Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SES 2021 Civil Engineering
SES 2021 Civil Engineering
•^|>^«
SEE/CE/2021 4*4*4*
•|.4<*^
SET (Civil Engineering)
4*4*4*
*§**§"§*
•§m|m£« •l*4**^
.1*4.4.
4..§..|.
❖4-S* 3T^S*>HI«*> 31^iiTN> 1^"mr xgnf ^1^
.^*4**^
• • V 'Candidate should write his/her •l**^*l*
Roll No.
• • •
Roll No. In the given boxes 4**^*1^
»|mx»^. 4*4**1*
4*4*4'*
.^.i..§«
^^hiqT/No. of Printed Pages:32 ^TR^^ WIT/Tolal No. of Questions:150.|**|*.|*
wr/Time: S^JiJ^/HGurs ^j?if^/Totai Marks: 450
4*4*4*' 4.4**1.
>1**1*4.
1. trfiw 3nw^ 3TN ^ ^ 3t^^ ^^1^ W,^m^K3n ^^j
■»«>raT 3R=ri?I
Iiu-iiui 3TTf^
-^TTft ^
-r -sJV I1 -rrfe %n
;WrT %
^, -4k
tit _ft»—.. %
4k or^irt •—£. C5 ^ I. •§.4**§*
*S**$-I*
2. ^ Wi-5f^R>i «PiI^a ^ ^ ^ ^ f I ^ -'3T' cWT -*^' 1 *§.*1.4.
4.4.4.
•$*•14* 3. ^-'5i'%y^wTF7i5it2pH^y^RRi|, I 7nftm3itoi|i *1*4**^
4. 7^ 1^ ^ t 11Wf ^ 100 "I I Tnff 3T^ Tmr i Tnft^iH |i .44**1*
3T«pff ^ ^ ^ ^ Ig 3TT^ t 3?ft ^ 5RH-*ra 1IF?T gSTT f I *4.4.4
*4*$**|*
5. wtft % 3R) wrf I 03 i mnnrRaKi^^qTgR^^rmHl i .44**4
% ^IIT 01 sN> ^iT2T I
6. 31^ (STt.T^q.Sm. ^) T7T ^ Tcr1^ ^ ^ Stf^ ^ I
7. fW (3ft.T?T.3TR. ?ft2) ^ ^ 3TO ^ I
8. ^^^3l^-3^rar%3jf^^n7i^<#t[^?IRTrC"it 31121^ (3?t.TiiT.37K.3!te) ^ iff ^ I
9. ^ RpT (^<J[ -Jii^'ii 1 ^ RPT 4^^ ^ ]
>^*^««^* "'°- ^fi^":'5'
w
^^
^ RR^ RRT "mm 1
^ ^ -gs^ ^ 3miR ^ -J »
eft 31^ % ^
^
cWT sM wmt ^ ^ !S55
Tf f
13 _4**¥**|*
4**44.
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES *4*44*
1, Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Question Booklet •l**44*
does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so. immediately contact the invigilator *4*4*^
•|-¥-^ and get it replaced with Question Booklet. 4**4*4
2. This combined Question Booklet is divided in two Sections. Section - 'A' and Section - 'B'. 4*4**$*
3. Section — A contains 50 Questions of General Studies. All Questions are in Hindi and English Language 4**4*^
All questions are compulsory. 4**4*^
.44.*4
4. Section - 'B' contains 100 Questions of Concerned Engineering Subject. Question are only in English .4.44.
4-1^. Language. All questions are compulsory. Candidates should ensure that he/she got the question paper *4*4*$*
of the same post for which he/she had applied. *4*4*4
5. All questions carry equal marks. Three marks for each correct answer. There is provision of Neaatlve *4*4*4
Markings. For each wrong answer, one mark will be deducted. 4*4.4..
6. Read carefully the instructions given on the Answer Sheet (OMR) supplied and indicate your answers .44*4*
accordingly. *4*4*4
7. Kindly make necessary entries on the Answer Sheet (OMR) at the places Indicated and nowhere else. 4..|**4 4**4*4
8. Examinee should do all rough work on the space meant for rough work on pages given at the end of the *44**4
^4-1* Question Booklet and nowhere else, not even on the Answer Sheet (OMR). 4*4*4*
4^§»4*
•i*»|*"4*
9. Only simple calculator is allowed to solve the Question Paper. Scientific/Engineering calculator will not 4*4*4*
be allowed. 4**44*
10. If there Is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature in any question of Section - A, then *4.4*4
4**^4* out of the Hindi and English versions of the question, the Hindi version will be treated as standard. *44*4.
4-*4*4* SEE/CE/2021-A 1 4*4**4
XX ¥ XTTTTTTT ¥ TTTTT » TT f•«**v*TT*?"?*'v**r*5**f**S**§**g**5**S**S
4.4.4..^..fi.4,4..&4..|..44,4..i..44.^x4,4.4.4.4,4,4,4,^ 1I
4.4..^.4.4..4,44.4.4,4.4.4,^4,4,.^^,4.^,.^^.|,^,^^,4,,|,,|,4^^^4^^^^^^^
' V-i.S0S/3O/33S
mh. (a) mh^ia
^ la^bahH \^ lilh i6^1toh (q)
Htkl2 (o)
|MMi£ life
^i£4>lr^l? (a) )iifeifekihiHtj^9SMatR%ii^i^ (0)
>lr^P la^lcto (v) Ifehkjr a fej^ ife I^^Kbah life lg>^ (g)
i IIMt \hl^ m2ifey.^^^IMife (v)
^^1^ iiiil2 li% l^^Htait lilS. .9 I ifeHife ifel^HU^ feiSn^
ililH (a)
e p z 1 (a)
Ife^ 11^ (0)
e p I z (o)
?mn^ib (a)
p £ z I- (a)
^ Ibih (v)
p £ I 2 (V)
^ktSt 11^
p 0 q B
iI
11^ y IbP^ 'P
V^t^bkv -0 lb|tk "0
si^ (a)
^'S ^ -q
1-1^ (0) • ^IP^Tt "l- 'B
z}^i (a)
ydifey IfelL^)
£^Z'l (V)
11-^^ i-<^
I hfefe life hfeife ^^ fefe^^
I ^lyi^ hfeb. life W^^ 2^ %li^
I lpj£
ph ^^ ^Snl^^ -e
I 4n^l|nm (a)
1 I (pik^ d?lh Iklk ^jn^l^feUj3^ (0)
\^pSk4^^iy£ •[. ^)n^^ (a)
I iu^ l>?^l^h P^lgh (v)
>lfe^ Jth jl^ ^ fern % jfe|}l^ -fr I ^^ Ji^KJzsh "l.
(hbi23totHhia)
Jt0-£Et
SECTION-A
(General Studies)
1. The highest peak of Madhya Pradesh Is 4. Consider the following statement with
located reference to soils.
(A) Mahadeo hills
1. Large amount of iron and lime are
(B) Kaimur range
found in black soil.
(C) Vindhyachal range
2. Red and yellow soil is found in
(D) Bhander range
Baghelkhand.
2. Match List - I with List - II and select 3. Alluvial soil is found in Bhind and
the correct answer from the codes given Morena District.
below.
List -1 List - II Select the correct statement from the
(River) (River drainage above.
area Town/District) (A) 1,2 and 3
a. Wainganga 1. Multai
(B) 1 and 2
b. Tapti 2. Seoni
(C) only 1
c. Narmada 3. Jabalpur
(D) only 2
d. Betwa 4. Vidisha
Codes:
5. Which ofthe following pair is hot correctly
a b c d matched ?
(A) 2 1 3 4
District Mining area
(B) 1 2 3 4
(A) Panna Diamond
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 4 3 (B) Balaghat Copper
(C) Katni Limestone
3. The most important Geographical
(D) Sagar Manganese
factor affecting average temperature in
Madhya Pradesh
(A) Proximity to the Bay of Bengal 6. Which Tiger Reserve of Madhya Pradesh
(B) Tropic of Cancer passes through has been declared the Biosphere
the middle of Madhya Pradesh
Reserve by UNESCO ?
(C) About 25 percent part of the land
(A) Kanha Tiger Reserve
area of Madhya Pradesh is covered
by forests (B) Pench Tiger Reserve
(D) Proximity to the Equator of the (C) Satpuda Tiger Reserve
Southern part of Madhya Pradesh (D) Panna Tiger Reserve
SEE/CE/2021-A [ P.T.O.
7. 10. ^ ^
- 2020 KH1^^ ?
(A) (A)
(B) - Tl^nOT (B)^
(C) Mm - 5iw^"51^ (C) H<r1<a«j
(D) - awT (D) ■3^%^!^
8.
11. 1^ 4 ^ 3^1^ ^-WI ?
^ ^ wi ctKd "g^, ^ ^ I
(A) ^«tiqiQi
^-1 ^-11
(B)
(fevTI^) (^)
a. <^iqq
(C) fe
1.
b. 2. -^ (D) 1=^
C. "fqRR 3.11^
d. ^iT3nf¥rf 4. cft%5ft
12. ^ ^^t ?
(A) TMTWT
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) i^^rid ^R'm
(B) 2 1 3 4 (C)
(C) 2 1 4 3 (D)
(D) 1 2 4
13.
9. "<Nmdl feRTT TT^
<3^ ^ "I ?
(A)
(A) Ishi<l
(B) (B) Pi«iel
(C) ii)d4M (C) W
(D) (D)
SEE/CE/2021-A
7, The two States that have been recently in 10. Yogesh Malviya has been awarded the
news for inter-state border dispute are Dronacharya Award - 2020 for.which
sport ?
(A) Mizoram - Meghalaya
(A) Kabaddi
(B) Manipur-Meghalaya
(B) Wrestling
(C) Mizoram - Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Mallakhamba
(D) Mizoram - Assam
(D) Boxing
8. Match List - I with List - II and using 11. Which of the following is an example of
the given codes, select the correct
input devices ?
answer.
(A) Trackball
List -1 List-ll
(B) Speaker
(Player) (Sport)
(C) Printer
a. Chinki Yadav 1. Horse Riding
(D) Plotter
b. AkshatJoshi 2. Shooting
c. Muskan Kirar 3. Hockey
d. Khamman Singh 4. Archery 12. Who is called the 'father of artificial
Codes: intelligence'?
a b 0 d (A) V. Rajaraman
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) Alan Turing
(B) 2 1 3 4 (C) John McCarthy
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) Tim Berners-Lee
(D) 1 2 4 3
SEE/CE/2021-A [ P.T.O.
14. f-trrewT^ I? 18, tiT-41 ^ Rh^i «b<cj|iii ?
(A) (A)
(B) ^ (B) W^FK
(C) (C) fl^HR
(D) (D)
20, ^MT'^t ?
16, 'TRT TR^ ?ft
(A) % 315^1 ^cf?TT
(A) 3^
(B) %:si2^^^
(B)
(C)
(C) mWTft
(D)
(D) ^Ttwr
21, ^art
17, H^s^i^ 3Tf^ 3^ "yrfFft TRT
% 3t;^ fti=T ^ t arfWr
^2n ?
^Wn%2TTt ?
(A) TRT^
(A) W
(B) "terr^
(B)
(C)
(C) 3in
(D)
(D) TO
SEE/CE/2021-A
14. E-Pathshala App is related to 18. Who built Sanchi Stupa ?
(A) Books (A) Chandragupta first
(8) Scholarship (B) BImbisara
(C) Medicine . (C) BIndusara
(D) Farmers (D) Ashoka
SEE/CE/2021-A
22. Underthe Madhya Pradesh Mukhyamantri 25. Singorgarh fort is situated in which
Kisan Kalyan Yojana, how much amount district of Madhya Pradesh ?
is to be given to beneficiary family in a
(A) Sagar
financial year ?
(A) ? 4,000
(B) Damoh
SEE/CE/2021-A [ P.T.O.
29. Rnloifed ^ ^ ojnw 33. 'ttz^'^ter ^^ ^rte[ t ?
"I ? (A) TTT^
(A) WTR^WTK
(B)
(B) WTH^ WTR
(C)
(C) ^ Wm WT
(D) qtiei-iaus
(D)
34. 1^ Tf t?
30. ifeimr ^ 3ttKMrh iM*r" (A)
% "fef^ WT^ mr ^ 3i%r -tar (B) TRn^
'Jiiai "t ? (C) TR^
(A) ^STRT (D)^
(B)
35. ^ ^?
(C) jMn
(A)
(D) ^Bk$H
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D) ti^, TTR ii^, wM,
(D) ^<1 -iEjl'l % Rn^
SEE/CE/2021-A 10
29. Which of the following describe 33. 'Matkr dance is famous in which area ?
E-Commerce ? (A) Malwa
(B) Nimar
(A) Business of Electronic Goods
(0) Bundelkhand
(B) Business of Electrical Goods
\
(D) Baghelkhand
(C) Doing Business Electronically
(D) All of the above 34. In which District is'chldikho tourist place'
located ?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Rajgarh
30. Which of the computer language Is used
(C) Raisen
in "Artificial Intelligence" ?
(D) Sehore
(A) JAVA
SEE/CE/2021-A 11 [ P.T.O.
37. ^ %3m^ 41. ""7^ ^ "^kr drtadd ?[RT
?
(A)
(A) TT^
(B) 1^'m m^<
(C) ■^. "cnl (B)
(D) 3T^KklT
38. Rnlolfed ^ HRcfk % 3?3HK
<N^(rld> Ml^llJHRch oJT^^ ^
Wt ^ Wt ^T#5^ ^WI ? 42. RnRifed k ^ ^I?
(A)
(A) Tresra^TfTTPTTclli^ didl 4il4dl ^H^dHI
(B)
kfer t
(C) 1^^-?mT
(D) (B) ^ ^
"Q;^ vdro-H ^ "t
39. ^Kcfl^ %-f^ 3T3=£#^^ TTFT M-dl^dl (C) kmM ^^
%Ti^^'5rmHt ?
3fK -91
-(A) 243^
(B) 243^
(D) tnsTT^ ^iki^ ^
(C) 243n t ^ FTVjft wfk ^ikr^
(D) 243^ t
SEE/CE/2021-A 12
37. Who was the first leader of opposition 41. By whom is the work of diamond mining
of Madhya Pradesh Legislative
done in Panna District ?
Assembly ?
(A) National Mineral Development
(A) Vishnu Vinayak Sarvate
Corporation
(B) Vishnu Nath Tamashkar
(C) V. G. Ghate (B) Bharat Diamond Bourse
SEE/GE/2021-A 13 [ P.T.O.
i
A
I-
/!tlC
•o
V cE
tJ
¥
FF
\F
l£/ ; 'E
I^ fl- ¥ ¥ ¥ ¥ 10- '
i J
C f«'
o
FC'
o o
[«'
o
flC LO CD CO ir f ■✓ /■
CM o o o o
C\J CO CO o o q^ o
C\J CM CM CO I5 Tir
-
^ cm" co"
I?
to"
i m o CO o Q
jr < g O s
o o
to
1J0-
■c
??) IT
%I C
'-0'
^
X
fv.
^ atlc/
t
I.
ri- c|
1^ ?
I T 4i; T r?
4?^ 4f
4r
?tr ^ o 4i? o
45^
¥: P IT
r
o o
m
o
2J . cS 'JT
O
4?' 4^ 4^ 41^
- flfX/
¥ ■U dE d2 T O T- T- o CM *.7
O
I m o Q CD O
I
dr CD O <2^ 00 s
in CO
Cf LD
CO
44. Which of the following pair is not correctly 48. As per 2011 Census, what is the
matched ? population density of Madhya Pradesh
Irrigation Project River/Tributary
from the following ?
(A) Ban Sagar Son
Project (A) 225/sq. km.
(B) Tawa Project Tawa (B) 236/sq. km.
(C) Pench Project Pench
(0) 246/sq. km.
(D) Kolar Project Betwa
(D) 382/sq. km.
(0) Shahdol
SEE/CE/2021-A 15 [ P.T.O.
i
I
SECTION - B
Civil Engineering
51. A riveted connection with 18 mm 54. A column base is subjected to combined
diameter rivets in double shear are
used to connect 10 mm thick plates. If action of axial load and moment. If the
permissible stresses for rivets in shear intensity of bearing pressure due to
and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa axial load is equal to maximum pressure
respectively as well as for the plate In
bearing is 250 MPa, then the strength generated due to moment,then the total
of rivet is bearing pressure between the column
(Values are rounded off to nearest
base and concrete is
integer value)
(A) 48750 N (A) Uniform compression throughout
(B) 23892 N
(B) Zero at one end and compression
(C) 97500 N
at other end
(D) 47784 N
(0) Tension at one end and compression
52. An ISLB 300 section is used as a simply at other end
supported beam having span of 5 m. If
the sectional modulus is 4.889 x 10^ mm^ (D) Uniform tension throughout
and plastic modulus is 5.4206 x 10^ mm^
then the shape factor of the beam is
(A) 1.10
55. Butt weld used in a welded connection
(B) 0.90
Is subjected to combined action of
(0) 0.80
bearing, bending and shear. If bearing
(D) 0.72
stress fjjj. = 200 MPa, bending stress
53. A steel section is being used as tension fjj= 120 MPa and shear stress q =90 MPa,
member. The cross section area is then the equivalent stress f^ the butt
1100 mm^ and yield strength of steel
section is 250 MPa. If the design is weld subjected is equal to
governed by yielding of the cross section (Values rounded off to integer)
under axial tension, then the design
strength (T^J of the member is (A) 420 MPa
(A) 150kN
(B) 200 MPa
(B) 250 kN
(C) 100 kN (C) 270 MPa
(D) None of the above (D) 320 MPa
SEE/CE/2021-A 16
I
56. An activated sludge process operates at 60. In children "Methaemoglobinaemia"
a flow rate of 540 m^/d having influent disease is caused by
BODg of 200 mg/L. Volume of aeration (A) Conversion of nitrites to nitrates
tank is 60 m^ and biomass concentration (B) Due to total nitrogen
in aeration tank is 3000 mg/L.The Food (C) Conversion of nitrates to nitrites
(D) Reaction between haemoglobin
to Microorganism (F/M) ratio is
and COg
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6 61. Find the specific energy of flowing water
(C) 0.8 through a rectangular channel of width
(D) 0.2 5m, when the depth of water is 3m and
discharge is 10m^/s.
57. An egg shaped section of sewer (A) 30.2m
(A) Is economical than circular section (B) 3.0226m
59. Dissolved oxygen in stream is 63. Which of the following devices are
usually used in measuring pipe flow ?
(A) Minimum at noon
(A) Mouthpiece
(B) Maximum at mid night (B) Cipolletti weir
(C) Same throughout the day (C) Pitot tube
(D) Maximum at noon (D) Venturimeter
SEE/CE/2021-A 17 [ P.T.O.
I I
64. The most desirable location for the surge 68. Morgan keys are suitable for Cl chairs,
tank is plate sleepers and metal sleepers. There
(A) Immediately upstream of the turbine specifications are
(B) Immediately upstream of the tail water (A) 12 cm long with a taper of 1 in 48
(C) Immediately downstream of the (B) 12 cm long with a taper of 1 in 30
reservoir (C) 18 cm long with a taper of 1 In 48
(D) Immediately upstream of the (D) 18 cm long with a taper of 1 in 32
reservoir
(D) 5=1.75x/^
70. Worn up rail should not be used if the
wear exceeds the limit between
66. The size of the wooden sleeper used on (A) 7% to 10%
. broad gauge is (B) 3% to 4.5%
(A) 275 cm X 32 cm X 13 cm (C) 10% to 12.5%
(B) 275 cm X 25 cm X 18 cm (D) 5% to 8.0%
(C) 275 cm X 25 cm X 13 cm
(D) 275 cm x 25 cm x 32 cm
71 If drainage is permitted throughout
the test, during the application of both
normal and shear stresses, so that full
67. Fish plates used in Indian Railway should consolidation occurs and no excess
have the carbon contents equal to pore pressure is set-up at any stage of
(A) 0.38% to 0.47% the test, is known as
(A) Drained test
(B) 0.30% to 0.42%
(B) Quick test
(C) 0.25% to 0.42%
(C) C-Utest
(D) 0.15% to 0.47% (D) Compression test
SEE/CE/2021-A 18
i i
72. In site exploration, depth upto which the 76. The stress in cement concrete pavement
increase in pressure is likely to cause changes
shear failure is known as (A) Seasonally
(A) Significant depth (B) Annually
(C) Daily
(B) Failure depth
(D) None of the above
(C) Pressure depth
(D) Exploration depth 77. The rise of water level near bridge due to
obstruction caused by the construction
of bridge is called as
73. The minimum net pressure intensity (A) Superlex
causing shear failure of soil, is (B) Afflux
known as (0) Dulex
(A) Safe bearing capacity (D) Scouring
(B) Net safe bearing capacity
78. According to ICAO, all markings on the
(C) Ultimate bearing capacity runways are
(D) Net ultimate bearing capacity (A) Yellow
(B) White
74. Which of the following is a characteristic (C) Black
of general shear failure ? (D) Red
(A) Failure is accompanied by
79. The maximum transverse grade as per
compressibility of soil
ICAO of 'D' type airport is
(B) Failure is sudden (A) 1.5%
(C) Bulging of shearing mass of soil (B) 2.0%
(D) Depression of soil (C) 2.5%
(D) 3.0%
75. The piles that are used for protecting
structures from ships and floating 80. Airport elevation is the reduced level
objects are above mean sea level of
SEE/CE/2021-A 19 [ P.T.O.
k
81, A steel rod of 2.5 m in height and area of 85. The strain energy per unit volume due to
125 mm^ Is subjected to a pull of 30kN. direct stress 'cf and strain 'g'is equal to the
if Young's modulus Is 200 GPa, the (A) 2a7E
elongation of the rod will be (B) 2 Eg 2
(A) 3 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) |Ee2
(C) 300 mm (D) None of the above
(D) 0.3 mm
86. The limitation of Bligh's theory observed as
82, For a given material, If E, G, and v are (A) Made no distinction between
Young's modulus, modulus of rigidity horizontal and vertical creep
and Polsson's ratio respectively, then (B) Made no explanation of exit gradient
the relation E = (C) Made no distinction between outer
(A) 2G(1 + v) and inner faces of sheet piles
(B) 2G(1-v) (D) All the above
(C) 2G/(1+v)
(D) 2G/(1-v) 87. A device where silt is excluded from
water entering the canal is known as the
following and placed at
83, Every material obeys the Hook's law
(A) Silt ejector placed infront of head
within its
regulator
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Silt ejector placed behind the head
(B) Limit of proportionality
regulator
(C) Plastic limit
(C) Silt excluder placed infront of head
(D) Modulus of elasticity
regulator
(D) Silt excluder placed behind the head
84, A framed structure is perfect, if the regulator
number of members are (2J - 3),
where J Is joint. 88. Which statement is not true for canal
(A) Equal to lining ?
(B) Less than (A) Minimize the seepage losses
(B) Reduce maintenance of canal
(C) Greater than
(C) Prevent erosion
(D) None of the above (D) Decrease discharge
SEE/CE/2021-A 20
i k
89, A larger length of groyne pointing 92. If the fillet welds are subjected to a
upstream used for river training works combination of normal stress (f^) and
is known as
shear stress (q), the equivalent stress
(A) Attracting Groyne
(B) Repelling Groyne (fe) is
(0) Deflecting Groyne (A) ^/M
(D) Sedimentary Groyne
(B) V3fa+3q=
90, In cross drainage works, if natural
drainage is carried over the canal (C) ^f=+3q=
where F.S.L. of the canal is lower than
the underside of the trough carrying (D) ^
drainage water, then it can be said as
(A) Aqueduct 93, An angle ISA 75 x 75 x 6 is connected
(B) Syphon aqueduct to a gusset plate through single leg as
(C) Canal syphon shown in figure. Bolt used are M 20
(D) Super passage grade 4.6. What is net area of angle ?
3
fSRm
(A) n =
Mp
I 6M
(B) n =
mpR
(A) 732 mm2
|6M
(C) n = (B) 862 mm2
mR
SEE/CE/2021-A 21 [ P.T.O.
k
94. A steel structure subjected to a
96. V.
combination of Dead Load (DL) and (A) Porosity
Earthquake Load (EL),the partial safety (B) Water content
factors for limit state of strength are (C) Void ratio
and respectively. (D) Degree of saturation
5t^
(C) ^ 100. Under-reamed piles are generally
(A) Driven piles
(B) Pre-cast piles
(C) Bored piles
(D) None of the above
SEE/CE/2021-A 22
101. The activity does notinvolve consumption 105. The cost slope is given by
of resources and does not need any Normal cost - Crash cost
time is cailed as (A)
Normal time - Crash time
(A) Negative activity Crash cost - Normal cost
(B)
(B) True activity Crash duration - Normal time
■
109. For ductile materials,the mostappropriate 113 The displacement of the track from
failure theory is
its original position due to insufficient
(A) Maximum principal stress theory expansion gap in the track is known as
(B) Maximum shear stress theory (A) Distorting
(C) Maximum principal strain theory (B) Hogging
(D) Shear-strain energy theory (0) Creeping
(D) Buckling
110. The maximum principal stress theory
was postulated by
Heel Divergence is defined as
(A) Rankine
(A) Ratio of length of tongue rail to
(B) St. Venant
switch angle
(C) Mohr
(B) Ratio of switch angle to length of
(D) Tresca
tongue rail
SEE/CE/2021-A 24
I
116, The deflection of a beam with straight 119, As per IS:456:2000, in case of flat slab
tendon's having uniform eccentricity the minimum thickness of slab shall be
below the centroid axis is given by
(A) 100 mm
(where P = effective prestressing force ,
e = eccentricity, L = length of beam, (B) 115 mm
a = deflection) (0) 125 mm
PeLf (D) 150 mm
(A) a =-
12EI
117, Thefoundation that is used when bearing (D) 2%,5% and 20%
power of soil is so low that independent
column footings are impracticable 121, Classification of road in India was
and pile foundation cannot be used done by
advantageously is
(A) Central Government
(A) Strap foundation
(B) Indian Road Congress
(B) Combined foundation
(0) Raft or Mat foundation (C) Ministry of Surface Transport
(D) Rectangular combined foundation (D) Nagpur Road Plan
118, As per IS : 1343 :1980, in prestressed "*22, The drainage layer in the highway
concrete minimum grade of concrete for pavement is known as
pre-tensioned system will be (A) Base course
(A) M40
(B) Sub-base course
(B) M55
(C) M30 (C) Surface course
(D) M20 (D) Subgrade
SEE/GE/2021-A 25 [ P.TO.
123. If R is the radius of a main curve and 127. Modern turbidimeters working on the
L Is the length of the transition curve,the principles of scattering of light, are
shift of the curve Is
known as
(A) L2/24R
(A) Jackson turbidimeter
(B) L/24R
(B) Modern ion chromatography
(C) L4/24R
(0) Nephio turbidimeter
(D) L3/24R
(D) Atomic turbidimeter
124. In California Bearing Ratio test, the value
of GBR is calculated at
128. In a waste water treatment plant, grit
(A) 2.5 mm penetration only
chamber are designed to remove
(B) 5.0 mm penetration only
(C) Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations particles by using the principles of
(D) 7.5 mm penetration only (A) Type - I settling
(B) Type"II settling
125. For the construction of cement concrete
pavement slabs, the desirable limit of (C) Type-111 settling
maximum aggregate crushing value is
(D) Type - IV settling
(A) 35%
(B) 30%
129. London Smog was primarily caused by
(0) 27%
(D) 24% (A) Burning of oil
SEE/CE/2021-A 26
131. A singly reinforced beam 200 mm wide 134, Whatis the recommended value of effective
Is 400 mm deep to the center of the
length, if the column is effectively held in
tensile reinforcement. Determine the
position and fixed against rotation in both
limiting rrioment of resistance of the
beam section. Use M 20 Concrete and ends ?(/ = unsupported length of column)
Fe 250 Steel. (A) 0.65/
(A) 9.536 kN.m (B) 0.80/
(B) 95.36 kN.m
(0) 1.00/
(0) 953.60 kN.m
(D) 1.20/
(D) 80.00 kN.m
SEE/CE/2021-A 27 [ P.T.O.
137. In 1 in 40 model of a spillway,the velocity 141, Which is not the hydro power scheme /
and discharge are 2m/s and 2.5 m^/s, plant ?
respectively. Find the velocity in the (A) Run-off river Scheme
prototype.
(B) Storage Scheme
(A) 126.5 m/s
(C) Pumped Storage Scheme
(B) 12.65 mm/s
(D) Canal Scheme
(C) 12.65 m/s
(D) 0.126 m/s
142. Measurements of duty should not be
taken
138. The flownet Is a graphical representation
of irrotational flow. (A) At the head of the main canal
(A) One dimensional (B) At the head of the branch canal
(B) Two dimensional (0) At the middle of the canal
(C) Three dimensional (D) At the outlet of the canal
(D) None of the above
143. A unit hydrograph consists of a hydrograph
of direct runoff resulting from the following
139. The energy loss in pipe is due to mentioned below which takes place
(A) Surface roughness only uniformly over the basin at a uniform rate
(B) Turbulent shear stress during a specified period of time
(C) Friction offered by pipe wall and (A) One cm of rainfall
viscous action (B) Ten cm of rainfall
(D) Viscous action only (0) One cm of effective rainfall
(D) Ten cm of effective rainfall
140. A wide unlined channel carrying silt free
water has a depth of 2 m.The maximum 144. Ground water is widely distributed under
tractive stress permissibles on the bed the ground and the geologic formation
to prevent scour is 1.96 N/m^. What is which can absorb water but cannot
maximum slope that can be given to the transmit significant amount of water
channel ?
known as with example
(A) 3 in 10^ (A) Aquiclude such as shale
(B) 2^10-* (B) Aquiclude such as basalt
(C) 1 in 103 (0) Aquifuge such as clay
(D) l inlC* (D) Aquifuge such as granite
SEE/CE/2021-A 28
145. Stilling basin Is used for 148. A concrete mixer having a initial cost
(A) Drip irrigation of Rs. 2 lakh and a salvage value of
Rs. 50,000 at the end economic life of
(B) Sprinkler irrigation 5 years. What will be annual depreciation
(C) Dissipation of energy each year using straight line method ?
SEE/CE/2021-A 29 [ P.T.O.
/ ROUGH WORK
SEE/CE/2021-A 30
ROUGH WORK
SEE/CE/2021-A 31 [ P.T.O.
ROUGH WORK
SEE/CE/2021-A 32