Scrum

SAFe-Agilist
Leading SAFe 5.1 Agilist
QUESTION & ANSWERS

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QUESTION 1

When does the Plan-Do-Check-Adjust cycle occur in Scrum?

A. In the daily Scrum
B. At the Iteration Review
C. At all formal Scrum events
D. As part of the Iteration Retrospective

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Plan –Iteration Planning is the plan ste

Do – Iteration Execution is the do step
Check – Iteration Review is the check step
Adjust – Iteration Retrospective is the adjust step

Reference:
https://www.scaledagileframework.com/iterations/

QUESTION 2

Which of the below is not one of the four activities of Release On Demand?
A. Learn

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B. Stabilize and operate
C. Automate
D. Measure

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

The 4 activities of Releae On Demand are Release, Stabilize and operate, Measure and Learn.

QUESTION 3

What is the size of an Agile team, recommended by SAFe?

A. 3 to 9 people
B. 5 to 11 people
C. 7 to 10 people
D. 10 to 15 people

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

SAFe advises that the optimal size for an Agile team is to 11 people.

QUESTION 4

What is one output of enterprise strategy formulation?

A. Portfolio Budgets
B. Portfolio Governance
C. Portfolio Vision
D. Portfolio Canvas

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

What is the basic building block when organizing around value?

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A. Agile Teams
B. Hierarchies
C. Individuals
D. Agile Release Trains

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

What Portfolio-level highlight has the role of describing the purpose of the Scaled Agile Framework
portfolio?

A. Portfolio Retrospective
B. Portfolio Value Stream
C. Portfolio Canvas
D. Portfolio Kanban

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

What is the best measure of progress for complex system development?

A. Inspect and Adapt

B. System Demo
C. Prioritized backlog
D. Iteration Review

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

During the PI Planning event, when are planning adjustments agreed upon?

A. During the draft plan review

B. During breakout sessions
C. During the management review and problem-solving

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D. During Scrum of scrums

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

___________ are in the Program backlog, and they get decomposed in user stories.
A. Topics
B. Features
C. Tasks
D. Strategic Themes

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Features are stored only in the Program Backlog and they are decomposed into User Stories.

QUESTION 10

What is happening when you operate a full utilisation of product development process ?
A. All of the above
B. Benefit to budget
C. Product Success
D. Economic disaster

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

You need time for innovation etc ...

QUESTION 11

What is the implementation path to approve an Epic in a Lean-Agile perspective ?

A. Implement the Epic across the same number of PIs as it took to develop
B. Demonstrate the progress to key stakeholders after first PI and make a decision how to proceed
with the Epic in the second PI

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C. Report percentage completed to the key stakeholders at every PI boundary
D. Demonstrate the progress to the key stakeholders after two PIs and have them accept the epic

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

What is one of the tools associated with Design Thinking?

A. Divergent Feature Decomposition

B. Empathy maps
C. Solution Canvas
D. Behavior driven development

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

When is the best time to release software in SAFe?

A. After every PI
B. After every Iteration
C. As soon as the software meets the Solution Definition of Done
D. Whenever the Business needs it

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

Which core Business Agility Competency describes the critical skills and Lean-Agile principles and
practices that high-performing Agile teams and Teams of Agile teams used to create high-quality
solutions for their customers?

A. Lean-Agile Leadership
B. The Team and Technical Agility
C. Agile Product Delivery
D. Continuous Learning Culture

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

The Lean-Agile Leadership core competency of Business Agility encompasses the Lean-Agile practices
which enhance agility.

QUESTION 15

What are the necessary solutions to deliver a complete enterprise value within the seven core
competencies?
A. Enterprise Solution Delivery
B. Lean Portfolio Management
C. Organizational Agility
D. Agile Product Delivery

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

What is the purpose of the Plan-Do-Check-Adjust cycle?

A. To provide a regular, predictable development cadence to produce an increment of value
B. To give the Agile Release Train team members a process tool to keep the train on the tracks
C. To create a continuous flow of work to support the delivery pipeline
D. To allow the team to perform some final backlog refinement for upcoming Iteration Planning

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

https://www.scaledagileframework.com/iterations/

QUESTION 17

The three pillars of Scrum are transparency, inspection, and what else?
A. Respect
B. Adaptation
C. Collaboration
D. Self organization

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Scrum employs an iterative, incremental approach to optimize predictability and control risk. Three
pillars uphold every implementation of empirical process control: transparency, inspection, and
adaptation. Significant aspects of the process must be visible to those responsible for the outcome.
Reference:
https://www.kaizenko.com/what-are-the-3-pillars-of-scrum/#:~:text=Scrum employs an iterative,
incremental,transparency, inspection, and adaptation.&text=Significant aspects of the process,those
responsible for the outcome

QUESTION 18

Why is it important to organize the work for Iteration Planning?

A. So the team can load balance
B. So the backlog can be prepared
C. So the Scrum Master can prepare workload for the Continuous Delivery Pipeline
D. So a realistic work scope can be defined

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

The purpose of iteration planning is to organize the work and define a realistic scope for the iteration.
... The iteration backlog and goals are based on the team's capacity and allow for consideration of
each story's complexity, size, and dependencies on other stories and other teams.
Reference:
https://www.scaledagileframework.com/iteration-planning/#:~:text=The purpose of iteration
planning,realistic scope for the iteration.&text=The iteration backlog and goals,other stories and
other teams

QUESTION 19

Who creates and refines the user stores and the acceptance criteria?
A. The Agile Team
B. The Scrum Master
C. The Business Owner
D. The Product Owner

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

The Agile team creates and refines the user stories and acceptance criteria and the Product Owner
accepts the stories. The ScrumMaster facilitates the process.

QUESTION 20

Which of the below are not part of the CALMR approach to DevOps?
A. Large batches
B. Culture
C. Measurement
D. Automation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

CALMR stands for Culture, Automation, Lean Flow, Measurement and Recovery.

QUESTION 21

What is the main reason why some teams never reach stage 4 (Performing) in the stages of high
performing teams?

A. Because leadership is spontaneous

B. Because there is too much conflict
C. Because the team is not structured correctly
D. Because no one guides them

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

Teams fail to reach the highest performance stage because of lack in one or more of the 4 C's:
Commitment, Cooperation, Communication, and Contribution. For instance, a team could fall short of
the performing stage because of a lack of commitment to common goals. So, the the main reason is
that no one guides them.
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QUESTION 22

The House of Lean is a classic metaphor describing the mindset essential for Lean thinking. Which one
of the four pillars advocates a ‘Get out of the office’ mindset?

A. Relentless improvement
B. Innovation
C. Flow
D. Respect for people and culture

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23

An effective SAFe Scrum Master helps the team improve on their journey towards technical excellence
through Continuous Integration, Continuous Deployment, and what else?
A. State of the art build tools
B. Continuous Exploration
C. WIP limits
D. Continuous Release

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

WIP limits provide a strategy for preventing bottlenecks and helping improve flow. They also increase
focus and information sharing, while fostering collective ownership. All SAFe teams should have a
solid understanding of their WIP and and its impact on flow.
Reference
https://www.scaledagileframework.com/iteration-execution/#:~:text=WIP limits provide a
strategy,and its impact on flow.

QUESTION 24

Which statement is a principle of the Agile Manifesto?

A. Measure everything
B. Simplicity–the art of maximizing the amount of work not done–is essential
C. Visualize and limit WIP, reduce batch sizes, and manage queue lengths
D. Respect for people and culture

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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25

What is the impact of Customer Centricity?

A. To interpret market rhythms

B. To understand the Customer’s needs
C. To build small, partial systems just in time
D. To design custom-built Customer Solutions

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26

What are the two inputs to PI Planning? (Choose two.)

Multiple Selection
A. Vision
B. Ready user stories
C. Program Roadmap
D. Top-10 Features list
E. A set of PI Objectives

Correct Answer: A,D

Explanation/Reference:

Inputs to PI planning include:

1. Business context
2. Roadmap and vision
3. Top 10 Features of the Program Backlog
Reference
https://www.scaledagileframework.com/pi-planning/

QUESTION 27

What is a characteristics of an effective Scrum Master?

A. Supports the autonomy of the team

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B. Articulates Architectural solutions
C. Is a technical expert
D. Understands customer needs

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28

Which Continuous Delivery Pipeline event(s) is happening every iteration ?

A. Continuous Integration
B. Continuous Exploration, Continuous Integration, and Continuous Deployment
C. Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment
D. Continuous Exploration, Continuous Integration, Continuous Deployment, and Release on Demand

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29

What falls outside the Scrum Master’s responsibility?

A. Facilitating the Innovation and Planning event

B. Facilitating team events
C. Attending Scrum of scrums
D. Estimating stories for the team

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30

Which of the following is not a value of the Agile Manifesto?

A. Individuals and Interactions over Processes and Tools
B. Working Software over Comprehensive Documentation
C. Responding to Change over Following a Plan
D. Contract Negotiation over Customer Collaboration

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Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

The Agile Manifesto has 4 values: Individuals and Interactions over Processes and Tools;

QUESTION 31

Which of the below is not part of SAFe economic framework?

A. avoid using suppliers

B. Understanding solution economic trade-offs
C. Operating within lean budgets and guardrails
D. Sequencing jobs for the maximum benefit

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

SAFe advocates the use of suppliers where applicable.

QUESTION 32

According to the Five Dysfunctions of a Team, what is a team's ultimate competitive advantage?
A. Teamwork
B. Commitment
C. Transparency
D. Accountability

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

It is teamwork that remains the ultimate competitive advantage, both because it is so powerful and so
rare. This is the starting quote of a great book “The Five Dysfunctions of a Team” from Patrick
Lencioni, and is something I can really relate to.

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QUESTION 33

Who is responsible for Strategy and Investment Funding?

A. Business Owners
B. Epic Owners
C. Lean Portfolio Management
D. Lean Agile Leaders

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 34

The Scrum Master is what above all else?

A. A Servant Leader
B. A team coach
C. A SAFe Agilist
D. An empathetic leader

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35

Which activity is a Scrum Master’s responsibility?

A. Coaching the Release Train Engineer(s)

B. Owning the Daily stand-up
C. Coaching the Agile team
D. Prioritizing the Team Backlog

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36

What do Work in Process (WIP) constraints create?

A. Enhanced product ROI
B. Forced capacity matching
C. Better customer outcomes
D. Increased pressure to deliver

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Work in Process (WIP) constraints create Forced capacity matching.

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QUESTION 37

How are the 5 Whys used?

A. To coach a team through powerful questions
B. To identify a root cause(s) of a problem
C. To brainstorm ideas
D. To define acceptance criteria for a story

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Effective problem-solving tools include the fishbone diagram and the ‘5 Whys.’ Also known as an
Ishikawa Diagram, a fishbone diagram is a visual tool used to explore the causes of specific events or
sources of variation in a process. Figure 5 illustrates the fishbone diagram with a summary of the
previous problem statement written at the head of the ‘fish.’

For our problem-solving workshop, we preload the main bones with the categories people, process,
tools, program, and environment. However, these may be adapted as appropriate.
Team members then brainstorm causes that they think contribute to the problem to be solved and
group them into these categories. Once a cause is identified, its root cause is explored with the 5
Whys technique. By simply asking ‘why’ multiple times, the cause of the previous cause is uncovered,
and added to the diagram. The process stops once a suitable root cause has been identified and the
same process is then applied to the next cause.
Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/5_Whys
or
https://www.scaledagileframework.com/inspect-and-adapt/

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QUESTION 38

How many types of products exist according to whole product thinking?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

There are 4 types of products in the context of whole product thinking: generic, expected, augmented
and potential product. The generic product is often considered the “minimal offering” of a product.The
expected product represents the customer’s minimal purchase conditions as informed by alternative
or competing products.The augmented product goes beyond what is expected and enables
competitors to differentiate their offerings.The potential product represents everything that might be
done to attract and keep customers.

QUESTION 39

When looking at a Program Board, what does it mean when a feature is placed in a team’s swim lane
with no strings?

A. That the feature can be completed independent from the other teams
B. That all the risks have been ROAMed
C. That the team has little confidence it will happen
D. That the feature should be completed before any other feature

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40

What is the biggest benefit of decentralized decision-making?

A. Ensuring strategic decisions are not made in a vacuum

B. Delivering value in the shortest sustainable lead time
C. Creating better visualization
D. Removing accountability from leaders

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Correct Answer: B

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