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SỞ GD – ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐẦU NĂM HỌC

TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH SỐ 1 NĂM HỌC 2021 -2022


Môn: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mã đề thi
327

Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD.....................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: You can tell him the truth. He will help you.
A. an apology B. a secret C. a lie D. a story
Question 2: I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be quiet B. be private C. be public D. be lonely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. mental B. correct C. visual D. stable
Question 4: A. protection B. resource C. assignment D. benefit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 5: A: “How long has he been gone?”- B: “___________”.
A. For half an hour. B. Until tomorrow. C. Half an hour ago D. Next week.
Question 6: A: "............." - B: "I regret it."
A. You shouldn’t borrow any money from her. B. It was wrong of you to shout at him
C. You didn’t clean the house, Tom. D. You didn’t send me roses as promised.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. watched B. lived C. leaned D. dried
Question 8: A. raise B. air C. sail D. mail
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 9: If they pick mine , I’ll get to meet him in person!
A. choose B. keep C. contain D. point
Question 10: International model United Nations meetings are largely based on the real United Nations.
A. mainly B. eagerly C. necessarily D. probably
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: How often do you __________ judo?
A. train B. play C. make D. do
Question 12: Roberta wasn’t in class today, ________ ?
A. were she B. wasn’t she C. was she D. did she
Question 13: _________ exercise such as swimming can help you keep in shape.
A. Moderate B. Fair C. Average D. Limited
Question 14: A: Who is the woman _______ the street? B: She is my teacher.
A. crosses B. who crossing C. to cross D. crossing
Question 15: How do you find your new neighbors? I’ve heard they are difficult to ____ .
A. get over B. get down C. get on with D. get up
Question 16: _______ Monday is a national holiday, all government offices will be closed.

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A. Although B. Whereas C. While D. Because
Question 17: I hope everyone in your family is ________ good health.
A. in B. for C. on D. at
Question 18: It is very pleasant ___ in the river on hot days in the summer.
A. bathe B. bathing C. bathed D. to bathe
Question 19: He ________ at that office for a long time.
A. is working B. working C. works D. has been working
Question 20: ________ the time Mr. Brown is sixty, he will have completed more than ten detective
novels in forty years.
A. When B. Until C. By D. Over
Question 21: Have you ever been to ________ countryside?
A. an B. ∅ C. the D. a
Question 22: A: You cheated in the competition! - B: No, I won ______!
A. odds and ins B. fair and square C. flesh and blood D. part and parcel
Question 23: If you don’t feel better, you _____ go to bed.
A. ought B. should C. needn’t D. don’t have to
Question 24: Would you ______ holding this box for me while I open the door?
A. mind B. matter C. like D. object
Question 25: The migration of the ducks was due to the ______ of colder weather.
A. arriver B. arrive C. arrival D. arriving
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Have you ever heard someone sing, “Happy birthday to you . . .happy birthday to you . . .”? If so, you
are hardly alone - millions of people sing that song every year, and the tune is one of the most familiar of
any song in North America.
Ironically, it is not known who wrote it! The tune was written by two sisters, Patty and Mildred Hill,
who were school teachers in the late 19th century. But their song had different words; instead of “happy
birthday to you,” the song ran “good morning to all.” The two sisters would sing this ditty to their
students each morning as school began.
In 1924, the tune was published in a song book, which added the “happy birthday” lyrics as verse two.
Today, the second verse of that song has become one of the best known tunes in the world – and nobody
knows who wrote the words!
Question 26: According to the passage, who wrote the tune to “Happy Birthday”?
A. two priests B. Irving Berlin
C. It is not known. D. Patty and Mildred Hill
Question 27: Why is it ironic that the author of the words to “Happy Birthday” is not known?
A. because almost everyone knows the song B. because it shows how unjust life can be
C. because it was published in 1924 D. because of modern copyright laws
Question 28: The underlined word ditty, as used in the passage, most nearly means
A. silly. B. short song. C. shoe. D. flower.
Question 29: What happened in 1924 to make “Happy Birthday” famous?
A. The authors of the tune passed away.
B. Hitler came to power in Germany.
C. The tune was published in a song book with the words as a second verse.
D. Nothing significant happened.
Question 30: Readers cannot find which of the following information in the passage?
A. who wrote the words. B. when the “happy birthday” lyrics appeared.
C. who wrote the tune D. where the song is widely sung.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.

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Question 31: ‘What will you do if Jack is out when you come?’, he asked.
A. She asked me what I would do if Jack was out when I came
B. She asked me what would I do if Jack was out when I came
C. She asked me what Jack would do if I was out when he came
D. She asked me what I will do if Jack is out when I come
Question 32: As I had seen a photograph of the place, I had no desire to go there.
A. Having no desire to go there, I had seen a photograph of the place
B. Seeing a photograph of the place, I had no desire to go there.
C. Because seeing a photograph of the place, I had no desire to go there.
D. Having seen a photo of the place, I had no desire to go there
Question 33: He last went to the pub two months ago.
A. He has two months to go to the pub B. He has gone to the pub for two months.
C. He hasn’t gone to the pub for two months. D. He didn’t go to the pub two months ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 34: The side affects of the medication include nausea and drowsiness.
A. and B. medication C. include D. affects
Question 35: Both drivers or passengers are required to wear seat belts while in a moving vehicle.
A. are required B. moving C. or D. to wear
Question 36: The sun is so bright to look at directly.
A. directly B. The C. look at D. so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 41.
Taking care of nurses
It’s a nurse’s responsibility to care for her (37)_____ and help them recover from their illness. This
doesn’t just mean giving patients medicine. Part of the treatment may involve giving them (38)_____ on
improving their diet and exercise routines so they can increase their strength and avoid becoming ill
again. But who looks after the well-being and fitness of nurses?
While trying to satisfy the demands of a busy schedule, some nurses find it difficult to take the time
to take care of themselves. This is especially true of young, inexperienced nurses.
Nurses (39)_____ have a very active lifestyle and are constantly rushed off their feet are unlikely
to need any additional exercise. (40)_____ ,many nurses often don’t have a balanced diet because they’re
too busy to eat properly during the working day. This can mean relying (41)_____ snacks instead of
having healthy meals. So some nurses may not be getting the nutrition they need to maintain energy
levels or fight off infectious diseases.
Question 37: A. specialists B. patients C. nurses D. doctors
Question 38: A. decision B. complaint C. solution D. advice
Question 39: A. whose B. who C. whom D. which
Question 40: A. Because B. However C. Although D. Therefore
Question 41: A. in B. on C. of D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 42: She can cook for herself. That makes her more independent.
A. Her ability to cook for herself makes her more independent.
B. She can cook for herself and makes her more independent.
C. She is independent because she can cook for herself.
D. Her independence on cooking makes herself more.
Question 43: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented.
A. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

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C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful despite being talented.
D. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
Millions of people use contact lenses worldwide. They were made to replace glasses and are very
useful because sometimes glasses are inconvenient. In sports, for instance, many athletes wear contact
lenses instead of using obnoxious sports goggles because they are much safer. Contact lenses can also be
used to correct some conditions that glasses are not capable of fixing. People also use them if they want to
change the color of their eyes. One can wear contact lenses every day, or they can be used only once, for
example, to have red eyes with a vampire costume.
The idea of wearing contact lenses for better vision was first thought of by Leonardo da Vinci in the
1500s. He made sketches but there is no evidence that his design was ever realized. Throughout the
1800s many scientists played with the idea of contact lenses but no one perfected the use of them. The
first models were very uncomfortable so they could not be worn for long periods of time. They were not
flexible and did not let oxygen get to the eyes so in some cases they caused more problems than they
fixed. The earlier versions were also very fragile and expensive, which made them not usable for many
people.
It wasn’t until the late 1900s that contact lenses started to be effective and affordable enough for
everyone to use. They became more and more popular as people became aware that there was an
alternative to wearing glasses. In recent years, people have been developing even more advanced contact
lenses. Now they can not only fix poor vision, but can improve good vision. Although contact lenses have
become extremely popular over the last few decades, laser technology now allows people to improve their
eyesight through a relatively quick, inexpensive, and painless procedure. One day, this technology may
phase out contact lenses.
Question 44: The author’s main purpose is to
A. persuade readers of the convenience of contact lenses
B. give a brief history of contact lenses
C. explain how contact lenses improve people’s vision
D. prove the risk of wearing contact lenses for better looks
Question 45: The first contact lenses had the following disadvantages, EXCEPT
A. They were uncomfortable B. They were fragile
C. They were flexible D. They were expensive
Question 46: When did contact lenses become more affordable to people?
A. The late 1900s B. The last few decades
C. Throughout the 1800s D. In recent years
Question 47: In paragraph 3, the word alternative is closest in meaning to
A. purchase B. option C. upgrade D. solution
Question 48: In paragraph 2, the word no one refers to
A. no scientist B. no contact lenses C. no eye D. no model
Question 49: Why does the author mention athletes in the passage?
A. To show that athletes are concerned for their health
B. To explain that some sports do not allow glasses
C. To illustrate the development of today’s contact lenses
D. To give an example of the usefulness of contact lenses
Question 50: What can be inferred from the reading passage?
A. Contact lenses are widely used.
B. Contact lenses were once inexpensive.
C. Contact lenses are already replaced by laser lenses.
D. Contact lenses offer no pain at all.
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ĐÁP ÁN MÔN ANH 12, KHẢO SÁT ĐẦU NĂM HỌC ( 2 021 -2022)
Câu Mã 327 Mã 401 Mã 502 Mã 981
1 C A B B
2 C A D C
3 B B C D
4 D A C B
5 A B B A
6 B B C D
7 A C A A
8 B D D D
9 A C B C
10 A B C B
11 D D C A
12 C A B B
13 A C D C
14 D C D C
15 C B A C
16 D B B D
17 A C C B
18 D D B A
19 D B B B
20 C D D A
21 C B A B
22 B D B C
23 B C D B
24 A B D C
25 C D D C
26 D D C D
27 A B B C
28 B A B C
29 C A A B
30 A D B D
31 A B A D
32 D D B D
33 C C B D
34 D B C B
35 C B A B
36 D A D A
37 B C D B
38 B B A B
39 B C A B
40 B C B C
41 B A C A
42 A B A A
43 B D B B
44 B B D A
45 C A B B
46 A B C C
47 B C C B
48 A B C D
49 D D B C
50 A C B C

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SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH QUẢNG NGÃI KỲ THI TIẾP CẬN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUỐC TUẤN NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 Phút
( Đề có 5 trang )

Họ tên :............................................................... Số báo danh : ................... Mã đề 001

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. referee B. understand C. magazine D. emigrate
Câu 2: A. offer B. media C. mature D. tablet
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Pirahã are an isolated Amazonian tribe of hunter-gatherers who live deep in the Brazilian
rainforest. The tribe has survived, their culture intact, for centuries, although there are now only
around 200 left. The Pirahã, who communicate mainly through hums and whistles, have fascinated
ethnologists for years, mainly because they have no words for numbers. They use only three words to
count: one, two, and many.
We know about the Pirahã thanks to an ex-hippy and former missionary, Dan Everett, now a professor
of Phonetics, who spent seven years with the tribe in the 70s and 80s. Everett discovered a world
without numbers, without time, without words for colours, without subordinate clauses and without a
past tense.
Their language, he found, was not just simple grammatically; it was restricted in its range of sounds
and differed between the sexes. For the men, it has just eight consonants and three vowels; for the
women, who have the smallest number of speech sounds in the world, seven consonants and three
vowels. To the untutored ear, the language sounds more like humming than speech. The Pirahã can
also whistle their language, which is how men communicate when hunting.
Their culture is similarly constrained. The Pirahã can’t write, have little collective memory, and no
concept of decorative art. In 1980, Everett tried to teach them to count: be explained basic arithmetic
to an enthusiastic group keen to learn the skills needed to trade with other tribes. After eight months,
not one could count to ten; even one plus one is beyond them. The experiment seemed to confirm
Everett’s theory: the tribe just couldn’t conceive the concept of number.
The Pirahã’s inability to count is important because it seems to disapprove Noam Chomsky’s
influential Theory of Universal Grammar, which holds that the human mind has a natural capacity for
language, and that all languages share a basic rule structure, which enables children to understand
abstract concepts such as number. One of Chomsky’s collaborators has recently gone on an expedition
with Everett to study the tribe. We do not yet know if the Pirahã have persuaded him to change his
theory.
Câu 3: What does Chomsky’s Theory of Universal Grammar hold?
A. Children do not grasp abstract concepts until they grow up.
B. Children and adults have different language abilities.
C. All languages have some rules in common.
D. Some languages do not have words for numbers.
Câu 4: Everett’s experiment to teach the Pirahã to count revealled that the tribe …………….
A. was able to learn number but no one taught them previously.
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B. just couldn’t take in the concept of number.
C. had its own way of saying numbers.
D. couldn’t count to 1000.
Câu 5: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to …………….
A. the act of humming B. the Pirahã’s language
C. the Pirahã tribe D. the language of males
Câu 6: The word “untutored” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to …………….
A. wrong B. foreign C. untrained D. damaged
Câu 7: The word “constrained” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to …………….
A. simplified B. complicated C. limited D. varied
Câu 8: What is NOT true about the Piraha tribe?
A. The lack of words for numbers in their language has interested ethnologists.
B. They have successfully kept their culture as it was originally.
C. Their language as well as their culture is restricted.
D. They have not decreased in numbers.
Câu 9: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A study by Professor Dan Everett
B. A defect in Chomsky’s famous theory
C. The unusual language of the Pirahã’s tribe
D. Reasons behind the humming and whistling of the Pirahã tribe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 10: The manager has been biting off more than he can chew when he took on five projects at
the same time.
A. practical enough B. clever enough
C. too ambitious D. too aggressive
Câu 11: Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable
employment.
A. temporary B. steady C. durable D. long-lasting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 12: She hasn't paid as much attention to her children as she did since she …………….
working.
A. started B. would start C. was starting D. starts
Câu 13: They’ve written to each other for years, but this is the first time they’ve met …………….
A. face to face B. mind to mind C. heart to heart D. hand to hand
Câu 14: People will travel in solar-powered cars in the future, …………….?
A. will people B. will they
C. won’t people D. won’t they
Câu 15: If you ……………. at a computer screen for too long, it may damage your eyesight.
A. peep B. glance C. stare D. look
Câu 16: ……………. the Sun is, ……………. the shadow is.
A. The higher / the low B. The more high/ the more low
C. The more higher / the more lower D. The higher / the lower
Câu 17: One ……………. method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.
A. popularly B. popularity C. popularize D. popular
Câu 18: What's James so happy about? He looks like …………….
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A. tired dog B. dog with a bone
C. a dog with two cubs D. a dog with two tails
Câu 19: I suggest that Sam ……………. the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle.
A. to read B. reads C. read D. reading
Câu 20: Because of the coming examination, I am under a lot of study …………….
A. responsibility B. activities C. pressure D. confidence
Câu 21: I remember she wore a ……………. dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.
A. white Vietnamese cotton B. cotton white Vietnamese
C. white cotton Vietnamese D. Vietnamese white cotton
Câu 22: My career adviser talks to me ……………. he is my father.
A. because B. although C. like D. if
Câu 23: ……………. to help, we had already put out the fire.
A. No sooner the firemen had arrived B. By the time the firemen arrived
C. After the firemen arrived D. Until the firemen arrive
Câu 24: ……………. the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. Finish B. Having finished C. To finish D. Finishing
Câu 25: A new primary school ……………. near my house recently.
A. has been built B. has been building
C. have been built D. have been building
Câu 26: Students use the library's computers to get access ……………. the Internet.
A. to B. for C. with D. by

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 27: A. career B. advice C. activate D. apply
Câu 28: A. invented B. coughed C. introduced D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 29: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. conservation B. number C. variety D. changes
Câu 30: The main threat to the survival of these creatures comes from their loss of habitat.
A. usual behaviour B. favourite activity
C. place of living D. rituals
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 31: Nick gave me some advice. I was saved from bankruptcy.
A. Had it not been for Nick’s advice, I would have gone bankrupt.
B. It was Nick’s advice that saved me from bankrupt.
C. If it weren’t for Nick’s advice, I would go bankrupt.
D. I was saved from bankruptcy thanks to Nick gave me some advice.
Câu 32: You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It's the only way.
A. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
D. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Câu 33: The last time I went to the gym was a week ago.
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A. My going to the gym lasted a week.
B. I have not been to the gym for a week.
C. At last I went to the gym after a week.
D. A week ago, I often went to the gym.
Câu 34: “I would like a cup of coffee, please,” Mr. Smith said to the waitress.
A. Mr. Pike advised the waitress to drink a cup of coffee.
B. Mr. Pike ordered the waitress to bring him a cup of coffee.
C. Mr. Pike warned the waitress not to drink coffee.
D. Mr. Pike invited the waitress a cup of coffee.
Câu 35: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.
A. I mustn't submit my assignment today.
B. My assignment must have been submitted today.
C. My assignment was required to submit by today.
D. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Câu 36: Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.
Helen: This is the best field trip we’ve ever had.
Sarah: ……………. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.
A. Never mind. B. I don’t think that’s a good idea.
C. You’re right. D. I totally disagree.
Câu 37: Peter: How are you today? Susan: …………….
A. I feel like a millions stars. B. I feel like a millions dollars.
C. I feel your ears burning. D. I can feel it in my bone.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 38: In fact, I and Peter has lost touch with for a long time.
A. with B. has C. a D. In fact
Câu 39: Domestic cats often show loyalty to their owners by leaving freshly killed prey such as
birds for they to find.
A. to B. such as C. leaving D. they
Câu 40: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. former B. film directions C. expand D. successful
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from.
False, or fake, images are not new. In fact, the earliest fake photos date back to the 19th century. A
famous example is the image called “The Cardiff Giant". The photo seems to show the discovery of
a giant human. It was fake, but some people thought it was real.
With computer technology, it is much easier now to make and share fake images. In 2004 another
unusual photo spread around the world by email. Like the Cardiff Giant photo, it seemed to show
the discovery of a very large human body. The photo usually came with a story under a title such as:
“Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” Both the stories and the image were amazing. But there was a problem
- none of it was true.
The recent giant skeleton photo was the work of a Canadian illustrator. He made it for a digital art
contest. The image was really a mix of three different photos. Making the image, says the illustrator,
was not difficult. In fact, it took less than an hour and a half to create.

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So, how is it possible to tell if a photo is real? First, look for a source. Where does the photo come
from? Is there a photographer’s name? Look for clues in the photo. Sometimes the direction of light
and shadows is wrong. Is anything in the photo too big or too small, or is anything missing?
(Source: National Geographic Learning)
Câu 41: The word “clues" in paragraph 4 almost means …………….
A. effects B. images C. hints D. withdrawals
Câu 42: According to the passage, “The Cardiff Giant” and “Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” both
show …………..
A. a very large human body B. a monster
C. a magic human being D. a wizard
Câu 43: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ……………..
A. The Cardiff Giant B. image
C. computer technology D. to make and share fake images
Câu 44: The best title of the passage can be “…………………”.
A. The Cardiff Giant B. Fake or Real?
C. Giant Skeleton Unearthed D. Fake photos
Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about fake photos?
A. Fake photos are always created by illustrators.
B. A fake photo is a mix of many photos.
C. It is not difficult to make a fake photo.
D. The most common fake photos are about giant humans.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
DESPERATE TO GO TO SCHOOL
Truancy has become a serious problem in __( 46 )__ schools in recent years. In an attempt to tackle
this problem one school introduced a new scheme to __( 47 )__ students to attend as many classes as
possible. Pupils who achieved a 100% attendance record throughout the whole academic year were
rewarded with an all inclusive weekend school trip to an activity centre __( 48 )__ they would be able
to have a go at outdoor activities such as climbing, abseiling and white water rafting.
One student was so excited to qualify for this free weekend away that he even went to school with a
broken wrist. He hurt his wrist when he fell off his bike on the way to school, but he was so worried
about maintaining his 100% attendance that he didn’t tell his teachers or parents __( 49 )__ the school
day had finished. He eventually admitted to his mother what had happened, when she noticed that he
was having difficulty eating his dinner and asked him what was wrong. She took him to hospital that
night, where they put his arm in plaster and he was able to go back to school the next day.
Fortunately, he was fully __( 50 )__ from his accident in time to go on the trip.
Câu 46: A. each B. many C. a little D. much
Câu 47: A. encourage B. force C. make D. suggest
Câu 48: A. that B. who C. which D. where
Câu 49: A. while B. until C. before D. when
Câu 50: A. repaired B. fixed C. improved D. recovered

...............THE END...............

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SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH QUẢNG NGÃI ĐÁP ÁN THI TIẾP CẬN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUỐC TUẤN NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
(ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC) Thời gian làm bài : 60 Phút

Phần đáp án câu trắc nghiệm:


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1 D D B D C D B D
2 C A D B A C A B
3 C C A C A D B B
4 B B C D D A A B
5 B A C C B A A B
6 C B A B C B C D
7 C D A C B C B C
8 D B A B D B C D
9 C A A A D B B B
10 B A C A D C B A
11 A B D C D C B B
12 A B B B A B A A
13 A A B B D B C D
14 D B B B B A B B
15 C D C B D C B D
16 D B C A A D B B
17 D C C A D C C B
18 D D D B D D A A
19 C B A A D A A B
20 C D B C B D D A
21 A D A A C A A A
22 C B C C A A B C
23 B B C B C B B B
24 B D B C A B C A
25 A C A A D D B B
26 A A A B D D B C
27 C A A C A A D C
28 A D D A C C C D
29 C A D A C C C C
30 C C D D D C B B
31 A A C A C D A D
32 B D D C B A A D
1

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33 B D B C B A B A
34 B C A C B C B D
35 D D D D C B D D
36 C D B C B C B A
37 B D A B C B B C
38 B C B C D C B D
39 D A A D A A C C
40 B C A B D D B B
41 C A B B C C C A
42 A D A C B B D A
43 D A D C C A D B
44 B B D B A D D C
45 C B D D A A B D
46 B B A C B D D B
47 A B D A D C A C
48 D B B B B B A B
49 B B C B A D B D
50 D D B B A A D C

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ THI THỬ KÌ THI TN THPT NĂM HỌC 2020-2021- LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THƯỢNG
------------------ ***------------------ MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...............................................................................
Mã đề: 101
Số báo danh : .................................. Lớp: ............ SBD:.....................
Lưu ý: Đề thi gồm có 4 trang, 50 câu; thí sinh làm bài trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 1. She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.
A. If her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.
B. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.
C. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.
D. Because of her contribution, we could have continued with the project.
Question 2. We paid for the meal. We wanted to say sorry for what we had done.
A. We paid for the meal in order to say sorry for what we had done.
B. We paid for the meal although we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.
C. The meal we paid for is what we want to say sorry for what we had done.
D. In order to pay for the meal, we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two
decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known
species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high
rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of
biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one
after another of Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as
wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now
humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and
runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth,
they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have occurred. The
extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also
been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion.
Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely
chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering
the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the
rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological
devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred
on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time
for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.
Question 3. The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that _____.
A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
B. the cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown
C. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction
D. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction
Question 4. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world's
ecosystem EXCEPT ______.
A. damage to marine ecosystems
B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. destruction of the tropical rain forests
D. habitat destruction in wetlands
Question 5. The word "jolting" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. illuminating B. shocking C. unknown D. predicted
Question 6. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs.
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B. The time required for species to adapt to new environments.
C. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems.
D. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests.
Question 7. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
B. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
C. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
D. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
Question 8. According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by
humans in that changes caused by humans ______.
A. are less devastating to most species B. are occurring at a much faster rate
C. affect fewer ecosystems D. are reversible
Question 9. The word "critical" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 10. A. nuclear B. treasure C. weather D. threaten
Question 11. A. steps B. defends C. kicks D. advocates

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 12. I would like to extend my gratitude to all the staff for their ______ support, without which our
company couldn't have overcome the crisis.
A. unfriendly B. unfailing C. unsuitable D. unfeeling
Question 13. Cars have become much more complicated. ______, mechanics need more training than in the
past.
A. Therefore B. Besides C. But D. However
Question 14. By the end of 2021, I ______ as an accountant in this company for 15 years.
A. have worked B. will have worked C. had worked D. will work
Question 15. A large number of people in the world are now ______ work because of the serious impacts of
the COVID-19 pandemic.
A. in on B. at C. out of D. with
Question 16. Those problems will be worse if the government does not ______ any measures to reduce the
negative effects of urbanisation.
A. pay B. make C. take D. do
Question 17. Human beings are ______ greatest threat to the survival of endangered species.
A. the B. a C. Ø (no article) D. an
Question 18. Not until all their demands had been ______ did the workers decide to go on strike for more
welfare.
A. turned on B. turned up C. turned down D. turned off
Question 19. She got the job ______ she actually had very little experience.
A. despite B. although C. because D. because of
Question 20. One ______ method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.
A. popular B. popularize C. popularly D. popularity
Question 21. She said she ______ the next week but I never saw her again.
A. had back B. will be back C. would be back D. is back
Question 22. The 2021 Southeast Asian Games, commonly known as the 31st SEA Games, ______ in Hanoi,
Vietnam from 21st November to 2nd December 2021.
A. will be held B. will held C. held D. was held
Question 23. Pitt is an ambitious man who will never ______ till he gets what he wants.
A. take off B. put on C. turn off D. give up
Question 24. Dr John is the person in ______ I have so much confidence.
A. whom B. which C. that D. who
Question 25. If I had enough money, I ______ abroad to improve my English.
A. should go B. go C. will go D. would go
Question 26. Young people leave their home villages to find ______ jobs in the fast growing industrial zones.
A. day-to-day B. wide- ranging C. well-paid D. weather-beaten

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 27. "It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you." Mary said to Helen.
A. Mary thanked Helen for the present. B. Mary was sorry to receive the present for Helen.

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C. Mary asked Helen for the present. D. Mary was happy to give Helen the present.
Question 28. We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore. B. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months. D. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 29. People don't use this road very often.
A. This road not very often is used. B. This road very often is not used.
C. This road is not used very often. D. Not very often this road was not used.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30. The 13th National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam was attended by 1,587
delegates from around the country, the largest number at any congress so far.
A. representatives B. watchers C. viewers D. audiences
Question 31. The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.
A. persuaded B. punished C. praised D. congratulated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32. I'll spend the weekends hitting the books as I have final exams next week.
A. studying in a serious way B. studying in a relaxing way
C. reviewing the books D. damaging the books
Question 33. Although it's a long day for us, we are all contented with what we do.
A. excited B. interested C. pleased D. dissatisfied

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
The Internet has truly transformed how students do their homework. (34)_______ homework today still
means spending time in the library, it's for a different reason. Rather than using books for research, students
today are connecting to the Internet to download enormous (35)_______ of data available online. In the past,
students were limited to their school's selection of books. In many cases, they got to the school library and
found out (36)_______ someone had already taken the books they needed. Nowadays, such inconvenience
can be avoided since the Internet never runs out of information. Students, however, do have to (37)_______
sure that the information they find online is true. Teachers have also benefited from the homework which is
done on the Internet. They do not need to carry students' papers around with them anymore. This is because
online (38)_______ allow students to electronically upload their homework for their teachers to read and mark.
Of course, this also means that students can no longer make the excuse that the dog ate their homework!
Question 34. A. Because B. While C. For D. But
Question 35. A. some B. amounts C. number D. much
Question 36. A. what B. whom C. that D. which
Question 37. A. come B. get C. make D. do
Question 38. A. structures B. sources C. materials D. systems

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions
Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has
one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of 18.
Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families
marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of
school and earn little money.
Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are
more likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows that
91% of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.
Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible
because the money they have to pay to the groom's family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010, the
legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the Nepalese
Country Code.
The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up
to 10,000 rupees (£102). But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot of
progress in Nepal over the past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and
civil society cooperation. The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing Nepal's
first national strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not Brides Nepal.
However, the post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow and the national
strategy has been delayed.

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(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. According to the law, if people have their parents' permission, they are allowed to marry at 18.
B. Nepalese families have a tendency to marry their daughters at a young age.
C. Parents who marry their children before the allowed age normally pay a fine.
D. The age of marriage in Nepal depends on the money the families have.
Question 40. The word "commitment" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _________.
A. expectation B. promise C. refusal D. hope
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ________.
A. can get married two years later than those are from poor families
B. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money
C. have to get married earlier than those are from rich families
D. play an important role in bolstering their household finances
Question 42. The word "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. families B. years C. rates D. girls
Question 43. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.
B. Child marriage - A completely solvable problem in Nepal.
C. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality.
D. Nepal's strategies to child protection programming.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 44. I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.
A. as B. imaginable C. fond of D. are
Question 45. My mother as well as her friends always go out together at the weekend.
A. at B. go C. friends D. as
Question 46. The examination will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read non-technical
language, and writing correctly.
A. correctly B. will test C. writing D. spoken

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 47. Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party."
Linda: "____________."
A. The meal was out of this world B. Of course not
C. My pleasure D. Never mention me
Question 48. Joana and David, two students, are talking about studying abroad.
Joana: "I think studying abroad is the only way to get a good job."
David: "_____________. There're still many different ways to get it."
A. There's no doubt about it B. I don't think so
C. That's what I think D. You're exactly right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49. A. arrive B. honest C. pursue D. suggest
Question 50. A. location B. cultural C. character D. sociable

--------- THE END ---------

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mamon made cautron dapan
TA12 101 1 B
TA12 101 2 A
TA12 101 3 A
TA12 101 4 B
TA12 101 5 B
TA12 101 6 C
TA12 101 7 A
TA12 101 8 B
TA12 101 9 D
TA12 101 10 A
TA12 101 11 B
TA12 101 12 B
TA12 101 13 A
TA12 101 14 B
TA12 101 15 C
TA12 101 16 C
TA12 101 17 A
TA12 101 18 C
TA12 101 19 B
TA12 101 20 A
TA12 101 21 C
TA12 101 22 A
TA12 101 23 D
TA12 101 24 A
TA12 101 25 D
TA12 101 26 C
TA12 101 27 D
TA12 101 28 D
TA12 101 29 C
TA12 101 30 A
TA12 101 31 B
TA12 101 32 B
TA12 101 33 D
TA12 101 34 B
TA12 101 35 B
TA12 101 36 C
TA12 101 37 C
TA12 101 38 D
TA12 101 39 C
TA12 101 40 B
TA12 101 41 C
TA12 101 42 D
TA12 101 43 A
TA12 101 44 B
TA12 101 45 B
TA12 101 46 C

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TA12 101 47 C
TA12 101 48 B
TA12 101 49 B
TA12 101 50 A

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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ KHẢO SÁT KIẾN THỨC CHUẨN BỊ CHO KỲ THI
TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 – LẦN 2
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 4 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

Mã đề thi: 101

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. repeat B. great C. teacher D. disease
Question 2: A. prepared B. survived C. assigned D. attended
Mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3: A. encourage B. automate C. classify D. recognize
Question 4: A. apply B. tailor C. artist D. human
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: By the 1990s, one result of deforestation were high numbers of endangered species.
A. of B. the C. were D. endangered
Question 6: Children who demonstrate outstanding talents come from all social, culture, and economic
groups.
A. talents B. culture C. who D. from
Question 7: Some gifted children gain early entry to kindergarten, skip grades, enter college earlier than
usual, or take specific courses with older children.
A. than B. entry C. or D. older
Mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: Hieu and his friend stayed up late to play computer games last night,________?
A. didn’t they B. did they C. did he D. didn’t he
Question 9: Could you ________ your name here, please?
A. signal B. signing C. sign D. signature
Question 10: Laura has never been very keen ________ football.
A. on B. from C. up D. with
Question 11: My father wants me _______ this work before midnight.
A. to finishing B. finishing C. to finish D. finish
Question 12: My colleague is ________ photographer; let’s ask her for advice about color film.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 13: Their classmates ________ here since they left high school three years ago.
A. have been B. was C. will be D. am
Question 14: Half of the children were away from school last month because of _________of Covid-19.
A. a break-up B. an outburst C. an outbreak D. a breakthrough
Question 15: It is essential that everyone ___________ what to do in case of fire.
A. know B. knows C. has known D. is knowing
Question 16: The play started ________.
A. when we arrive at the theater B. until we will arrive at the theater
C. as soon as we arrived at theater D. after we have arrived at the theater
Question 17: Don’t ________ to phone Mr. Alex, I’ve already talked to him.
A. worry B. concern C. bother D. mind
Question 18: I don’t believe a ________ of what he says.
A. word B. sentence C. phrase D. bit
Question 19: My expensive laptop was dead as ________ but it is working properly now.
A. a doornail B. a post C. a bell D. a cucumber
Question 20: ________ its popularity, the book was quickly sold out.
A. Because B. Because of C. However D. Although
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Question 21: From the ______expression on his mother’s face, Bob realized that he wouldn’t be able to
persuade her.
A. hasty B. tall C. firm D. weak
Question 22: If David speaks English more fluently, he ________ a better job in the future.
A. will have found B. would find C. would have found D. will find
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 23: - Teacher: “John, you’ve written a much better essay this time.”
- John: “_________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Writing, Why?
C. What did you say? I’m so shy. D. Thank you. It’s really encouraging.
Question 24: - Thiago: “Shall we go boating tomorrow?”
- Marinda: “______. The weather report says a storm is coming”.
A. That’s a deal B. I’m afraid we can’t
C. Sure D. That’s a good idea
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. modest B. perfect C. famous D. skillful
Question 26: Sorry! I’m feeling a bit under the weather today. I am thinking I’m getting a cold.
A. happy B. curious C. wealthy D. sick
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: He sometimes gets into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.
A. stays safe B. keeps calm C. falls into disuse D. gets into trouble
Question 28: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. natural B. real C. true D. genuine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 29: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind.
B. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
C. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
D. You should persuade him to change his mind.
Question 30: “No! No! I didn’t use your computer!” Albert said.
A. He suggested having used my computer. B. Albert denied having used my computer.
C. He regretted having used my computer. D. He admitted having used my computer.
Question 31: People say he won a lot of money on the lottery.
A. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is said.
B. He was said to win a lot of money on the lottery.
C. He is said that he won a lot of money on the lottery.
D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: There is so much rain in March in the north part of the country. It is not common.
A. Seldom is there so much rain in March in the north part of the country.
B. Seldom there is so much rain in March in the north part of the country.
C. Seldom it is rain so much in March in the north part of the country.
D. It is common to be rain so much in March in the north part of the country.
Question 33: The government has little money. It can’t deal with many social problems.
A. The government has little money, so it can’t deal with many social problems.
B. The government has little money because it can’t deal many social problems.
C. The government has little money so that it can’t deal with many social problems.
D. The government has little money, but it can deal with many social problems.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Tidal energy is a renewable source of energy. During the 20th century, engineers developed ways to
use tidal movement to (34)______ electricity in areas where there is a significant tidal range—the difference
in area between high tide and low tide.
Tidal energy production is still in its infancy. The amount of power produced so far has been small.
There are very (35)______ commercial-sized tidal power plants operating in the world. The first was located
in La Rance, France. The largest facility is the Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station in South Korea. The United
States has no tidal plants and only a few sites (36)______ tidal energy could be produced at a reasonable
price.
In the United States, there are legal concerns about underwater land ownership and environmental
impact. Investors are not enthusiastic about tidal energy (37)______ there is not a strong guarantee that it will
make money or benefit consumers. Engineers are working to improve the technology of tidal energy
generators to increase the amount of energy they produce, to decrease their (38)______ on the environment,
and to find a way to earn a profit for energy companies.
Question 34: A. bring B. make C. build D. generate
Question 35: A. less B. much C. few D. little
Question 36: A. what B. whom C. which D. where
Question 37: A. although B. however C. when D. because
Question 38: A. compliment B. initiative C. part D. impact
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs focus on keeping people healthy. Health
promotion programs aim to engage and empower individuals and communities to choose healthy behaviours
and make changes that reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases and other morbidities. Defined by the
World Health Organization, health promotion is: “The process of enabling people to increase control over,
and to improve, their health. It moves beyond a focus on individual behaviour towards a wide range of social
and environmental interventions.”
Disease prevention differs from health promotion because it focuses on specific efforts aimed at
reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases and other morbidities. Wellness is related to health
promotion and disease prevention. Wellness is described as the attitudes and active decisions made by an
individual that contribute to positive health behaviours and outcomes. Health promotion and disease
prevention programs often address social determinants of health, which influence modifiable risk behaviours.
Social determinants of health are the economic, social, cultural, and political conditions in which people are
born, grow, and live that affect health status. Modifiable risk behaviours include, for example, tobacco use,
poor eating habits, and lack of physical activity, which contribute to the development of chronic disease.
(Adapted from https://www.ruralhealthinfo.org/)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Understanding Health Promotion
B. Defining Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
C. Social Determinants of Health
D. What do you know about disease prevention?
Question 40: The word “empower” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. pursue B. insist C. affect D. allow
Question 41: What does disease prevention focus on?
A. Positive health behaviours and outcomes
B. Attitudes and active decisions made by an individual
C. Specific efforts reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases
D. Wide range of social and environmental interventions
Question 42: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. outcomes B. health behaviours
C. attitudes and active decisions D. wellness
Question 43: According to the last paragraph, modifiable risk behaviours contribute to the development of
______.
A. physical activity B. eating habits C. chronic disease D. tobacco use

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
In the study of 15 countries, including the US, UK, Japan, India, Brazil, Argentina, Belgium, Finland,
France, Germany, Hungary, Italy, the Netherlands, Spain and Sweden, it was discovered that 41 percent of
"highly mobile" employees (those who more often worked from home) considered themselves highly stressed
as well, compared to only 25 percent of those who worked only on-site.
This news may come as a shock to many people who may consider a work-from-home lifestyle to be
one that's less stressful and marked with more personal freedom. Part of this stress experienced by those
highly mobile workers may be due to the fact that those who work from home face a host of challenges that
are unique to this particular setup. It is true that most people love the flexibility that comes with working
from home: getting up and going to sleep at times that are dictated more by one's personal body clock and
tastes can be wonderfully liberating. It can also get out of hand and feel stressful, however, to be free from
the structure that once felt confining.
Likewise with the freedom from dealing with obnoxious co-workers. While most people may enjoy
having the freedom to choose who they interact with each day and love to avoid listening to office gossip,
complaints, and politics, they may be surprised by the isolation they feel when their interactions aren't
automatic and they need to put in an effort to see anyone at all.
Many of these factors may balance each other out stress-wise, but the recent UN study suggests that
the increased reliance on mobile devices may push the work-from-home crowd over the edge into higher-
stress territory. These experiences may come as a surprise to someone who is new to working at home, but
they are commonly experienced. They are also common sources of stress. There must be more on these and
other widespread sources of stress for those who live where they work, have zero commute time, and may not
realize that they are not alone in the surprising sources of stress they face.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellmind.com/)
Question 44: Which of the followings best serves as the title of the article?
A. The Study of Workers in the 15 Countries
B. Job and One's Personal Body Clock and Tastes
C. The Recent UN Study of Co-workers in Offices
D. Research on Stress and Working from Home
Question 45: According to the passage, what may give those who work from home a shock?
A. On-site work may be more challenging due to its particular setup.
B. It’s more stressful to work from home than to work on-site.
C. 41 percent of people working from home feel disappointed at their work.
D. Working from home is 25 percent more effective than working on-site.
Question 46: The word “liberating” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. free B. emotional C. solid D. hateful
Question 47: Which of the followings is NOT true about working from home?
A. Working from home has its own particular challenges.
B. Many people like working from home since it gives more freedom.
C. It’s quite easy for those who work from home to see others and interact with them.
D. Flexibility at home can make people stressed.
Question 48: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. complaints B. most people C. interactions D. co-workers
Question 49: The word “reliance” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. impression B. dependence C. efficiency D. curiosity
Question 50: What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. There are many sources of stress for those who work from home.
B. Working from home may give you more experience.
C. People will no longer feel lonely when working at home.
D. It’s common to have surprising promotions thanks to working at home.
----------- HẾT ----------
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm

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BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN CÁC MÃ ĐỀ MÔN
TIẾNG ANH
TT 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124
1 B B D D D D A B D B D B C C B B A A A D B A D B
2 D B A D B C D A B C A B A B D A D D A B B C A D
3 A A D A B D D D B A B C C C B C B C A B B B B B
4 A A D A A D D B A A C A D D A D B A D C C C B B
5 C C B A C A D C D D C A B D A A A A C C C D D B
6 B A B B B B C B D D D C D B D D C B C C C D C A
7 B D C B A D B C C D D B B D B C B A D D B C A D
8 A C A C C C B A D C A C B A D B A B B D C D D C
9 C A D C A D D A A B A C B B C D D B B A B D C C
10 A A D A A C B A A D B D A A A C A D B B A C A C
11 C B C C D B A D A A C C B C A C D D A D C B C C
12 B C A B C A B A A C A C C B D D C A B D A A C C
13 A D C A B B A B D C C D D C D B C D A D B A C A
14 C C C C B A C C D D D C A D A B D B A C C A D D
15 A A B C C A C C D D D D D A C A B C A B C B C B
16 C C A C A C D B C B A D D D A B D A B B C A D A
17 C A D A D A C B B A C C C A C A C A A C A D C A
18 A D B A B D B B A C B B A A B A C A D B D A D C
19 A B A A D C A A A D B A C D D D C C A D B C D A
20 B B A B C D A B C A D D A C C C A C B D A B C A
21 C B B C A C B C A A C B D A C B D D B B D C D A
22 D B A D C A D A A B A A D A B C A C C C B D A D
23 D C C B B A D D B B B D D D C C A A C A D B D D
24 B B C B C C C B B A D D B B B A B A C A A C B C
25 D D D A B A D D B A B C C C A A D C D A A A A A
26 D D A D D B B C C D A D A C C D D B B D A A C D
27 A A C A B B C D D C A A C A C B B A C A C B D D
28 A C A D A B B C C B A A A C D B A A D D D B B C
29 B A C B D A C D D C D C C B B D D D C B A A D B
30 B A A B B A C C C B C A D A A D A D D A A D A D
31 D D D D C C B B D B B B B D B A D D D B D B D C
32 A D C A D C C D B A A A B C D D B C D C D D B B
33 A A A A A C A C B D A B A C C C C A D C D C B B
34 D C B D C C A C C A D A C B B B C B D A D B A D
35 C D D C C B A D B D C B B B C A A A C D D A A C
36 D B D D D D C A C A B B B A A C A C A A C B D C
37 D B B D A A B A C A C B A C D A B D A A A C A A
38 D D B D A D A A D C C A A D A D C C A B B A A D
39 B D A B A A C C C C B C A B B D B B B D D A D D
40 D C D D C B B A D B C D B D A C D B A A D D B A
41 C A D C D B C D B B D C D D B B C C C B A C A C
42 C C B C D A A A B C A D A D C C A B C C B B B C
43 C B C C D C D A B C B B C D B A B D D B B B B B
44 D D B D C B A D A B B D D C D C C B B C A A C A
45 B A A B B D D C C D D B D A C D D C C B C A B A
46 A C C A B B B D A B A D C D A B A B C C D D C C
47 C B A C A D A B C D D B C B D D A C A B C D B B
48 B D B B A B A A B B A A C B C B C D B A B C C B
49 B A C B D D A D B B B A C B C D B B B A A D B D
50 A C B A A A D B A C C D B A D A B D D C A C A B

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SỞ GD – ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LẦN 2
TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH SỐ 1 NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
Môn: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mã đề thi 101
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A well-known fast food chain recently published a full-page advertisement announcing that they were … (1)… a
new item to their menu – a 'Left-Handed Burger', created specifically for their left-handed customers. … (2)… to
the advertisement, the dimensions of the new burger were identical to those of the original burger, as were the
ingredients. The difference was that the ingredients had been rotated by 180 degrees to … (3)… left-handed
people to handle the burger without difficulty.
The following day, April 2nd, the fast food store confessed that the story had been … (4)… as an April Fool's
trick and the left-handed burger didn't exist. Nevertheless, restaurants reported that they had been visited by
several thousand customers requesting the new burger. Simultaneously, there were many other concerned
customers who insist that staff served them … (5)… their own right-handed version. It just goes to show how
readily people can be deceived, even on April Fool’s Day.
1. A. introduced B. introducing C. introduce D. to introduce
2. A. Besides B. Additionally C. Next D. According
3. A. enlist B. endure C. enable D. enrich
4. A. figured B. done C. invented D. made
5. A. in B. on C. with D. out
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
6. Peter: “This shirt is much more expensive than it should be. I could have bought it with half the price.”
Mike: “_______!”
A. The cheese B. Hard cheese C. Real cheese D. Big cheese
7. Son: “Why don’t we buy a new car, Dad? This one is too old to go out with my friends.”
Dad: “_______. We don’t have much money.”
A. You’re right. B. I have to think it up.
C. It’s out of the question now. D. That’s a great idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
8. A. incredible B. penalty C. expedition D. determine
9. A. hires B. leaves C. brings D. coughs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water. Hunters and nomads camped near natural
sources of fresh water, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not a serious
problem. After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban centers, the problem of
supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city and irrigation of the farms surrounding. Irrigation
works were known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt constructed
systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling floods and
providing irrigation water throughout the dry season. Such irrigation canals also supplied water for domestic
purposes. The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the ancient Romans, who
constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the Apennine Mountains into the city and
built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the water. The construction of such extensive
systems declined when the Roman Empire disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and wells formed
the main source of domestic and industrial water.

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The invention of the force pump in England in the middle of the 16th century greatly extended the possibilities of
development of water-supply systems. In London, the first pumping waterworks was completed in 1562; it
pumped river water to a reservoir about 37m above the level of the River Thames and from the reservoir the
water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to buildings in the vicinity. Increased per-capita demand has
coincided with water shortages in many countries. Southeast England, for example, receives only 14 per cent of
Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and has experienced declining winter rainfall since the 1980s.
In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh water to provide
drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East. Several different processes, including distillation,
electro-dialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have been developed for this purpose. Some of
these processes have been used in large facilities in the United States. Although these processes are successful,
the cost of treating seawater is much higher than that for treating fresh water.
10. The word “disintegrated” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to ______.
A. thrived B. failed C. distorted D. emerged
11. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. the results of water shortages B. the fresh water shortage
C. the development of water supply D. the water pumping system
12. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about London’s water supply in the middle
of the 16th century?
A. It was facilitated since the advent of the force pump.
B. It was conducted through canals.
C. It circulated throughout the buildings.
D. It contributed to the River Thames’ flow considerably.
13. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of conversing seawater to freshwater?
A. purification method B. dissolving chemicals
C. water evaporation D. streaming and cooling
14. The word “impound” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to ______.
A. supply B. provide C. drain D. mix
15. Early peoples didn’t need water-supply engineering works because ______.
A. they had good ways to irrigate their farms
B. their community life had already developed
C. there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times
D. natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available
16. The word “that” in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. the United State B. treating seawater C. this purpose D. the cost
17. Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by ______.
A. the Egyptians B. the US people
C. the ancient Romans D. the English people
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
18. Flats which are both comfortable and reasonably priced are few and far between in the current context of
economic crisis.
A. non–standard B. non–existent C. uncommon D. unusual
19. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition – he made up that part of the story.
A. unfolded B. narrated C. recounted D. invented
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
It is not surprising that the birthplace of cola was the hot and humid American South. This region had long
specialized in creating delicious soft drinks. A druggist in Atlanta, Georgia named John Pemberton created the
most well–known drink brand in the world in the 1880s. However, it seems clear that he had no idea how big it
would become.
Like many American pharmacists of the day, Pemberton was opposed to the drinking of alcohol and wanted to
produce a stimulating soft drink. First, he made "the French Wine of Coca," made from the coca leaf. Then he
began to experiment with the cola nut. Eventually, he managed to make a combination of the two that he thought
was sweet, but not too sweet. Deciding that "the two C's would look well in advertising," he named it Coca–Cola.
Pemberton's invention caught on fairly quickly. By 1905, "Coke" was being advertised all over the country as
"The Great Natural Temperance Drink." The drink enjoyed additional success since there was a large and popular

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temperance movement in the US at that time. In the 1920s, alcohol was outlawed, and sales of Coke rose
significantly. However, they continued to rise even after the law was repeated.
Another reason for Coke's popularity was good business sense. A year after he invented it, Pemberton had sold
Coca–Cola to Asa Griggs Candler for only $283.26! Candler was a marketing genius, and by the time he sold the
Coca–Cola Company in1919, it was worth $25 million.
20. Which of the following would be the best title for the reading?
A. Cola is the World’s Most Popular Soft Drink
B. The Invention and History of Coca–Cola
C. John Pemberton created Coca–Cola.
D. The Temperance Movement and Coke’s success
21. In paragraph 3, the word “outlawed” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. made illegal B. made legal C. taken to court D. allowed
22. All of the followings are true of Pemberton EXCEPT that _______.
A. he combined the coca leaf and cola nut to make “French wine”
B. he made “French wine of Coca” from the cola nut
C. he made “French wine of Coca” from the coca leaf
D. he produced stimulating alcohol from coca leaves and cola nuts
23. In paragraph 3, the word “caught on” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. became successful B. became popular
C. became important D. became legal
24. Which of the following is responsible for Coke’s additional success?
A. Its attracting name B. Pemberton’s good business sense
C. The temperance movement D. Coca–Cola’s great taste
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
25. It is the job interview that you should be prepared to mention a salary range.
A. to mention B. salary range C. the job interview D. should be
26. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a profusion of vivid
colors.
A. fan out B. its C. most exotic D. among
27. Physics and mental exercise has been found to be beneficial to our brains, but scientists have now found it
could also improve the learning ability of our children.
A. it B. Physics C. learning ability D. has been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
28. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is an important competition in international football. Almost everyone around the
world is looking forward to it.
A. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is too important a competition in international football that almost everyone
around the world to look forward to it.
B. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is such important competition in international football that almost everyone around
the world is looking forward to it.
C. So important is the 2022 FIFA World Cup competition in international football that almost everyone around
the world is looking forward to.
D. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is so important a competition in international football that almost everyone around
the world is looking forward to it.
29. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
B. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
30. It was a kind of accident. Nobody was really to blame for it.
A. It was a kind of accident for whom was really to blame it.
B. It was a kind of accident for which nobody was really to blame it.
C. It was a kind of accident, which nobody was really to blame for.
D. It was a kind of accident for which nobody was really to blame.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
31. No one without a good knowledge of English has much chance of succeeding in international finance.
A. If you want to go into international finance, it would be a good idea to learn English.
B. Ability in English is almost essential to success in the field of global finance.
C. Even an exceptional knowledge of English is not enough to assure success in international finance.
D. Without a good knowledge of English and international finance, you are a nobody.
32. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.
B. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.
C. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.
D. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
33. A. wilderness B. compliment C. commitment D. optimism
34. A. confide B. require C. eject D. swallow
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
35. _______ of the tennis players served well in the singles final.
A. Any B. Neither C. Either D. None
36. What will happen when the world _______ oil?
A. runs out of B. loses out on C. goes through with D. makes off with
37. I would suggest _______ to your doctor before you diet.
A. to speak B. that you speaking C. you to speak D. you speak
38. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than_______ of our competitor.
A. that B. those C. this D. their
39. Susan will graduate in June _______ she submits her dissertation on time.
A. provided B. supposing C. unless D. otherwise
40. Why are you always so jealous _______ other people?
A. in B. on C. of D. below
41. The world work is developing very quickly. If you don’t self-learn continuously, we will not_______ social
movements.
A. put up with B. deal with C. keep up with D. get on with
42. Jane is a sympathetic listener. She lent me a(n) _______ when I lost my job.
A. mind B. ear C. mouth D. eye
43. Our firm is so successful because it is at the cutting _______ of computer technology.
A. limit B. verge C. fringe D. edge
44. The eyewitness said that she had seen _______ the scene of the crime.
A. a tall man to leave B. leaving a tall man
C. a tall man leaving D. leave a tall man
45. If you are interested in applying for the vacancy, send in your _______.
A. notice B. résumé C. paperback D. mortgage
46. It was an amazing victory as it was only the second time _______ in a marathon.
A. for her to compete B. of competing C. she competes D. she had competed
47. The doctor advised_______ late.
A. not to stay up B. me not to stay up C. me not staying up D. me not stay up
48. _______ advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.
A. Had he been B. Unless he had been C. If he had D. Were he to be
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
49. They haven’t reached agreement on the official songs of the 27th Sea Games.
A. approved B. informal C. formal D. uncertified
50. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. fond of B. relaxed about C. free from D. busy with

.......................Hết......................

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Cau 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ma de
101 B D C C C B C D D B C A B C D D C C D B
102 B D A A D D C A B B A A B D A A C C D A
103 D D B B C A D D C B A B B D C D B C A C
104 B C A D D C C C D A B D D A D C D D A D
105 A C A B A D C B D C B A C A D D D A A A
106 B B B B D C C B D B B D A D D A C B B A

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21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A D B C C B B D A D B C C D B A D A A C C B D
C C D C A D A C A C C A B D B B D B A D C A D
A A B C A B B A A C D B A B A A D A A C D D C
A C C B D A A D D C B D A A C D B A B B C B D
A C C C A A D B D D B A D D C C C B A D C B C
B C B A A D A C B B A A B B C D B D C B B B D

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44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B D D A D C
A D A C D C A
C A C B B B B
A A D D B C A
A C C B D C C
B D C C A C D

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TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THI THPT QUỐC GIA
LẦN 3 - NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÃ ĐỀ 304 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 05 trang)

Họ tên học sinh…………………………………..…….…………………………………………………..


SBD……………………Phòng ……………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1. She didn’t deserve to get fired after working so hard, ________________?
A. doesn’t she B. did she C. won’t she D. is she
th th
Question 2. On 5 April, 2021, Mr. Pham Minh Chinh_____ as the 8 Prime Minister of Viet Nam.
A. elected B. was electing C. was elected D. elects
Question 3. Many wild animals are ________ threat ________ extinction.
A. at - of B. on - with C. under - of D. in - with
Question 4. The more time he spends with his children, _________he is.
A. the more happy B. happier C. more happy D. the happier
Question 5. They cook a ________________ meal for their children.
A. delicious traditional Vietnamese B. Vietnamese delicious traditional
C. traditional delicious Vietnamese D. delicious Vietnamese traditional
Question 6. _________ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. In spite of B. Even though C. Because of D. Because
Question 7. He came when I ________________ the film “Man from the star”.
A. has watched B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 8. He will have moved to England _______________.
A. until we finished the project B. by the time we finish the project
C. before we will finish the project D. when we had finished the project
Question 9. University students________in linguistics may take courses including phonetics, semantics,
and pragmatics.
A. major B. to major C. majored D. majoring
Question 10. Sports can be an effective way to foster blood circulation, burn extra fat as well as improve
our stamina and__________.
A. flexible B. flexile C. flexibility D. flextime
Question 11. Some high school students often ____________helping the disadvantaged or
handicapped children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 12. TV companies___________their programmes across the country or even across the world.
A. broadcast B. refresh C. connect D. publish
Question 13. _______________ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 14. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he ________ to the
occasion wonderfully.
A. rose B. raised C. fell D. faced
Question 15. She will have to ______________ if she wants to pass the final exam.
A. pull up her socks B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 16. Mother Teresa devoted herself to caring for the sick and the poor.
A. spent B. contributed C. gave up D. dedicated
Question 17. Everyone agreed with Janice’s point that the accounts could have been falsified.
A. forged B. innovated C. revealed D. improvised

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Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. agreed B. intended C. managed D. revealed
Question 19. A. prepare B. expert C. select D. effect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. prefer B. produce C. practice D. provide
Question 21. A. sufficient B. approachable C. educate D. production

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. In the early 21st century, with the explosion of mobile communication technology, the
mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique channel.
A. disappearance B. destruction C. exploitation D. exploration
Question 23. Her career ground to a halt when the twins were born.
A. stopped suddenly B. was interrupted C. made her tired D. developed quickly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24. Ella is asking Eric about self-study.
- Ella: “Do you think people with self-education can succeed nowadays?”
- Eric: “_______ because they tend to be very independent and self-disciplined.”
A. I’m not so sure about that B. That’s what I was thinking
C. It’s out of the question D. I don’t think it’s right
Question 25. Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.
- Huy: “What do you think about the book?”
- Mai: “____________________________”
A. Yes, let’s read it together. B. The best I’ve ever read!
C. I can’t agree with you more. D. I wish I could buy one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California,
(26) ________ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with
her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She
returned to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant
and as a corporate freelance writer. (27) ________ 1985, she wrote the “Rules of the Game” for a writing
workshop, which laid the early foundation for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the
book explored the (28) ________ between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and
became the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received
numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages,
including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for (29) ________ Tan co-wrote the
screenplay. Tan’s (30) ________ works have also been adapted into several different forms of media.

Question 26. A. however B. moreover C. so D. but


Question 27. A. Until B. Before C. Since D. In
Question 28. A. association B. correspondence C. relationship D. solidarity
Question 29. A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 30. A. another B. other C. the other D. others

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
People in the UK enjoy fewer years of good health before they die than the citizens of most
comparable European countries as well as Australia and Canada, a major report shows. While life
expectancy has improved by 4.2 years in the UK over the two decades, other countries have improved
faster. In 2010, Spain topped the league. Its people could expect 70.9 years of healthy life - before disease
and disability began to take a toll. Second came Italy, with 70.2 years and third was Australia, on 70.1
years. In the UK, we can expect 68.6 healthy years of life. Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its
global counterparts and called for action by local health commissioners to tackle the five big killers -
cancer, heart disease, stroke, respiratory and liver diseases. Drinking and drug use have been the main
issues behind the worsening of the UK's ranking in early deaths among adults aged 20-54. In 2010, drugs
were the sixth leading cause of death in this age group and alcohol was 18th - up from 32nd and 43rd place
respectively 20 years earlier.
Hunt will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which he says could
save 30,000 lives a year. “Despite real progress in cutting deaths, we remain a poor relative to our global
cousins on many measures of health, something I want to change,” he said. “For too long we have been
lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this challenge and turn this shocking
underperformance around." However, the problem is only in part to do with hospital care - much of it is
about the way we live. Our diet, our drinking and continuing smoking habits all play a part, which assumes
its responsibilities on 1 April.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 31. The best title for this passage could be _____________.
A. Life expectancy in the UK in comparison with other countries
B. The causes of early deaths in the UK
C. Life expectancy in the UK and its efforts to solve health problems
D. Five big killers in the UK
Question 32. The word "cardiovascular" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by_______.
A. respiratory B. digestive C. skeletal D. cardiac
Question 33. According to the passage, what is NOT the cause of death in the UK?
A. drug B. alcohol C. drinking D. food
Question 34. According to the passage, Hunt is showing his attempt to _______
A. lower death rates B. better the health system in the UK
C. take up more challenge D. change people’s diet
Question 35. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _______?
A. challenge B. diet C. problem D. disease

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
If you could travel back in time five centuries, you'd encounter a thriving Aztec empire in Central
Mexico, a freshly painted "Mona Lisa" in Renaissance Europe and cooler temperatures across the
Northern Hemisphere. This was a world in the midst of the Little Ice Age (A.D. 1300 to 1850) and a period
of vast European exploration now known as the Age of Discovery. But what if we could look 500 years
into the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would the world seem as different to us as the
21st century would have seemed to residents of the 16th century? For starters, what will the weather be
like?
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot. Some
solar output models suggest that by the 2500s, Earth's climate will have cooled back down to near Little
Ice Age conditions. Other studies predict that ongoing climate change and fossil fuel use will render much
of the planet too hot for human life by 2300.
Some experts date the beginning of human climate change back to the Industrial Revolution in the
1800s, others to slash-and-burn agricultural practices in prehistoric times. Either way, tool-wielding
humans alter their environment - and our 26th century tools might be quite impressive indeed.
Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will
make the leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words,
we’ll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power, 26th

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century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power. Furthermore,
they will be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate. Physicist Freeman
Dyson, on the other hand, estimates the leap to a type 1 civilization would occur within roughly 200 years.
Technology has improved exponentially since the 1500s, and this pace will likely continue in the centuries
to come. Physicist Stephen Hawking proposes that by the year 2600, this growth would see 10 new
theoretical physics papers published every 10 seconds. If Moore’s Law holds true and both computer
speed and complexity double every 18 months, then some of these studies may be the work of highly
intelligent machines.
What other technologies will shape the world of the 26th century? Futurist and author Adrian Berry
believes the average human life span will reach 140 years and that the digital storage of human
personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans will farm the oceans, travel in
starships and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots explore the outer cosmos.
(Source: https://science.howstuffworks.com/)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. How would the world change in the next 500 years?
B. What would we do in the next five centuries?
C. What problems would happen in the 26th century?
D. How would technology improve the life in the far future?
Question 37. The word "infernally” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. differently B. extremely
C. permanently D. contemporaneously
Question 38. The word "harness" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by
A. renew B. adjust C. exploit D. discover
Question 39. What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fusion and solar energy B. clean energy technologies
C. masters D. 26th century humans
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE about the future predictions?
A. Michio Kaku believes that the progress from type 0 to type I civilization will take about two
centuries.
B. People in the 2500s are likely to control the energy of the Earth to limit the global climate.
C. The speed of technology improvement will remain changeable in the far future.
D. Solar energy will be the main power for the 26th century citizens.
Question 41. According to Adrian Berry the following are what future humans can do,
EXCEPT__________.
A. cultivating in the oceans B. traveling between the stars
C. exploring the universe by robots D. living as long as they want
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that__________
A. no one could be sure what the life would be like in the 2500s.
B. what we imagine about the life in the 26th century may be the same what the 16th- century people
thought about the current life.
C. the predictions of different scientists may draw the same world in the next 500 years.
D. technology will affect most of the fields in the future life.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43. To everyone’s surprising, it wasn’t in Da Nang City that he made his fortune, although
that’s where he was born.
A. To B. that C. made D. surprising
Question 44. For many years, people have used some kinds of refrigerator cooling beverages and
preserve edibles.
A. have used B. edibles C. kinds D. cooling
Question 45. The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when
we had a party yesterday.
A. his wife B. were C. when D. at

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Friendly though she may seem, she’s not to be trusted.
A. However friendly she seems, she’s not to be trusted.
B. She’s too friendly to be trusted.
C. However she seems friendly, she’s not to be trusted.
D. She may have friends, but she’s not to be trusted.
Question 47. “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
B. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
C. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
D. Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.
Question 48. The last time I saw David was when I went to my friend’s birthday party.
A. I haven’t seen David since my friend’s birthday party.
B. When I last went to my friend’s birthday party, I met David.
C. It’s long time ago when I last saw David at my friend’s birthday party.
D. I finally saw David when I was going to my friend’s birthday party.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Mary was not here yesterday. Perhaps she was ill.
A. Mary needn’t be here yesterday because she was ill.
B. Because of her illness, Mary shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. Mary might have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
D. Mary must have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.
Question 50. I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn't visit you.
A. If I knew that you were at home, I would visit you.
B. If I had known that you were at home, I would have visited you.
C. If I knew that you had been at home, I would have visited you.
D. If I would know that you were at home, I visited you.

--------------HẾT-------------
Lưu ý: - Kết quả được đăng tải trên trang
Web: quangxuong1.edu.vn vào ngày 22/04/2021
- Lịch giao lưu lần 4 ngày 13/6/2021

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TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM CHI TIẾT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THPT-LẦN 3
NĂM HỌC 2020- 2021
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
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Câu Đáp án Giải thích chi tiết đáp án
1 B Kiến thức về câu hỏi láy đuôi.
2 C Kiến thức về cấu trúc câu bị động thì QKĐ: S + was/were + Vpp
Tạm dịch: Vào ngày 5/4/2021, Ông Phạm Minh Chính đã được bầu làm thủ tướng đời thứ 8 của
Việt Nam.
3 C Kiến thức về cụm giới từ: under threat of (đang có nguy cơ)
4 D Kiến thức về cấp so sánh kép: Càng………………………, Càng……………………
The + adj/adv (ở cấp so sánh hơn)………….., The + adj/adv (ở cấp so sánh hơn)…………..
happy là tính từ ngắn -> ở cấp so sánh hơn là happier
Tạm dịch: Anh ấy càng dành nhiều thời gian cho con cái hơn, anh ấy càng cảm thấy vui hơn.
5 A Kiến thức về trật tụ của tính từ trước danh từ:
Ta có trật tự tính từ OSASCOMP, ở đây theo trật tự:
O - quan điểm (delicious - ngon), A - tuổi tác (traditional - truyền thống, lâu đời), O - nguồn gốc
(Vietnamese – thuộc về Việt Nam).
6 A Kiến thức về liên từ:
A. In spite of + danh từ/cụm danh từ: dù cho, mặc dù
B. Even though + mệnh đề: dù cho, mặc dù
C. Because of + danh từ/cụm danh từ: bởi vì, do
D. Because + mệnh đề: bởi vì, do
Tạm dịch: Mặc dù tiếng Anh kém, anh đã giải quyết rất nhiều vấn đề của mình một cách rõ ràng.
7 C
Kiến thức về kết hợp thì: QKĐ với QKTD

8 B Kiến thức về MĐ trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian:


By the time + MĐ (htđ/htht), MĐ (tlht)
Tạm dịch: Anh ấy sẽ đã chuyển tới Anh trước khi chúng tôi kết thúc dự án.
9 D Kiến thức về mệnh đề quan hệ rút gọn mang ý nghĩa chủ động:
Giải thích:
Mệnh đề đầy đủ sẽ là who major in .... Vì mệnh đề mang nghĩa chủ động nên ta dùng Ving để tạo
thành cụm tính từ rút gọn. Mệnh đề này có thể được rút gọn thành cụm tính từ majoring in ... (bỏ
đại từ quan hệ who).
Dịch nghĩa: Sinh viên học chuyên ngành ngôn ngữ học có thể đăng kí các khóa học như ngữ âm,
ngữ nghĩa và ngữ dụng học.
10 C Kiến thức về từ loại:
A. flexible /ˈfleksəbl/ (a): linh hoạt, dễ uốn nắn
B. flexile /'fleksil/ (a): linh hoạt
C. flexibility /ˌfleksəˈbɪləti/ (n): sự linh hoạt
D. flexitime /ˈfleksitaɪm/ (n): thời gian làm việc linh hoạt
Tạm dịch: Thể thao là cách hiệu quả để tăng cường sự tuần hoàn máu, đốt cháy chất béo, cải thiện
sức chịu đựng và sự linh hoạt của chúng ta.
11 D Kiến thức về cụm động từ:
A. chăm sóc
B. dọn dẹp
C. hiểu/nhận thấy rõ được
D. tham gia vào
12 A Kiến thức về từ vựng:
A. broadcast /ˈbrɔːdkɑːst/ (y): phát song B. refresh /rɪˈfreʃ/ (y): làm tươi mới

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C. connect /kə'nekt/ (v): kết nối D. publish /ˈpʌblɪʃ/ (v): xuất bản
Tạm dịch: Những công ty Truyền hình phát sóng chương trình của họ khắp quốc gia và thậm chí là
khắp thế giới.
13 B Kiến thức về từ vựng:
A. vui vẻ, vô tư
B. cùng một khuynh hướng, cùng một mục đích, có ý kiến giống nhau; giống tính nhau
C. công bằng, vô tư
D. Có tư tưởng phóng khoáng
Tạm dịch: những người có cùng suy nghĩ thường có cùng sở thích hoặc quan điểm.
14 A Kiến thức về cụm từ cố định:
rise to the occasion: tỏ ra có khả năng đối phó với tình thế khó khăn bất ngờ
Tạm dịch: Anh họ tôi lo lắng về việc phỏng vấn trên ti vi, nhưng anh ấy đã ứng phó rất tốt.
15 A Kiến thức về thành ngữ:
A. Khuyến khích ai đó cần cố gắng hơn nữa để đạt đến những thành công; phải cải thiện
cách cư xử hay cách làm một việc gì đó.
Tạm dịch: Bạn sẽ phải cố gắng nhiều nếu bạn muốn vượt qua kì thi.
Các cụm từ còn lại:
B. đạt được kết quả rất tốt, tạo kết quả kỳ diệu.
C. chịu khó làm việc gì/không ngại khó khăn để làm việc gì
D. luyện tập một kĩ năng đủ để bạn không mất kĩ năng đó.
16 D Kiến thức về từ đồng nghĩa:
Tạm dịch: Mẹ Teresa đã cống hiến bản thân cho việc chăm sóc cho người ốm và người nghèo.
→ devoted /di'vautid/(a): cống hiến, tận tụy
Xét các đáp án:
A. spent /spent/ (v): dành ra
B. contributed /kənˈtrɪbjuːt/ (v): đóng góp
C. gave up: từ bỏ
D. dedicated /ˈdedɪkeɪtɪd/ (a): tận tụy, tận tâm
17 A Kiến thức về từ đồng nghĩa:
Giải thích: Everyone agreed with Janice’s point that the accounts could have been falsified
(Mọi người đều đồng ý với ý kiến của Janice rằng các sổ sách có thể đã bị làm sai lệch.)
A. forged (p.p.): bị làm giả B. innovated (p.p.): được cải tiến
C. revealed (p.p.): bị tiết lộ D. improvised (p.p.): được ứng biến
18 B Kiến thức về phát âm đuôi “ed”: /id/ # /d/
19 A Kiến thức về phát âm nguyên âm “e”: /i/# /e/
20 C Kiến thức về trọng âm của từ có 2 âm tiết: 1st # 2nd
21 C Kiến thức về trọng âm của từ có 3 âm tiết trở lên: 1st # 2nd
22 A Kiến thức về từ ngược nghĩa:
Tạm dịch: Đầu thế kỷ 21, với sự bùng nổ của công nghệ truyền thông di động, điện thoại di động
đã nổi lên như một kênh mới và độc đáo.
Xét các đáp án:
A. disappearance /ˌdɪsəˈpɪərəns/ (n): sự biến mất
B. destruction /dɪˈstrʌkʃn/ (n): sự phá hủy
C. exploitation /ˌeksplɔɪˈteɪʃn/ (n): sự khai thác
D. exploration /ˌekspləˈreɪʃn/ (n): sự thám hiểm
→ explosion /ɪkˈspləʊʒn/ (n): sự bùng nổ <> disappearance (n)
23 D Kiến thức về cụm từ ngược nghĩa:
Tạm dịch: sự nghiệp của cô ta dần dần bị dừng lại khi cô ấy sinh đôi.
A. Dừng lại đột ngột
B. Bị gián đoạn
C. Làm cho cô ấy mệt mỏi
D. Phát triển nhanh chóng
→ground to a halt >< developed quickly
24 B Kiến thức về giao tiếp văn hóa:
Giải thích: Cuộc hội thoại thuộc chủ đề đưa ra ý kiến cá nhân.

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Dịch nghĩa 4 phương án:
A. Tôi không chắc lắm về điều đó B. Đó là những gì tôi đang nghĩ
C. Nó là điều không thể được D. Tôi không nghĩ rằng nó đúng
Tạm dịch: Ella đang hỏi Eric về việc tự học.
- Ella: "Bạn có nghĩ rằng ngày nay những người có khả năng tự học có thể thành công không?"
- Eric: "Đó là những gì tôi nghĩ vì họ có xu hướng rất độc lập và tự kỷ luật."
25 B Kiến thức về giao tiếp văn hóa:
Tạm dịch:
Huy hỏi Mai, bạn cùng lớp để biết ý kiến của cô ấy về cuốn sách mà cậu ấy cho cô ấy mượn.
Huy: “Bạn nghĩ gì về cuốn sách đó?”
Mai: “_______________________”
A. Uh, chúng ta hãy cùng nhau đọc nhé.
B. Cuốn sách hay nhất mà tớ từng đọc!
C. Tớ hoàn toàn đồng ý với cậu.
D. Tớ ước tớ có thể mua một cuốn.
26 D Kiến thức về điền từ vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn:
Giải thích: Dựa vào nghĩa của câu, liên từ but (nhưng - được dùng để diễn tả sự đối lập) là phù hợp
nhất.
27 D Kiến thức về giới từ trước năm:
In + mốc thời gian trong quá khứ, S + V(qkđ)
28 C Kiến thức về chọn từ loại:
A. association: sự hợp tác, sự liên quan B. correspondence: sự đối xứng, sự tương đối
C. relationship: mối quan hệ D. solidarity: sự đoàn kết
Tạm dịch: Được xuất bản vào năm 1989, cuốn sách khám phá về mối quan hệ giữa phụ nữ Trung
Quốc và con gái người Mỹ gốc Hoa của họ, và trở thành cuốn sách bán chạy nhất trên New York
Times trong năm đó.
29 D Giải thích: Để thay thế cho danh từ chỉ vật a major motion picture (một bộ phim điện ảnh lớn), ta
dùng đại từ quan hệ which hoặc that. Tuy nhiên, trước vị trí cần điền là giới từ for nên đại từ which
là phù hợp nhất. Câu ban đầu sẽ là It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese,
and was made into a major motion picture which Tan co-wrote the screenplay for. Giới từ for
không phải là thành phần của cụm động từ nên ta có thể đẩy lên trước đại từ quan hệ which.
30 B Giảỉ thích:
A. một …khác B. khác (a)
C. cái/người còn lại D. những người/thứ khác
other + works: những tác phẩm khác
31 C Tiêu đề phù hợp nhất với bài đọc này có thể là_______
A. Tuổi thọ trung bình ở Vương Quốc Anh so với các quốc gia khác
B. Các nguyên nhân dẫn tới tỷ lệ chết trẻ ở Anh
C. Tuổi thọ trung bình ở Anh và các nỗ lực của quốc gia này nhằm giải quyết các vấn đề về sức
khỏe
D. Năm nguy cơ lớn gây tử vong ở Anh
Căn cứ vào thông tin xuyết suốt bài đọc ta thấy:
Đáp án A chỉ xuất hiện thông tin ở đoạn 1
Đáp án B, D chỉ xuất hiện thông tin là các ý nhỏ ở đoạn 2
Đáp án C bao trùm thông tin của toàn bài đọc
32 D Từ: "cardiovascular" trong đoạn 2 có thể đươc thay thế bằng_______
A. respiratory /rəˈspɪrətri/ (adj): (thuộc) hệ hô hấp
B. digestive /daɪˈdʒestɪv/ (adj): (thuộc) hệ tiêu hóa
C. skeletal /ˈskelətl/ (adj): (thuộc) hệ xương
D. cardiac /ˈkɑːdiæk/ (adj): (thuộc) tim mạch
Căn cứ vào thông tin đầu đoạn 2:
Tạm dịch: "Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its global counterparts and called for action by
local health commissioners to tackle the five big killers - cancer, heart disease, stroke, respiratory
and liver diseases. He will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which
he says could save 30,000 lives a year"

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(Hunt cho biết Vương quốc Anh còn một chặng đường dài để theo kịp bạn bè quốc tế và kêu gọi hành
động từ các ủy viên y tế địa phương giải quyết năm nguy cơ lớn gây tử vong - ung thư, bệnh tim, đột
quỵ, hô hấp và bệnh gan. Vào thứ Ba ngày, ông sẽ công bố một chiến lược để giải quyết bệnh tim
mạch, cái mà theo ông có thể cứu sống 30.000 người mỗi năm)
33 D Theo như bài văn, điều gì KHÔNG phải là nguyên nhân dẫn đến tử vong ở Anh?
A. ma túy B. đồ có cồn C. uống rượu D. thức ăn
Căn cứ vào thông tin đoạn 2:
- "Drinking and drug use have been the main issues behind the worsening of the UK's ranking in
early deaths among adults aged 20- 54"
(Uống rượu và sử dụng ma túy là những vấn đề chính đằng tình trạng ngày càng xấu đi ở Vương
quốc Anh về tỷ lệ chết trẻ ở những người trưởng thành trong độ tuổi 20-54.)
- "In 2010, drugs were the sixth leading cause of death in this age group and alcohol was 18 th - up
from 32nd and 43rd place respectively 20 years earlier."
(Trong năm 2010, ma túy là nguyên nhân gây tử vong đứng hàng thứ sáu ở lứa tuổi này và rượu
xếp thứ 18 - tăng từ vị trí thứ 32 và 43 so với 20 năm trước đó.)
34 B Theo bài khóa, ông Hunt đang thể hiện quyết tâm trong việc _______
A. giảm tỷ lệ tử
B. cải thiện hệ thống chăm sóc sức khỏe ở Anh
C. đương đầu với nhiều thử thách hơn
D. thay đổi chế độ ăn uống của người dân
Căn cứ vào phát ngôn của Hunt trong đoạn 3:
Tạm dịch: "For too long we have been lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take
up this challenge and turn this shocking underperformance around."
(“Trong một thời gian dài, chúng ta đã bị tụt hậu và tôi muốn hệ thống y tế được cải cách để đón
đầu thử thách và thay đổi sự kém hiệu quả đáng buồn như hiện nay".)
35 C Từ "it" trong đoạn 3 đề cập tới _______
A. thách thức B. chế độ ăn C. vấn đề D. bệnh tật
Căn cứ vào ngữ cảnh sau:
"For too long we have been lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this
challenge and turn this shocking underperformance around.” However, the problem is only in part
to do with hospital care - much of it is about the way we live.
(“Trong một thời gian dài, chúng ta đã bị tụt hậu và tôi muốn hệ thống y tế được cải cách để đón
đầu thử thách và thay đổi sự kém hiệu quả đáng buồn như hiện nay". Tuy nhiên, vấn đề chỉ nằm một
phần nhỏ ở việc chăm sóc tại bệnh viện - mà phần lớn vấn đề là ở cách sinh hoạt hàng ngày của
chúng ta.)
36 A Câu nào trong các câu sau có thể là ý chính của đoạn văn?
A. Thế giới sẽ thay đổi như thế nào trong 500 năm tới?
B. Chúng ta sẽ làm gì trong 5 thế kỉ tới?
C. Những vấn đề nào sẽ xảy ra trong thế kỉ 26?
D. Công nghệ sẽ cải thiện cuộc sống trong tương lai xa như thế nào?
Căn cứ thông tin đoạn 1:
But what if we could look 500 years into the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would
the world seem as different to us as the 21st century would have seemed to residents of the 16th
century? (Nhưng liệu chúng ta có thể nhìn thấy được những gì trong 500 năm nữa và nhìn thoáng
qua Trái Đất của thế kỉ 26? Liệu thế giới đó có khác với chúng ta như thế kỉ 21 khác với người dân
thế kỉ thứ 16?)
Các đoạn còn lại của đoạn văn cũng nói về cuộc sống trong thế kỉ 26, nên đây sẽ là nội dung chính
của đoạn văn.
37 B Từ "infernally" trong đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với từ nào?
A. khác B. cực kì C. lâu dài D. cùng thời
Từ đồng nghĩa: infernally (cực kì) = extremely
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot. (Tuỳ
thuộc vào người bạn hỏi là ai, thế kỉ 26 hoặc là sẽ có chút giá lạnh, hoặc sẽ cực kì nóng).
38 C Từ "harness" ở đoạn 4 có thể được thay thế bởi từ nào?

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A. làm mới B. điều chỉnh C. khai thác D. khám phá
Từ đồng nghĩa: harness (khai thác) = exploit
In other words, we’ll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. (Nói
cách khác, chúng ta sẽ trở thành 1 loài mà có thể khai thác toàn bộ năng lượng của 1 hành tinh).
39 D Từ "they" trong đoạn 4 đề cập đến từ nào?
A. phản ứng tổng hợp và năng lượng mặt trời
B. công nghệ năng lượng sạch
C. những chuyên gia
D. những người ở thế kỉ 26
Từ "they" thay thế cho danh từ những người ở thế kỉ 26.
Wielding such power, 26th-century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as
fusion and solar power. Furthermore, they’ll be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to
control global climate. (Nắm giữ sức mạnh như vậy, những người thế kỉ 26 sẽ trở thành nhưng
chuyên gia về công nghệ năng lượng sạch như phản ứng tổng hợp và năng lượng mặt trời. Hơn nữa,
họ sẽ có thể thao túng năng lượng hành tinh để kiểm soát khí hậu toàn cầu).
40 C Câu nào trong những câu sau ĐÚNG về những dự đoán trong tương lai?
A. Michio Kaku cho rằng sự tiến bộ từ nền văn minh loại 0 lên loại 1 sẽ mất khoảng 2 thế kỉ.
B. Con người trong những năm 2500 có thể kiểm soát nguồn năng lượng của Trái Đất để làm giảm
khí hậu toàn cầu.
C. Tốc độ cải thiện công nghệ sẽ tiếp tục dễ thay đổi trong tương lai xa.
D. Năng lượng mặt trời sẽ là nguồn năng lượng chính cho công dân thế kỷ 26.
Căn cứ thông tin đoạn 4:
Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will make
the leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words,
we’ll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power,
26th-century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power.
Furthermore, they’ll be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate.
Physicist Freeman Dyson, on the other hand, estimates the leap to a type I civilization would occur
within roughly 200 years.
(Nhà vật lý lý thuyết và tương lai học Michio Kaku dự đoán rằng chỉ trong vòng 100 năm nữa, nhân
loại sẽ tạo ra một bước nhảy vọt từ nền văn minh loại 0 lên nền văn minh loại 1 trên thang Kardashev.
Nói cách khác, chúng ta sẽ trở thành một loài mà có thể khai thác toàn bộ năng lượng của một hành
tinh. Nắm giữ sức mạnh như vậy, những người thế kỉ 26 sẽ trở thành nhưng chuyên gia về công nghệ
năng lượng sạch như phản ứng tổng hợp và năng lượng mặt trời. Hơn nữa, họ sẽ có thế thao túng
năng lượng hành tinh để kiểm soát khí hậu toàn cầu. Mặt khác, nhà vật lý Freeman Dyson ước tính
bước nhảy vọt lên nền văn minh loại 1 sẽ xảy ra trong vòng 200 năm).
41 D Theo Adrian Berry, những điều sau là việc mà những người trong tương lai có thể làm, ngoai
trừ__________.
A. trồng trọt dưới đại dương B. du lịch giữa các vì sao
C. khám phá vũ trụ bằng robot D. sống bao lâu cũng được
Căn cứ thông tin đoạn cuối:
Futurist and author Adrian Berry believes the average human life span will reach 140 years and that
the digital storage of human personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans
will farm the oceans, travel in starships and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots
explore the outer cosmos. (Nhà tương lai học và tác giả Adrian Berry tin rằng tuổi thọ trung bình
của con người sẽ đạt đến 140 tuổi và việc lưu trữ kĩ thuật số của tính cách con người sẽ cho phép
một loại bất tử trên máy tính. Con người có thể trồng trọt dưới đại dương, du hành giữa các vì sao
và cư trú ở cả sao Hoả và mặt trăng trong khi robot khám phá vũ trụ bên ngoài).
42 A Có thể suy ra từ đoạn văn rằng__________
A. không ai có thể chắc chắn cuộc sống vào những năm 2500 sẽ như thế nào.
B. những gì chúng ta tưởng tượng về cuộc sống trong thế kỉ 26 cũng giống như những người ở thế
kỉ 16 nghĩ về cuộc sống hiện tại.
C. Những dự đoán của các nhà khoa học khác nhau có thể vẽ ra cùng một thế giới trong 500 năm tới.
D. Công nghệ sẽ ảnh hưởng hầu hết các lĩnh vực của cuộc sống trong tương lai.
Căn cứ vào thông tin cả bài:

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Mỗi nhà khoa học lại dự đoán cuộc sống trong tương lai khác nhau nên không ai có thể chắc chắn về
cuộc sống vào những năm 2500 như thế nào.
43 D Kiến thức về từ loại: tính từ sở hữu + danh từ
surprising -> surprise
44 D Kiến thức về cấu trúc: use s.t to do s.t
cooling ->to cool
45 B Kiến thức về sự hòa hợp giữa chủ ngữ và động từ: S1, along with S 2, V (theo S1)
were -> was
46 A Kiến thức về câu đồng nghĩa: Mệnh đề nhượng bộ:
adj + as/though+ S + be/V, -----
However + adj/adv + S+ be/V, ……
Tạm dịch: Mặc dù cô ta có vẻ thân thiện, nhưng cô ta lại không được tin yêu.
47 C Kiến thức về câu đồng nghĩa:
Tạm dịch: “Hãy tin tôi. Đọc cuốn sách đó chẳng ích gì, ”Janet nói với bạn trai của mình.
A. Janet gợi ý cho bạn trai của cô ấy rằng việc đọc cuốn sách là hữu ích. B. Janet đã thuyết phục
được bạn trai của cô ấy rằng việc đọc cuốn sách là điều đáng giá.
C. Janet cố gắng thuyết phục bạn trai rằng cuốn sách không đáng đọc.
D. Janet phản đối ý kiến của bạn trai rằng việc đọc cuốn sách không hữu ích.
48 A Kiến thức về câu đồng nghĩa:
Tạm dịch: Lần cuối cùng tôi nhìn thấy David là khi tôi tới dự tiệc sinh nhật bạn tôi.
A. Tôi đã không gặp David kể từ bữa tiệc sinh nhật bạn tôi.
B. Khi tôi lần cuối tới dự sinh nhật bạn, Tôi đã gặp David.
C. Đã rất lâu cách đây khi mà tôi lần cuối gặp David tại bữa tiệc sinh nhật bạn tôi.
D. Cuối cùng tôi đã nhìn thấy David khi tôi đang đi tới bữa tiệc sinh nhật bạn tôi.
49 C Kiến thức về nối câu/mệnh đề suy đoán trong quá khứ nhưng không chắc chắn:
Tạm dịch:
Hôm qua Mary không có ở đây. Có lẽ cô ấy bị ốm.
A. Mary không cần phải ở đây ngày hôm qua vì cô ấy bị ốm.
B. Vì bệnh của cô ấy, Mary không nên ở đây ngày hôm qua.
C. Mary có thể đã bị ốm ngày hôm qua, vì vậy cô ấy không có ở đây.
D. Chắc hôm qua Mary bị ốm nên không có ở đây.
50 B Kiến thức về mệnh đề điều kiện:
Tạm dịch: Tôi đã không biết rằng bạn đang ở nhà. Tôi đã không đến thăm bạn.
Phương án B. If I had known that you were at home, I would have visited you sử dụng cấu trúc câu
điều kiện loại 3 để diễn tả điều kiện và kết quả không thể xảy ra trong quá khứ.
Tạm dịch: Nếu tôi đã biết rằng bạn đang ở nhà, tôi sẽ đến thăm bạn.
Đây là phương án có nghĩa của câu sát với nghĩa câu gốc nhất.
A. If I knew that you were at home, I would visit you = Nếu tôi đã biết rằng bạn đang ở nhà, tôi sẽ
đến thăm bạn.
Đây là cấu trúc câu điều kiện loại 2 diễn tả điều kiện và kết quả không thể xảy ra trong hiện tại.
C. If I knew that you had been at home, I would have visited you = Nếu tôi đã biết rằng bạn đã đang
ở nhà, tôi sẽ đến thăm bạn. Hành động ở nhà không cần phải lùi về thì quá khứ hoàn thành.
D. If i would know that you were at home, I visited you = Nếu tôi sẽ biết bạn đang ở nhà, tôi đã thăm
bạn. Câu sai cấu trúc

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SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ
( Đề thi có 5 trang ) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .SBD: . . . . . . . . . . . . . .


Mã đề: 401
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks .
Part of what makes summers so hot is also what causes thunderstorms. As heat from the sun beats
down on Earth, the heat evaporates some of the water in lakes and oceans. The evaporated water stays in
the air. This evaporated water makes the air feel heavy and humid. Humid air is what makes you feel hot
and sticky (1) _______ the summer.
Warm humid air usually does not stay in one place. The wind can move it higher in the sky (2) _______ it
will cool off. When warm humid air cools, it forms clouds. As more water is moved from lakes and
oceans to the airs, the clouds get bigger and bigger.
Since summer, the air near the ground is hotter than it is during other seasons of the year. When this hot
air mixes with cool air from (3) _______ area, there will be changes in the weather. Greater differnces
between the (4) _______ of the hot and cold air will cause greater changes in the weather. Imagine
putting an ice (5) _______ in a warm drink. As soon as the ice hits the warm drink, it will crack and pop.
But if you put the ice cube in a cool drink, it will not crack or pop as much. When warmer and cooler
clouds get close to one another, there may be some popping and cracking as the weather changes. There
may be more clouds or storms. A thunderstorm may be on its way.
(Adapted from Elfrieda H. Hiebert 2010)
Question 1: A. for B. while C. on D. during
Question 2: A. where B. who C. which D. that
Question 3: A. another B. much C. others D. other
Question 4: A. climates B. temperatures C. latitudes D. atmospheres
Question 5: A. cubic B. cubicle C. cubical D. cube
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Those two pictures hanging on the gallery wall_________ in France, and they are very well-
known.
A. were painted B. were paint C. were painting D. painted
Question 7: _______, she often wears in red and black.
A. After I have met my beloved teacher B. Until I will meet my beloved teacher
C. By the time I meet my beloved teacher D. Whenever I meet my beloved teacher
Question 8: _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The hardest / the best B. The more / the much
C. The harder / the better D. The more hard / the more good
Question 9: He was pleased that things in his university were going on __________.
A. satisfying B. satisfactorily C. satisfactory D. satisfied
Question 10: I’m taking an intensive 2 day _______ course in computing. I want to learn the basics
quickly before I start my new job.
A. splash B. smash C. flash D. crash
Question 11: James could no longer bear the _______ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. domineering B. oppressive C. overbearing D. pressing
Question 12: My mother bought a ___________belt from a shop on Ba Dinh street.

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A. nice brown leather B. brown nice leather C. nice leather brown D. leather brown nice
Question 13: I agreed that the shop treated you very badly. But just write a polite letter of complaint. It’s
not worth making a _______ about it.
A. song and dance B. tooth and nail C. pins and needles D. length and breadth
Question 14: Those cars are very expensive, _______?
A. are they B. are cars C. aren't they D. aren't cars
Question 15: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her down _______ her poor eyesight.
A. because of B. in spite of C. although D. because
Question 16: Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they
_______.
A. settle down B. put down C. go down D. touch down
Question 17: He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”.
A. was watching B. watched C. am watching D. has watched
Question 18: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible__________the travel arrangements?
A. to B. in C. for D. on
Question 19: If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ______ your authority so often.
A. assert B. inflict C. affirm D. maintain
Question 20: ___________ the book, I wrote down some notes.
A. Being read B. Read C. To read D. Having read
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. resolve a conflict
B. voice opinions on C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
over
Question 22: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. accept B. give C. reward D. bring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 23: A living cell is a marvel of detailed and complex structure.


A. wonder B. magnification C. invention D. swiftness
Question 24: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are
immutable and will never alter.
A. constantly B. alterable C. everlasting D. unchangeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 25: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.
A. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
B. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
C. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.
D. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.
Question 26: Eating Korean food is new to me.
A. I did not use to eating Korean food. B. I used to eat Korean food.
C. I have never eaten Korean food before. D. I no longer eat Korean food.
Question 27: “Would you like some more beer?” he asked.
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A. He asked me would I like some more beer.
B. He offered me some more beer.
C. He asked me if I liked some more beer.
D. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A.final B. survival C. liberty D. reliable
Question 29: A.received B. concealed C. attached D. concerned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 30: After John eats dinner, he wrote several letters and went to bed.
A. eats B. letters C. went D. he wrote
Question 31: Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A. primarily B. it C. experiencing D. world
Question 32: If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand
almost everywhere.
A. almost B. of C. some D. understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions .
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up
from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well
understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound
social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating
spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural
to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt
society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale
and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model
can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of
people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example,
one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment
opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create
severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new
inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the
world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating
unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the
face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In
each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the
mechanism of insurance.
(Adapted from zurich.com)
Question 33: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.

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A. unsanitary conditions B. urban expansion
C. socio-economic disparities D. disease
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
B. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
D. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
Question 35: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
Question 36: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. agreed on C. dealt with D. added to
Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
Question 38: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
C. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 39: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. encourage B. design C. need D. start
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 40: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 41: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport
B. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.
C. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.
D. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions .
During times of crisis, people find themselves faced with lifestyle changes. One of the earliest and
most noticeable changes seen during the Covid-19 lockdown was how we consume media-and especially
how we read.
People tend to find comfort in certain books, and reading habits and genre preferences can change
during periods of stress. This helps to explain why much genre fiction has roots in times of significant
social, political or economic upheaval. Gothic literature is, in part, a British Protestant response to the
French Revolution.
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Respondents generally reported that they were reading more than usual. This was largely due to
having more free time (due to being furloughed, or not having a commute or the usual social obligation
or leisure activities). This increased reading volume was complicated for those with caring
responsibilities. Many people with children reported that their reading time had increased generally
because of their shared reading with children, but had less time than normal for personal reading. Reading
frequency was further complicated by a quality vs quantity snag. People spent more time reading and
seeking escape, but an inability to concentrate meant they made less progress than usual. In short, people
spent more time reading but the volume they read was less.
Unsurprisingly, lockdown also made re-reading a physical necessity for some. Some respondents
noted how they were unable to visit the library or browse at the bookshop for new books. Others reported
that they simply wished to save money. On the other hand, the participants who reported re- reading less
than normal during the lockdown period wanted to use their newfound time to seek out new topics and
genres.
(Adapted from theconversation.com)
Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different kinds of people B. Different types of books
C. Changing in reading habits D. Different types of reading
Question 43: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Reading is unable to help people find comfort during stress time.
B. Many great fiction books have been born in times of significant social unpheaval.
C. Gothic literature was born during the French Revolution.
D. Reading habits can change during periods of stress.
Question 44: The word “commute” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. retirement B. a talk to other people C. unemployed person D. road to go to work
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. reading habit and reading time B. progresses in reading
C. reading time and ability to concentrate D. people spent time reading
Question 46: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why people re-read more
during lockdown?
A. They love books so much. B. They want to save money.
C. They think it is necessary. D. They try to seek out new topics in books.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 47: Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________”
A. Good idea, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. Thanks, I will D. Never mind
Question 48: Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?”
Peter: “ ________ ”
A. I guess men tend to make better leaders.
B. Women also want to climb to top positions.
C. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder.
D. Top positions are high to climb to.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A.popular B. beautiful C. favourite D. effective
Question 50: A.pressure B. cancel C. level D. respect
---------- HẾT ----------

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SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THP
LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT ĐÁP ÁN BÀI THI: NGOẠI N

Mã đề thi
Câu hỏi 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417
1 D C B D A A A A A C D C D D B B C
2 A A D D C C D C D B D B B B D D D
3 A A C D D A C C D B D A D B B C C
4 B D B A C D B C D D A B A D C C A
5 D C B C D B C B A B D A A D C A B
6 A B C A D D A C B C A B D B A C D
7 D D D C B D D C C C B A C B B B B
8 C B D A C D C D A B B D C B B D A
9 B D D A C A D B B D A C D B A B B
10 D A C A C A D D B D B B A D A B C
11 B A C D D C B D D B C C C D A A B
12 A B C C B A D C C A A A C C D B C
13 A D D B D C C C C D A A D A B D D
14 C B A A A C B A C A A C C A B D A
15 A B B A B B C A B D A C B C C A D
16 A A B D D A B A B D B C B A D B B
17 A B D C B C B A A D A A D D C B D
18 C D B B B A A B B B B A B A A C C
19 A C C A D D A D A B B B B A B A A
20 D D C B A D D B D D A C C B B B A
21 D A D C C D A D B D A B B C A A B
22 C C C A D A A A D C D C A C B D A
23 A B D C A A C C C C D B C C C D B
24 D D D B B A C D D B A A B A D D D
25 D C B C C C D C D D C B C C D C B
26 C D C A D A C C C D C D A C C C D
27 B C D D D A B A A B B A A C C D D
28 C D A A A A B A C B B B A A B A C
29 C B A B D D A D A C B C D D D C C
30 A B B C B C A D C C A A B B C B C
31 B B A B B A D A A A C C C D D A A
32 D C D C B B C D B A A C B D A C A
33 A D A B D D C B D C D D D A D B D
34 C C B C D D A C C D B A A B D C A
35 D A A D C A C A D A A A B C C C B
36 C B A C B B A A D B D D C A B A A
37 A C D A B A D C D B C C A D B B D

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38 A D B C D D C A A A B D A A A D C
39 D D A D C D C A D A A C B C B C D
40 D C B A D B D C A A B A B D D A B
41 C A C B D A A D D C C C B D A D B
42 C A A B A A D C D D A C D C D C B
43 A B B B B D B C B C C B A A B C C
44 D B A D D A C B D D A A C B C C D
45 D A D C B A D C D D C D D B D A D
46 B C C B B A C A C D D D A D C D A
47 C B D D A A D D C D A D C B B A C
48 A B D C D C A D A A D A C D D C A
49 D D C B B D D C C A A C A C A D C
50 D A A B D A D B D D A D A D D B D

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PT NĂM 2021
NGỮ

418 419 420 421 422 423 424


B C C D B B A
C B C A C C D
D C A B A A D
A C D A B D C
D B C C D B B
B A B A C B B
A B C B D D C
D A D B D A C
A B B A B C B
A C A A B C C
B B B A D D D
C D D C A C D
D D B B C B C
C B B D B D A
A B C A A B A
D B A C A B B
D B D A D B C
C B D A C D B
A A C B B C D
A B C A C C B
D D D C C B C
A B B A C B C
B D A C D D C
A A B B D D C
B A C B A D B
B C C B B B D
C B A B D D C
D D B D A A B
D D B A D C B
C B B C A D C
B D B C D A D
A B B C B D D
B C D A D B A
C A A D B D D
A D D D A D A
A C A C C A A
D B D B A C B

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D B C D C D D
B A A B D C A
B C D C B C C
C C B A D A C
B B D A C A B
C B B C D A A
D C A D D D C
D D A B C B C
D A B C B D C
A C A A D D A
B B B C B C C
A A A D D A A
B B C C B D C

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SỞ GD-ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LẦN 3 - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT QUẾ VÕ 1 BÀI THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12
--------------- (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Mã đề: 101
Đề gồm có 6 trang, 50 câu

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)


Họ tên thí sinh:............................................................SBD:...............................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in each of the following question.
Câu 1: A. mounting B. account C. astound D. country
Câu 2: A. documents B. definitions C. combs D. doors

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Câu 3: A. stimulate B. determine C. devastate D. sacrifice
Câu 4: A. mature B. nature C. vulture D. culture

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 5: By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he ________five different schools
because his parents moved frequently.
A. was attending B. attended C. has been attending D. had attended
Câu 6: George wouldn’t have met Mary______ to his brother’s graduation party.
A. if he shouldn’t have gone B. had he not gone
C. if he has not gone D. had not he gone
Câu 7: They had their baby daughter in June and, since then, they __ in restaurants very
often.
A. couldn’t eat B. haven’t been able to eat C. weren’t able to eat D. didn’t use to eat
Câu 8: The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were ________of teachers.
A. supporter B. Supporting C. support D. supportive
Câu 9: Richard _____ a bad cold the day before his exam.
A. came up with B. came round C. came down with D. came across
Câu 10: There has been little rain in this region for several months, ______?
A. hasn’t it B. has there C. has it D. hasn’t there
Câu 11: He arrived ____ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour.
A. early B. earlier C. earliest D. more early
Câu 12: I’ve got a very high opinion ________ your brother.
A. for B. to C. on D. of
Câu 13: We were all in___________of the fact that the new manager was our old friend Duncan.
A. amazement B. shock C. awe D. surprise
Câu 14: When about their preferences for movies, many young people say that they are in
favour of science fiction.
A. asked B. asking C. having asked D. are asked
Câu 15: Left - hand traffic, a custom existing in Britain only, back to the days when English
people went to and fro on horseback.
A. dating B. dated C. dates D. which dates
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Câu 16: I don’t like of these two restaurants. I prefer another one.
A. one B. neither C. either D. any
Câu 17: She was also from school, after teachers said she would be a ‘bad influence’ on the
other girls.
A. excluded B. expelled C. extracted D. exiled
Câu 18: Jimmy’s low examination scores kept him from_______ to the university
A. to admit B. admitting C. to be admitted D. being admitted
Câu 19: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. lull B. short C. brief D. quick

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 20: All the students were all ears when the teacher started talking about the changes in the next
exam.
A. silent B. smiling C. restless D. attentive
Câu 21: The doctor is busy right now, but he could probably fit you in later.
A. find time to see you B. try to cure your illness
C. look after you D. examine your health problem

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 22: Mr Lane urged any parents who have concerns about the disease to seek medical help at
once.
A. immediately B. forthwith C. right way D. in due course
Câu 23: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. insignificantly B. commonly C. seriously D. largely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each
of the following exchanges.
Câu 24: Jenny: “Hi, Mark. Long time no see. What’s going on?" Mark: “ ”.
A. Good morning. B. I saw you yesterday.
C. I’m going to see a movie D. So-so.
Câu 25: Thanh: "Lan's the best singer in our school".
Nadia: “___________”
A. I can't agree with you more! B. Yes, please.
C. Yes, tell me about it! D. That's OK!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 26: The painting was so beautiful that I stood there admired it for a long time.
A. stood B. admired
C. painting was so beatiful D. for a long time
Câu 27: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. to drink B. Sleeping C. best ways D. juice
Câu 28: Mrs. Mai, along with her friends from Vietnam, are planning to attend the festival.
A. her friends B. to attend C. along with D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Câu 29: I find myself at a loss to understand Harold’s behavior.
A. I lost contact with Harold, so I couldn’t understand his behavior.
B. I understood Harold’s behavior completely.
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C. I find Harold's behavior quite incomprehensible.
D. I have to lose a lot to understand Harold’s behavior.
Câu 30: No one in our club can speak English as fluently as Mai.
A. Mai speaks English more fluently than no one in our club.
B. Mai speaks English the most fluently in our club.
C. Mai speaks English as fluently as other people in our club.
D. Mai is the worst English speaker in our club.
Câu 31: The teacher said to us: “Don’t make so much noise”.
A. The teacher said we didn’t make so much noise.
B. The teacher asked us not to make so much noise.
C. The teacher ordered us if we didn’t make so much noise.
D. The teacher told us that we didn’t make so much noise.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 32: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.
B. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
C. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
D. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
Câu 33: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. You have just passed your final examination which it makes your parents happy.
B. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.

Cloze text.

Reading the following passage and mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
that best fits each of the numbered blank from 34 to 38
The World Health Organization (WHO) is warning young people all over the world that they are
also at risk from COVID-19. The WHO said young people are not exempt from catching the
coronavirus. Many young people ___ 34 _believe they will not catch the virus because of their age.
They think it is a disease that only older people catch. The WHO said the truth is _______35young
people are catching the coronavirus and becoming ill or dying from it. It added that young people are
also spreading the disease to their parents, grandparents and _____ 36 people. The White House also
urged young adults to follow advice and to avoid gathering in large groups to help prevent the spread
of the virus.
The Director-General of the WHO said: "Today, I have a message for young people: You are
not invincible." He added: "This coronavirus could put you in hospital for weeks, or even kill you.
Even if you don't get sick, the choices you make about where you go could be the difference between
life and death for someone else." The WHO said: "A significant proportion of patients_______37 in
hospital for COVID-19 around the world are aged under 50." New York Governor Andrew Cuomo
said many young people are not ________38 the state's social-distancing rules. He told young people
that: "This is a public health issue and you cannot be endangering other peoples' health."
( Source: https://breakingnewsenglish.com/)
Câu 34: A. really B. frequently C. strongly D. mistakenly
Câu 35: A. why B. what C. that D. when
Câu 36: A. the others B. others C. other D. the other
Câu 37: A. treating B. treated C. to treat D. to be treated
Câu 38: A. making B. following C. doing D. keeping
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Reading comprehension

Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the
questions from 39 to 43
SCIENCE FLYING IN THE FACE OF GRAVITY
It looked just like another aircraft from the outside. The pilot told his young passengers that it was
built in 1964, a Boeing KC-135 refuelling tanker, based on the 707. But appearances were deceptive,
and the 13 students from Europe and the USA who boarded the aircraft were in for the flight of their
lives.
Inside, the area that normally had seats had become a long white tunnel. Heavily padded from floor
to ceiling; it looked a bit like a lunatic asylum. There were almost no windows, but lights along the
padded walls eerily illuminated it. Most of the seats had been taken out apart from a few at the back,
where the young scientists quickly took their places with a look of apprehension.
From 12 months, science students from across the continents had competed to win a place on the
flight at the invitation of the European Space Agency. The challenge had been to suggest imaginative
experiments to be conducted in weightless conditions. For the next two hours the Boeing's flight
resembled that of an enormous bird which had lost its reason, shooting upwards towards the heavens
before hurting towards Earth. The intention was to achieve weightlessness for a few seconds.
The aircraft took off smoothly enough, but any feelings that I and the young scientists had that we
were on anything like a scheduled passenger service were quickly dismissed when the pilot put the
plane into a 45-degree climb which lasted around 20 seconds. Then the engine cut out and we became
weightless. Everything became confused, and left or right, up or down no longer had any meaning.
After 10 seconds of free-fall descent, the pilot pulled the aircraft out of its nosedive. The return of
gravity was less immediate than its loss, but was still sudden enough to ensure that some students came
down with a bump.
After two hours of going up and down in the plane doing experiments, the predominant feeling was
one of exhilaration rather than nausea. Most of the students thought it was an unforgettable experience
and one they would be keen to repeat.

Câu 39: What does the writer say about the plane?
A. The outside was misleading B. The inside was painted white.
C. It had no seats. D. It had no windows.
Câu 40: What does the word eerily in paragraph 2 mean?
A. brightly B. clearly C. strangely D. badly
Câu 41: What did the pilot do with the plane?
A. He quickly climbed and stopped the engines.
B. He climbed and made the plane turn over.
C. He climbed and made the plane fall slowly.
D. He took off normally and then cut the engines for 20 seconds.
Câu 42: Why was this passage written?
A. To describe the outcome of a scientific competition.
B. To encourage young people to take up science.
C. To show scientists what young people can do.
D. To report on a new scientific technique.
Câu 43: What does the word it in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the opportunity B. the exhilaration C. the plane D. the trip

Reading comprehension

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Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the
questions from 44 to 50

TV has transformed politics in the USA by changing the way in which information is disseminated,
by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen’s patterns of response to politics. By giving
citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role of the political party in the
selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the person of the candidate, television
accelerated the citizen’s focus on character rather than issues.
TV has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on which most of us
rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech given by traveling
politicians and lasting 1/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century political discourse, has
given way to the 30-second advertisement and the 10 second "sound bite" in broadcast news.
Increasingly the audience for speeches is not that standing in front of the politician but rather the
viewing audience who will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.
In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse of earlier
ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical context that shaped the
issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and cannot examine alternative
proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets, politicians assert but do not argue.
Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed political style that
was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old-style stump speech. Reliance on
television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable pictures rather than
memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in a word in which politics
is increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.
Recognizing the power of television’s pictures, politicians craft televisual, staged events, called
pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on television
news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations advisers for
televised consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates increasingly sound
like advertisements.
Câu 44: According to the passage, as compared with televised speeches, traditional political
discourse was more successful at ________.
A. making politics seem more intimate to citizens
B. providing detailed information about a candidates private behavior
C. placing political issues within a historical context
D. allowing news coverage of political candidates
Câu 45: The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. advertisement B. broadcast news C. politician D. audience
Câu 46: The author mentions the "stump speech" in paragraph 2 as an example of ________.
A. a style of speech common to televised political events
B. an interactive discussion between two politicians
C. a kind of political presentation typical of the nineteenth century
D. an event created by politicians to attract media attention
Câu 47: It can be inferred that before the introduction of television, political parties ________.
A. spent more money to promote their political candidates
B. had more influence over the selection of political candidates
C. attracted more members
D. received more money
Câu 48: The word "disseminated" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. spread B. analyzed C. stored D. discussed
Câu 49: What is the main point of the passage?
A. Citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person.

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B. Citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of television
coverage.
C. Politics in the United States has been significantly changed by television.
D. Politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the introduction
of television.
Câu 50: According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can ______.
A. obtain more television coverage for themselves
B. create more time to discuss political issues
C. spend more time talking to citizens in person
D. engages in debates with their opponents

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mamon made Cautron dapan
ANH 12 101 1 D
ANH 12 101 2 A
ANH 12 101 3 B
ANH 12 101 4 A
ANH 12 101 5 D
ANH 12 101 6 B
ANH 12 101 7 B
ANH 12 101 8 D
ANH 12 101 9 C
ANH 12 101 10 B
ANH 12 101 11 B
ANH 12 101 12 D
ANH 12 101 13 C
ANH 12 101 14 A
ANH 12 101 15 C
ANH 12 101 16 C
ANH 12 101 17 B
ANH 12 101 18 D
ANH 12 101 19 C
ANH 12 101 20 D
ANH 12 101 21 A
ANH 12 101 22 D
ANH 12 101 23 A
ANH 12 101 24 D
ANH 12 101 25 A
ANH 12 101 26 B
ANH 12 101 27 A
ANH 12 101 28 D
ANH 12 101 29 C
ANH 12 101 30 B
ANH 12 101 31 B
ANH 12 101 32 D
ANH 12 101 33 C
ANH 12 101 34 D
ANH 12 101 35 C
ANH 12 101 36 C
ANH 12 101 37 B
ANH 12 101 38 B
ANH 12 101 39 A
ANH 12 101 40 C
ANH 12 101 41 A
ANH 12 101 42 A
ANH 12 101 43 D
ANH 12 101 44 C
ANH 12 101 45 D
ANH 12 101 46 C

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ANH 12 101 47 B
ANH 12 101 48 A
ANH 12 101 49 C
ANH 12 101 50 A

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SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 2
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ THÁI TỔ Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mã đề thi 132
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên học sinh:..................................................................... Số báo danh: .............................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 1: The teacher had his students use their laptops to surf the Net for resources in his class,
A. Laptops must be used to surf for resources by the students in the class.
B. According to the teacher, the students had their resources surfed on their laptops.
C. The teacher asked his students to use their laptops to surf the Net for resources in his class.
D. With the laptops, the students could surf the Net for resources in class.
Câu 2: "How beautiful the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.
B. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.
C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress
D. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often (3)
……… small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly
worn away. In this way even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When particles of rocks or soil
became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the (4)………..Some rocks and soil
particles are carried into streams and then into the sea. Land that is covered with trees, grass and other
plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very (5)………..of its soil. The roots of plants help to
(6)…………the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water
that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands (7)……..to slow down erosion.
Câu 3: A. carries out B. holds up C. cleans out D. picks up
Câu 4: A. topsoil B. borders C. hillsides D. topside
Câu 5: A. few B. large C. much D. little
Câu 6: A. stay B. store C. hold D. back
Câu 7: A. help B. facilitate C. assess D. aid

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair sentences in the following questions.
Câu 8: Tigers are under threat of extinction and something must be done quickly.
A. Tigers will become extinct unless something is done quickly.
B. Nothing is done and tigers are in danger of extinction.
C. Tigers would have become extinct if nothing had been done.
D. Although something must be done quickly, tigers are in danger of extinction.
Câu 9: Several studies have confirmed that appropriate sun exposure actually helps prevent skin cancer.
A. It has been confirmed that several studies actually help prevent skin cancer with appropriate sun
exposure.
B. Appropriate sun exposure has been affirmed to prevent skin cancer and confirmed several studies.

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C. Several studies have confirmed that skin cancer can be actually prevented with appropriate sun
exposure.
D. Several studies with appropriate sun exposure have confirmed to help prevent skin cancer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 10: I don’t appreciate ............................... when I'm speaking.
A. to be interrupted B. to interrupt C. interrupting D. being interrupted
Câu 11: Thomas often goes to …………..school in the morning. He is rarely late for the school.
A. 0 B. an C. a D. the
Câu 12: ______, Tom stayed late at work and had instant noodles for dinner.
A. Have had extra work to do B. Having extra work to do
C. Just had extra work to do D. Have extra work to do
Câu 13: This computer is _____ out of order. It’ll be soon repaired.
A. absolutely B. temporarily C. intensively D. comparatively
Câu 14: The experiments _____ at the University of Groningen were successful.
A. comprised B. compounded C. composed D. conducted
Câu 15: _____________, I discovered that my stereo had been stolen.
A. Looking into my car when I B. On looking into my car
C. When I look into my car D. On that looking into my car
Câu 16: Trapeze artists usually rely on safety nets ________ through the air.
A. flying B. they fly C. which fly D. when flying
Câu 17: Anne was taken …….when the doorbell rang as she wasn’t expecting anyone
A. by accident B. by surpríe C. by mistake D. by chance
Câu 18: Their flat is decorated in a ______ combination of color.
A. tasteful B. sweet C. delicious D. tasty
Câu 19: A small fish needs camouflage to hide itself__________ its enemies cannot find it.
A. so that B. so C. therefore D. due to
Câu 20: ___________ you to be offered that job, you would have to move to another city.
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
Câu 21: Friendship is love without its wings and a friend in…………is a friend indeed.
A. danger B. need C. safety D. trust
Câu 22: Come in, please. I for you long.
A. have waited B. have been waiting C. had been waiting D. have been waited
Câu 23: Workers who do not obey the safety regulations will be _____immediately .
A. rejected B. refused C. disapproved D. sacked .
Câu 24: Our village had ____________ money available for education that the school had to close.
A. so little B. such little C. so much D. such much
Câu 25: She ________ the flowers. If she had, they wouldn’t have died.
A. may not have watered B. shouldn’t have watered
C. can’t have watered D. might not have
Câu 26: Pumpkin seeds, protein and iron, are a popular snack.
A. that B. provide C. which D. which provide

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the
past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with
the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility
of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is
important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human
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population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In
terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common
problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible.
Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such
as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the
variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The
extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There
have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an
extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the
present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering
the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it
is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to
biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes
have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within
existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to
survive in new environments.

Câu 27: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems
C. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
D. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
Câu 28: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to .
A. shocking B. predicted C. unknown D. illuminating
Câu 29: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s
ecosystems EXCEPT .
A. destruction of the tropical rain forests B. habitat destruction in wetlands
C. damage to marine ecosystems D. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
Câu 30: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in paragraph 2 to emphasize that .
A. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown
B. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’ extinction
C. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction
D. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
Câu 31: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by
humans in that changes caused by humans ______.
A. are occurring at a much faster rate B. are less devastating to most species
C. affect fewer ecosystems D. are reversible
Câu 32: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to .
A. humans B. other types of activities
C. poisonous waste D. marine ecosystems
Câu 33: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy
B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems
C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress
D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions
Câu 34: I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him in
the picture.
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A. show him B. take his photo C. inform him D. explain to him
Câu 35: She couldn’t believe when he told her his age. He looked so young but he was a good ten years
older than her.
A. no more than B. not quite C. not less than D. no way

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 36: A. culture B. mature C. nature D. vulture
Câu 37: A. communicate B. counterpart C. attention D. appropriate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Câu 38: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we’re not sure whether
A B C
the manager likes it.
D
Câu 39: To everyone’s surprise, it wasn’t in Hanoi City which he made his fortune, although that’s
A B C D
where he was born.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Câu 40: This is the communicative exchange at an electric shop.
- The shop assistant. “This is my last portable CD player. I’ll let you have it for sixty dollars.”
- Steven: “ ?”
A. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars B. Can you tell me your favourite type of music
C. Could you give me your last CD D. Could you give me a discount
Câu 41: Cannon is telling Callie a bad news.
Canono: “Mrs. Brown passed away yesterday”
Callie: “David has told me that. ”
A. God bless B. God rest her C. God save the Queen D. By God

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions.
Câu 42: A lot of people think that Angelina Jolie is really hot.
A. beautiful B. cool C. kind D. unattractive
Câu 43: Blue is an old hand at such compositions and has never had any trouble with them.
A. reserved about B. relaxed about C. inexperienced in D. uninterested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 44: A. blessed B. attracted C. hoped D. handed
Câu 45. A. accompany B. shortcoming C. category D. newcomer

Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Who talks more – men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist
Deborah Tannen, who has the studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a
stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal – talk more – in private situations, where
they use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationship together. But, she says, men talk more in
public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen
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points out that we can see these difference even in children. Little girls often play with one ‘best
friend’ and their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups, their play
usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, while boys
are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers
studied conversation between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk
very differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents
use more language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more
descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with
daughters than with sons.

Câu 46: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Little boys and little girls have different ways of playing
B. Women talk more than men on the whole
C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public
D. Women’s talking is a stereotype
Câu 47: Which word is similar in meaning to the word “glue”?
A. means B. Games C. rope D. sticky substance
Câu 48: Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word “verbal”?
A. Deriving from verbs B. Being very talkative
C. Using very loud noise D. Connected with use of spoken language
Câu 49: Which word can best replace the word “startling”?
A. annoying B. surprising C. interesting D. Beginning
Câu 50: Which of the following statement is TRUE about the passage?
A. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do
B. Parents give more love to their daughters than to their sons
C. Boys don’t like showing emotions
D. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters

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SỞ GD & ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12- LẦN 3
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐỒNG ĐẬU NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
MÔN: Tiếng Anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút;Không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 901
Họ, tên thí sinh:................................................................Số báo danh:....................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. started B. reached C. danced D. sniffed
Câu 2: A. accept B. accident C. success D. accurate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3: A. attract B. connect C. demand D. marry
Câu 4: A. interesting B. amusing C. successful D. surprising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Câu 5: David speaks Vietnamese better than her sister________.
A. do B. is C. does D. can
Câu 6: Neil Armstrong was the first man _______ on the moon.
A. has walked B. to walk C. walked D. walking
Câu 7: The police have begun an _______ into the accident which happened this afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigate C. investigating D. investigative
Câu 8: Cars have become much more complicated. ____, mechanics need more training than in the past.
A. However B. Therefore C. Otherwise D. Furthermore
Câu 9: I’m not accustomed _______ up so early.
A. to getting B. to get C. by getting D. getting
Câu 10: It’s high time we _______.
A. were leaving B. are leaving C. left D. leave
Câu 11: GPS systems help a lot of people ________on land, on the sea, and in the air.
A. interfere B. reunite C. navigate D. inform
Câu 12: Peter asked me _______.
A. what time does the film start B. what time the film started
C. what time did the film start D. what time the film starts
Câu 13: The room needs _______ for the wedding.
A. decorating B. to decorate C. decorate D. be decorated
Câu 14: If you have any problem, please call Ann. She’ll always _______ a sympathetic ear.
A. bring B. borrow C. give D. lend
Câu 15: This library card will give you free access _______ the Internet eight hours a day.
A. to B. on C. from D. in
Câu 16: Thanks to the help of his teacher and classmates, he made great _______ and passed the end-
term exam with high marks.
A. work B. progress C. experience D. fortunes
Câu 17: FM is a method of _________signals, especially in radio broadcasting.
A. translating B. transacting C. transmitting D. transferring
Câu 18: They didn’t find _______ in a foreign country.
A. it easy to live B. easy to live C. it easy live D. it to live easy
Câu 19: Tom hasn’t completed the work yet and Maria hasn’t _______,
A. neither B. either C. too D. also
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Câu 20: Let’s go over that report again before we submit it.
A. dictate B. print C. type D. read carefully
Câu 21: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films.
A. businesses B. contests C. advertisements D. economics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 22: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. understanding C. obedient D. disobedient
Câu 23: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend - I’m up to my ears in work.
A. free B. busy C. scared D. bored
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Câu 24: Mark has just arrived at the city and is asking a man on the street.
- Mark: “Can you tell me how to get to Lotus Hotel?”
- The man: “_______. I don’t know. I’m from out of town.”
A. Yes of course B. Sure C. I’ll show you D. No, I’m sorry
Câu 25: Maria and John are talking about university study.
- Maria: “Do you think that university is the only way to guarantee us a good job?”
- John : “_______ because there are successful people without a degree.”
A. You are right B. That’s true
C. Yes, we should find a job after university D. I don’t quite agree
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look
exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are (26) ________ for work or school, perhaps (27)
________ they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the wrong size, and
find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (28) ________
clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same
problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be (29)________ for winter. If your shoes
are not waterproof and if you aren’t (30)________ for the cold, you might look good, but feel terrible!
Câu 26: A. fitted B. equal C. suitable D. comfortable
Câu 27: A. but B. because C. although D. so
Câu 28: A. loose B. loosened C. lost D. lose
Câu 29: A. too warm B. warm enough C. so warm D. enough warm
Câu 30: A. fitted B. worn C. dressed D. clothed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek’s chief
god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle
caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but
later the games were opened to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized
physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, javelin
throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed
every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on
their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of
friendship and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to
strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities presented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles
called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. The contest coincided with religious festivities and constituted
an all-out effort on the part of participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were
dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the
cities they represented.
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Câu 31: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
C. Poems glorified the winners in songs.
D. The games were held in Greek every four years.
Câu 32: The word “elite” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. brave B. aristocracy C. muscular D. intellectual
Câu 33: Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. To stop wars. B. To sing songs about the athletes.
C. To honor Zeus. D. To crown the best athletes.
Câu 34: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. wars B. contests C. winners D. olive wreaths
Câu 35: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The Greeks severely punished those who didn’t participate in physical fitness programs.
B. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
C. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war when
the games were over.
D. Physical fitness was an integral part of the life of ancient Greeks.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In 2011, on the popular American TV quiz show, Jeopardy!, two champions competed against a brand
new opponent. Both Ken Jennings and Brad Rutter had won millions of dollars on Jeopardy!. Jennings
once won 74 games in a row, the most ever. Then Rutter beat him in a tournament and set a new record
for the most money won on Jeopardy!. Their new opponent, Watson, had never appeared on the game
show and had only played practice games before, in which he often got answers wrong.
However, Watson isn’t human. He, or rather it, is a machine, a wonder of technology made by
researchers at IBM. In the game, Watson used math to decide on an answer. When a question was read
out, Watson was immediately given the same question in electronic form. It analyzed the question and
searched its memory bank - about the same as one million books of information - for possible answers.
It then narrowed the options down to one answer. If Watson felt around 75 percent confident about the
answer, it would answer the question.
The way Watson thinks is very different from the way humans think. People often make decisions by
listening to their emotions and feelings, even if they are unsure of the answer. As a computer, Watson
couldn’t do this. People also watch and listen to those around them. Watson was not able to “listen” to the
wrong answers given by his competitors. In one question, Jennings answered the question incorrectly and
Watson later answered with the same wrong answer. Watson also made silly mistakes. In a question in the
category U.S. Cities, Watson incorrectly answered Toronto, even though the city of Toronto is in Canada.
An IBM researcher said Watson got confused because it saw in its memory bank that the U.S. is often
called America. Toronto is considered a North American city, so that was the answer that Watson gave.
Still, Watson defeated his human opponents somewhat easily and received the $1 million prize. The
other players also won money for participating in the special game. Everyone left the game happy, as
each player was earning money for different charities.
Câu 36: What best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Technological Marvel B. Human is Smarter
C. Champions of Jeopardy! D. Competitors of Jeopardy!
Câu 37: Which of the following is a silly mistake of Watson?
A. He based on other people’s clues to answer questions. B. He gave many answers to one question.
C. He repeated his opponent’s answer that was wrong. D. He repeated the question.
Câu 38: The word “him” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. Brad Rutter B. an IBM researcher C. Ken Jennings D. Watson
Câu 39: How can Watson understand the question read out by humans?
A. He searches for the same question in his memory.
B. He reads the question in an electronic form.

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C. He is helped by an IBM researcher. D. He just listens to it.
Câu 40: The word “bank” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stored information B. a financial service C. money D. side
Câu 41: All of the following statements are true about Watson EXCEPT
A. The way Watson produces an answer is the same as that of humans.
B. In order to answer questions, Watson uses math.
C. He’d never been in an official Jeopardy! before he joined the show with Jennings and Rutter.
D. His memory bank is equal to one million books.
Câu 42: The word “defeated” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lost B. understood C. won D. broke
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Câu 43: The more time you spend on prepare for the test, the higher scores you may get.
A. The more time B. prepare for C. the higher scores D. may get
Câu 44: Air pollution, together with littering, have been causing many problems in our large,
industrial cities in the last few years.
A. have been B. together with C. few year D. many
Câu 45: Venus approaches the Earth more closely than any other planet is.
A. the Earth B. is C. approaches D. any other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Câu 46: They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
B. They had to stand for the whole show.
C. They got good seats some time after they arrived.
D. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
Câu 47: “How brave you are!” he said to the firemen.
A. He blamed the firemen for their discouragement.
B. He criticized the firemen for their discouragement.
C. He asked how brave the firemen were.
D. He praised the firemen for their courage.
Câu 48: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.
A. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes.
B. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.
C. The university lets Peter major in electronics.
D. Peter majors in electronics at university.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 49: She is a famous author. She is also an influential political commentator.
A. She writes famous books, but she does not know much about politics.
B. She is neither a famous author nor a political commentator.
C. She likes writing famous books and commenting on politics.
D. She is not only a famous author but also an influential political commentator.
Câu 50: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
C. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
D. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.

-----------------------------------------------
----------- HẾT ----------

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STT 901 902 903 904 905 906 907 908
1 D A B C B C A D
2 D D D C B D C C
3 D C D A D A C B
4 A D C C C B C D
5 C B A B A D C C
6 B A D C B A B D
7 A B A C C D A D
8 B C C D B B A C
9 A B D C A D D B
10 C A C A D B C A
11 C D D D D D D D
12 B B A A A D A A
13 A A D D D C B B
14 D C C C A D C C
15 A C B D B B B C
16 B B A D B A B C
17 C D B A A A B C
18 A A C B C C C B
19 B D B B B C C B
20 D C C C C C C C
21 C C D C D C A D
22 C D C A A A D B
23 A B C A D B D D
24 D A C B B D A B
25 D B B D A B D D
26 C D D A B B A C
27 B B A C C C A C
28 A D B D C C B A
29 B A D B A A C B
30 C A B C B D D D
31 A B A D D D B A
32 B C A B A A C B
33 C C A B C D A D
34 B B B D C C D D
35 D D A A A B B A
36 A A B C C A B A
37 C C C D A A B C
38 C C A B D B D A
39 B B B D A B A A
40 A A D C D C D B
41 A C A D B C D A
42 C C D A C A A B
43 B D B A C D B D
44 A A D D A B A A
45 B A C A D A D A
46 D D D B D B C B

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47 D D C B C B C A
48 D D A B A A D A
49 D D B B B C C B
50 D B D A D B B C

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909 910 911 912
A A B B
B D A B
D D C C
B C C C
D C A A
B C C B
C B A B
C B D C
C A A B
A C B A
A B A A
C B D B
A B D A
D B C B
A A D B
D B B A
A A B A
B C C D
D C C C
B D A C
D A B B
B D A A
A C A A
B D B B
C B C C
C C D B
D B B B
C C B D
D B A A
D D D C
B A A D
D D C D
A A B D
B B C D
C C A A
A D D C
A A D C
C D A D
B D B D
D A A B
C D D D
C C C A
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D A D C
A C D C
B A D D
C D C D

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TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THI THPT QUỐC GIA
MÃ ĐỀ 204 LẦN 2 - NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021

(Đề gồm có 05 trang) MÔN: TIẾNG ANH


Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

Họ tên học sinh…………………………………..…….…… SBD……………………Phòng ……………


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5
What makes people give money to charity? One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to help
other people and make the world a better place. For example, religious institutions receive the highest
percentage of donations in the United States. Colleges and universities often receive gifts from successful
graduates who want to widen educational opportunities for other students or support research on an issue
they feel is important. Hospital and medical research organizations are often supported by donors who
have been affected by a medical problem, either directly or through the experience of family members or
friends. Many donors give to causes that have touched them personally in some way.
Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal interest. Under U.S tax law, an
individual does not have to pay income tax on money that is donated to charity. For extremely wealthy
individuals, this can mean millions of dollars they do not have to pay in taxes to the government. In
addition to tax benefits, donors often receive favorable publicity for making donations, and they have an
opportunity to influence the world around them. For instance, new buildings at colleges and universities
are often named after important donors, which means that they will be remembered for their generosity
for many years to come.
(Adapted from Macmillan Exams, Roy Norris, Ready for First, 3rd
Editor)
Question 1: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Charity Activities B. Charitable Giving
C. To Be Charitable D. To Be Altruistic
Question 2: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. colleges and universities B. other students
C. successful students D. educational opportunities
Question 3: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Altruism is the unselfish desire to help other people.
B. In the U.S, people donate a lot to religious institutions.
C. In the U.S, many charity events are held by the governors.
D. Many people give away money to charity for the sake of themselves.
Question 4: The word "affected" in paragraph 1 almost means ________.
A. attacked B. killed C. fought D. caught
Question 5: According to the passage, what is perhaps THE LEAST supported by the writer about
giving a charitable gift?
A. People can earn their living by going to charity events.
B. U.S people do not have to pay income tax on charitable donations.
C. Donors can have their names honored for a long time.
D. Donors have a chance to affect the world around them.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: The 13th National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam was attended by 1,587
delegates from around the country, the largest number at any congress so far.
A. attendants B. representatives C. participants D. audiences
Question 7: Readers are required to abide by the rules of the library and mind their manners.
A. obey B. memorize C. review D. compose

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 8: As the exams drew nearer, Manh knew it was time to move up a gear and started studying
late into the evening.
A. to go upstairs to bed B. to revise lessons
C. to change his mind D. to reduce the rate of study
Question 9: The combination of rain and greasy surfaces made driving conditions treacherous.
A. dangerous B. serious C. poor D. favorable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 10: A. habitat B. campfire C. survive D. wildlife
Question 11: A. problems B. beliefs C. prohibits D. looks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 12: A. evolution B. academic C. agriculture D. influential
Question 13: A. hacker B. marvel C. evolve D. software
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 14: Mary and Nhung is talking about Nhung’s project.
-Mary: “How is your project going?”
-Nhung: “__________________”
A. I’m working with John and Anne. B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
C. Great! Couldn’t be better. D. Do you really want to go?
Question 15: Lucy is talking to Huong, her Vietnamese friend, about air pollution in Hanoi.
- Lucy: “Is there anything we can do about the toxic air pollution in Hanoi recently?”
- Huong: “_______ but the only thing we can do is to avoid outdoors and wear masks.”
A. You’re telling me B. I don’t think I know the answer
C. I would say yes D. That’s easy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 20.
“Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Viet Nam is developing rapidly and gradually affirming that it is a
pillar and ____(16)____ technology in the fourth industrial revolution. Technological powers have long
built their own AI development strategies, taking this technology as the core for ____(17)______
economic development.” OpenGov reports.
Over the last few years, more organisations have started developing and applying AI in various
fields including education, telecommunications, retail, healthcare and ____(18)_____, which have not
only gradually dominated the market but also earned huge profits.
Currently, AI is the focus of the global technology circle and governments around the world.
Many countries have spent billions of US dollars on AI development strategies with the ambition to be
the frontrunners of AI.
Viet Nam is not outside this development trend either. In recent years, Viet Nam’s AI industry has
made visible strides with increasing AI content in various products, the release noted. Large domestic
technology corporations ____(19)_____ are interested in investing in and building AI sources implement
AI projects. Many domestic companies as well as innovative start-ups, also tend to invest in AI and carry
out many new applications in new business models. _____(20)______, like many countries that prioritize
AI investment, Viet Nam lacks large databases, infrastructure, resources, and a solid foundation from AI
businesses.
( Extracted from an article on vietnaminsider.vn )
Question 16: A. break-in B. outbreak C. breakdown D. breakthrough
Question 17: A. gaining B. accelerating C. widening D. diminishing
Question 18: A. others B. another C. other D. the other
Question 19: A. what B. that C. who D. whom
Question 20: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. In addition

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 21: __________ species must be saved in order to maintain the balance in the ecosystem.
A. Extinct B. Endangered C. Dead D. Risky
Question 22: The global economy suffered a recession in 2020 and recorded negative growth rate of
almost 4 percent _________ the Covid-19 pandemic.
A. because of B. although C. because D. despite
Question 23: By the end of today, Kim _________ all of the animal rescue centres in the city.
A. will visit B. will be visiting C. have visited D. will have visited
Question 24: He has been successful in his career thanks to the _______ from his family and friends.
A. supportive B. support C. supporter D. supporting
Question 25: Just before the lesson ended, the teacher ________ everything that she had taught.
A. summed up B. made up C. showed up D. took up
Question 26: Nobody comes there on time, _________ ?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they
Question 27: The boy did a good ____________ by helping the blind man cross the road.
A. show B. deed C. display D. feat
Question 28: The president _____ tribute to all the people who had supported him.
A. made B. gave C. paid D. returned
Question 29: Don't you think you should apply ______ the firefighter’s position?
A. with B. for C. at D. in
Question 30: We expect Linh _____ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes.
A. to coming B. not to come C. not coming D. coming
Question 31: ______________, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever raining B. As it will be raining
C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
Question 32: People thought that his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood
_______.
A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut
Question 33: _________ he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.
A. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless
Question 34: Kamala Harris is the 49th and current vice president of the United States. She is ______
first Black, first of South Asian origin, and first female occupant of the office.
A. a B. the C. no article D. an
Question 35: The book ______ last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in Viet Nam.
A. publishing B. published C. to publish D. to be published
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 36: Many successive film directors are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successive B. film directors C. former D. their
Question 37: It is an interested book which I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday.
A. interested B. which C. at D. last Sunday
Question 38: My mother as well as her friends always go out together at the weekend.
A. as well as B. friends C. go D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 39: Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. This is done to ensure there is no
shortage of fresh water.
A. For there is shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water.
B. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water because there is shortage of fresh water.
C. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water though there is no shortage of fresh water.
D. To ensure there is no shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking
water.
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Question 40: We ought to visit Grandma. Otherwise, she will be worried about us.
A. If we do not visit Grandma soon, she will start to worry.
B. Grandma is worried about us, so we should visit her.
C. We need not visit Grandma unless she is worried about us.
D. We should visit Grandma in case she is worried about us.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 41: The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got.
A. After learning more about the job, he lost interest in it.
B. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it.
C. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it.
D. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it.
Question 42: “I'll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me.
A. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 43: People think that he was born into a rich family.
A. People think that his family is rich, so he was born.
B. He is thought to be born into a rich family.
C. That he was born into a rich family is thought about.
D. He is thought to have been born into a rich family.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50
Do you like tuna? People in many countries like to eat tuna whether it is canned, cooked, or raw.
Unfortunately, humans are now eating too much tuna, and some species are becoming rare.
The name “tuna” refers to over 48 species of carnivorous fish that live in Pacific, Atlantic, Indian,
and Mediterranean oceans. The most important commercial species of tuna are yellowfin, bluefin, bigeye,
albacore, and skipjack. Skipjack makes up the majority of canned tuna, while the other species are served
either raw or cooked.
While the fishing of skipjack tuna is currently sustainable, it is widely accepted that the other
species have been severely overfished. In particular, bluefin tuna stocks are now at risk of collapse. From
1976 to 2006, the population of bluefin decreased by 92%. Overfishing continues despite repeated
warnings. In 2009, scientists recommended that the quota for northern bluefin be set at 7,500 tonnes, but
the Atlantic Tuna Commission set it at 16,000 tonnes. Even this limit was ignored, with the total catch of
Atlantic bluefin estimated to be 60,000 tonnes in 2009.
The reason for this overfishing is that yellowfin, bluefin, and bigeye tuna are prized for use as
sashimi (raw fish). This makes them very valuable. In 2011, a bluefin tuna weighing 342 kilograms was
sold in Tokyo for 32, 49 million yen (US $ 396,000). Recently, the sashimi-tuna species have become so
rare, and their price is so high that many sashimi restaurants have had to close.
In response to decreasing tuna stocks, scientists have been trying to breed tuna in captivity. In 2009,
an Australian company succeeded in breeding southern bluefin tuna in land-based tanks. This is an
important development because tuna farming currently relies on raising juvenile tuna that are caught in
the wild. Catching these juvenile tuna makes overfishing even worse.
Everyone needs to work together to help the wild tuna survive. You can help to save the wild tuna,
too. Next time you have tuna, check to make sure you aren’t eating a wild bluefin, yellowfin or bigeye.
Hopefully, if we all play our part, it won’t be too long before stocks of tuna recover to their former levels.
Question 44: What does the passage mainly talk about?
A. The reasons why many people like tuna B. Causes of the low population of tuna
C. Various types of tuna D. Declining tuna stocks and our actions
Question 45: According to the passage, which tuna species is now at risk of collapse?
A. all species B. bluefin C. yellowfin D. bigeye

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Question 46: The word “This” in the 5th paragraph refers to ___________.
A. decreasing tuna stocks B. trying to breed tuna
C. breeding bluefin tuna D. raising juvenile tuna
Question 47: It is stated in the passage that many sashimi restaurants closed down because ________.
A. bluefin tuna sashimi is not very popular
B. bluefin tuna are extinct
C. bluefin tuna has become expensive and rare
D. people liked canned or cooked tuna more
Question 48: Which sentence about tuna is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. It is possible to breed tuna in land-based tanks
B. Worldwide stocks of tuna have decreased
C. Canned tuna is mostly made of skipjack tuna.
D. There are only few species of tuna in the world
Question 49:The word “juvenile” in the 5th passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. old B. young C. fresh D. strong
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _____________
A. Tuna overfishing has stopped due to repeated warnings.
B. Nothing can be done to help the wild tuna survive.
C. To recover stocks of tuna, we should be aware of what species of tuna we are eating.
D. Raising juvenile tuna is only one measure to save the wild tuna.

-------------- HẾT --------------

Lưu ý - Kết quả được đăng tải trên trang Web: quangxuong1.edu.vn vào ngày 25/03/2021
- Lịch giao lưu lần 3 ngày 18/04/2021

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TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM CHI TIẾT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC GIAO LƯU KIẾN THỨC THPT-LẦN 2
NĂM HỌC 2020- 2021
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
MÃ ĐỀ 204
Đáp
Câu Giải thích chi tiết đáp án
án
1 B Tiêu đề tốt nhất cho đoạn văn?
B. Làm từ thiện
2 C They ~ “successful graduates”
“colleges and universities often…..they feel is important.”
Các trường cao đẳng và đại học thường nhận được quà tặng từ những cử nhân đã tốt nghiệp
thành công người muốn mở ra cơ hội học tập cho các sinh viên khác hoặc hỗ trợ những
nghiên cứu về một vấn đề mà họ thấy là quan trọng
3 C Câu A: đúng ( thông tin ở dòng 1, 2 đoạn 1: “One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to
help other people and make the world a better place.”)
Câu B: đúng ( thông tin ở dòng 2, 3 đoạn 1: “religious institutions receive the highest
percentage of donations in the United States.”)
Câu C: Ở Mỹ, nhiều sự kiện từ thiện được tổ chức bởi các thống đốc → sai: không có thông
tin
Câu D: đúng ( Nhiều người quyên góp tiền vào từ thiện vì lợi ích của chính bản thân họ:
thông tin ở dòng 1, đoạn 2: Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal
interest.)
4 A Affected: bị ảnh hưởng
Bệnh viện và các tổ chức nghiên cứu y học thường được tài trợ bởi những nhà tài trợ mà từng
bị ảnh hưởng bởi vấn đề sức khỏe, hoặc trực tiếp hoặc gián tiếp qua trải nghiệm của các
thành viên gia đình hoặc bạn bè.
5 A Theo đoạn văn, câu nào sau đây ít được ủng hộ / tán thành nhất bởi tác giả về việc trao quà từ
thiện?
Câu A.Mọi người có thể kiếm sống bằng cách đi đến các sự kiện từ thiện.
Câu B: đúng ( thông tin ở dòng 2 đoạn 2: individual does not have to pay income tax on
money that is donated to charity)
Câu C: Người quyên góp có thể có tên của học được vinh danh trong thời gian dài: new
buildings at colleges and universities are often named after important donors, which means
that they will be remembered for their generosity for many years to come. (Toàn nhà mới ở
trường Đại học, cao đẳng thường được đặt theo tên của các nhà đóng góp quan trọng, điều đó
có nghĩa là họ sẽ được nhớ đến vì sự hào phóng trong nhiều năm sắp tới)
Câu D: they have an opportunity to influence the world around them ( Họ có cơ hội ảnh
hưởng đến thế giới xung quanh họ)
6 B Delegate: đại biểu = representatives
Đại hội lần thứ 13 của Đảng Cộng sản Việt Nam có sự tham dự của 1,587 đại biểu trên khắp
cả nước, con số đông nhất ở mộ t kì đại hội từ trước đến nay.
7 A Abide by = obey = adhere to = comply with ( rules/ regulations) : tuân theo ( quy định)
Người đọc phải tuân theo các quy định của thư viện và chú ý hành vi ( cách ứng xử ) của họ.
8 D Move up a gear : bắt đầu làm việc gì đó tốt hơn, đầy năng lượng hơn
>< reduce the rate of study : giảm tốc độ học tập
Vì kì thi đang đến gần, Mạnh biết đã đến lúc phải tăng tốc lên ( tăng tốc độ học tập) và bắt
đầu học khuya vào buổi tối.
9 D Treacherous (a) = dangerous (a) nguy hiểm ( điều kiện tồi tệ)
>< favorable / favourable (a) thuận lợi
Sự kết hợp giữa mưa và mặt đường bóng nhờn làm cho điều kiện lái xe nguy hiểm.
10 A A. habitat /ˈhæb.ɪ.tæt/ ( UK) / /ˈhæb.ə.tæt/ (US) B. campfire /ˈkæmp.faɪər/
C. survive /səˈvaɪv/ D.wildlife /ˈwaɪld.laɪf/
11 A Kiến thức về phát âm đuôi “s”
A. problems /ˈprɒb.ləmz/ B. beliefs /bɪˈliːfs/
C. prohibits /prəˈhɪb.ɪts/ D. looks /lʊks/
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12 C Kiến thức về trọng âm của từ có 3 âm tiết trở lên
A.evolution /ˌiː.vəˈluː.ʃən/ B. academic /ˌæk.əˈdem.ɪk/
C. agriculture /ˈæɡ.rɪ.kʌl.tʃər/ D. influential /ˌɪn.fluˈen.ʃəl/

13 C Kiến thức về trọng âm của từ có 2 âm tiết


A .hacker /ˈhæk.ər/ B. marvel / /ˈmɑː.vəl/
C.evolve /ɪˈvɒlv/ D.solfware /ˈsɒft.weər/
14 C Kiến thức về câu giao tiếp
Mary và Nhung đang nói chuyện về dự án của Nhung
Mary: “Dự án của bạn (diễn ra) như thế nào rồi?”
Nhung: “____________”
C.Rất tuyêt! Không thể tốt hơn.
15 B Lucy đang nói chuyện với Huong, một người bạn người Việt Nam, về ô nhiễm không khí ở
Hà nội.
Lucy: “Có điều gì chúng ta có thể làm về ô nhiễm không khí độc hại ở Hà nội gần đây
không?”
Huong: “_________ nhưng điều duy nhất chúng ta có thể làm là tránh ra ngoài trời và đeo
khẩu trang.”
B. Tôi nghĩ tôi không biết câu trả lời
16 D Breakthrough: bước ngoặt
Break-in: đột nhập
Breakdown: sự hư hỏng ( xe cộ) / sự suy sụp ( tinh thần)
Outbreak: sự bùng phát ( dịch bệnh/ chiến tranh)
17 B Accelerate ( economic development) : tăng cường, thúc đẩy ( phát triển kinh tế)
Gain: thu được, giành được ( gain experience: thu được kinh nghiệm/ gain weight: lên cân)
Widen: mở rộng, làm cho rộng ra
Diminish: bớt, giảm, hạ bớt, giảm bớt
18 A Others: những cái khác
19 B Mệnh đề quan hệ: “that” thay cho “which” đứng sau “large domestic technology
corporations” ( danh từ chỉ vật: các tập đoàn công nghệ lớn trong nước)
20 A However,.. tuy nhiên
Tuy nhiên, giống như nhiều quốc gia ưu tiên cho đầu tư trí tuệ nhân tạo, Việt Nam thiếu cơ
sở dữ liệu lớn, cơ sở vật chất, tài nguyên và nền tảng vững chắc từ ngành trí tuệ nhân tạo.
21 B Endangered species: loài bị nguy hiểm
Những loài bị nguy hiểm phải được bảo vệ để duy trì sự cân bằng trong hệ sinh thái
(extinct: tuyệt chủng/ dead: đã chết/ risky: mạo hiểm, có nguy cơ)
22 A Kiến thức về mệnh đề / từ nối
Nền kinh tế toàn cầu chịu sự suy thoái trong năm 2020 và ghi nhận tốc độ tăng trưởng âm
gần 4% do đại dịch Covid-19.
23 D Kiến thức về thì của động từ ( thì tương lai hoàn thành)
By + thời gian tương lai, S + will have V-p2
24 B Kiến thức về từ loại
Sau “the” phải sử dụng danh từ → support (n) → Đáp án B
Anh ấy thành công trong sự nghiệp nhờ sự ủng hộ từ gia đình và bạn bè.
25 A Sum up: tóm tắt
Make up: trang điểm, bịa chuyện, chiếm (bao nhiêu phần), làm hòa ( sau tranh cãi)
Show up: xuất hiện
Take up ( sports / hobby) bắt đầu một thói quen, sở thích nào đó
Ngay trước khi bài học kết thúc, thầy, cô giáo tóm tắt tất cả những gì mà thầy/ cô giáo vừa
dạy.
26 C Kiến thức về câu hỏi láy đuôi
Nobody → mang nghĩa phủ định và thay bằng đại từ “they”
27 B Kiến thức về cụm từ cố định
Do a good deed: làm việc tốt
Cậu bé làm được việc tốt bằng cách giúp đỡ người đàn ông bị mù qua đường
28 C Kiến thức về cụm từ cố định
Website: https://tailieudieuky.com/
Pay tribute to sb ~ pay respect to sb: coi trọng/ kính trọng ai = look up to sb
Vị chủ tịch kính trọng tất cả những người mà đã ủng hộ anh ấy.
29 B Apply for a job / the position: nạp đơn xin việc/ xin vào chức vụ nào đó
30 B Kiến thức về dạng của động từ ( to V/ V-ing)
Expect + O + to V
31 D Kiến thức về mệnh đề trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian
Bất cứ khi nào trời mưa, Joe ở trên giường và đọc tạp chí
(Chỉ thói quen ở hiện tại nên hai vế đều sử sụng thì hiện tại đơn)
32 C Mọi người nghĩ rằng tiều thuyết của anh ấy có lẽ một ngày nào đó sẽ chuyển thế thành phim
và trở thành một bộ phim bom tấn của Hollywood.
(best-seller: sách bán chạy nhất / attraction: hấp dẫn, thu hút / blockbuster: phim bom tấn /
debut: lần ra mắt đầu tiên của nghệ sĩ/ nhóm nhạc hay sản phẩm âm nhạc)
33 B Đảo ngữ câu điều kiện ( điều kiện hỗn hợp 3- 2)
34 B Kiến thức về mạo từ
The đứng trước số thứ tự: “first/ second/…last…”
35 B Mệnh đề quan hệ rút gọn
Cuốn sách được xuất bản tuần trước là tiểu thuyết đầu tiên của cô cấy về một Di sản thế giới
ở Việt Nam.
36 A - → successful
Successful: thành công
Successive: liên tiếp ( two successive terms: hai nhiệm kỳ liên tiếp)
Succeeding: kế tiếp ( succeeding generation: thế hệ kế tiếp)
37 A ➔ interesting ( đứng trước danh từ miêu tả)

38 C Kiến thức về hòa hợp chủ - vị


➔ goes
Chủ ngữ chính trong câu là “My mother”
S1, as well as S2 + V ( chia theo chủ ngữ 1)
39 D Kiến thức về sử dụng từ nối / kết hợp câu
Nước thải được xử lý và biến thành nước uống. Điều này được thực hiện để đảm bảo không
thiếu nước ngọt.
Câu A: Vì thiếu nước ngọt, nước thải được xử lý và biến thành nước uống → Sai nghĩa
Câu B: Nước thải được xử lý và biến thành nước ngọt bởi vì thiếu nước ngọt. → Sai nghĩa
Câu C: Nước thải được xử lý và biến thành nước ngọt mặc dù không thiếu nước ngọt. → Sai
nghĩa
Câu D: Để đảm bảo không thiếu nước ngọt, nước thải được xử lý và biến thành nước uống.
→ Đúng nghĩa, đúng cấu trúc.
40 A Kiến thức về mệnh đề
Chúng ta nên đến thăm bà. Nếu không thì, bà sẽ lo lắng về chúng ta.
~A. nếu chúng ta không thăm bà, bà sẽ bắt đầu lo lắng về chúng ta.
41 A Kiến thức về so sánh kép
Anh ta càng hiểu biết nhiều về công việc, anh ta càng ít thích thú về nó
~A. Sau khi biết nhiều hơn về công việc, anh ta mất đi sự thích thú đối với công việc đó.
42 C Kiến thức về câu gián tiếp
“Tôi sẽ gọi điện cho ban ngay khi tôi đến sân bay” anh ta nói với tôi
~ C. Anh ta hứa sẽ gọi điện cho tôi ngay khi anh ấy đến sân bay.
(promise + to V: hứa / object to + V-ing: phản đối / deny + V-ing: phủ nhận / remind + O +
to V: nhắc nhở)
43 D Kiến thức về câu bị động ( dạng đặc biệt)
Câu A và câu D sai nghĩa
Không chọn câu B vì trong câu gốc : sau ‘that’ sử dụng động từ quá khứ nên ta sử dụng cấu
trúc : S + be + thought/ said/ reported + to have Vp2… → chọn đáp án D
44 D Đoạn văn chủ yếu nói về nội dung gì?
A.Nguyên nhân tại sao nhiều người thích cá ngừ.
B.Nguyên nhân số lượng cá ngừ ít
C. Các loài cá ngừ khác nhau
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D. Số lượng cá ngừ đang sụt giảm và hành động của chúng ta.
45 B Dòng 2 đoạn 3
In particular, bluefin tuna stocks are now at risk of collapse
46 C “This” ~ “breeding bluefin tuna”

47 C Theo như đoạn văn nhiều nhà hàng sashimi đóng cửa do ______
C. cá ngừ vây xanh đã đang trở nên hiếm và đắt.
Recently, the sashimi-tuna species have become so rare, and their price is so high that many
sashimi restaurants have had to close
48 D Câu nào không ĐÚNG về cá ngừ
Câu A: In 2009, an Australian company succeeded in breeding southern bluefin tuna in land-
based tanks
Câu B: In response to decreasing tuna stocks
Câu C: Skipjack makes up the majority of canned tuna
Câu D: Sai vì “ Chỉ có rất ít loài cá ngừ trên thế giới” nhưng trong đoạn 2: :”The name
“tuna” refers to over 48 species of carnivorous fish that live in Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, and
Mediterranean oceans.”
49 B Juvenile ~ young: trẻ/ nhỏ ( nghĩa gốc: vị thành niên)
50 C Có thể suy luận từ đoạn văn rằng_____
C. Để phục hồi số lượng cá ngừ, chúng ta nên nhận thức loài cá ngừ nào mà chúng ta đang
ăn.
“You can help to save the wild tuna, too. Next time you have tuna, check to make sure you
aren’t eating a wild bluefin, yellowfin or bigeye. Hopefully, if we all play our part, it won’t
be too long before stocks of tuna recover to their former levels.”

Lưu ý - Kết quả được đăng tải trên trang Web: quangxuong1.edu.vn vào ngày 25/03/2021
- Lịch giao lưu lần 3 ngày 18/04/2021

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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ KSCL KHỐI 12 LẦN 3 NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2 Đề thi môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề: 406
Đề thi gồm: 04 trang

Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………..….Số báo danh:…………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 1. The girl came back from England. She was kept in an isolation ward then.
A. Having come back from England, they kept the girl in an isolation ward.
B. Only after the girl came back from England that she was kept in an isolation ward.
C. Hardly had the girl come back from England when she was kept in an isolation ward.
D. Not until the girl was kept in an isolation ward did she come back from England.
Question 2. My father gave us his money. We could manage our business successfully.
A. Had it not been for my father's money, we could have managed our business successfully.
B. But for my father's money we couldn't manage our business successfully.
C. Without my father's money, we couldn't have managed our business successfully.
D. If my father didn't give us his money, we couldn't manage our business successfully.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 3. "Would you like to drink some green tea?" said the boy to his girlfriend.
A. The boy advised her girlfriend to drink green tea.
B. The boy asked his girlfriend if she had drunk green tea.
C. The boy invited his girlfriend to drink some green tea.
D. The boy reminded his girlfriend to drink some green tea.
Question 4. An IPhone 12 Pro Max is not so expensive as a Samsung Galaxy Z.
A. An IPhone 12 Pro Max is more expensive than a Samsung Galaxy Z.
B. A Samsung Galaxy Z is not as expensive as an IPhone 12 Pro Max.
C. A Samsung Galaxy Z is more expensive than an IPhone 12 Pro Max.
D. An IPhone 12 Pro Max is as expensive as a Samsung Galaxy Z.
Question 5. It is against the school rules to cheat in the test.
A. You must not cheat in the test. B. You needn't cheat in the test.
C. You can't have cheated in the test. D. You don't have to cheat in the test.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6. She insists ________ having her own bedroom.
A. for B. on C. in D. at
Question 7. Mary felt shocked ________.
A. until the boss gives her the sack for being late
B. before the boss has given her the sack for being late
C. as soon as the boss has given her the sack for being late
D. when the boss gave her the sack for being late
Question 8. Since we came here, we ______ a lot of acquaintances.
A. have B. had C. have had D. are having
Question 9. The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, __________?
A. doesn't it B. is not it C. is it D. isn't it
Question 10. The game has been cancelled ________ bad weather conditions.
A. although B. because C. because of D. in spite of
Question 11. The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.
A. forbidding B. prohibitive C. inflatable D. competitive
Question 12. She _________ her success to hard work and a little luck.
A. recognizes B. commits C. attributes D. concludes

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Question 13. The government hoped _________ the pandemic in 10 days.
A. containing B. contained C. to containing D. to contain
Question 14. When I got an e-mail asking for my password, I should have smelled a _______.
A. rat B. bat C. cat D. dog
Question 15. He was offered the job thanks to his _______performance during his job interview.
A. impress B. impressively C. impressive D. impression
Question 16. He was jailed for providing false information to _______police.
A. an B. x (no article) C. the D. a
Question 17. The chef ________ the food today works in a well-known restaurant.
A. is prepared B. prepared C. is preparing D. preparing
Question 18. I'll pay you double if you _______ the work finished by Friday.
A. will get B. gets C. got D. get
Question 19. It is high time we had to _________some measures to protect endangered species.
A. bring B. make C. give D. take
Question 20. Where were you exactly when the bomb______?
A. set off B. blew out C. broke out D. went off
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 21 to 25.
A new VR (virtual reality) headset for the home user will be in the shops soon. Unlike the heavy VR
headsets (21)_______ people have been using in arcades for the last few years, the new sets look more like
a pair of sunglasses than a fireman's helmet. A spokesman for the company said 'A lot of people had
problems with the old headsets. They were so heavy that if you wore them (22)_______ for more than an
hour or so, they could cause quite a lot of pain. Our new headsets are very comfortable, and will be perfect
for games, as well as in education'.
Some scientists, (23)_______, are worried about the effects of VR. Child psychologist Brenda Smith
explained 'There have already been several cases of violence among young children where computer games
were to blame. With VR, we will soon have children who are not used to playing with (24)_______ people.
Spending your life in a constant battle with aliens and monsters is not really a suitable environment for
someone young. We recommend that a child should experience actual reality, not virtual reality, and it
would be a great (25)_______ for parents to bring this sort of technology into the home.'
Question 21. A. that B. whom C. what D. who
Question 22. A. continuously B. always C. regularly D. instantly
Question 23. A. although B. therefore C. however D. furthermore
Question 24. A. another B. others C. other D. every
Question 25. A. blame B. benefit C. fault D. mistake
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
The first public television broadcast in the United States took place in 1928. The broadcast didn't reach
many people-at that time there were only four television sets.
Today, 98 percent of American houses have at least one television, and 41 percent have three or more. The
average American house has the TV on for 7 Hours and 40 minutes every day.
Many people are concerned with the effect that so much television has on American people-especially
children. The average child watches 28 hours of TV a week. The average youth spends 1,023 hours a year
watching TV (they spend only 900 hours a year in school). By the time they finish high school, the average
American teenager will have seen 16,000 murders on TV.
One group trying to get people to watch less TV is the TV-Turnoff Network, who celebrate TV-Turnoff
Week every year. In 2002, they got 6.5 million people to stop watching TV for a week. "Turn off TV, turn
on life", they say.
Watching less TV is also taking off with some Hollywood celebrities. Tom Cruise, the actor, only allows
his children to watch 3.5 hours of TV a week. Director Stephen Spielberg only lets his five children watch
an hour a day. One Australian actress, Naomi Watts, lets her children watch only the soccer World Cup on
TV-once every four years!
Question 26. What is the best title for this passage?
A. American Television Programs B. A History of Television
C. Hollywood Celebrity Families D. Can Television Be A Bad Thing?

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Question 27. The word "celebrities" in the passage mostly means _____.
A. well-known films B. big shows C. famous people D. blockbusters
Question 28. Which of these sentences is NOT true?
A. The average young person in the US spends more time in school each week than watching TV.
B. The average American child watches more than 25 hours of TV a week.
C. The average American teenager will have seen 16,000 people being killed by the time they finish
high school.
D. TV is on the average American house for more than 40 hours a week.
Question 29. According to the reading, who lets their children watch the most TV?
A. Tom Cruise B. Naomi Watts C. Stephen Spielberg D. the TV-Turnoff Network
Question 30. The word 'they' in the passage refers to_______.
A. American adults B. the American teenager
C. murderers D. the TV-Turnoff Network
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. reckless B. experienced C. flexible D. disciplined
Question 32. Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable employment.
A. temporary B. steady C. long-lasting D. durable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 33. Thanh is talking to Nadia after class.
- Thanh: "Lan's the best singer in our school". - Nadia: "___________"
A. That's OK! B. Yes, please.
C. Yes, tell me about it! D. I can't agree with you more!
Question 34. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
- Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking it for months." - Daniel: "_____________"
A. Thank you for looking for it. B. You can say that again.
C. I like reading books. D. I'm glad you like it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 35 to 41.
Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in fact most
lions do come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten thousand years, we
would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe. However now, unfortunately only a
very small section of the lion's former habitat remains.
Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since the Asiatic
lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living as far west as Greece
and they were found from there, but in a band that spreads east through various countries of the Middle
East, all the way to India. In museums now, you can see Greek coins that have clear images of the Asiatic
lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500 B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming
free two thousand years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other
areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared from everywhere but
in India.
The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic lion. There are
now around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this sanctuary. However,
despite living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters, they still face a number of problems
that threaten their survival. One of these is the ever-present danger of disease. This is what killed more than
a third of Africa's Serengeti lions in 1994, and people are fearful that something similar could happen in
the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many of the Asiatic lions there.
India's lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The reason for this is
interesting - it is because all of them are descended from a few dozen lions that were saved by a prince who
took a particular interest in them. He was very healthy, and he managed to protect them; otherwise they
would probably have died out completely.

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When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are very
impressive animals and you would never guess that they have this vulnerability when you look at them.
Question 35. The passage was written to _____.
A. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary
B. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions
C. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions
D. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions
Question 36. The word "vulnerable" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. easily hurt B. well protected C. careless D. cautious
Question 37. According to the passage, many people believe that lions come from _____.
A. Middle East B. India C. Europe D. Africa
Question 38. The word 'these' in the passage refers to_______.
A. hunters B. diseases C. Asiatic lions D. problems
Question 39. According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary _____.
A. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected
B. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion's risk of catching diseases
C. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases
D. can make the Asiatic lion become weak
Question 40. The phrase "split off" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. spotted animals B. changed the original species
C. developed into different species D. divided equally
Question 41. The following statements are correct EXCEPT that _____.
A. the current Asiatic lions come from a great number of lions
B. although the Asiatic lion looks strong from appearance they are easily attacked by diseases
C. the Asiatic lion was loved by a wealthy prince
D. a rich prince sponsored the protection of Asiatic lions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 42. Many nations protect endangered species by forbidding hunting, to restrict land development
and creating preserves.
A. protect B. forbidding C. to restrict D. and creating
Question 43. The girl, as well as her siblings, have donated virtually all their savings to charity.
A. charity B. siblings C. have D. savings
Question 44. We divide up the homework between us - but he always makes me clean the bathrooms!
A. divide up B. homework C. clean D. between
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 45. A. negative B. commercial C. energy D. habitat
Question 46. A. student B. danger C. office D. diverse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 47. The greatest achievements were obtained in the fight against communicable disease.
A. removable B. incurable C. chronic D. infectious
Question 48. Environmentalists appeal to the government to enact laws to stop factories from discharging
toxic chemicals into the sea.
A. dismissing B. obtaining C. releasing D. preserving
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 49. A. calls B. loves C. stops D. learns
Question 50. A. weight B. neighbour C. height D. eighty

________ THE END ________

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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KSCL KHỐI 12 LẦN 3 NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2 ĐÁP ÁN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

MÃ ĐỀ
Question 401 402 403 404 405 406
1 A D C C D C
2 C D C B C C
3 A B C B A C
4 A D B A D C
5 B B B C D A
6 A A C B A B
7 B B C B C D
8 C A C D A C
9 C D C C D D
10 A D A C A C
11 B B C B C B
12 D A B A C C
13 A A A B B D
14 A D C C C A
15 D C B D A C
16 A B B A C C
17 A C D B C D
18 D B D C C D
19 C D D B C D
20 D D B A C D
21 D C C A C A
22 A D B A A A
23 D C C A D C
24 D B C C C C
25 A A A A A D
26 B B A A C D
27 B B A C D C
28 A B A B A A
29 B B A C B C

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30 B D B A B B
31 A B A B B B
32 B C D C D A
33 A D B D C D
34 D D B A B D
35 C B A B C B
36 D C C D B A
37 C B C C B D
38 A B C A C D
39 A D B A B B
40 D C B D B C
41 C D D B A A
42 B A B C B C
43 C B C C D B
44 C D C A B B
45 A D B D A B
46 B A B A D D
47 B A A D B D
48 C C D D C C
49 B C D B C C
50 C C B A B C

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI KSCL LẦN 3 NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VIẾT XUÂN Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
Mã đề thi: 037 (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of
sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2.
Câu 1: I invited Rachel to my party, but she couldn’t come. She had arranged to do something else.
A. If Rachel hadn’t arranged to do something else, she would come to my party as invited.
B. Without having arranged to do something else, Rachel would have come to my party as invited.
C. If it hadn’t been for her arrangement for something else, Rachel would come to my party as invited.
D. Rachel would have come to my party, unless she hadn’t arranged to so something else.
Câu 2: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions from 3 to 5.
Câu 3: “You’re always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Câu 4: Joey put all his money on the lottery, which was his big mistake.
A. Joey can’t have put all his money on the lottery.
B. Joey may not have put all his money on the lottery.
C. Joey needn’t have put all his money on the lottery.
D. Joey shouldn’t have put all his money on the lottery.
Câu 5: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
B. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive Fansipan.
D. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 6 to 8.
Câu 6: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the
surrounding area.
A. irrigation B. generating
C. to control flooding D. surrounding area
Câu 7: What the woman was saying were so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. to stop taking B. was saying C. were D. What
Câu 8: Kazakova’s performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.
A. Kazakova’s B. the heroin of C. Film Festival D. made
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C orD on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 9 to 15.
Urbanization degrades the environment, according to conventional wisdom. This view has led
many developing countries to limit rural-urban migration and curb urban expansion. But this view is
incorrect. There are a number of reasons urbanization can be good for the environment, if managed
properly.
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First, urbanization brings higher productivity because of its positive externalities and economies
of scale. Asian urban productivity is more than 5.5 times that of rural areas. The same output can be
produced using fewer resources with urban agglomeration than without. In this sense, urbanization
reduces the ecological footprint. The service sector requires urbanization because it needs a concentration
of clients. As services generally pollute less than manufacturing, this aspect of urbanization is also
beneficial to the environment.
Second, for any given population, the high urban density is benign for the environment. The
urban economics literature shows that compactness is a key determinant of energy use. High density can
make public transport more viable and reduce the length of trips. Urban living encourages walking and
cycling rather than driving. Third, environment-friendly infrastructure and public services such as piped
water, sanitation, and waste management are much easier and more economical to construct, maintain,
and operate in an urban setting. Urbanization allows more people to have access to environment-friendly
facilities and services at affordable prices.
Fourth, urbanization drives innovation, including green technologies. In the long term,
environment-friendly equipment, machines, vehicles, and utilities will determine the future of the green
economy. Green innovations in Asia’s cities will be supported by the region’s vast market as the billions
of people who will be buying energy-efficient products will create opportunities and incentives for
entrepreneurs to invest in developing such products. Finally, the higher standard of living associated with
urbanization provides people with better food, education, housing, and health care. Urban growth
generates revenues that fund infrastructure projects, reducing congestion and improving public health.
Urbanization fosters a pro-environment stance among property owners and the middle class, which is
crucial for the introduction and enforcement of environmental laws and regulations.
Of course, urbanization also comes with costs. Millions of people are migrating to Asian cities and
companies are locating there to employ them. Urban sprawl and industrial activities, such as power
generation, transportation, construction, garbage and waste disposal, harm the environment. An
assessment of the impact of urbanization on the environment must balance its benign and adverse effects.
(Source: https://www.asiapathways-adbi.org/)
Câu 9: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Urbanization might actually do some good.
B. Five things to do in the age of urbanization.
C. Driving force behind urbanization.
D. Urban sprawl brings challenges.
Câu 10: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. considerate B. gentle C. harmful D. overwhelming
Câu 11: According to paragraph 3, through which can the optimization of power be achieved?
A. High-powered public transport
B. The awareness of commuters
C. Interconnected relationships of townspeople
D. The proximity of places in a cities
Câu 12: According to paragraph 4, why is the promotion of an environmentally friendly attitude
necessary?
A. Urbanization cannot proceed further without the consideration for nature.
B. The government will not need a forceful means of regulation.
C. It is conducive to the later intervention of legal rules.
D. It is due to the conscience of the affluent.
Câu 13: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Visionary technologies can ensure environmentally sustainable development.
B. The service industry does more harm than good.
C. The term urbanization refers to when the lifestyle that is common in a city becomes prevalent.
D. The detrimental effects of urbanization on the environment cannot be reversed.
Câu 14: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. costs B. clients C. Asian cities D. migrants
Câu 15: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

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A. We can look forward to a green society in a not-so-distant future.
B. Urbanization will not take its course for the better.
C. There are not enough countermeasures for the negative effects of urbanization.
D. Everyone has been mistaken about the urbanization.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 16 to 17.
Câu 16: In certain types of poisoning, immediately give large quantities of soapy or salty water in order
to induce vomiting.
A. stop B. cause C. clean D. control
Câu 17: I was tickled pink when I got my first bike. I’ll never forget it was pink with ribbons tied on the
handle bars.
A. very pleased B. very lucky
C. very hopeful D. very embarrassed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 18 to 19.
Câu 18: A. culture B. balance C. success D. problem
Câu 19: A. commercial B. decisive C. electric D. powerful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 20 to 21.
Câu 20: Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. help B. nourish C. treat D. defeat
Câu 21: That last comment of yours carried the day because nobody could possibly argue with you
after that.
A. was a break B. was a big hit C. was a success D. was a failure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 22 to 36.
Câu 22: There is a lot of traffic so we are trying to find an _______ route.
A. alternate B. alternative C. alternation D. alternatively
Câu 23: Mrs Florida felt that her marriage had become _______ prison.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
Câu 24: While Peter _______ the rose bush in the back yard, the phone rang.
A. was watering B. has watered C. waters D. watered
Câu 25: E-mail allows people _______ in touch, regardless of distance.
A. staying B. to staying C. to stay D. stay
Câu 26: If you _______ a wallet in the street, what would you do with it?
A. had found B. find C. found D. have found
Câu 27: You stayed at home last night, _______?
A. would you B. did you C. had you D. didn’t you
Câu 28: Sometimes she does not agree _______ her husband about child-rearing but they soon find the
solutions.
A. with B. for C. of D. on
Câu 29: The song _______ by our listeners as their favorite of the week is “Goodbye Baby” by
Tunesmiths.
A. choosing B. chosen C. chooses D. was chosen
Câu 30: She _______ her anger by going for a walk.
A. work at B. work on C. work off D. work out
Câu 31: You must mix the right _______ of soap and water if you want to blow bubbles that last longer.
A. propensity B. proportion C. percentage D. majority
Câu 32: When he went to Egypt, he knew _______ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become
extremely fluent.
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A. barely B. entirely C. scarcely D. virtually
Câu 33: It was noticeable how a few people managed to _______ their will on the others.
A. judge B. break C. focus D. impose
Câu 34: In Korea, all men have to _______ military service for a period of time in their lives.
A. have B. do C. take D. make
Câu 35: This firm’s gone to the _______ since the new management took over.
A. dogs B. ducks C. horses D. cats
Câu 36: _______ as the most important crop in Hawaii is sugar cane.
A. It ranks B. That ranks C. What ranks D. It is ranked
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 41.
The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can
discover the wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will
light up. Start a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and
capture our imagination.
The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation,
communication, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in
science and technology among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be
established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand,
two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby,
Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation. These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage
visitors to make return visits to the centre.
Instead of the usual “Hands off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the
exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if
you hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve.
This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It
shows us about the animals and people that were extinct.
Câu 37: What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Physical Sciences B. Discovery Centre
C. Singapore Science Centre D. Science Centre
Câu 38: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. evolution B. solar radiation
C. the general public D. the centre
Câu 39: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science
Centre?
A. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre.
B. The centre is the first one established in the world.
C. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics.
D. The centre was not opened until 1977.
Câu 40: It is stated in paragraph 2 that _______.
A. visitors don’t want to come back to the science centre
B. the science centre makes people interested in science and technology
C. only students can visit the science centre
D. there are only several exhibits in the science centre
Câu 41: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. The centre is located in Jurong
B. The centre is the biggest in Asia
C. The exhibits are renewed every year
D. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges from 42 to 43.
Câu 42: John and Mary are having dinner at her house.

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– John: “This dish is really delicious!”
– Mary: “_______. It’s called Yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers.”
A. Sure, I’ll be glad to B. It’s my pleasure
C. I guess you’re right D. I’m glad you like it
Câu 43: Christina and John are in the English evening class.
– Christina: “Why do you think the most people learn English?” – John: “_______”
A. Very often it’s to get a better job. B. Because I like it.
C. I heard it was very good. D. All of them are.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 44 to 45.
Câu 44: A. developed B. searched C. cooked D. described
Câu 45: A. enter B. result C. event D. reduce
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.
EXAM ADVICE
In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a (46)
_______ task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is “problem solving”, which means
you have to look at (47) _______ visual information and then discuss the problem with your partner. You
may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is
essential that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by politely
asking the examiner to repeat the instruction or make them clearer.
(48) _______ you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask
your partner questions and make (49) _______ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any
real difficulties, the examiner may decide to step in and help. Normally, however, you will find plenty to
say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the
task by competing with your partner, (50) _______ includes taking turns in giving opinions and replying
appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to “agree to disagree”.
(Source: Adapted from http://www.grid.unep.tech)
Câu 46: A. lonely B. unique C. single D. scarce
Câu 47: A. another B. each C. some D. other
Câu 48: A. While B. Because C. Since D. Although
Câu 49: A. suggestions B. speeches C. ideas D. statements
Câu 50: A. that B. this C. who D. which
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mamon made cautron dapan
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 1 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 2 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 3 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 4 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 5 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 6 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 7 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 8 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 9 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 10 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 11 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 12 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 13 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 14 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 15 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 16 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 17 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 18 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 19 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 20 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 21 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 22 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 23 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 24 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 25 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 26 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 27 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 28 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 29 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 30 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 31 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 32 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 33 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 34 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 35 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 36 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 37 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 38 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 39 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 40 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 41 B
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 42 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 43 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 44 D
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 45 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 46 C

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TIẾNG ANH 12 037 47 C
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 48 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 49 A
TIẾNG ANH 12 037 50 D

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN I
TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG MÔN TIẾNG ANH (Năm học: 2020-2021)
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Mã đề : 123)
___________________________

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. moment B. monument C. slogan D. quotient
2. A. provision B. conclusion C. pension D. precision

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. police B. attract C. signal D. discuss
4. A. dynamic B. rhetoric C. climatic D. phonetic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
5. A new school __________ . They hope to finish building it next month.
A. is being built B. has been built C. is built D. was built
6. We object __________ your leaving dinner to take phone calls.
A. for B. on C. to D. with
7. This shirt is __________ that one.
A. a bit less expensive B. as much expensive as
C. not nearly as expensive as D. much far expensive than
8. Please take all personal belongings with you _________ leaving the train.
A. when B. what C. whom D. which
9. It is still unclear _________ the Mayor will accept the recommendations of the City Council.
A. yet B. about C. before D. whether
10. The PTA ________ parents and teachers who support the school by fund raising and other activities.
A. which group of B. that is a group of C. it is a group of D. is a group of
11. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye _________ with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection
12. We expected her at nine but she finally ________ at midnight.
A. turned up B. came off C. came to D. turned out
13. This cloud pattern is not _________ of a tropical hurricane.
A. characterizing B. characterized C. characterization D. characteristic
14. Everyone is hoping and praying that _________ peace will eventually come to the area.
A. durable B. ongoing C. irrevocable D. lasting
15. The ___________ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.
A. chances B. odds C. prospects D. bets
16. James could no longer bear the _________ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. overbearing B. domineering C. pressing D. oppressive
17. There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need to keep your
________ about you.
A. mind B. head C. wits D. brain
18. Mary lost one running shoe, but won the race despite this _________ .
A. feat B. disaster C. handicap D. awkwardness

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. The car sped up as it joined the rest of the traffic on the motorway.
A. rocketed B. hurried up C. accelerated D. hastened
20. He had a strong desire to return to his home town.
A. ambition B. yearning C. liking D. wish

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
21. The (A) warming of the Earth, which is primarily (B) caused by the accumulation of gases, (C) are known
as (D) the greenhouse effect.

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22. (A) The graphics ability of a computer depends on (B) speed of (C) its processor and the (D) size of its
RAM.
23. In (A) its pure state aluminum is a weak metal, but (B) when combined with elements such as copper or
magnesium, it (C) is formed alloys of great (D) strength.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. During my time in Paris, I stayed in a cramped top-floor flat.
A. huge B. spacious C. immense D. full
25. The senator defended his opponent’s policies in a televised speech.
A. praised B. supported C. attacked D. attached

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
LIVING A HEALTHIER LIFE
Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly, a
balanced diet is absolutely essential. This means selecting food that is (26) _____ in salt and sugar. Experts
recommend (27) _____ the amount of fat in our diet, as too much can lead to heart problems. They also suggest
increasing the amount of high fibre food we eat. This comes in the form of fresh fruit, vegetables, whole meal
bread and pasta. As well as being packed (28) ______ vitamins and minerals, they are delicious too.
Secondly, it’s important to fit exercise into your daily (29) _______ . This can be done by simply walking as
much as possible and climbing stairs instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary to maintain a healthy body,
as well as increasing energy levels and making you feel generally fitter and happier. Finally, staying relaxed is
important for good health.
Too much stress can lead to a variety of illnesses, from headaches to high blood pressure. Whenever
possible, do things you enjoy and treat yourself occasionally. So the message is simple - enjoy yourself but
learn to respect your body too. It’s all a (30) _________ of getting the balance right.
26. A. poor B. short C. small D. low
27. A. declining B. dropping C. cutting D. reducing
28. A. from B. by C. with D. of
29. A. routine B. custom C. time D. manner
30. A. feeling B. wonder C. question D. need

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Right now, the biggest source of energy in the world is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are oil, gas, and coal. More
than 80 percent of the world's energy comes from fossil fuel. There are many problems with fossil fuel. One
problem is that when fossil fuel is burned, it pollutes the air. Also, when we take fossil fuel from the Earth, we
often cause a lot of damage. Another problem is that we are running out of it. That is why we need new sources
of energy. A big source of energy for many countries is nuclear power. Thirty-one countries use nuclear power.
Many ships also use it.
Nuclear power has some advantages. First of all, we can't run out of nuclear power. Nuclear power does not
make the air dirty. Also, if a country has nuclear power, it doesn't need to buy as much as oil from other
countries.
However, there are also a lot of problems that come with nuclear power. For example, nuclear accidents are
very serious. In 1986, there was a nuclear accident in Ukraine. In the next 20 years, about 4,000 people got sick
and died. In 2011, there was another very serious nuclear accident in Japan. Japan is still trying to clean up the
nuclear waste from the accident.
Many people don't want nuclear power in their countries. They say that it is not safe. A lot of people want
their countries to use safer and cleaner ways to get electricity. There have been protests against nuclear energy
in the United States, Russia, France, Taiwan, Japan, India, and many other countries.
Although many people hate nuclear energy, more and more countries are using it. One reason for this is that
the world is using more and more energy. We just don't have enough fossil fuel. However, if we use nuclear
power, then we may have more serious problems in the future.
31. Which of the following is NOT true about fossil fuel?
A. It can pollute the air. B. We don't use much of it.
C. Its sources are limited. D. Mining fossil fuel can bring harm to the environment.
32. All of the following are true about nuclear accidents EXCEPT that ___________ .
A. they have been very serious B. their effects can last many years

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C. it doesn't take us much time to clean up the nuclear waste from the accident
D. there were serious nuclear accidents in Ukraine in 1986 and in Japan in 2011
33. The phrase "clean up" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. block B. evacuate C. disappear D. remove
34. What does the word "They" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. countries B. protesters C. officials D. supporters
35. Which of the following statements would the author of the passage support most?
A. Some governments are wrong when they are using nuclear energy.
B. We should consider seriously the nuclear power because it has both advantages and disadvantages.
C. We can continue using nuclear energy until there is an accident.
D. Many people don't want nuclear power in their countries and governments should follow their people.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
LIFE IN THE FAST LANE
Henrietta Lake talks to a remarkable 14-year-old entrepreneur who is certainly going places. Between
studying for nine GCSEs, including business studies, 14-year-old Dominic McVey has set up his own company,
Scooters UK. The business, which imports motorized scooters and skateboards from the United States, has
already made a profit of over £5,000 on sales of the equipment.
Dominic needed £3,000 to set up his business and pay for the initial stock. He used savings from birthday
and Christmas money and cashed in some investments that his father had made when Dominic was born. The
young entrepreneur had also invested in shares on the stock market. “I had to do the deals in my dad’s name
because I was too young,” he says, “but he doesn’t know anything about the market, so I told him what to buy
and sell.”
“I realized the potential for the business when I noticed that a lot of inner-city streets were being closed to
cars or they were chock-a-block with traffic,” he explains. “I thought there would be a great market for these
scooters and skateboards, particularly now that more restrictions on cars in town centres have been introduced.”
“You can take a smaller one with you on a train in a backpack and then unfold it and use it when you get into
town. Men in suits are riding them up and down Wall Street in the US and it is my aim to get them to do the
same in this country. I approached the American manufacturer and, after doing some research into their
company and the scooters, I was allowed to become their UK distributor.”
The motorized scooters, which sell for £499 and can travel at up to 22 mph, are not classified as motor
vehicles and do not need a license or tax. He also sells unmotorized skateboards for £129. They have special
high-speed wheels and are capable of reaching 10 mph.
“I ride them around town in busy areas and usually end up with a crowd of people running down the street
wanting to know where to buy them, or winding down their car windows at traffic lights,” he says. Recently he
went with his mother on a sales trip to Paris. “The scooters are really popular there because the centre of the city
is pedestrianized at the weekend. I went out with 500 leaflets and came back with none.”
In the early stages Dominic had to overcome one or two obstacles. When he tried to open a business account
at his bank, he made an appointment to see the manager. However, the bank thought it was a joke, and when he
arrived there they had not set up any time for the meeting. “This really upset me,” says Dominic, “but I
managed to get a good rate of interest on the account because they were so embarrassed. I think people should
take children more seriously.”
Now that he has succeeded in setting up the business Dominic wants to expand it. At the moment, the
company is still importing scooters in small numbers. “But business is picking up and so I am ordering a big
container of 106 scooters in the-new year.” Dominic is aiming to sell 500 scooters over the next 12 months. "I
think it is worth taking the risk when you are young: if the worst happens, I have my parents’ support and I am
still at school.”
He also plans to open a showroom for his scooters in the City of London, “right by some traffic lights so
people stop and look”. His idea would then be to sell the business and look for further opportunities to make
money. “I’d like to be able to retire before I’m 40,” he tells me.
36. How did Dominic raise the necessary money to set up his company?
A. He invested all his savings on the stock market. B. He borrowed it from his father.
C. He used money from a variety of sources. D. It was a birthday present.
37. What does Dominic mean when he says that streets were “chock-a-block with traffic” in paragraph 3?
A. Cars were not allowed to enter them. B. They were full of vehicles.
C. Traffic prevented scooters from entering them. D. They had street markets in them.
38. What type of people does he want to buy his scooters?
A. fashionable people B. Americans C. businessmen D. people who do not own a car

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39. The motorized scooters that Dominic sells ________.
A. require no special driving skills. B. cannot legally be ridden on the road.
C. have specially designed wheels. D. cannot travel very long distances.
40. Why did Dominic go to Paris?
A. He went shopping with his mother. B. He wanted to see the new pedestrian precinct.
C. He took some scooters to sell there. D. He wanted to distribute information about his scooters.
41. Dominic believes that being young __________
A. prevents him taking himself too seriously. B. means that things are more likely to go wrong.
C. is a good time to be adventurous. D. is a source of concern to his parents.
42. What upset Dominic about his visit to the bank?
A. The manager laughed at him. B. The manager refused to see him.
C. The meeting with the manager was very short. D. The manager did not expect him to turn up.
43. In the future, Dominic intends to ________
A. work beyond normal retirement age. B. find an alternative way to earn a living.
C. hold an exhibition of scooters. D. bring in partners to help him run his business.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
44. Bob: "Can I carry these suitcases into the room for you?" Sam: "________ ”
A. You can't, I think! B. No, you can't. C. Yes, you can. D. Can you? That's very kind.
45. Peter: "I'm sorry for shouting at you." Mary: " _________”
A. I still can't hear you. B. So do I. C. It's OK. D. I am too.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
46. Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are the greatest
contributor of air pollution.
A. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of air
pollution.
B. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
C. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air
pollution.
D. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the
pollution of air.
47. All the homes of the residents had been damaged by the flood. They were given help by the Red Cross.
A. The residents, all of whose homes had been damaged by the flood, were given help by the Red Cross.
B. The residents, all of their homes had been damaged by the flood, were given help by the Red Cross.
C. The residents, all their homes had been damaged by the flood, were given help by the Red Cross.
D. The residents, all whose homes had been damaged by the flood, were given help by the Red Cross.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
48. Although London is far from being an unpolluted city, the problem isn't as bad as it used to be.
A. Compared to its situation in the past, these days there is hardly any pollution in London.
B. London is undoubtedly still polluted, but it's less of a problem because people are accustomed to it now.
C. London isn't as polluted as it was in the past, in fact, the pollution problem has been solved.
D. While the problem definitely hasn't disappeared, there is less pollution in London nowadays.
49. Any health benefits gained by eating meat are far outweighed by the hazards of doing so.
A. Though meat can be unhealthy, it's even more unhealthy to avoid eating it.
B. Consuming animal flesh can harm you, but it's still an essential source of nutrition.
C. Eating meat may promote health in some ways, but harms it in many more.
D. In order to be healthy, it's important to eat meat despite potential health risks.
50. I must admit this is the most spectacular view I've ever seen during my extensive travels.
A. So far on this journey, we've seen a lot of beautiful places, but this one is by far the most attractive.
B. I've travelled quite a lot in my life, and admittedly, have never seen such a breathtaking view as this.
C. I can't but remark that the reason why I travel so extensively is not to miss such marvellous places as this
one.
D. I don't think we'll ever encounter a more beautiful view in our lives than this, since it is so breathtaking.

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN I
TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG MÔN TIẾNG ANH (2020-2021)
___________________________

STT Mã đề Mã đề Mã đề Mã đề STT Mã đề Mã đề Mã đề Mã đề
123 345 567 789 123 345 567 789
1 B C B A 26 D D D A
2 C B C A 27 D C D D
3 C C D D 28 C D A D
4 B B B C 29 A C A B
5 A C B B 30 C B D D
6 C D C C 31 B A D C
7 C D B B 32 C A C D
8 A C C C 33 D D B A
9 D A B A 34 B C C C
10 D C C D 35 B B B C
11 A B D C 36 C B C A
12 A C D D 37 B C B D
13 D C C B 38 C D C D
14 D B A D 39 A B A C
15 B A C C 40 D B D B
16 D A B C 41 C C C B
17 C D C B 42 D B D C
18 D D B C 43 B C B D
19 C B D B 44 D A D B
20 B A C C 45 C D C B
21 C C D B 46 A C B D
22 B C A C 47 A D D D
23 C A C C 48 D B C C
24 B D C B 49 C D A A
25 C D A A 50 B C A C

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TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021, LẦN THỨ 1
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ tên thí sinh:……………………………………………. Mã đề thi 101


Số báo danh: ………………………………………………

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing
appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (1)_________ of species in a particular
ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the
diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rainforest
habitats. Relatively little has been said, (2) _________, about diversity of life in the sea even
though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably (3) ______ priority to the planet's dominants - most
distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (4) _____ sometimes gets in the way
of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only
one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine
life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100
times (5) _____ than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even
though the ocean has fewer distinct species.
(Source: https://vndoc.com)
Question 1: A. number B. each C. amount D. few
Question 2: A. therefore B. thus C. however D. instead
Question 3: A. make B. have C. give D. bring
Question 4: A. who B. when C. that D. whose
Question 5: A. higher B. bigger C. greater D. larger
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 6 to 10.
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or
talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in
1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small
band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound
that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon
after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing
and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and
dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could
become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector
changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read
by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing
synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually
brought us "talking pictures".
(Source: https://vndoc.com)

Question 6: The passage is mainly about the_____________.


A. research into sound reproduction. B. development of sound with movies.
C. disadvantages of synchronized sound. D. history of silent movies.
Question 7: According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened ________.
A. as early as 1922 B. in 1927 C. before 1896 D. as early as 1896
Question 8: The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "______________".

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A. projections B. revelations C. demonstrations D. diversions
Question 9: Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?
A: a Jazz Singer B. a single pianist C. a gramophone D. a small band
Question 10. The phrase "these signals" refers to______________.
A: sounds B. marks C. series D. sensors
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 11 to 17.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on
the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the
plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental
hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in
the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are
forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by
acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious
lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva.
Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth
after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that
scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when
eating sweets.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Deff and Ben Gok)
Question 11: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 12: The word “it” refers to_________.
A. dental floss B. bacteria C. removal of plaque D. plaque
Question 13: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true
EXCEPT_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 14: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is_________.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 15: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 16: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva
increases_________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 17: The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to_________.

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A. repel B. rub together with C. remove D. dissolve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 18: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have
becoming extinct have increased. A B
C D
Question 19: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for
the surrounding area. . A B C
D
Question 20: It is an interested book which I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday
. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 21: My father is less friendly than my mother.
A.My mother is not as friendly as my father. B. My mother is less friendly than my father.
C. My father is more friendly than my mother. D. My father is not as friendly as my mother
Question 22: “I bought these books last week”. He said
A. He said he bought these books last week.
B. He said he had bought those books the week before.
C. He said he had bought these books last week
D. He said he bought these books the week before.
Question 23: She probably buys this house next week.
A. She may buy this house next week B. She must buy this house nexk week
C. She should buy next house next week. D. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 24: You can stay in the flat for free, you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 25: It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
C. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times.
D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. stops B. speaks C. hats D. arrives
Question 27. A. strength B. decide C. athlete D. species
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 28. A. prevent B. teacher C. wildlife D. beauty
Question 29. A. different B. excellent C. attraction D. confident
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 30. You like coffee, __________?
A. don't you B. didn't you C.won't you D. haven't you
Question 31: This is ___________ second time I have ever eaten this food.
A.a B. the C. an D. no article
Question 32: The whole world is waiting _____ a vaccine against Covid-19.

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A. with B. for C. at D. in
Question 33: Every day I spend two hours ___________ English.
A. practise B to practise C. practising D. practiced
Question 34: If I _____ you, I would spend more time learning English.
A. would be B. were C. will be D. am
Question 35: She has not written to me since we _____________ last time.
A. met B. to meet C. will meet D. was meeting
Question 36: True Blood is my favourite TV series, _______ I don't have much time to watch it often.
A. although B. before C. because D. yet
Question 37: He will take the dog out for a walk ________________.
A. as soon as he finishes B. when I was finishing dinner
C. until I finished dinner D. shall have finished
Question 38: My favourite hobby is watching the work ___________ by ShakeSpeare in the 20 century.
A. written B. is writing C. writes D. is written
Question 39. A ________________party was prepared to welcome the honoured guests.
A. special B. specialise C. specially D. specialisation
Question 40: Jim his best suit to make a good impression on his future in-laws.
A. took on B. took off C. put on D. put off
Question 41: You'd better _____________ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
A. promise B. do C. make D. pull
Question 42: People thought that maybe his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a
Hollywood _________________.
A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut
Question 43. People have used coal and oil to ___________electricity for a long time.
A. bred B. raise C. cultivate D. generate
Question 44: My mother doesn't ________ eye to eye with my father sometimes.
A. see B. glance C. look D. agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 45: This special offer is exclusive to readers of this magazine.
A. presentable B. rewarding C. attractive D. limited
Question 46: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films.
A. advertisements B. contests C. businesses D. economics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 47: His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him any more.
A. respect B. agreement C. obedience D. rudeness
Question 48: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 49: : - Alice: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
- Peter: “ _____________”
A. It's rubbish. We shouldn't use it B. Never mind
C. I can't agree with you more D. Of course not
Question 50: Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete's home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you're studying?”.
- Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn't. B. Well, I'd rather not.
C. Well, actually, I'd prefer it if you didn't. D. Well, if only you didn't.

THE END

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SỞ GD-ĐT HÀ TĨNH MA TRẬN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN KÌ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH LẦN THỨ 1

Stt Dạng bài Kiến thức NB TH VDT VDC Số câu

1 Phonetic -s ending 1 1

Vowel 1 1

2 Stress Two-syllable verb/n 1 1

Three-syllable words 1 1

Tag question 1 1

Article 1 1

Preposition 1 1

Gerund 1 1

Conditional type 1 1

Tense 1 1

Conjunction 1 1

Adverbial of time 1 1
3 Grammar & Reduced relative 1 1
vocabulary clause

Word formation 1 1

Collocation 1 1

Word choice 1 1

Word choice 1 1

Phrasal verb 1

Idiom 1 1

4 Synonym Vocabulary 1 1

Vocabulary 1 1

5 Antonym Vocabulary 1 1

Idiom 1 1

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6 Language Giving opinion _ 1 1
function response

Ask permission – 1 1
response

Vocabulary 1 1
Clozed reading Expression of quality 1 1
test
7 Word choice 1 1

Relative pronoun 1 1

Conjunction 1 1

Main idea 1 1

Detail information 1 1 2
8 Reading 1 Vocabulary 1 1

Reference 1 1

Main idea 1 1
9 Reading 2 Detail information 1 1 1 3

Vocabulary 1 1 2

Reference 1 1

Error S-V agreement 1 1


identification
10 Parallel structure 1 1

Confusing word 1 1

Comparison 1 1
11 Sentence Reported speech 1 1
transformation
Modal verb 1 1

Sentence Conditional sentence 1 1


combination
12 Inversion 1 1

17 16 11 6 50

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ĐÁP ÁN
MĐ 101
1.A 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.A 10.B
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.D 19.C 20.A
21.D 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.A 26.D 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.A
31.B 32.B 33.C 34.B 35.A 36.D 37.A 38.A 39.A 40.C
41.C 42.C 43.D 44.A 45.D 46.A 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.C

MĐ 102

1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.A 13.A 14.A 15.C 16.C 17.C 18.D 19.A 20.D
21.A 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.C 26.A 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.C
31.B 32.D 33.A 34.A 35.B 36.C 37.C 38.B 39.A 40.B
41.B 42.C 43.D 44.C 45.A 46.D 47.B 48.A 49.D 50.A

MĐ 103

1.D 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.B
11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.D 16.A 17.C 18.A 19.A 20.C
21.A 22.D 23.C 24.A 25.A 26.C 27.C 28.D 29.A 30.B
31.A 32.B 33.C 34.D 35.A 36.C 37.D 38.A 39.A 40.C
41.C 42.C 43.B 44.D 45.C 46.B 47.A 48.A 49.A 50.A

MĐ 104

1.B 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.D
11.D 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.A 19.B 20.A
21.C 22.A 23.D 24.A 25.C 26.A 27.A 28.A 29.A 30.D
31.C 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.C 36.D 37.A 38.B 39.A 40.B
41.C 42.D 43.A 44.C 45.D 46.A 47.A 48.C 49.C 50.C

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SỞ GD - ĐT HÀ TĨNH KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021- LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;(50 câu trắc nghiệm)
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu) Mã đề thi 204
Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD: .............................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _________ her on the way to work.
A. in B. across C. by D. down
Question 2: Luckily, the rain ___________ so we were able to play the match.
A. watered down B. gave out C. held off C. got away
Question 3: I asked Angela to run the office while I’m gone ________ I know I can depend on her.
A. unless B. although C. therefore D. since
Question 4 : Michael got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ____ his lessons very carefully.
A. must have revised B. can’t have revised C. should have revised D. needn’t have revised
Question 5: Be sure to ________ a real effort to answer all the questions the interviewer asks you.
A. hide B. set C. make D. train
Question 6: Park Hang-seo, who is the head coach of __________ Vietnam national football team, is a new
idol of many people.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 7: My mother often ________ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for
even the slightest one.
A. appreciates B. avoids C. enjoys D. overlooks
Question 8: He is exhausted. He ______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the
guests arrive.
A. had been running B. was running C. has been running D. has run
Question 9: _________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it
was created.
A. In order to be ranked B. Ranking C. Being ranked D. To be ranking
Question 10: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very ________.
A. open-minded B. narrow-minded C. absent-minded D. kind-hearted
Question 11: Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, _____ ?
A. are they B. don’t they C. aren’t they D. haven’t they
Question 12: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .
A. out of practice B. out of stock C. out of reach D. out of work
Question 13: I suggest our rooms ___________ before Tet Holiday.
A. be decorated B. should decorate C. is decorated D. were decorated
Question 14: The architects have made _______ use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imagine B. imagination C. imaginative D. imaginatively

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 15 to 19.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Investigators are questioning whether exposure to these
radio waves might (15) ________ to brain cancer. So far, the figures are not final. The precise evidence
does not enable us to say in certain that mobile phones are definitely safe. On the other hand, recent research
has not yet (16) _________ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Many studies are now going (17) _________ in numerous countries. Some of the results are
contradictory but the others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. However,
these studies are preliminary and the issue need further, long – term investigation.
(18) _________ the scientific data is more definite, it is advisable for people to try not to use mobile
phone for long periods of time. Don’t think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment,
research is in fact showing the opposite and they may be just as hazardous. It is also thought that young
people (19) __________ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 15: A. bring B. cause C. produce D. lead
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Question 16: A. created B. demonstrated C. proved D. caused
Question 17: A. through B. on C. about D. by
Question 18: A. When B. Until C. Provide D. As
Question 19: A. whose B. that C. with D. as

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 20: “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
A. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.
B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
C. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
D. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
Question 21: The students complained that the teacher was inexperienced.
A. The teacher was not supported for his inexperience.
B. The students praised the teacher for his experience.
C. The teacher was popular despite his inexperience.
D. The teacher was favored because of his inexperience.
Question 22: We didn't visit the museum because we had no time.
A. If we had time, we would visit the museum.
B. If we had had time, we will have visited the museum.
C. If we have time, we will visit the museum.
D. If we had had time, we would have visited the museum.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Flats which are both comfortable and reasonably priced are few and far between in the
current context of economic crisis.
A. non–standard B. non–existent C. uncommon D. unusual
Question 24 : Gerry didn’t go on the expedition – he made up that part of the story.
A. narrated B. invented C. unfolded D. recounted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined the word whose underlined
part differs from the other in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 25: A. terrified B. averaged C. accompanied D. influenced
Question 26: A. identify B. applicant C. final D. decide

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 27 to 31.
Newspapers and television news programs always seem to report about the bad things happening in
society. However, there is a place where readers can find some good news. That place is the website called
HappyNews. The man behind HappyNews is Byron Reese. Reese set up HappyNews because he thought
other news sources were giving people an unbalanced view of the world. Reese said about
HappyNews, “The news media gives you a distorted view of the world by exaggerating bad news, misery,
and despair. We’re trying to balance out the scale.”
Not everyone agrees with Reese’s view, though. Many people think that news sources have a
responsibility to provide news that is helpful to people. People need to know about issues or problems in
today’s society. Then they are better able to make informed decisions about things that affect their daily
lives. Reese said that HappyNews is not trying to stop people from learning about issues or problems.
HappyNews is just trying to provide a balanced picture of today’s world.
By the end of its first month online, HappyNews had more than 70,000 unique readers. About 60 percent
of those readers were women. Something else unique makes HappyNews different from any of the other
news or information websites that are on the Internet. Unlike many other websites, HappyNews gets fan mail
from its readers on a daily basis.
Question 27: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. “Newspapers vs. Online News” B. “Why Women Like HappyNews”
C. “Byron Reese Tells People How to Be Happy” D. “Good News for a Change”
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Question 28: How is HappyNews different than other news sources?
A. Its stories are not about bad things. B. The website only has stories about women.
C. All of the stories are written by Reese. D. HappyNews does not exaggerate its stories.
Question 29: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____________.
A. problems B. people C. sources D. issues
Question 30: Why might some people NOT like HappyNews?
A. Reese’s stories are about misery and despair. B. Some sources give a balanced view.
C. The stories are from around the world. D. It doesn’t tell them about important issues or problems.
Question 31: What does “exaggerating” mean in this reading?
A. improving B. worsening C. explaining D. editing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problem.
B. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problem.
C. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problem.
D. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problem.
Question 33: They left the concert hall. The fire alarm went off right afterwards.
A. They were leaving the concert hall when the fire alarm went off.
B. No sooner had they left the concert hall than the fire alarm went off.
C. They left the concert hall just as the fire alarm went off.
D. The fire alarm had gone off before they left the concert hall.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 34: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system,
he just made light of it.
A. disagreed with B. discovered by chance C. completely ignored D. treated as important
Question 35: On Saturday wearing uniforms is optional so I often choose T-shirt and shorts.
A. compulsory B. voluntary C. uncomfortable D. acceptable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 36: A. diversity B. environment C. optimistic D. assimilate
Question 37: A. require B. danger C. enroll D. promote

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 38: John and Tim are talking about future jobs.
- John: “What kind of job would you like?” - Tim: “ _______________.”
A. That will do B. Any time after next week
C. Any of them are OK D. Anything to do with computer
Question 39: - Tung: "Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you."
- Tuan: " ______________ "
A. I'm glad you like them. B. Really?
C. Do you like them? D. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn't it?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 47.
In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are
essentially different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions
and information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which are
permanently remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists of the
numbers which are keyed in.
An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit
to feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display
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the result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that
contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the
output unit, which is the display.
The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the key is a printed circuit board containing
a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in
the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the memory. The
processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the
processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary results
that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys that have
been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in temporary
cells until the processing unit requires them.
When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code - for
example, addition - and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on the
two numbers. After the addition is done, the result goes to the decoder in the calculator's microchip. This
code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.
Question 40: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss innovative developments in technology
B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
C. To summarize the history of technology
D. To explain how a calculator works
Question 41: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?
A. They cannot store information in a memory. B. They have simple memory and processing units.
C. They are older than computers. D. They are less expensive than computers.
Question 42: The word “innovative” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by _____.
A. important B. recent C. revolutionary D. complicated
Question 43: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?
A. The output unit B. The microchip C. The solar cells D. The battery
Question 44: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is .
A. to alter basic arithmetic instructions B. to store temporary results during calculation
C. to control the keyboard D. to send codes to the display unit
Question 45: The word “This” in paragraph 5 refers to ___.
A. the processing unit B. the equal key C. the plus key D. the memory unit
Question 46: The word “contacts” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. commands B. locations C. codes D. connections
Question 47: Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about calculators?
A. Calculator and computers have a memory.
B. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
C. Sending codes takes place only in the memory unit of a calculator.
D. Pressing a key activates a calculator.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. such as B. in the near future C. It is believed D. be used to doing
Question 49: The Vietnamese is hard-working, intelligent and brave.
A. Vietnamese B. is C. intelligent D. brave
Question 50: Bacteria lived in the soil play a vital role in recycling the carbon and nitrogen needed by
plants.
A. lived B. vital role C. recycling D. needed

----------- THE END ----------

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG Tên môn: Tiếng Anh
LÝ THÁI TỔ Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mã đề thi: 132

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)


Họ, tên thí sinh:.....................................................................Số báo danh: .............................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef.
A. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef.
B. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content.
C. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef.
D. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish.
Question 2: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
B. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
C. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
D. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges from 3 to 4
Question 3: John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting."
- Peter: " But it's very late, so _."
A. Take care B. Goodbye for now
C. Have a good day D. It's great fun, thanks
Question 4: John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?".
- Jimmy:"______".
A. I'd rather go to the art gallery B. It's good to play baseball
C. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here D. No, I don't.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 5 to 11
Today, there are 600 million cars in the world. They may seem like a lot. However, there are over
7 million people on our planet. Most of the world’s population uses public transportation to get around.
The number of people using public transportation continues to rise. Subway systems worldwide carry 155
million passengers each day. That’s more than 30 times the number carried by all the world’s airplanes.
Every day in Tokyo passengers take more than 40 million rides on public transportation.
Yet many people see public transportation as ‘a depressing experience’, says author Taras
Gresco. They say it is slow, crowded, or too expensive. In fact , Gresco says, it is actually ‘faster, more
comfortable and cheaper’ than driving a car. Like millions of people, Taras Gresco is a ‘straphanger’ - a
person who rides public transportation. In his book straphanger: Saving Our Cities and Ourselves from
the Automobile, Gresco describe the benefits of public transportation. Firstly, it is better for the
environment. When people use public transportation, they use less fuel. Twenty people on one bus use
much less fuel than 20 people in 20 cars. Fewer cars mean less pollution and cleaner air.
Using public transportation can be good for your health in other ways. It can even help you lose
weight. In one study, a group of people took public transportation every day for six months. Each day
they walked to a bus stop or train station. In six months, each person lost an average of six pounds -
almost three kilograms. Taking public transportation has another benefit, says Gresco. It helps people
become part of their community. When you are alone in your car, you don’t talk to anyone. One Tokyo

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straphanger told Gresco, “To use public transport is to know how to cooperate with other people,’ It
teaches you ‘how to behave in a public space’. So, public transportation is more than a way to get to
work or school. It can help lead to cleaner cities. It may also lead to a healthier and more cooperative
world population.
Question 5: According to the passage, the number of people travelling by planes each day is
about
A. 20 million B. 5 million C. 185 million D. 125 million
Question 6: The word ‘it” in the passage refers to
A. depressing experiece B. driving a car
C. public transportation D. author Taras Gresco.
Question 7: What is not true about Taras Gresco according to the reading passage?
A. Taras Gresco finds public transportation beneficial for both the cities and the users.
B. Taras Gresco often travels by public transportation, especially the bus.
C. Taras Gresco launched a campaign to encourage people to use the public transportation.
D. Taras Gresco wrote a book about the benefits of public transportation.
Question 8: Which of the following is mentioned as a benefit for a public transportation rider?
A. He or she will be able to learn how to ride a means of public transportation.
B. He or she will have a good chance to make more friends with the different people.
C. He or she will know how to behave in public places and cooperate with others.
D. He or she will have a good chance to enjoy the natural landscape.
Question 9: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as the one that benefits from the
public transportation?
A. the bus rider B. the environment C. the city D. the car driver
Question 10: How does the environment benefit from people’s use of the public transportation ?
A. Buses and trains not only conserve energy but also save public transportation
B. Fewer people using private transportation means less fuel used, hence cleaner environment.
C. The smaller number of cars sold helps the automobile industry save the environment
substantially.
D. Subways use renewable energy sources instead of the fossil fuels, making the environment
cleaner.
Question 11: Which of the following can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. Public Transportation _ We all Benefit
B. public transportation - Cleaner – Cities
C. Public transportation - to Save the Environment
D. Public Transportation - a way to Loose Weight.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions from 12 to 13
Question 12: A. cartoon B. open C. answer D. paper
Question 13: A. knowledgeableB. certificate C. development D. prosperity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions from 14 to 16
Question 14: More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as
pain, anxiety or shortness of breath.
A. is needed B. is helped C. such as D. shortness
Question 15: ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities
for its members.
A. aims at B. economic growth C. provide D. its
Question 16: She complained that her husband never paid her any complements anymore.
A. complained B. never C. any complements D. anymore.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 17 to 18
Question 17: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t care B. wasn’t happy
C. didn’t want to see D. showed surprise
Question 18: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. discourage B. please C. sympathize D. satisfy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 19 to 23

Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (19) ________
regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and
industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (20) ________ various
problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization,
especially in developing countries.
When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can't be effective. There will be a (21)
________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no
proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where
sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor
sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (22) ________ is their
first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek
(23)________ other high values in their life.
Question 19: A. populated B. popular C. crowed D. numerous
Question 20: A. offers B. leads C. poses D. imposes
Question 21: A. lack B. loss C. appearance D. plenty
Question 22: A. survivor B. survived C. survival D. survive
Question 23: A. on B. with C. about D. for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions from 24 to 26
Question 24: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution.
A. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels.
B. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution.
C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution.
D. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution.
Question 25: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.
B. The manager denied having been very open-minded.
C. The manager promised to be very open-minded.
D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.
Question 26: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper.
C. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
D. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions from 27 to 28
Question 27: A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty
Question 28: A. developed B. introduced C. influenced D. raised
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 29 to 33
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The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a
man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the
1940s, the American science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and
invented the term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were
developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they
started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first real robot in 1961, called the
Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a
success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon
acquiring robots as well.
These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in
science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply
pieces of computer-controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they were made of metal,
they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve
high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful
for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years,
and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the
loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and
production of the robots.
Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988.
Question 29: What is Unimation?
A. It’s the name of a robot B. It’s a robot making program
C. It’s the name of a robot inventor D. It’s the producer of the first robot
Question 30: What can be said about Karel Capek?
A. He made a robot B. He was the first to create the word “robot”
C. He is an American writer D. He made a robot in order to kill a person
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?
A. They can do jobs involving high heat B. They are tiring
C. They don’t need food D. They are not distracted
Question 32: What are industrial robots like?
A. They controlled machinery B. They are computer-controlled machines
C. They behave like humans D. They look like humans
Question 33: When did the word “robot” appear?
A. in the 19th century B. in the 40s
C. in the 60s D. in the 1920s
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions from 34 to 48
Question 34: - “Are you thinking of flying business class?” - “__________”
A. I’m flying there to attend a party B. No, I’m just on business.
C. No, I’d like an aisle seat. D. No, economy.
Question 35: If you watch this film, you _____ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries.
A. learned B. will learn C. would learn D. were learning
Question 36: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he _____ along the street.
A. would walk B. walked C. had walked D. was walking
Question 37: Solar energy is not widely used _____ it is friendly to the environment.
A. because of B. since C. in spite of D. although
Question 38: The sign warns people _____ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. with B. from C. to D. about
Question 39: _____, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there.
A. Just attended the party B. To have attended the party
C. They had arrived at the party D. On arrival at the party

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Question 40: Drinking too much alcohol is said to _____ harm to our health.
A. take B. lead C. make D. do
Question 41: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a _____ of completion.
A. qualification B. certificate C. diploma D. degree
Question 42: The _____ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to
the government.
A. intensively B. excessively C. marginally D. redundantly
Question 43: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _____.
A. mistake B. impossible C. opportunity D. possibility
Question 44: The woman _____when the police told her that her son had died.
A. broke in B. broke down C. broke into D. broke away
Question 45: _____, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As intelligent the boy was B. Intelligent as the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as was the boy
Question 46: . My friend always dreams of having _____.
A. a small red sleeping bag. B. red sleeping small a bag.
C. a bad small red sleeping. D. small a bag red sleeping.
Question 47: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English_____80% of computer- based
communication in the 1990s.
A. answered for B. made over C. accounted for. D. took up
Question 48: _____every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. Winning B. When he won C. Having won D. On winning
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions from 49 to 50
Question 49: : The aboriginal people of Australia are experts at survival in an environment with scanty
resources.
A. limited B. ordinary C. abundant D. natural
Question 50: Sometimes , in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative.
A. make the last decision B. make important changes
C. raise the first idea D. sacrifice for others
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ĐÁP ÁN MÃ ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN ANH VĂN 12
MÃ ĐỀ
Câu 132 209 357 485 570 628 743 896
1 A B C D C D A A
2 B A C C A C C B
3 B A B D C A C D
4 A D D A C A A D
5 B C D A A A D D
6 C B A B D C B D
7 C A C B A B B C
8 C A D C B C A D
9 C A A D B C A B
10 B C B B A A D D
11 A C D C B C B B
12 A B D D A D D A
13 A A C C D B C D
14 B D A D B D A B
15 C D D D A C C A
16 C A B C C A D C
17 D C A A C C B C
18 A D B A C D B B
19 A A A A B B A D
20 C B C D B B B B
21 A D C B B A D A
22 C C D B D B B C
23 D A C B B A D B
24 B D D B D B A C
25 A D B A C D C B
26 A B A A A A C C
27 D C C B C B A B
28 D A B D D A A A
29 D D D C B D C A
30 B D C D B B A B
31 B A A C A A B C
32 B C B C B C B D
33 D C B C A C A C
34 D D D A B B B B
35 B C A A D A D C
36 D B D C A B D A
37 D B D D D D D B
38 D D B A B D D C
39 D D B B A D C A
40 D D B A C D D A
41 B D C B C C B A
42 B B B D A D C B
43 C B B C C B A D
44 B B A D D C C A
45 B C C D D D B C
46 A B C D D C C D
47 C B A B D B B C
48 C A C A C C A D
49 A C A C D B C C
50 C C A B B A D A

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ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021 LẦN II
SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC NINH NĂM HỌC: 2020-2021
TRƯỜNG THPT HÀN THUYÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài : 60 phút ;không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề gồm 06 trang) (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mã đề 103
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)

Họ, tên thí sinh:....................................................................... Số báo danh .............................

Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part is pronouned differently from the other three in each question.
Câu 1: A. worm B. worse C. work D. more
Câu 2: A. coughed B. laughed C. matched D. weighed
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Câu 3: The objective is to promote the role of inhabitants and communities in the
development of a modern architecture imbued ____ national identity.
A. against B. for C. by D. with
Câu 4: .I must warn you I am not used to _____ so rudely.
A. speak B. be spoken C. speak to me D. being spoken to
Câu 5: ______ these two sources is considered green energy because they produce a lot
of pollution when they are burned.
A. Both of B. Because of C. On account of D. Neither of
Câu 6: Some people feel a strong ____ to keep their cultural identities.
A. urge B. wish C. craving D. pressure
Câu 7: The lawyer rarely wears anything other than jeans and a T-shirt_____the season.
A. whatever B. whenever C. wherever D. however
Câu 8: Patients were __________ from the hospital because the beds were needed by
other people
A. liberated B. discharged C. released D. freed
Câu 9: Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we ____ what is
proper or improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture.
A. express B. signal C. evaluate D. calculate
Câu 10: I was rather embarrassed when John gave me such a(n) _____________ gift.
A. affluent B. extravagant C. rich D. well- off
Câu 11:The party was ____ I had expected
A. a hundred times funnier than B. more a hundred times funny than
C. a hundred times more funny than D. a hundred times funny more than
Câu 12:I can't give you the report I ____ for today because I ____.
A. promised - didn't finish B. have promised - haven't finished
C. have promised - didn't finish D. promise - don't finish
Câu 13:There is no doubt that this volume is _________for those interested in the
syntax of free word order.
A. significance B. of greatly significance
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C. of great significance D. in great significant
Câu 14: Al‟s under the ____________ to decide by the end of the month whether to
move his company.
A. horse B. gun C. tree D. table
Câu 15: There is a possibility that Jack will be late,____________ , I will take his place
A. so if B. unless C. if D. if so
Câu 16: It is desirable that the plane ____ as light as possible.
A. was B. is C. were D. be
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Câu 17: Turmeric can help in boosting immune system and fight off free radical attacks
in the system.
A. destroying B. enhancing C. weakening D. stopping
Câu 18: He said he was only joking, but his comments were so close to the bone.
A. offensive B. annoying C. personal D. respectful
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 19: I think Mr. John is on the level because he always tells the truth and never tries
to deceive others.
A. honest B. dishonest C. talented D. intelligent
Câu 20: Television also interferes with family life and communication.
A. conflicts B. comes C. chats D. goes
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
South Pole explorer Ernest Shackleton never reached his goal of crossing Antarctica, but the
circumstances that prevented him from reaching that goal pushed him to achieve an even more
amazing feat. In January 1915 Shackelton‟s ship Endurance became trapped in the ice of
Antarctica. He and his crew of twenty-seven lived on the ship trapped in the ice floes for nine
months, until they had to abandon the ship when the ice crushed it. The day the ship sank,
Shackleton wrote his new goal: “The task is to reach land with all members of the expedition.”
The group camped on the ice floes for six months, until the ice broke up and they took small
lifeboats to nearby uninhabited Elephant Island. During their time on the ship, ice, and island,
Shackleton‟s group endured temperatures as low as twenty degrees below zero and had no
daylight from May to July. They had to hunt scarce seals and penguins for food, and were
hunted themselves by killer whales and sea leopards, which would rise through the ice in
search of prey. Throughout this time, Shackleton demonstrated his leadership by rationing food,
rotating use of warmer sleeping bags, and keeping a calm, positive attitude that helped morale.
He also showed great courage as he and five of his men crossed eight hundred miles of
dangerous ocean to the nearest inhabited island to seek help. Despite no maps and terrible
weather, Shackeleton‟s small boat reached the island where Shackleton and an even smaller
group crossed unexplored, jagged mountains to reach a whaling station. He organized a rescue
party to retrieve the rest of his crew, and despite the perils of living in south polar waters for
almost two years, all twenty-seven men came back from the expedition. Shackleton never
crossed the South Pole, but he completed the task of bringing back all of his crew alive.

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Câu 21: Shackleton and his men had to abandon the Endurance when______.
A. ice crushed the ship
B. they ran out of food and had to leave to hunt for more
C. killer whales attacked the ship
D. the ship ran aground on Elephant Island
Câu 22: When did the expedition crew leave the Endurance?
A. In January 1915 B. In October 1915 C. In July 1915 D. In January 1917
Câu 23: What does the word “themselves” refer to?
A. scarce seals and penguins B. Shackleton and his crew
C. preys D. killer whales and sea leopards
Câu 24: What is the author‟s tone in the passage?
A. doubtful B. admiring C. sentimental D. critical
Câu 25: What is the best title of the passage?
A. Shackleton‟s Amazing Feat B. A Great Attempt to Cross Antarctica
C. Shackleton‟s Life in Antarctica D. A Successful Expedition
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Free-standing sculpture that is molded or carved is a type familiar to almost everyone.
Although certain free-standing figures or groups of figures can have only a single side
intended for viewing, others are completed on all sides. As with all other forms of art, the
ultimate shape of a sculpture reflects the artist„s vision of individuals or experiences
represented by the work. Throughout history, people everywhere have discovered a need
for sculpture as a record of events and feelings.
Materials which can be sculptured do much to contribute to the artist‟s imagination.
Wood, stone, metal, and various types of plastic and synthetics are all used as sculpting
media. When sculptures are made of stone, wood, ivory, or even ice, the sculptor carves
or chips the substance to reduce it to the necessary shape. Developing a sculptured image
on all sides represents a change from the older approach when artists left the back portion
of the figure unfinished and rough. In fact, sculpture in relief is completely attached to the
flat background material and appears to be a part of it. Relief, which is completed only on
one side intended for viewing, was the first type of sculpture created by man, when
ancient sculptors removed the background material in a side of a tree or a cave to make
their drawing appear more realistic.
While creating a statue, the artist depends on the appropriate lighting to develop the
figure because the quality of the final product relies on the interplay between light and
shade. When the work is finished, the sculpture must be displayed in the same light as it
was originally created. If a light from a source is too weak or too strong, the effect that the
sculptor intended may be lost. For example, in painting, the light and shade give the
image shape and solidity that cannot be altered by an external light in which it is
displayed. When a sculpture is exhibited, the artist‟s work is brought to life by light, and
its character can be altered by the control of the light source. A fundamental difference
between a painting and a sculpture is that when viewing a painting, the audience can only
see the point of view that the painter had intended. A free- standing sculpture can be seen
from practically any angle. The job of the sculptor is then to attain the quality and the
volume of the image from any possible point of view.
In addition to carving a work, sculptures can be cast. In the process of casting, a
sculpture can be reproduced in a mold when a liquefied medium is poured into shape.
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After the material from which the sculpture is made hardens, the mold is removed, and the
work is cleaned of the excess and polished. Casting allows the artists to produce as many
replicas as needed. Most commercially sold sculptures are made in this way. Casting
metals requires special care and skill. Bronze is the preferred metal because of its
versatility and malleability. To make bronze sculpture, the space in a mold is filled with
wax until it is melted by the heated metal. This process, sometimes called lost-wax, was
favored by Benvenuto Cellini and was common among the artists in ancient China.
Câu 26: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. Differences between painting and sculpture B. Sculpting techniques and media
C. Types of commercially produced sculptures D. Reasons for enjoying sculpture
Câu 27: The word “ ultimate” is closest in meaning to
A. ulterior B. final C. formal D. formidable
Câu 28: According to the passage, the purpose of sculpture as a form of art is to
A. Display a group of figures B. Reflect a human need for freedom
C. Express an artistic vision D. Commemorate individuals and events
Câu 29: According to the passage, all the following are true of sculpture EXCEPT that
A. it can be found in all parts of the world B. it has undergone change since the early
times
C. it can be created from many substances D. it is no longer useful for people
Câu 30: The author of the passage implies that the most important factor in showing a
sculpted work is
A. the effect of light on the sculpted image B. the development of the sculpted figure
C. the shape of the material for sculpting D. the strength of the light source
Câu 31: What does the author mention as an important difference between a painting
and a sculpture?
A. A painting does not need shading to be displayed. B. A painting can be viewed
from only one position.
C. A sculpture needs to have proper light. D. A sculpture does not look good from all
angles.
Câu 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sculpturing medium?
A. Wax B. Ivory C. Stone D. Ice
Câu 33: The word “ replicas” is closest in meaning to
A. replacements B. molds C. reproductions D. monuments
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction.
Câu 34: My little son had been in Paris for 5 days last summer .
A B C D
Câu 35: The owners of modern manufacturing plants had workers doing heavy and
A B
repetitive tasks replacing by robots.
C D
Câu 36: Entomologists, scientists who study insects, are often concerned with the
A B
fungus, poisonous, or virus carried by a particular insect.
C D

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Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 37: My sister thinks the film is too frightening. I am not scared at all.
A. My sister thinks the film is too frightening because I am not scared at all.
B. My sister thinks the film is too frightening so I am not scared at all.
C. My sister thinks the film is too frightening, whereas I am not scared at all.
D. My sister thinks the film is too frightening although I am not scared at all.
Câu 38: He was so angry with his boss. He quitted his job immediately.
A. Angry with his boss, he quitted his job immediately.
B. He quitted his job immediately, angry with his boss.
C. Angry with his boss he is, he quitted his job immediately.
D. He was so angry with his boss although quitting his job immediately.
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks in the following question.
Urbanisation can bring (39) _____ a lot of benefits. It can offer people from
rural areas not only opportunities for better-paid jobs, but also access to schools, hospitals
and other social services. As a result, people's overall standard of living can improve.
People in rural areas tend to be more conservative and follow old-fashioned practices
like child marriage and gender discrimination. The process of urbanisation can actually
(40) _________ their mindset and help them to accept more progressive ideas.
However, there are also some obvious disadvantages. High rates of urbanisation can
contribute to more crime in big cities. (41) _________many people benefit, not all get the
opportunity of a good and stable job. Unemployed, people are more likely to engage in
robbery, kidnapping, murder and other illegal activities. Another problem caused by
urbanisation is the shortage of affordable housing in big cities, (42) ____ can result in
growth of slums with no sanitation or drinking water. In addition, urbanisation leads to the
shift of the working population from agriculture to industries. Labour shortages in rural
areas are likely to result in a decrease in agricultural and food production as well.
To sum up urbanisation can bring social and health benefits; however, it also has its
own drawbacks. I've only discussed some of them. If you have any questions or
comments, please (43) _____ free to raise them and I'll try my best to answer them.

Câu 39: A. in B. about C. with D. over


Câu 40: A. have B. take C. invent D. change
Câu 41: A. But B. Despite C. Although D. because
Câu 42: A. which B. that C. what D. who
Câu 43: A. go B. feel C.walk D. know

Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word with the main
stress different from that of the other three words in each question.
Câu 44: A. agree B. prepare C. borrow D. await
Câu 45: A. cinema B. similar C. expertise D. recipe

Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.

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Câu 46: Jenny: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought to us!”
Peter: “____”
A. Welcome! it's very nice of you. B. All right. Do you know how much it costs?
C. Not at all, don't mention it. D. Actually speaking, I myself don't like it.
Câu 47: Jenny: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”
Peter: “____ I enjoyed it."
A. Just in case. B. You are welcome C. Not in the least D. At all costs.

Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Câu 48: Preserving cultural identities in international world is a matter of great dispute.
A. It is a great dispute as cultural identities should be preserved in international.
B. No matter how great dispute is, cultural identities should be preserved in
international.
C. That the dispute of preserving cultural identities in international world is a great
matter.
D. The fact that cultural identities should be preserved in international world is a matter
of great dispute.
Câu 49:People often mistakenly think that children can learn to speak only one language
well.
A. Children are often believed to be able to speak only one language well and it's true.
B. It is often believed that children cannot learn to speak several languages.
C. It is not true that children can learn to speak only one language well.
D. It is normal to believe that children can learn to speak only one language well..
Câu 50: I was not in the mood for taking part in a chatting forum.
A. I didn't want to join in a chatting forum.
B. I was not in a good mood then to chat to you.
C. Having a serious conversation made me moody.
D. I was in a bad mood because of taking part in a chatting forum.

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ĐÁP ÁN THI THỬ TNTIẾNG ANH LỚP 12 LẦN II ( Ngày thi 25/01/2021)

Mã đề
Câu 103 219 325 436 547 658 784 896
1 D C B C A D A B
2 D C A A C A A A
3 D A D A A D A A
4 D B B A B B C A
5 D A B D B C B B
6 A A C C C C A B
7 A D A C A A B B
8 B C C A C D B A
9 C A B A B C C B
10 B D C C D B A B
11 A B D C C A A A
12 B C D B B B A C
13 C A A B B A B A
14 B D B C C A C B
15 D A B A D A D C
16 D D C C A B D D
17 C A C B A C C C
18 D B D B B D D B
19 A D C D C D C D
20 A D B B A C D C
21 A D C C C D D B
22 B B A A D C C D
23 B C C C C D C D
24 B A A B A D D D
25 A C A D C C C D
26 B D D A B C B B
27 B A B A D A C A
28 C A C D A A D D
29 D B C D D C A C

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30 A B D A C B B B
31 B B A B A A D D
32 A A B B B B C A
33 C D D A C D B A
34 B B C B D C D D
35 D B A B D B A A
36 C A A D D D A A
37 C C D A D A D D
38 A D D D B A B B
39 B C D B D D A D
40 D A A C A B D C
41 C B A D B B B C
42 A B D D D C B C
43 B C B B C B D B
44 C D A C D A B C
45 C A B B D B B C
46 C B B B B B B C
47 C D A D A D B A
48 D C D C B C A D
49 C C A D D A C C
50 A C C D A D C B

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SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH QUẢNG NGÃI KỲ THI TIẾP CẬN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2021
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUỐC TUẤN NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 Phút
( Đề có 5 trang )

Họ tên :............................................................... Số báo danh : ................... Mã đề 001

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. referee B. understand C. magazine D. emigrate
Câu 2: A. offer B. media C. mature D. tablet
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Pirahã are an isolated Amazonian tribe of hunter-gatherers who live deep in the Brazilian
rainforest. The tribe has survived, their culture intact, for centuries, although there are now only
around 200 left. The Pirahã, who communicate mainly through hums and whistles, have fascinated
ethnologists for years, mainly because they have no words for numbers. They use only three words to
count: one, two, and many.
We know about the Pirahã thanks to an ex-hippy and former missionary, Dan Everett, now a professor
of Phonetics, who spent seven years with the tribe in the 70s and 80s. Everett discovered a world
without numbers, without time, without words for colours, without subordinate clauses and without a
past tense.
Their language, he found, was not just simple grammatically; it was restricted in its range of sounds
and differed between the sexes. For the men, it has just eight consonants and three vowels; for the
women, who have the smallest number of speech sounds in the world, seven consonants and three
vowels. To the untutored ear, the language sounds more like humming than speech. The Pirahã can
also whistle their language, which is how men communicate when hunting.
Their culture is similarly constrained. The Pirahã can’t write, have little collective memory, and no
concept of decorative art. In 1980, Everett tried to teach them to count: be explained basic arithmetic
to an enthusiastic group keen to learn the skills needed to trade with other tribes. After eight months,
not one could count to ten; even one plus one is beyond them. The experiment seemed to confirm
Everett’s theory: the tribe just couldn’t conceive the concept of number.
The Pirahã’s inability to count is important because it seems to disapprove Noam Chomsky’s
influential Theory of Universal Grammar, which holds that the human mind has a natural capacity for
language, and that all languages share a basic rule structure, which enables children to understand
abstract concepts such as number. One of Chomsky’s collaborators has recently gone on an expedition
with Everett to study the tribe. We do not yet know if the Pirahã have persuaded him to change his
theory.
Câu 3: What does Chomsky’s Theory of Universal Grammar hold?
A. Children do not grasp abstract concepts until they grow up.
B. Children and adults have different language abilities.
C. All languages have some rules in common.
D. Some languages do not have words for numbers.
Câu 4: Everett’s experiment to teach the Pirahã to count revealled that the tribe …………….
A. was able to learn number but no one taught them previously.
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B. just couldn’t take in the concept of number.
C. had its own way of saying numbers.
D. couldn’t count to 1000.
Câu 5: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to …………….
A. the act of humming B. the Pirahã’s language
C. the Pirahã tribe D. the language of males
Câu 6: The word “untutored” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to …………….
A. wrong B. foreign C. untrained D. damaged
Câu 7: The word “constrained” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to …………….
A. simplified B. complicated C. limited D. varied
Câu 8: What is NOT true about the Piraha tribe?
A. The lack of words for numbers in their language has interested ethnologists.
B. They have successfully kept their culture as it was originally.
C. Their language as well as their culture is restricted.
D. They have not decreased in numbers.
Câu 9: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A study by Professor Dan Everett
B. A defect in Chomsky’s famous theory
C. The unusual language of the Pirahã’s tribe
D. Reasons behind the humming and whistling of the Pirahã tribe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 10: The manager has been biting off more than he can chew when he took on five projects at
the same time.
A. practical enough B. clever enough
C. too ambitious D. too aggressive
Câu 11: Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable
employment.
A. temporary B. steady C. durable D. long-lasting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 12: She hasn't paid as much attention to her children as she did since she …………….
working.
A. started B. would start C. was starting D. starts
Câu 13: They’ve written to each other for years, but this is the first time they’ve met …………….
A. face to face B. mind to mind C. heart to heart D. hand to hand
Câu 14: People will travel in solar-powered cars in the future, …………….?
A. will people B. will they
C. won’t people D. won’t they
Câu 15: If you ……………. at a computer screen for too long, it may damage your eyesight.
A. peep B. glance C. stare D. look
Câu 16: ……………. the Sun is, ……………. the shadow is.
A. The higher / the low B. The more high/ the more low
C. The more higher / the more lower D. The higher / the lower
Câu 17: One ……………. method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.
A. popularly B. popularity C. popularize D. popular
Câu 18: What's James so happy about? He looks like …………….
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A. tired dog B. dog with a bone
C. a dog with two cubs D. a dog with two tails
Câu 19: I suggest that Sam ……………. the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle.
A. to read B. reads C. read D. reading
Câu 20: Because of the coming examination, I am under a lot of study …………….
A. responsibility B. activities C. pressure D. confidence
Câu 21: I remember she wore a ……………. dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.
A. white Vietnamese cotton B. cotton white Vietnamese
C. white cotton Vietnamese D. Vietnamese white cotton
Câu 22: My career adviser talks to me ……………. he is my father.
A. because B. although C. like D. if
Câu 23: ……………. to help, we had already put out the fire.
A. No sooner the firemen had arrived B. By the time the firemen arrived
C. After the firemen arrived D. Until the firemen arrive
Câu 24: ……………. the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. Finish B. Having finished C. To finish D. Finishing
Câu 25: A new primary school ……………. near my house recently.
A. has been built B. has been building
C. have been built D. have been building
Câu 26: Students use the library's computers to get access ……………. the Internet.
A. to B. for C. with D. by

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 27: A. career B. advice C. activate D. apply
Câu 28: A. invented B. coughed C. introduced D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 29: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. conservation B. number C. variety D. changes
Câu 30: The main threat to the survival of these creatures comes from their loss of habitat.
A. usual behaviour B. favourite activity
C. place of living D. rituals
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 31: Nick gave me some advice. I was saved from bankruptcy.
A. Had it not been for Nick’s advice, I would have gone bankrupt.
B. It was Nick’s advice that saved me from bankrupt.
C. If it weren’t for Nick’s advice, I would go bankrupt.
D. I was saved from bankruptcy thanks to Nick gave me some advice.
Câu 32: You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It's the only way.
A. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease.
B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease.
C. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating.
D. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Câu 33: The last time I went to the gym was a week ago.
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A. My going to the gym lasted a week.
B. I have not been to the gym for a week.
C. At last I went to the gym after a week.
D. A week ago, I often went to the gym.
Câu 34: “I would like a cup of coffee, please,” Mr. Smith said to the waitress.
A. Mr. Pike advised the waitress to drink a cup of coffee.
B. Mr. Pike ordered the waitress to bring him a cup of coffee.
C. Mr. Pike warned the waitress not to drink coffee.
D. Mr. Pike invited the waitress a cup of coffee.
Câu 35: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.
A. I mustn't submit my assignment today.
B. My assignment must have been submitted today.
C. My assignment was required to submit by today.
D. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Câu 36: Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.
Helen: This is the best field trip we’ve ever had.
Sarah: ……………. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.
A. Never mind. B. I don’t think that’s a good idea.
C. You’re right. D. I totally disagree.
Câu 37: Peter: How are you today? Susan: …………….
A. I feel like a millions stars. B. I feel like a millions dollars.
C. I feel your ears burning. D. I can feel it in my bone.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 38: In fact, I and Peter has lost touch with for a long time.
A. with B. has C. a D. In fact
Câu 39: Domestic cats often show loyalty to their owners by leaving freshly killed prey such as
birds for they to find.
A. to B. such as C. leaving D. they
Câu 40: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. former B. film directions C. expand D. successful
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from.
False, or fake, images are not new. In fact, the earliest fake photos date back to the 19th century. A
famous example is the image called “The Cardiff Giant". The photo seems to show the discovery of
a giant human. It was fake, but some people thought it was real.
With computer technology, it is much easier now to make and share fake images. In 2004 another
unusual photo spread around the world by email. Like the Cardiff Giant photo, it seemed to show
the discovery of a very large human body. The photo usually came with a story under a title such as:
“Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” Both the stories and the image were amazing. But there was a problem
- none of it was true.
The recent giant skeleton photo was the work of a Canadian illustrator. He made it for a digital art
contest. The image was really a mix of three different photos. Making the image, says the illustrator,
was not difficult. In fact, it took less than an hour and a half to create.

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So, how is it possible to tell if a photo is real? First, look for a source. Where does the photo come
from? Is there a photographer’s name? Look for clues in the photo. Sometimes the direction of light
and shadows is wrong. Is anything in the photo too big or too small, or is anything missing?
(Source: National Geographic Learning)
Câu 41: The word “clues" in paragraph 4 almost means …………….
A. effects B. images C. hints D. withdrawals
Câu 42: According to the passage, “The Cardiff Giant” and “Giant Skeleton Unearthed!” both
show …………..
A. a very large human body B. a monster
C. a magic human being D. a wizard
Câu 43: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ……………..
A. The Cardiff Giant B. image
C. computer technology D. to make and share fake images
Câu 44: The best title of the passage can be “…………………”.
A. The Cardiff Giant B. Fake or Real?
C. Giant Skeleton Unearthed D. Fake photos
Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about fake photos?
A. Fake photos are always created by illustrators.
B. A fake photo is a mix of many photos.
C. It is not difficult to make a fake photo.
D. The most common fake photos are about giant humans.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
DESPERATE TO GO TO SCHOOL
Truancy has become a serious problem in __( 46 )__ schools in recent years. In an attempt to tackle
this problem one school introduced a new scheme to __( 47 )__ students to attend as many classes as
possible. Pupils who achieved a 100% attendance record throughout the whole academic year were
rewarded with an all inclusive weekend school trip to an activity centre __( 48 )__ they would be able
to have a go at outdoor activities such as climbing, abseiling and white water rafting.
One student was so excited to qualify for this free weekend away that he even went to school with a
broken wrist. He hurt his wrist when he fell off his bike on the way to school, but he was so worried
about maintaining his 100% attendance that he didn’t tell his teachers or parents __( 49 )__ the school
day had finished. He eventually admitted to his mother what had happened, when she noticed that he
was having difficulty eating his dinner and asked him what was wrong. She took him to hospital that
night, where they put his arm in plaster and he was able to go back to school the next day.
Fortunately, he was fully __( 50 )__ from his accident in time to go on the trip.
Câu 46: A. each B. many C. a little D. much
Câu 47: A. encourage B. force C. make D. suggest
Câu 48: A. that B. who C. which D. where
Câu 49: A. while B. until C. before D. when
Câu 50: A. repaired B. fixed C. improved D. recovered

...............THE END...............

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SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH QUẢNG NGÃI ĐÁP ÁN THI TIẾP CẬN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUỐC TUẤN NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
(ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC) Thời gian làm bài : 60 Phút

Phần đáp án câu trắc nghiệm:


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1 D D B D C D B D
2 C A D B A C A B
3 C C A C A D B B
4 B B C D D A A B
5 B A C C B A A B
6 C B A B C B C D
7 C D A C B C B C
8 D B A B D B C D
9 C A A A D B B B
10 B A C A D C B A
11 A B D C D C B B
12 A B B B A B A A
13 A A B B D B C D
14 D B B B B A B B
15 C D C B D C B D
16 D B C A A D B B
17 D C C A D C C B
18 D D D B D D A A
19 C B A A D A A B
20 C D B C B D D A
21 A D A A C A A A
22 C B C C A A B C
23 B B C B C B B B
24 B D B C A B C A
25 A C A A D D B B
26 A A A B D D B C
27 C A A C A A D C
28 A D D A C C C D
29 C A D A C C C C
30 C C D D D C B B
31 A A C A C D A D
32 B D D C B A A D
1

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33 B D B C B A B A
34 B C A C B C B D
35 D D D D C B D D
36 C D B C B C B A
37 B D A B C B B C
38 B C B C D C B D
39 D A A D A A C C
40 B C A B D D B B
41 C A B B C C C A
42 A D A C B B D A
43 D A D C C A D B
44 B B D B A D D C
45 C B D D A A B D
46 B B A C B D D B
47 A B D A D C A C
48 D B B B B B A B
49 B B C B A D B D
50 D D B B A A D C

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