options provided, option (I) can be easily
doubts or reservations. eliminated as the use of “As” or “Since” is
Dubious means hesitating or doubting. incorrect in this case (“As/Since” is generally used
Dissenting means hold or express opinions that to express the cause of its dependent clause).
are at variance with those commonly or officially Moreover, “while” is the correct usage as it means
held “in spite of the fact that; although”. Thus both the
Convinced means completely certain about phrases (II) and (III) provide the grammatically
something. correct and meaningful sentences. Hence (d) is
Cynical means distrustful of human sincerity or the correct option.
integrity.
85. (e); The given sentence is grammatically correct as
Hence convinced will be the exact opposite of
the sentence is not in Passive form. It clearly
skeptical.
follows the syntax of Present Continuous Tense
81. (a); “to retain trust and credibility in this age of” is the and the use of reflexive pronoun “itself” is correct
correct phrase to make the sentence as it is used for the subject “The Hermit Kingdom”.
grammatically correct. If we go by the options Moreover, the three phrases given in options do
considering their grammar syntax, only option (I) not follow the correct structure required for the
fits into the sentence perfectly adding the sentence to make it grammatically correct. Hence
required meaning to the sentence. Moreover, “in (e) is the correct option.
this age of anonymous communication” is the
86. (b); “have come down with the increased” is the
correct phrase usage which means “in this distinct
correct phrase to make the sentence
period of anonymous communication”. Hence (a)
grammatically correct as the sentence is in
is the correct option.
Present Tense. It is to be noticed that the speed of

trucks can’t be decreased as it is clearly grammatically correct. Option (II) can be easily
mentioned that the highways have become eliminated as it lacks the correct syntax. Option
clutter-free. Thus the options (I) and (III) can be (I) also fits into the sentence quite correctly as it
easily eliminated. Also, the phrasal verb “come adds similar meaning to the sentence. The phrasal
down” means collapse or be demolished. Hence verb “apart from” means in addition to; besides;
(b) is the correct option. as well as. Thus the phrase (I) also provides a
grammatically correct sentence. Hence (c) is the
87. (a); “is the most effective way of staying” is the correct
correct option.
phrase to make the sentence grammatically
correct as the sentence is in generalized and 91. (c); CDAB is the correct sequence.
factual form. Thus the use of “could” or “can” is Sentence (E) is the one which is the odd one out.
incorrect in this case. Moreover, the phrases
92. (e); The correct sequence is DBCA.
connected with the conjunction “and” should be
Sentence E is the odd one out.
in similar form. Thus among the given options,
only option (I) has the correct grammar structure
93. (c); CEDA is the correct choice.
to correctly fit into the sentence. Hence (a) is the
Sentence (B) is odd one out and is not a part of
correct option.
this coherent paragraph.
88. (c); “grew up in free India bearing the names of” is the
94. (a); DBAC is the correct choice.
correct phrase to make the sentence
Sentence E is the one which is the odd one out.
grammatically correct as the sentence refers to
the event related to the past. If we go by the 95. (c); EDAC is the correct sequence.
options, options (I) and (II) are not in accordance Sentence B is the odd one out.
with correct grammar structure. Only option (III)
96. (c); ADEB is the correct sequence
possesses correct syntax to supplement its usage
Sentence C is the odd one out.
in the sentence. The phrasal verb “grew up”
means became an adult. Hence (c) is the correct 97. (a); EBCD is the correct sequence.
choice. Sentence A is the odd one out.
89. (e); The given sentence is grammatically correct. It is 98. (e); ABCD is the correct sequence.
to be noted that the sentence is not conditional Sentence E is the odd one out.
and thus all the given options are incorrect. Hence
99. (a); DCAE is the correct sequence
(e) is the correct option. Sentence B is the odd one out.
90. (c); “apart from various goodies being dangled” is the 100. (a); ACDE is the correct sequence.
correct phrase to make the sentence Sentence B is the odd one out

Mock SBI Clerk Prelims 2021
05
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether 8. To make matters worse, credible reports that some of
there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, the electronic evidence malware (A) in this case could
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of have been planted (B) remotely by gathered (C) were
that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is never investigated.
(e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB
(d) CBA (e) No rearrangement required
1. Despite of the rising share of (A) / the Delta variant, the
overall incidence in (B)/ Germany has been steadily 9. We must understand mental health conditions (A) for
(C)/ declining in recent weeks (D)/ what they are and for how they are disadvantages (B)
(a) C (b) B (c) A with associated (C).
(d) D (e) No Error (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB
2. The recently discovery of hundreds of graves (A)/ in
Canada has put the spotlight back (B)/ on its dark past, 10. Aviation websites are infrastructure (A) with reports
when indigenous people (C)/ faced systemic of a rapid abuzz (B) of aviation upgradation (C) in
discrimination and violence (D)/ Tibet.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB
(d) D (e) No Error (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
3. I would've gotten (A)/ a perfect score(B)/ accept I Directions (11-18): Given below is a paragraph that has
made (C)/ simple mistakes. (D) blank spaces. Corresponding to each blank, five options are
(a) D (b) C (c) B given, out of which only one is appropriate. Choose the
(d) A (e) No Error option that fits most suitably in the given blank making
sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
4. He lifted the nest (A)/ gently and put it in a (B)/ safety
place in the (C)/ forks of the tree. (D)/ Getting a good night’s sleep is just as essential as a healthy
(a) A (b) D (c) C diet and ________(11)______ exercise. Unfortunately,
(d) B (e) No Error according to the National Sleep Foundation, 62% of the
American adult population________(12)______ from sleep
5. Sometimes very terrible (A)/ accidents happens, (B)/ issues every couple of nights per week.
and many people are burned (C)/ and injured. (D)
(a) D (b) C (c) B Sleep deprivation negatively ________(13)______ the quality
(d) A (e) No Error of your life, as well as your overall health. In fact, multiple
studies show that lack of ________(14)______ sleep can
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below a negatively impact your hormones, exercise performance,
sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the brain functioning, and energy levels.
option which gives the correct sequence of these words to
make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. In addition, it can ________(15)______ to moodiness, memory
issues, and trouble thinking properly and focusing. Worse
6. His culture (A) manners and varied pleasant(B), not of all, ________(16)______ sleep can cause high blood pressure,
less than his artistic skill, contributed(C) to render weight gain, and a weak immune system. In-depth studies
him popular. also reveal that chronic poor sleepers are at a higher risk
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB of developing cancer and dying from it.
If you’re planning to ________(17)______ your health,
7. It was fairly (A) detrimental (B) that his prison stay, ________(18)______ the quality of your sleep, and lose weight,
especially during the pandemic, was obvious (C) to his you must get a good night’s sleep.
well-being
(a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB 11. (a) regular (b) system (c) seldom
(d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required (d) active (e) unusual

12. (a) address (b) indicate (c) results 22. With technology becoming smarter, there has been
(d) suffers (e) remarks a corresponding increase in cyber fraud, harassments
and threats.
13. (a) affect (b) effect (c) impacts (a) On technology becoming smarter
(d) observes (e) facilitate (b) At technology becoming smarter
14. (a) additional (b) adequate (c) advanced (c) On technology became smarter
(d) anticipated (e) barely (d) With technology has become smarter
(e) No improvement required
15. (a) lead (b) indicated (c) consist
23. A good coach had the skills of his entire team
(d) transformed (e) caused
accounted for, and knows where to put them for the
16. (a) absolute (b) desperate (c) disability best results.
(d) emotional (e) chronic (a) have the skills
(b) have a skill
17. (a) retrieval (b) estimate (c) optimize
(c) has the skills
(d) decline (e) degrade (d) had skills
18. (a) lower (b) corrupt (c) aggregate (e)No improvement required
(d) improve (e) impair Directions (24-30): Read the following passage and
Directions (19-23): In the following question, sentences answer the given questions below it with the help of the
are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold information provided in it.
may or may not contain an error. The options following can Screaming is a unique noise. Research suggests when we
replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to scream in fear, the noise serves the dual purpose of
be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are sharpening our own focus in the face of a threat as well as
correct then select ‘No improvement required’ as your of warning others. In fact, our brains process screams in a
answer. unique way. Most noises we hear are delivered from our
ear to an area of the brain devoted to analyzing a sound and
19. The petition contended that the establishments and breaking it into its component parts, such as gender, age,
factories were operates in violation of and tone; high or low; a brass, stringed or electric
environmental norms and affected public health. instrument — or several combined; a ribbit or a coo, and
(a) has been operating in violation of what animal makes that sound. This indicates that we
(b) were operating in violation of differentiate all the noises we hear everyday, even
(c) were operates in violation on subconsciously.
(d) was operating in violation of A scream is different though, according to David Poepple,
(e) No improvement required PhD, a professor of psychology and neural science at New
20. The Delhi Commission for Women (DCW) was issued York University. Poepple is the lead author of a 2015 study
a notice to the police regarding the same and sought that looked into what happens in the body when people
a detailed action taken report. scream in fear. A scream goes straight from the ear to the
(a) had issued a notice to the police amygdala, the part of the brain that processes fear and
kickstarts the body’s fight-or-flight response. The sound
(b) have issue a notice to the police
jolts our brains into increased alertness and analysis. This
(c) has been issuing a notice to the police
is especially true for screams when we’re scared. These
(d) has issue a notice to the police
have a unique sound signature encompassed by the term
(e) No improvement required “roughness.” This roughness is what serves to alert others
21. Ravi was sent to Taloja Jail, where some of his co- to danger. Humans and other animals scream for many
accused have now spend more than three years reasons — in joy, in surprise, in fear. But we’ve evolved to
without bail or trial. be able to produce different shrieks and to be able to
(a) have now spent more than three year discern the difference when we hear them. (Incidentally,
(b) have now spend more then three years roughness is also why we find the sound of a baby crying
and fingernails on chalkboards disturbing; both sounds
(c) have now spent more then three years
have high roughness.) If we focus on the sounds that gain
(d) have now spent more than three years
our attention, we will be able to tell which one is rough and
(e) No improvement required
which is not.

But what about people who have the opposite reaction 26. Among the following statements, choose option(s)
when they’re scared? What about the people who don’t which are FALSE in accordance with the information
scream in fear, but become speechless in the face of a given in the passage.
(I) The part of the brain that understands the fear of
threat? This has been less studied, but it’s likely a part of
the situation and sends us into a full blown
the third, overlooked response to terror: paralysis. fight/flight response is called amygdala.
Contrary to pop medicine, fight and flight aren’t the only (II) The number of muscles used in the process of
two reactions to something scary. Humans, like other speaking are over 100.
animals, also evolved the option to freeze, or “play dead” in (III) The purpose of a scream is to vent out your anger
the face of a threat. This happens involuntarily, when the and release the emotions a person has been
cerebellum, the part of the brain that regulates muscle withholding inside.
(a) Both I and II (b) Only III (c) Only II
activity, overpowers other terrified brain responses and
(d) Only I (e) Both II and III
basically shuts down all movement. Since screaming takes
quite a few muscles (probably a little less than the 100 used 27. Choose the option which states the reason for why
some people go mute when they are scared.
for speaking), a person frozen in fear is rendered mute as
(a) The brain finds it hard to concentrate between
well as immobile. how to combat the dangerous situation and
24. Choose the statement(s) which is/are TRUE based on figuring out how to talk which leaves a person
mute.
the information given in the passage.
(b) Some people find that they don't want to express
(I) Our systems are built in a way that only allows us their feelings of terror and fright which is why they
to scream in dangerous or threatful situations. choose to remain quiet in those moments.
(II) One of the ways humans tackle fear is by going (c) A certain part of the brain responsible for
into a freeze mode and acting dead which is a overlooking muscle activity takes over other
similar action to animals. responses of the brain and forces every movement
(III) The brain sorts the noises we hear regularly on of the body to shut down, including speech.
(d) Being quiet has been found to help do away with
the basis of factors such as gender or high or low
the dangerous and harmful factors that a person
tone, age, etc. might be facing at that exact moment.
(a) Both II and III (e) None of the above
(b) Both II and I
28. Among all the three responses to fear, how does a
(c) Only III scream help us in possible dangerous situations?
(d) Both I and III (a) The brain processes the scream in a part which
(e) Only I helps activate our fight or flight mode which then
helps us become aware and scan the situation.
25. According to the article, what contributes to alerting (b) Scream can notify the people in your surroundings
someone of the danger a person is in? like your neighbours or anybody in close vicinity
(a) The gestures and expressions we make when we to you.
are confronted with a seemingly dangerous (c) When you scream, your vocal cords stretch and
situation. become flexible enough to scream louder and warn
(b) The scream one lets out when faced with danger others of the situation.
(d) None of the above
holds an element of roughness which is crucial for
(e) All of the above
letting others know of the possible danger.
(c) Secretion of certain fluids and juices in our bodies 29. Select the word which is similar in meaning to the
highlighted word INDICATES.
by our organs play a part in accomplishing the
(a) announces (b) signals (c) bargains
above said thing. (d) divides (e) flows
(d) The frequency of our screams, i.e., how often we
30. Choose the phrase which will replace the phrase ‘focus
shout in the given amount of time can alert others
on’ as highlighted in the passage.
of the presence of danger. (a) drain out (b) tear apart (c) fire away
(e) None of the above (d) concentrate on (e) mix into

Direction (31-35): Read the data given below and answer
37. 15, 60, 210, 630, 1575, ?
the following questions.
(a) 2450 (b) 2700 (c) 2550
The bar graph given below shows the total no. of flats and (d) 3150 (e) 3250
no. of vacant flats in five buildings. 38. 45, 49, 40, 65, 16, ?
700 (a) 137 (b) 121 (c) 97
(d) 143 (e) 109
600
500 39. 4, 9, 28, ?, 566, 3397
(a) 123 (b) 113 (c) 177
400
(d) 141 (e) 219
300
40. 22, 30, 41, 56, ?, 102
200 (a) 74 (b) 76 (c) 72
100 (d) 84 (e) 86
0 Direction (41-45): the data given below shows the
A B C D E information of total students in class A, B and C which are
Total Flats Vacant Flats divided in three groups X, Y and Z.
Note – Total Flats = Vacant Flats + Occupied flats Class A: Total no. of students are 90. 30 students are in
group X. ratio of number of students in group Y
31. No. of vacant flats in building C and D together are and Z is 1: 2.
approximate what percentage of no. of occupied flats Class B: Total no. of students are 80. The ratio of no. of
in building D and E together. students in group X, Y and Z is 8: 5: 3.
(a) 60% (b) 84% (c) 67% Class C: the no. of students in group Y are half of that in
(d) 55% (e) 80% group X. The no of students in group X of class C
32. What is the respective ratio of occupied flats in are 20 more than that in group X of class A. no. of
students in group Z of class C are 20% less than
building A and E together to vacant flats in C and D
that in group X of same class.
together?
(a) 23 : 20 (b) 17 : 19 (c) 5 : 4 41. What is the total no. of students in group Y of all the
(d) 11 : 17 (e) 15 : 23 classes?
(a) 95 (b) 70 (c) 120
33. Average no. of vacant flats in building A and E is what
(d) 80 (e) 60
percentage of occupied flats in building C.
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% 42. No. of students in group X of class B are what
(d) 60% (e) 40% percentage of no. of students in groups Y of class C.
(a) 160% (b) 80% (c) 100%
34. Total flats in building B and D together are how much (d) 150% (e) 75%
more or less than that in building A and C together.
(a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 140 43. There is total 34 girls in class A. If 12 girls are in group
X, then find the no. of boys in group Y and Z together in
(d) 120 (e) 100
class A.
35. If 3 people live in each occupied flat of building A and (a) 38 (b) 34 (c) 30
2 people live in each occupied flat of building B, then (d) 32 (e) 36
find total no. of people living in building A and B.
44. Total no. of students in group X is how much more or
(a) 1000 (b) 1600 (c) 1400
less than that in group Z.
(d) 1200 (e) 1800 (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 15
Directions (36-40): What will come in the place of the (d) 50 (e) 35
question mark (?) in the following number series? 45. Find the respective ratio between average students in
36. 0.2, 2.7, 7.7, 15.2, ?, 37.7 group X in class A and B to total students in class C.
(a) 24.2 (b) 30.2 (c) 25.2 (a) 12: 17 (b) 7: 23 (c) 4: 21
(d) 21.2 (e) 27.2 (d) 7: 12 (e) 11: 16

46. Ratio between length of trains A and B is 3 : 5. Speed of 54. Pipe A & pipe B together can fill half of a tank in 7
train A is 72 km/h and that of train B is 54 km/h & they hours, while pipe C can empty 40% of the same tank x
are running opposite to each other. If train A crosses hours. When all three pipes open together in same
1
train B in 16 seconds, then find length of train B. empty tank, then it completely filled in 26 hours. Find
4
(a) 350 m (b) 250 m (c) 450 m value of x?
(d) 150 m (e) 320 m (a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 16
47. The perimeter of circle of radius 28 cm is 32 cm more (d) 24 (e) 9
than perimeter of square. Find the area of the square. 55. Average of present age of A & B is 30 years and C is four
(a) 1225 (b) 1296 (c) 1156 years older than A. Four years ago ratio of age of A to C
(d) 1089 (e) 1444 was 3 : 4. Find the sum of ages of A, B & C five years
hence will be?
48. A boat in upstream can travel 5 km in 30 minutes. If the (a) 85 years (b) 95 years (c) 90 years
speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph, then find the total (d) 105 years (e) 75 years
distance cover by the boat when boat takes 46 hours to
travel from A to b then return to B. Directions (56-65): - What will come in place of (?)
question mark in the following questions.
(a) 260 km (b) 220 km (c) 280 km
(d) 520 km (e) 144 km 56. 512 ÷? × 6= 192
(a)11 (b) 18 (c) 12
49. Difference of the interest received when a sum is
invested at 15% p.a. at SI for two years and the interest
received when that sum is invested at 20% p.a. for one 57. (48% of 625) ÷ 0.75 = ?
year compounded half yearly is Rs 432, find the sum? (a) 800 (b) None of these (c) 40
(a) Rs. 5400 (b) Rs. 5000 (c) Rs. 4500 (d) 4000 (e) 400
(d) Rs. 4000 (e) Rs. 4800 58. 65 % of 480 - ? +175 =350
(a) 125 (b) 129 (c) 137
50. In an election only two candidates participate.
(d) 147 (e) 153
Candidate ‘P’ got 50% less votes than ‘Q’. Had Q got 200
460
votes less there would have been a tie. What is the 8 59. 45 + 20 % of ? =
4
times of the number of total votes polled. (a) 250 (b) 450 (c) 400
(a) 800 (b) 7200 (c) 3200 (d) 350 (e) 360
(d) 9600 (e) 3600
(16)2
60. (4)? × 2 = 4
51. A pen was marked up by 50% above cost price and √16
allowed Rs 100 discount on marked price. If (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4

shopkeeper still made a profit of Rs. 100, then find the (d) 1 (e) None of these
selling price of the pen (in Rs.)? 61. 4 × (? +120) = (8)3
(a) 450 Rs. (b) 600 Rs. (c) 500 Rs. (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 8
(d) 400 Rs. (e) 350 Rs. (d) 4 (e) 16
56
52. A container contains total 120 liters mixture of milk 62. + (8)3 = 13% of 4000
?
and water in which quantity of water is 20 liters. If 36 (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 14
liters mixture taken out from container and 6 liters (d) 28 (e) None of these
milk added, then find quantity of water in what percent 3 3 3
(approximate) less than that of milk in final mixture? 63. 4 12 + 1 4 – ? = √64
5 1
(a) 82% (b) 88% (c) 78% (a) 2 (b) 1 2 (c) 1
(c) 86% (e) 90% (d) 4 (e) 2
53. A and B starts a partnership business by investing Rs. 64. 756 ÷ 14 × 5 –√7921=?
35000 & Rs. 40000 respectively. After six months C (a) 183 (b) 179 (c) 178
joined them and at the end of year profit share of C is (d) 181 (e) 187
Rs. 9000 out of total profit of Rs. 39000. Find the
65. 462 ÷ 5.25 + 24×12 =?
investment of C?
(a) 372 (b) 390 (c) 376
(a) 54000 Rs. (b) 36000 Rs. (c) 60000 Rs.
(d) 370 (e) 400
(d) 45000 Rs. (e) 40000 Rs.

REASONING ABILITY
Directions (66-70): Study the following information to 72. Statements: Only a few Apple is Mango.
answer the given questions: Some Mango is Guava.
Eight persons sit around a circular table. All of them face Conclusions: I. All Guava is Apple
inside. F sits third to the right of E. Only one person sits II. Some Guava is not Apple
between H and F. A sits opposite to D. C sits third to the left (a) Both I and II follow
of G. C is not an immediate neighbor of B. D is not an (b) Either I or II follows
immediate neighbor of H. G is an immediate neighbour of (c) Only II follows.
E. (d) Only I follows.
(e) Neither I nor II follows
66. Who among the following sits opposite to G?
(a) H (b) B (c) D 73. Statements: All Green is Blue.
(d) F (e) None of these All Blue is Yellow.
67. Who among the following sits second to the left of the No Blue is Pink.
one who sits third to the right of H? Conclusions: I. No Green is Pink
(a) B (b) D (c) A II. Some Yellow is not pink
(d) E (e) None of these (a) Both I and II follow
(b) Either I or II follows
68. What is the position of C with respect to D? (c) Only II follows.
(a) Third to the right
(d) Only I follows.
(b) Second to the right
(e) Neither I nor II follows
(c) Immediate left
(d) Second to the left 74. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(e) None of these ‘CONDITION’, each of which have as many letters
69. Who among the following person sit third to the left of between them (both forward and backward direction)
A? in the word as they have between them according to
(a) F (b) B (c) G English alphabetical order?
(d) C (e) None of these (a) None (b) Two (c) Four
(d) Three (e) None of these
70. Which of the following statement is true about H?
(a) H sits second to the left of F Directions (75-79): Study the following arrangement
(b) H faces B carefully and answer the questions given below.
(c) D sits third to the right of H
@EK&YR©CAM®UL$VQ#P%SIW*OTɸG
(d) E is not an immediate neighbor of H
(e) Both (b) and (d) 75. If all consonants are replaced its next letter, then how
Directions (71-73): In each of the questions below are many alphabets are repeated in the new arrangement?
given some statements followed by some conclusions. You (a) Four (b) One (c) Three
have to take the given statements to be true even if they (d) Two (e) None
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read 76. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
by a consonant but not immediately followed by a
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
Vowel?
71. Statements: All Cloud are Rain. (a) None (b) Four (c) Two
Only a few Cloud are Water. (d) Three (e) More than Four
Conclusions: I. Some Water is Rain
II. All Rain is Water 77. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
(a) Both I and II follow based on their position in the above arrangement and
(b) Either I or II follows so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
(c) Only II follows. to that group?
(d) Only I follows. (a) ER& (b) CUM (c) L#V
(e) Neither I nor II follows (d) PW% (e) SOW

78. How many such alphabets are there in the above 86. Five persons A, B, C, D and E arranged in a row. One
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded person sits between A and B. One person sits between
and immediately followed by a symbol? A and D. C sits 3rd to the right of D. What is the position
(a) None (b) One (c) Two of A with respect to E?
(d) Three (e) More than three (a) Immediate right
(b) 2nd to the left
79. Which of the following element is 10th to the right of
(c) Immediate left
the element which is 18th from the right end?
(d) 3rd to the right
(a) # (b) P (c) %
(e) None of these
(d) S (e) None of these
Directions (87-89): Study the following information
80. If we form a meaningful word by the 3rd, 4th, 7th and 8th
carefully and answer the questions given below.
letter of the word ‘CONSISTENT”, then which of the
following will be the first letter of the word thus Point A is in 8m north of point B. Point C is in 4m east of
formed. If more than one word is formed mark Y as point B. Point D is in 5m south of point C. Point F is in 5m
your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X north of Point E, which is 8m east of point D. Point F is in
as your answer? 4m west of point G. Point H is in 8m north of Point G.
(a) X (b) N (c) Y
87. What is the shortest distance between Point A and
(d) S (e) E
Point H?
Directions (81-85): Study the following information (a) 12m (b) 14m (c) 16m
carefully and answer the questions given below. (d) 18m (e) None of these
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit in a row facing to 88. What is the direction of Point H with respect to Point
the north direction but not necessarily in the same order. D?
(a) North-east (b) North (c) South-east
B sits 3rd from the right end. Three persons sit between H
(d) North-west (e) None of these
and B. D is the only neighbour of F. E sits immediate left of
G, who sits 2nd to the right of A. 89. What is the shortest distance between Point F and
Point C?
81. Who among the following sits 2nd to the left of F?
(a) 5m (b) 8m (c) 10m
(a) B (b) H (c) A
(d) 12m (e) None of these
(d) D (e) None of these
Directions (90-93): Study the following information to
82. Which of the following statement is true as per the
answer the given questions:
given information?
(a) Two persons sit between E and D Eight boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not
(b) A sits immediate right of C more than two boxes are placed above box Q. Three boxes
(c) C sits at one of the extreme ends are placed between box Q and T. Two boxes are placed
(d) Both (a) and (c) between box U and S, which is placed below box T. Box U
(e) All are true does not place immediate above box T. Box P is placed
immediate above box V. Box R is placed above box W but
83. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
does not place above box V.
that group? 90. Which of the following box is placed immediate above
(a) C (b) H (c) G box W?
(d) A (e) B (a) S (b) T (c) Q
(d) U (e) None of these
84. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of
G? 91. How many boxes are placed between P and R?
(a) F (b) C (c) B (a) Four (b) One (c) Two
(d) E (e) Both (c) and (d) (d) Three (e) None of these
85. What is the position of D with respect to G? 92. The number of boxes are placed between Q and W is
(a) 3rd to the left same as the number of boxes are placed between ____
(b) Immediate left and _____?
(c) 2nd to the right (a) P, Q (b) V, U (c) R, S
(d) 3rd to the right (d) W, T (e) None of these
(e) None of these
93. Which of the following box is placed immediate below between adjacent persons. In the 1st row P, Q, R, S and T sit
box S? and all of them face south. In the 2nd row A, B, C, D and E sit
(a) V (b) R (c) P and all of them face north but not necessarily in the same
(d) W (e) None order.
Directions (94-96): In each of the questions below are Two persons sit between E and D, who sits diagonally
given some statements followed by two conclusions. You opposite to S. E faces Q, who sits 3rd to the right of R. C faces
have to take the given statements to be true even if they P but not an immediate neighbour of D. B sits to the left of
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read A.
97. What is the position of D with respect to A?
(a) Immediate left
disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) 3rd to the right
(b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) Immediate right
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) 2nd to the left
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) None of these
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 98. Who among the following faces to T?
94. Statements: M < N ≤ O < R = S < T (a) A (b) D (c) B
Conclusion I. M = O II. N < S (d) Either (a) or (c) (e) None of these
95. Statements: C ≥ D = E ≤ F < G ≤ H 99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
Conclusion I. C ≥ F II. F > C so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to
96. Statements: S > U ≥ V = W ≤ X; W ≤ Y ≤ Z that group?
Conclusion I. S > W II. U ≥ Y (a) T (b) Q (c) C
(d) B (e) P
Direction (97-100): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below. 100. How many persons sit between Q and T?
(a) One (b) Three (c) None
Ten persons sit in two parallel rows containing 5 persons (d) Two (e) None of these
in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance
Solutions
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (c): The correct choice is option (c). In part (A), 5. (c): The error lies in part (B). Here ‘happens’ should
‘despite of’ is incorrect as ‘despite’ is never be replaced by ‘happen’ as to comply with the rule
followed by ‘of’. of subject verb agreement, we need plural verb
for the plural subject (accidents).
2. (a): The error lies in part (A) of the sentence. Here
‘recently’ should be ‘recent’ as we need adjective 6. (b): The correct sequence of words is BAC. Therefore
here while ‘recently’ is adverb. the correct sentence will be “His pleasant
manners and varied culture, not less than his
3. (b): The error lies in part (C). Here ‘accept’ should be
artistic skill, contributed to render him popular.”
‘except’. Accept is contextually incorrect in the
7. (a): The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore the
given sentence.
correct sentence will be” It was fairly obvious that
accept means to agree to take something that
his prison stay, especially during the pandemic,
somebody offers you
was detrimental to his well-being”
except means not including
somebody/something; apart from the fact that 8. (d): The correct sequence is CBA. Therefore the
correct sentence will be” To make matters worse,
4. (c): The error lies in part (C). Here ‘safety’ should be
credible reports that some of the electronic
‘safe’ as we need an adjective here for the noun
evidence gathered in this case could have been
‘place’.
planted remotely by malware were never
investigated”

9. (a): The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore the 14. (b): The most suitable word for the given blank is
correct sentence will be “We must understand adequate which means ‘satisfactory or acceptable
mental health conditions for what they are and for in quality or quantity’ as the passage refers to the
how they are associated with disadvantages” harmful impacts on quality of life due to deprived
sleep. All the other words are contextually
10. (d): The correct sequence is BCA. Therefore the
incorrect.
correct sentence will be “Aviation websites are
Additional- added, extra, or supplementary to
abuzz with reports of a rapid upgradation of
what is already present or available
aviation infrastructure in Tibet.”
Advanced- modern and recently developed.
11. (a): The paragraph illustrates the importance of sleep Anticipated- regard as probable; expect or
just as nutrition and exercise is to maintain a predict.
healthy body and mind. Therefore, the most Barely- only just; almost not.
suitable word for the given blank is ‘regular’ as it
15. (a): A Modal verb is followed by another verb in the
contributes to the theme of the passage about
base form. Since ‘can’ is a modal verb, the main
addressing healthy sleep routines.
verb should be in its base form. This shortlists our
Regular- recurring at uniform intervals.
options to ‘lead’ and ‘consist’. Lead means cause
System- a set of things working together as parts
(a person or animal) to go with one by holding
of a mechanism or an interconnecting network; a
them by the hand, a halter, a rope, etc. while
complex whole.
moving forward; while consist means be
Seldom- not often; rarely
composed or made up of. Hence. ‘lead’ is the most
active- engaging or ready to engage in physically
suitable word.
energetic pursuits.
Indicated- point out; show.
Unusual- not habitually or commonly occurring
Transformed- make a marked change in the form,
or done.
nature, or appearance of.
12. (d): The given sentence contributes to the central Caused- make (something, especially something
theme of the paragraph which is about healthy bad) happen.
sleeping habits by providing a statistical data of
16. (e): The given sentence of the passage mentions the
adults experiencing sleeping issues. Thus, the
conditions which further aggravate the condition
most suitable word for the given blank is ‘suffers’.
of sleep deprivation. Thus, the most suitable word
All the other words are either grammatically or
for the given blank is ‘chronic’ which means (of an
contextually incorrect.
illness) persisting for a long time or constantly
Suffers- experience or be subjected to (something
recurring.
bad or unpleasant).
Absolute- not qualified or diminished in any way;
Address- think about and begin to deal with (an
total.
issue or problem).
Desperate- (of an act) tried in despair or when
Indicate- point out; show.
everything else has failed.
Results- a favourable outcome of an undertaking
Disability- a physical or mental condition that
or contest.
limits a person's movements, senses, or activities.
Remarks- say something as a comment; mention.
Emotional- relating to a person's emotions.
13. (c): The given paragraph mentions the harmful
17. (c): The passage mentions that chronic sleep
repercussions of sleep deprivation. Therefore, the
most suitable word for the given blank is deprivation leads to all sorts of negative effects on
‘impacts.’ physical and social well-being. Hence, it is
Impacts- a marked effect or influence. concluded by advising the readers to improve the
Affect- Affect is usually a verb, and it means to quality of sleep if one wants to achieve a healthy
impact or change. lifestyle. Therefore the most suitable word for the
Effect- Effect is usually a noun that you would use given blank is ‘optimize’.
to indicate the result of a change. Optimize- make the best or most effective use of
Observes- notice or perceive (something) and (a situation or resource).
register it as being significant. Retrieval- the process of getting something back
Facilitate- make (an action or process) easy or
from somewhere.
easier.

Estimate- roughly calculate or judge the value, analyzing a sound and breaking it into its
number, quantity, or extent of. component parts, such as gender, age, and tone;
Decline- diminish in strength or quality; high or low; a brass, stringed or electric
deteriorate. instrument — or several combined; a ribbit or a
Degrade- lower the quality of; cause to coo, and what animal makes that sound.
deteriorate. Statement I is incorrect because in the last
paragraph it says “Humans and other animals
18. (d): The most suitable word for the given blank is
scream for many reasons — in joy, in surprise, in
‘improve’ which means make or become better.
fear. “ This tells us that there can be many reasons
All the other words are contextually incorrect.
for humans screaming besides fear.
Lower- less high in position.
Hence, option (a) is the correct choice for the
Corrupt- evil or morally depraved.
answer.
Aggregate- a whole formed by combining several
separate elements. 25. (b): The correct choice for the answer is option (b):
Impair- weaken or damage (something, especially The scream one lets out when faced with danger
a faculty or function). holds an element of roughness which is crucial for
letting others know of the possible danger.
19. (b): The given highlighted phrase is incorrect. The
This answer is found in the second paragraph
sentence is in past continuous tense hence
where it says: This is especially true for screams
‘operates’ in statement is incorrect hence option
when we’re scared. These have a unique sound
(c) is also incorrect. In option (a), ‘has’ is incorrect
signature encompassed by the term “roughness.”
because subject (establishments and factories) is
This roughness is what serves to alert others to
plural here therefore option (d) is also incorrect.
danger.
Hence correct choice is option (b).
The rest of the options are not mentioned
20. (a): The highlighted phrase in the statement is anywhere in the passage given. Therefore they
incorrect as sentence is in Past indefinite. In cannot be considered for the answer.
option (b), ‘have’ is incorrect as subject (DCW) is Hence, option (b) is the correct choice for the
singular. Option (c) is in Perfect continuous hence answer.
incorrect. In Option (d), ‘issue’ is incorrect as
26. (e): The correct choice for the answer is option (e):
‘has+v3’ is correct.
Both II and III
21. (d): In the highlighted phrase ‘spend’ is incorrect Statement II is false as the passage says: Since
because sentence is in past tense and third form screaming takes quite a few muscles (probably a
of spend is ‘spent’ therefore option (b) is also little less than the 100 used for speaking), a
incorrect. In option (a), ‘year’ should be ‘years’. In person frozen in fear is rendered mute as well as
option (b), ‘then’ should be ‘than’ hence option (c) immobile.
is also incorrect. Statement III is also false because it can be found
in the article that: Research suggests when we
22. (e): The highlighted phrase in the sentence is correct
scream in fear, the noise serves the dual purpose
hence no improvement required is correct choice.
of sharpening our own focus in the face of a threat
23. (c): The correct replacement of the highlighted phrase as well as of warning others.
is “has the skills” as the sentence follows the The facts present in the passage help us figure out
structure of present tense. Moreover, the subject why the statements II and III are false.
of the sentence is singular. Hence, option (c) is the Hence, option (e) is the correct choice for the
correct choice. answer.
24. (a): The correct choice for the answer is option (a): 27. (c): The correct choice for the answer is option (c): A
Both II and III. certain part of the brain responsible for
Statement II is true because it is stated in the last overlooking muscle activity takes over other
paragraph of the passage that “humans, like other responses of the brain and forces every
animals, also evolved the option to freeze, or “play movement of the body to shut down, including
dead” in the face of a threat.” speech.
Statement III is true because in the first paragraph The answer is found towards the end of the last
it says: Most noises we hear are delivered from paragraph: This happens involuntarily, when the
our ear to an area of the brain devoted to cerebellum, the part of the brain that regulates

muscle activity, overpowers other terrified brain To signal means to convey information or
responses and basically shuts down all instructions by means of a gesture, action, or
movement. Since screaming takes quite a few sound.
muscles (probably a little less than the 100 used Indicate means to express an intention, opinion,
for speaking), a person frozen in fear is rendered or wish in an indirect way.
mute as well as immobile. Hence, signals is the word most similar to
All the other options are nowhere to be found in indicates.
the above passage. To announce means to make a formal public
Hence, option (c) is the correct choice for the statement about a fact, occurrence, or intention.
To bargain means an agreement between two or
answer.
more people or groups as to what each will do for
28. (a): The correct choice for the answer is option (a): the other.
The brain processes the scream in a part which To divide means to separate or be separated into
helps activate our fight or flight mode which then parts.
helps us become aware and scan the situation. Flows mean the action or fact of moving along in
This answer is present in the second paragraph: A a steady, continuous stream.
scream goes straight from the ear to the
amygdala, the part of the brain that processes fear 30. (d): The correct choice for the answer is option (d):
and kickstarts the body’s fight-or-flight response. concentrate on.
The sound jolts our brains into increased Focus on or concentrate on have similar meanings
alertness and analysis. which can be explained as to give most of your
Hence, option (a) is the correct choice for the attention to someone or something.
answer. The rest of the phrases are not applicable because
they all have different meanings. Hence, they
29. (b): The correct choice for the answer is option (b):
cannot be used to replace the given phrase.
signals.
Solutions (31-35): 36. (c): The pattern of the series is –

0.2 + 2.5 × 1 = 2.7
Vacant Occupied
Building Total Flats 2.7 + 2.5 × 2 = 7.7
Flats Flats
7.7 + 2.5 × 3 = 15.2
A 400 160 240
15.2 + 2.5 × 4 = 25.2
B 460 120 340
25.2 + 2.5 × 5 = 37.7
C 540 180 360
D 600 220 380 37. (d): The pattern of the series is –
E 420 200 220 15 × 4 = 60
60 × 3.5 = 210
31. (c): Required percentage 210 × 3 = 630
(180+220) 2 630 × 2.5 = 1575
= (380+220) × 100 = 66 3 % ≈ 67%
1575 × 2 = 3150
240+220 460
32. (a): Required ratio = 180+220 = 400 38. (a): The pattern of the series is –
= 23 ∶ 20 45 + 22 = 49
49 − 32 = 40
160+200
33. (b): Average vacant flats in A and E =
2
= 180 40 + 52 = 65
180
Required percentage = 360 × 100 = 50% 65 − 72 = 16
16 + 112 = 137
34. (d): Required Difference=(460+600) – (400+540)
39. (b): The pattern of the series is –
= 1060 − 940 = 120
4×2+1 = 9
35. (c): Required no. = 3 × 240 + 2 × 340 = 720 + 680 9 × 3 + 1 = 28
= 1400 28 × 4 + 1 = 113
113 × 5 + 1 = 566
566 × 6 + 1 = 3397
40. (b): Pattern of series – 50. (d): Q got = 100x votes
22, 30, 41, 56 ?=76 102 So, P got = 50x votes
+8 +11 +15 +20 +26 Total votes = 150x votes
+3 +4 +5 +6 For tie → Q’s votes = P’s votes = 75x
Solutions (41-45): ⇒ 100x – 75x = 200
⇒x=8
Group X Group Y Group Z Total
A 30 20 40 90 Total votes → 8 × 150 = 1200
B 40 25 15 80 Required number = 1200 × 8 = 9600
C 50 25 40 115 51. (c): Let cost price of pen = 100x Rs.
Total 120 70 95 285 So, marked price of pen
50
41. (b): Total students in group Y of all the classes = 70 = 100x × (1 + ) = 150𝑥 Rs.
100
40 And, selling price of pen = (150x – 100) Rs.
42. (a): Required percentage = 25 × 100 = 160% ATQ –
43. (a): Total girls in group Y and Z together = 34 − 12 = (150x – 100) – 100x = 100
22 50x = 200
Total boys in group Y and Z together on class A = x = 4 Rs.
(90 − 30) − 22 = 38 So, selling price of pen
44. (b): Required difference = 120 − 95 = 25 = (150 × 4 − 100) = 500 𝑅𝑠.
45. (b): Average students in group X of class and B = 52. (a): Ratio of milk to water in mixture = (120 – 20) : 20
40+30 =5:1
2
= 35
1
35 7 Total water in final mixture = 20 - 36 × = 14
Required ratio = 115 = 23 6
= 750m liters
1
Total milk in final mixture = 100 - 36 × 6 + 6 = 76
46. (a): Let length of train A = 3x
Length of train B = 5x liters
5 76−14
Speed of train A = 72 × = 20 m/sec Required percentage = × 100 = 81.67 =
18 76
5
Speed of train B = 54 × 18 = 15 m/sec 82%
8𝑥
ATQ, 20+15 = 16 53. (d): Let investment of C = X Rs.
𝑋×6 9000
⇒ x = 70 ATQ – (35000 ×12+40000×12+𝑋×6) = 39000
∴ Length of train B = 5 × 70 = 350 m
X = 45000 Rs.
22
47. (b): Perimeter of the circle = 2 × 7
× 28 = 176 𝑐𝑚 54. (b): Pipe (A +B) together fill the whole tank
Perimeter of square = 176 − 32 = 144 = 7 × 2 = 14 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
144
Side of square = = 36 Pipe C empty the whole tank in
4 100 5𝑥
So, area of square = 1296 𝑐𝑚2 =𝑥 × 40
= 2
hours
48. (d): Let speed of boat be x kmph ATQ –
1 2 4
ATQ − =
14 5𝑥 105
𝑥 − 1.5 = 10 x = 12
𝑥 = 11.5
Let the distance be D. 55. (b): Total present age of A and B = 30 × 2 = 60 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
𝐷 𝐷
+ 10 = 46 Let four year ago age of A and C be 3x and 4x
13
𝐷 = 260 𝑘𝑚 respectively
Total distance travel by boat = 2 × 260 = 520 ATQ –
(4x + 4) – (3x + 4) = 4
49. (e): Let the amount be Rs x x = 4 years
ATQ Present age of C = (4 × 4 + 4) = 20 years
𝑥×30100−𝑥×21100=432 So, sum of ages of A, B & C five years hence will be
𝑥=𝑅𝑠 4800 = 60 + 20 + 5 × 3 = 95 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

61. (c): 4 × (? +120) = (8)3
56. (d): 512÷?× 6= 192
512×6 4 × ? = 512 − 480
?= = 16 32
192
?= 4
48 4
57. (e): 100
× 625 × 3 =? ?=8
? = 400
56 13
62. (a): + 512 = 100 × 4000
58. (c): 65% × 480−? +175 = 350 ?
56
? = 137 = 520 − 512
?
20 460 ?=7
59. (d): 45 + 100 × ? = 4
? 51 7
45 + 5 = 115 63. (e): +4−? =4
12
? = 350 51+21
?= −4
12
162
50. (b): 4? ×2= 4 ?=6–4=2
√16
256
4? × 2 = 64. (d): ? = 270-89 = 181
2
4? = 64 65. (c): ? = 88 +288 = 376
4? = (4)3
?=3
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (66-70): Solutions (75-79):
75. (b): U
76. (e):
77. (d):
78. (b):
79. (d):
66. (d): 67. (c): 68. (b):
69. (a): 70. (e): 80. (c): Sent and Nest
71. (d):
81. (a): 82. (d): 83. (a):

84. (e): 85. (c):
72. (b): 86. (a):
Solutions (87-89):
73. (a):
74. (d):
87. (c): 88. (a): 89. (b):

Boxes 94. (b): I: M = O (False) II: N < S (True)
P 95. (c): I: C ≥ F (False) II: F > C (False)
V
Q 96. (a): I: S > W(True) II: U ≥ Y (False)
R Solutions (97-100):
U
W
T
S
90. (d): 91. (c): 92. (b): 97. (c): 98. (a): 99. (d):
93. (e): 100. (a):

06
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully 6. Statements: Some Banana are Orange.
and answer the questions given below: All Orange are Apple.
Conclusions: I. Some Banana are not Apple.
There are eight employees of a company and all of them are II. Some Orange are Banana.
working on eight different designation of a bank viz.
Chairman, CFO, GM, DGM, AGM, Manager, Junior Manager 7. Statements: Only a few East are North.
and Clerk. All the designations given are to be considered Few North are South.
in a given order (as Chairman is considered as Senior-most All South are West.
and Clerk is considered as the Junior-most). Conclusions: I. All East being North is a possibility.
II. Some East are West.
Only two persons are senior to B. One designation lies
8. Statements: Only a few Song are Melody.
between B and G. The number of persons junior to G is
Only a few Melody are Film.
same as the number of persons senior to C. H is just senior
No Film is Award.
to E, but junior to C. More than four designations lie Conclusions: I. All Song being Film is a possibility.
between H and F. D is junior to A. II. Some Melody are not Award.
1. How many persons are junior to H? Direction (9-12): Study the following information
(a) None (b) One (c) More than four carefully and answer the questions given below:
(d) Four (e) Three In a certain code language:
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and “Club house near located” is coded as “ol gp ox ot”
“both club view near” is coded as “mt ox sq ot”
hence they form a group. Which one of the following
“make located house view” is coded as “nk ol gp sq”
does not belong to that group?
“near club view area” is coded as “ot ox sq tm”
(a) A-F (b) B-A (c) H-D
(d) G-A (e) E-H 9. What is the code for “both” in the given code language?
(a) ox (b) sq (c) mt
3. How many designation gaps are between A and D? (d) ot (e) Either (b) or (c)
(a) More than three (b) Two (c) Three
(d) One (e) None 10. What is the code for “house” in the given code
language?
4. Who among the following is just senior to B? (a) ol (b) ox (c) gp
(a) A (b) D (c) C (d) Either (a) or (c) (e) None of these
(d) E (e) None of these
11. The code “nk” is stands for?
5. Who among the following is AGM? (a) make (b) both (c) area
(a) F (b) B (c) G (d) club (e) None of these
(d) D (e) None of these 12. What may be the possible code for “both house” in the
Direction (6-8): In each of the questions below are given given code language?
some statements followed by some conclusions. You have (a) gp mt (b) mt nk (c) mt sq
to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to (d) ox mt (e) gp sq
be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the Directions (13-17): Study the following information
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions carefully and answer the questions given below:
logically follows from the given statements disregarding There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting
commonly known facts. around a circular table facing towards the centre of the
(a) If only conclusion I follows. table but not necessarily in the same order.
(b) If only conclusion II follows. B sits third to the right of A. Only one person sits between
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. B and D. E faces C who is not an immediate neighbour of B.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. G sits third to the left of F. A is not an immediate neighbour
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. of F.

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13. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of 22. If the position of first and third digits of each of the
C? numbers are interchanged, then which among the
(a) G (b) D (c) F following is the highest number?
(d) H (e) None of these (a) 258 (b) 469 (c) 189
(d) 427 (e) 625
14. Who among the following sits to the opposite of A?
(a) H (b) G (c) F 23. If all the digits in the number are arranged in the
(d) D (e) None of these descending order within the number from left to right,
then which among the following will be the lowest
15. How many persons sit between H and G when counted
number after rearrangement?
from the left of G? (a) 427 (b) 189 (c) 258
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) 625 (e) 469
(d) Four (e) None of these
24. What is the product of 3rd digit of 2nd lowest number
16. If all the persons sit around the circle in clockwise and 1st digit of 2nd highest number?
direction by their names according to English (a) 32 (b) 72 (c) 24
alphabetical order starting from A, then how many (d) 36 (e) None of these
persons remain unchanged except A?
(a) Four (b) One (c) Three 25. If 2 is subtracted from each number then how many
(d) Two (e) None of these numbers thus formed are odd numbers?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
17. What is the position of B with respect to H? (d) More than three (e) None
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Fourth to the right 26. How many such numerals are there in the number
(c) Third to the right ‘645903287’ which will remain at the same position
(d) Both (a) and (c) when arranged in ascending order from left to right?
(e) Both (a) and (b) (a) Three (b) Two (c) One
(d) Four (e) None of these
27. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with
carefully and answer the questions given below:
the 1st, 3rd, 5th and 11th letters of the word
Point E is in 15m north of Point D. Point F is in 20m north ‘INHERITENCE’, which would be the third letter of the
of Point C. Point A is in 35m east of Point F. Point P is in word from the left? If more than one such word can be
25m south of Point A. Point E is in 20m east of Point P. formed give ‘Y’ as the answer. If no such word can be
formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer.
18. What is the direction of point F with respect to point P?
(a) Y (b) R (c) I
(a) North-west (b) North-east (c) South-west
(d) E (e) Z
(d) South-east (e) North
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and carefully and answer the questions given below:
hence they form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group? Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are buying some
(a) C-P (b) A-E (c) A-C products one after another but not necessarily in the same
(d) P-D (e) F-E order.
At most two persons are buying products before F. Only
20. If point X is 20m south of point C, then what is the total one person is buying between D and F. C is buying just
distance between point X and point D? before H. One person is buying between C and D. A is
(a) 40m (b) 35m (c) 55m buying just before E. B is buying before G and after E.
(d) 65m (e) 85m
28. How many persons are buying their products after D?
Directions (21-25): Following questions are based on the (a) None
five numbers given below, Study the given information and (b) Two
answer the following questions. (c) More than three
625 427 189 258 469 (d) One
21. What is the sum of the 3rd digit of second number from (e) None of these
left and 2nd digit of third number from right? 29. Who among the following is buying just after G?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 14 (a) E (b) F (c) B
(d) 12 (e) None of these (d) C (e) None of these

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30. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order Directions (33-35): In each of the question, relationships
from left to right starting from A, then find how many between some elements are shown in the statements.
persons remains at the same position (excluding A)? These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I
and II. Read the statements and give the answer.
(a) One (b) None (c) Two
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(d) Four (e) More than Four (b) If only conclusion II follows.
31. Who among the following is buying exactly between D (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
and F?
(e) If both conclusion I and II follows.
(a) E (b) B (c) A
(d) H (e) None of these 33. Statements: P > Q ≥ R = S < T = U
Conclusions: I. Q > S II. S = Q
32. How many persons are buying between E and C?
34. Statements: J < D = L ≤ K ≤ Q ≥ R
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three Conclusions: I. J < Q II. L ≤ R
(d) None (e) Two
35. Statements: O > P = G > B ≥ X = M ≤ H
Conclusions: I. G > X II. O > M
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (36-40): Table given below shows the number 40. Find total number of male students participated from
of male and female participated in an event from five all the five schools together.
different schools (A, B, C, D & E). Study the table carefully (a) 2860 (b) 3150 (c) 2940
and answer the following questions. (d) 3200 (e) 3020
Schools Male Female Direction (41–45): What will come in the place of
A 650 450 question (?) mark in following number series:
B 540 420 41. ?, 100, 150, 375, 1312.5
C 720 500 (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 150
D 560 450 (d) 400 (e) 50
E 680 320 42. 104, ?, 96, 120, 88, 128
(a) 112 (b) 110 (c) 114
36. Find average number of female participated from (d) 118 (e) 108
school – A, B & D.
43. 15, 8, 9, 15, 32, ?
(a) 400 (b) 380 (c) 350
(a) 66 (b) 99 (c) 80
(d) 440 (e) 450 (d) 82.5 (e) 80.5
37. Total male participated from school – B & D together 44. 6, 8, 14, 26, 46, ?
are how much more or less than total female (a) 72 (b) 84 (c) 96
participated from school – A & C together? (d) 80 (e) 76
(a) 150 (b) 110 (c) 170
(d) 120 (e) 240 45. 72000, 36000, 12000, 3000, 600, ?
(a) 120 (b) 200 (c) 300
38. Total male participated from school – B & C together (d) 150 (e) 100
are what percent more or less than total female
46. 12 men can do a work in 10 days while 10 women can
participated from school – A & D together? do the same work in 18 days. In how many days 4 men
(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 50% & 6 women together can do the same work?
(d) 40% (e) 30% 120 180
(a) 7 days (b) 24 days (c) 13 days
39. If total male participated from school – F are 40% more (d) 15 days (e) 18 days
than that of from school – A and ratio of female
participated from school – B to that of from school – F 47. A car can cover a distance in 4 hour at speed 60 kmph
then by what percent should the speed of car be
is 21:32, then find total students participated from
increased to cover the same distance in 2.5 hr?
school – F.
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 50%
(a) 1420 (b) 1550 (c) 1580
(d) 100% (e) 75%
(d) 1460 (e) 1490

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48. The ratio of the ages of Ram and Rahim 10 years ago 59. A & B entered into a business by investing total capital
was 1 : 3. The ratio of their ages five years hence will of Rs 17000. B withdraws Rs 1500 after 6 months and
be 2 : 3. Then, the ratio of their present ages is : gets Rs 8100 as profit out of total profit of Rs 19500 at
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 3 : 4 the end of year. Find capital of B after 6 months from
(d) 2 : 5 (e) None of these starting.
(a) Rs 7000 (b) Rs 9500 (c) Rs 7500
49. Two trains of length 140m & 120m are running in same
(d) Rs 6000 (e) Rs 6500
direction on parallel tracks with speeds 132 kmph &
80 kmph respectively. How much time will they take to 60. If length of a rectangle increases by 40% while keeping
cross each other? breadth constant then area of rectangle increased by
(a) 7.09 sec (b) 18 sec (c) 11.7 sec 24 m2 and perimeter of original rectangle is 32 m. find
(d) 4.42 sec (e) Cannot be determined breadth of rectangle.
(a) 8.4 m (b) 10 m (c) 6 m
50. A person sold a book at 20% profit. If he had bought it
(d) 14 m (e) 8 m
at 10% less cost and sold for Rs 90 more then he would
have gained 40% profit. Find cost price of book. Direction (61–70): What will come in the place of (?)
(a) Rs 800 (b) Rs 1600 (c) Rs 1500 mark in following question.
(d) None of these (e) Rs 1200
61. 280 ÷ 4 ÷ 2 = 170 – ?
Direction (51–55): In each question two equations (a) 105 (b) 115 (c) 125
numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the (d) 135 (e) 145
equations and mark appropriate answer. ?
(a) If x = y or no relation can be established 62. (√144 + √169 ) × 3 =
5
(b) If x > y (a) 375 (b) 325 (c) 350
(c) If x < y (d) 275 (e) 475
(d) If x ≥ y 63. (12 × 5 ÷ 4) × 8 = ?
(e) If x ≤ y (a) 100 (b) 140 (c) 120
51. I. 𝑥 = √25 II. y3 = 125 (d) 80 (e) 90
52. I. x2 + 2x – 35 = 0 II. y2 + 15y + 56 = 0 64. (120% of 750) ÷ ? = 25

(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 24
53. I. x2 = 81 II. y2 = 64 (d) 18 (e) 48
54. I. 17x2 – 14x – 83 = - 80 II. y2 = 2y + 35 1 5 7
65. 8 − 4 =? −3
2 6 12
55. I. x2 + 4x – 45 = 0 II. y2 − 13𝑦 + 40 = 0 1 5 7
(a) 3 (b) 3 (c) 2
4 12 12
56. A container contains mixture of milk & water in ratio 5 1 2
(d) 7 (e) 5
: 3 respectively. If 8 lit milk is added in it then ratio of 4 3
milk to water becomes 11 : 5. Find difference between 66. 275 + 64% of 750 = 750 + ?
initial quantity of milk & that of water. (a) 25 (b) 8 (c) 10
(a) 5 lit (b) 38 lit (c) 18 lit (d) 15 (e) 5
(d) 30 lit (e) 10 lit
67. √225 + √81 + 122 =?
57. Rs 6000 when invested at a certain rate at SI for 2 (a) 168 (b) 164 (c) 162
years, it fetches Rs 1200. If same sum is invested at (d) 172 (e) 182
same rate for a year compounded half – yearly then
510
find compound interest. 68. ?
= √324 + 3.25
(a) Rs 615 (b) Rs 600 (c) Rs 1200 (a) 12 (b) 48 (c) 24
(d) Rs 585 (e) Rs 1260 (d) 6 (e) 18
58. A boat can cover 28 km downstream in 42 min. ratio of 69. 12.5% of (120 + ?) = 45
speed of boat in still water to speed of stream is 7 : 3. (a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 360
Find difference between time taken by boat to cover 60 (d) 240 (e) 120
km downstream & 40 km upstream.
(a) 2.25 hr (b) 1 hr (c) 1.5 hr 70. 572 ÷ 13 × 12 – 16 = (8)?
(d) 0.4 hr (e) 0.9 hr (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3

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English Language
Directions (71-77) Read the given passage carefully and alter evolutionary pressures on viruses carried by
answer the following questions. Certain parts have been mosquitoes, like dengue fever, in unpredictable ways. This
highlighted to help answer the questions. includes potentially increasing their virulence or changing
their host-insect interactions. These are hypothetical risks
Every year, around one million people die of mosquito-
that have been raised by scientists, and reflect the need for
borne diseases according to the World Health Organization
further study.
(WHO). This is why mosquitoes are considered one of the
deadliest living creatures on the planet — not because 71. Why are mosquitoes considered as one of the deadliest
they are lethal themselves, but because many of the viruses living creatures on earth?
and parasites they transmit are. (a) Capability to transmit life threatening diseases.
In the absence of an effective vaccine for dengue fever, Zika (b) Mosquito bites cause fatal reactions in human
fever, chikungunya and other mosquito-borne diseases, beings
researchers have developed genetic strategies to reduce (c) Mosquitoes cannot be killed easily
mosquito populations. One such strategy involves the (d) Both (a) and (c)
release into the wild of genetically modified (GM) (e) None of the above
mosquitoes that express a lethal gene — a strategy
72. What is one of the methods being developed to control
believed to have little impact on the overall DNA of wild
population of mosquitoes?
populations of mosquitoes.
(a) Spraying of pesticides using established
The transfer of new genes from GM organisms to wild or
procedures.
domesticated non-GM populations is a key criticism of GM
(b) Introduction of a lethal gene into wild populations
crops like soybean and corn. There are concerns that the
of mosquitoes using genetically modified ones.
introduction of GM genes into non-target species could
(c) Not letting any stagnant water build-up near
have negative consequences for both human and
homes
environmental health.
Oxitec, a company that spun out of research at Oxford
(e) None of the above
University in the early 2000s, developed and trademarked
GM Friendly™ mosquitoes (also known as strain OX513A 73. What can be the potential side effect(s) of genetically
of Aedes aegypti). These male GM mosquitoes have what modified mosquito offspring?
the company describes as a “self-limiting” gene, which (a) Evolution of a breed of mosquitoes which are more
means that when these so-called friendly mosquitoes’ difficult to control
mate, their offspring inherit the self-limiting gene which is (b) Increase in the severity of diseases being currently
supposed to prevent them surviving into adulthood. transmitted by mosquitoes.
In theory, when these mosquitoes are released in high (c) Change in host-insect interactions.
numbers, a dramatic reduction in the mosquito population (d) Loss of natural populations of mosquitoes
should follow. According to research published by Oxitec (e) (a), (b) and (c)
researchers in 2015, field trials involving recurring
74. Which of the statements can be considered as true with
releases of Friendly™ mosquitoes demonstrated a
respect to the passage given?
reduction of nearly 95 per cent of target populations in
(a) Field trials on Genetically modified mosquitoes
Brazil. In these field trials, experiments were not
showed reduction of 96% target populations.
performed to assess whether GM mosquitoes might persist
(b) Oxitec trademarked the GM Friendly mosquitoes
in the wild.
in 2015.
A recent study from the Powell lab at Yale University has
(c) The female GM mosquito has a self-limiting gene
since confirmed that some of the offspring of the GM
mosquitoes didn’t succumb to the self-limiting lethal gene
(e) None of the above
and survived to adulthood. They were able to breed with
native mosquitoes and thereby introduce some of their 75. What is the desired effect of releasing GM mosquitoes
genes into the wild population. containing the ‘Self-limiting Gene’?
Meanwhile, the impact of mosquitoes carrying these new (a) A substantial reduction in the population of
genes remains largely unknown. One significant worry is mosquitoes.
that a new breed of mosquito might emerge that is more (b) Birth of mosquitoes without a biting mechanism
difficult to control. These new genes could also potentially

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(c) Decrease in the number of diseases caused due to 80. ESCALATE
mosquitoes (i) The pedestrian was jaywalking when he escalate
(d) Increase in the number of male mosquitoes. the busy street, walking straight into the path of an
(e) Both (b) and (c) oncoming vehicle.
(ii) We've tried to escalate the most likely problems,
76. Which of the following word is similar to deadliest as but it's impossible to be prepared for every
mentioned in the passage given? eventuality.
(a) fatal (b) demeaning (c) fulfil (iii) The decision to escalate UN involvement has been
(d) harmless (e) None of the above made in the hopes of a swift end to the hostilities.
(a) Only (i)
77. Which of the statements can be considered as true with (b) Both (i) and (ii)
respect to the passage given?? (c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(a) GM mosquitoes are able to introduce some of their (d) Only (iii)
genes into the wild population. (e) All of these
(b) Mosquitoes having GM genes have been
Directions (81-85): In the following question, four
thoroughly researched upon. sentences are given which may be grammatically and
(c) Oxitec released its friendly mosquitoes in Brazil contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has
(d) (a) and (c) no error and mark that as your answer. If all the given
(e) All of the above sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are
incorrect’ as your answer.
Directions (78-80): A word has been given in each
question and has been used in the sentences given below. 81. (a) India’s chocolate market is pegged at Rs.11,000
Identify the statements where the word has been used in a crore, of which premium chocolates can be sized
anywhere among 10% and 15%.
contextually and grammatically correct manner. If the
(b) South Korea reported 52 new case of coronavirus.
word has been used correctly in all the statements, mark
(c) ITC has plans to work with cocoa farmers directly
(e), “All of these”, as your answer. in future.
78. HOSTILE (d) The company initially invested Rs. 100 crore to set
(i) He made hostile efficiency a key part of his up a greenfield chocolate manufacture facility in
Haridwar.
budget plan.
(e) All are incorrect
(ii) There has been a hostile reaction to the
government's proposed tax increase. 82. (a) Ratnakar Bank was rename as RBL Bank by the
(iii) The security forces exercised great restraint by government.
not responding to hostile attacks and threats. (b) The government expects all the mergers of public
sector banks, which were announced in 2019, to
(a) Only (i)
become effective from April 1.
(b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Analysts believe that lower gas prices would be
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) bad with exploration
(d) Only (iii) (d) The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(e) All of these will be regulate the medical devices now.
(e) All are incorrect
79. VAGUE
(i) The judges determined that the law was too vague 83. (a) Mahindra Renewables will sell its entire stake in 3
to be fairly enforced. subsidiaries to CLP India, a part of Hong Kong-
(ii) The merger of these two companies would vague based CLP Group, as nearly ₹340 crore.
(b) The agreement will be signed to Doha city between
the world's biggest accounting firm
Taliban representatives and U.S. special envoy
(iii) The president had a vague reception in Ohio this Zalmay Khalilzad.
morning. (c) The U.S. intelligence community publicly
(a) Only (i) concluded that Russia intervened in there security
(b) Both (i) and (ii) matters.
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) The injured animal was nursed back to health by
(d) Only (iii) the zookeeper and then released back into the wild
(e) All of these (e) All are incorrect

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84. (a) English language have the potential to connect the Directions (91-95): In the following questions, a
world without any barriers grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is given
(b) P.K. Sinha was appointed in the PMO when which is divided into five parts, where the first part is fixed
Nripendra Misra, the then Principal Secretary, and highlighted , in the remaining parts of the sentence
resigns. namely (A),(B),(C) and (D) You have to arrange the four
(c) She drink the caramel liquid too fast and was soon parts to make a contextually and grammatically
too dizzy to stand. meaningful sentence. If no such rearrangement is possible
(d) You’re coming to the party, isn’t you? mark (e) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement required'.
(e) All are incorrect 91. (A) the merger of Bharti Infratel
(B) the world’s second largest
85. (a) Tamil Nadu is likely to get three textile parks and a
(C) and Indus Towers will create
technology research centre under schemes that
(D) tower company
the Union Ministry of Textiles is formulating.
(a) BCDA (b) CBDA (c) ACBD
(b) What is the uses of a house if you haven't got a
(d) DCAB (e) No rearrangement is required
tolerable planet to put it on?
(c) You have brushed your teeth today? 92. (A) upcoming visit to India
(d) Rahul had barely nothing to help the poor children. (B) the long-awaited trade agreement
(e) All are incorrect (C) during US President Donald Trump's
(D) appears to be off the table
Directions (86-90): In the following questions, a sentence (a) DABC (b) BDCA (C) CDAB
is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word (d) ADCB (e) No rearrangement required
in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which
93. (A) Leaders of the Railway Employees Organization
is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the
(B) alleged that the government wants to
highlighted words are correct, choose option (e) i.e. “all are
(C) hand over the rail infrastructure
correct” as your answer choice. (D) to the private operators for financial benefit
86. The manager balanced (A) the strength (B) of his (a) ADCB (b) BACD (c) CDBA
team against that of their opponent (C) and sighed. (d) DABC (e) No rearrangement required
(D) 94. (A) China has not yet given
(a) balanced (b) strength (c) opponent (B) India the go-ahead to send an
(d) sighed (e) All are correct (C) to coronavirus hit Wuhan
(D) aircraft with medical supplies
87. One evening Rohan pripared (A) a nice supper (B)
(a) DACB (b) ABDC (c) CBDA
and put it on low heat in the oven to keep it tepid (C)
(d) BCDA (e) No rearrangement is required
while his wife dressed. (D)
(a) prepared (b) supper (c) tepid 95. (A) mammals and birds move from
(d) dressed (e) All are correct (B) with a change in season, many
(C) one country to another in search of food
88. She was able to breathe (A) easier when she stood (D) and shelter, and for breeding
outside the massive(B) fortress (C) that sat on a (a) ACBD (b) CADB (c) DABC
clearing the size of two footbal (D) fields. (d) BACD (e) No rearrangement is required
(a) breathe (b) massive (c) fortress
(d) football (e) All are correct Directions (96-100): In the following passage there are
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
89. From time to time Jack would looking over(A) are printed below the passage and against each, five
Mungo's shoulder, suggesting(B) tactics (C) which options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits
invariably proved disastrous.(D) the blank appropriately.
(a) looking over (b) suggesting (c) tactics Bumblebees, among the most important pollinators, are in
(d) disastrous (e) All are correct (96) ________________. Fuzzy and buzzy, they excel at
90. Horrified (A) passengers saw Olive stumble (B) and spreading pollen and fertilizing many types of wild flora, as
fall of (C) a platform as an express roared (D) in. well as crucial agricultural crops like tomatoes,
(a) Horrified (b) stumble (c) fall of blueberries, and squash. But their numbers are (97)
(d) roared (e) All are correct ________________. New research using a massive dataset found
that the insects are far less common than they used to be;

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in North America, you are nearly 50 percent less likely to percent less plentiful than they were in the early 20th
see a bumblebee in any given area than you were prior to century. The scientists examined the abundance of 66
1974. Moreover, several once-common species have (98) species across the two continents.
__________________ from many areas they were once found,
96. (a) extinct (b) trouble (c) dropped
becoming locally extinct in those places. For example, the
(d) growth (e) difficult
rusty patched bumblebee, which used to flourish in
Ontario, is no longer found in all of Canada—in the U.S., it’s 97. (a) increasing (b) dripped (c) removing
endangered. In a new paper published this week in the (d) dropping (e) generating
journal Science, researchers used a complex modeling 98. (a) multiplied (b) concerning (c) disappeared
process to (99) ________________ that their (d) certain (e) vanish
(100)___________________ is driven in large part by climate
change. Specifically, the scientists found that in areas that 99. (a) proposed (b) recommending
have become hotter in the last generation, or have (c) implying (d) expresses (e) suggest
experienced more extreme temperature swings, 100. (a) decline (b) deteriorate (c) rejection
bumblebees are less abundant. In Europe, they are 17 (d) lessen (e) reduced
Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (1-5): 8. (e);
Designation Persons
Chairman F
CFO A
GM B Solutions (9-12):
Word Code
DGM C
Club Ox
AGM G
Near Ot
Manager D House/Located Ol/gp
Junior manager H Both Mt
Clerk E Make Nk
Area Tm
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) View Sq
4. (a) 5. (c) 9. (c)
10. (d)
6. (b); 11. (a)
12. (a)
Solutions (13-17):
7. (d);
13. (b); 14. (c); 15. (b);

16. (d); 17. (e);

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Solutions (18-20): 21. (b); 22. (c); 23. (d)
24. (a); 25. (d);
26. (c); 6 4 5 9 0 3 2 8 7
0 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
27. (a); Hire, Heir
Solutions (28-32):
18. (a);
19. (c); 28. (e);
20. (c); 29. (d);
30. (a);
31. (b);
32. (b);
33. (c); I. Q > S (False) II. S = Q (False)
34. (a); I. J < Q (True) II. L ≤ R (False)
35. (e); I. G > X (True) II. O > M(True)
450+420+450 43. (d); Pattern of series -

36. (d); Required average = = 440
3
37. (a); Total male participated from school – B & D

together = 540 + 560 = 1100 44. (e); Pattern of series -
Total female participated from school – A & C
together = 450 + 500 = 950
Required difference = 1100 − 950 = 150
38. (d); Total male participated from school – B & C
together = 540 + 720 = 1260 45. (e); Pattern of series -
Total female participated from school – A & D
together = 450 + 450 = 900
1260−900
Required % = 900 × 100 = 40% 46. (d); let total work be 360 units
360
Efficiency of 1 man = = 3 units/day
12×10
39. (b); Total students participated from school F = 360
140 32 Efficiency of 1 woman = 10×18 = 2 units/day
100
× 650 + 420 × 21 360
Required time = 4×3+6×2 = 15 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
= 910 + 640 = 1550
40. (b); Total number of male students participated from 47. (a); distance = 240 kms
240
all the five schools Required speed = 2.5 = 96 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
= (650 + 540 + 720 + 560 + 680) = 3150 Required % =
96−60
× 100 = 60%
60
41. (b); Pattern of series –
48. (b); Let 10 years ago, ages of Ram and Rahim were x
years and 3x years, respectively.
Then, present age of Ram = (x + 10)
42. (a); Pattern of series - and present age of Rahim = (3x + 10)
According to the question,
x+10+5 2
3x+10+5
=3

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⇒ 3x + 45 = 6x + 30 56. (e); let initial quantity of milk & water be 5x & 3x lit
⇒ 3x = 15 respectively
5𝑥+8 11
∴x=5 ATQ, =
5+10 3𝑥 5
Hence, required ratio = 25x + 40 = 33x ⇒ x = 5
3×5+10
15
= 25 = 3 ∶ 5 required difference = 5x – 3x = 2x = 10 lit
140+120
57. (a); let rate of interest be R%
49. (b); required time = 5
ATQ, 1200 = 100
6000×𝑅×2
(132−80)×
18
260×18 R = 10%
= = 18 sec
52×5
Since compounding is done half-yearly, rate of
50. (c); let CP of book be Rs x interest = 5%
5×5
SP = Rs 1.2x Effective rate of interest = 5 + 5 + 100 = 10.25%
New CP = Rs 0.9x 6000×10.25×1
New SP = Rs 1.2x + 90 Required interest = = Rs 615
100
140
ATQ, 0.9𝑥 × = 1.2𝑥 + 90 58. (b); let speed of boat in still water & speed of stream
100
1.26x = 1.2x + 90 be 7x & 3x kmph respectively
28 42
x = Rs 1500 ATQ, 7𝑥+3𝑥 = 60
51. (a); I. x = 5 x=4
40 60 4
II. y = 5 Required difference = 7𝑥−3𝑥 − 7𝑥+3𝑥 = 𝑥 = 1 hour
So, x=y
59. (d); let amount invested by A be Rs x
52. (d); I. x2 + 7x – 5x – 35 =0 Profit ratio; A : B = (x × 12) : (17000 – x) × 6 +
x (x + 7) – 5 (x + 7) =0 (15500 – x) × 6
(x + 7) (x – 5) = 0 = 2x : (32500 – 2x)
19500
x = −7, 5 ATQ, 32500−2𝑥+2𝑥 × (32500 − 2𝑥) = 8100
II. y2 + 7y + 8y + 56 = 0 32500 – 2x = 13500
y(y + 7) + 8(y + 7) = 0 x = Rs 9500
(y + 7) (y + 8) = 0 required capital of B after 6 months = 15500 – x =
y = − 8, −7 Rs 6000
So, x≥y
60. (c); let length & breadth of rectangle be x & y m
53. (a) I. x = ± 9 respectively
II. y = ± 8 ATQ, 1.4xy – xy = 24
So, no relation can be established xy = 60 ………………(i)
54. (a); I. 17x2 – 14x – 3 = 0 also, 2(x + y) = 32
17x2 – 17x + 3x – 3 = 0 x + y = 16 ………….(ii)
17x (x – 1) + 3(x – 1) = 0 from (i) & (ii)
x = 10 m, y = 6 m
(17x + 3) (x – 1) = 0
3 breadth of rectangle = 6 m
x= − ,1
17
61. (d); ? = 170 – 35
II. y2 – 2y – 35 = 0
? = 135
y2 – 7y + 5y – 35 = 0
?
y(y −7) + 5(𝑦 − 7) = 0 62. (a); (12 + 13) × 3 = 5
y = 7, - 5 ? = 375
So, no relation can be established
63. (c); ? = (3 × 5) × 8
55. (e); I. x2 + 9x – 5x – 45 = 0 ? = 120
x(x + 9) – 5(x + 9) = 0
120
(x – 5) (x + 9) = 0 64. (b); ( 100 × 750 ) ÷? = 25
x = 5, - 9 ? = 900 ÷ 25
II. y2 – 5y – 8y + 40 = 0 ? = 36
y(y – 5) – 8(y – 5) = 0 6−10+7
(y – 5) (y – 8) = 0 65. (d); ? = (8 – 4 + 3)+ 12
y = 5, 8 1
?=74
So, x≤y

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64 12.5
66. (e); 275 + 100 × 750 = 750 + ? 69. (d); 100
× (120+? ) = 45
275 + 480 = 750 + ? 120 + ? = 360
?=5 ? = 240
67. (a); ? = 15 + 9 + 144 70. (c); 44 × 12 − 16 = (8)?
? = 168
528 – 16 = (8)?
510
68. (c); = 18 + 3.25 ?=3
?
? = 24
English Language
71. (a); Reading the first paragraph of the passage it can company describes as a “self-limiting” gene, which
be deduced that the correct answer is option(a). means that when these so-called friendly
The relevant sentences of the mentioned mosquitoes’ mate, their offspring inherit the self-
sentences have been quoted below: limiting gene which is supposed to prevent them
“This is why mosquitoes are considered one of the surviving into adulthood In theory, when these
deadliest living creatures on the planet — not mosquitoes are released in high numbers, a
because they are lethal themselves, but because dramatic reduction in the mosquito population
many of the viruses and parasites they transmit should follow.”
are.”
76. (a); Among the given words, ‘fatal’ is the synonym of
72. (b); Reading the second paragraph of the passage it ‘deadliest’. Hence, option (a) is the
can be deduced that the correct answer is most suitable answer choice.
option(b). The sentences of the passage which Fatal: causing death.
substantiate this are given below: Demeaning: causing someone to lose their dignity
“One such strategy involves the release into the and the respect of others.
wild of genetically modified (GM) mosquitoes that
77. (d); Reading the above passage it can be seen that the
express a lethal gene — a strategy believed to
correct statements are (a) and (c). The sentences
have little impact on the overall DNA of wild
have been quoted below for your reference-
populations of mosquitoes.”
“According to research published by Oxitec
73. (e); Reading the last paragraph of the passage it can be researchers in 2015, field trials involving
deduced that the correct answer is recurring releases of Friendly™ mosquitoes
option(e). The relevant sentences of the demonstrated a reduction of nearly 95 per
mentioned sentences have been quoted below: cent of target populations in Brazil. A recent
“One significant worry is that a new breed of study from the Powell lab at Yale University has
mosquito might emerge that is more difficult to since confirmed that some of the offspring of the
control. These new genes could also potentially GM mosquitoes didn’t succumb to the self-limiting
alter evolutionary pressures on viruses carried by lethal gene and survived to adulthood. They were
mosquitoes, like dengue fever, in unpredictable able to breed with native mosquitoes and
ways. This includes potentially increasing their thereby introduce some of their genes into the
virulence or changing their host-insect wild population.”
interactions.”
78. (c); Hostile means showing or feeling opposition or
74. (e); Reading the passage carefully we can see that dislike; unfriendly. Therefore, sentence (ii) and
none of the sentences given above are factually (iii) depict the correct usage of the given word.
correct hence the correct answer will be option Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer
(e). choice.
75. (a); Reading the fourth and fifth paras of the passage 79. (a); Vague means thinking or communicating in an
it can be deduced that the correct answer is unfocused or imprecise way. Therefore, only
option(a). The relevant sentences of the sentence (i) depicts the correct usage of the given
mentioned sentences have been quoted below: word. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable
“These male GM mosquitoes have what the answer choice.

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80. (d); Escalate means increase rapidly. Therefore, only 91. (c); The correct rearrangement of the parts of
sentence (iii) depicts the correct usage of the statement will be “ACBD” which will make a
given word. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable grammatically correct and contextually
answer choice. meaningful statement. Hence, option (c) is the
most suitable answer choice. The correct
81. (c); As we go through the analysis of the sentence, we
statement thus formed will be:
find that the sentence of option (c) is correct.
“The merger of Bharti Infratel and Indus Towers
(a) replace ‘among’ with ‘between’. Among is used
will create the world’s second largest tower
for a greater number.
company.”
(b) replace ‘case’ with ‘cases’.
(d) replace’ manufacture’ with ‘manufacturing’. 92. (b); The correct rearrangement of the parts of
statement will be “BDCA” which will make a
82. (b); As we go through the analysis of the sentence, we
grammatically correct and contextually
find that the sentence of option (b) is correct.
meaningful statement. Hence, option (b) is the
(a) replace ‘rename’ with ‘renamed’.
most suitable answer choice. The correct
(c) replace ‘with’ with ‘for’.
(d) replace ‘regulate’ with ‘regulating’.
“The long-awaited trade agreement appears to be
83. (d); As we go through the analysis of the sentence, we off the table during US President Donald Trump’s
find that the sentence of option (d) is correct. upcoming visit to India.”
(a) replace ‘as’ with ‘for’.
93. (e); In the given sentence the sentence elaborates on
(b) replace ‘to’ with ‘in’.
allegations made against the government by
(c) replace ‘there’ with ‘their’.
leaders of railway employee organisations with
84. (e); As we go through the sentences, we find that all respect to their stand on handing over railway
sentences are incorrect. infrastructure to private companies. Hence,
(a) replace ‘have’ with ‘has’. option (e) is the most suitable answer choice
(b) replace ‘resigns’ with ‘resigned’. which means the sentence requires no
(c) replace ‘drink’ with ‘drank’. rearrangement. The statement thus formed will
(d) replace ‘isn’t’ with ‘aren’t’. be:
“Leaders of the Railway Employees Organization
85. (a); As we go through the analysis of the sentence, we
find that the sentence in option (a) is correct. alleged that the government wants to hand over
the rail infrastructure to the private operators for
(b) replace ‘uses’ with ‘use’.
(c) interchange ‘have’ with ‘you’ to maintain the financial benefit.”
interrogative form of the sentence. 94. (b); The correct rearrangement of the parts of
(d) replace ‘nothing’ with ‘anything’ because statement will be “ABDC” which will make a
‘barely’ will not take ‘nothing’ after it. grammatically correct and contextually
meaningful statement. The given statement talks
86. (a); Except “balenced” which is spelt as “balanced” all
about India not being granted the permission to
other words are correctly spelt so our answer
choice will be option (a). send an aircraft carrying medical supplies to the
coronavirus hit Wuhan region. The correct
87. (a) ; Except “pripared” which is spelt as “prepared” all statement thus formed will be:
other words are correctly spelt so our answer “China has not yet given India the go-ahead to
choice will be option (a). send an aircraft with medical supplies to
88. (d); Except “footbal” which is spelt as “football” all coronavirus hit Wuhan.”
other words are correctly spelt so our answer 95. (d); The correct rearrangement of the parts of
choice will be option (d). statement will be “BACD” which will make a
89. (a); Except “looking over” which is grammatically grammatically correct and contextually
wrong all other words are correctly spelt and are meaningful statement. The given sentence talks
grammatically flawless so our answer choice will about migration in animals with changing seasons
be option (a). Replace “looking over” with “look in search of their basic needs. Hence, option (d) is
over”. the most suitable answer choice. The correct
90. (c); Except “fall of” which is spelt as “fall off” all other “With a change in season, many mammals and
words are correctly spelt so our answer choice birds move from one country to another in search
will be option (c). of food and shelter, and for breeding.”

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96. (b); The given paragraph is describing the alarming Disappeared means cease to exist or be in use.
situation of Bumblebees where their numbers are Vanish means disappear suddenly and
continuously declining. Thus, the most suitable completely.
word for the given blank is “trouble”. Hence, Certain means able to be firmly relied on to
option (b) is the correct answer choice. happen or be the case.
97. (d); The given paragraph is describing the alarming 99. (e); The most suitable word for the given blank is
situation of Bumblebees where their numbers are “suggest”. All the other words are either
continuously declining. Thus, the most suitable grammatically or contextually incorrect. Hence,
word for the given blank is “dropping”. All the option (e) is the correct answer choice.
other words are contextually incorrect. Hence,
100. (a); The given paragraph is describing the alarming
option (d) is the correct answer choice.
situation of Bumblebees where their numbers are
98. (c); The given paragraph is describing the alarming continuously declining. Thus, the most suitable
situation of Bumblebees where their numbers are word for the given blank is “decline”. All the other
continuously declining. Thus, the most suitable words are either grammatically or contextually
word for the given blank is “disappeared”. All the incorrect. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer
other words are either grammatically or choice.
contextually incorrect. Hence, option (c) is the
correct answer choice.

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07
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully 6. Who among the following faces Q?
and answer the questions given below: (a) B (b) D (c) A
Eight persons are sitting around a circular table facing to (d) C (e) None of these
the center but not necessarily in the same order. 7. Who among the following sits at the extreme end of the
Two persons sit between Q and P (either from left or right). row?
R sits immediate to the right of Q. One person sits between (a) E (b) T (c) C
R and S, who faces to T. Q and T are not immediate (d) R (e) P
neighbors of each other. W sits 2nd to the left of V. Three 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
persons sit between U and V. hence they form a group. Which one of the following
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and does not belong to that group?
hence they form a group. Which one of the following (a) Q (b) A (c) T
does not belong to that group? (d) D (e) P
(a) Q-W (b) P-U (c) S-W
9. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of P?
(d) V-T (e) Q-P
(a) S (b) R (c) Q
2. Who among the following sits immediate right of U? (d) T (e) None of these
(a) W (b) R (c) T
(d) S (e) V 10. What is the position of A with respect to E?
(a) 3rd to the left
3. The number of persons sit between Q and T , when (b) Immediate to the left
counted to right of Q is same as the number of persons (c) 2nd to the left
sit between W and ___, when counted to the left of ___? (d) 3rd to the right
(a) P (b) S (c) T
(e) 2nd to the right
(d) U (e) None of these
11. In the word ‘PRODUCE’, how many pairs of the letters
4. Who among the following faces R?
have the same number of letters between them in the
(a) U (b) V (c) P
given word as they have in the English alphabet series?
(d) W (e) Q
(a) Four (b) Two (c) One
5. Who among the following sits 3rd to the right of S? (d) Three (e) More than four
(a) P (b) U (c) Q
(d) T (e) None of these Direction (12-15): In each of the questions below are
given some statements followed by some conclusions. You
Direction (6-10): Study the following information have to take the given statements to be true even if they
carefully and answer the questions given below: seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five
persons in each row such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, A, B, C,
D and E are seated and all of them are facing north. In the 12. Statements: All Chocolate are Toffee. No Toffee is
second row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are Muffin. Only a few Muffin are Dark.
facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, Conclusions: I. No Chocolate is Muffin.
each member seated in a row faces another member of the II. Some Toffee can never be Dark.
other row. (a) If only conclusion II follows.
E sits 2nd from one of the extreme end of the row. P faces (b) If only conclusion I follows.
the one who sits 2nd to the right of E. D sits 2nd to the left of (c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
B, who does not sit at the extreme end. Two persons sit (d) If either conclusion I or II follows.
between S and Q. R sits immediate left of S. C sits next to B. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

13. Statements: No Party is Gathering. All Summary are 20. As many as persons are buying things before D as
Gathering. Only a few Gathering are Committee. after___?
Conclusions: I. Some Committee can be Summary. (a) E (b) B (c) F
II. Some Party can be Committee. (d) A (e) G
(a) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(b) If only conclusion I follows.
(c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) If only conclusion II follows. Point S is 15m west of point R. Point R is 30m south of
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. point Q. Point P is 20m west of point Q. Point U is 15m
south of point P. Point T is 35 north of point S.
14. Statements: No Market is Home. Only a few Home are
Room. Only a few Room is Vance. 21. If point V is exactly between point Q and R, then how
Conclusions: I. Some Home are Vance. far and in which direction is point U with respect to V?
II. Some Market can never be Room. (a)15m, North-East
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) 15m, East
(b) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (c) 10m, North-west
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) 20m, West
(d) If only conclusion II follows. (e) 20m, North-East
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
22. Four of the following are alike in a certain way, so form
15. Statements: Some Ball are Garden. All Garden are a group. Which of the following does not belong to that
Trade. Only a few Trade are Pump. group?
Conclusions: I. Some Ball are Pump. (a) P, T (b) U, Q (c)R, P
II. Some Garden can be Pump. (d) S, Q (e) U, T
(a) If only conclusion II follows.
23. If point W is in 5m east of point U, then what is the
(b) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. distance between point W and Point S?
(d) If only conclusion I follows. (a) 5m (b) 15m (c) 25m
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) 10m (e) 20m
Direction (16-20): Study the following information Direction (24-26): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below: carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons are buying different things. Only one person A certain number of persons are sitting in the row. All of
buy thing between C and A. B is buying thing immediately them are facing towards north. Q sits sixth from the right
before C. Two persons buy things between C and D. C buy of S. T sits forth to left of Q. Only two persons sit between
things after D. E buys thing immediately before D. More Q and P. R sits forth to the left of S. U sits between S and T.
than three persons buy things between E and F. Only three V sits second to the right of U. W is third from any of the
persons buy things between D and G. end. S is eight from the left end of the row. Six persons sit
16. How many persons buy things between A and F? between W and V.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three 24. How many numbers of persons could sit in the row?
(d) Four (e) More than four (a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 23
17. Who among the following buy thing immediately after (d) 15 (e) 20
F? 25. What is the position of ‘W’ with respect to Q?
(a) D (b) B (c) G (a) Fourth to the right
(d) A (e) No one (b) Fifth to the right
18. Who among the following buy thing immediately (c) Fourth to the left
before G? (d) Eighth to the right
(a) D (b) B (c) C (e) Sixth to the left
(d) A (e) No one 26. If X sits immediate right of V then how many persons
19. How many person buy things before A? sit between X and P?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (a) Five (b) Six (c) Four
(d) Four (e)More than four (d) Three (e) None of these

27. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with A@34%ENM$86&LDS#986QYZ17%ROG
the 2nd, 4th, 6th and 7th letters of the word @2IB2U&
‘UNILATERAL’ which would be the second letter of the
word from the right end? If more than one such word 31. Which of the following element is sixth to the left of the
can be formed give ‘Y’ as the answer. If no such word fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?
can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer. (a) 6 (b) % (c) $
(a) Y (b) N (c) L (d) M (e) None of these
(d) T (e) Z
32. If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which
Directions (28-30): In each of the question, relationships element will be twelfth from the right end?
between some elements are shown in the statements. (a) 9 (b) Q (c) R
These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I
(d) Y (e) None of these
and II. Read the statements and give the answer.
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 33. How many such numbers are there in the given series
(b) If only conclusion II follows. which are immediately preceded by a symbol and
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. followed by a letter?
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (a) None (b) One (c) Two
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) Three (e) Four
28. Statements: A ≥ B ≥ C = D > E ≤ F < G 34. How many such letters are there in the given series
Conclusions: I. E < B II. G > E which are immediately preceded by number and
29. Statements: P ≤ R < T = U; Q ≥ T ≤ S ≥ V immediately followed by a symbol?
Conclusions: I. Q > P II. V < R (a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) More than three (e) None of these
30. Statements: L > M = O ≥ P; N ≤ M ≥ S ≥ T
Conclusions: I. T ≤ P II. N < L 35. Find the odd one out?
Directions (31-35): Study the following sequence and (a) N64 (b) D86 (c) Y%8
answer the given questions. (d) R27 (e) 8EL
Directions (36-40): What will come in the place of (a) 75 (b) 155 (c) 125
question mark (?) in the following number series: (d) 175 (e) 165
36. 11, ?, 16, 21, 29, 41 39. ?, 100, 150, 375, 1312.5
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 75
(d) 13 (e) 11 (d) 25 (e) 200
37. 1800, ?, 60, 15, 5, 2.5 40. 0, 6, 24, 60, ?, 210
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 120
(a) 130 (b) 170 (c) 90
(d) 240 (e) 360
(d) 120 (e) 150
38. 4, 3, 4, 9, 32, ?
Directions (41-45): Study the bar chart given below and answer the following questions.
Bar chart shows the number of books read by 4 different persons (A, B, C & D) in 2005 and 2006.
100
90
80
70
60
50 2005
40 2006
30
20
10
0
A B C D

41. Find average number of books read by A, C & D in 2005. 54. 35% of 150 × 16 = ? – 22
(a) 64 (b) 70 (c) 75 (a) 865 (b) 932 (c) 864
(d) 60 (e) 56 (d) 862 (e) None of these
55. (3080 + 6160) ÷ ? = 330
42. Find ratio of books read by B & C together in 2005 to
(a) 26 (b) 22 (c) 28
books read by A & D together in 2006.
(d) 29 (e) 18
(a) 15 : 16 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 1 : 5
(d) 4 : 7 (e) 2 : 3 56. Difference of the compound interest received in first
year and second year at 20% per annum at CI is Rs
43. Books read by A & D together in 2005 are what percent
1200 then find the sum?
more than books read by C in 2006?
2 1 2 (a) Rs 25,000 (b) Rs 36,000 (c) Rs 35,000
(a) 46 % (b) 54 % (c) 25 % (d) Rs 24,000 (e) Rs 30,000
3 3 3
1 2
(d) 33 % (e) 66 % 57. Find the total distance covered by boat in each
3 3
44. Books read by A & C together in 2005 are how much upstream and downstream in 7 hours if the speed of
more or less than books read by B & D together in boat in still water and speed of current is 21 km/h and
2006? 3 km/h respectively?
(a) 24 (b) 14 (c) 18 (a) 280 𝑘𝑚 (b) 294 𝑘𝑚 (c) 315 𝑘𝑚
(d) 22 (e) 28 (d) 301 𝑘𝑚 (e) 322 𝑘𝑚
45. Books read by B & C together in 2006 are what percent 58. Ratio of income of A to that of B is 5:9. If expenditure of
3 4
of books read by B in 2005? A is th of his income and expenditure of B is th of his
8 9
(a) 100% (b) 120% (c) 250% income and sum of their saving is Rs 1950 then find the
(d) 200% (e) 160% difference between their income?
Directions (46-55): What will come in place of (?) (a) Rs 900 (b) Rs 1000 (c) Rs 880
question mark in the following questions? (d) Rs 960 (e) Rs 920
17.28÷? 59. A alone can do a work in 12 days while A and B
46. 3.6 × 0.2 = 200 together can do that work in 7.5 days. Find the time
(a) 120 (b) 1.20 (c) 12 taken by C alone to do that work if C takes 3 days more
(d) 0.12 (e) None of these than that of B alone to do that work?
47. 486 ÷ ? × 7392 ÷ 66 = 1008 (a) 33 days (b) 30 days (c) 23 days
(a) 54 (b) 55 (c) 52 (d) 27 days (e) 28 days
(d) 53 (e) 51 60. Ratio of base and perpendicular side of a right-angled
2 1 triangle is 3:4 and its base is equal to the side of a
48. 14 7 % of 4200 ÷ √576 = (? ) 2
square having area 81 cm2. Find the perimeter of the
(a) 125 (b) 225 (c) 25 triangle?
(d) 5 (e) 625 (a) 30 cm (b) 36 cm (c) 33 cm
2 5 3 (d) 42 cm (e) 40 cm
49. × × ×? = 90
7 6 8
(a) 1208 (b) 1108 (c) 1008 Directions (61-65): In each of these questions, two
(d) 1128 (e) 1348 equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the
equations and give answer
50. (0.05 × 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =? (a) if x>y
(a) 12.55 (b) 0.125 (c) 0.115 (b) if x≥y
(d) 1.25 (e) None of these (c) if x<y
51. 1496 ÷ 17 = ?% of 220 (d) if x ≤y
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 50 (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and
(d) 75 (e) None of these y.
52. (36% of 180) ÷ 0.4 = ? 61. I. x² - 13x + 40 = 0

(a) 160 (b) 164 (c) 166 II. 2y² - y – 15 = 0
(d) 162 (e) 180 62. I. 5x² + 17x + 6 = 0
53. 0.08% of 55500 – 16.4 = ? II. 2y² + 11y + 12 = 0
(a) 26.6 (b) 28 (c) 29.2 63. I. 7x² - 19x + 10 = 0
(d) 30.4 (e) 32 II. 8y² + 2y – 3 = 0

64. I. 𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 15 = 0 1
68. Retailer sold one article at 33 3 % profit and another at
II. 𝑦 2 − 3𝑦 + 2 = 0
100% profit. Find his overall profit percentage if the
65. I. 3x² –7x + 4 = 0 selling price of both the article is same?
2
II. 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0 (a) 60% (b) 55% (c) 66 %
3
2
66. A person travels half of the distance at the speed of x (d) 75% (e) 56 %
3
km/h and remaining half of the distance at 4x km/h.
69. A mixture has milk and water in the ratio 4: 1. When
Find the value of ‘x’ if the average speed is 36.8 km/h? 50% of the mixture is taken out and replaced by 24
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 24 liters of water then the ratio of milk to water in the
(d) 23 (e) 20 mixture becomes 1: 1. Find initial quantity of mixture.
67. A, B and C invested in a ratio of 7: 8: 5 in a business. (a) 80 liters (b) 45 liters (c) 70 liters
They got an annual profit of Rs. 136800. If A and C (d) 60 liters (e) 75 liters
withdrew their amount at the end of 3 months and 7 70. 4 years ago, ratio of Shivam’s age to Deepak’s age was
months respectively. Then find the difference between 2: 3 and ratio of Shivam’s age 4 years ago to Deepak’s
A and C’s share of profit? age 5 years hence is 8: 15. Find present age of Shivam.
(a) Rs. 12,600 (b) Rs. 11,500 (c) Rs. 13,500 (a) 32 years (b) 28 years (c) 40 years
(d) Rs. 10,500 (e) Rs. 13,000 (d) 24 years (e) 36 years
English Language
Directions (71-78): Read the following passage and they are deployed - along with enhanced security through
answer the following questions based on the given the use of multiple server locations. With all this
passage. Some of the words are highlighted which would considered, it is no surprise that 42% of UK businesses
help you to answer some of the questions given. leverage some kind of cloud service, according to Eurostat.
However, all the perceived benefits of leveraging the cloud
For years, world-wide organisations have become are redundant if organisations come up against barriers to
increasingly excited about the prospect of a cloud-based accessing cloud services. Cloud-based data pipelines still
future. As the dream becomes an ever closer reality for suffer from complexity challenges at the moment, along
many kinds of business and, Forrester predicted that with the lack of visibility into cost and resource usage at
enterprise spending on cloud services is set to surge. IDC the application and user level. The answer to this is
also predicted that global spending on public cloud automation fueled by robust Machine learning training
services and infrastructure would reach $210bn in 2019, models and artificial intelligence. These concepts and the
an increase of 24% from 2018. But one obstacle stands tools that enable them can determine the prerequisites of
create friction and introduce risk: the process of migration. cloud infrastructure, application dependencies,the
As all indications point to a massive shift in data appropriate target cloud instance profiles, and provide
deployments to the cloud, it is more important than ever troubleshooting in real-time.
that the transition from on-premises to Cloud is as risk free
as possible. In today's climate any loss or disruption to data To summarise, the promise of the cloud has created a sense
can have a huge business impact. It’s a complex process, is of excitement amongst enterprises, however, they have
frequently underestimated and many organisations have proceeded to go full steam ahead into adopting a cloud
found there’s lots that can go wrong that can impact the service, without sufficient data to ensure performance
business. service level agreements (SLAs).
Organisations across the globe have found the cloud to be 71. How can we tackle the risks associated with the
an ideal place to run modern data applications due to big process of migration?
data’s elastic resource requirements. Furthermore, with (a) By ensuring that organisations only migrate the
the lack of data talent an ever-looming issue for most apps to the cloud that will thrive in the cloud.
companies today they have been determined to adopt a (b) The surge in the investment in the cloud
cloud-first strategy to ensure business operations are technology.
accessible for a range of employees. (c) The use of predictive power of Artificial
Intelligence.
The cloud offers great promise for developers especially, as (d) The transition from on-premises to Cloud
it can increase the speed at which they develop software (e) None of these
features and increase the resilience of applications once
72. Why the promise of the cloud has created a sense of 78. Which of the following words is most OPPOSITE to the
excitement amongst enterprises? word
(a) As it ensures that business operations are “MASSIVE” as given in the passage?
accessible for a range of employees. (a) Prominent
(b) As the enterprise spending on cloud services is (b) Insignificant
(c) Enlarged
surging.
(d) Filthy
(c) Reduction in the cost of operation it may entail.
(e) Vouch
(d) The secure platform it provides to the data it
stores. Directions (79-85): Read each sentence to find out if there
(e) None of these is any error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the
sentence. The number of that part is the answer if there is
73. How the process of migration stands as an obstacle to no error, the answer is (e).
the cloud technology?
79. It is widely believe (a)/ that the village which is
(a) The expensive cost of providing safety to the data. situated on the (b)/ eastern coast of India will be wiped
(b) The lack of sound technology in Artificial out (c)/ within a decade. (d)/ No error. (e)
Intelligence.
(c) Complexities of the data migrated to the cloud 80. Yesterday I met (a)/ an old friend (b)/ when I am going
(d) It exposes the companies to the risk of losing (c)/ to the market. (d)/ No error.(e)
important information. 81. The criminal was (a)/ sentenced to the (b)/ death and
(e) None of these was (c) hung for his crime (d)/ No error.(e)
74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in 82. FATF strongly urges (a)/ Pakistan to swiftly complete
context of the passage? its action plan (b)/ by October 2019 to stop (c)/ terror
(1) The cloud technology can help in increasing the funding in the country (d)/ No error.(e)
speed at which the software features are 83. Elon musk is determined (a)/ to be success (b)/ in
developed. whatever field (c)/ he chooses. (d)/ No error.(e)
(2) There is no risk associated with the cloud 84. New purchasing power will increasingly (a)/ come
technology. from Asia and Africa where (b)/ the demographics are
(3) Cloud technology is not a very complex process. still favorable (c)/ for high income growth. (d)/ No
(a) Only (2) error (e).
(b) Both (1) and (2)
85. Not only the (a)/ students but also (b)/ the principal
(c) Only (3) were(c)/ laughing at the joke he cracked.(d)/No error
(d) Only (1) (e).
(d) All are correct
Directions (86-90): In each of the following sentences,
75. What is the meaning of the phrase “full steam ahead” ? there is a blank space. Below in each sentence, there are
(a) Interrupting an activity five words out of which one can be used to fill the blank to
(b) Acting cautiously make the sentence grammatically and coherently correct.
(c) Great increase Find the most appropriate word that fit into the blank
(d) Progressing quickly. contextually.
(e) Prudent progression 86. There is nothing to indicate the building's past, _______
the fireplace.
76. Which of the following words is most similar to the
(a) except (b) included (c) belonged
word “ADOPT” as given in the passage?
(d) barred (e) Foster
(a) mold (b) deduce (c) Embrace
(d) Creative (e) Fluster 87. Two circus elephants that performed together _______
when crossing paths 23 years later
77. Which of the following words is most similar to the (a) happy (b) believe (c) angered
word “ENSURE” as given in the passage? (d) rejoiced (e) greater
(a) Confirm
88. The law _______ farmers not only to save and resow
(b) Paced (multiply) seeds, but also to sell them to other farmers,
(c) Redundant no matter what the original source of the seed is.
(d) Weaken (a) coverts (b) implements (c) emits
(e) Reject (d) permits (e) deserts
89. Small farmers must be educated and ______ with proper 93. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
incentive structures, to engage with agriculture. after the rearrangement?
(a) fascinated (a) A (b) B (c) C
(b) encouraged (d) D (e) E
(c) discouraged
94. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
(d) harvested
after the rearrangement?
(e) invited
(a) A (b) B (c) C
90. Raipur despite being _______ between two rivers, the (d) D (e) E
Krishna and the Tungabhadra, it is a dust bowl in May
95. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence
first week.
after the rearrangement?
(a) Surrounded
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(b) Located
(d) D (e) E
(c) Revealed
(d) Settle Directions (96-100): In each the following questions four
(e) None of these. words are highlighted. Choose the option reflecting the
word which is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect.
Directions (91-95): Given sentences are not in their exact
If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e)
position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph
i.e. “all are correct” as your answer choice.
and then answer the questions given below.
A. It can even make exercise more fun and productive. 96. A British court has ruled that British arms sales to
Saudi Arabia wear unlawful on Humanitarian
B. Plus, hearing others laugh, even for no apparent
Grounds.
reason, can often trigger genuine laughter.
(a) ruled (b) sales (c) wear
C. To add simulated laughter into your own life, search (d) Grounds (e) All are correct
for laugh yoga or laugh therapy groups. Or you can
97. I'm tyred of hearing politicians making pious
start simply by laughing at other people’s jokes, even if pronouncements about their devotion to the people
you don’t find them funny. (a) tyred (b) hearing (c) pious
D. A Georgia State University study found that (d) devotion (e) All are correct
incorporating bouts of simulated laughter into an 98. It is likely that weaving prospered and partly
exercise program helped improve older adults’ mental relocated towards areas within easy reach of the
health as well as their aerobic endurance. army contractors.
(a) prospered (b) relocated (c) within
E. Believe it or not, it’s possible to laugh without
(d) contractors (e) All are correct
experiencing a funny event—and simulated laughter
can be just as beneficial as the real thing. 99. This cat and mouse tactic was purposely designed to
provoke, inrage and panic the unemployed.
91. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
(a) tactic (b) purposely (c) inrage
after the rearrangement? (d) panic (e) All are correct
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E 100.Indian democracy’s robustness is underscored by
92. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence high voter turnouts, and large number of candedates
after the rearrangement? in the fray.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) robustness (b) turnouts (c) candedates
(d) D (e) E (d) fray (e) No correction required

Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): 15. (a);
Direction (16-20):
Persons
1. (a); 2. (c); 3. (b); E
4. (c); 5. (b); D
A
Direction (6-10): B
C
G
F
16. (c); 17. (e); 18. (c);
19. (b); 20. (e);
6. (c); 7. (b); 8. (e); Direction (21-23):
9. (a); 10. (d); 21. (d);
11. (c);
Direction (12-15):
12. (b);
22. (c);
13. (e);
14. (b);

23. (b); Direction (28-30):
28. (e); I. E < B (True) II. G > E (True)
29. (a); I. Q > P (True) II. V < R (False)
30. (b); I. T ≤ P (False) II. N < L (True)
Direction (31-35):
31. (d); M
Direction (24-26): 32 (d); Y
33. (b); One–@2I
24. (e); 25. (a); 26. (c); 34. (a); One – 2U&
27. (b); One word formed- lent 35. (e); 8EL
36. (d); {(72+48)−72}

43. (e); Required % = × 100
72
200 2
= % = 66 %
3 3
44. (b); Required difference = (72 + 90) – (78 + 70)

= 162 – 148
= 14
37. (a);
78+72
45. (c); Required % = × 100
60
150
= × 100 = 250%
60
46. (d); 17.28 ÷? = 200 × 3.6 × 0.2

17.28
38. (b); ?=
144
= 0.12
486 7392
47. (a); ?
× 66
= 1008
486 1008
=
39. (e); ? 112
486
?= 9
? = 54
1
100 1
40. (d); 48. (e); 700
× 4200 × 24 = (? )2
1
25 = (? )2
? = 625
90×7×8
49. (c); ? = = 1008
5
72+90+48 0.3125
41. (b); Required average = 3 50. (b); ? = 2.5
= 70 ? = 0.125
60+90 1496 ?
42. (a); Required ratio = 51. (b); = × 220
90+70 17 100
150
= 160= 15: 16 ? = 40

36 10
52. (d); × 180 × =? 62. (e); I. 5x² + 17x + 6 = 0
100 4
? = 162 5x² + 15x + 2x + 6 = 0
5x (x + 3) +2(x + 3) = 0
53. (b); 0.08 × 555 − 16.4 =? x = −3, −
2
? = 44.4 − 16.4 ⇒ ? = 28 5
II. 2y² + 11y + 12 = 0
35
54. (d); × 150 × 16 + 22 =? 2y² + 8y + 3y + 12 = 0
100
? = 840 + 22 = 862 2y (y + 4) + 3 (y + 4) = 0
3
9240 y = −4, − 2
55. (c); = 330
? No relation
? = 28
63. (a); I. 7x² - 19x + 10 = 0
56. (e); Let the sum be Rs 100x 7x² - 14x – 5x + 10 = 0
CI in first year= Rs 20x
7x (x - 2) – 5 (x - 2) = 0
CI in two years= 44% of 100x= Rs 44x 5
CI in 2nd year= 44x-20x= Rs 24x x = 2, 7
ATQ II. 8y² + 2y – 3 = 0
24x-20x=1200 8y² + 6y – 4y – 3 = 0
x=300 2y (4y + 3) – 1 (4y + 3) = 0
Required sum=Rs 30,000 −3 1
y = 4 ,2
57. (b); Speed in upstream=18 km/hr x >y
Speed in downstream= 24 km/hr
Required total distance= (24 + 18) × 7 = 64. (a); I. x 2 − 8x + 15 = 0
294 km ⇒ x 2 − 5x − 3x + 15 = 0
⇒ x(x − 5) − 3(x − 5) = 0
58. (d); Let income of A and B be Rs 5x and Rs 9x ⇒ (x − 3)(x − 5) = 0
respectively ∴ x = 3 or 5
15
Expenditure of A=Rs 8 x II. y 2 − 3y + 2 = 0
Saving of A=Rs 8 x
25 ⇒ y 2 − 2y − y + 2 = 0
⇒ y(y − 2) − 1(y − 2) = 0
Expenditure of B= Rs 4x
⇒ (y − 1)(y − 2) = 0
Saving of B= Rs 5x
∴ y = 1 or 2
ATQ
65 ∴x>y
x = 1950 ⇒ x=240
8
Required difference= Rs 960 65. (c); I. 3x² –7x + 4 = 0
⇒ 3x²– 4x - 3x +4 = 0
59. (c); Let total work be 60 units (LCM of 12 and 7.5) ⇒ (3x – 4) (x -1) = 0
Efficiency of A= 5 units/ day 4
x = 3 or 1
Efficiency of A and B together= 8 units/ day
Efficiency of B= 3 units/ day II. 2y² -9y + 10 = 0
Time taken by B alone to do that work=20 days ⇒ 2y² - 4y - 5y + 10 = 0
Time taken by C alone=23 days ⇒ (2y - 5) (y -2) =0
5
⇒ y = 2 or 2
60. (b); Side of the square=9 cm
Perpendicular side of the triangle= 12 cm y>x
Hypotenuse of the triangle=√81 + 144 = √225 = 66. (d); Let the distance be D km
15 cm ATQ
Perimeter of the triangle= 36 cm D
D D = 36.8
( + )
61. (a); I. x² -13x + 40= 0 2x 8x
x² - 5x – 8x + 40 = 0 x=23
x (x -5) – 8 (x - 5) = 0 67. (a); Ratio of their profit sharing
x = 5, 8 A: B: C = 7 × 3 ∶ 8 × 12 ∶ 5 × 7 = 21 ∶ 96 ∶ 35
II. 2y² - y – 15 = 0 Annual profit = 136800
2y² - 6y + 5y – 15 = 0 Difference b/w A and C’s share of profit
2y (y - 3) + 5 (y - 3) = 0 14
y=3, -5/2 = × 136800
152
x>y = Rs 12,600

68. (a); Let SP of both article = 8x 15x = 24
ATQ, x = 1.6
So, required quantity = 40x + 10x
= 50x
= 80 liters
Profit % =
16x−10x
× 100 = 60% 70. (b); Let age of Shivam and Deepak 4 years ago be ‘2x
10x years’ and ‘3x years’ respectively.
69. (a); Let initial quantity of milk and water in the ATQ,
2x 8
mixture be ‘40x liters’ and ‘10x liters’ = 15
3x+4+5
respectively. 2x 8
= 15
ATQ, 3x+9
(40x× )
1
1
30x = 24x + 72
1
2
=1 6x = 72
10x× +24
2
20x 1 x = 12
= So, present age of Shivam = 2x + 4
5x+24 1
20x = 5x + 24 = 28 years
English Language
71. (c); Refer the last few lines of the 5th paragraph of the 81. (d); Use “hanged” in place of “hung”
passage, “The answer to this is automation fueled
82. (e); There is no error in the sentence.
by robust Machine learning training models and
artificial intelligence……………. provide 83. (b); There is an error in part (b) of the sentence. Use
troubleshooting in real-time.” “to succeed” in place of “to be success” because
after “determined” we use “to infinitive”.
72. (a); Refer the 3rd paragraph of the passage,
“Furthermore, with the lack of data talent an 84. (e); There is no error in the sentence.
ensure business operations are accessible for a
85. (c); Replace 'were' with was'.
range of employees.” When two subjects are joined by 'not only...but
73. (d); Refer to the 2nd line of the 2nd paragraph of the also', the verb must agree with the second subject.
passage, “In today's climate any loss or disruption The correct sentence should be: “Not only the
to data can have a huge business impact.” students but also the principal was laughing at the
joke he cracked.
74. (d); Statement (1) is correct. Refer the 4th paragraph
The same rule applies when two subjects are
of the passage, “The cloud offers great promise for
joined by 'or', the verb must agree with the
developers the use of multiple server locations”
second subject.
75. (c); If something such as a plan or a project goes full For e.g. Krish and his brothers were there.
steam ahead, it progresses quickly. (Second subject is 'plural') Mohan or Sohan is
responsible for this. (Second subject is 'singular')
76. (c); Embrace means accept (a belief, theory, or
change) willingly and enthusiastically hence it is 86. (a); “Except” which means “not including” is the word
similar in meaning to adopt. which should fit the
blank.
77. (a); Ensure means make certain that (something) will
occur or be the case hence confirm is the word 87. (d); “Rejoiced” which means feel or show great joy or
which is most similar in meaning. delight will fit the blank most appropriately.
78. (b); Massive means exceptionally large hence 88. (d); Here, “permits” which means “officially allow
insignificant is the word which is most opposite in (someone) to do something” perfectly fits in the
meaning. given blank making the sentence grammatically
correct and contextually meaningful. Hence,
79. (a); There is an error in part (a) of the sentence in
option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.
place of “believe” we will use “believed”.
Coverts: a thicket in which game can hide.
80. (c); There is an error in part (c) of the sentence. Implements: put (a decision, plan, agreement,
In place of “am” we will use “was” because the etc.) into effect.
events of the sentences are in past.

Emits: produce and discharge (something, meaningfully and grammatically correct. Hence,
especially gas or radiation). option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.
Deserts: what a person deserves with regard to
91. (b); The correct sequence for the given sentences is
reward or (more usually) punishment. EADBC.
89. (b); Here, “encouraged” which means “give support, 92. (a); The correct sequence for the given sentences is
confidence, or hope to (someone)” perfectly fits in EADBC.
the given blank making the sentence
93. (d); The correct sequence for the given sentences is
grammatically correct and contextually
EADBC.
meaningful. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable
answer choice. 94. (e); The correct sequence for the given sentences is
Fascinated: strongly attracted and interested. EADBC.
Discouraged: having lost confidence or 95. (c); The correct sequence for the given sentences is
enthusiasm; disheartened. Harvested: gather (a EADBC.
crop) as a harvest.
96. (c); “Were” should be used in place of “wear”
Invited: make a formal or polite request for
(something) from someone 97. (a); Correct Spelling is Tired
90. (b); ‘Surrounded’ should be followed by ‘By’ or ‘with’, 98. (e); All the given words are correct.
hence it is an incorrect option. Also, option (d) is 99. (c); The correct spelling is “enrage”
grammatically incorrect and option (c) doesn’t
100.(c); From the given highlighted words, ‘Candedates’ is
make a meaningful sentence. So, option (b) is the
misspelled, correct spelling is ‘Candidates’ Hence,
only option which makes the sentence both
option (c) is the correct answer.

Mock SBI PO Prelims 2021
08
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-7): Read the given passage and answer the as one of the core ingredients of living a fulfilling and
following questions. Some words are highlighted to help exciting life. He said: “We keep moving forward, opening
you answer some of the questions. new doors, and doing new things, because we are curious
Curiosity is a trait of many a famous genius including and curiosity keeps leading us down new paths.” In any
Thomas Edison, Albert Einstein and Leonardo da Vinci. In business context, it is important that people keep
an article in LIFE Magazine in 1955 entitled "Old Man's satisfying the thirst of innovating new ways of doing
Advice to Youth: 'Never Lose a Holy Curiosity” Einstein, things so that they can keep ahead of the game. Refreshing
who developed the theory of relativity famously said: “The the way we do things helps us to be more agile and work
important thing is not to stop questioning. Curiosity has its smarter by letting go of irrelevant habits.
own reason for existence. One cannot help but be in awe
1. Why does the author refer to curiosity as the engine of
when he contemplates the mysteries of eternity, of life, of the
innovation?
marvellous structure of reality. It is enough if one tries
merely to comprehend a little of this mystery each day." In (a) It assists us in staying flexible in our thoughts.
an ever-evolving world that is fuelled by innovation, (b) It stimulates people to explore different things.
curiosity could indeed be considered a very relevant (c) It enables people to be naturally eccentric around
business imperative. them.
We can all be grateful for those with a progressive mind (d) It makes a person's life more bold and
and an insatiable thirst for discovery, as we have all adventurous.
benefited from some of their findings! Eleanor Roosevelt (e) None of these
once observed that if a mother could ask a Fairy
2. Why does the author encourage us to be grateful for all
Godmother to endow a child with the most useful gift, that
those who are keen to know?
gift should be curiosity. One of the key components of
(a) Because they aided us in fostering a growth ethic
cultivating a growth mindset is our ability to be curious
and open-minded and to question and challenge the way and a desire to learn.
we think. It helps us to avoid getting rigid in our thinking (b) Because they were interactive individuals who
and leads us into exploring new avenues and possibilities. queried our assumptions.
Curiosity is the engine of innovation and curious people (c) Because some of their research and discoveries
have an ongoing, intrinsic interest in both their inner have helped us all.
experience and the world around them. (d) Because they had an intense thirst for knowledge
Life is never boring for a curious person. Everyone and an open mind.
possesses curiosity to some degree although people will (e) All of these
differ according to the depth and strength of their curiosity
3. Which of the following instances could be deduced
and their willingness to act on it. Curiosity helps your mind
from Albert Einstein's quotation italicized in the first
to be more active instead of passive. The mind is a muscle
and the more exercise it gets the stronger it will become. paragraph?
Various studies have shown that keeping your brain active (a) People should not cease questioning in order to be
and alert can be very helpful as well in later life. Curiosity innovative in their activities.
is the engine of intellectual achievement; those who are (b) Curiosity comes to an end when its inherent
more interested in a topic will learn faster and prime the purpose for being is accomplished.
brain better for learning. Curiosity is associated with high (c) It is adequate to understand a tiny proportion of a
performance in both academic and work settings. There is mystery each and every day.
evidence to suggest that the more we learn, the more we (d) All of these
want to learn. (e) Only (a) and (c)
Curious people rarely find life boring because there is
4. Why does a curious person's life never get monotonous
always something new to explore and discover. You can
as per the information provided in the given passage?
turn any event into something fascinating by sharpening
(a) Because everyone has an unquenchable need to
your observation and giving your attention to something
learn new things.
you would normally miss. Walt Disney embraced curiosity

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(b) Because the depth and power of one's curiosity 10. A facial ________________ of the suspect and the drawing
affect one's thoughts. ___________________ that it was in fact a match.
(c) Because curiosity encourages our thoughts to be (a) mismatch, reveal
less futile. (b) comparison, showed
(d) Because curious people always have something (c) data, suggest
fresh to learn and explore. (d) features, suggest
(e) contrast, reveal
(e) None of these
11. Because of a ________________ in sales, the company
5. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect owner has no choice but to __________ a few workers.
based on the information provided in the given (a) efflux, elevated
passage? (b) decline, promote
(a) Curiosity helps the mind to be active as the more (c) influx, fire
exercise it gets the stronger it will become. (d) surge, dismiss
(b) One of the most important factors in having a full (e) decline, dismiss
and exciting life is curiosity.
12. Decades ago, Western nations faced a fuel
(c) In both academic and professional settings, ________________ when the Arab countries placed a/an
curiosity is linked to excellent performance. ____________ on petroleum trades.
(d) Only (a) and (c) (a) shortage, embargo
(e) None of these (b) shortage, deterrent
6. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word (c) abundance, sanction
(d) abundance, embargo
‘PROGRESSIVE’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(e) deficiency, permit
(a) Exasperate (b) Dwindling (c) Augmenting
(d) Cumulative (e) None of these Directions (13-17): In each sentence few words are given
in bold. They may or may not be arranged in a proper
7. Which of the following words should replace the word sequence. Choose the sequence that make the sentence
‘SATISFYING’, as highlighted in the passage to make grammatically and contextually meaningful. If the sentence
the given sentence grammatically correct and is correct, choose option(e) i.e., no rearrangement is
contextually meaningful. required.
(a) Pleasing
13. There is(A) dipped for optimism in India’s battle(B)
(b) Exploring reason the COVID-19 pandemic as (C) against new
(c) Impeding coronavirus cases have(D) daily to a nine-month low.
(d) Mitigating (a) ADBC (b) BCDA (c) DBCA
(e) No replacement required (d) CDAB (e) No rearrangement is required
Directions (8-12): In each of the questions below, a 14. Although she has an(A) interfere on the matter,
sentence is given with two blanks that indicate that some Brenda won’t(B) internal in the company’s(C)
parts are missing. Identify the correct pair of words that fit opinion issues(D) without being asked.
in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually (a) ADBC (b) BCAD (c) DBCA
correct. (d) CABD (e) No rearrangement is required
8. At the start of the ____________ pandemic, there seemed 15. To(A) avoid being fired from his teaching gig, the(B)
to be positive ______________________ on the environment. incompetent coach decided to(C) resign and leave on
his own(D) accord.
(a) world-wide, outcome
(a) ADBC (b) BCAD (c) DBCA
(b) global, impact
(d) CABD (e) No rearrangement is required
(c) global, nature
(d) regional, impact 16. The(A) asthma of smoking in(B) blessing is a(C)
(e) ongoing, outcome restaurants to people like myself who (D) abolition
from allergies and(E) suffer.
9. The unions ____________the new owners of the workers’ (a) ABDEC (b) BCDAE (c) DCBEA
______________to the company. (d) CADEB (e) No rearrangement is required
(a) assured, loyalty
17. Because we had(A) decided than we needed, we(B)
(b) exempted, allegiance fortunate to sacrifice our Christmas(C) offering by(D)
(c) assured, treason more them to the less(E) gifts.
(d) confirmed, treason (a) ABDEC (b) BDCAE (c) DAECB
(e) exempted, loyalty (d) CADEB (e) No rearrangement is required

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Directions (18-22): There are three sentences given in (a) Only (A)
each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are (b) Both (A) and (C)
grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the (c) Both (C) and (B)
best possible alternative among the five options given (d) Only (B)
below each question. If all the sentences are incorrect, (e) None is correct
choose (e) i.e. ‘None is correct’ as your answer. 22. (A) Israel is growing increasing suspicious of almost
18. (A) Tepid response to reopening of schools as parents every country.
prefer than wait and watch (B) The percentage of rural children who was not
(B) The National Education Policy lays emphasis in enrolled in school doubled during the pandemic
imparting teaching in mother tongue in primary (C) Delhi has recorded the lowest rate of inflation
among the metro city in the country.
classes.
(a) Only (A)
(C) The episode betrays a lack of understanding of the
(b) Both (A) and (C)
recovery process and its underlying principles.
(c) Both (C) and (B)
(a) Only (A) (d) Only (B)
(b) Both (A) and (C) (e) None is correct
(c) Both (C) and (B)
(d) Only (C) Directions (23-27): Rearrange the following six sentences
(e) None is correct (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions
19. (A) Prereaders progressed faster in learning to read given below.
the visual list, whereas novice and veteran readers (a) Since they were part of the local culture, they could not
progressed faster in learning to read the phonetic be separated from religion.
list. (b) The Indians, Greeks, Mesopotamians and Egyptians led
(B) The residents of city X are dismayed to find its the way, but every culture, strangely enough, used the
locality in the news for all the wrong reasons. same animals to represent the same powers.
(C) Farmers refused to end protest in Noida despite of (c) They were stronger, faster, could live in the sea or air,
repeated requests had abilities and senses that the human could not even
(a) Only (A) aspire to.
(b) Both (A) and (C) (d) So there was a willingness to use animals as gods. They
(c) Both (C) and (B) gave added meaning to the divine.
(d) Only (B) (e) In the ancient world, humans were not just close to
(e) None is correct animals but, in most cases, deeply dependent on them.
20. (A) Chennai have a history of implementing innovative 23. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
and inclusionary models of slum clearance. after rearrangement?
(B) In the absence of a policy, the relocations have (a) A (b) C (c) D
(d) B (e) E
been governed by ad hoc government orders.
(C) Much residents sell or rent out their allotments 24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
and return to informal settlements in the city to after rearrangement?
safeguard their painstakingly crafted pathways to (a) E (b) D (c) C
a better life. (d) B (e) A
(a) Only (A) 25. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
(b) Both (A) and (C) after rearrangement?
(c) Both (C) and (B) (a) E (b) B (c) D
(d) Only (B) (d) A (e) C
(e) None is correct
26. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence
21. (A) China seems to be mending its diplomatic fences after rearrangement?
with the Arab countries. (a) B (b) D (c) A
(B) A Canada has become the world’s first patient (d) E (e) C
diagnosed with climate change, linked to breathing 27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
trouble caused by air pollution sentence after rearrangement?
(C) His comforting words helped to sustain me in my (a) E (b) A (c) B
faith during those dark days. (d) C (e) D

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Directions (28-30): In each question three sentences are (C) Her eyes widened and her chest moved up in the
given corresponding to a single idiom/phrasal verb. arm faster as her breath quickened.
Choose the sentence(s) that have the correct usage of the (a) Only (A)
given idiom. (b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
28. Take off (d) only (A) and (B)
(A) I'll take off now, and see you later. (e) All of the above
(B) The plane will take off in twenty minutes
(C) The doctor gave me tablets to take off the pain. 30. On cloud nine
(a) Only (A) (A) I told her how much of her winnings would be
(b) Only (B) going to taxes, she was definitely on cloud nine.
(B) Although we are making good profits there is a
(c) Only (C)
cloud nine, the government may increase taxes.
(d) only (A) and (B)
(C) I've been on cloud nine ever since I landed my
(e) Only (B) and (C)
dream job.
29. Up in the arms (a) Only (A)
(A) The whole village is up in arms about the proposal (b) Only (B)
to build an airport nearby. (c) Only (C)
(B) The children were jumping up in the arms with (d) only (A) and (C)
excitement. (e) All of the above
Direction (31–35): Given below table shows total three (a) 780 (b) 1480 (c) 1180
items (refrigerators, AC’s & ovens) sold by four stores. (d) 1280 (e) 1380
Table also shows percentage of refrigerators sold & total
34. Find the ratio of total number of AC’s sold by C & D
number of AC’s sold by out of total items sold. Read the
together to total AC’s & refrigerators sold by B?
data carefully and answer following questions:
(a) 8 : 9 (b) 9 : 8 (c) 9 : 7
Note- Each store sold only three types of items.
(d) 4 : 3 (e) 6 : 5
Total
% Of Number of 35. Total refrigerators sold by A & C together are what
Stores number of
refrigerators AC’s sold percent more than total ovens sold by C ?
items sold 2 2 1
(a) 63 3 % (b) 60 3 % (c) 33 3 %
A 500 32% 100
2 2
B 800 48% 96 (d) 66 % (e) 69 %
3 3
C 1200 45% 240
Direction (36–40): In each of the following questions two
D 1500 56% 300
equations are given. Solve these equations and give
31. Total ovens sold by C & D together is what percent less answer:
than total number of refrigerators sold by A & D (a) if 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is greater than or equal to 𝑦
together? (b) if 𝑥 > 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is greater than 𝑦
(a) 16% (b) 24% (c) 22% (c) if 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is less than or equal to 𝑦
(d) 26% (e) 18% (d) if 𝑥 < 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is less than 𝑦
32. Find the difference between average number of ovens (e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 or no relation can be established between 𝑥 and
sold by B & D and total number of refrigerators sold by 𝑦
C. 36. I. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 8 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 + 15 = 0
(a) 260 (b) 240 (c) 250
37. I. 𝑥² – 12𝑥 + 32 = 0 II. 𝑦² − 17𝑦 + 72 = 0
(d) 150 (e) 200
38. I. 𝑥² − 12𝑥 + 35 = 0 II. 𝑦² − 11𝑦 + 24 = 0
33. If total refrigerators sold by store X is 25% more than
refrigerators sold by D and total ovens, sold by store X 39. I. 8𝑥² + 10𝑥 − 7 = 0 II. 𝑦² − 6𝑦 + 8 = 0
1
is 372% more than total ovens sold by A, then find total 40. I. 𝑥² + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0 II. 𝑦² + 15𝑦 + 44 = 0
number of refrigerators & ovens sold by store X?

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Directions (41-45): Line chart shows the number of graduate students & postgraduate students in five different collages
(A, B, C, D & E). Study the line chart given below and answer the following questions.
160
120
80
40
0
A B C D E
Graduate Postgraduate
41. Total number of students (graduate + postgraduate) in 46. A man spent 20% of his monthly income on house rent,
collage A in together are what percent more or less 20% of the remaining income on Food. If from the
than total postgraduate students in collage B & collage remaining income, ratio of amount spent on clothing to
E together? saving of a man is 7: 9 and difference between amount
(a) 80% (b) 30% (c) 50% spent on Food and clothing is Rs.1080, then find
(d) 20% (e) 60% income of man for nine months?
42. If ratio of boys to girls in graduate students and (a) Rs. 81000 (b) Rs.70000 (c) Rs.68000
postgraduate students in collage C is 3 : 2 & 5 : 3 (d) Rs.96000 (e) Rs.108000
respectively, then find ratio of total number of boys in 47. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of
graduate students and postgraduate students in stream is 8 : 5 and total time taken by boat to cover ‘D’
collage C together to total number of graduate students
km distance in downstream and upstream together is
in collage B?
32 hours. Find the time taken by boat to cover ‘2D’ km
(a) 7 : 5 (b) 23 : 15 (c) 3 : 2
in still water?
(d) 21 : 13 (e) 4 : 3
(a) 15.5 hours (b) 21.5 hours (c) 19.5 hours
43. Total number of graduates students in collage C & (d) 17.5 hours (e) 16.5 hours
collage E together are what percent of total graduate
students and postgraduate students in collage D? 48. Length of train A is 200 meters and length of train B is
1 2 ‘l’ meters and train A and train B crosses a pole in 8 sec
(a) 233 3 % (b) 266 3 % (c) 250%
and 26 sec respectively, then find the time taken by
(d) 225% (e) 275% train A to cross train B, when both trains are running
44. If total graduate students in collage X are 90 more than in opposite direction if ratio of speed of train A to train
total graduate students in collage E and ratio of boys to B is 5 : 4?
girls in graduate students in collage B & collage X is 11 (a) 18 sec (b) 20 sec (c) 24 sec
: 9 and 3 : 7 respectively, then find number of girls in (d) 12 sec (e) 16 sec
graduate students in collage B & X together?
49. A shopkeeper marked up of article A at 60% above its
(a) 145 (b) 128 (c) 134
cost price and sold it at the discount of 25%. Profit
(d) 166 (e) None of the above.
made by shopkeeper on article A is Rs.475. If the cost
45. The average number of students postgraduate price of article B is 40% more than that of article A and
students in collage B, C & D are how much more or less profit on both articles is same, then find the selling
than graduate students in collage A & E together? price of article B?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (a) Rs.3300 (b) Rs.3600 (c) Rs.3000
(d) 50 (e) 40 (d) Rs.3800 (e) Rs.4200

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50. 16 men and 14 women can complete a piece of work in 58. 2, 15, 64, 195, ?, 393
30 days. If four men joined them, then they could finish (a) 381 (b) 387 (c) 392
the 80% of the same work in 20 days, then find the time (d) 389 (e) 385
taken by 42 women to complete the two times of the
same work? 59. 322, ?, 82, 42, 22, 12
(a) 60 days (b) 50 days (c) 80 days (a) 172 (b) 165 (c) 164
(d) 120 days (e) 100 days (d) 158 (e) 162
Direction (51–55): Read the data carefully and answer the 60. 8, 5, 6, 13, 53, ?
questions. (a) 427 (b) 425 (c) 421
(d) 423 (e) 429
A store sold ‘X’ number of total three different items
(Jackets, Sweaters & Sweatshirts) in two different brands 61. P and Q started a business and investment of Q is 25%
(Adidas & Nike). 40% of total sold items are Jackets and the more than that of P. After six months P doubled his
ratio of total Jackets to total Sweatshirts sold by store is 10: 1
investment and Q withdrew 3 rd of his investment. If at
9. The ratio of total Adidas to Nike Sweaters sold by store
the end of a year total profit obtained by them is Rs.
is 7: 5 and 60% of total Jackets sold by store are Adidas
12200, then find the profit share of P?
brand. There are 40 Nike Sweatshirts sold by store & store
(a) 7200 Rs. (b) 5000 Rs. (c) 7800 Rs.
sold 170 Nike brand items.
(d) 5600 Rs. (e) 8400 Rs.
51. Find difference between total Adidas and Nike items
sold by store? 62. A man invested Rs. P in scheme X at the rate of 20% p.a.
(a) 160 (b) 120 (c) 180 on compound annually for two years. Man invested
(d) 260 (e) 140 total amount received from scheme X in another
scheme Y at the rate of 5% p.a. on simple interest for 2
52. Total Adidas Sweaters sold by store are what percent
years. Find interest received from scheme Y is what
less than total Nike Jackets sold by store?
percent of interest received from scheme X?
(a) 8% (b) 12.5% (c) 12%
(a) 40.72% (b) 36.72% (c) 39.72%
(d) 10% (e) 17.5%
(d) 16.36% (e) 32.72%
53. Find average number of Adidas brand of items sold by
store. 63. Four years ago, age of A is six years more than half of
(a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 110 the age of B at that time. If eight years hence average
(d) 80 (e) 130 age of A & B will be 42 years, then find ratio of age of A
to that of B two years hence will be?
54. Find ratio of total Adidas brand of Sweatshirts sold by (a) 5 : 6 (b) 7 : 12 (c) 5 : 7
store to total Nike brand of all three items sold by (d) 7 : 9 (e) 3 : 4
store?
(a) 17 : 14 (b) 12 : 17 (c) 7 : 17 64. In a vessel, milk and water are in the ratio of 5 : 2
(d) 13 : 17 (e) 14 : 17 respectively. If 42 liter of mixture is taken out from the
vessel and 32 liter of water is added, then new ratio of
55. Total Adidas brand of Sweatshirts are what percent
milk and water becomes 7 : 6. Find initial quantity of
more than total Nike brand Sweaters sold by store?
(a) 160% (b) 180% (c) 200% mixture in vessel?
(d) 140% (e) 120% (a) 84 liters (b) 98 liters (c) 126 liters
(d) 154 liters (e) 140 liters
Direction (56–60): What will come in the place of
question mark (?) in following series? 65. The ratio of the radius of two circles X & Y is 3 : 4
respectively and the sum of circumference of circle X
56. 33, 36, 44, 59, ?, 118
and diameter of circle Y is 188 cm. If the ratio of side of
(a) 85 (b) 83 (c) 81
a square to the sum of the radius of circle X & Y is 8 : 7,
(d) 87 (e) 91
then find the perimeter of the square?
57. 162, 125, 94, 65, ?, 23 (a) 200 cm (b) 208 cm (c) 216 cm
(a) 42 (b) 38 (c) 40 (d) 224 cm (e) 232 cm
(d) 41 (e) 43

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REASONING ABILITY
Direction (66-70): Study the following information and 72. What will be the code for ‘Attempt Analysis’ in the
answer the questions below: given code language?
(a) ct st (b) gt st (c) ct bj
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, G, H and K sit in a linear row and
(d) st ht (e) None of these
face north (but not necessarily in the same order). All the
persons work in a company on different designations viz. 73. The code ‘bj’ stands for which among the following
MD, CMD, CEO, Senior executive, Executive, Manager, words?
Associate Manager and HR. (a) Score (b) Rank (c) Result
Two persons sit between B and the one who is CEO. G is HR (d) Advantage (e) Can’t be determined
and sits third to the right of the one who is CEO. K is one of 74. Which among the following words are coded as ‘ct rt
the immediate neighbours of HR. The one who is Executive nt’ in the given code language?
sits exactly between K and the one who is CEO. D sits third (a) Practice Attempt Result
to the left of the one who is Executive. D sits adjacent to A (b) Attempt Result Advantage
who is not CEO. Same number of persons sit to the left of A (c) Exam Analysis Score
and right of the one who is Manager. C and the one who is (d) Rank Score Attempt
Senior executive are immediate neighbours. Three persons (e) None of these
sit between H and the one who is MD. D is not Associate 75. What is the code for ‘Analysis’ according to the given
Manager. code language?
66. Who among the following is Associate Manager? (a) rt (b) ht (c) nt
(a) B (b) E (c) K (d) st (e) None of these
(d) H (e) None of these Direction (76-78): Study the following information and
67. Who among the following sits to the immediate right of answer the questions below:
G?
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and V sit around a circular table but
(a) A (b) D (c) E
not necessarily in the same order. Three of them face inside
(d) K (e) None of these
while rest three faces outside the centre. They are of
68. How many persons sit between the one who is CMD different ages (in years) viz. 15, 16, 18, 21, 25 and 27 but
and K? not in the same order as given.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five
(d) Two (e) None of these V and R sits immediate left to each other. R’s age is perfect
69. D works on which among the following designation? square number. Difference between the age of R and S is 2
(a) Manager (b) CEO (c) MD years. S sits third to the right of R. P and T are immediate
(d) CMD (e) None of these neighbours. The ages of both P and T are an even number.
The age of Q is a multiple of five and sits second to the left
70. What is the position of A with respect to the one who is to P. The persons whose age are a perfect square are
CEO? immediate neighbours. T and Q faces each other.
(a) Second to the left
(b) Immediate left 76. Who among the following sits second to the right of T?
(c) Immediate right (a) The one who sits immediate right of V
(d) Third to the right (b) The one who sits second to the right of Q
(e) None of these (c) The one whose age is 27 years
(d) V
Direction (71-75): Study the given information carefully (e) None of these
to answer the questions below:
In a certain code language 77. What is the age of R?
‘Entrance Score Attempt’ is coded as ‘gt dt ct’ (a) 16 years (b) 15 years (c) 27 years
‘Score Result Rank’ is coded as ‘dt bj rt’ (d) 25 years (e) None of these
‘Attempt Rank Advantage’ is coded as ‘ct bj nt’ 78. Who among the following is 21 years old?
‘Practice Exam Attempt’ is coded as ‘bt ht ct’
(a) The one who faces R
‘Exam Analysis Score’ is coded as ‘dt st ht’
(b) S
71. Which among the following is the code for ‘Exam’? (c) The one who sits immediate left of R
(a) ht (b) bt (c) ct (d) Either (b) or (c)
(d) st (e) None of these (e) None of these

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Direction (79-80): Study the given series carefully and (a) None follows
answer the questions below: (b) Only conclusion II follows
IE*6B54#5UI6LSH72IY89@G$46AR72 (c) Both conclusion I and II follow
79. Which among the following element is 18th from right (d) All follows
end of the given series? (e) None of these
(a) 6 (b) L (c) S Directions (85-86): Study the information carefully and
(d) I (e) None of these answer the questions given below.
80. How many symbols are there in the given series which
are immediately followed by a number and Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sit around a triangular table.
immediately preceded by a consonant? Three persons sit at each corner of table and rest sit at
(a) One (b) None (c) Two middle of each side of table. All of them face inside and like
(d) Three (e) More than three different colours – Blue, Black, White, Violet, Red and
Green. All the information is not necessarily in the same
81. In the word ‘OPERATION’, if all the consonants are
order. T sits 2nd to the left of the one who likes White, who
replaced with their previous letter and all the vowels
sits opposite to U. R likes red. R is not an immediate
are replaced with their next letter according to
alphabetical series, then how many vowels are there in neighbour of T and the one who likes white. Q sits 2nd to the
the new word formed after the rearrangement? left of P, who sits at one of the corners of the table. The one
(a) One (b) Two (c) Four who likes Violet sits immediate left of the one who likes
(d) Three (e) None of these Black but not sit opposite to P. Q does not like Blue.
Direction (82-84): In each of the questions below are 85. Who among the following sits 3rd to the left of S?
given some statements followed by some conclusions. You (a) The one who likes Violet
have to take the given statements to be true even if they (b) T
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read (c) The one who sits immediate left of U
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given (d) U
conclusions logically follows from the given statements (e) Both (a) and (d)
86. Which of the following pair is correct?
82. Statements: Some rocks are marble. (a) P-White (b) Q-Violet (c) S-White
All marble are stone. (d) T-Blue (e) U-Green
No stone is sand.
Conclusion: I. Some rocks are not sand. Directions (87-91): Study the information carefully and
II. Some marble is sand. answer the questions given below.
(a) If only conclusion I follows. Ten Persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U were born (but
(b) If only conclusion II follows. not necessarily in the same order) on either 9th or 30th of
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. five different months- January, May, August, October and
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. December.
(e) If both conclusion I and II follows.
Three persons were born between M and Q and they born
83. Statements: No animal is bird.
on same date. Two persons were born between M and R,
Only a few bird is rabbit.
who was born in either May or December. The number of
Some rabbit is owl.
persons were born between R and Q is same as the number
Conclusion: I. Some bird is not rabbit.
of persons were born between N and T. T was born in
II. No owl is animal.
(a) If both conclusion I and II follows. October. S was born just after L, who was born after R. P
(b) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows. was born just before the month when O was born. U was
(c) If Only conclusion II follows. born before T. M was born after R. L and S were not born in
(d) If Either conclusion I or II follows. the same month. U is not the eldest person.
(e) If only conclusion I follows. 87. How many persons were born between S and U?
84. Statements: Only red is yellow. (a) Three (b) More than five (c) Two
Only a few white is red. (d) Four (e) None
Conclusion: I. No yellow is white. 88. Who among the following was born on 30th August?
II. Some white is not yellow.
(a) S (b) P (c) Q
III. All red can be white.
(d) M (e) L

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89. The number of persons were born between N and S is 93. Who among the following likes Orange?
same as the number of persons born after ___? (a) B (b) E (c) C
(a) P (b) L (c) S (d) Either (a) or (c) (e) None of these
(d) O (e) None of these
94. Which of the following statement is true?
90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and (a) A lives below F
so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to (b) D likes Grapes
that group? (c) E lives on an even number floor
(a) N (b) L (c) R (d) No one lives below B
(d) O (e) P (e) A and E lives on different floor
91. Who among the following was not born before
October? 95. Who among the following lives in flat 2 on 3rd floor?
(a) U (b) S (c) R (a) D (b) B (c) E
(d) N (e) O (d) F (e) C
92. If 1 is added from each even digit and 2 is subtracted to 96. Who among the following lives in the north-east of the
each odd digit in the number 45925639258, then how one who likes Apricot?
many digits will appear more than twice in the new (a) C (b) D (c) E
number thus formed? (d) B (e) Both (c) and (d)
(a) Only 7 (b) Both 3 and 7 (c) 1, 3 and 7
(d) 1, 3 and 9 (e) None of these 97. Who among the following lives just above the flat of A?
(a) F (b) D (c) E
Directions (93-97): Study the information carefully and
(d) C (e) B
answer the questions given below.
Directions (98-100): In these questions, a relationship
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F live in a three-storey building between different elements is shown in the statements.
such that ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 The statements are followed by two conclusions. Given
then topmost floor is numbered as 3. Each of the floor has answer
2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is (a) if only conclusion I is true.
immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below (b) if only conclusion II is true.
flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way flat-2 of floor-2 (c) if either conclusion I or II is true.
is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately (d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is in west of flat-2.
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Each of them likes different fruits.
98. Statement: X ≤ V ≤ Z < F > A; Z > Q
One floor gap between C and the one who likes Grapes in Conclusion: I. Q > V II. V ≥ Q
the same flat number. A lives on an even number floor in
the north west of C. The one who likes apricot lives below 99. Statement: I < B > C ≥ E ≥ D; C = O > T
A. The one who likes banana lives above C and in the south- Conclusion: I. B > T II. C ≥ D
east of D, who does not like Apple. F likes Apricot. D and A 100. Statement: T>R<O>F>L<E
not like orange. E lives below B. One of the persons like Conclusion: I. O > L II. R > E
coconut.
Solutions
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b): On referring to the last line of the second encourages us to be grateful for all those who are
paragraph, we can infer that curiosity stimulates keen to know because some of their research and
people to explore different things in both their discoveries have helped us all. Hence, option (c) is
inner experience and the world around them. the right answer choice.
Thus, the author refers to curiosity as the engine
3. (e): On reading the italicized quotation thoroughly, we
of innovation. Hence, option (b) is the right
can infer that only (a) and (c) are correct with
answer choice.
reference to the context of the given question.
2. (c): On referring to the starting line of the second While statement (b) is incorrect as curiosity
paragraph, we can infer that the author doesn’t come to an end when its inherent purpose

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for being is accomplished. Hence, option (e) is the 9. (a): The words that appropriately fit into the blanks to
right answer choice. give the sentence a logical sense are: assured,
loyalty.
4. (d): On referring to the starting line of the fourth
Assured: believing that you can do something or
paragraph, we can infer that a curious person's life
succeed at something; confident
never gets monotonous because they always have
Loyalty: faithfulness to commitment, obligation
something fresh to learn and explore. Hence,
Exempted: to say officially that somebody does
not have to do something or pay for something
5. (e): On reading the given thoroughly, we can conclude Allegiance: support for a leader, government,
that all of the given statements are correct based belief, etc.
on the information provided in the given passage. Treason: the criminal act of causing harm to your
Thus, none of the given statements is incorrect. country
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice. Confirmed: fixed in a particular habit or way of life
6. (b): Among the given words, ‘dwindling’ which means 10. (b): The words that appropriately fit into the blanks to
‘diminishing gradually in size, amount, or give the sentence a logical sense are: comparison,
strength’ is the most appropriate antonym of the showed.
highlighted word. Hence, option (b) is the right Mismatch: a combination of things or people that
answer choice. The word ‘PROGRESSIVE’ means do not go well together
happening or developing gradually or in stages. Comparison: an act of comparing
(a) Exasperate means irritating and frustrating Reveal: to make something known that was secret
(someone) intensely. or unknown before
(c) Augmenting means make (something) greater Showed: to let somebody see somebody/
by adding to it; increase. something
(d) Cumulative means increasing or increasing in Data: facts or information
quantity, degree, or force by successive additions. Suggest: to mention a plan or an idea that you
have for somebody to discuss or consider
7. (b): The concerned sentence states that in any
Feature: an important or noticeable part of
business setting, it is critical that individuals
something
continue to seek out innovative methods of doing
Contrast: comparison between two people or
things in order to stay ahead of the competition.
things that shows the differences between them
Thus, we can infer that ‘exploring’ is the most
appropriate option to replace the word 11. (e): The words that appropriately fit into the blanks to
‘satisfying’. Hence, option (b) is the right answer give the sentence a logical sense are: decline,
choice. Satisfying means giving fulfillment or the dismiss.
pleasure associated with this. While exploring Efflux: the flowing out of a substance or particle.
means inquiring into or discussing (a subject) in Elevated: to move somebody/something to a
detail. higher place or more important position
(a) Pleasing means satisfying or appealing. Decline: to become weaker, smaller or less good
(c) Impeding means delaying or preventing Promote: to encourage something; to help
(someone or something) by obstructing them; something to happen or develop
hindering. Influx: large numbers of people or things arriving
(d) Mitigating means lessening the gravity of an suddenly
offence or mistake. Fire: to remove an employee from a job
Surge: a sudden strong swelling
8. (b): The words that appropriately fit into the blanks to
Dismiss: to order an employee to leave his/her job
give the sentence a logical sense are: global,
Decline: to become weaker, smaller or less good
impact.
World-wide: extending or reaching throughout 12. (a): The words that appropriately fit into the blanks to
the world. give the sentence a logical sense are: shortage and
Global: affecting the whole world embargo.
Outcome: the result or effect of an action or an Shortage: a situation where there is not enough of
event something
Impact: an effect or impression Embargo: an official order to stop doing business
Ongoing: continuing to exist now with another country

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Deterrent: something that should stop you doing 22. (e): The correct choice is option (e). None of the given
something sentence is error free. In sentence (A), ‘increasing’
Sanction: an official order that limits business, should be ‘increasingly’ as we need adverb here.
contact, etc. In sentence (B), ‘was’ should be ‘were’. In sentence
Abundance: a very large quantity of something (C), ‘city’ should be ‘cities’ as we need plural noun
Deficiency: the state of not having enough of here.
something; a lack
23. (e): The passage given above discusses the
Permit: to allow somebody to do something or to
importance of ancient animals in human lives in
allow something to happen.
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E),
13. (b): The correct rearrangement for this sentence is: none of the given statements is independent and
BCDA. Thus, the correct sentence will be: “There will therefore be the first statement in the logical
is reason for optimism in India’s battle against the sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
COVID-19 pandemic as daily new coronavirus statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
cases have dipped to a nine-month low.” further continues the sentence describing more
about earlier animal-human relations. Statement
14. (d): The correct rearrangement for this sentence is:
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the
CABD. Thus, the correct sentence will be:
importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
“Although she has an opinion on the matter,
statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
Brenda won’t interfere in the company’s internal
follow (D) which states the features of animals.
issues without being asked”
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as
15. (e): The sentence is meaningful and coherent, thus,
it ends with describing the different cultures using
required no change.
the same animal to relate them with similar
16. (c): The correct rearrangement for this sentence is: powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is
DCBEA. Thus, the correct sentence will be:” The EADCB.
abolition of smoking in restaurants is a blessing to
24. (e): The passage given above discusses the
people like myself who suffer from allergies and
importance of ancient animals in human lives in
asthma.”
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E),
17. (c): The correct rearrangement for this sentence is: none of the given statements is independent and
DAECB. Thus, the correct sentence will be:” will therefore be the first statement in the logical
Because we had more than we needed, we decided sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
to sacrifice our Christmas gifts by offering them to statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
the less fortunate.” further continues the sentence describing more
18. (d): The correct choice is option (d). All sentences are
incorrect except sentence (C). In sentence (A),
‘prefer than’ should be ‘prefer to’. In sentence (B),
‘emphasis in’ should be ‘emphasis on’.
follow (D) which states the features of animals.
19. (a): The correct choice is option (a). All sentences are Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as
incorrect except sentence (A). In sentence (B), ‘its’ it ends with describing the different cultures using
should be replaced with ‘their’. In sentence (C), the same animal to relate them with similar
‘despite of’ should be ‘despite’ as despite is never powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is
followed by ‘of’. EADCB.
20. (d): The correct choice is option (d). All sentences are 25. (c): The passage given above discusses the
incorrect except sentence (B). In sentence (A), importance of ancient animals in human lives in
‘have’ should be replaced ‘has’ and in sentence (C), earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E),
‘Much’ should be replaced ‘many’ as we use ‘much’ none of the given statements is independent and
if the noun is non-countable and use ‘many’ if the will therefore be the first statement in the logical
noun is countable sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
21. (b): The correct choice is option (b). Only sentence (B) statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
has an error where ‘Canada’ should be replaced further continues the sentence describing more
with ‘Canadian’. about earlier animal-human relations. Statement

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importance of animals in spirituality. Further, 27. (c): The passage given above discusses the
statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to importance of ancient animals in human lives in
follow (D) which states the features of animals. earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E),
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as none of the given statements is independent and
it ends with describing the different cultures using will therefore be the first statement in the logical
the same animal to relate them with similar sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is
further continues the sentence describing more
EADCB.
26. (e): The passage given above discusses the (D) supports statement (A) which describes the
importance of ancient animals in human lives in importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
none of the given statements is independent and follow (D) which states the features of animals.
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as
will therefore be the first statement in the logical
it ends with describing the different cultures using
sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
the same animal to relate them with similar
statement (A) will follow statement (E) which powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is
further continues the sentence describing more EADCB.
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the 28. (d): “Take off” means “to leave or start flying”. Thus,
the only sentences that correctly represent the
meaning are: (A) and (B).
follow (D) which states the features of animals. 29. (a): “up in the arm” means “protesting angrily about
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as something”. Thus, the only sentence that correctly
it ends with describing the different cultures using represent the meaning is option (A).
the same animal to relate them with similar 30. (c): “On cloud nine” means “extremely happy”. Thus,
powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is the only sentence that correctly represent the
EADCB. meaning is option (C).
31. (c): Total ovens sold by C & D = 1200 – (240 + 34. (b): Total AC’s sold by C & D together
45 56 = 240 + 300 = 540
1200 × ) + 1500 – (300 + 1500 × ) Total AC’s & refrigerators sold by B
100 100
= 420 + 360 = 780 48
= 800 × 100 + 96 = 480
Total number of refrigerators sold by A & D
32 56 Required ratio = 540 : 480 = 9 : 8
= 500 × 100 + 1500 × 100 = 160 + 840 = 1000
1000−780 35. (d): Total refrigerators sold by A & C
Required percentage = × 100 = 22% 32 45
1000
= 500 × 100 + 1200 × 100
32. (e): Total number of ovens sold by B & D = 160 + 540 = 700
48
= 800 – (96 + 800 × ) + 1500 – (300 + Total ovens sold by C
100
56 45
1500 × 100) = 1200 – (240 + 1200 × 100) = 420
700−420
= 320 + 360 = 680 Required percentage = × 100
420
Total number of refrigerators sold by C 280 2
45 = × 100 = 66 %
= 1200 × 100 = 540 420 3
680 2
Required difference = 540 – = 200 36. (b): I. 𝑥 − 6𝑥 + 8 = 0
2
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 2𝑥 + 8 = 0
33. (e): Total refrigerators sold by store X 𝑥(𝑥 − 4) − 2(𝑥 − 4) = 0
56 125
= 1500 × × = 1050 (𝑥 − 2) (𝑥 − 4) = 0
100 100
Total ovens sold by store X 𝑥 = 2, 4
32
= [500 − (100 + 500 × )] × = 330
11 II. 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 + 15 = 0
100 8 𝑦 2 + 5𝑦 + 3𝑦 + 15 = 0
Required sum = 330 + 1050 = 1380

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𝑦(𝑦 + 5) + 3(𝑦 + 5) = 0 41. (d): Total number of students (graduate +
(𝑦 + 3) (𝑦 + 5) = 0 postgraduate) in collage A = 80 + 120 = 200
𝑦 = − 3, − 5 Total postgraduate students in collage B & collage
𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑥 > 𝑦 E = 150 + 100 = 250
250−200
37. (c): I. 𝑥² – 12𝑥 + 32 = 0 Required percentage = 250
× 100 = 20%
𝑥² − 8𝑥 – 4𝑥 + 32 = 0 42. (b): Total number of boys in graduate students and
𝑥 (𝑥 − 8) – 4 (𝑥 − 8) = 0 postgraduate students in collage C
(𝑥 − 4) (𝑥 – 8) = 0 3 5
= (140 × 5) + (160 × 8) = 84 + 100 = 184
𝑥 = 4, 8
II. 𝑦² – 17𝑦 + 72 = 0 Total number of graduate students in B=120
184
𝑦² – 9𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 72 = 0 Required ratio = = 23 : 15
120
𝑦 (𝑦 – 9) − 8 (𝑦 – 9) = 0
43. (a): Total number of graduates students in collage C &
(𝑦 – 9) (𝑦 − 8) = 0
collage E = 140 + 70 = 210
𝑦 = 9, 8 Total graduate students and postgraduate
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦 students in collage D = 40 + 50 = 90
210 1
38. (e): I. 𝑥² − 12𝑥 + 35 = 0 Required % = 90 × 100 = 233 3 %
𝑥² − 5𝑥 – 7𝑥 + 35 = 0
𝑥 (𝑥 − 5) – 7 (𝑥 − 5) = 0 44. (d): Total graduate students in collage X
(𝑥 − 7) (𝑥 – 5) = 0 = 90 + 70 = 160
𝑥 = 7, 5 Number of girls in graduate students in collage X
7
II. 𝑦² − 11𝑦 + 24 = 0 = 160 × = 112
10
𝑦² – 3𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 24 = 0 Number of girls in graduate students in collage B
9
𝑦 (𝑦 – 3) − 8 (𝑦 – 3) = 0 = 120 × = 54
20
(𝑦 – 8) (𝑦 − 3) = 0 So, required sum = 112 + 54 = 166
𝑦 = 8, 3 45. (c): Average number of students postgraduate
So, no relation can be established between x and y 1
students in collage B, C & D = × (150 + 160 +
3
39. (d): I. 8𝑥² + 10𝑥 − 7 = 0 50) = 120
8𝑥² − 4𝑥 + 14𝑥 − 7 = 0 Graduate students in collage A & E = 80 + 70 = 150
4𝑥 (2𝑥 − 1) + 7 (2𝑥 − 1) = 0 Required difference = 150 – 120 = 30
(2𝑥 − 1) (4𝑥 + 7) = 0
1 −7 46. (a): Let the monthly income of man be Rs.100x.
𝑥 = , 20
2 4 Amount spent on house rent = 100𝑥 × = 20𝑥
100
II. 𝑦² − 6𝑦 + 8 = 0 20
𝑦 2 − 4𝑦 − 2𝑦 + 8 = 0 Amount spent on Food = 100×(100𝑥 − 20𝑥)=16x
𝑦 (𝑦 − 4) − 2 (𝑦 − 4) = 0 Remaining amount = 100𝑥 − 20𝑥 − 16𝑥 = 64𝑥
7
(𝑦 − 4) (𝑦 – 2) = 0 Amount spent on clothing = 64𝑥 × = 28𝑥
16
𝑦 = 4, 2 ATQ, 28𝑥 − 16𝑥 = 1080
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 < 𝑦 𝑥 = 90
40. (a): I. 𝑥² + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0 So, income of man for nine months= 90 × 100 ×
𝑥² + 4𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 12 = 0 9 = 𝑅𝑠. 81000
𝑥 (𝑥 + 4) + 3 (𝑥 + 4) = 0 47. (c): Let the speed of stream be ′5𝑥’ km/h
8
(𝑥 + 3) (𝑥 + 4) = 0 And speed of boat in still water = 5𝑥 × = 8𝑥
5
𝑥 = −3, −4 km/hr
II. 𝑦² + 15𝑦 + 44 = 0 𝐷 𝐷
ATQ, 5𝑥+8𝑥 + 8𝑥−5𝑥 = 32
𝑦 2 + 4𝑦 + 11𝑦 + 44 = 0
16𝐷
𝑦 (𝑦 + 4) + 11 (𝑦 + 4) = 0 = 32
39𝑥
(𝑦 + 4) (𝑦 + 11) = 0 𝐷 = 78𝑥
𝑦 = −11, −4 2× 78𝑥
So, Required time = 8𝑥 = 19.5 hours
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦

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200 330
48. (e): Speed of train A = 8
= 25 m/sec 53. (c): Required average = 3
= 110
4
So, speed of train B = 25 × 5 = 20 m/sec 140
54. (e): Required ratio = = 14 : 17
𝑙 170
ATQ, 20 = 26
140−50
l = 520 meters 55. (b): Required percentage = 50
× 100 = 180%
Now the time in which train A crosses train B
56. (b): Pattern of series –
running in opposite direction
200+520 33 + (22 – 1) = 36
= = 16 sec
(25+20) 36 + (32 – 1) = 44
49. (d): Let the cost price of article A = 100a 44 + (42 – 1) = 59
160 ? = 59 + (52 – 1) = 83
Marked price of article A = 100a × 100 = 160a
83 + (62 – 1) = 118
Selling price of article, A
= 160𝑎 ×
(100−25)
= 120𝑎 57. (a): Pattern of series –
100 Subtraction of consecutive prime number
ATQ – 120𝑎 − 100𝑎 = 475
95 162 – 37 = 125
a= 4 125 – 31 = 94
Since, Selling price = cost price + profit 94 – 29 = 65
So, selling price of article B ? = 65 – 23 = 42
140 95
= 100 × × + 475 = 𝑅𝑠. 3800 42 – 19 = 23
100 4
50. (e): Let the efficiency of a man and a woman be ‘x’ 58. (c): Pattern of series –
units/day and ‘y’ units/day respectively. 2 × 5 + 5 = 15
ATQ,
(16𝑥+14𝑦)×30
=
(20𝑥+14𝑦)×20 15 × 4 + 4 = 64
80
1 64 × 3 + 3 = 195
100
96𝑥 + 84𝑦 = 100𝑥 + 70𝑦 ? = 195 × 2 + 2 = 𝟑𝟗𝟐
𝑥 7
= 392 × 1 + 1 = 393
𝑦 2
Total work= (16×7+14×2)×30=4200 units 59. (e): Pattern of series –
2×4200
Required days = = 100 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 322, ?= 162, 82, 42, 22, 12
42×2
-160 -80 -40 -20 -10
Solutions. (51 – 55): Let total number of items sold by 60. (b): Pattern of series –
store = 100x
40 8 × 0.5 + 1 = 5
Total Jackets sold by store = 100x × 100 = 40𝑥 5×1+1 =6
9
Total Sweatshirts sold by store = 40x × = 36𝑥 6 × 2 + 1 = 13
10
Total Sweaters sold by store = 100x – (40x + 36x) = 24x 13 × 4 + 1 = 53
5 ? = 53 × 8 + 1 = 425
Total Nike Sweaters sold by store = 24x × = 10x
12
Total Nike Jackets sold by store = 40x × 100 = 16𝑥
40 61. (a): Let investment of P = 4x Rs.
125
ATQ – So, investment of Q = 4x × 100 = 5𝑥 Rs.
10x + 16x + 40 = 170 ATQ –
26x = 130 Ratio of profit share of P to Q = (4x × 6 +
x=5 2
4𝑥 × 2 × 6) : (5x × 6 + 5𝑥 × 3 × 6)
Items Adidas Nike Total = 72x : 50x = 36x : 25x
36𝑥
Jackets 120 80 200 Profit of P = 12200 × (36𝑥+25𝑥) = 7200 Rs.
Sweaters 70 50 120
62. (e): Equivalent interest received by man from scheme
Sweatshirts 140 40 180 X at the rate of 20% p.a. for two years = 20 + 20 +
20×20
Total 330 170 500 100
= 44%
So, total interest received by man from scheme X
44
51. (a): Required difference = 330 – 170 = 160 = P × 100 = 0.44𝑃
80−70
52. (b): Required percentage = × 100 = 12.5%
80

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Total amount received by man from scheme X = P 64. (e): Let total mixture in vessel be x liters
+ 0.44P = 1.44P ATQ,
5𝑥 5
Total interest received by man from scheme Y −42× 7
5×2 2𝑥
7
2
7
=6
= 1.44P × = 0.144P −42× +32
7 7
100 5𝑥−210 7
Required percentage =
0.144𝑃
× 100 = 32.72% 2𝑥+140
=6
0.44𝑃
30x – 1260 = 14x + 980
63. (c): Let four years ago age of B = 2a 16x = 2240
2𝑎
So, age of A = + 6 = a + 6 x = 140 liters
2
ATQ – 65. (d): Let radius of circle X & Y be 3r and 4r respectively
(2a + 12) + (a + 18) = 42 × 2 22
2 × 7 × 3𝑟 + 2 × 4𝑟 = 188 cm
3a = 54
a = 18 years r = 7 cm
8
Age of A = (18 + 10) = 28 years Side of square = × (3 × 7 + 4 × 7) = 56 𝑐𝑚
7
Age of B = 2 × 18 + 4 = 40 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 Perimeter of square = 56 × 4 = 224 cm
Required ratio = (28 +2) : (40 + 2) = 5 : 7
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (79-80):
Solutions (66-70):
79. (b): 80. (a): 81. (a):
Solutions (82-84):
82. (a):
66. (b): 67. (c): 68. (a):

69. (d): 70. (b):
Solutions (71-75): 83. (e):
Words Codes
Entrance gt
Exam ht 84. (c):
Analysis st
Score dt
Attempt ct
Practice bt
Result rt
Rank bj Directions (85-86):
Advantage nt
71. (a): 72. (a): 73. (b):

74. (b): 75. (d):
Solutions (76-78):
85. (e):
86. (c):
76. (c): 77. (d): 78. (c):
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Directions (87-91): 92. (b): Original number= 45925639258
New number= 53733717339
Month Date Persons
9 N Directions (93-97):
January
30 U Floor Flat-1 Flat-2
9 R 3 D-Coconut B-Grapes
May
30 L
2 A-Apple E-Banana
9 S
August 1 F-Apricot C-Orange
30 M
9 P
October 93. (c): 94. (c): 95. (b):
30 T
9 O 96. (e): 97. (b):
December
30 Q
Solutions (98-100):
87. (c): 88. (d): 89. (a): 98. (c): 99. (e): 100. (a):
90. (b): 91. (e):

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09
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-6): Read the following passage and answer ten years later that figure increases by half a million or
the given questions. Some words are highlighted to help more, is difficult to accept. But, change is coming, and as the
you answer the questions. technology becomes more prevalent and embedded within
Technology is growing by leaps and bounds. Innovation different sectors of the economy, it could be far reaching
and disruption have become everyday phenomena. A and rapid.
technology driven organization is a company whose The 2017 McKinsey study also assesses degrees of
business model, innovation strategy, and growth are automation and revealed a now well documented statistic.
technology-centric. Advancements in technology not only 60% of occupations have at least 30% of constituent work
help industries to function at a faster pace, but they also activities that can be automated. It further states that
help to minimize human effort and increase the efficiency although half of all jobs have the technical potential to
of production. At the same time, technology is also become automated based on currently available
becoming an increasing factor for increasing technologies, due to social, economic and technical factors,
unemployment. the rate of adoption will be varied and slow. However, over
Technology is ___(I)___ to a variety of avenues of new 200 million global workers will need to switch
scientific discoveries and developments. Some of these occupational categories by 2030 and most likely re-train
developments are artificial intelligence, 3D printing, self- because of role changes.
driven vehicles, and robotics. As a result, technology has
The intervention of technology in any domain has become
started creating employment for skilled professionals.
absolutely inevitable. The wonders of technology are such
Also, considering automation in agriculture and
that it has not just boosted productivity and efficiency, but
manufacturing. This has opened opportunities for people
also the level of safety which would have been
who can drive machines and even for companies which
unachievable by humans alone. Faster communication,
work on automation technology. Along with the growth of
jobs in the automation sector, dependent industries start rapid transactions, global reach are all by-products of
growing. For example, with increasing automation in growth in technology. However, most policymakers are
manufacturing, research and development in supply chain neither keyed in nor in pace, and we could be frittering
and logistics grows. Hence, technology has been a boon away these growth opportunities as a result. We can,
considering the number of jobs it continues to create. Given therefore, conclude by saying that although technology in
the fact that these developments in technology are endless, terms of automation has reduced jobs for unskilled people,
employment opportunities too will see an ever-increasing it has outgrown the growth in employment in other areas.
graph, more so in talent-rich countries such as India and This can be dealt with a shift of people from unskilled to
China. However, the immediate result of technological specially-skilled employees. This change will further
advancements is observed as losses in employment. This is enhance the growth of people, their employability, their
because, with the growth in technology, more and more pay scales, basic income and purchasing power of people,
manual tasks are replaced by machines. This makes more leading the world to development alone.
and more jobs redundant as machines guarantee efficiency
1. Which of the following sentence (s) is/are true
as well as are a cost-effective alternative to human
according to the context of the passage?
employees. This forces people to continuously update
(i) Technology and automation have compressed the
themselves and hence leads to survival of the fittest. This
opportunities for dependent industries.
can be hard on an unskilled workforce which has no access
(ii) Technical advancement is forcing people to
to skill development training or to education.
continuously update their knowledge to sustain
Although some of the studies are close when it comes to in the job market
predictions up to 2020-2021, jumping ahead a decade the (iii) Even though some jobs will become redundant,
numbers become incomprehensibly bigger. To think that technological advancement has the potential to
only 1.8 million jobs will go within the next two years, and create many more employment opportunities.

(a) Only (i) (ii) It was the end of term and the children were
(b) Both (i) and (ii) getting a little eye to eye.
(c) Only (iii) (iii) My sisters don't see eye to eye with me about the
(d) Both (ii) and (iii) arrangements.
(e) All of these (a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
2. Which of the following statement provides an
(c) Only (iii)
appropriate premise of the given passage?
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(a) Technological innovations result in the improved
(e) All of these
lifestyles, and hence consumerism increases and
thereby results in more employment 8. a stone’s throw
opportunities. (i) This article about the current problems of the
(b) Harnessing technological change for the good also nation is right a stone’s throw.
requires vigilance to prevent new technology (ii) We need someone who’s really a stone’s throw
being used to emancipate workforce. to answer questions from the press.
(c) Highly-paid workers are more commonly affected, (iii) The apartment is just a stone's throw from the
but the effects are more severe for less well-paid sea.
workers. (a) Only (i)
(d) Machines have gained an upper hand in its war (b) Both (i) and (iii)
with humans. (c) Only (iii)
(e) None of these (d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All of these
3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with
regards to the context of the passage? 9. Bite the bullet
(i) 60% of occupations have at least 30% of (i) I hate going to the dentist, but I'll just have to bite
constituent work activities that can be automated the bullet.
(ii) The rate of technology adoption of most of the (ii) I decided I had to bite the bullet and take a couple
jobs will be varied and slow of math classes even though I knew they were
(iii) Half a million global workers will need to switch hard.
to occupational categories by 2030. (iii) I don't actually enjoy cleaning, but I bite the bullet
(a) Only (i) and do it so that everything in my house isn't
(b) Both (i) and (ii) covered in a thick layer of dust.
(c) Only (iii) (a) Only (i)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(e) All of these (c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
4. Which of the following is synonym of the word
(e) All of these
DRIVEN highlighted in the passage?
(a) operated (b) mobilized (c) Voluntary Directions (10-14): In the following questions, a sentence
(d) researched (e) developing is divided into four parts. Choose the part of the sentence
which may contain a grammatical error in it. If all the parts
5. Which of the following is synonym of the word
of the sentence are grammatically correct and contextually
FRITTERING highlighted in the passage?
meaningful, choose option (e) i.e., “no error” as your
(a) organize (b) squander (c) influence
answer choice.
(d) accomplish (e) accumulate
10. It is not the (a)/ faculty members (b)/ but the
6. Choose the most suitable word/phrase to fill the given
president (c)/ who decide this issue. (d)/ No error. (e)
blank (I).
(a) enhancing (b) giving birth (c) motivating 11. Either the (a)/ man or his wife (b)/ know the (c)/ truth
(d) growing risks (e) gathering of the matter. (d)/ No error (e)
Directions: (7-9): An idiom has been given in each 12. They don’t seem (a)/ to be able to find (b)/ a solution
question and has been used in the sentences given below. too the problem(c)/ of global warming yet. (d)/ No
Identify the statements where the idiom has been used in error (e)
a contextually and grammatically correct manner.
13. No sooner (a)/ the company had(b)/ launched its new
7. Eye to eye product (c)/ than it went bankrupt.(d)/ No error (e)
(i) I’m glad that we see eye to eye on the project’s 14. I read (a)/ at least 100 books(b)/ by the time (c)/ I was
details twelve. (d)/ No error. (e)

Directions (15-18): Each of the following questions has 19. What should be the FOURTH sentence after
two sentences. Each sentence has a blank. From the rearrangement?
options given below the sentence, pick the word which fits (a) F (b) A (c) B
into both the blanks and mark the letter corresponding to (d) C (e) D
it as your answer.
20. What should be the THIRD sentence after
15. (I) He currently _____________ the position of technical rearrangement?
manager. (a) E (b) C (c) A
(II) I hope the repair _____________ until we get the car (d) B (e) F
to a garage.
(a) had (b) requires (c) holds 21. What should be the LAST sentence after
(d) accepts (e) provides rearrangement?
16. (I) All living organisms have to _____________ to (a) F (b) C (c) B
changes in environmental conditions. (d) A (e) D
(II) The scriptwriter helped him to _____________ his 22. What should be the SECOND sentence after
novel for the screen. rearrangement?
(a) adapt (b) adept (c) adopt (a) F (b) B (c) C
(d) adequate (e) addresses (d) D (e) E
17. (I) She _____________ the conclusion that there was no 23. What should be the FIRST sentence after
more she could do. rearrangement?
(II) The child _____________ down and picked up the
(a) F (b) D (c) E
kitten.
(d) B (e) C
(a) resembled (b) hovered (c) made
(d) recognized (e) reached Directions (24-26): In each of the questions given below
18. (I) New business opportunities will _____________ with four words are given in bold. These words may or may not
advances in technology. be in their correct position. Following each sentence four
(II) The economy has started to _____________ from sequences are provided. Select the sequence of the words
recession. which will make the given sentence contextually
(a) appear (b) emerge (c) disclose meaningful. If the words are correct at their current
(d) eliminate (e) influence position then choose ‘no rearrangement required’ as your
answer.
Directions (19-23): Rearrange the following six sentences
24. Drone vital(A) is playing a technology(B) role in
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form
a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions delivering food and other activities(C) alongside relief
given below. essentials(D).
(a) In Diener’s words, it’s more like “a moving baseline” (a) BADC (b) ADCB (c) CDBA
than one set point over a lifetime. (d) BACD (e) No rearrangement required
(b) Happy people have strong social relationships. In one 25. Individual (A) of speech and expression pedestal
study conducted by Diener, the happiest 10 percent of (B)to media is not on a higher freedom (C) than the
the participants all had strong supportive rights of available (D) citizens.
relationships.
(a) BADC
(c) A strong social network didn’t guarantee happiness,
(b) ADCB
but it was a requirement to be in the happiest group.
(c) No rearrangement required
(d) Diener discussed the set point theory of temperament,
which states that people have ups and downs in (d) BACD
reaction to life events, but that they adapt and return (e) CDBA
to a set point. 26. Schools that provide (A) pick and drop services to
(e) Temperament, which appears to have a genetic students (B) have been asked to ensure (C) that the
component according to several recent studies, also service providers (D) always have their masks on.
affects mood. (a) BADC
(F) There is evidence for this, but studies have shown that (b) ADCB
people who have experienced a major loss, like being
(c) No rearrangement required
fired or losing a spouse, often don’t fully adapt or take
(d) BACD
years to do so.
(e) CDBA

Directions (27-30): Which of the phrase/ word from the (c) who will notify the management
options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence (d) they will notify the management
should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make (e) Not replacement required
the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is
29. The water had been running for five minutes before
correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No correction required” as the
answer. she turned it off.
(a) have been running
27. Not only would you be learning grammar, but you’ll (b) is running
also put it into practice. (c) had run
(a) Not only will you learn (d) was running
(b) Not only you will learnt (e) No replacement required
(c) You will be learning 30. We are looking forward to the movie, have saw the
(d) Not only you will be learning trailer last week.
(e) No replacement required (a) with saw the trailer last week
28. If you notice any faulty office equipment or hazards, (b) having seeing the trailer last week
please report them to your supervisor whom will (c) while seeing the trailer last week
notify the management. (d) having seen the trailer last week
(a) which will notify the management (e) No replacement required
(b) whom would notify the management
Direction (31 – 36): Given below pie chart shows 31. Total unsold order of ice cream by shop E is what
percentage distribution of total orders of ice cream percent more than total unsold order of ice cream by
purchased by five different shops and table shows shop D?
percentage of orders of ice cream sold by these five shops. (a) 30% (b) 50% (c) 40%
Read the data carefully and answer the questions. (d) 20% (e) 60%
Total orders of ice cream purchased by all shops together 32. Out of total order of ice cream sold by shop B, 25% are
= 400 chocolate, 15% are vanilla and rest are strawberry. If
1
33 % & 75% of total order of chocolate and vanilla
3
10%
were sold, then find the total orders of strawberry
15% purchased by B?
(a) 19 (b) 27 (c) 29
20% (d) 23 (e) 21
20%
33. The cost price of each order purchased by shop D is Rs.
200. If shop D sold 25% order at Rs. 175 each and rest
35% at Rs. 250 each. Find the overall profit (approximate)
of shop D?
(a) 25% (b) 5% (c) 15%
(d) 10% (e) 20%
A B C D E
34. Find average number of unsold orders of ice cream for
A, B & E?
Percentage of order of ice (a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 16
Shops cream sold out of total (d) 18 (e) 22
order purchased
35. If total orders of ice cream purchased by shop X is 25%
A 60% more than that of B and total unsold orders of ice
B 75% cream by shop X is equal to difference between total
C 80% unsold orders of ice cream by shop C & D, then find
D 95% total sold orders of ice cream by shop X?
E 90% (a) 76 (b) 78 (c) 72
(d) 70 (e) 64

36. Find the central angle for total orders of ice cream (a) If x=y or no relation can be established
purchased by C? (b) If x>y
(a) 96° (b) 102° (c) 112° (c) If x<y
(d) 108° (e) 126° (d) If x≥y
37. A vessel contain mixture of milk and water in the ratio (e) If x≤y
of 6 : 1 respectively. If 21 liters mixture taken out and 43. I. x2 = 256 II. y2 – 17y + 16 = 0
replaced with 77 liters of milk, then the resultant
mixture becomes twice of the initial mixture. Find the 44. I. x2 + 20x + 100 =0 II. y2 + 13y + 30 = 0
quantity of the initial mixture? 45. I. 4x² - 8x – 5 = 0 II. 2y² - 11y + 14 = 0
(a) 56 liters (b) 42 liters (c) 84 liters
(d) 35 liters (e) 91 liters 46. I. 6x² + 5x + 1 = 0 II. 20y² + 9y + 1 = 0
38. Length and speed of train A is ‘L’ meters and 108 47. I. 2x² - 9x + 9 = 0 II.6y² - 17y + 12 = 0
km/hr. It crosses a platform; whose length is 60% less 48. I. 4𝑥 2 − 17𝑥 + 15 = 0 II. 2𝑦 2 − 17𝑦 + 35 = 0
than the length of train A in 28 sec. If train B crosses
the same platform in 24 sec running at the speed of 90 49. ‘A’ invested Rs. X in a scheme on simple interest at the
km/hr., then find the time taken by train A to cross rate of 20% p.a. for two years and ‘B’ invested Rs. Y in
train B running in same direction? same scheme. If interest got by A is Rs. 480 more than
(a) 172 sec (b) 198 sec (c) 196 sec that of B after two years. If X is 25% more than Y, then
(d) 184 sec (e) 192 sec find value sum of amount invested by A & B?
1 (a) 11400 Rs. (b) 10800 Rs. (c) 10200 Rs.
39. A can complete 45% of a work in 11 4 days and B can (d) 10400 Rs. (e) 11800 Rs.
do 30% of same work in 3 days. If A, B & C can do the
1 50. A shopkeeper marked the price of jeans 25% above the
same work in 6 4 days, then find that C is how much
cost price and allowed two successive discounts of
percent less efficient than A? 10% and 5% respectively. If shopkeeper made a profit
(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 40% of Rs. 89.1, then find at what price shopkeeper sold the
(d) 54% (e) 72% jeans to make a profit of 40%?
40. Six years ago, the ratio of age of Kunal to Sagar was 6 : (a) 1844.4 Rs. (b) 1814.4 Rs. (c) 1860.4 Rs.
5 and four years hence ratio of age of Kunal to Sagar (d) 1890.4 Rs. (e) 1880.4 Rs.
will be 11 : 10. Find the present age of Sagar? 51. A box contains 12 red, 6 green and ‘x’ yellow balls.
(a) 15 years (b) 16 years (c) 14 years Probability of choosing one green ball out of the box is
(d) 10 years (e) 12 years 2
, then find the probability of choosing one ball which
9
41. A and B entered into business my making investment can be either red or yellow?
of Rs. 2400 and 2800 respectively. After six months A 4 5 2
left the business and after four more months C joined (a) (b) (c)
9 9 3
7 8
the business with capital 20% more than A’s (d) 9 (e) 9
investment. If at the end of year sum of profit share of
A and C is Rs. 4200, then find total profit? 52. When digits of the two digits number are reversed,
(a) 10200 Rs. (b) 11200 Rs. (c) 11600 Rs. number obtained is 9 less than twice of the original
(d) 11800 Rs. (e) 10800 Rs. number. Also, the new number obtained is 175% of the
original number. Find the sum of the digits of the
42. A man borrowed Rs. Rs.12000 on compound interest
number?
at the rate of 20% per annum and at the end of first
(a) 13 (b) 10 (c) 9
year man again borrowed Rs. ‘X’ more on compound
(d) 12 (e) 15
interest at the same rate of interest. If at the end of
second year, man paid total amount of Rs.20400, then 53. The time take by a boat in upstream is double than the
find value of ‘X’? time taken by it in downstream, but distance covered
(a) Rs.2400 (b) Rs.2000 (c) Rs.3600 by it in upstream is only 75% of distance covered by it
(d) Rs.2600 (e) Rs.4000 in downstream. Find the ratio of speed of boat in still
Direction (43 – 48): In each question two equations water to speed of current.
numbered (I) and (II) are given. You should solve both the (a) 5 : 11 (b) 11 : 7 (c) 7 : 11
equations and mark appropriate answer. (d) 11 : 3 (e) 11: 5

Direction (54 – 59): Given below table shows number of 58. If difference between total vacant seats in bus D and E
seats available in five different buses and percentage of is 10, then find ratio of booked seats in D to E?
seats booked in these buses out of total available seats. (a) 4 : 3 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 4 : 7
Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
(d) 3 : 5 (e) 3 : 4
Percentage of
Total seats 59. Find average number of booked seats in bus A, B & C?
Buses seats booked, out
available (a) 13 (b) 8 (c) 9
of total available seats
A 20 60% (d) 11 (e) 7
B 24 75% Direction (60 – 65): What approximate value should come
C 15 60% in the place of question mark in following question.
D NA 80%
E NA 62.5% 60. 379.98 + (7.99)2 −? +901.03 = 969.93
(a) 380 (b) 385 (c) 365
Note – Total seats available in any bus = Booked seats +
(d) 345 (e) 375
Vacant seats
(ii) Total seats available in bus D & E together is 65. 61. (89.99% of 7000.02 + (24.01)2 ) ÷? = 1719.01
(ii) Total vacant seats in all five buses are 40. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
54. If total vacant seats in bus C is 60% less than that of in (d) 6 (e) 5
bus E, then find number of vacant seats in D?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 62. 32.01 × 4.99 + ? = 64.03 % of 349. 97
(d) 7 (e) 3 (a) 48 (b) 96 (c) 72
(d) 64 (e) 32
55. Find ratio of total vacant seats in bus B to total booked
seats in bus A? 63.
312.07
+ (12.99)2 = 20.01 % of 909.99
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 ?
(d) 3 : 4 (e) 1 : 1 (a) None of these (b) 48 (c) 6
(d) 12 (e) 24
56. Vacant seats in bus C are what percent less than vacant
seats in bus A? 3
64. 199.99 + 12.01 % of 499.99 – √63.99 = ?2
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 30% (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 14
(d) 25% (e) 36%
(d) 18 (e) 8
57. What percent of seats remained vacant in bus A, C & D,
84.01 4
if ratio of total seats booked in bus B to bus E is 18 : 25? 65. + 26.03 % of 799.97 + √16.03 = (5.99)3
2 2 ?
(a) 30% (b) 33 % (c) 31 % (a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 12
3 3
1
(d) 33 % (e) None of these (d) 14 (e) 4
3
REASONING ABILITY
66. In the given number “729645138” if all the even digits and R work in same department but not work with both P
are added by 1 and all the odd digits are subtracted by and J. M work only with O but not in IT. J work with N. O
1. What is the resultant when third and sixth digits does not work in production.
from the left end are multiplied?
(a) 24 (b) 18 (c) 25 67. Who among the following work with Q except L?
(d) 36 (e) 32 (a) P (b) K (c) N
(d) R (e) Both (b) and (d)
answer the questions given below. 68. How many persons work in HR?
Nine persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are working in three (a) Two (b) One (c) Four
different department – IT, HR and Production but not (d) Three (e) Can’t be determined
necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are 69. In which of the following department R works?
working in the same department but not more than four. L (a) IT (b) HR or IT (c) Production
works with Q but not in IT. P does not work in HR. Both K (d) HR (e) IT or Production

70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and 77. If it is possible to make meaningful word with the 1 st,
so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to 3rd ,9th and 11th letters of the word ‘AGGREGATION’
that group? which would be the third letter of the word from the
(a) P-N (b) J-K (c) L-K left? If more than one such meaningful word can be
(d) Q-R-L (e) M-O
formed give ‘Y’ as the answer. If no such meaningful
71. Which of the following pair/group of persons work in word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer.
IT? (a) Y (b) A (c) I
(a) P-J (b) P-K (c) R-J (d) Z (e) N
(d) N-R (e) K-N
answer the questions given below. answer the questions given below.
Six persons take lecture on different topics i.e., Coffee, Tea, Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
Cold Drink, Juice, Diaper and Baby lotion in different square table in such a way that four persons sit on each of
months of a same year i.e., January, May, June, July, the four corner of the table and other four persons sit on
September and December but not necessarily in the same the middle of each side. The one who sits at the corner of
order. table faces towards the center of table and the one who sits
D takes lecture on Baby lotion in the month which has 30 at the middle side of table faces outside the center of table.
days. E takes lecture on Tea but not just before A. A takes
B sits at one of the middle sides. One person sits between
lecture in the month which has even number of days. Two
persons take lecture between D and the one who take B and E. F sits immediate left of E. Three persons sit
lecture of Juice. There are as many persons take lecture between A and F. H sits second left of C. D is not an
before A same as the number of persons take lecture after immediate neighbour of B.
the one who takes lecture on Coffee. C takes lecture just G and C are not an immediate neighbour to each other.
before of the one who takes lecture on Diaper. B neither
take lecture on Coffee nor juice. F does not take lecture on 78. How many persons sit between A and H when counted
cold drink. E does not take lecture after D. from right of A?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Six
72. Which of the following statement is true? (d) Five (e) Two
(a) C takes lecture before E
(b) F takes lecture on Coffee 79. Who sits immediate left of D?
(c) B takes lecture in January (a) C (b) H (c) B
(d) C does not take lecture on Juice (d) E (e) A
(e) None is true
80. Four of the following are alike in a certain way, find the
73. The number of persons take lecture after C is same as
number of persons take lecture between ___ and ___? one which is different from all?
(a) E and the one who take lecture on Cold drink (a) D (b) F (c) C
(b) C and D (d) G (e) A
(c) The one who take lecture on Baby lotion and F 81. Which of the following pairs face outside the centre?
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) D, F (b) A, B (c) F, E
(e) None of these
(d) H, E (e) G, B
74. Who among the following take lecture in May?
(a) F (b) E (c) B Directions (82-85): In each question below are given
(d) C (e) None of these three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and and II. You have to take the given statements to be true
so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
that group? facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
(a) D (b) B (c) F logically follows from the given statements, disregarding
(d) E (e) C commonly known facts.
76. Who among the following take lecture just before B? Give answer:
(a) The one who take lecture on Baby lotion (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) E (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) D (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Both (a) and (c) (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) None of these (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

82. Only points are draw. Only a few points are pins. Some 90. Which of the following is true?
pins are toys. I. Three persons were between S and R
I. All Pins are Points. II. No toys are Point. II. M was born in the month which has 30 days
83. Only pennies are coins. Some gems are pennis. Only III. D was born just before S
pennies are dollar. (a) Only II (b) Both I and III (c) Only I
I. Some Pennies are not Gems. (d) Both II and III (e) None is true
II. All coins being gems is a possibility. 91. How many persons were born before the one who was
84. All caps are bullet. No pill is cap. No bullet is gun. born just after P?
I. Some caps being gun is a possibility (a) As many persons were born between H and B
II. Some bullets are not pill. (b) Two
85. Only gloves are socks. No gloves are foot. Only gloves (c) As same the number of persons born after R
are stands. (d) Five
I. No socks are foot. II. Some gloves are not foot. (e) None of these
86. In the word ‘HANDCRAFT’, how many pairs of the 92. How many persons were born between Q and D?
letters have the same number of letters between them (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1
in both forward and backward direction in the word as (d) 3 (e) 5
in alphabetical series? 93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
(a) One (b) Three (c) Two
(d) More than three (e) None
that group?
Directions (87-89): Study the information carefully and (a) D (b) Q (c) M
answer the questions given below. (d) P (e) H
A certain number of persons sitting in a straight line facing 94. In the given word “CARBONIZE” if vowel is replaced
towards the north direction. Three persons sit between A with its next letter and consonant is replaced with its
and G. Five persons sit between G and T. As many persons previous letter then how many letters repeated?
sit between A and T as between A and H. T is third from one (a) Two (b) One (c) Three
of the extreme ends. J is second from the left end. D sits (d) More than three (e) None
second to the right of J. D sits 2nd to the left of H. J and T are
not an immediate neighbour to each other. Direction (95-96): Study the following information
87. If X sits fifth to the right of H, then how many persons
sit between X and A? Seven family members are living in a family. A and C are
(a) Two (b) Five (c) Three only sisters of B. H is the father of B. M is married to H. B is
(d) Four (e) Seven married to V. V has no siblings. R is paternal grandfather of
88. What is the total number of persons sitting in a straight B. M has only three children. V is not a son in law of M.
line? 95. How many females are living in the family?
(a) 28 (b) 14 (c) 17 (a) Two (b) Four (c) More than four
(d) 25 (e) 32 (d) Three (e) None of these
89. How many persons sit between J and H?
96. How is M related to R?
(a) Five (b) Three (c) Four
(a) Daughter (b) Mother-in-law
(d) Six (e) None
(c) Daughter in law (d) Mother (e) Wife
carefully and answer the questions given below: Direction (97-100): Study the following information
Eight persons were born in four different months-
February, April, August and October Either 13th or 24th but Six jar A, B, C, D, E and F are filled with different quantity of
not necessarily in the same order. R was born on even date water in litre in integer numbers. The jar filled with 15 litre
in the month which has 31 days. More than three persons of water is just more water to jar E. The Jar with maximum
were born between D and R. The number of persons were quantity has 33 litres of water. Jar D has more water to jar
born before D is same as the number of persons were born B but not more as jar C. Jar F has more water to jar E but
after H. No one was born between R and M. Both S and B not more as jar A, which has less quantity of water to jar D.
were born on same date but before August. Not more than Jar B has more quantity of water than the jar filled with 15
two persons were born between P and Q. litres of water.
S was born before Q but not just before. Volume of water is calculated in litre.
97. How many jars have fewer water to jar A? 99. If box A has 16 litres of water then, what may be the
(a) One (b) Two (c) Four possible quantity of water in jar D?
(d) Three (e) Can’t be determined (a) 25 litres (b) 9 litres (c) 12 litres
(d) 35 litres (e) 16 litres
98. If jar D has twice quantity to Jar F then, what is exact
quantity of water in jar D? 100. If jar B has 10 litres more water to jar F then, what is
(a) 66 litres (b) 22 litres (c) 13 litres the sum of the quantity of water in Jar B and Jar C?
(d) 30 litres (e) 25 litres (a) 57 litres (b) 56 litres (c) 51 litres
(d) 47 litres (e) None of these
Solutions
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (d): For sentence (i), refer to 6th sentence of the second 5. (b): Frittering means to waste money, time, or an
paragraph “For example, with increasing opportunity
automation in manufacturing, research and Squander means waste (something, especially
development in supply chain and logistics grows.” money or time) in a reckless and foolish manner.
Hence statement (i) is incorrect.
6. (b): “giving birth” means to bring something into
For sentence (ii), refer to the last 4th sentence of
existence.
the 2nd paragraph “This makes more and more
jobs redundant as machines guarantee efficiency 7. (b): Eye to eye means If two people see eye to eye, they
as well as are a cost-effective alternative to human agree with each other. Hence only statements (i)
employees. This forces people to continuously and (ii) are grammatically and contextually
update themselves and hence leads to survival of correct.
the fittest.”
8. (c): A stone’s throw means a very short distance.
For sentence (iii), refer to the 8th sentence of the
Hence only statement (iii) is grammatically and
2nd paragraph “Given the fact that these
contextually correct.
developments in technology are endless,
employment opportunities too will see an ever- 9. (e): Bite the bullet means to do or accept something
increasing graph, more so in talent-rich countries unpleasant, often after a period of hesitation.
such as India and China. However, the immediate Since all the three statements provide the
result of technological advancements is observed appropriate context of the given idiom. Option (e)
as losses in employment.” becomes the most suitable answer choice.
Reading thoroughly the 2nd paragraph, we can 10. (d): The error lies in part (d) of the sentence. If the
conclude that only statements (ii) and (iii) are sentence compounds a positive and a negative
correct. subject and one is plural, the other singular, the
2. (b): The most suitable answer is option (b). To validate verb should agree with the positive subject.
this, refer to the 5th sentence of the last paragraph Hence, ‘decide’ should be replaced by ‘decides’.
“We can, therefore, conclude by saying that 11. (c): The error lies in part (c) of the sentence. ‘know’
although technology in terms of automation has should be replaced by ‘knows’. Note that singular
reduced jobs for unskilled people, it has outgrown subjects joined by “or,” “nor,” “either . . . or,” or
the growth in employment in other areas.” “neither. . . nor” take a singular verb.
3. (c): Among the given statements, statement (iii) is 12. (c): The error lies in part (c) of the sentence. Note that
incorrect. ‘To’ is a preposition with several meanings,
Refer to the last sentence of the 3rd paragraph including “toward” and “until.” While ‘Too’ is an
“However, over 200 million global workers will adverb that can mean “excessively” or “also.”
need to switch occupational categories by 2030
and most likely re-train because of role changes.” 13. (b): The error lies in part (b) of the sentence. If hardly,
scarcely, barely and no sooner are in the initial
4. (a): Driven means moved, operated, or controlled by position, the subject and auxiliary are inverted.
something. Thus, the correct phrase should be “No sooner had
Operated means control the functioning of (a the company…”
machine, process, or system).

14. (a): The error lies in part (a) of the sentence. Since the connection of happiness with their social
sentence is in past perfect tense, the correct relationships. This has been further explained in
phrase should be “I had read…” sentence (C). Next should be sentence (E) as it
illustrates another factor (apart from social
15. (c): Holds in the first sentence means to have
relationships) that affects the mood. This can be
something, especially a position or money, or to
understood by taking a hint from “also”
control something: while ‘holds’ in the second
mentioned in sentence (E). Sentence (D) explains
sentence means to cause to stay or continue in the
Diener’s theory on temperament. Thus, sentence
same way as before. All the other words are
(D) should consecutively follow sentence (E).
contextually irrelevant.
Sentence (F) should come next, as it provides the
16. (a): In the first sentence, ‘adapt’ means to become evidence supporting the theory of Diener about
adjusted to new conditions; while in the second temperament. Sentence (A) should be the last
sentence ‘adapt’ means alter (a text) to make it sentence in the rearrangement. Thus the final
suitable for filming, broadcasting, or the stage. All sequence formed is BCEDFA.
the other words are contextually irrelevant.
21. (d): After carefully reading the sentences, we can say
17. (e): In the first sentence, ‘reached’ means to make a that sentence (B) is the first sentence of the
decision, agreement, etc. about something; while paragraph as it introduces its theme which is
in the second sentence ‘reached’ means to stretch about happiness. It has further mentioned a study
out your arm in order to get or touch something. conducted by Diener which mentioned the
All the other words are contextually irrelevant. connection of happiness with their social
Resembled means have a similar appearance to or relationships. This has been further explained in
qualities in common with (someone or
sentence (C). Next should be sentence (E) as it
something); look or seem like.
illustrates another factor (apart from social
Hovered means remain in one place in the air.
Recognized means acknowledge the existence,
validity, or legality of. understood by taking a hint from “also”
mentioned in sentence (E). Sentence (D) explains
18. (b): In the first sentence ‘emerge’ means to become Diener’s theory on temperament. Thus, sentence
known or develop as a result of something; while (D) should consecutively follow sentence (E).
in the second sentence it means to recover from or Sentence (F) should come next, as it provides the
survive a difficult situation. evidence supporting the theory of Diener about
19. (e): After carefully reading the sentences, we can say temperament. Sentence (A) should be the last
that sentence (B) is the first sentence of the sentence in the rearrangement. Thus the final
paragraph as it introduces its theme which is sequence formed is BCEDFA.
about happiness. It has further mentioned a study
conducted by Diener which mentioned the 22. (c): After carefully reading the sentences, we can say
connection of happiness with their social that sentence (B) is the first sentence of the
relationships. This has been further explained in paragraph as it introduces its theme which is
sentence (C). Next should be sentence (E) as it about happiness. It has further mentioned a study
illustrates another factor (apart from social conducted by Diener which mentioned the
relationships) that affects the mood. This can be connection of happiness with their social
understood by taking a hint from “also” relationships. This has been further explained in
mentioned in sentence (E). Sentence (D) explains sentence (C). Next should be sentence (E) as it
Diener’s theory on temperament. Thus, sentence illustrates another factor (apart from social
(D) should consecutively follow sentence (E). relationships) that affects the mood. This can be
Sentence (F) should come next, as it provides the understood by taking a hint from “also”
evidence supporting the theory of Diener about mentioned in sentence (E). Sentence (D) explains
temperament. Sentence (A) should be the last Diener’s theory on temperament. Thus, sentence
sentence in the rearrangement. Thus, the final (D) should consecutively follow sentence (E).
sequence formed is BCEDFA. Sentence (F) should come next, as it provides the
20. (a): After carefully reading the sentences, we can say evidence supporting the theory of Diener about
that sentence (B) is the first sentence of the temperament. Sentence (A) should be the last
paragraph as it introduces its theme which is sentence in the rearrangement. Thus the final
about happiness. It has further mentioned a study sequence formed is BCEDFA.
conducted by Diener which mentioned the

23. (d): After carefully reading the sentences, we can say 26. (c): All the highlighted words in the given sentence are
that sentence (B) is the first sentence of the correctly placed. Hence, no rearrangement is
paragraph as it introduces its theme which is required.
about happiness. It has further mentioned a study
conducted by Diener which mentions the 27. (a): The most suitable phrase to replace the
connection of happiness with their social highlighted incorrect phrase is “not only will you
relationships. This has been further explained in learn”. Note that to add emphasis, we can use not
sentence (C). Next should be sentence (E) as it only at the beginning of a clause. When we do this,
illustrates another factor (apart from social we invert the subject and the verb,
understood by taking a hint from “also” 28. (c): The most suitable phrase to replace the
mentioned in sentence (E). Sentence (D) explains highlighted incorrect phrase is “who will notify
Diener’s theory on temperament. Thus, sentence the management”. In a sentence, who is used as a
(D) should consecutively follow sentence (E). subject while Whom is used as the object of a verb
Sentence (F) should come next, as it provides the or preposition.
evidence supporting the theory of Diener about
temperament. Sentence (A) should be the last 29. (e): The sentence is grammatically and contextually
sentence in the rearrangement. Thus, the final correct. Hence, no replacement is required.
sequence formed is BCEDFA.
30. (d): The correct replacement of the highlighted
24. (a): The correct sequence is BADC. incorrect phrase is “having seen the trailer last
Drone technology(B) is playing a vital(A) role in week”. The second part of the sentence is a
delivering food and other essentials(D) alongside participial phrase, which is a group of words
relief activities(C).
consisting of a participle and the modifier(s)
25. (e): The correct sequence is CDBA. and/or (pro)noun(s) or noun phrase(s) that
Freedom (C) of speech and expression available function as the direct object(s), indirect object(s),
(D) to media is not on a higher pedestal (B) than or complement(s) of the action or state expressed
the rights of individual (A) citizens. in the participle.
31. (b): Total unsold order of ice cream by shop E = 400 = 3325+14250=17575
15 10 (17575−16000)
× 100 × 100 = 6 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 % = × 100 ≈ 10%
16000
Total unsold order of ice cream by shop D = 400
20 5 34. (a): Unsold orders of ice cream for A
× 100 × 100 = 4 10 40
= 400 × × = 16
6−4 100 100
Required percentage = × 100 = 50% Unsold orders of ice cream for B
4
20 25
32. (d): Total orders purchased by B = 400 ×
20
= 80 = 400 × 100 × 100 = 20
100
20 75 Unsold orders of ice cream for E
Total order sold by B = 400 × 100 × 100 = 60 15 10
= 400 × 100 × 100 = 6
Total order of chocolate ice cream purchased by B 16+20+6
25 3
= 60 × 100 × 1 = 45 Required average = 3
=14
Total order of vanilla ice cream purchased by B = 35. (a): Total orders of ice cream purchased by shop
15 100 20 125
60 × 100 × 75 = 12 X = 400 × 100 × 100 = 100
So, total orders of strawberry purchased by B = 80 Total unsold orders of ice cream by shop X = 400
– (45 + 12) = 23 ×
35
×
20
− 400 ×
20
×
5
= 24
100 100 100 100
33. (d): Total cost for shop D So, total sold orders of ice cream by shop X = 100
20
= 400 × 100 × 200 = 16000 𝑅𝑠. – 24 = 76
Total sold by shop D = 95 % of 20% of 400 = 76 35
36. (e): Required central angle = 100 × 360° = 126°
Total selling price = 175 * (25% of 76) + 250
*(75% of 76) = 175*19 + 250*57 37. (a): Let total initial mixture = 7x
ATQ – 43. (a): I. x = ±16
6 1
(6x – 21 × 7+ 77) + (x – 21 × 7 ) = 14x II. y2 – 16y – y + 16 = 0
7x = 56 y (y – 16) −1(𝑦 − 16) = 0
x=8 (y −1) (𝑦 − 16)
So, quantity of the initial mixture= 7x = 56 liters y = 1 & 16
So, no relation can be established
38. (e): ATQ –
𝐿+𝐿×
40 44. (e): I. x2 + 10x + 10x + 100 =0
100
5 = 28 x (x + 10) + 10(x +10) = 0
108×
18
1.4L = 840 (x + 10) (x + 10) = 0
L = 600 meters x = - 10
And, length of platform = 0.4 × 600 = 240 meters II. y2 + 10x + 3y + 30 = 0
Let length of train B = X meters y (y + 10) + 3(y + 10) =0
𝑋+240 5 (y + 10) (y + 3)
= 90 × 18
24 y = −10 − 3
X = 360 meters So, x≤y
600+360 960
Required time = 5 = = 192 sec
(108−90)×
18
5 45. (a): I. 4x² - 8x – 5 = 0
4x² - 10x + 2x – 5 = 0
39. (b): Let total work = 90x unit
45 4 2x (2x – 5) + 1 (2x – 5) = 0
Efficiency of A = 90x × × = 3.6𝑥 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡/𝑑𝑎𝑦 (2x + 1) (2x – 5) = 0
100 45
30 1 1 5
Efficiency of B = 90x × × = 9𝑥 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡/𝑑𝑎𝑦 𝑥 = −2,2
100 3
4
Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 90x × 25 = II. 2y² - 4y – 7y + 14 = 0
14.4𝑥 unit/day 2y (y – 2) -7 (y – 2) = 0
So, efficiency of C = 14.4x – (3.6x + 9x) = 1.8x (2y – 7) (y – 2) = 0
7
units/day 𝑦 = 2,
2
3.6𝑥−1.8𝑥
Required percentage = 3.6𝑥 × 100 = 50% So, no relation can be established between
x & y.
40. (b): Let six years ago age of Kunal and Sagar was 6x
and 5x respectively 46. (c): I. 6x² + 3x + 2x + 1 = 0
ATQ – (3x + 1) (2x + 1) = 0
6𝑥+10 11 1 1
= 𝑥 = − ,−
5𝑥+10 10 2 3
60x + 100 = 55x + 110 II. 20y² + 5y + 4y + 1 = 0
5x = 10 (4y + 1) (5y + 1) = 0
1 1
x = 2 years 𝑦 = −4,−5
So, present age of Sagar = 5𝑥 + 6 = 10 × 2 + 6 = So, y > x
16 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
47. (d): I. 2x² - 9x + 9 = 0
41. (b): Profit ratio of A, B & C respectively = 2400 × 6 ∶
2x² - 6x – 3x + 9 = 0
2800 × 12 ∶ 2400 × 1.2 × 2
(2x-3) (x-3) = 0
= 14400 : 33600 : 5760 3
= 15 : 35 : 6 𝑥 = 2,3
Let total profit = 56x Rs. II. 6y² - 17y + 12 = 0
Given, 15x + 6x = 4200 6y² - 8y – 9y + 12 = 0
x = 200 Rs. (2y-3) (3y-4) = 0
3 4
So, total profit = 56 × 200 = 11200 Rs. 𝑦 = 2,3
42. (d): First year total Interest So, x ≥ y
20
=12000 × 100 = 2400 Rs. 48. (c): I. 4x² – 17x + 15 = 0
For second year total amount 4x² – 12x – 5x + 15 = 0
=(12000 + 2400 + X) 4x (x – 3) –5 (x – 3) = 0
120
(12000 + 2400 + X) × = 20400 (x – 3) (4x – 5) = 0
100 5
X = 2600 Rs. x = 3, 4

II. 2y² – 17y + 35 = 0 53. (e): Let still water speed of boat is x km/hr and speed
2y² – 10y – 7y + 35 = 0 of current y km/hr
2y (y – 5) –7 (y – 5) = 0 ATQ—
(y – 5) (2y – 7) = 0 Let d be the distance covered by boat in
y = 5, 2
7 downstream.
3d
d
So, y > x (x–y)
4
= 2 (x+y)
x 11
49. (b): Given, X = 1.25Y =
y 5
ATQ – x : y = 11 : 5
1.25Y×2×20 Y×2×20
− = 480 40 100
100 100 54. (b): Total vacant seats in bus E = 15 × 100 × 40
= 15
Y = 4800 So, total vacant seats in bus A, B, C & D = 40 – 15 =
X = 1.25 × 4800 25
X = 6000 Rs. Total number of vacant seats in D = 40 – (15 + 20
Required sum = 4800+6000 = 10800 Rs. ×
40
+ 24 ×
25 40
+ 15 × ) = 5
100 100 100
50. (b): Let cost price of Jeans = 100𝑥 Rs. 25
55. (b): Total vacant seats in bus B = 24 × 100 = 6
Marked price of Jeans = 125𝑥 Rs.
60
Selling price of jeans = 125𝑥 ×
90
×
95 Total booked seats in bus A = 20 × = 12
100
100 100
Required ratio = 6 : 12 = 1 : 2
= 106.875𝑥 Rs.
40
ATQ — 56. (d): Vacant seats in bus A = 20 × =8
100
106.875𝑥 – 100𝑥 = 89.1 40
Vacant seats in bus C = 15 × 100 = 6
𝑥 = 12.96 8−6
Cost price of jeans = 1296 Rs. Required percentage = × 100 = 25%
8
For 40% of profit 75 25 8
140
57. (c): Total seats available in bus E = 24 × × × =
100 18 5
Selling price = 1296 × 100 = 1814.4 Rs.
40
So, total seats available in bus D = 65 – 40 = 25
51. (d): ATQ, 40 40 20
6 2 20 × +15× +25×
= Required percentage = 100 100
(20+15+25)
100
× 100
12+6+𝑥 9
18 8+6+5 2
⇒x= =9 = × 100 = 31 %
2 60 3
9+12 21 7
Required probability = = = 58. (b): Let total seats in bus D = x
12+6+9 27 9
Alternate, So, total seats in bus E = (65 – x)
Required Probability = 1 – Probability of choosing ATQ –
3 20
one green ball (65 – x) × 8 − 𝑥 × 100 = 10
=1–
6
=
7 975 – 15x – 8x = 400
27 9 23x = 575
52. (c): Let the unit digit and tens digit of the number be y x = 25
80 5
and x respectively. So, required ratio = 25 × : (65 − 25) ×
100 8
Original number=(10x+y) = 20 : 25 = 4 : 5
ATQ 60 75 60
20 × +24× +15×
1.75(10x+y) =10y+x 59. (a): Required average = 100 100
3
100
x: y=1:2 =
12+18+9
= 13
3
let the unit and tens digits be 2a and 1a
respectively 60. (e): ≈ 380 + 64−? +901 = 970
Now, (21a) +9=2(12a) ≈? = 1345 − 970
a=3 ≈ ?= 375
unit digit=6 90
61. (a): ≈ ( × 7000 + 576) ÷? = 1719
100
and tens digit=3 6876
≈? = 1719 ≈ ? = 4
Sum of both the digits=9
64
62. (d): 160 + ? = 100 × 350 12
64. (b): 200 + 100
× 500 − 4 = ?2
? = 224 − 160
256 = ?2
? = 64
? = 16
312 20
63. (e): ?
+ 169 = 100
× 910 84 26
312 65. (d): + 100 × 800 + 2 = 216
?
= 182 − 169 ?
84
312 = 216 – 210
?
= 13 ?
? = 14
? = 24
REASONING ABILITY
66. (e): 729645138 79. (a):

638754029 80. (c):
8*4=32
81. (d):
Directions (67-71):
Directions (82-85):
Department
82. (d):
IT P J N
HR M O
Production L Q K R
67. (e): 68. (a): 69. (c):
70. (b): 71. (a):
Directions (72-76):
Month Persons Topics 83. (a):
January E Tea
May C Juice
June A Diaper
July F Coffee
September D Baby lotion
December B Cold drink
72. (b): 73. (a): 74. (d):
75. (a): 76. (d): 84. (b):
77. (c):
Directions (78-81): 85. (e):
78. (c):

86. (d): 94. (b): CARBONIZE
BBQAPMJYF
Direction (95-96):
Directions (87-89):
87. (d):
95. (b):
88. (a):
96. (c):
89. (b):
Direction (90-93): Direction (97-100):
Month Date Persons Jar Water in lt.

13 D C 33
February
24 S D
13 P A/B
April
24 B B/A
13 Q
August F 15
24 R
E
13 M
October
24 H 97. (e): 98. (d): 99. (a):
90. (b): 91. (a): 92. (d): 100. (e):
93. (e):

10
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully Direction (8-10): Point R is 5m west of point Q. Point P is
and answer the questions given below: 16m north of point Q. Point R is 25m south of point T. Point
Six boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F of different colors i.e. T is 10m west of point V. Point V is 9 m north of Point J.
Orange, Red, Black, Yellow, Pink and White are placed one
8. Point J is at how much distance and in which direction
above another but not necessarily in same order. Box C is
with respect to point P?
placed just above the orange colored box. One box is placed
(a) 10m, South-east
between A and orange colored box. Three boxes are placed
(b) 5m, South
between A and pink colored box. Two boxes are placed
(c) 5m, East
between D and E. Red colored box is placed just below A.
(d) 10, North-west
There are as many boxes placed above red colored box as
(e) 5m, West
below E. E is not Orange colored box. Black colored box is
placed just above yellow colored box. F is placed above B. 9. If point W is west of point J and north of point R, then
what is the distance between T and W?
1. How many boxes are placed above F?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (a) 15m (b) 9m (c) 12m
(d) 10m (e) 5m
(d) One (e) None of these
2. In which of the following position red colored box is 10. What is the direction of Point V with respect to Point
placed? R?
(a) 2nd from bottom (a) north (b) south-west (c) north-east
(b) 1st from bottom (d) south (e) north-west
(c) 2nd from top Direction (11-15): Study the following information
(d) 1st from top carefully and answer the questions given below:
(e) None of these Nine persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing
3. Which of the following box is Yellow colored? North and some are facing South. P sits 2nd from one of the
(a) A (b) C (c) E extreme ends. Two persons sit between P and R. S sits 3rd
(d) D (e) None of these to the left of R. U sits 2nd to the right of S. Immediate
neighbors of S faces opposite to S. T sits 2nd to the right of
4. Which of the following color is box F has? U. W is an immediate neighbor of T. Persons sitting in an
(a) Orange (b) Pink (c) Red extreme end are facing opposite direction to each other. P
(d) Yellow (e) None of these sits 2nd to the right of T. W and P doesn’t face North. Q sits
5. Four of the following five are alike in certain way 2nd to the left of V. X doesn’t face south.
based from a group, find the one which does not 11. Who among the following person sits 3rd to the right
belong to that group? of U?
(a) F-Yellow (b) E-Orange (c) B-Black (a) P (b) R (c) S
(d) C-Red (e) D-White (d) T (e) None of these
6. In some of the following logic TABLE is coded as 12. How many persons are sitting between P and S?
BUEFM and PRAYS is coded as SQDTZ, following the (a) Two (b) Three (c) Five
same logic MINOR will be coded as (d) Four (e) One
(a) JNQSP (b) JPNSQ (c) PNSJQ
(d) PSNQJ (e) None of the above 13. Who among the following pair of persons are sitting
at extreme end?
7. How many pairs of letters are there in the word (a) S-V (b) V-X (c) P-W
‘PERSUADE’, each of which have as many letters (d) P-X (e) None of these
between then in the word as they have between then
in the English alphabet? 14. How many persons are facing South?
(a) one (b) two (c) three (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) four (e) five (d) Five (e) None of these

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15. Four of the following five are alike in certain way (a) If only conclusion I follows.
based from a group, find the one which does not (b) If only conclusion II follows.
belong to that group? (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(a) V (b) Q (c) W (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) X (e) P (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Direction (16-18): Study the following information 24. Statements: Only a few Chart are Turbine
carefully and answer the questions given below: Only a few Turbine are Pores
There are six ropes i.e. E, F, G, H, I and J of different lengths. Only a few Pores are fan
F is longer than E. I is longer than F. I is shorter than only Conclusions: I. Some fan is chart is a possibility
G. J is longer than F. E is not the shortest rope. The length II. All fan are Turbine
of 2nd longest rope is 54cm and 3rd shortest rope is 30cm. 25. Statements: All Beaches are Deltas
All Deltas are cushions
16. Which of the following is 3rd longest rope?
No Cushions is wave
(a) I (b) J (c) F Conclusions: I. Some Beaches can be wave
(d) E (e) Can’t be determined II. No Deltas is Wave
17. What may be the possible length of J? 26. Statements: Only a few Aces are Club
(a) 28cm (b) 42cm (c) 25cm No club is Jack
(d) 55cm (e) 60cm Only a few Jack are Diamond
18. Which of the following is 2nd shortest rope? Conclusions: I. Some Diamond are Aces
(a) J (b) F (c) E II. Some Aces are Jack
(d) H (e) None of these 27. Statements: Some Apple are Banana. No Banana is
Date
Direction (19-22): Read the information carefully and
Conclusions:
answer the following questions:
I. Some Date are not Apple is a possibility
J is married to C. B and D are the children of C. D is married
II. All Apple can never be Date
to daughter of K, who is married to M. K is mother of R, who
is husband of N. H is the grandson of C and K. L is daughter Directions (28-32): Study the information carefully and
of N. V is only sibling of H. D has only one daughter. answer the question given below.
There are ten persons J, P, Q, R, S, T, G, U, V and X living in a
19. How is D related to K? ten-floor building, such that ground floor is numbered as 1,
(a) Son (b) Wife (c) Son in law just above the floor is numbered as 2 and so on the topmost
(d) Daughter (e) None of these floor is numbered as 10, but not necessary in the same
20. If T is daughter of K, then how is T related to D? order. P lives on the 5th floor. Only three persons live
(a) Wife (b) Son in law (c) Daughter between P and V. T lives immediate above J, who lives on
(d) Husband (e) None of these an odd numbered floor. S lives on one of the floors below
R. Number of persons lives between J and P is same as
21. How is L related to K? number of persons lives between T and R. There is only one
(a) Wife (b) Granddaughter floor in between U and X. W lives on an odd numbered
(c) Daughter (d) Son (e) Grandson floor. R does not live on top floor. S lives on an odd
numbered floor above X but not on seventh floor. V lives
22. Who is father of R?
below the floor on which P lives. U lives above the floor on
(a) M (b) D (c) B
which X lives. Q lives on an even numbered floor above P
(d) J (e) C but not on top floor.
23. Four of the following five are alike in certain way 28. How many persons live between W and S?
according to English dictionary form a group, find the (a) One (b) Four (c) None
one which does not belong to that group? (d) Three (e) More than four
(a) NLQ (b) DBG (c) HFK
(d) TRW (e) XVY 29. Who among the following Lives on topmost floor?
(a) V (b) W (c) T
Direction (24-27): In each of the questions below are (d) S (e) U
given some statements followed by two conclusions. You
30. Four of the following five are alike in certain way
have to take the given statements to be true even if they
based from a group, find the one which does not
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
belong to that group?
(a) Q (b) X (c) U
(d) W (e) T
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31. Who among the following lives immediate above Q? outside the table. A sits at one of the corners of the table. M
(a) J (b) W (c) P is an immediate neighbour of A. Two persons sit between
(d) S (e) V M and B. C sits immediate right of B. N is to the immediate
right of O. O does not sit at any of the corner of the table.
32. Which of the following statement is not true about U?
(a) U lives on 4th floor 33. Who sits second to the right of B?
(b) Two persons live between U and W (a) M (b) A (c) N
(c) V lives immediate below U (d) O (e) C
(d) P lives immediate above U 34. Who is sitting between A and N when counted from
(e) All are true the right of A?
Direction (33-35): Study the following information (a) C (b) B (c) O
carefully and answer the following question. (d) M (e) None of these
Six persons are sitting around a triangular table. Persons 35. Who sits immediate left of N?
who are sitting at corner are facing towards the table and (a) M (b) C (c) O
the persons who are sitting at middle of the table are facing (d) B (e) None of these
36. Four years hence, sum of ages of A and B will be 16 Direction (41-45): Given below is the pie chart which
years more than the sum of present age of B and C. shows the number of persons visiting a national park on
Four years ago, sum of age of A and C is 32 years then different days and table shows the ratio of male to female
find the present age of C? visiting these parks.
(a) 24 years (b) 20 years (c) 12 years Total Person - 400
(d) 16 years (e) 18 years
37. A person purchased two articles at the same price and
on selling the first article he makes a profit of 12%.
Friday,
Selling price of second article is Rs 90 more than the Sunday, 25%
selling price of the first article. Find the cost price of 45%
one article if his overall profit percent is 15%?
(a) Rs 1800 (b) Rs 1500 (c) Rs 2000 Saturda
(d) Rs 2400 (e) None of these y, 30%
38. Ratio of speed of boat in still water to the speed of
current is 10:1. Ratio of time taken by the boat to
cover D km in downstream to the time taken by the Days Male : Female
boat to cover (D-45) km in upstream is 3:2. Then find Friday 2:3
the value of D? Saturday 5:7
(a) 60 km (b) 87 km (c) 99 km Sunday 5:4
(d) 108 km (e) 90 km 41. If on Monday number of males who visited national
park are increased by 20% over males visiting
39. A container contains a mixture of milk and water in
national park on Saturday and Females visiting
which water is 24%. 50% of the mixture is taken out 1
in which water is 78 litre less than the milk. Find the national park on Monday is 33 3 % more than females
remaining quantity of milk in that container? visiting on Friday then, find the total persons visiting
(a) 171 lit (b) 152 lit (c) 133 lit national park on Monday.
(d) 108 lit (e) 114 lit (a) 145 (b) 165 (c) 140
(d) 160 (e) 150
40. The perimeter of a triangle is equal to perimeter of a
rectangle. Length of rectangle is 75% of side of a 42. Total females visiting national park on Sunday and
square and ratio of length to breadth of rectangle is 3 Saturday together are what percent more or less than
total male visiting national park on Friday and Sunday
: 2. If difference between perimeter of square and that
together.
of rectangle is 36 cm, then find perimeter of triangle? 1 2 2
(a) 60 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 72 cm (a) 33 3 % (b) 14 7 % (c) 16 3 %
1 1
(d) 80 cm (e) 96 cm (d) 14 7 % (e) 7 7 %

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43. What is the average of males visiting national park on
Direction (46 – 50): Solve the given quadratic equations
all these days
1 2 2 and mark the correct option based on your answer.
(a) 63 (b) 65 (c) 49
3
1
3
2
3 (a) if x>y
(d) 45 3 (e) 66 3 (b) if x≥y
44. If cost of ticket per male and per female on any day is (c) if x<y
Rs 45 and Rs 40 respectively then total amount (d) if x ≤y
obtained by national park on Friday is how much (e) if x=y or no relation can be established between x and y.
more or less than total amount obtained by national
park on Sunday (in Rs). 46. I. x2 − 14𝑥 + 45 = 0 II. y2 – 18𝑦 + 72 = 0
(a) 2800 (b) 3500 (c) 3000
47. I. x2 + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0 II. y2 +9𝑦 + 20 = 0
(d) 3200 (e) 4200
48. I. 4x2 – 7𝑥 + 3 = 0 II. 7y2− 17y + 6 = 0
45. What is the ratio of males visiting park on Friday to
females visiting park on Saturday 49. I. 2x2 - 19x + 45 =0 II. 2y2 -9y + 4 = 0
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 3 : 7
50. I. x2 = 144 II. (y +12)2 = 0
(d) 4 : 7 (e) 7 : 4
Direction(51-55)- Study the bar-graph given below carefully and answer the questions.
Bar-graph given below shows the number of packets of flour sold by five stores of two types i.e. multigrain and whole-
wheat.
100
80
60
40
20
A B C D E
Multigrain Whole-wheat
51. Total number of packets sold by store C is

54. If another store F sold number of multigrain packets
approximately what percent more or less than
which is average of number of multigrain packets sold
number of packets sold by store E?
by store C, D and E and number of whole-wheat
(a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 12%
packets sold is average of number of whole-wheat
(d) 23% (e) 17%
packets sold by store A and E. If store B sold each
52. What is the ratio of number of packets sold of packet at Rs 240 and store F sold each packet at 20%
multigrain by store A and D together to number of more than that of B then find total price collected by
packets sold of whole-wheat by store A and E store F?
together? (a) Rs 24246 (b) Rs 28246 (c) None of these
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 73 : 58 (c)43 : 41 (d) Rs 36864 (e) Rs 32863
(d)41 : 23 (e) None of these
55. What is the difference of total number of multigrain
53. Multigrain packets sold by store A and B together is packets sold by all store together and number of
what percent more or less than Whole-wheat packets whole-wheat packets sold by all store together?
sold by store C and D together? (a) 48 (b) 54 (c) 42
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 36 (e) 24
(d) None of these (e) 35%

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Directions (56-60): What will come in place of (?) in the 65. A 175 meters long train ‘P’ passed a pole in 8.75 sec.
following number series problems? Train ‘P’ passed an another train ‘Q’ travelling in a
60
direction opposite to ‘P’ in sec. If length of train ‘Q’
56. 200, 197, 185, 163, 130, ? 7
(a) 95 (b) 85 (c) 105 is 225 meter, then in what time train ‘Q’ will pass train
(d) 86 (e) 84 ‘P’ when they both runs in same direction ?
(a) 55 sec (b) 50 sec (c) 45 sec
57. 15, 8, 9, 15, 32, ? (d) 60 sec (e) 35 sec
(a) 98 (b) 66 (c) 80.5
(d) 82.5 (e) 84.5 Directions (66-70): Study the given information carefully
and answer the question that follow.
58. 5, 30, 150, 600, ?
3 pizza shops A, B and C sells veg pizza and non veg pizza.
(a) 1200 (b) 1500 (c) 2400
Respective ratio between number of vegetarian and non-
(d) 1800 (e) 600
vegetarian pizzas sold by pizza shop A was 9 : 7 and that
59. 222, 110, 54, 26, ? sold by pizza shop B was 3 : 4. The no. of pizzas (Veg + non
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 8 veg) sold by pizza shop C was 108 and respective ratio
(d) 6 (e) 14 between number of vegetarian and non-vegetarian pizza
sold by pizza shop C was 7 : 5 Total number of pizza sold
60. 104, ?, 96, 120, 88, 128 by all three pizza shop was 376. Number of veg pizza sold
(a) 112 (b) 96 (c) 116 by pizza shop A was 20% more than the veg pizza sold by
(d) 120 (e) 92 pizza shop B.
61. A invested Rs. X in a scheme. After 6 months, B joined 66. If cost of each veg pizza and each non-veg pizza sold
with Rs. 4000 more than that of A. After an year, ratio by shop B is Rs 200 and Rs 300 respectively then find
of profit of B to the total profit was 3: 7. Find the value the total amount obtained by shop B (in Rs).
of X. (a) 40,000 (b) 36000 (c) 48000
(a) 4000 (b) 8000 (c) 1600 (d) 32000 (e) 44000
(d) 6000 (e) 10000
67. What is the ratio of veg pizza sold by shop A & C
62. 1500 rupees is invested in a scheme A at R% p.a. together to the non-veg pizza sold by shop B & C
simple interest. Another amount (1500 - x) is invested together.
in scheme B at 2R % p.a. simple interest. After 4 years, (a) 27 : 25 (b) 27 : 29 (c) 29 : 27
interest earned from scheme A is 25% less than that (d) 25 : 27 (e) 23 : 25
of scheme B. Find x. 68. What is the average of veg pizza sold by all shops?
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 900 (a) 61 (b) 68 (c) 62
(d) 1000 (e) 1200 (d) 60 (e) 65
63. 40 men can complete a work in 48 days. 64 men 69. Total veg pizzas sold by Shop A and C are what
started for the same work for x days. After x days, 32 percent of total non-veg pizza sold by shop B & C?
men increased, So, the remaining work is completed (a) 113% (b) 108% (c) 109%
in 16(2/3) days. Find x. (d) 112% (e) 116%
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 1
(d) 6 (e) None of these 70. If Veg pizza sold by shop B is increased by 33 % and
3
non-veg pizza sold by shop A is increased by 75% then
64. If perimeter of the base of a cylinder is 66 cm. Then what is the sum of veg pizza sold by B and non-veg
find volume of cylinder if height of cylinder is 0.04 m pizza sold by A after increment.
(a) 1111 cm³ (b) 1386 cm³ (c) 2046 cm³ (a) 178 (b) 186 (c) 198
(d) 1186 cm³ (e) 2002 cm³ (d) 200 (e) 182

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (71-77): Read the following passage carefully Experts have criticised the withdrawal of UK support for
and answer the questions given below. Certain words are onshore wind, as previous analysis has demonstrated it
given in bold to help you locate them while answering already has the capacity to outcompete fossil fuels as a
some of the questions. power source.
Renewable energy is the future, and future is finally here. As renewable energy prices continue to fall, however,
Global investment in renewable energy shot up last year, Professor Moslener said government subsidies are likely to
far outstripping investment in fossil fuels, according to become less and less important.
a UN report. As the price of clean energy technology
plummets, it has become an increasingly attractive 71. Which of the following facts are correct as per the
prospect for world governments. China was by far the given passage?
world’s largest investor in renewable energy in 2017, (I) The decrease in the cost of renewable energy
accounting for nearly half of the new infrastructure resulted in its wide use.
commissioned. This was mainly a result of its massive (II) China massively supported solar power and
support for solar power, which globally attracted nearly a became largest investor in renewable energy.
fifth more investment than in the previous year. Other (III) Egypt is conducting feasibility studies for
countries including Australia, Sweden and Mexico more building largest solar power plant.
than doubled the amount of money they pumped into clean (a) Only (I)
energy projects. "Yet again, this was a record year for new (b) Only (II)
renewable power capacity being financed,” Francoise (c) Only (III)
d’Estais from UN Environment’s energy and climate branch (d) Both (II) and (III)
told The Independent. “We had a record 157 gigawatts (e) All (I),(II)and(III)
commissioned last year, far outstripping the fossil fuel
generating capacity, which we estimated as 70 gigawatts.” 72. What did the author mean by the line “The electricity
sector remains the brightest spot for renewables with
In just over a decade, concerted investment has increased
the exponential growth of solar photovoltaics and wind
the proportion of world electricity generated by wind,
in recent years, and building on the significant
solar and other renewable sources from around 5 per cent
contribution of hydropower generation.”?
to 12 per cent. “The electricity sector remains the brightest
(I) The growth of renewable energy in electricity
spot for renewables with the exponential growth of solar
sector is not that impressive.
photovoltaics and wind in recent years, and building on the
significant contribution of hydropower generation.” But, (II) Electric sector has performed the best for
electricity accounts for only a fifth of global energy renewables.
consumption, and the role of renewables in the (III) Hydropower generation has a significant
transportation and heating sectors remains ____(A)____ to contribution in the electricity sector.
the energy transition. The global replacement of (a) Only (I)
traditional fuels with renewables led to around 1.8 (b) Only (II)
gigatonnes of carbon dioxide emissions being avoided last (c) None
year – the equivalent of removing the entire US transport (d) Both (II) and (III)
system. According to the Wind and Solar Atlas, there are (e) All (I) (II) and (III)
opportunities and potential for Wind and Solar plants in
73. Which of the following is/are the positive effect(s) of
the East and West Nile areas that will produce around
renewable energy?
31,150 MW from wind and 52,300 MW from solar. Egypt is
(I) Overall increase in the global temperature.
also considering financing options to conduct feasibility
(II) Carbon dioxide emissions were reduced to a
studies for building the world largest solar power plant for
both electricity generation and water desalination. considerable amount.
(III) Nile being converted into a biodiversity hotspot.
The UK has been performing well in clean energy (a) Only (I)
generation, with recent figures showing wind and solar (b) Only (II)
sources had overtaken nuclear as suppliers of electricity. (c) Only (III)
However, despite these positive trends, 2017 saw a big (d) Both (II) and (III)
drop of 65 per cent in British renewables investment. (e) All (I)(II) and (III)

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74. Why government subsidies are likely to become less 78. (a) Traded (b) Invaded (c) Segregated
important? (d) Daunted (e) Halted
(a) As China is increasing the investment in this
79. (a) Affording (b) Wiping (c) Wanting
sector.
(d) Vacating (e) Artificial
(b) As the price of clean energy technology
continues to plummet. 80. (a) Reprimanded (b) Embedded (c) Spiraled
(c) As Fossil fuels is the better alternative (d) Mounted (e) Disregarded
(d) As there are opportunities and potential for
81. (a) provided (b) Infiltration (c) Dismantle
Wind and Solar plants in the East and West Nile
areas (d) Downturn (e) Diversification
(e) None of these 82. (a) Commotion (b) impair (c) significant
75. Which of the following words will come in place of (A) (d) Proliferation (e) renovate
as given in the passage? 83. (a) Infirmity (b) Credibility (c) Stabilize
(a) Elevate (b) Existence (c) Erratic (d) Burdened (e) Rationalize
(d) Diabolic (e) Critical
Direction (84-88): In the questions given below, there is
76. Which of the following word is most similar in a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The part given
meaning to “accounting for” as given in the passage? in bold, may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose
(a) contradict (b) contribute (c) Devious the best alternative among the four given which can
(d) Retrieve (e) Categorical replace the part in bold to make the sentence
77. Which of the following word is most similar in grammatically correct. If the part given in bold is already
meaning to “plummets” as given in the passage? correct and does not require any replacement, choose
(a) Intensify (b) Escalate (c) Callous option (e), i.e. “No replacement required” as your answer.
(d) Slump (e) reminiscent 84. The plastic ban introduced by the municipality has
Direction (78-83): Given below is a paragraph consisting been a total failure as there has been no reducing in
of blanks against each number. the usage of polybags.
Identify the correct option among the five alternatives that (a) is no reduce
perfectly fits into the given blank against the respective (b) has been no reduction
number to make the paragraph contextually meaningful (c) have been no reduced
and grammatically correct. (d) is not any reduced
On October 29, 1929, Black Tuesday hit Wall Street as
investors ___ (8) ____some 16 million shares on the New 85. As per the directives, the retail prices of both petrol
York Stock Exchange in a single day. Billions of dollars and diesel is revising on a daily basis.
were lost, ____ (9) ______out thousands of investors. In the (a) have been revising
aftermath of Black Tuesday, America and the rest of the (b) are revising
industrialized world ___ (10) ______downward into the (c) will be revised
Great Depression (1929-39), the deepest and longest- (d) is revise
lasting economic ______ (11) _____in the history of the (e) No correction required
Western industrialized world up to that time. During the
1920s, the U.S. stock market underwent rapid expansion, 86. We got everything ready for all of them long before
reaching its peak in August 1929, after a period of wild they arrived.
speculation. By then, production had already declined and (a) We had got
unemployment had risen, leaving stocks in great excess of (b) We have got
their real value. Among the other causes of the eventual (c) We have been got
market collapse were low wages, the _______ (12) _____ of (d) We are getting
debt, a struggling agricultural sector and an excess of large (e) No correction required
bank loans that could not be liquidated. Stock prices began 87. We still have some farm equipment that hasn't been
to decline in September and early October 1929, and on used since my grandfather died.
October 18 the fall began. Panic set in, and on October 24, (a) Hasn’t been using
Black Thursday, a record 12,894,650 shares were traded. (b) was using
Investment companies and leading bankers attempted to
(c) are using
______ (13) _____ the market by buying up great blocks of
(d) should not have been use
stock, producing a moderate rally on Friday.
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88. Every officer and every resident of this village is 94. Column (1)
determined to do their best to get better ranking in (A) The rumors of petrol shortage
sanitation index. (B) The body of camera makes it
(a) to do there best (C) There were no surprises
(b) to do its best Column (2)
(c) to do his best (D) Highly resistant for outdoor use.
(d) to do ones best (E) Turned out to be false.
(e) No replacement required (F) The key stakeholders in the economy
(a) C-F and A-D (b) B-F (c) A-F
Directions (89-93): In each of the questions given below
(d) C-E (e) B-D and A-E
a sentence is given with a blank. The sentence is then
followed by five alternatives out of which one will fit the 95. Column (1)
blank. Choose the alternative that will fit the blank most (A) As the rain water began to collect in pools on the
appropriately and make the sentence grammatically and highway
contextually correct. (B) For years, Argentina would dominate in World
Cup qualifying matches
89. Administration has taken positive steps to
(C) Many have accused him of being a quiet
______________ the education system.
misogynist
(a) Increase (b) Devised (c) renovated
Column (2)
(d) revamp (e) dispel
(D) One of the European countries during the late
90. Health and education sectors are one of the most stages of the tournament
________ sectors in the global market. (E) Recently unearthed letters argue against this
(a) benefit (b) necessity (c) profit belief
(d) lucrative (e) Importance (F) It began to hamper the flow of traffic
(a) C-F (b) B-F (c) A-F
91. She is an aware citizen who has always ___________ to
(d) C-E (e) None of these
contribute to the progress of the country.
(a) wished (b) admiring (c) prepare Directions (96-100): Read each sentence to find out
(d) motivating (e) stimulate whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
92. In the beginning I looked ________ and could not find
number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the
quite the car I dreamed of.
answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
(a) after (b) around (c) above
(d) out (e) down 96. People have the freedom (a)/ of speech but at the (b)/
same time each of them (c)/ have to remember their
93. The RBI has played conservative in ____________ a rate
fundamental duties (d)/ No error (e)
cut of just 25 basis points.
(a) introduce (b) proposed (c) improving 97. The number of students (a)/ competing in the event
(d) decrease (e) announcing (b)/ has been fallen (c)/ because of the prize money.
(d)/ No error. (e)
Directions (94-95): In the following questions two
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases 98. While he used to walk (a)/ along the road, (b)/ a wild
each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and and ferocious dog (c)/ knocked him down. (d)/ No
in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and error. (e)
F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not
99. Anaya is even willing (a)/ to make Mexico (b)/ one of
connect with another sentence/phrase from the second
the first countries to (c)/ introduces a universal basic
column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
income. (d) / No error. (e)
sentence. Each question has five options which display the
sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined 100. There were no surprises (a)/ in the second bimonthly
to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. monetary policy (b)/ announcement by the (c)/
Choose the pair(s) which make(s) a grammatically Reserve Bank of India. (d)/ No error. (e)
meaningful sentence.

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Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): 10. (c);

Boxes Colors
E Pink
C White
F Orange
D Black
A Yellow
B Red
1. (a); 2. (b); 3. (a);
4. (a); 5. (d);
6. (a);
Direction (11-15):
11. (e); 12. (c); 13. (b);
7. (e); 14. (c); 15. (d);
Direction (16-18):
Direction (8-10):
8. (c);
16. (b); 17. (b); 18. (c);
Direction (19-22):
19. (c);
9. (b);
20. (a);

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21. (b); 26. (d);
27. (e);
22. (a);
Direction (28-32):
Floors Persons
10 T
9 J
8 Q
7 W
6 R
23. (e); The logic for the above question is discussed
5 P
below.
4 U
3 S
2 X
Direction (24-27): 1 V
24. (a);
28. (d); 29. (c); 30. (d);
31. (a); 32. (c);
Direction (33-35):
25. (b);
33. (b); 34. (d); 35. (a);
36. (d); Let the present age of A, B and C be x, y and z z=16 years
years respectively
37. (b); Let the profit earned on second article be x%
ATQ
Using allegation method,
(𝑥 + 4) + (𝑦 + 4) = (𝑦 + 𝑧) + 16
12 x
𝑥−𝑧 = 8 … (i)
15
And (𝑥 − 4) + (𝑧 − 4) = 32
(x-15) 3
𝑥 + 𝑧 = 40 … (ii)
1 : 1--------------(ratio of cost price
From (i) and (ii)
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⇒ x=18% 45. (d); Required ratio = 40 : 70 = 4 : 7
ATQ
46. (e); I . x2 − 14𝑥 + 45 = 0
6%= Rs 90
x2 − 9𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 45 = 0
So, cost price= 100%= Rs 1500
x(x −9) − 5(𝑥 − 9) = 0
38. (c); Let the speed of boat in still water and the speed x = 9, 5
of current be 10x km/hr and x km/hr II. y2 – 12𝑦 − 6𝑦 + 72 = 0
respectively y(y – 12) − 6(𝑦 − 12) = 0
ATQ y = 12, 6
𝐷
( ) 3 no relation can be established between x and y.
11𝑥
𝐷−45 =2
9𝑥 47. (b); I. x2 + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0
𝐷 = 99 𝑘𝑚 x2 +4𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 12 = 0
39. (e); Let the quantity of mixture be 100x lit x(x + 4) + 3(𝑥 + 4) = 0
Quantity of milk= 76x lit (x +4) (x +3) = 0
And quantity of water= 24x lit x = −3, −4
Quantity of water taken= 12x lit II. y2 + 5𝑦 + 4𝑦 + 20 = 0
Quantity of milk taken= 38x lit y(y + 5) + 4(𝑦 + 5) = 0
ATQ y = -5, -4
26x = 78 So , x≥y
x = 3 lit
required quantity of milk=114 lit 48. (e); I. 4x2 – 4𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 3 = 0
4x(x −1) − 3 (𝑥 − 1) = 0
40. (a); Let side of square be ‘4x’ cm x = 1, 3/4
3
So, length of rectangle = 4x × 4 = 3𝑥 𝑐𝑚 II. 7y2− 17y + 6 = 0
And, breadth of rectangle = 2x cm 7y2− 14y- 3y + 6 = 0
ATQ – 7y (y – 2) − 3 (𝑦 − 2) = 0
4× 4𝑥 − 2(3𝑥 + 2𝑥) = 36 y = 2 , 3/7
6x = 36 So, no relation can be established between x
x = 6 cm and y.
Perimeter of triangle = perimeter of rectangle 49. (a); I. 2x2 - 10x -9x + 45 = 0
= 2(18 + 12) = 60 cm 2x(x - 5) - 9(x - 5) = 0
41. (c); Total Males visiting national park on Monday x = 5, 9/2
=
30
× 400 × ×
5 120 5 6
= 120 × × = 60 II. 2y2 - 8y - y + 4 = 0
100 12 100 12 5 2y(y -4) -1(y -4) = 0
Total females visiting national park on Monday
25 3 4 y =4,1/2
= 100 × 400 × 5 × 3 = 80 So, x >y
Required sum = 80 + 60 = 140
50. (b); I. x2= 144
42. (e); Total female visiting national park on Sunday x = −12, +12
30 7 45
and Saturday together = 100 × 400 × 12 + 100 × II. y = −12
4 So, x≥y
400 × 9
(84+72)−(72+80)
= 70+ 80 = 150 51. (a); Required % = (72+84)
× 100 = 3%
Total male visiting national park on Friday and
92+54
Sunday together 52. (b); Required ratio = 44+72 = 73 : 58
25 2 45 5
= 100 × 400 × 5 + 100 × 400 × 9
(92+64)−(80+40)
= 40 + 100= 140 53. (c); Required % = (80+40)
× 100 = 30%
150−140 1
Required percentage = 140 × 100 = 7 7 %
54. (d); No. of packets sold by store F
40+50+100 190 1 1 1
43. (a); Required average = = = 63 = [ 72 + 54 + 84] + [ 44 + 72]
3 3 3 3 2
44. (b); Total amount obtained on Friday = 40 × 45 + 60 = 70 + 58 = 128

120
× 40 Required price = 128 × 240 × 100 = Rs 36864
= 1800 + 2400 = Rs 4200
Total amount obtained on Sunday 55. (c); Required difference = (92 + 64 + 72 + 54 +
= 100 × 45 + 40 × 80 = 4500 + 3200 = 7700 84) − (44 + 88 + 80 + 40 + 72)
Required difference = 7700 – 4200 = Rs 3500 = 366 – 324 = 42

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66 21
56. (b); 64. (b); Radius of base of cylinder = 2×22 × 7 = cm
2
22 21 21
Volume of cylinder = × × ×4
7 2 2
= 1386 cm³
65. (d); Let speed of train P = SP
57. (d); The pattern is – 15 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 8 ATQ—
175
8×1+1=9 SP = 8.75 = 20 m⁄s
9 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 15 Let speed of train Q = Sq
15 × 2 + 2 = 32 ATQ—
32 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 82.5 (175+225)×7
20 + Sq =
60
58. (d); The pattern is - ×6, ×5, ×4, ×3, ×2,… Sq =
400×7
−20
∴ ? = 600 × 3 = 1800 60
80
Sq = m⁄s
3
59. (b); The pattern is: × 0.5 – 1, × 0.5 – 1, × 0.5 – 1, × 0.5 Relative speed if train P and Q running in same
– 1… direction
? = 26 × 0.5 – 1 = 12 80 20
= 3 – 20 = 3 m⁄s
60. (a); The pattern is: + 8, - 16, + 24, - 32, + 40 (175+225)×3
Required time = = 60 sec
? = 104 + 8 = 112 20
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵 3 (𝑋+4000)×6 66. (b);

61. (b); A/q, = =
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 7 𝑋×12+(𝑋+4000)×6 A B C
7X + 28000 = 9X + 12000 Veg 72 60 63
2X = 16000 Non-Veg 56 80 45
X = 8000 Required total amount
1500×𝑅×4 = 60 × 200 + 80 × 300 = 12000 + 24000
62. (a); Interest earned from scheme A = =
100 = 36000
60𝑅
72+63 135 27
Interest earned from scheme B 67. (a); Required ratio = 80+45 = 125 = 25
(1500− 𝑥)×2𝑅×4 2𝑅(1500−𝑥)
= = 72+60+63
100 25 68. (e); Required ratio = = 65
3 2𝑅(1500−𝑥) 3
A/q, 60𝑅 = ×
4 25 135 27
1500 – x = 1000 69. (b); Required percentage = × 100 = × 100
125 25
x = 500 = 108%
50 4 7
63. (a); A/q, 40 × 48 = 64x + 96 × 3
70. (a); Required sum = × 60 + × 56
3 4
120 = 4x + 100 = 80 + 98 = 178
x=5
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
71. (e); All of the given facts are correct as per the given feasibility studies for building the world largest
passage. Facts can be derived from the lines, “As solar power plant for both electricity generation
the price of clean energy technology plummets, it and water desalination.” Thus option (e) is the
has become an increasingly attractive prospect best answer choice.
for world governments. China was by far the
72. (d); Statements (II)and(III) can be easily inferred
world’s largest investor in renewable energy in
2017, accounting for nearly half of the new from the given line “The electricity sector remains
infrastructure commissioned. This was mainly a the brightest spot for renewables with the
result of its massive support for solar power, exponential growth of solar photovoltaics and
which globally attracted nearly a fifth more wind in recent years, and building on the
investment than in the previous year.” And “Egypt significant contribution of hydropower
is also considering financing options to conduct generation.” Thus (d) is the correct answer.

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73. (b); As per the given passage only (II) is correct. This 81. (d); Option (d) is the correct answer choice. As the
can be inferred from the line, “The global paragraph is talking about 1929 Stock Market
replacement of traditional fuels with renewables Crash and the Great Depression. The line “the
led to around 1.8 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide deepest and longest-lasting economic
emissions being avoided last year – the __________in the history of the Western
equivalent of removing the entire US transport industrialized world up to that time.” Is talking
system.” Thus option (b) is correct answer about the great depression that was caused due
choice. to the stock market crash the line conveys that it
74. (b); Refer to the last line of the passage. was the greatest depression or downturn in the
history of Western industrialized word that it
75. (e); Critical here means having a decisive or crucial has faced ever.
importance in the success, failure, or existence of Dismantle- take (a machine or structure) to
something. pieces
76. (b); Account for is a phrasal verb which means Downturn- a decline in economic, business, or
supply or make up (a specified amount or other activity
proportion) Hence the meaning of the given word suggests
that option (d) should be the right answer
77. (d); Plummets means fall or drop straight down at
choice.
high speed hence slump is the word which is
most similar in meaning to the given word. 82. (d); Option (d) is the correct answer choice. option
(b), (c) and (e) are out of context. As the
78. (a); Option (a) is the correct answer choice. As the
paragraph is talking about 1929 Stock Market
Crash and the Great Depression. The line “……….. Crash and the Great Depression. The line
as investors _______some 16 million shares on the “Among the other causes of the eventual market
New York Stock Exchange in a single day,” itself collapse were low wages, the ________of debt, a
suggests that investors can only trade , out of the struggling agricultural sector and an excess of
given options the correct answer choice should large bank loans that could not be liquidated”
be option (a). conveys that out of the many, one of the reason
Segregated- set apart from the rest or from each of the collapse were low wages, rapid increase in
other; isolate or divide. the number of debt, the unliquidated large bank
Daunted- make (someone) feel intimidated or lo
apprehensive. Commotion- a state of confused and noisy
Hence option (a) is the correct answer choice. disturbance
Proliferation- rapid increase in the number or
79. (b); Option (b) is the correct answer choice. The line amount of something
“Billions of dollars were lost, __________out Hence the right answer choice is option (d).
thousands of investors.” (wiping- remove or
eliminate (something) completely) suggest that 83. (c); Option (c) is the correct answer choice. As the
option (b) should be the right answer choice. As paragraph is talking about 1929 Stock Market
the line conveys that after such a huge trading of Crash and the Great Depression. The line
Billions of dollars investors got eliminated from “Investment companies and leading bankers
their job they then had nothing with them. Hence attempted to _________ the market by buying up
option (b) should be the correct answer choice. great blocks of stock, producing a moderate rally
on Friday” talks about the efforts made by the
80. (c); Option (c) is the correct answer choice. As the
leading bankers and investment companies to
stabilize the market after such a huge depression
Crash and the Great Depression. The line “. In the
aftermath of Black Tuesday, America and the in the stock market.
rest of the industrialized world Rationalize- attempt to explain or justify
_________downward into the Great Depression” (behaviour or an attitude) with logical reasons,
itself suggest that the consequences or after- even if these are not appropriate.
effects of a significant unpleasant event like Hence option (c) is the correct answer choice.
stock market crash resulted into the continuous 84. (b); Replace “has been no reducing” with “has been
downfall and depression of America and rest of no reduction”.
the industrialized world. 85. (c); The subject “Retail prices” is in plural number
Spiraled- decrease or deteriorate continuously. therefore the usage of “is” is incorrect .
Reprimanded- address a reprimand to. We will replace “is revising” with “will be
Hence option (c) is the correct answer choice. revised”.

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86. (a); Use “We had got” in place of “we got” because A-E::: The rumors of petrol shortage turned out
when we talk about the two incidents of past for to be false.
the first incident use past perfect and for the
95. (c); Only sentence (A) and (F) makes a perfect match.
later activity we use past indefinite.
Word ‘highway’ and ‘traffic’ give us a clue. None
87. (e); The given sentence, along with the highlighted of the two sentences makes the meaningful
phrase is grammatically correct and contextually coherent sense. Had the sentence C and E been
meaningful; thus it doesn’t require any connected with ‘but’ it would be a possible
corrections. Hence, option (e) is the most match. Hence option (c) is the correct answer
suitable answer choice. choice.
88. (c); Here, we will replace 'their' with 'his'. When two 96. (d); The error is in the part (d) of the sentence. ‘have’
singular nouns are connected by 'and' and 'each' should be replaced by ‘has’ because ‘each of’,
or 'every' is used before them, then they are ‘either of’, always takes the singular verb.
considered as singular nouns. In such cases, the
97. (c); ‘Has fallen’ will be used in place of ‘has been
verb used with them will be in singular form and
fallen’ as there is no passive form of intransitive
the pronoun used for the subject will also be
verb (fall).
singular. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
(Note: Verbs are of two types namely transitive
89. (d); Option (d) is the correct choice for the given verbs and intransitive verbs. Transitive verbs
question. need an object while Intransitive verbs cannot
Revamp means give new and improved form, have an object. Ex. “I bought a car” in which
structure, or appearance to. ‘bought’ is transitive. “The Baby smiled”, ‘smiled’
Dispel means make (a doubt, feeling, or belief) is an intransitive verb)
disappear.
98. (a); Replace ‘While he used to walk’ with ‘while he
90. (d); Lucrative is correct. was walking’. For the two incidents of past, if one
Lucrative means producing a great deal of profit. continues and the other one has happened, then
It also makes the sentence grammatically past continuous tense is used for the former and
correct. simple past for latter.
Example. While I was walking along the road, a
91. (a); Option (a) is the correct choice for the given
mad dog attacked me.
question.
Stimulate means encourage or arouse interest or 99. (d); The sentence becomes grammatically incorrect
enthusiasm in. in part (d) of it. Instead of “introduces”,
“introduce” is required as after the phrase ‘one
92. (b); Look around means [INTRANSITIVE] to try to
of the’ the noun or pronoun used is plural,
find something that you want or need.
however, the verb should be in its singular
93. (e); Option (e) is the correct choice for the given form as there is the use of “to-infinitive” which
question. is followed by the first form of the verb. Hence,
option (d) is the most viable choice.
94. (e); B-D :: The body of camera makes it highly
resistant for outdoor use. 100. (e); The given sentence is grammatically correct

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10 Previous Year’s Papers

with Detailed Solutions

Mock 01: IBPS PO Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 03

Mock 02: IBPS PO Prelims 2020 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17

Mock 03: IBPS PO Prelims 2019 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32

Mock 04: IBPS PO Prelims 2018 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45

Mock 05: SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 60

Mock 06: SBI Clerk Prelims 2020 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 74

Mock 07: SBI Clerk Prelims 2019 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 87

Mock 08: SBI PO Prelims 2021 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 99

Mock 09: SBI PO Prelims 2020 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115

Mock 10: SBI PO Prelims 2019 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 130

Directions (1-3): A word has been given in each question

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Ratio of total books Average number 43. I. 2𝑥 2 + 26𝑥 + 84 = 0 II. 𝑦 2 + 15𝑦 + 56 = 0

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73. (e): Solutions (92-94):

79. (a): 80. (d): 81. (e):

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(Boys + Girls) (Girls)

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34. (b): Required revenue = 24 × 54 = 1296 Rs. ATQ –

36. (a): Pattern of series – 42. (a): Let efficiency of B = 5x unit/day

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45. (a): Let monthly salary = Rs 100x = 20x Rs.

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II. y² + 4y – 117 = 0 = 100 + 96

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66. (d): 67. (b): 68. (e) 83. (a):

76. (a): 77. (e): 78. (c): 94. (d):

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95. (b): 96. (e): 97. (d):

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Male Population Female Population

(Total population = Male population + Female population)

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1. (d); Solutions (6-10):

6. (d); 7. (b); 8. (a);

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Adda247 Publications For More Study Material

Adda247 Publications For More Study Material

Adda247 Publications For More Study Material

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