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CAT ATPL Full Question
CAT ATPL Full Question
JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
010-ATC
a) ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
b) ceiling is less than 1 500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c) ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
d) ceiling is less than 2 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
002.) Authority
The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the:
a) a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.
b) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 8 km.
c) a distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility
of 5 km.
a) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
b) 2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
c) 1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
d) clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
a) a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight
visibility: 8 km.
b) a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight
visibility: 5 km.
c) a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.
007.) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the
average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given
in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a) 5%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 10 %
008.) Interception
An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft
shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service
unit, select Mode A
a) Code 7000.
b) Code 7700.
c) Code 7600.
d) Code 7500.
a) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 125.5 MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 243 MHz.
c) 243 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 125.5 MHz.
d) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the
frequency 282.8 MHz.
011.) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
a) Descend
b) Descend for landing
c) You land
d) Let down
a) CAN NOT
b) UNABLE TO COMPLY
c) CAN NOT COMPLY
d) NOT POSSIBLE
014.) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
015.) On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give
way to:
016.) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an
aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
b) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the
aircraft
c) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
d) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
018.) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
b) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
c) Inform the ATC unit immediately
d) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
019.) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC
clearance. What action must be taken?
a) Squawk 7700
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances
permit
020.) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
b) Crossing arms extended above his head
c) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
d) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
b) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
c) Come back and land.
d) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
d) Race track
024.) OCA
An OCA is referenced to:
a) Race track.
b) Procedure turn.
c) Reversal track.
d) Base turn.
a) The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b) The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
c) The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d) The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
a) 1 minute.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 1,5 minutes.
a) parallel or direct.
b) either offset or parallel.
c) offset only.
d) direct only.
a) 2 minutes 30 seconds.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 1 minute.
d) 1 minute 30 seconds.
a) transition level.
b) level specified by ATC.
c) transition layer.
d) transition altitude.
032.) AIP
Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which
meteorological service is provided?
a) METEO
b) AD
c) GEN
d) ENR
a) AD
b) FAL
c) GEN
d) ENR
034.) AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted
and danger areas?
a) ENR
b) The AIP does not contain this information
c) GEN
d) AD
035.) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical,
administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
036.) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air
Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
a) A NOTAM RAC.
b) An ATS NOTAM.
c) An Advisory NOTAM.
d) An AIRAC.
038.) "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft
using instrument approach procedures.
039.) "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer
main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
a) 23 m.
b) 18 m.
c) 25 m.
d) 15 m.
a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if
provided).
042.) Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft
having a wheel base of 15 m?
043.) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an
aircraft wing span of:
044.) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
045.) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are
related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements
are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
a) 4F.
b) 5E.
c) 2B.
d) 6D.
a) 1 200 m.
b) 1 800 m and over.
c) 1 500 m.
d) 1 600 m.
047.) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run
available prepared as a suitable area where:
a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
b) The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided)
.
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if
provided) .
049.) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a
normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
a) None.
b) 3.
c) 1.
d) 2.
050.) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
a) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
b) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
054.) In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the
runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
055.) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
a) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.
b) By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
c) Fixed lights green colours.
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
059.) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a) Flashing white.
b) Flashing green.
c) Fixed green.
d) Fixed white.
062.) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a) 4.
b) 3.
c) 5.
d) 2.
063.) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:
a) 150 m.
b) 250 m.
c) 200 m.
d) 300 m.
a) Fixed red.
b) Flashing white.
c) Fixed orange.
d) Flashing red.
a) Flashing red.
b) Fixed orange.
c) Flashing yellow.
d) Fixed red.
a) blue
b) white
c) green
d) red
068.) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
b) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
c) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
d) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
069.) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage width.
b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.
c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
d) The longest aeroplane maximum width only
070.) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a
Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
a) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within
the next 48 hours.
b) Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be
made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the
insurance company.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the
aerodrome and establish a report.
d) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
073.) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
a) Control zone.
b) Flight Information Region.
c) Advisory airspace.
d) Control area.
074.) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified
upper limit is:
a) Class A.
b) Class B.
c) Class E.
d) Class D.
a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
c) Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
d) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
079.) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are
provided:
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
a) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.
b) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.
c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.
d) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the
direction from which approaches may be made.
082.) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level
or water of not less than:
a) 500 metres.
b) 300 metres.
c) 200 metres.
d) 150 metres.
a) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
b) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
c) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome
Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
d) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control
Office and Tower.
a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring
area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
b) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of
air traffic
c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic
d) Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
085.) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
086.) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
087.) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it
mean?
092.) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
a) Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation
minima.
b) Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory
airspace.
c) Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed
separation minima.
d) Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.
a) A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only
acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when the PIC has requested and
obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.
b) the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the
IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC.
c) the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression
"cancelling my IFR flight".
d) ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.
096.) General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a
delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled
and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
097.) General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444)
A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following
elements of information in the order listed.
a) Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC
conditions prevail.
b) Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
c) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the
most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
d) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in
the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned
ETA.
a) The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will
only be given when VMC prevails.
b) The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.
c) The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
d) The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance
with the pilots request.
a) 4 000 feet.
b) 3 000 feet.
c) 1 500 feet.
d) 2 000 feet.
112.) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of
SSR.
b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
d) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
113.) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
114.) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar
Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
a) 2 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 5 NM.
d) 4 NM.
116.) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification
may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
117.) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected
to unlawful interference?
a) Code 2000.
b) Code 7600.
c) Code 7700.
d) Code 7500.
a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be
provided until radar identification is terminated.
b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or
that radar contact has been lost.
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until
you are advised that contact has been lost.
a) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
b) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d) Radar Service is terminated.
120.) The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the
previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency
check can be and can't exceed:
121.) Abbreviations
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
a) Obstacle in surface.
b) Obstacle identification slope.
c) Obstacle identification surface.
d) Obstruction in surface.
122.) Abbreviations
In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
a) 35 ft.
b) 0 ft.
c) 0.8 % gradient.
d) 3.3 % gradient.
a) 30°.
b) 15°.
c) 45°.
d) 12.5°.
a) 2 minutes.
b) 1 minute.
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 3 minutes.
a) Arrival segment.
b) Initial approach segment.
c) Final approach segment.
d) Intermediate approach segment.
a) FAP.
b) FAF.
c) IF.
d) MAP.
a) Visual approach.
b) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
c) Contact approach.
d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
a) A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be
maintained.
b) A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
c) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
d) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
a) 15°.
b) 5°.
c) 10°.
d) 20°.
a) 5 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 5 km.
d) 3 km.
a) 1500 ft.
b) 2500 ft.
c) 3000 ft.
d) 1000 ft.
a) as Altitude.
b) as Height.
c) According to pilot's choice.
d) as Flight Level.
a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace
where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d) Only when directed by ATC.
a) 7700.
b) 7600.
c) 7000.
d) 7500.
148.) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
a) 3 minutes.
b) 15 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
149.) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
150.) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 5 minutes.
b) 6 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
a) 2 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
152.) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 3 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 8 minutes.
153.) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the
following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
154.) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft
"on track" uses DME stations, is:
a) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft.
b) 5 NM.
c) 20 NM.
d) 10 NM.
a) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
c) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
156.) A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is
crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 20 NM.
b) 50 NM.
c) 80 NM.
d) 60 NM.
157.) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in
controlled airspace classified as:
a) B.
b) B, C and D.
c) B and C.
d) B, C, D and E.
158.) One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
tracks diverging by at least:
160.) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not
greater than:
a) 20 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 15 degrees.
d) 30 degrees.
161.) The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the
same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
a) 3 NM.
b) 5 NM.
c) 2 NM.
d) 2.5 NM.
162.) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer
course shall be:
164.) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be:
a) 5.0 NM.
b) 3.5 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 10.0 NM.
165.) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an
aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):
166.) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode
C derived level information indicated that it is within:
168.) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
a) 1.5 NM.
b) 2.0 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 5.0 NM.
169.) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller
should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
a) 8 NM.
b) 6 NM.
c) 10 NM.
d) 5 NM.
a) 2 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 4 NM.
d) 1 NM.
a) 1 NM from touchdown.
b) 3 NM from touchdown.
c) 2.5 NM from touchdown.
d) 2 NM from touchdown.
172.) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller
may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
a) +/- 15 kt.
b) +/- 20 kt.
c) +/- 10 kt.
d) +/- 8 kt.
173.) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft
has passed:
174.) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use
the air traffic advisory service:
a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
notified.
b) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
c) need to file a flight plan
d) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit
providing that service.
a) Black
b) Red
c) Blue
d) Yellow
176.) The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according
to the following code:
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Black
178.) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from
designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the
licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception
and shall not exceed:
a) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in commercial operations.
b) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non-commercial operations.
c) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
d) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
180.) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption?
181.) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
a) 6 months
b) 5 years
c) 1 year
d) 2 years
183.) AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
a) ENR
b) AD
c) LOC
d) GEN
a) 17 years
b) 16 years
c) 21 years
d) 18 years
185.) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from
the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;
b) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;
c) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required
d) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;
187.) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
188.) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will:
a) 2nd freedom
b) 3rd freedom
c) 1st freedom
d) 4th freedom
190.) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make
minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
a) 300m
b) 150m
c) 600m
d) 900m
193.) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
a) 20° or less
b) 40° or less
c) 10° or less
d) 30° or less
197.) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed
within a certain distance from the end of the runway.
Identification has to be achieved within:
a) 1NM
b) 5NM
c) 3NM
d) 2NM
a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;
b) of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
c) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
d) of flashing lights only;
a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
b) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject
of unlawful interference
c) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, shall be informed about this;
d) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an
aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have
been received;
200.) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land
if this is desirable ;
b) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;
c) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing
collisions between aircraft on the movement area;
d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle
a) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;
b) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
c) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
d) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;
a) Composite separation
b) Reduced separation
c) Combined separation
d) Essential separation
203.) The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
a) only in AIP
b) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
c) NOTAM, AIP and MAL
d) only in NOTAM
205.) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to
be informed in case:
206.) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is
impossible, than:
a) you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to
provide for continuation of the flight;
b) you are not allowed to commence the flight
c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
d) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
209.) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
210.) Interception
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the
intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
a) select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received
instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
b) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate
ATS unit.
c) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last
clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.
d) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
a) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
carefully.
b) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the
Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.
c) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the
appropriate minimum.
d) the first part of the segment.
a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying
ground;
b) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for
that procedure;
c) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
d) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
214.) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with
ATPL) is:
a) 18 and 60 years
b) 17 and 59 years
c) 21 and 59 years
d) 16 and 60 years
a) 15 minutes or more
b) 10 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 5 minutes or more.
a) 2,5 NM
b) 3 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 1,5 NM
a) 2 NM from touch-down;
b) 4 NM from touch-down;
c) 3 NM from touch-down;
d) 1NM from touch-down;
221.) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced
to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate
with ATS shall try to:
a) Declare an emergency
b) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
c) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
d) Fly the emergency triangle
a) 40 metres
b) 35 metres
c) 45 metres
d) 50 metres
224.) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is
a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should
be the length of this approach light system?
a) 900 metres
b) 1000 metres
c) 420 metres
d) 1200 metres
226.) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:
a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
b) binding for all member states
c) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
230.) Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of
approach light system?
232.) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level
290?
a) 1500 feet
b) 500 feet
c) 1000 feet
d) 2000 feet
a) If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground
contact.
b) Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions.
c) Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.
d) Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to
the convention
b) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of
such licenses
c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
d) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
236.) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced
to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate
with ATS shall try to:
a) Declare an emergency
b) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
c) Fly the emergency triangle
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
237.) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum
specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 2
d) Annex 4
238.) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum
specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 10
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 6
240.) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL
140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
a) Medium
b) Good
c) Medium/poor
d) Poor
244.) Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
a) OCA or OCH
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
c) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
d) DME-frequencies
a) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established.
b) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.
c) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
d) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
249.) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation
minima may be reduced:
a) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
b) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
c) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
d) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own separation
250.) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field
in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
251.) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft
a) 2 km
b) 10 km
c) 3 NM
d) 6 NM
a) 15 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 12 NM
d) 10 NM
a) V
b) Y
c) N
d) X
a) X
b) V
c) N
d) Y
a) 21
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
257.) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that
licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
a) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b) After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
d) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
258.) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off
in any direction
a) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway
b) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway
c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway
d) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway
259.) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the
runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds
while the aircraft is within a distance of:
a) half NM
b) half mile
c) 1.5 NM
d) 1 NM
261.) Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller
should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
a) 3 NM from touchdown
b) 5 NM from touchdown
c) 4 NM from touchdown
d) 2 NM from touchdown
262.) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach
if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the
aircraft reaches a distance of:
a) ± 10KT
b) ± 15 KT
c) ± 20KT
d) ± 25 KT
265.) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can
be again brought into operation:
266.) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information
in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component
significant change is:
a) 8 KT
b) 5 KT
c) 10 KT
d) 3 KT
267.) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information
in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant
change is:
a) 2 KT
b) 3 KT
c) 4 KT
d) 5 KT
a) 5 KT
b) 8 KT
c) 4 KT
d) 10 KT
269.) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic
distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar
controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
270.) When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft
shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV
distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu
of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
a) 70 NM
b) 100 NM
c) 80 NM
d) 60 NM
271.) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same
cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations
and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
a) 40 NM
b) 25 NM
c) 20 NM
d) 10 NM
a) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 5 minutes
273.) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided
that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than
the succeeding aircraft will be
a) 2 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 3 minutes
d) 10 minutes
274.) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
a) 10 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 15 minutes
275.) Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the
same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
a) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
b) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
c) On at least 20 occasions
d) On at least 20 days consecutively
a) 5 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes
d) 3 minutes
277.) Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when
the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not
equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
a) C, D and E airspace
b) E airspace
c) D and E airspace
d) D airspace
278.) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft?
279.) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
281.) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an
opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
a) 1 minute
b) 2 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 3 minutes
282.) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a) 2.0 NM
b) 1.0 NM
c) 5.0 NM
d) 3.0 NM
283.) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
a) 30 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 25 degrees
285.) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that
a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
a) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display
b) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display
c) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display
d) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the
radar display
286.) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or
MLS final approach track in level flight for:
a) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
b) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
c) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
d) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
287.) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
a) at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
c) at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
d) at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
a) 4 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 2 minutes
289.) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a) 240 KT IAS
b) Not applicable
c) 250 KT IAS
d) 250 KT TAS
290.) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a) 250 KT TAS
b) 240 KT IAS
c) Not applicable
d) 250 KT IAS
291.) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a) 250 KT TAS
b) 260 KT IAS
c) 250 KT IAS
d) Not applicable
a) 260 KT IAS
b) 250 KT TAS
c) Not applicable
d) 250 KT IAS
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that
it is lost
b) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
c) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
294.) Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of
information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
a) A to E (inclusive)
b) F and G
c) C to G (inclusive)
d) A to G (inclusive)
295.) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should
include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
a) cumulonimbus
b) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
c) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
d) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
297.) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
b) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from cloud
c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
d) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds
298.) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the
following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
b) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
c) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
d) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
299.) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the
following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
b) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
d) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
a) Airspace E
b) Airspace C
c) Airspace D
d) Airspace B
301.) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
a) Airspace C
b) Airspace B
c) Airspace D
d) Airspace E
302.) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to
air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of all other flights, is classified as:
a) Airspace A
b) Airspace D
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace B
303.) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic
Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic
information as far as is practical, is classified as
a) Airspace A
b) Airspace B
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace D
a) Airspace D
b) Airspace G
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace F
305.) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information
service if requested, is classified as
a) Airspace G
b) Airspace F
c) Airspace C
d) Airspace E
a) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
b) AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
c) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist
summaries
d) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
307.) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed
by:
a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed
the letters P. R and D and figures
b) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
figures
c) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
d) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R
and D
309.) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and
information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be
published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
310.) Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
311.) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
312.) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
a) YELLOW
b) GREEN
c) RED
d) ORANGE
314.) AIP
SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
a) MET
b) GEN
c) AD
d) ENR
315.) AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for
search and rescue?
a) ENR
b) AD
c) SAR
d) GEN
316.) AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure
procedures?
a) ENR
b) MAP
c) AD
d) GEN
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
c) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger
prior to shipment
319.) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport
away from the territory of the state, the operator:
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising
from his (her) inadmissibility
b) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
c) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
d) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
320.) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in
international flights is:
a) annex 6
b) annex 15
c) annex 9
d) annex 8
a) annex 8
b) annex 16
c) annex 9
d) annex 15
322.) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person
has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal
law
324.) The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
aircraft is:
326.) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
327.) The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
328.) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of
pilot licence
b) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade
of a pilot licence
c) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade
of a pilot licence
d) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
a) 17 years of age
b) 16 years of age
c) 18 years of age
d) 21 years of age
331.) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
332.) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less
than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross
country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop
landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred
are:
a) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)
b) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)
c) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)
d) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
not less than 540 km (300NM)
334.) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not
less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of
pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to
the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
335.) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than
..... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision
of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively:
a) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground
time.
b) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground
time.
c) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time
d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
337.) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than:
338.) The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction
in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total
flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
a) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument
flight trainer
b) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight
procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
339.) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of
an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as
pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of
which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in commercial operations.
b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged
in non commercial operations.
d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
341.) The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the
date:
342.) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state
the validity of the authorisation
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private
flights
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
c) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
d) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its
own discretion
343.) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have
passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
a) 24 months to 12 months
b) 12 months to 3 months
c) none of the answers are correct
d) 12 months to 6 months
345.) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision
of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be
entitled to be credit:
a) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a
higher grade of pilot licence
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in
accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
d) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
346.) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings either as pilot in
command or as co-pilot
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
347.) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than:
a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as
a pilot of aeroplanes
b) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
d) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
a) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time.
b) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time
c) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
d) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time
349.) The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
a) ECAC
b) Each contracting state
c) ICAO
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
350.) When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security
control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening
points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
351.) Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration
to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national
aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
b) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
d) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
cargo
353.) Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the
following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
355.) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within
the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments
with a radius of:
357.) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within
the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments
defined with a radius of:
358.) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
a) 3 minutes
b) 30 seconds
c) 2 minutes
d) 1 minute
360.) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message
shall be the responsibility of
362.) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as
necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
a) A SIGMET information
b) A NOTAM
c) An AIRMET information
d) An En-Route Meteo Report
364.) Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be
limited to route segments of
a) 100 NM or more
b) 60 NM or more
c) 50 NM or more
d) 75 NM or more
366.) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision
hazards when operating in airspace classes:
a) F only
b) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
c) F and G only
d) C, D, E, F, and G
368.) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with the
369.) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) LLL
b) RCC
c) FFF
d) TTT
a) DDD
b) LLL
c) RCC
d) PAN
371.) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
a) DDD
b) LLL
c) XXX
d) RCC
372.) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
a) at least 75 centimetres
b) at least 50 centimetres
c) at least 60 centimetres
d) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
373.) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical
tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
374.) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity
program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
a) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the
aircraft is still airworthy
b) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the
aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
377.) An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the
control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
378.) The International Civil Aviation Organisation ( I.C.A.O. ) was established by the
international convention of:
a) Chicago
b) Montreal
c) Warsaw
d) The Hague
380.) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and
recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 12
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 2
a) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
states.
b) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
an other state.
c) The right to overfly without landing.
d) The right to land for a technical stop.
a) A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP,
NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
b) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical
information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
c) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning
the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or
hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight
operations.
d) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective
dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
a) Warsaw Convention.
b) Tokyo Convention.
c) Hague Convention.
d) Montreal Convention.
385.) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he
has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation
lights twice.
b) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
c) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
d) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational
lights.
386.) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight
must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
a) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the
end of the flight (block time).
b) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a
risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
c) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
d) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
a) 3-4-5
b) 3-5
c) 2-3-5
d) 1–4
390.) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green
flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a) is cleared to land.
b) must give way to another aircraft.
c) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
d) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
a) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is
neither continuous nor regular.
d) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply
ATC services.
394.) When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot
must fly heading:
a) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
b) 030° true
c) 030° magnetic
d) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
a) 14 000 kg.
b) 20 000 kg.
c) 7 000 kg.
d) 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
396.) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan
form...
397.) While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower:
series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
398.) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal:
a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 3.3%
d) 2.5%
400.) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is
the estimated time at which the aircraft:
401.) Given:
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin
above the following two levels:
402.) Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are
established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least
300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach
procedure of that aerodrome.
How many NM is the radius of this circle?
a) 10 NM
b) 25 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 20 NM
a) 400 ft
b) 200 ft
c) the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
d) 350 ft
404.) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the
responsibility of:
405.) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic
avoidance is the responsibility of:
406.) According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA
State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State
a) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
b) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding the period validity of basic licence
c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year
d) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
408.) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
a) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
b) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
c) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6
months thereafter
d) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
409.) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member
State at least:
a) Indefinitely
b) The period of validity of the licence.
c) one year
d) two years
412.) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes
not requiring a type rating, including:
413.) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be
assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has:
414.) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will
be one year from the date:
a) One year
b) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
c) Five years after licence issue.
d) Two years
417.) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
418.) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability
to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type
certificated for:
a) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has completed a competency test.
b) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised
at least 25 student solo flights.
c) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights.
d) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)
rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.
421.) According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are
to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
a) Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the
preceding 12 months.
b) Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction
c) Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of
aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction
d) Without restriction
a) 1 and 2
b) class 1 only.
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1,2,3 and 4
425.) Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
a) At each airport
b) only for administrative staff of airport
c) for every airline operating in the State
d) That is common for all airports within State
426.) The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for
passengers
a) and baggage
b) checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
c) cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport
design
d) checked baggage, cargo and other goods
a) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
b) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to
be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
c) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on
board the aircraft and the ICAO
d) Two aforementioned States and the ICAO
428.) A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure.
This assistance includes:
a) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling
b) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
c) only permission to land
d) provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for
passengers
429.) A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an
aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
a) GVATAM
b) VULTAM
c) ASHTAM
d) NAVTAM
432.) The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in
the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the
acronym:
a) IFPS
b) EATCHIP
c) NOTAM
d) AIRAC
433.) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term
extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
a) Trigger NOTAM
b) NOTAM
c) AIP Amendments
d) AIP Supplements
434.) The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____
aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her
capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.
a) Terminal.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Aeronautical part
d) Security program.
001.) In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads
which produce a bending moment:
a) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
b) highest at the wing root
c) lowest at the wing root
d) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
005.) In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
a) Electrically driven.
b) Hydraulically driven.
c) Mechanically driven.
d) Pneumatically driven.
a) By hydraulic accumulators.
b) Electrically.
c) Mechanically
d) Pneumatically.
008.) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:
a) cabin windows.
b) fire warning systems.
c) cargo compartments.
d) wheel rims.
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 5
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 1 and 5
a) 1, 2, 5, 7
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 6
a) 4200 psi
b) 3000 psi
c) 1200 psi
d) 1800 psi
a) at the pumps.
b) at the actuators.
c) in the reservoirs.
d) at the coolers.
a) 2000 psi
b) 3000 psi
c) 4000 psi
d) 1000 psi
019.) In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:
a) Vegetable oil.
b) Mineral oil.
c) Water and glycol.
d) Synthetic oil.
020.) The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:
021.) In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:
025.) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a) decreases
b) increases
c) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.
d) remains constant
026.) The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform
the following functions:
1. control of cabin altitude,
2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 5, 6, 1
b) 4, 5, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 6, 4
a) FL 340
b) FL 230
c) FL 180
d) FL 280
030.) The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to:
a) discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
b) Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin
pressure surges.
c) regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
d) regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
a) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
b) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c) the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.
d) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
a) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
b) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
c) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.
d) the cabin air re-circulation system.
033.) During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
037.) Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed:
a) 6000 ft
b) 8000 ft
c) 4000 ft
d) 10000 ft
039.) On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
pressure is approximately:
a) 3 - 5 psi
b) 7 - 9 psi
c) 22 psi
d) 13 - 15 psi
040.) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
b) approximately 5 psi at maximum.
c) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
d) approximately 15 psi at maximum.
a) 9.0 psi
b) 15.5 psi
c) 3.5 psi
d) 13.5 psi
045.) Pneumatic mechanical ice protection system are mainly used for:
a) propellers.
b) wings.
c) pitot tubes.
d) windscreens.
047.) In flight, the cabin air for modern airplanes with jet engines is usually supplied by:
a) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.
b) the second fan stage.
c) the high pressure compressor.
d) the low pressure compressor.
049.) In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
a) pressure.
b) purity.
c) temperature.
d) humidity.
050.) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
a) Vinyl coating.
b) Rain repellent system.
c) Electric heating.
d) Anti-icing fluid.
a) pitot tubes.
b) elevator leading edges.
c) slat leading edges.
d) fin leading edges.
052.) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
053.) The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of
the main fuel filter so as to:
054.) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are
supplied with electric power of the following type:
a) 115 V DC
b) 115 V AC
c) 28 V AC
d) 28 V DC
a) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
b) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
c) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
d) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
057.) On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
058.) The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
a) Cell tanks.
b) Fixed built-in tanks.
c) Integral tanks.
d) Combined fuel tanks.
059.) The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
060.) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a) Diaphragm pumps.
b) Centrifugal pumps.
c) Piston pumps.
d) Gear type pumps.
062.) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the
heat exchangers is to:
a) cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine.
b) allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning
groups in operation.
c) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
d) cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system.
063.) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water
separation unit is:
064.) A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat
exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S).
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
066.) When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content
is:
067.) The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
068.) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) the supply of air
behind the primary heat exchanger is:
069.) In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is
routed via the:
a) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
b) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
c) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
d) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
a) by-pass ducting.
b) fan section.
c) compressor section.
d) turbine section.
a) the temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the
air cycle machine.
b) the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
c) the turbine drives the compressor of the machine which causes a higher temperature, and
so increases the second heat exchanger efficiency.
d) the turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
072.) In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature
and pressure is achieved by:
a) an evaporator.
b) a condenser.
c) a compressor.
d) an expansion turbine.
073.) In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit
to:
a) ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
b) ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
c) maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
d) increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
a) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.
b) not affect the charge air pressure.
c) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
d) increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
a) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
b) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground
operation.
c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
d) cooling air to the pre-cooler.
077.) In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern
commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:
078.) With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only
correct statement is:
a) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices
for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.
b) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on
small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).
c) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore
they only need little energy.
d) on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is
very often used for large surfaces de-icing.
080.) The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod.
2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 8
b) 1, 2, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 4, 5, 7
084.) During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system
when:
086.) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is
subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar
of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is:
a) compression.
b) tension, and then compression.
c) tension.
d) compression, and then tension.
087.) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
a) 1
b) 0.1
c) 0.5
d) 0
a) red.
b) blue.
c) purple.
d) pink.
a) 1, 5, 6.
b) 1, 2, 5.
c) 2, 3, 6.
d) 3, 4, 5.
a) 1, 4.
b) 2, 3.
c) 2, 4.
d) 1, 3.
093.) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:
a) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero
Zc.
b) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
c) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches
14000ft.
d) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
a) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking.
b) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.
c) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally
powering the brakes does not function anymore.
d) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.
096.) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a malfunction of
the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :
097.) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently
transmit the:
1. normal bending stresses
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
a) the webs.
b) the spars.
c) the skin.
d) the ribs.
099.) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
data is:
1. idle wheel speed (measured)
2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
b) 1, 3.
c) 1, 2, 4.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
a) the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator,
modulating the mix valve.
b) the temperature selector only modulating the mix valve.
c) the cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve.
d) automatic control of the ram air.
104.) The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is:
a) Oil.
b) Nitrogen.
c) Oxygen.
d) Springs.
105.) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of:
a) An actuator or jack.
b) A hydraulic pump.
c) An accumulator.
d) A pressure regulator.
a) shutoff valve.
b) flow control valve.
c) distribution valve.
d) check valve.
111.) One of the purpose of the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in the fuel is:
a) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
b) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
c) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
d) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine
at a positive pressure.
118.) Maximum power output and low mass of aeroplane hydraulic systems can be
achieved with
a) Figure c)
b) a
c) b
d) d
a) a fluid storage.
b) a pressure storage.
c) a volume storage.
d) an energy storage.
121.) The type of hydraulic fluid which has the greatest resistance to cavitation is:
a) Synthetic fluid.
b) Water and glycol based fluid.
c) Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
d) Mineral oil based fluid.
124.) The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
a) the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.
b) a part of the whole leading edge.
c) slats and the leading edge flaps only.
d) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
a) Fluid de-icing.
b) Electrical heating.
c) Pneumatic boots.
d) Thermal anti-icing.
128.) The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works
a) electrically.
b) with hot air.
c) with anti-icing fluid.
d) pneumatically.
131.) A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:
a) 20 N.
b) 100 N.
c) 1 N.
d) 1000 N.
133.) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
a) 1500 psi.
b) 500 psi.
c) 1000 psi.
d) 2500 psi.
a) fluid loss.
b) an increased fluid temperature.
c) a decreased fluid temperature.
d) an increased fluid pressure.
135.) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
derived from:
a) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
b) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
c) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
d) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.
138.) The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
a) used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
b) compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion
turbine.
c) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary
heat exchanger.
d) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
a) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
b) is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
c) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
d) has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
142.) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight
conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
143.) Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should
indicate:
a) zero.
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
c) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
d) a rate of climb.
a) 4000 psi.
b) 1000 psi.
c) 2000 psi.
d) 3000 psi.
a) the piston moves to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
b) since pressures are equal, the piston is free to move in response to external forces.
c) the piston moves to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
d) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the piston will take place.
149.) To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
hydraulic system often incorporates
151.) In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge
of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 kg. If a temperature rise
increased the volume of fuel by 5%, the indicated fuel mass would:
153.) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply
be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that
a) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
b) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
c) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
d) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum
154.) The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing ..
a) by pilot action
b) the system is always armed
c) at a certain low speed
d) automatically
a) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-
dissipation function.
b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping
function.
d) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function
157.) The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
gear is
158.) The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate
switches is
a) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim
rate at low speed
b) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
c) Because there are two trim motors.
d) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
161.) Hydraulic fluid, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to:
163.) If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
pressure the:
a) Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is a reduction of
maximum engine thrust.
b) Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is no reduction of
maximum engine thrust.
c) Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is no reduction of
maximum engine thrust.
d) Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is a reduction of
maximum engine thrust.
165.) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
a) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the
cockpit windows.
b) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very
heavy.
c) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
d) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
a) 2, 4.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
d) 3, 4.
169.) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for
example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
a) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse)
and deflates the tyre.
b) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
c) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
d) the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
temperature.
170.) The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:
171.) Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing
evices, one can affirm that:
1 - They prevent ice formation.
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1-4
b) 2-3
c) 2-4
d) 1–3
174.) For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:
a) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all
hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.
b) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a
pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure
reserve.
c) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and
the fire shut-off valve.
d) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to
210 kg/cm²).
a) by an auxiliary system.
b) by bleed air from the engine.
c) in flight only.
d) by the air conditioning system.
a) the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
b) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
c) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
d) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
177.) Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
021-1 FZK
Lösungen
001.) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following
frequencies:
a) HF
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) VHF
002.) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following
frequencies:
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) HF
a) 2.46 m
b) 24.60 cm
c) 24.60 m
d) 2.46 cm
a) energizing current.
b) voltage.
c) frequency.
d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
006.) In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles
required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
a) 4
b) 12
c) 24
d) 8
a) 1, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 5
008.) An inverter is a:
010.) The type of gate which requires all conditions with logic 1 for engagement is:
a) AND.
b) OR.
c) NOR.
d) NAND.
a) 3600 MHz.
b) 2500 kHz.
c) 360 MHz.
d) 2500 MHz.
012.) The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
a) 40 m.
b) 7.5 m.
c) 75 m.
d) 4 m.
013.) The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
a) 2.53 m.
b) 25.3 m.
c) 2.53 cm.
d) 25.3 cm.
015.) The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency
alternators is directly controlled by:
a) In parallel mode.
b) Dependant on the type of engine.
c) Dependant on the type of generator.
d) In series mode.
a) an inverter.
b) an alternating current motor.
c) the use of relays.
d) a series wound motor.
a) the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
b) the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
c) the tie breaker.
d) the generator control relay and the generator breaker.
021.) In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the
changeover relay allows:
022.) Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of
the AC generator it can be said that the:
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3
024.) The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 3, 4
026.) The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
a) 1 metre.
b) 100 metres.
c) 1000 metres.
d) 10 metres.
a) cathode-ray tube.
b) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
c) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
d) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
a) hectometric.
b) decimetric.
c) metric.
d) centimetric.
029.) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) centimetric.
c) decimetric.
d) metric.
030.) The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
a) centimetric.
b) decimetric.
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
a) hectometric.
b) metric.
c) centimetric.
d) decimetric.
a) decimetric.
b) myriametric.
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
a) decimetric.
b) hectometric or kilometric.
c) metric.
d) centimetric.
035.) The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator that:
a) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily
coupled with the latter.
b) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
c) is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as
the main AC generator.
d) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.
a) 1, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
a) rectification.
b) digital displays.
c) reverse current protection.
d) voltage stabilization.
039.) To reverse the direction of rotation of shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is
necessary to:
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
042.) On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their
advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The combination of
correct statement is:
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 3, 4, 6, 7
044.) A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
a) exciter breaker.
b) generator breaker.
c) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
a) The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge.
b) The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without
deterioration of its cells.
c) The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.
d) The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.
a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result
of static electricity.
b) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
c) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
d) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
a) compound wound.
b) shunt wound.
c) series wound.
d) series shunt wound.
a) volts.
b) watts.
c) ohms.
d) amperes.
a) 1,2 volts.
b) 2,2 volts.
c) 1,8 volts.
d) 1,4 volts.
a) Ohms.
b) Watts.
c) Ampere hours.
d) Amperes/volts.
a) 1,2,5.
b) 1,3,4.
c) 2,4,5.
d) 3,4,5.
a) 200 Hz.
b) 400 Hz.
c) 60 Hz.
d) 50 Hz.
062.) Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the
electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will:
064.) In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
066.) The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos)
is that the:
a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a
fixed inductor (field) coil.
b) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush
assemblies.
c) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary
inductor coil.
d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
069.) A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
a) propagation
b) attenuation
c) refraction
d) ducting
a) keyboard
b) hard disk drive
c) diskette drive
d) screen unit
a) diskette drive
b) hard disk drive
c) printer
d) keyboard
a) key board
b) screen unit
c) hard disk drive
d) printer
074.) A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve:
076.) When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved
by:
a) a rectifier.
b) an inverter.
c) a TRU.
d) a contactor.
a) rotor.
b) stator.
c) oscillator.
d) slip ring.
081.) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:
082.) If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase
relation between both generators:
a) must be synchronised.
b) must be 120° out of phase.
c) must be 240° out of phase.
d) is unimportant.
085.) A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for
disconnection are:
087.) (For this question use annex 021- 6660A) The logic symbol shown represents
(assuming positive logic):
089.) When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter:
090.) Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total
voltage and capacity respectively of:
a) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
d) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
092.) In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel,
it is necessary to ensure that:
a) 45°.
b) 90°.
c) 60°.
d) 120°.
097.) On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of
monitoring the:
100.) When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each
generator:
a) must be synchronous.
b) must be 90° out of synchronisation.
c) must be in opposition.
d) is unimportant.
101.) When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
102.) The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:
104.) When the supply frequency in a circuit with a capacitor is increased, the current in
this circuit will:
106.) On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight
from:
a) electrolyte to "boil".
b) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
c) voltage to increase due to the current available.
d) voltage to decrease under load.
109.) Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an
ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery:
a) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
c) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
114.) Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
a) a thermistor.
b) an AC generator.
c) a transformer rectifier unit.
d) an inverter.
a) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
b) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
c) equal AC voltage from all generators.
d) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the
engine.
a) (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
b) (1) and (2) are not resettable.
c) (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents.
d) (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.
120.) The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:
1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2. a control and timing unit
3. registers
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 1,2,3
a) 1,2,4,5
b) 1,2,4,6
c) 2,3,4,5,6
d) 1,3,5,6
123.) The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery:
1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1 - 2 - 3 -4
b) 1
c) 1-2
d) 1 - 2 -3
125.) The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent
resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
a) Req = R1 x R2
b) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
c) Req = R1 + R2
d) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
b) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
c) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
128.) The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit
with the following characteristics;
001.) The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of
a large jet transport airplane is within the following range:
002.) In a gas turbine engine lubrication system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger provides:
a) automatic controlled fuel heating by engine oil to prevent icing in the fuel filter.
b) fuel cooling to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.
c) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
d) oil cooling through thermal exchange with the fuel.
a) maintain the correct fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
b) reduce the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
c) increase the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
d) maintain a constant fuel flow whatever the altitude is.
a) stator - rotor
b) rotor - stator
c) stator - stator - rotor
d) rotor - rotor - stator
a) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
c) 2, 4, 5, 6.
d) 4, 5, 6, 7.
006.) The correct formula to calculate the total displacement of a multi-cylinder piston
engine is:
007.) When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine
overload is avoided by:
010.) When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a
fixed pitch propeller:
a) stays constant.
b) increases.
c) reduces.
d) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
011.) When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and
throttle levers are not moved):
a) increase.
b) remain constant.
c) first decrease and after a short time increase to its previous value.
d) decrease.
012.) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch
propeller is a:
013.) In case of engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a
single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
015.) For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:
016.) Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:
017.) As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to :
a) reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
b) increase the mixture ratio.
c) increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.
d) reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
020.) When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine
performance is affected because of:
a) an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
b) an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
c) a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
d) a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
021.) A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This
results in a
023.) For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
a) quantity of oil.
b) oil pressure.
c) oil temperature.
d) outside pressure.
025.) In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
a) V increases, Ps increases.
b) V increases, Ps decreases.
c) V decreases, Ps increases.
d) V decreases, Ps decreases.
a) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
d) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
027.) On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide:
1. electricity
2. air for starting system
3. hydraulic pressure
4. air for air conditioningThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements
is:
a) 1.
b) 1, 2, 4.
c) 2, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4.
029.) By-pass turbine engines are mainly used in commercial aviation, because:
a) 1, 5.
b) 3, 4, 5.
c) 2, 3, 4.
d) 1, 3.
a) with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.
b) when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.
c) at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.
d) when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.
036.) The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in
contact with a flame and extinguishes immediately, is the:
a) flash point
b) self ignition point
c) fire point
d) combustion point
038.) Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):
040.) The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is:
a) propeller blades.
b) accessory gear box.
c) gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
d) camshaft.
a) air density.
b) engine temperature.
c) temperature.
d) humidity.
043.) The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are:
044.) The power output of a piston engine without supercharging increases with increasing
altitude in standard atmosphere at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM
because of the:
045.) During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant Manifold Absolute Pressure
(MAP) and RPM indications and at a constant mixture setting, the power output of a
piston engine:
a) a piston compressor.
b) a hybrid compressor.
c) a radial compressor.
d) an axial compressor.
049.) With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with
a fixed pitch propeller?
a) RPM indicator.
b) Fuel Flow indicator.
c) Cylinder head temperature indicator.
d) RPM and MAP indicator.
050.) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
051.) During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant)
the:
053.) During take-off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised
for cruise condition is:
a) zero.
b) relatively high.
c) negative.
d) relatively small.
054.) The mechanism to change the propeller blade pitch of modern small piston engine
aeroplanes is operated
055.) What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed propeller" if the
manifold pressure is increased ?
a) spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
b) oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
c) aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
d) oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
061.) Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:
a) during refuelling.
b) before the first flight of the day or after a long turnaround time.
c) immediately after every refuelling.
d) before each flight.
066.) Viscosity is
068.) On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are
readjusted in order to increase the:
a) piston displacement
b) overall efficiency
c) compression ratio
d) engine RPM
a) induction
b) exhaust
c) power
d) compression
070.) Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:
a) idling
b) take-off
c) full throttle
d) cruising speed
071.) If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
a) the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position
b) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position
c) a still operating engine will run down
d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
073.) In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake
and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are:
075.) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
a) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
b) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure
c) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system
d) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
079.) Which statement is correct concerning the effect of the application of carburettor
heat?
a) The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.
b) The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.
c) The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air
mixture.
d) The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air
mixture.
080.) On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum
compression ratio of a piston engine is:
a) the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
b) the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
c) a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
d) the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs
at the plug
096.) The air in a piston engine supercharger enters the centrifugal compressor at:
a) the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.
b) a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.
c) the eye of the impeller and leaves it almost at a tangent to the periphery.
d) the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
098.) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
a) there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.
b) the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
c) its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
d) the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.
104.) At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a
similar system, the turbine temperature:
a) may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the
rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.
b) will fall.
c) will be unchanged.
d) will rise.
105.) The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil
system is to:
a) failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated
to the required rpm by the starter.
b) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the
starter.
c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d) compressor surging.
107.) A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
when:
109.) Prolonged running at low rpm can have an adverse effect on the functioning of the:
a) oil pump.
b) carburettor.
c) fuel filter.
d) sparking plugs.
a) create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.
b) create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets.
c) prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
d) ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.
111.) The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:
113.) The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are
accomplished by the:
117.) In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
119.) For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the
engine:
a) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
exceeded.
b) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
c) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
d) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.
121.) In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position
when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due
to:
122.) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor (engine N2 controlled), the effect on
the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that:
123.) The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of
an axial flow compressor, is to:
a) the pressure remains constant across stator blades and rises across the rotor blades.
b) the pressure rises across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.
c) the pressure drops across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.
d) the pressure remains constant across the stator blades and drops across the rotor blades.
125.) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground
starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification
limitations) and on the ground:
127.) The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary
motion is termed the:
a) camshaft
b) piston
c) reduction gear
d) crankshaft
a) The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low
octane rating.
b) Using an engine with a low compression ratio.
c) Slightly retarding the ignition timing.
d) High cylinder head temperature.
129.) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture
is said to be:
a) normal
b) too weak to support combustion
c) weak
d) rich
130.) To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the mass of air flowing
through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine
speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with:
a) a power jet
b) a diffuser
c) a mixture control
d) an accelerator pump
131.) The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted:
a) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump
b) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
c) between the oil tank and the pressure pump
d) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
133.) The first indication of carburettor icing in airplanes equipped with constant speed
propellers would most likely be a:
a) decrease in rpm
b) rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure
c) rough running engine followed by loss in rpm.
d) decrease in manifold pressure
134.) What will eventually happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting full
rich?
a) the engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.
b) fouling of spark plugs.
c) the engine will overheat.
d) increase of the power available.
135.) With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising
speed, one magneto fails completely. This will first cause:
a) engine to overheat.
b) excessive vibration
c) additional load on the other magneto
d) loss of approximately 100 rpm
138.) If the engine, with a fixed pitch propeller, is detonating during climb-out after takeoff,
the normal corrective action would be to:
139.) As the flight altitude increases, if no leaning is made with the mixture control:
a) the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel remains
constant
b) the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the amount of fuel
decreases
c) the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases
d) the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
140.) When starting an engine or when the engine runs at an idle rpm on ground, the
mixture is:
a) the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture
b) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
c) the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.
d) the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
144.) Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
146.) If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
a) defective condenser
b) switch wire grounded
c) excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
d) fouled spark plugs
150.) Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of:
a) ram air
b) a supercharger
c) a pneumatic system.
d) a turbocharger
a) eliminate foaming.
b) allow for expansion of hot oil
c) prevent excessive pressure from building up in tank
d) prevent overthrow
154.) A pressure relief valve that does not fit on its seat properly would result in
a) 1, 3.
b) 1, 2.
c) 2, 4.
d) 2, 3.
159.) In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
engine oil pressure. This higher pressure:
a) drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
b) drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.
c) compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
d) clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
162.) When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade angle is near 90°,
the propeller is said to be:
a) at zero drag.
b) feathered.
c) windmilling.
d) transparent.
163.) During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a
wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
164.) If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine
continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that:
168.) A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
a) increase
b) remain the same
c) increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
d) decrease
171.) (For this question use annex 021-11474A) The gas turbine illustrated is of the
following type:
a) 1-5-6
b) 1-3-5
c) 3-4-6
d) 2-4-5
a) 1-3
b) 1-2
c) 4
d) 2-3
a) 2, 3, 4.
b) 3.
c) 3, 4, 5, 6.
d) 1.
a) the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.
b) the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
c) the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.
d) power is increased too abruptly.
a) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water
in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.
b) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
thereby disturbing the exhaust.
c) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat.
d) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.
a) breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is
distributed to the spark plugs.
b) accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.
c) obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
d) creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at
the appropriate time.
178.) For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio of the mixture is:
a) 1:9
b) 1:15
c) 1:10
d) 1:12
a) 80%
b) 30%
c) 70%
d) 50%
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
Lösungen
001.) The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection
system is:
a) Powder
b) Water
c) Freon
d) CO2
a) 2, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 4
004.) When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
a) able to radiotelephone.
b) only able to transmit.
c) only able to receive.
d) not able to do any radio communication.
a) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
b) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
c) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event
of fire.
d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
006.) In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault
protection), if the line is accidentally grounded:
007.) When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested:
a) smoke.
b) overtemperature.
c) overtemperature and fire
d) fire
a) 1, 3, 4, 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 3, 4, 5, 6
012.) In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following
state:
a) gaseous
b) chemical
c) liquid.
d) chemical or gaseous.
a) fuel tanks.
b) upper cargo compartments (class E).
c) engine nacelles
d) wheel wells
a) gear warning.
b) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
c) warning bell.
d) warning light.
016.) In what state is the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes
stored:
a) Gaseous.
b) A chemical compound.
c) A gaseous or chemical compound.
d) Liquid.
017.) If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:
021.) Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
temperature produces:
a) a decrease in pressure
b) a decrease in resistance
c) a decrease in the reference current
d) an increase in resistance
a) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
b) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
c) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine
d) a single warning light and a single alarm bell
a) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the
first 3 minutes
b) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
c) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
speaking, not possible
d) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
a) Water
b) Nitrogen
c) Halon
d) Grease
025.) The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its
function is to:
a) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
b) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.
c) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
d) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during
evacuation.
026.) Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the
passenger must:
028.) The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly:
030.) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode,
operates when the:
031.) The purpose of the „Pressure Relief Valve“ in a high pressure oxygen system is to:
032.) Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is
pulled, the effects are:
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a) 2,3,4,5
b) 1,3,4,5
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,5,6
034.) Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:
a) electrical
b) magnetic
c) optical or ionization
d) chemical
035.) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be
conveniently located containing:
a) halon.
b) powder.
c) special fluids
d) water
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1,4
d) 3
038.) When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit
oxygen system regulator:
a) is 100%
b) increases when the altitude increases
c) decreases when the altitude increases
d) is constant whatever the altitude
039.) In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
a) cabin only.
b) cockpit and the cabin.
c) toilets only.
d) cockpit only.
a) 30 minutes
b) 2 hours
c) 15 minutes
d) 5 minutes
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 4, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
043.) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,
2. a heavy and bulky system,
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
044.) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
a) 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
046.) The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to:
047.) The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or
grease traces as:
a) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.
b) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
c) the oxygen system would be contaminated.
d) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
048.) The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is:
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 4
a) a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
b) a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
c) an on demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the
cabin.
d) an on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
a) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
b) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
c) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face
d) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face
051.) (For this question use annex 021-10164A) The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo
compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are associated
with the logic circuit as described in the annex. The repeating bell is activated when:
052.) When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
a) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
b) avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
c) delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency
d) allow temperatures to equalise
a) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the
oxygen mask to breathe.
b) the „O2“ lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow
rate.
c) the power lever on ON, and, the „O2“ lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the
regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
d) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
057.) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a) 100%
b) on demand
c) emergency
d) normal
a) 1-3
b) 2-4
c) 1-4
d) 2-3
a) 1 and 2 only.
b) 2 and 3 only.
c) 1 and 4 only.
d) 1 and 3 only.
001.) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the
source is known as:
a) position error.
b) instrument error.
c) barometric error.
d) hysteresis effect.
002.) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument
will:
a) under-read
b) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
c) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale
d) gradually indicate zero
003.) If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:
004.) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent
the instrument will:
a) over-read
b) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
c) under-read
d) read zero
a) CAS increases.
b) difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS
variation.
c) CAS decreases.
d) CAS remains constant.
006.) Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in:
a) TAS first increases and then remains constant above the tropopause.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS remains constant.
d) TAS decreases.
008.) A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:
a) density error.
b) setting error.
c) temperature error.
d) position pressure error
a) 1,2,4,5.
b) 2,3,5.
c) 3,4,5.
d) 1,2,3,5.
011.) The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among
these gyros,
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
a) 1C, 2B, 3A
b) 1B, 2C, 3A
c) 1B, 2A, 3C
d) 1A, 2B, 3C
012.) While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use
a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a
pendulous system:
013.) In order to align an inertial reference system (IRS), it is required to insert the local
geographical coordinates. This enables the IRS to:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 5
c) 3, 5
d) 3, 4
a) 595 kt.
b) 307 kt.
c) 686 kt.
d) 247 kt.
a) decimetric.
b) metric.
c) myriametric.
d) centimetric.
a) 2 degrees of freedom.
b) 0 degree of freedom.
c) 1 degree of freedom.
d) 3 degrees of freedom.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
026.) Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
a) HF (High Frequency).
b) VLF (Very Low Frequency).
c) UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
d) SHF (Super High Frequency).
029.) The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
031.) When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will:
a) underestimate.
b) be just as correct as before.
c) show the actual height above ground.
d) overestimate.
a) the air-data-computer.
b) the flux valve.
c) the flight director.
d) a direct reading magnetic compass.
033.) During descent, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked.
In this case:
1 - IAS becomes greater than CAS
2 - IAS becomes lower than CAS
3 - maintaining IAS constant, VMO may be exceeded
4 - maintaining IAS constant, aircraft may stall
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3.
b) 2, 4.
c) 2, 3.
d) 1, 4.
a) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
b) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
d) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
a) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
b) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
c) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
d) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
a) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
b) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
c) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
d) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
038.) The limit speed maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed as:
042.) The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio:
a) Pt/Ps
b) (Pt - Ps)/Pt
c) (Pt + Ps)/Ps
d) (Pt - Ps)/Ps
044.) During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked; if
the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:
045.) With constant weight and configuration, an aircraft always takes off at the same:
a) indicated airspeed.
b) equivalent airspeed.
c) ground speed.
d) true airspeed.
a) 1,2,4,6.
b) 1,3,4,6
c) 2,3,5.
d) 1,2,3,4,6.
a) two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local
vertical by an automatic erecting system.
b) two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c) one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical
by an automatic erecting system.
d) one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal
plane by an automatic erecting system.
048.) The characteristics of the directional gyro used in a gyro stabilised compass system
are:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is
maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
b) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location
is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
c) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained
in this direction by an erecting system.
d) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
050.) The most significant advantages of an air data computer (ADC) are:
1. Position error correction
2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Gimballing errors correction
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2,3.
b) 1,2,4.
c) 1,3.
d) 2,3,4
a) aircraft attitude.
b) time passed at this altitude.
c) static temperature.
d) mach number of the aircraft.
055.) The position error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the:
056.) When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
057.) When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
a) a temperature altitude
b) a true altitude
c) a density altitude
d) a pressure altitude
a) the altitude in the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density
of the atmosphere
b) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
c) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature
d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point
060.) The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a:
a) bimetallic strip
b) second calibrated port
c) return spring
d) correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
062.) During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial
horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a
a) constant attitude.
b) nose up attitude.
c) nose down attitude.
d) nose up followed by a nose down attitude.
064.) When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
065.) A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on:
066.) The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is:
a) latitude 45°
b) the equator
c) latitude 30°
d) the North pole
a) a banked attitude
b) an apparent weight and an apparent vertical
c) the aircraft's movement over the earth
d) the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
070.) Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-
turn indicator indicates:
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
2. the bank of the aircraft
3. the direction of the aircraft turn
4. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2.
b) 3,4.
c) 1,3.
d) 2,4.
071.) The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:
a) weather radar.
b) primary radar.
c) high altitude radio altimeter.
d) radio altimeter.
a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²)
c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
073.) In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based
upon:
a) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
reflection is measured.
b) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted
wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
c) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
circular scanning screen.
d) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
a) 1, 2.
b) 2.
c) 1, 2, 3.
d) 2, 3.
075.) A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to:
077.) The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device
originates from the:
a) error detector.
b) flux valve.
c) directional gyro erection device.
d) directional gyro unit.
078.) The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is
sent to the:
a) erector system.
b) error detector.
c) amplifier.
d) heading indicator.
a) no apparent turn.
b) an apparent turn to the east.
c) no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.
d) an apparent turn to the west.
a) no apparent turn.
b) no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.
c) an apparent turn to the south.
d) an apparent turn to the north.
087.) The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of:
a) quantity.
b) pressure.
c) a flow rate.
d) temperature.
089.) Given:
M is the Mach number
Ts is the static temperature
Tt is the total temperature
a) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)
b) Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)
c) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
d) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)
a) 200°
b) 150°
c) 180°
d) 170°
091.) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20°
North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of:
a) 160°
b) 170°
c) 190°
d) 200°
092.) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50°
North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of:
a) 015°
b) 330°
c) 030°
d) 355°
093.) A pilot wishes to turn right through 90° on to North at rate 2 at latitude of 40 North
using a direct reading compass. In order to achieve this the turn should be stopped
on an indicated heading of approximately:
a) 010°
b) 330°
c) 360°
d) 030°
095.) The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
a) higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.
b) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.
c) higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.
d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.
100.) If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause
is probably;
101.) The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
102.) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a) a directional gyro
b) an artificial horizon
c) a turn indicator
d) a fluxgate compass
103.) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is a:
NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis.
a) turn indicator
b) fluxgate compass
c) directional gyro
d) gyromagnetic compass
105.) At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring
the:
107.) On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:
108.) On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:
110.) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the
aircraft is:
111.) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on
the left, the aircraft is:
112.) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball on
the right, the aircraft is:
113.) In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by the
engine is:
115.) A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:
a) a servomechanism.
b) a feedback control circuit.
c) an amplifier.
d) an autopilot.
116.) In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a:
a) bourdon tube.
b) ratiometer circuit.
c) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
d) wheatstone bridge circuit.
117.) If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust
a) decreases.
b) remains constant
c) varies according to the characteristics of the engine
d) increases
a) the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.
b) the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
c) the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.
d) the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
120.) The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL) , heading 180°
selected. When heading is 160°, the vertical bar of the FD:
121.) The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour
marks. The blue line corresponds to the:
122.) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc)
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the:
a) 1,2,3
b) 3,2,1
c) 3,1,2
d) 2,1,3
124.) TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:
a) a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute
temperature
b) the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
c) the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
d) the ratio of the aircraft conventional airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
considered
a) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal
tail
b) backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose-
up
c) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise
d) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach
130.) An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position error and
another one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are equal, during a
straight symmetrical flight :
a) the greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimeters.
b) the greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
c) the lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
d) the error between the two altimeters does not depend on the speed.
a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing centre
line
b) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centreline
c) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears
d) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the
signal into square pulses which are then counted
b) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator is
provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer
c) an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
and is provided with a voltmeter
d) a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min.
scale
137.) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an
RPM indicator is:
a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the
signal into square pulses which are then counted
b) an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
and is provided with a voltmeter
c) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a
motor which drives a magnetic tachometer
d) a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min.
scale
139.) The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing.
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively:
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,3,4
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 1,2
d) 4
142.) The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws
taking the aircraft height into account as well as:
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,3
c) 2,4
d) 2,3
a) In one of the system modes, the warning: "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated
b) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC
c) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
transponder
d) In one of the system modes, the warning: "PULL UP" is generated
144.) The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
145.) In the event of a conflict, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance System)
presents warnings to the crew such as:
a) "Glide Slope"
b) "Too low terrain"
c) "Climb" or "Descent"
d) "Turn left" or "Turn right"
146.) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use
of:
147.) An aircraft is flying at flight level FL180 and Mach number 0.36. Its onboard
thermometer reads TAT = - 5°C. Considering that the probe recovery coefficient is
0.84, the present weather conditions compared with the standard atmosphere are:
a) Standard + 20°C
b) Standard
c) Standard + 30°C
d) Standard + 10°C
a) KAS
b) EAS
c) CAS
d) TAS
149.) One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates
tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is
the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used
a) dither
b) zero drop
c) beam lock
d) cavity rotation
a) 1, 3, 4, 5.
b) 2, 3, 5.
c) 1, 4.
d) 2, 3.
a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
b) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
c) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
d) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
153.) A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an
aircraft, must in all cases generate:
a) 2,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,2
d) 1,4
155.) An aircraft is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maximum speed. The limits in
speed will be:
a) 3, 4.
b) 1, 5.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 2, 5.
157.) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an
indication of the true:
a) 1,3,4
b) 2,3,4,5
c) 2
d) 2,5
a) 3, 5.
b) 1, 5.
c) 2, 4.
d) 3, 4.
160.) In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the
altimeter:
161.) In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass:
162.) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a
height span ranging from:
a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft
b) 30 ft to 5 000 ft
c) the ground to 1 000 ft
d) the ground to 500 ft
164.) In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check
the:
a) ND (Navigation Display).
b) PFD (Primary Flight Display)
c) throttles position.
d) TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
a) 942.13 hPa.
b) 644.41 hPa.
c) 781.85 hPa.
d) 1 013.25 hPa.
a) altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads the elevation.
b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
c) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.
d) altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads zero.
169.) Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
a) pressure.
b) temperature and the pressure.
c) density.
d) temperature.
170.) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
a) 644 kt.
b) 332 kt.
c) 661 kt.
d) 1059 kt.
171.) Given:
Pt: total pressure
Ps: static pressure
Pd: dynamic pressure
The altimeter is fed by:
a) Ps-Pt.
b) Pt-Pd.
c) Pd-Ps.
d) Pd.
172.) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
a) 2,3,4,6
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 1,3,4,5,6
d) 1,2,5,6
a) 3,4,5,6
b) 1,2,4,6,7
c) 1,2,5,6,7
d) 2,3,5,7
a) 1,2
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,4
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
179.) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:
1 - about the aircraft true airspeed
2 - about the airplane configuration
3 - about the pressure altitude through the mode C transponder
4 - from the radio altimeter
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2,3.
b) 2, 3, 4.
c) 1, 2, 4.
d) 1, 3, 4.
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
181.) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting
capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:
182.) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the
TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
183.) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following
cases:
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
a) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not
require any change to be made to that rate.
b) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
c) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
186.) On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic
advisory (TA) is represented by:
187.) On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a
resolution advisory (RA) is represented by:
190.) The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
with turbojets are:
a) thermocouples.
b) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.
c) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature.
191.) The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas
Temperature) is carried out at the:
a) 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
195.) The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:
a) 500 ft.
b) greater than 10 000 ft.
c) 10 000 ft.
d) 2 500 ft.
199.) In an inertial reference system (IRS), the alignment sequence consists in:
1 - search and alignment on the local vertical
2 - search for the true North
3 - definition of the latitude
4 - definition of the longitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 2, 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
d) 3, 4.
a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
a) the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
b) the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.
c) the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.
d) the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 2 and 5
d) 1 and 2
203.) The mode selector of an inertial unit comprises the OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV – ATT
positions:
1 - on "STBY", the unit aligns on the local geographic trihedron;
2 - the "ATT" position is used in automatic landing (mode LAND);
3 - on "NAV" the coordinates of the start position can be entered;
4 - the platform is levelled before azimuth alignment;
5 - in cruise, the unit can only be used in "NAV" mode.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 5.
b) 4.
c) 2, 5.
d) 1, 2, 4.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 4
a) 1, 2, 4.
b) 1, 4.
c) 1, 2.
d) 4.
206.) A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:
1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)
2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 5
a) 1, 4
b) 3, 5
c) 2, 5
d) 1, 2
208.) The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
b) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.
c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
d) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1
a) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1
a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
212.) The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the:
a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
b) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
d) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
213.) A flight control system which can, in the event of a failure, complete automatically the
approach, flare and landing is called fail ...
a) soft.
b) operational.
c) hard.
d) passive.
a) "OPERATIONAL"
b) "PASSIVE"
c) "SAFE"
d) "REDUNDANT"
a) "total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
b) "total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
c) "static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
d) "static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
216.) When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone of
confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
219.) The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns
aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity:
1- turboprop-powered
2- piston-powered
3- jet-powered
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1
c) 3
d) 1, 3
220.) The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as
the relationship between the:
a) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).
b) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and
control deflection signals.
c) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.
d) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.
a) 1, 3, 4, 6
b) 1, 2, 6
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
222.) The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the:
223.) Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31
march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for
a minimum of the last:
a) 10 hours.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 60 minutes.
d) 25 hours.
224.) The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of
the:
a) elevator(s)
b) elevator(s) and rudder(s)
c) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
d) rudder(s)
226.) A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and
carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:
a) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.
b) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.
c) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
d) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
a) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space.
b) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.
c) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.
d) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 2, 4
230.) The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:
a) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
b) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
c) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
232.) An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:
a) on multi-pilot airplanes.
b) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
c) on airplanes over 5.7 t.
d) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
a) 3, 4, 5, 6.
b) 1, 2.
c) 2, 4, 5.
d) 1, 2, 5.
234.) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance
are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 6.
b) 3, 4, 5.
c) 1, 2, 6.
d) 1, 3, 4, 5.
235.) When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator
2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 3.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 1, 2 and 3.
d) 3.
a) increases.
b) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.
c) remains constant.
d) decreases.
237.) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a
constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:
a) decreases.
b) remains constant.
c) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
higher.
d) increases.
238.) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS) or Mach number
2- the auto-throttles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or
Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode
4- the auto-throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2 and 4.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1 and 3.
a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
b) 1, 4, 5, 6.
c) 1, 2, 4, 5.
d) 3, 5, 6.
240.) The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane
receives information about the:
1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 5.
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d) 1 and 3.
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 2.
d) 1, 3.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 3 and 4.
d) 1, 2 and 3.
244.) The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine powerplant
is:
a) a differential capsule.
b) a bellows sensor.
c) a Bourdon tube.
d) an aneroid capsule.
245.) A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and the
"cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values
provided that the temperature of the:
a) 1.
b) 4.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4.
247.) The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can
be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
248.) When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes
into account the fuel:
a) temperature.
b) pressure.
c) turbulent flow in the line.
d) density.
a) 2, 3, 4.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2, 4.
a) 2, 3.
b) 1, 2.
c) 1, 2, 3.
d) 1, 3.
252.) The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage
supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position of:
1 - a specific slaved pitot probe ;
2 - a vane detector ;
3 - a conical slotted probe .
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
a) 1, 2.
b) 1, 3.
c) 2, 3.
d) 1, 2, 3.
253.) The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to
the pilot when the:
a) 2, 3.
b) 1, 3.
c) 1, 2.
d) 1, 2, 3.
a) 2, 3, 4.
b) 2, 4.
c) 1, 3.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4.
a) 1, 3.
b) 2.
c) 1, 2, 3.
d) 1, 2.
a) 1, 2, 5.
b) 1, 2, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2, 4, 5.
258.) The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Weight of the aircraft
7- Landing Gear (position)
The combination of correct statement is:
a) 1,2,3,5,7
b) 2, 4, 5, 6.
c) 2, 5, 6.
d) 1, 4, 7.
259.) If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and
its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting
that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the
following aural warning signals:
a) "SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
b) "TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW GEAR" (twice)
c) "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)
d) "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"
a) increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
b) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
c) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
d) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
262.) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a
constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature increases, the Mach number:
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains constant.
d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if
lower.
263.) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a
constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature decreases, the Mach
number:
a) decreases.
b) remains constant.
c) increases.
d) increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.
a) remains constant.
b) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
higher.
c) increases.
d) decreases.
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if
higher.
d) remains constant.
a) increases.
b) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
c) decreases.
d) remains constant.
a) dynamic pressure
b) total pressure
c) differential pressure
d) static pressure
a) static pressure.
b) total pressure.
c) dynamic pressure.
d) differential pressure.
271.) An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270°. The flight director is engaged in the
heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 270° selected. If a new heading 360° is
selected, the vertical trend bar:
a) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle
calculated by the flight director.
b) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected
heading.
c) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading
360°.
d) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.
272.) Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not
immediately, are signalled by the colour:
a) flashing red
b) red
c) green
d) amber
a) groundspeed.
b) angle of attack.
c) airspeed.
d) attitude.
275.) When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:
277.) For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 5°S and 5°N parallels, the
precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:
a) 15°/hour
b) approximately 0°/hour
c) -5°/hour
d) +5°/hour
279.) Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the:
a) error detector.
b) amplifier.
c) erecting system.
d) heading indicator.
281.) In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern
hemisphere is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
a) 1-4
b) 1-3
c) 2-4
d) 2–3
284.) The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:
a) 15°/hour
b) 180°/hour
c) 90°/hour
d) 5°/hour
285.) In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
synchronisation:
a) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.
b) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
c) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
d) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.
288.) A flux valve detects the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro
3- the flux gate valve signal comes from the magnetic compass
4- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5°
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
b) 1, 2, 4.
c) 1, 2.
d) 1, 4.
289.) An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°; the compass is made for
the northern hemisphere. During rolling take-off, the compass indicates:
290.) During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial
horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:
a) constant attitude
b) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
c) nose-up attitude
d) nose-down attitude
a) liquid expansion
b) gas pressure
c) bi-metallic strip
d) thermocouple
292.) Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth
rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of
45°N, this reference turns by...
a) 2 and 3.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 1 and 2.
d) 1, 2, and 3.
294.) The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a) Dynamic pressure
b) Static pressure
c) Kinetic pressure
d) Total pressure
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
296.) The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is
due to the movement of the aircraft.
This error...
a) vibration detectors
b) turbine temperature probes
c) smoke detectors
d) pressure sensors
a) a directional gyro.
b) an artificial horizon.
c) a turn indicator.
d) a gyromagnetic compass.
300.) During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles allow to:
a) 1, 2, 4.
b) 1, 2, 3.
c) 2, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4.
a) 1, 3.
b) 1.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2.
304.) On a modern transport category airplane, the engagement of the automatic pilot is
checked on the display of:
305.) The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final
approach to touch-down) actuated by:
a) the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System).
b) the altimeter set to the QNH.
c) the distance left before the touch down zone.
d) the radio altimeter.
306.) During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane
under 200 ft are based on:
a) reduce the pilots workload by presenting data in the form of control commands.
b) provide an automatic landing system function.
c) convey air traffic control information to the pilot.
d) automatically steer the aircraft to waypoints selected on the CDU.
a) 1 and 3 only.
b) 1 only.
c) 4 only.
d) 1 and 4 only.
309.) An outer loop Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS), is a system which:
a) contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and
moves the control inputs only.
b) controls the aircraft about the lateral axis only (PITCH).
c) contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and
moves both the control inputs and the cockpit control stick.
d) controls the aircraft about the longitudinal axis only (ROLL).
312.) Should a defect arise in the stability augmentation system (SAS) during flight:
313.) The most common system used to monitor turbine gas exhaust temperature is the:
315.) Gas turbine engine rotational speed (RPM) is usually sensed using either
a) TAS.
b) CAS.
c) IAS.
d) EAS.
318.) Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Dynamic pressure is:
a) (Pt - Ps) / Ps
b) Pt / Ps
c) Pt - Ps
d) (Pt - Ps) / Pt
319.) Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Pso = static pressure at sea level
Dynamic pressure is :
a) Pd = Pt + Ps
b) Pt = Pd + Ps
c) Pd = Pt / Ps
d) Ps = Pt + Pd
321.) In the absence of position and instrument errors, IAS is equal to:
322.) Given:
Pt = total pressure
Ps = static pressure
Pso = static pressure at sea level
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is a function of:
a) Pt / Ps
b) Pt - Pso
c) Pt - Ps
d) (Pt - Pso) / Ps
323.) Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting
for:
a) instrument error.
b) position error.
c) density error.
d) compressibility error.
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 2, 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2.
325.) True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for
the following errors:
1 – instrument
2 – compressibility
3 – position
4 – density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
b) 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
d) 2.
326.) True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1 – instrument
2 – position
3 – compressibility
4 – density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3, 4.
b) 1, 2.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
d) 3, 4.
a) True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.
b) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error.
c) True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.
d) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.
a) Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.
b) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.
c) Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error only.
d) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error only
a) Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density
errors.
b) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, compressibility and density errors.
c) Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors only.
d) Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and
density errors.
333.) The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:
a) Mach number.
b) OAT.
c) density altitude.
d) pressure altitude.
a) 2, 4.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 3.
d) 1, 4.
a) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.
b) Mach number remains constant.
c) Mach number increases.
d) Mach number decreases.
339.) True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) by correcting for:
a) instrument error.
b) position and instrument errors.
c) density error.
d) compressibility error.
a) 2, 3, 4.
b) 3.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 1, 3.
341.) Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting
for the following errors:
1 – position
2 – compressibility
3 – instrument
4 – density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 4.
d) 2.
a) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.
b) Mach number remains constant.
c) Mach number increases.
d) Mach number decreases.
a) TAS increases.
b) TAS decreases.
c) TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.
d) TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.
a) TAS increases.
b) TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.
c) TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.
d) TAS decreases.
346.) Below the tropopause, with no temperature inversion, when descending at constant
Mach number:
a) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
TAS variation.
b) TAS decreases.
c) TAS increases.
d) TAS remains constant.
a) CAS increases.
b) CAS decreases.
c) CAS remains constant.
d) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
CAS variation.
a) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
TAS variation.
b) TAS remains constant.
c) TAS decreases.
d) TAS increases.
350.) Given:
Zp = pressure altitude
Zd = density altitude
TAS can be obtained from the following data:
a) CAS.
b) CAS and TAS.
c) IAS
d) TAS.
a) TAS.
b) IAS.
c) CAS and TAS.
d) CAS.
a) 1, 3.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 4.
d) 2, 4.
a) 1, 3.
b) 2, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 2, 3.
355.) For the same TAS, when pressure altitude increases below the tropopause:
356.) For the same TAS, when pressure altitude decreases below the tropopause:
a) the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the
Mach number variation.
b) Mach number remains constant.
c) Mach number increases.
d) Mach number decreases.
a) EAS decreases.
b) EAS does not depend on altitude.
c) EAS increases.
d) EAS remains constant.
360.) Given:
Zp = pressure altitude
Zd = density altitude
CAS can be obtained from the following data:
361.) If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass
into warmer air:
a) TAS decreases.
b) Mach number decreases.
c) TAS increases.
d) Mach number increases.
a) TAS decreases.
b) Mach number remains constant.
c) Mach number decreases.
d) TAS remains constant.
363.) If OAT decreases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:
a) TAS increases.
b) TAS remains constant.
c) Mach number increases.
d) Mach number remains constant.
364.) If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air
mass into colder air:
365.) In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to:
a) CAS = EAS.
b) IAS = CAS.
c) CAS = TAS.
d) IAS = EAS.
a) 2, 3.
b) 1, 3.
c) 1, 2, 3.
d) 3.
a) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the control commands.
b) repeats the position information given by the VOR.
c) gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of
the aircraft.
d) repeats the position information given by the EHSI.
a) 2, 3.
b) 3.
c) 1, 3.
d) 1.
a) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.
b) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the control commands.
c) gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of
the aircraft.
d) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.
a) 3.
b) 2, 3.
c) 2.
d) 1, 3.
a) gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of
the aircraft.
b) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied
on the pitch of the aircraft.
c) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.
d) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.
a) 1, 4.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 1, 2, 4.
378.) During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode
(holding of ILS Glide Slope), the position of the horizontal command bar indicates:
a) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide Slope.
b) the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope.
c) the pitch attitude of the aircraft.
d) the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope.
a) 1, 3.
b) 1, 2.
c) 1.
d) 2.
380.) During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of Localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:
381.) During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode
(holding of localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:
1 - the position of the aircraft relative to the localizer axis
2 - the roll attitude of the aircraft
3 - the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2.
b) 1.
c) 2.
d) 1, 3.
382.) Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is left of the Localizer axis, the
vertical command bar:
a) cannot be centred.
b) will be centred only when establish on the Localizer axis.
c) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis.
d) is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.
384.) Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is below the ILS Glide Slope, the
horizontal command bar:
385.) Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the
G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above the ILS Glide Slope, the
horizontal command bar:
a) cannot be centred.
b) will be centred only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope.
c) may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide Slope.
d) is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
022 INSTR
Lösungen
a) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.
b) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
c) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
zero.
d) which is always used as datum when computing moments.
002.) For a given configuration, the stall speed of an aeroplane will be highest when loaded:
003.) Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a
004.) The maximum load per running metre of an aircraft is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor
area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre.
Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on
the floor?
a) 53 000 kg
b) 48 000 kg
c) 47 800 kg
d) 48 400 kg
a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
007.) If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aircraft?
011.) On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to:
a) 74 000 kg
b) 72 000 kg
c) 69 600 kg
d) 70 400 kg
014.) The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
a) vertical axis.
b) horizontal axis.
c) longitudinal axis.
d) lateral axis.
015.) In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
018.) Given:
Total mass 2900 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115
Aft cg limit station: 116
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is:
a) 317 kg.
b) 207 kg.
c) 140 kg.
d) 14 kg.
019.) Given:
a) 65.8 kg.
b) 68.9 kg.
c) 62.5 kg.
d) 73.5 kg.
a) 35.5 %.
b) 27.5 %.
c) 30.4 %.
d) 16.9 %.
021.) Given:
Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg
Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg
Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg
Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg
Trip fuel= 4 000 kg
Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg
The maximum traffic load is:
a) 14 600 kg
b) 13 300 kg
c) 9 300 kg
d) 12 900 kg
022.) The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m
from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.
What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the
datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
a) 30.0 kg
b) 196 kg
c) 300 kg
d) 900 kg
a) Station 118.25
b) Station 118.33
c) Station 117.69
d) Station 120.22
024.) An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground
with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The
distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter.
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
a) 4 meter.
b) 40 cm.
c) 25 cm.
d) 41.6 cm.
025.) Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel,
the traffic load is normally limited by:
026.) Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
028.) Given:
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
a) 120 900 kg
b) 120 300 kg
c) 113 900 kg
d) 121 300 kg
029.) Given:
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg)
from station 16 to station 23?
030.) The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean
aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg
expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
a) 10 %
b) 16 %
c) 60 %
d) 41 %
a) 99 000 kg
b) 64 000 kg
c) 71 000 kg
d) 53 000 kg
032.) A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from
the datum is known as:
a) Station.
b) MAC.
c) Moment.
d) Index.
033.) The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from
the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
a) 34 cm.
b) 30 cm.
c) 40 cm.
d) 33 cm.
a) the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane
unsafe to fly.
b) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.
c) is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment.
d) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.
039.) Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg).
__________________________________________________________________
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)
___________________________________________________________________
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 -48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960
a) 27 cm aft of datum.
b) 25 cm aft of datum.
c) 22 cm aft of datum.
d) 24 cm aft of datum.
041.) Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity
position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and
22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to
move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:
a) 8 680 kg
b) 29 344 kg
c) 16 529 kg
d) 43 120 kg
a) 7 500 kg
b) 3 500 kg
c) 35 000 kg
d) 62 500 kg
a) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
b) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
c) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
d) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
044.) Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause
045.) While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aircraft, the term 'Basic
Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus
a) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
b) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
c) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
d) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
049.) Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following
data:
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m
Length of MAC: 8 m
a) 63.4 % MAC
b) 36.3 % MAC
c) 23.1 % MAC
d) 47.0 % MAC
a) 506.3
b) 436.7
c) 433.3
d) 463.7
a) 4 120
b) 4 372
c) 4 390
d) 4 720
052.) (For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel
moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a) 30 888
b) 56 160
c) 9 360
d) 433 906
a) 433 906
b) 432 221
c) 377 746
d) 401 338
054.) (For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location
at take off in the following conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger: 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a) 2496,3
b) 6675
c) 2548,8
d) 2311,8
056.) Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.
Given :
Basic Empty Mass: 1799 lbs
Optional Equipment: 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger: 300 lbs
Cargo Mass: 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel: 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel: 35 Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
a) 2449 lbs
b) 2659 lbs
c) 2589 lbs
d) 2414 lbs
057.) Given:
Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment 35 lbs
Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs
Cargo 350 lbs
Ramp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal
Trip Fuel 35 Gal
Taxi Fuel 1.7 Gal
Final Reserve Fuel 18 Gal
Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal
Determine the expected landing mass.
a) 2557 lbs
b) 2589 lbs
c) 2472 lbs
d) 2599 lbs
a) 2764 lbs
b) 2809 lbs
c) 2659 lbs
d) 2799 lbs
059.) The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
060.) With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following
statements is always correct ?
LM = Landing Mass
TOM = Take-off Mass
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass
a) The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the
wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the
fuselage and the wing tip
b) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal
stability increases.
c) The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference
point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC
d) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy
aeroplane
a) If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the
aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
b) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is
possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator
forces
c) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the
middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity
d) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy
aeroplane
066.) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load
is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
067.) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating
Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus
069.) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry
Operating Mass is defined as:
a) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and
crew baggage.
b) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable
fuel and traffic load.
c) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable
fuel.
d) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic
load.
070.) In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made
to a datum. The datum is
071.) The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its
precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located
a) the datum.
b) the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
c) the focal point.
d) the axis.
073.) The centre of gravity of an aircraft is that point through which the total mass of the
aircraft is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
074.) When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
075.) The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
a) found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for
modifications.
b) inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered
in the loading manifest.
c) printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.
d) found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in
closed systems.
a) 32505 kg
b) 30180 kg
c) 28400 kg
d) 31960 kg
079.) If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to
initial entry into service and thereafter
a) the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.
b) the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of
the aircraft.
c) the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.
d) the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aircraft must be re-
weighed always.
a) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
b) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.
c) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
d) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
082.) An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not
entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and
calculated take-off safety speeds
083.) Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load
and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will
notice that
084.) (For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
086.) (For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
087.) When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the
following is not required?
088.) An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the
Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational
items' ?
090.) (For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
091.) (For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions,
as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
092.) (For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold
centroid is:
a) 421.5 inches.
b) 257 inches.
c) 314.5 inches.
d) 367.9 inches.
094.) (For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running
load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:
095.) (For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load
intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:
096.) The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aircraft is given as 750 kg
per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the
pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum
size pallet that can be used ?
a) 30 cm by 200 cm
b) 40 cm by 300 cm
c) 30 cm by 300 cm
d) 40 cm by 200 cm
a) 41.6 kg
b) 101.6 kg
c) 1015.6 kg
d) 416.0 kg
098.) The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as
a) the force.
b) the moment arm or balance arm.
c) the index.
d) the moment.
099.) (For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass
of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200
cm.
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may
be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to
match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo
compartment.
100.) During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much
more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
a) usable fuel.
b) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
c) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
d) usable fuel and traffic load.
102.) The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and
removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but
excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as:
103.) The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew
members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with
a) the commander.
b) the person compiling the weighing schedule.
c) the operator.
d) the authority of the state of registration.
104.) If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
107.) The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200
kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the
Dry Operating Mass is
a) 41455 kg
b) 56200 kg
c) 42545 kg
d) 42000 kg
108.) When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be:
109.) An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result
in:
110.) An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet
masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
112.) (For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading
intensity for the aft cargo compartment is:
113.) (For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a
maximum total load of:
a) 9232 kg
b) 4187 kg
c) 1568 kg
d) 3062 kg
114.) (For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be
carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid
at:
a) 50000 Nm
b) 80000 Nm
c) 130000 Nm
d) 30000 Nm
116.) The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may
be loaded prior to engine start. It is:
117.) The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is:
a) governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive
'wing bending'.
b) listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.
c) tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.
d) governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of
the aeroplane.
120.) The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass
a) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
b) differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
c) are the same value.
d) differ by the mass of usable fuel.
121.) Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from
a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of
a) 4530 kg.
b) 6350 kg.
c) 3185 kg.
d) 5400 kg
123.) The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including
crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given
as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
a) 23000 kg
b) 20700 kg
c) 19460 kg.
d) 18400 kg
124.) (For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -
Dry Operational mass 60520 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg
Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg
Fuel on board at take-off -
Trip fuel 12500 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg
Alternate fuel 1700 kg
Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried.
a) 15730 kg
b) 7730 kg
c) 11730 kg
d) 7010 kg
a) 7100 kg
b) 4800 kg
c) 12700 kg
d) 6300 kg
126.) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the
aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus
127.) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg
including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800
kg. The zero fuel mass is:
a) 93000 kg
b) 78000 kg
c) 79000 kg
d) 65200 kg.
128.) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a
child as
a) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
not occupying a seat.
b) 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
c) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
occupying a seat.
d) 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
a) limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
b) a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.
c) a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
d) a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2
.
130.) For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board,
other than unusable quantities, is:
131.) An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a
high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally
long runway.
Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take
- off mass ?
132.) On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard
mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday
charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
a) 84 kg
b) 76 kg
c) 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
d) 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
a) 11 kg per passenger.
b) 15 kg per passenger.
c) 13 kg per passenger.
d) 14 kg per passenger.
a) 12700 kg
b) 10730 kg
c) 13230 kg
d) 15200 kg
a) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage
allowance.
b) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include
an allowance for hand baggage.
c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an
allowance for hand baggage.
d) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage
allowance.
137.) Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel
of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78.
Using the following data -
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg
The maximum permissible traffic load is
a) 12840 kg
b) 13090 kg.
c) 18040 kg
d) 16470 kg
a) 13 655 kg
b) 15 815 kg
c) 14 470 kg
d) 16 080 kg
139.) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on
board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The
Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
a) 121450 kg
b) 19650 kg
c) 39105 kg
d) 141100 kg
140.) When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the
following is true?
142.) In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the commencement of the cruise
a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the
mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
a) increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease.
b) increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.
c) unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
d) increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will
remain the same.
143.) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as
3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel
which may be loaded is
a) 14383 kg.
b) 11364 kg.
c) 13647 kg.
d) 18206 kg.
146.) Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions
on an aeroplane?
a) 16 370 kg
b) 16 430 kg
c) 16 570 kg
d) 17 070 kg
a) 16 770 kg
b) 9 830 kg
c) 13 240 kg
d) 14 331 kg
150.) An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating
Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg
the useful load is
a) 10080 kg.
b) 29280 kg.
c) 12200 kg.
d) 17080 kg
a) 11646 litres
b) 8850 litres
c) 5674 litres
d) 11349 litres
152.) An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The
nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as
72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane?
a) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.
b) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane
is 11980 kg.
c) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane
is 14780 kg.
d) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.
153.) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass
is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight
is
a) 21220 kg
b) 21080 kg
c) 20870 kg
d) 21500 kg
a) 68400 kg
b) 29600 kg
c) 70700 kg
d) 26900 kg.
155.) The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off:
Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg
From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
a) 18200 kg
b) 78150 kg
c) 17450 kg
d) 78900 kg
156.) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited
landing mass is 55 470 kg.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 17 840 kg
b) 13 950 kg
c) 25 800 kg
d) 18 170 kg
a) 17 810 kg
b) 21 170 kg
c) 20 420 kg
d) 21 070 kg
158.) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 19 100 kg
b) 17 840 kg
c) 19 200 kg
d) 19 500 kg
a) the flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.
b) the flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.
c) the flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.
d) the flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.
a) is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in
overrunning the runway
b) is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result
c) must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.
d) is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal
scheduled landing.
161.) At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is
not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one
engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result
of this action will be
a) a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high
aeroplane mass.
b) a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
c) a landing further along the runway than normal.
d) a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
a) 54 000 kg
b) 61 500 kg
c) 55 000 kg
d) 55 500 kg
163.) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:
- Block fuel: 40 000 kg
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
a) 32 900 kg
b) 18 900 kg
c) 32 100 kg
d) 40 400 kg
164.) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:
- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg
The traffic load available for this flight is:
a) 25 800 kg
b) 25 000 kg
c) 55 800 kg
d) 55 000 kg
a) 29 %
b) 22 %
c) 34 %
d) 17 %
167.) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length
of:
a) the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without
correction
b) the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the
load calculation
c) the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger
d) the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard mass
a) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level
b) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the
leading edge and trailing edge of the wing
c) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and
the tail of the aircraft
d) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the
nose and the tail of the aircraft
a) 1 000 kg
b) 1 450 kg
c) 950 kg
d) 1 500 kg
a) 4 200 kg
b) 4 100 kg
c) 4 300 kg
d) 4 700 kg
172.) The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items
are:
- catering: 300 kg
- safety and rescue material: nil
- fly away kit: nil
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg
- unusable fuel: 120 kg
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg
The Dry Operating Mass is:
a) 30 300 kg
b) 30 665 kg
c) 38 300 kg
d) 30 785 kg
a) 800 kg
b) 80 kg
c) 320 kg
d) 32 kg
a) 4 point of support
b) 2 points of support
c) 3 points of support
d) 1 point of support
175.) During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23
requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual
specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to
+3.8.
Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the
manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary
margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe;
177.) By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a
specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
a) 500 kg
b) 1 000 kg
c) 5 000 kg
d) 100 kg
a) 2 200 kg
b) 2 150 kg
c) 1 600 kg
d) 1 550 kg
180.) To calculate a allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
a) the sum of the maximum zero fuel mass and the trip fuel.
b) the sum of the maximum landing mass and the trip fuel.
c) the maximum take-off mass minus the trip fuel.
d) the sum of the maximum landing mass and the fuel on board at take-off.
a) 104 kg
b) 165 kg
c) 110 kg
d) 183 kg
184.) (For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the
correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at
14% MAC ?
a) 35.5
b) 40.0
c) 33..0
d) 41.5
a) 20.3 %
b) 20.1 %
c) 22.6 %
d) 17.5 %
a) 52900kg and 19 %
b) 49130 kg and 19 %
c) 49130 kg and 21.8 %
d) 52900 kg and 21.6 %
a) 14 %
b) 18 %
c) 19 %
d) 15 %
a) 260 kg
b) no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1
c) 280 kg
d) 210 kg
a) 7000 kg
b) 8268 kg
c) 655 kg
d) 1830 kg
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031-9596 A, 9598 A, 9603 A, 9604 A
031-9605 A, 9608 A, 9609 A, 9613 A, 9629 A, 9630 A, 9631 A
031-9660 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
MASS & BALANCE MRJT1
2.2 Landing Gear Retraction/extension negligible effect from operation of landing gear
The centre of gravity for this aeroplane must at all times be within the limits
prescribed by the CG envelope shown in fig. 4.11 on page 9.
4. FUEL
4.1
Caution - If centre tank contains more than 450 Kg the wing tanks must be füll.
4.2
031-9640 a.gif
C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
031 M&B
Lösungen
001.) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be
constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is
95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the
second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
a) 3426 kg/h
b) 3602 kg/h
c) 3259 kg/h
d) 3787 kg/h
a) -1267 ft / min.
b) +3293 ft / min.
c) +1267 ft / min.
d) 0 ft / min.
003.) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all
obstacles is:
a) 1547 m.
b) 1978 m.
c) 1720 m.
d) 1779 m.
a) 1771 m.
b) 1339 m.
c) 1147 m.
d) 1540 m.
006.) At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the
engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is
approximately increased by:
a) 2.5%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 7.5%
007.) Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?
a) If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
b) V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
c) V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
d) If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
009.) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is increased?
010.) Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine
g = 10 m/s²
Drag = 72 569 N
Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
a) 209 064 kg
b) 74 064 kg
c) 101 596 kg
d) 286 781 kg
a) 1, 4, 6, 9
b) 1, 5, 8, 10
c) 1, 4, 5, 10
d) 2, 3, 6, 9
012.) Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by:
013.) The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
based upon:
014.) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains
unchanged?
a) V1 is lower VMCG
b) V1 is higher VR
c) V1 is higher VLOF
d) V1 is lower or equal to VR
017.) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?
018.) The following parameters affect the take off ground run:
1 decreasing take off mass
2 increasing take off mass
3 increasing density
4 decreasing density
5 increasing flap setting
6 decreasing flap setting
7 increasing pressure altitude
8 decreasing pressure altitude
Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
a) 2, 4, 5 and 7
b) 2, 3, 6 and 7
c) 1, 3, 5 and 8
d) 1, 4, 6 and 8
a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
b) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
d) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
a) VMU
b) VLOF
c) VMCG
d) VR
025.) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
V2
VREF
VR
VMCA
026.) During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-
off distances measured are:
3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1
2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
a) 2938 m
b) 2555 m
c) 3513 m
d) 3050 m
027.) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order
to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
029.) In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
030.) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure
altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a) not be affected.
b) increase in the flaps extended case.
c) decrease.
d) increase.
032.) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor
considered independently)?
034.) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
036.) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of
climb?
037.) How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude
for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
a) Both increase.
b) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d) Both decrease.
a) 0.125D
b) 90m + 0.125D
c) 90m + D/0.125
d) 90m + 1.125D
039.) What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
040.) The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
042.) Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in
terms of TAS?
a) TAS is constant.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS decreases.
d) TAS is not related to Mach Number.
045.) Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors
remaining constant,
046.) How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane
flying with the speed for maximum range?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
a) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower
cruise speed.
b) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
c) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
d) a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher
cruise speed.
049.) A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over
high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should
choose:
a) 1 250 m.
b) 1 090 m.
c) 1 655 m.
d) 1 440 m.
a) 1800 m.
b) 2 070 m.
c) 2609 m.
d) 1565 m.
052.) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet
engines is:
053.) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to
be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300
kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
a) 3578 kg/h.
b) 3365 kg/h.
c) 4044 kg/h.
d) 3804 kg/h.
054.) A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg
per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption
of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with
modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and
per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
a) 8.17 kg/NM.
b) 14 kg/NM.
c) 10.7 kg/NM.
d) 11.7 kg/NM.
a) 69 700 kg / 25 deg
b) 72 200 kg / 5 deg
c) 69 000 kg / 15 deg
d) 67 700 kg / 15 deg
057.) Given:
VS= Stalling speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
059.) During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off
runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:
- 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining
unchanged.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct
distance?
a) 1950 m.
b) 2096 m.
c) 2243 m.
d) 2009 m.
060.) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of
that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off
distance available cannot be greater than:
a) 4000 metres.
b) 6000 metres.
c) 4500 metres.
d) 5000 metres.
a) smaller.
b) larger.
c) depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.
d) equal.
063.) Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?
The speeds for:
064.) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly
because the:
a) TAS decreases.
b) IAS increases.
c) glide angle increases.
d) aircraft mass decreases.
a) Figure a
b) Figure b
c) Figure d
d) Figure c
067.) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot
increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) remains the same.
d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.
a) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
c) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
d) The speed for minimum drag.
069.) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger,
in level flight, is reached:
070.) During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
a) 10 kt.
b) 15 kt.
c) No wind.
d) 5 kt.
072.) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the
climb angle / the pitch angle change?
073.) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
change?
a) Increase / decrease.
b) Decrease / increase.
c) Decrease / decrease.
d) Increase / increase.
074.) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
a) decrease.
b) remain constant.
c) increase at first and decrease later on.
d) increase.
a) decrease / increase.
b) increase / decrease.
c) increase / increase.
d) decrease / decrease.
076.) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and
from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.
How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the
descent?
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
078.) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descentin
a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
a) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
c) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the
heavier aeroplane.
d) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.
080.) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum
range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
b) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
d) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
081.) For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding
to:
a) 1.2 Vs
b) 1.1 Vs
c) the maximum CL/CD² ratio
d) the maximum CL/CD ratio
a) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
b) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum
altitude increases continuously during flight.
c) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the
most economic result.
d) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as
the most attractive altitude.
084.) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?
(No compressibility effects.)
a) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
d) The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.
085.) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take
off,constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)
086.) Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to
high speeds)
088.) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of
'maximum range speed' ?
089.) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
091.) Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
b) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
c) 1.2Vs.
d) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
a) Tailwind.
b) Increase of aircraft mass.
c) Headwind.
d) Decrease of aircraft mass.
093.) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a) Low mass.
b) Headwind.
c) High mass.
d) Tailwind.
094.) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
095.) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane
in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a
reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating
to a halt within the (iii) .........
096.) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following
is correct ?
a) VLOF, VMCA.
b) VSR, VMCA
c) VMCG, V2
d) V1, VR.
098.) Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly
used to determine this limitation?
a) ESS.
b) Groundspeed.
c) IAS.
d) TAS.
a) it is dark.
b) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
c) the runway is wet.
d) the runway is contaminated.
a) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out
at V1.
b) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.
c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance
limited TOM.
d) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.
103.) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a) increases / increases.
b) remains constant / remains constant.
c) decreases / decreases.
d) decreases / remains constant.
a) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature.
b) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and
short runway.
c) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature.
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature.
107.) The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:
108.) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
109.) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
111.) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre
speed limited take-off?
112.) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than
that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately
above the correct value of V1?
a) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
b) It may lead to over-rotation.
c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
d) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
115.) Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for
performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
a) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the
required landing field length.
b) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the
available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
d) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
a) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
b) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
c) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:
field length limited take-off mass
climb limited take-off mass
obstacle limited take-off mass.
d) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
120.) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet
Onset Boundary" graph?
a) Economy.
b) Aerodynamics.
c) Theoretical ceiling.
d) Service ceiling.
121.) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses
and altitudes.
b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power
settings.
c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
d) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various
masses and altitudes.
a) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
124.) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most
likely to be reached?
125.) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be
exceeded?
a) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
b) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off
mass.
d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be
climb limited.
128.) Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
b) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
c) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
d) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
130.) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
a) the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".
b) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.
c) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
d) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet
point.
a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation,
only a few values are verified by flight tests.
b) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
c) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available.
d) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
132.) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine
failure.
b) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the
available runway length.
c) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off
flight paths.
136.) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
a) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.
b) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited
take-off mass.
c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.
d) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited
take-off mass.
137.) When the outside air temperature increases beyond the flat rated temperature of the
engines, the:
a) field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.
b) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
c) field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
d) field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
138.) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
140.) With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is
correct?
(no compressibility effects)
a) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
b) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
d) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
142.) The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet
aeroplane, determines the speed for:
a) minimum power.
b) critical angle of attack.
c) maximum specific range.
d) maximum endurance.
a) that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.
b) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag
versus TAS curve.
c) that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS
curve.
d) that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power
required versus TAS curve.
144.) Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of
climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)?
a) Long range.
b) Maximum endurance.
c) Maximum range.
d) Holding.
145.) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of
the following statements is correct?
146.) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the
speed corresponding to:
148.) For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
149.) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high
terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed
must be the airspeed
150.) A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all
engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is:
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
a) 12.86%.
b) 1.286%.
c) 27%.
d) 7.86%.
153.) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?
154.) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
157.) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100
ft/min is called:
a) Service ceiling
b) Absolute ceiling
c) Maximum transfer ceiling
d) Thrust ceiling
158.) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a) 125 ft/min
b) 100 ft/min
c) 0 ft/min
d) 500 ft/min
159.) How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow
conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust
160.) A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on
both engines.
The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which
parameter(s) must be maintainable?
a) Straight flight
b) Straight flight and altitude
c) Altitude
d) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
a) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
b) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
c) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.
d) the take-off safety speed.
162.) Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or
clearway ?
a) VMCG
b) VMCA
c) V1
d) V2
163.) What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other
parameters remain constant ?
a) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
b) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
c) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.
164.) The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a) no change
b) a steeper approach path
c) an increase in VREF
d) an increase in approach speed
a) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition
with one engine inoperative.
b) 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.
d) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
167.) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no
suitable airport is within an area of
168.) (For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the
curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start
at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
a) All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.
b) Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
because of the inertia involved.
c) Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still
some thrust left during four minutes.
d) Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed
for drift down at the original cruising level.
169.) (For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)
With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off
performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft?
a) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
b) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
c) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are
temperature limited.
d) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
a) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
b) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
c) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.
d) There is a built-in safety measure.
a) 30%
b) 20%
c) 15%
d) 10%
176.) Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller
powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
b) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
c) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
d) only by using standard turns.
a) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
b) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane
during an aborted take-off.
c) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end
of the permanent runway surface.
d) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
179.) According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than
a) 1.2 VMCA
b) 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes
c) VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height
d) 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height
181.) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
183.) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?
a) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.
b) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
c) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.
d) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
184.) According to JAR-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a
destination airport is:
186.) The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with JAR 25, the following
margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 10%
d) 23%
187.) If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
188.) (For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by
"equivalent gross weight at engine failure" ?
a) 3100 m.
b) 2600 m.
c) 2900 m.
d) 2700 m.
190.) (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop
distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power
is set?
a) a
b) d
c) b
d) c
192.) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
194.) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a) the thrust
b) the drag
c) the lift
d) the resultant from lift and drag
195.) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?
196.) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a) VMO
b) VS1
c) VA
d) the lowest achievable speed at a given configuration
199.) The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
201.) The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum
a) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag
speed in the descent.
b) is the same as the minimum drag speed.
c) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
d) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
202.) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
205.) An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass
and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag
206.) On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass,
angle of attack and configuration the power required
207.) Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and
airspeed remain unchanged)
a) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
b) decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the
windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
c) increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the
windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.
d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
210.) The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
211.) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
212.) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
214.) At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
216.) The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of
the aeroplane
217.) In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
a) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
b) the speed for best economy.
c) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
d) specific range with tailwind.
226.) To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of
35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
b) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
c) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
d) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is
reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
228.) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off
distance available ?
a) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
b) No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.
c) No.
d) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
229.) May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Yes.
b) Only for take-off.
c) Only for landing.
d) No.
a) a higher V1.
b) an increased acceleration.
c) a longer take-off run.
d) a shorter ground roll.
235.) How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations
Manuals ?
a) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
b) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
c) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
d) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
239.) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) unaffected.
b) higher.
c) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
d) lower.
a) by headwind.
b) by uphill slope.
c) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.
d) by low outside air temperature.
a) a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
b) a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.
c) the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
d) it is equal to V2.
a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
b) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
d) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
a) 1.1 VMCA.
b) 1.15 VMCG.
c) 1.1 VSO.
d) 1.15 VR.
245.) V1 has to be
247.) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would
248.) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
252.) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover
altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
b) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is
grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.
c) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at
ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)
d) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant
Mach-climb.
253.) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover
altitude will be
a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
c) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
d) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
a) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
b) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
257.) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the
optimum altitude ?
258.) After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is
the procedure which should be followed?
261.) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?
a) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
b) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
262.) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag
ratio speed?
a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
b) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
d) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
264.) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet
condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 43%
b) 67%
c) 92%
d) 70%
a) 67%
b) 43%
c) 92%
d) 70%
266.) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of
the fuel consumption. The result is:
267.) With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is
(assume altitude remains constant)
a) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path
direction.
b) lift is greater than the gross weight.
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
d) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path
direction.
271.) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) is independent of altitude.
b) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
c) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
d) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air
density.
276.) Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb
whereas
278.) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition,
(assuming IAS is constant)
285.) VX is
a) VX.
b) VO.
c) VY.
d) V2.
287.) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a) VSO.
b) VS.
c) VMC.
d) VS1.
290.) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
292.) (For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 27 °C
Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
294.) (For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft
Given:
O.A.T: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
295.) (For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing
distance from a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 0°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
297.) (For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .
Given:
O.A.T: 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
299.) (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.
Given:
O.A.T: -7°C
Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately: 1150 ft
b) approximately: 2450 ft
c) approximately: 2050 ft
d) approximately: 1260 ft
300.) (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.
Given:
O.A.T: ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) 73 and 84 KIAS
b) 71 and 82 KIAS
c) 68 and 78 KIAS
d) 65 and 75 KIAS
a) approximately: 5040 ft
b) approximately: 3680 ft
c) approximately: 4200 ft
d) approximately: 3960 ft
302.) (For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine
the rate of climb.
Given :
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C
Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS
a) 1370 ft/min
b) 1290 ft/min
c) 1150 ft/min
d) 1210 ft/min
303.) (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.
Given:
O.A.T: 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)
a) 1900 ft
b) 2375 ft
c) 1600 ft
d) 2000 ft
a) 21 505 ft
b) 18 347 ft
c) 24 637 ft
d) 18 832 ft
305.) (For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero in the following
conditions:
Given:
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind
a) 18 909 ft
b) 18 073 ft
c) 16 665 ft
d) 20 109 ft
306.) (For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate
of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:
Given:
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
308.) (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise
TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions:
Given:
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300
309.) (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3
Table 2.3.1)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise
TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions:
Given:
OAT: 3°C
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a) 865 NM
b) 851 NM
c) 911 NM
d) 739 NM
311.) (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the
range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:
Given:
O.A.T.: ISA -15°C
Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
a) 860 NM
b) 875 NM
c) 902 NM
d) 908 NM
312.) (For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing
distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions:
Given:
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5°C
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down
a) 1550 ft
b) 1400 ft
c) 880 ft
d) 1020 ft
a) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry
runway
b) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
c) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
d) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be
used
316.) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is
correct?
317.) Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for
two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
a) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
b) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds
of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
c) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
d) No difference.
a) 115/100
b) 1.67
c) 0.60
d) 60/115
319.) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?
320.) In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
a) V2.
b) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
c) V2 + 10 kt.
d) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.
a) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
specific range.
b) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally
does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
c) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive
from an economy point of view.
d) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet
can occur.
323.) Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the
beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
a) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration
height.
b) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all
engines operating.
c) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
d) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be
applied.
324.) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a
balanced take-off? Down-slope...
325.) If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field
Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow
327.) Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the
beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
b) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case
during the calculation of the net flight path.
c) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
d) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
328.) According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the
landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
a) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full
stop.
b) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
c) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the
landing distance required.
d) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the
available landing runway length should be taken into account.
a) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is
not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines
operating.
b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
c) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken
into account.
d) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.
a) 1.2 VSR
b) 1.13 VSR
c) VSR
d) 1.08 VSR
331.) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered
aeroplanes may not be less than:
a) 1.2 Vs
b) 1.15 Vs1
c) 1.15 Vs
d) 1.3 Vs
332.) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of
climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of
110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the
sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the
aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
a) 102150 kg
b) 121310 kg
c) 106425 kg
d) 118455 kg
a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3g buffet onset
requirements.
b) A step climb provides better economy than a optimum cruise.
c) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the
optimum altitude.
d) A step climb can only be performed when the altitude exceeds the one engine out service
ceiling.
335.) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations
with flap 10° selected:
- runway limit: 5 270 kg
- obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
336.) A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no
wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
a) 3,30 m/s
b) 3 300 ft/min
c) 33,0 m/s
d) 330 ft/min
337.) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on
a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.
It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at
10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a) 100 m
b) It will not clear the obstacle
c) 115 m
d) 85 m
a) increased
b) unchanged
c) reduced
d) substantially decreased
339.) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind,
at 0 ft pressure altitude.
Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH
1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
a) 3,9 %
b) 4,3 %
c) 4,7 %
d) 4,9 %
340.) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.
If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a) 810 m
b) 970 m
c) 870 m
d) 890 m
342.) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
343.) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
344.) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
a) 715 m
b) 685 m
c) 555 m
d) 755 m
346.) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.
If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
347.) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a) Unchanged
b) Improved
c) Degraded
d) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
348.) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless
authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
a) decreased
b) increased
c) very significantly decreased
d) unchanged
a) 90 m
b) it will not clear the obstacle
c) 75 m
d) 105 m
350.) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based
on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
a) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower
than 4000 m.
b) higher than 4 000 m.
c) less than 4 000 m.
d) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
351.) The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65
and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
352.) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient
is about:
a) 8%
b) 3°
c) 5°
d) 3%
a) inferior to 95 kts
b) equal to 95 kt
c) is between 95 and 125 kt
d) equal to 125 kt
354.) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
a) 20 %
b) 15 %
c) 5%
d) 10 %
355.) At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kt
in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final
is:
a) 125 kt
b) 120 kt
c) 115 kt
d) 123 kt
356.) (For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in
annex.
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway
Actual conditions are:
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
outside temperature: +18°C
wind component: 4 knots tailwind
For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:
a) 525 m
b) 615 m
c) 415 m
d) 440 m
Lösungen
jaa-032-1014 a.gif
jaa-032-2211 a.jpg
jaa-032-2211 a.jpg
jaa-032-2219 a.gif
jaa-032-2219 a.gif
jaa-032-2929 a.gif
jaa-032-2929 a.gif
jaa-032-3589 a.gif
jaa-032-3589 a.gif
jaa-032-3590 a.gif
jaa-032-3590 a.gif
jaa-032-4733 a.gif
jaa-032-4733 a.gif
jaa-032-4743 a.gif
jaa-032-4743 a.gif
jaa-032-4744 a.jpg
jaa-032-4744 a.jpg
jaa-032-6574 a.gif
jaa-032-6574 a.gif
jaa-032-6576 a.gif
jaa-032-6576 a.gif
032-6579 A, 6581 A, 6582 A, 6583 A
4. CRUISE
4. 1 Requirements
The aeroplane may not be assumed to be flying above the altitude at which a rate of climb of 300 ft/minute is attained.
The net gradient of descent, in the event of engine failure, is the gross gradient +0,5%.
032-6584 A, 6585 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING SEP 1
TABLE 2.2.3
20° C LEAN
TABLE 2.3.1
20° C LEAN
4. RANGE PROFILE
The graph at Figure 2.4 (page 9) provides a simple and rapid means of determining the still air range (nautical air miles) for the sample
aeroplane. An example of the use of the graph is shown.
Note that the figures make allowance for the taxi, run-up and 45 minutes reserve fuel.
Figure 2. 4 RANGE
jaa-032-915 a.gif
jaa-032-915 a.gif
C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
032-PERF
001.) An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the
headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the
meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH
No. should be:
a) 0.80
b) 0.78
c) 0.72
d) 0.76
002.) On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each
associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air
temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below:
FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt
FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt
FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt
FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0
The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
a) FL330
b) FL270
c) FL290
d) FL370
003.) A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines, the final reserve should be:
004.) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B,
the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
a) 13 000 kg
b) 13 230 kg
c) 14 730 kg
d) 11 730 kg
a) 77 800 kg
b) 76 100 kg
c) 79 200 kg
d) 80 500 kg
007.) If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the
flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed
within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of
minutes is:
a) 10
b) 30
c) 15
d) 45
a) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15
minutes before the planned time of arrival.
b) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed.
c) The airline's "Operations " Department has to transmit a change in the RPL at the ATC
office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.
d) It is not possible to plan another destination and the flight has to be simply cancelled that
day (scheduled flight and not chartered).
009.) From the options given below select those flights which require ATC flight plan
notification:
I - Any Public Transport flight.
2 - Any IFR flight
3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the
provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.
4 - Any cross-border flights
5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
a) 1,5
b) 2,4
c) 3,4,5
d) 1,2,3
010.) An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kt. It flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB =
480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The
wind remains constant.
The duration of the flight will be:
a) 2h 35min
b) 3h 00min
c) 2h 10min
d) 2h 32min
013.) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a
distance of 750 NM from the ground station and at flight level 350. The frequency to be
used is:
a) 123.9 MHz.
b) 17286 kHz.
c) 11336 kHz.
d) 5649 kHz.
a) 6 185 kg.
b) 6 400 kg.
c) 4 300 kg.
d) 9 000 kg.
a) 8800 ft.
b) 12800 ft.
c) 8200 ft.
d) 8500 ft.
016.) During a flight the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs
after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate
fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is
estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown
to the destination with the remaining fuel?
a) 12 minutes.
b) 4 minutes.
c) 44 minutes.
d) 63 minutes.
017.) During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the ATC flight
plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to
PANS-RAC, are:
018.) How many hours in advance of EOBT should a ATC flight plan be filed in the case of
flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
a) 1:00 hour.
b) 3:00 hours.
c) 0:30 hours.
d) 2 hours.
020.) Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct?
a) A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.
b) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.
c) In case of ATFM (Air Traffic Flow Management) the flight plan should be filed at least
three hours in advance of the EOBT.
d) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.
021.) An aircraft is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it
possible?
a) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.
b) No, only ATC can order you to do this.
c) Yes, but only with permission from ATC.
d) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "cancelling my IFR flight".
022.) You have an ATC flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is
noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned
route.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute
alternate.
b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.
c) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the
decision point.
d) a destination alternate is not required.
024.) An operator shall ensure that calculation of usable fuel for an IFR-flight with a turbojet
aeroplane for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel,
contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:
a) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours
whichever is less
b) 45 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
c) 45 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions
d) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
025.) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
a) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
b) the highest obstacle.
c) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
d) 500 ft above the highest obstacle.
a) 6300 ft.
b) 6600 ft.
c) 7800 ft.
d) 6000 ft.
028.) Given:
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg
Traffic Load= 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
a) 42312 kg.
b) 42210 kg.
c) 42093 kg.
d) 42195 kg.
029.) Given:
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg
Traffic Load= 8110 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
a) 41110 kg.
b) 42210 kg.
c) 42195 kg.
d) 42312 kg.
031.) Given:
Fuel density = 0,78 kg/l
Dry operating mass = 33500 kg
Traffic load = 10 600 kg
Maximum allowable take-off mass = 66200 kg
Taxi fuel = 200 kg
Tank capacity = 22 500 Litres
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
a) 17 350 kg
b) 21 900 kg
c) 17 550 kg
d) 22 100 kg
032.) The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR
from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption
in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of
trip fuel.
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
a) 13370 kg.
b) 14500 kg.
c) 13000 kg.
d) 13220 kg.
a) 79 800 kg
b) 77 200 kg
c) 74 800 kg
d) 77 800 kg
034.) A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during
holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition
to contingency reserves, additional fuel of:
a) 3500 kg.
b) 1845 kg.
c) 8120 kg.
d) 7380 kg.
035.) A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for:
036.) (For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)
A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi engine
piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL 110
is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel
to climb with mixture rich.
a) 12 US gallon
b) 9 US gallon
c) 3 US gallon
d) 6 US gallon
a) 36 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 29 NM
d) 25 NM
038.) During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is
60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the
remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of
consumption possible for the rest of the trip.
a) 21.3 US gallons/hour
b) 30.3 US gallons/hour
c) 37.9 US gallons/hour
d) 33.0 US gallons/hour
a) 11 100 kg
b) 8 600 kg
c) 14 400 kg
d) 11 400 kg
a) 1 200 kg
b) 1 680 kg
c) 1 100 kg
d) 1 000 kg
041.) (For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)
Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise
procedure is long range cruise (LRC).
Temp. ISA -5° C
Take-off mass 56 000 kg
Climb fuel 1 100 kg
Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption:
042.) (For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg;
initial cruise FL 280;
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C;
average head wind component 18 kt
Find: climb time
a) 15 min
b) 13 min
c) 11 min
d) 14 min
a) 67 NAM; 71 NM
b) 62 NAM; 59 NM
c) 71 NAM;67 NM
d) 59 NAM;62 NM
044.) (For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Given: mass at brake release 57 500 kg;
temperature ISA -10°C; average head wind component 16 kt
initial cruise FL 280
Find: climb fuel
a) 1040 kg
b) 1238 kg
c) 1387 kg
d) 1138 kg
045.) Given: true course (TC) 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt
Find: wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
046.) (For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)
Given: FL 330; long range cruise; OAT -63°C; gross mass 50 500 kg.
Find: true airspeed (TAS)
a) 431 kt
b) 420 kt
c) 418 kt
d) 433 kt
a) FL 310
b) FL 300
c) FL 320
d) FL 330
048.) (For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aircraft has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N
000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ?
a) 64NM
b) 38 NM
c) 62NM
d) 100 NM
049.) (For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aircraft has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N
00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find: 141°. This is:
050.) (For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aircraft has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N
014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?
a) The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north.
b) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends.
c) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200.
d) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg.
a) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft.
b) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.
c) The figure 108 means that the minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this
route is 10800 ft above MSL.
d) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum grid safe altitude in this sector is 13400 ft above
MSL.
052.) (For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aircraft has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N
014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That means:
a) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation.
b) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used.
c) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz
should be tuned, VOR is not available.
d) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation.
053.) (For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)
Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350; mass at the
beginning of the leg 40 000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg.
Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM).
054.) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg; maximum landing mass 56200 kg;
maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14
500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg; minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.
Find: maximum additional load
a) 3 000 kg
b) 7 000 kg
c) 4 000 kg
d) 5 600 kg
056.) (For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.1.B)
Given: estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing mass at alternate 52 t; final
reserve fuel 2 t; alternate fuel 1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course
(TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL 330, outside air temperature -30 ° C.
Find: estimated trip fuel and time
057.) (For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)
Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14 500 kg; final
reserve fuel 1200 kg; distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219°; head wind
component 10 kt
Find: fuel and time to alternate.
059.) (For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency approach
and landing fuel 2 500 kg; elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at
alternate aerodrome 30 ft.
Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and give the elevation which is
relevant.
060.) The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve
included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at
departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the
fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance.
Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?
a) The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact
b) At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
c) At destination the required reserves remain intact.
d) At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
a) 852 NM
b) 602 NM
c) 610 NM
d) 752 NM
062.) Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are
given with:
a) true headings
b) magnetic course
c) magnetic headings
d) true course
063.) Flight planning chart for an aircraft states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a
given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind).
What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60kt ?
a) 228 NM
b) 128 NM
c) 193 NM
d) 157 NM
064.) You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W
and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?
a) 262°
b) 224°
c) 242°
d) 280°
067.) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V
320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and
actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at:
a) 1203 UTC
b) 1221 UTC
c) 1233 UTC
d) 1213 UTC
068.) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V
320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and
actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of Equal
Time (PET) is:
a) 167 NM
b) 203 NM
c) 183 NM
d) 147 NM
a) 11,7 NM
b) 15,0 NM
c) 30,2 NM
d) 27,1 NM
070.) (For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-De-
Gaulle (20-3))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.
a) 217 ft.
b) 2 ft.
c) 268 ft.
d) 387 ft.
071.) (For this question use annex 033-9710 B or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON
Heathrow (10-2))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.
a) 100 ft.
b) 80 ft.
c) 77 ft.
d) 177 ft.
072.) (For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London
Heathrow
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).
Find the average true course from Paris to London.
a) 343°.
b) 322°.
c) 330°.
d) 142°.
a) 188 NM.
b) 207 NM.
c) 218 NM.
d) 308 NM.
074.) (For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin – jet
aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate elevation is
256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions.
Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester.
a) 2 250 kg.
b) 48 125 kg.
c) 49 250 kg.
d) 48 675 kg.
075.) (For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033-3911B or Route Manual chart
E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London
Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is
Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7)
Preplanning:
The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 kt
The distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.
Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg.
Find the alternate fuel and the according time.
a) 1 550 kg.
b) 1 740 kg.
c) 1 900 kg.
d) 1 450 kg.
077.) Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin – jet
aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg
Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel: 1 800 kg, Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
Catering: 750 kg
Baggage: 3 500 kg
Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):
a) 55 765 kg.
b) 52 265 kg.
c) 51 425 kg.
d) 51 515 kg.
078.) (For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)
In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet aeroplane operations manual graph
shall be entered with:
a) 2h 04min
b) 1h 35min
c) 2h 49min
d) 2h 52min
a) 3h38min
b) 3h34min
c) 2h49min
d) 2h45min
083.) Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume
the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aircraft has done half the distance
the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?
084.) (For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel
calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise
condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead to
overhead is 1h47min. Power setting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30%
of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel.
a) 470 US gallons.
b) 37 US gallons.
c) 47 US gallons.
d) 60 US gallons.
a) 91 US gallons.
b) 76 US gallons.
c) 86 US gallons.
d) 118 US gallons.
086.) (For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5)
Given:
FL 75
Lean mixture
Full throttle
2300 RPM
Take-off fuel: 444 lbs
Take-off from MSL
Find: Endurance in hours.
a) 05:20
b) 05:12
c) 04:42
d) 05:23
087.) (For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3)
Given:
FL 75
OAT +10°C
Lean mixture
2300 RPM
Find:
Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.
a) 68.5 GPH
TAS: 160 kt
b) 11.6 GPH
TAS: 143 kt
c) 11.6 GPH
TAS: 160 kt
d) 71.1 GPH
TAS: 143 kt
a) 9 min.
2,7 USG
b) 7 min.
2,6 USG
c) 9 min.
3,3 USG
d) 10 min
3,6 USG
089.) (For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
Given:
FL 75
OAT: +5°C
During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.
Find:
Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using the graph "time, fuel, distance
to climb".
a) 16 NAM.
18 NM.
b) 14 NAM.
18 NM.
c) 18 NAM.
13 NM.
d) 18 NAM.
15 NM.
090.) "Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations
Manuals. Their purpose is
a) to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the
decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass.
b) to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost
of the aeroplane.
c) to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.
d) to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature
deviations.
a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeed
b) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speed
c) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speed
d) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed
092.) For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as:
a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel.
b) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel.
c) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel.
d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel.
093.) (For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)
In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE
OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with:
094.) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
a) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions.
b) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions.
c) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions.
d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions.
096.) (For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.2.2)
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=50
Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
a) 12500 ft
b) 11000 ft
c) 7500 ft
d) 10000 ft
097.) (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.2.2)
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=150
Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
a) 27500 ft
b) 30000 ft
c) 21000 ft
d) 25000 ft
098.) (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.2.1)
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACH
a) 33800 ft
b) maximum operating altitude
c) 34500 ft
d) 35300 ft
a) 36200 ft
b) 36700 ft
c) maximum operating altitude
d) 35500 ft
100.) (For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1)
Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given
FLIGHT LEVEL .
Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310
a) 0%
b) 4%
c) 10 %
d) 1%
101.) (For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude
(range loss = 6%) and using the following data.
Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions
a) 2994 NAM/1000 kg
b) 2807 NAM/1000 kg
c) 176 NAM/1000 kg
d) 187 NAM/1000 kg
102.) (For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.2)
Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following data.
Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions
a) 2300 kg/h
b) 2994 kg/h
c) 1497 kg/h
d) 1150 kg/h
104.) A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt
tailwind. What is the still air distance?
a) 1125 NM
b) 1143 NM
c) 1463 NM
d) 1491 NM
106.) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes.
What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
a) 193 NM
b) 174 NM
c) 188 NM
d) 203 NM
a) 2050 kg
b) 2250 kg
c) 2350 kg
d) 2150 kg
108.) Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point.
Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt,
Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt
a) 408 NM
b) 375 NM
c) 403 NM
d) 342 NM
109.) (For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350.
Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000 ft
a) 2 h 59 min
b) 2 h 43 min
c) 2 h 51 min
d) 3 h 43 min
a) 1107 kg
b) 1100 kg
c) 1000 kg
d) 1093 kg
112.) (For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)
Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption
Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes.
Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is
56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
113.) (For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature during climb
ISA -10°C, average head wind component 18 kt
Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74
a) 11 min
b) 13 min
c) 15 min
d) 14 min
a) 59 NAM, 62 NM
b) 62 NAM, 59 NM
c) 62 NAM, 71 NM
d) 71 NAM, 67 NM
115.) (For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Average headwind
component 16 kt, Initial FL 280
Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74
a) 1040 kg
b) 1238 kg
c) 1138 kg
d) 1387 kg
116.) (For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
Given: Leg Moulins(N46 42.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9).
Find: Route designator and total distance
a) UG 21, 26 NM
b) UG 21, 69 NM
c) Direct route, 69 NM
d) D, 44 NM
117.) Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt
Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
119.) (For this question use annex 033-9579A, 033-9579B, 033-9579C, and 033-9579D or
Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2)
Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA
-10°C, Cruise at .74 Mach
Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed
120.) (For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air temperature -63°C,
Gross mass 50500 kg
Find: True air speed (TAS)
a) 431 kt
b) 418 kt
c) 433 kt
d) 420 kt
121.) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg,
Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500
kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel
a) 14400 kg
b) 11400 kg
c) 8600 kg
d) 11100 kg
a) 7000 kg
b) 3000 kg
c) 5600 kg
d) 4000 kg
123.) (For this question use annexes 033-9694A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate
52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination:
Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330,
Outside air temperature -30°C
Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning
124.) (For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.3C)
Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is 1600 NM,
Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation +20°C and
Landing mass 55000 kg
Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planning
126.) (For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg,
Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL,
Destination elevation 1500 ft
Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
127.) (For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg,
Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft
Find: Final reserve fuel
a) 1150 kg
b) 1180 kg
c) 2300 kg
d) 2360 kg
a) 53 NM
b) 56 NM
c) 47 NM
d) 50 NM
129.) (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the
twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
a) 15 min
b) 3 min
c) 12 min
d) 11 min
130.) (For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC)
a) 1500 lbs
b) 1100 kg
c) 1000 lbs
d) 1000 kg
a) 83 NM
b) 72.5 NM
c) 56 NM
d) 74.5 NM
132.) (For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS
Charles-de-Gaulle)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London.
Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NM
Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6.
a) 31 NM
b) 24.5 NM
c) 33 NM
d) 36.5 NM
133.) (For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1
Figure 4.5.4 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True
Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).
a) 97 NM
b) 87 NM
c) 76 NM
d) 65 NM
a) 17 min
b) 10 min
c) 8 min
d) 19 min
135.) (For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1
Figure 4.5.4 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True
Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).
a) 320 kg
b) 263 kg
c) 210 kg
d) 273 kg
136.) (For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.2)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74
Determine the TAS
a) 427 kt
b) 430 kt
c) 440 kt
d) 417 kt
138.) (For this question use annexes 033-3908A, 033-9710B and 033-9710C or Route Manual
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS DME
Rwy 27R for London Heathrow )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS 430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent
distance 76NM.
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB
116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent.
139.) (For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR 10-2
and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow))
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival
route.
141.) (For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel
load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000 ft,
Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak EGT
Calculate the range.
a) 633 NM
b) 547.5 NM
c) 730 NM
d) 844 NM
142.) (For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N,
009°16'E) at FL 055 and magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM.
Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.
a) 422 kHz
b) 118.60 MHz
c) 112.50 MHz
d) 118.80 MHz
143.) (For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in
position (47°59'N, 010°14'E).
145.) (For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N,
008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
146.) (For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N,
009°46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
147.) (For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.
a) 112.250 MHZ
b) 135.775 MHz
c) 126.125 MHz
d) 126.125 kHz
a) 127.20 MHz
b) 127.20 kHz
c) 128.525 MHz
d) 118.10 MHz
149.) (For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ?
a) VOR/DME
b) NDB
c) TACAN
d) VOR
150.) (For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E?
a) VORTAC
b) NDB
c) VOR
d) VOR/DME
151.) (For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?
a) VOR
b) VOR/DME
c) TACAN
d) NDB
a) 252 lbs
b) 283 lbs
c) 268 lbs
d) 215 lbs
153.) (For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel
calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent.
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes.
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.
Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, 20°C lean.
Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.
The minimum block fuel is:
a) 265 lbs
b) 250 lbs
c) 208 lbs
d) 270 lbs
154.) (For this question use annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,
008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course.
a) 176°
b) 004°
c) 356°
d) 185°
a) 28 NM
b) 24 km
c) 46 NM
d) 24 NM
156.) (For this question use annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,
008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right
of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles.
a) 1500 ft
b) 4200 ft
c) 2900 ft
d) 3900 ft
157.) (For this question use annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N,
010°13.0'E) determine the magnetic course.
a) 243°
b) 063°
c) 257°
d) 077°
158.) (For this question use annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N,
010°13.0'E) determine the distance.
a) 36 NM
b) 58 NM
c) 32 NM
d) 46 NM
a) 6900 ft
b) 6600 ft
c) 5500 ft
d) 5300 ft
160.) (For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'
N008°38'E) to KOKSY (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is:
a) UG1
b) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS
c) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS
d) UG108 SPI UG1
161.) (For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N
005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is:
162.) (For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N
001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is:
164.) (For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to
ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is;
a) 050°/47 NM
b) 230°/97NM
c) 052°/97 NM
d) 133°/85 NM
165.) (For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 )
The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to
LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is:
a) 157°/58 NM
b) 337°/46 NM
c) 337°/58 NM
d) 337°/31 NM
166.) (For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)
The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD
(54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is:
a) 352°/72 NM
b) 339°/80 NM
c) 339°/125 NM
d) 352°/96 NM
a) 023°/ 47 NM
b) 023°/ 157 NM
c) 024°/ 20 NM
d) 024°/ 73 NM
168.) (For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)
The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN
(49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is:
a) 349°/26 NM
b) 169°/68 NM
c) 169°/42 NM
d) 349°/42 NM
169.) (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)
The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to
LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is:
a) 279°/85 NM
b) 279°/114 NM
c) 311°/85 NM
d) 311°/114 NM
170.) (For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to
WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway UR3 is:
a) 117°/71 NM
b) 297°/57 NM
c) 297°/70 NM
d) 117°/57 NM
a) 132°/43 NM
b) 105°/105 NM
c) 052°/50 NM
d) 007°/60 NM
172.) (For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to
FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
a) 048°/46 NM
b) 041°/78 NM
c) 061°/28 NM
d) 061°/37 NM
173.) (For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to
STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is:
a) 346°/43 NM
b) 166°/64 NM
c) 346°/45 NM
d) 346°/64 NM
174.) (For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI
(43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is:
a) 332°/76 NM
b) 332°/118 NM
c) 322°/60 NM
d) 152°/42 NM
a) 046°/ 70 NM
b) 113°/ 142 NM
c) 067°/ 122 NM
d) 094°/ 90 NM
176.) (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1 )
The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a:
TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz)
177.) (For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:
178.) (For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) is a:
180.) (For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is:
181.) (For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a:
182.) (For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a:
183.) (For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio
navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 005°53'W) is:
185.) (For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The VOR and
TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are:
186.) (For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)
The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on:
187.) (For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)
The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by:
188.) From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known
short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
a) ATCC broadcasts
b) AIP
c) SIGMET
d) NOTAM
a) SIGMET
b) NOTAM and AIP
c) RAD/NAV charts
d) Only AIP
190.) From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and
Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?
a) NOTAM
b) AIP
c) SIGMET
d) ATCC broadcasts
191.) From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information
regarding customs and health formalities ?
a) NAV/RAD charts
b) AIP
c) ATCC
d) NOTAM
193.) (For this question use annex 033-11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N
007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
a) FL260
b) FL210
c) FL250
d) FL200
a) FL290
b) FL250
c) FL330
d) FL245
195.) (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from
STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N 003°16'W)
is:
a) 4100ft MSL
b) FL80
c) FL110
d) 2900 ft MSL
197.) (For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway
G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is:
a) 2800 ft MSL
b) 1000 ft MSL
c) FL60
d) FL140
199.) (For this question use annex 033-11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G24
from KOLJA (56° 00'N 016°49'E ) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is:
a) FL100
b) 1000ft
c) 2500 ft
d) FL60
200.) (For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to
MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
a) FL260
b) FL230
c) FL250
d) FL240
201.) (For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight in RVSM airspace on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN
ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is :
a) FL310
b) FL330
c) FL300
d) FL290
a) FL70
b) FL60
c) FL80
d) FL50
203.) (For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 in RVSM airspace from MENDE-
NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E)
is :
a) FL280
b) FL300
c) FL320
d) FL290
204.) (For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N
001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is:
a) FL270
b) FL290
c) FL300
d) FL310
205.) (For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N
003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is:
a) FL80
b) FL60
c) FL70
d) FL50
a) FL80
b) FL70
c) FL40
d) FL50
207.) (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4
(49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is:
a) FL60
b) FL40
c) FL70
d) FL50
208.) Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-
circular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is:
a) FL100
b) FL90
c) FL95
d) FL105
209.) Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-
circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:
a) FL290
b) FL310
c) FL300
d) FL320
a) BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int
b) HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int
c) WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int
d) TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int
211.) (For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-
3C,10-3D))
Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L ?
212.) (For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON
HEATHROW (10-2D))
The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at
OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:
213.) (For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS
CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2))
The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is:
a) 88 NM
b) 83 NM
c) 73 NM
d) 96 NM
215.) (For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID
BARAJAS (10-2A,B))
For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound
from airway UR10 is:
a) CJN
b) MOTIL
c) CENTA
d) VTB
216.) (For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH
(10-3))
Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16?
a) ALBIX 6E
b) ALBIX 6H
c) ALBIX 7A
d) ALBIX 7S
217.) (For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM
SCHIPHOL (10-3B))
The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
a) 35 NM
b) 59 NM
c) 52 NM
d) 67 NM
219.) (For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for MUNICH
(10-2A,B))
The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via
TANGO for runway 08 L/R is:
220.) Given:
X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B
E = Endurance
D = Distance A to B
O = Groundspeed 'on'
H = Groundspeed 'back'
The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is:
ExOxH
a) X=
O+H
DxH
b) X=
O+H
DxO
c) X=
O+H
DxOxH
d) X=
O+H
a) 2 hours 02 minutes
b) 1 hour 54 minutes
c) 1 hour 39 minutes
d) 1 hour 42 minutes
222.) Given:
Distance X to Y 2700 NM
Mach Number 0.75
Temperature -45°C
Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind
Mean wind component 'back' 35 kt tailwind
The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is:
a) 1350 NM
b) 1386 NM
c) 1425 NM
d) 1313 NM
223.) Given:
Distance A to B 2050 NM
Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is:
a) 920 NM
b) 1025 NM
c) 1130 NM
d) 1153 NM
a) 5 hours 20 minutes
b) 3 hours 55 minutes
c) 5 hours 45 minutes
d) 5 hours 30 minutes
225.) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of
computer flight plans ?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to
the pilot.
a) Neither statement
b) Statement 1 only
c) Both statements
d) Statement 2 only
226.) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight
planning computers ?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. In the event of in-flight re-routing the computer produces a new plan.
a) Both statements
b) Statement 2 only
c) Statement 1 only
d) Neither statement
227.) (For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON
HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2))
The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is:
a) 400 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 480 ft
d) 280 ft
229.) (For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS
ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1))
The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is:
a) 3500 ft
b) 4000 ft
c) 2067 ft
d) 1567 ft
230.) (For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA
MINIMUMS (10-x)
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is:
a) 300 ft
b) 100 ft
c) 188 ft
d) 88 ft
231.) (For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON
HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1))
The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out, is:
a) 480 ft
b) 405 ft
c) 275 ft
d) 200 ft
233.) (For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R
(11-4))
The ILS frequency and identifier are:
a) 108.3 IMNW
b) 108.7 IMSW
c) 108.3 IMSW
d) 108.7 IMNW
234.) (For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE
GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8))
The ILS localizer course is:
a) 088°
b) 118°
c) 268°
d) 100°
235.) (For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16
(11-2))
The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out, all other
aids serviceable, aircraft category A is:
a) 720m
b) 800m
c) 1500m
d) 600m
a) 112.3 MUN
b) 400 MSW
c) 338 MNW
d) 108.6 DMS
237.) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans
1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb,
cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
a) Both statements
b) Statement 1 only
c) Statement 2 only
d) Neither statement
238.) (For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D)
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg; the
ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA conditions.
Fuel consumption will be:
a) 26 950 kg
b) 22 860 kg
c) 30 117 kg
d) 24 900 kg
239.) (For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D)
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg.
The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions.
Fuel consumption will be:
a) 30 117 kg
b) 27 577 kg
c) 30 371 kg
d) 32 657 kg
a) FL400
b) FL350
c) FL340
d) FL380
a) Moderate
b) Nil
c) Light
d) Severe
a) Severe
b) Nil
c) Moderate
d) Light
a) Light
b) Nil
c) Severe
d) Moderate
a) 300/100
b) 300/160
c) 300/140
d) 290/110
a) 200/70
b) 020/70
c) 020/80
d) 350/70
a) 290/155
b) 290/185
c) 110/155
d) 320/155
a) 40 kt headwind component
b) 35 kt tailwind component
c) 25 kt tailwind component
d) 55 kt headwind component
a) -2
b) +9
c) +2
d) +13
a) 300/75
b) 330/85
c) 330/75
d) 150/75
a) 3 to 4 at 500
b) 5 to 7 at 1200
c) 5 to 7 at 500
d) 5 to 7 at 2000
a) 1500
b) 10,000
c) 5000
d) 2200
a) 0800
b) Nil forecast
c) 1000
d) 0600
a) runway in use
b) period of validity
c) temperature/dewpoint
d) day/month
a) -47
b) -46
c) -49
d) -50
a) None
b) FL290
c) FL 210
d) FL250
a) 51 860 kg
b) 41 950 kg
c) 52 060 kg
d) 46 340 kg
a) 30 000 kg
b) 14 000 kg
c) 42 000 kg
d) 12 000 kg
a) 193 000 kg
b) 193 800 kg
c) 192 500 kg
d) 193 400 kg
a) 0 kg
b) 2 000 kg
c) 3 000 kg
d) 4 000 kg
a) 10 000 kg
b) 12 000 kg
c) 20 000 kg
d) 15 000 kg
a) 5 h 02 min
b) 4 h 10 min
c) 4 h 26 min
d) 4 h 43 min
a) 21 700 kg
b) 23 500 kg
c) 19 900 kg
d) 21 500 kg
a) 28 300 kg
b) 27 800 kg
c) 29 200 kg
d) 27 000 kg
a) 29 100 kg
b) 29 400kg
c) 31 500 kg
d) 27 400 kg
a) 445 NM
b) 612 NM
c) 2031 NM
d) 841 NM
271.) (For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 033-11223C)
Given:
-Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
-Planned cruise at FL 350
-Long range MACH
-Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
-CG: 37 %
Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from take-off to landing will be:
a) 19 660 kg
b) 20 260 kg
c) 22 360 kg
d) 21 760 kg
272.) (For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 033-11224C)
Given:
-Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
-Planned cruise at FL 350
-Long range MACH
-Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
-CG: 37 %
You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.
Your flight time will be:
a) 298 minutes
b) 304 minutes
c) 359 minutes
d) 288 minutes
a) 0.80
b) 0.84
c) the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise)
d) 0.82
a) 5 040 NM
b) 5 120 NM
c) 4 900 NM
d) 4 630 NM
a) 37400 ft
b) 38600 ft
c) 34600 ft
d) 37800 ft
a) 4 580 NM
b) 4 940 NM
c) 4 800 NM
d) 4 820 NM
a) 27 770 kg
b) 22 160 kg
c) 20 900 kg
d) 29 440 kg
a) 0.28 $/l
b) 0.27 $/l
c) 0.26 $/l
d) 0.33 $/l
a) 0.28 $/l
b) 0.30 $/l
c) 0.29 $/l
d) 0.24 $/l
a) 34 430 kg
b) 30 440 kg
c) 32 480 kg
d) 28 720 kg
a) 15 000 kg
b) 22 000 kg
c) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
d) 8 000 kg
a) 18 000 kg
b) 8 000 kg
c) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
d) 32 000 kg
284.) (For this question use annex 033-11252A, 033-11252B and 033-11252C)
Knowing that:
-Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg
-Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
-Air distance: 3 000 NM
-Cruise level: optimum
-Air conditioning: standard
-Anti-icing: OFF
-Temperature: ISA
-CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to
complete this flight will be:
a) 394 minutes
b) 400 minutes
c) 389 minutes
d) 383 minutes
a) 203 minutes
b) 198 minutes
c) 209 minutes
d) 192 minutes
286.) (For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 033-11254C and 033-11254D)
Knowing that:
-Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg
-Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
-Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM
-Cruise level: optimum
-Air conditioning: standard
-Anti-icing: OFF
-Temperature: ISA
-CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:
a) 170 200 kg
b) 169 200 kg
c) 171 200 kg
d) 174 800 kg
a) 172 300 kg
b) 170 400 kg
c) 171 300 kg
d) 176 100 kg
a) 5 000 kg
b) 10 000 kg
c) 8 000 kg
d) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
b) take-off until landing.
c) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.
d) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
a) 539 NM
b) 518 NM
c) 471 NM
d) 493 NM
a) 30 200 kg
b) 39 750 kg
c) 31 840 kg
d) 31 340 kg
a) 23 000 kg
b) 23 300 kg
c) 20 500 kg
d) 22 500 kg
296.) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC
flight plan, you write:
a) XXXX
b) ZZZZ
c) AAAA
d) ////
297.) On a VFR ATC flight plan, the total estimated time is:
a) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport, plus 15 minutes
b) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport
c) the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination airport
d) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport
298.) The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is
0,75, the fuel burn will be:
a) 188 kg/h
b) 267 kg/h
c) 213 kg/h
d) 200 kg/h
299.) On an ATC flight plan, the letter "Y" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out
under the following flight rules.
a) IFR
b) VFR followed by IFR
c) VFR
d) IFR followed by VFR
301.) When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into
account:
1 - the wind
2 - foreseeable airborne delays
3 - other weather forecasts
4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing
The combination which provides the correct statement is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 4
302.) For an ATC flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
303.) The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan is:
a) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
b) the total usable fuel on board
c) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
d) the required fuel for the flight
305.) The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the
density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
a) 206 l/h
b) 176 l/h
c) 220 l/h
d) 235 l/h
306.) On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the waypoint ROMEO at 120 kt at
flight level 085, you will write :
a) ROMEO/FL085N0120
b) ROMEO/K0120FL085
c) ROMEO/F085N0120
d) ROMEO/N0120F085
307.) The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence
category on an ATC flight plan is:
a) 2 700 kg
b) 7 000 kg
c) 5 700 kg
d) 10 000 kg
a) S
b) C
c) A
d) P
a) 052°
b) 044°
c) 040°
d) 058°
a) 1 326 litres
b) 1 182 litres
c) 1 600 litres
d) 1 545 litres
311.) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order
to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during
descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.
The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
a) 130 NM
b) 110 NM
c) 120 NM
d) 140 NM
a) 90
b) 75
c) 80
d) 70
313.) An aircraft, following a 215° true track at variation 3°W, must fly over a 10 600 ft
obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received
from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is
ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be:
a) 120
b) 130
c) 140
d) 150
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
317.) An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500
ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains
constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance
from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
a) 38 NM
b) 48 NM
c) 45 NM
d) 41 NM
318.) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following
conditions :
- dry operating mass : 2800 kg
- trip fuel : 300 kg
- traffic load : 400 kg
- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg
- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
a) 800 kg
b) 500 kg
c) 1000 kg
d) 700 kg
319.) After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to
return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
a) 20 min
b) 24 min
c) 16 min
d) 10 min 40 sec
321.) The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC
The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC
The flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
a) 1755 UTC
b) 1725 UTC
c) 1715 UTC
d) 1745 UTC
322.) In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time
of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to:
a) go off blocks
b) pass the departure beacon
c) start-up
d) take-off
a) 15 NM
b) 25 NM
c) 10 NM
d) 20 NM
a) 90
b) 80
c) 85
d) 100
a) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the
ATS unit.
b) the letters "DCT" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route
c) the words "as cleared" should be entered
d) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
a) OTHER INFORMATION
b) ROUTE
c) EQUIPMENT
d) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
a) heavy "H"
b) medium "M"
c) heavy/medium "H/M"
d) medium plus "M+"
329.) For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an
aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is:
a) unclassified "U"
b) heavy "H"
c) light "L"
d) medium "M"
a) 0115
b) 1H55
c) 115M
d) 0155
333.) When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be
expressed in:
334.) In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should
be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight):
a) G
b) X
c) N
d) N/S
336.) In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of
cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as:
338.) When an ATC flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan
should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by:
a) 90 minutes or more
b) 30 minutes or more
c) 60 minutes or more
d) 45 minutes or more
340.) When completing an ATC flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be:
a) X
b) G
c) N/S
d) Y
342.) In an ATC flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance
from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of:
343.) An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215
UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with:
a) EDDM0215
b) EDDM2H15
c) EDDM1415
d) EDDM AT 0215
344.) In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant
point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as:
345.) In an ATC flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would
be entered as:
a) S3200
b) FL320
c) F320
d) 32000
347.) In the ATC flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as:
a) KN470
b) N0470
c) 0470K
d) N470
348.) In the ATC flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the
departure time entered is the:
349.) In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach
number, cruising speed is expressed as:
a) CAS
b) Groundspeed
c) TAS
d) IAS
350.) For a repetitive ATC flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular
basis on at least:
a) 30 occasions
b) 50 occasions
c) 20 occasions
d) 10 occasions
a) P
b) C
c) B
d) A
352.) (For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)
Given: Distance C - D: 3200 NM
Long Range Cruise at FL 340
Temperature Deviation from ISA: +12°C
Tailwind component: 50 kt
Gross mass at C: 55 000 kg
The fuel required from C - D is:
a) 14 500 kg
b) 17 500 kg
c) 17 800 kg
d) 14 200 kg
353.) (For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1))
Given: Distance C - D: 680NM
Long Range Cruise at FL340
Temperature Deviation from ISA: 0° C
Headwind component: 60 kt
Gross mass at C: 44 700 kg
The fuel required from C - D is:
a) 3100 kg
b) 3400 kg
c) 3700 kg
d) 4000 kg
a) 1450 kg
b) 1250 kg
c) 1350 kg
d) 1400 kg
355.) (For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass: 62 000 kg
Temperature: ISA + 15°C
The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is:
a) 1700 kg
b) 1750 kg
c) 1800 kg
d) 1650 kg
356.) (For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)
Given : Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
Distance B - C : 800 NM
Temperature : - 55°C
Headwind component : 50 kt
Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :
a) 6090 kg
b) 4975 kg
c) 6125 kg
d) 4945 kg
a) 5850 kg
b) 6150 kg
c) 7050 kg
d) 7300 kg
358.) (For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)
Given: Distance C - D: 540 NM
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
Temperature Deviation from ISA: +20°C
Headwind component: 50 kt
Gross mass at C: 60 000 kg
The fuel required from C to D is:
a) 3350 kg
b) 3680 kg
c) 4200 kg
d) 4620 kg
359.) (For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning Manual
MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)
Given: Distance B - C: 350 NM
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
Temperature: - 40°C
Tailwind component: 70 kt
Gross mass at B: 53 200 kg
The fuel required from B - C is:
a) 1940 kg
b) 2800 kg
c) 2670 kg
d) 1810 kg
a) 1310 kg
b) 1090 kg
c) 1010 kg
d) 2180 kg
361.) (For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
- HOLDING PLANNING)
The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 5000 ft, mean
gross mass 47 000 kg, is:
a) 1090 kg
b) 1635 kg
c) 1125 kg
d) 1690 kg
362.) (For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)
Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM
Landing mass at Alternate: 45 000 kg
Tailwind component: 50 kt
The Alternate fuel required is:
a) 3050 kg
b) 2750 kg
c) 2900 kg
d) 2500 kg
363.) (For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)
Given: Distance to Alternate: 400 NM
Landing mass at Alternate: 50 000kg
Headwind component: 25 kt
The alternate fuel required is:
a) 2800 kg
b) 2550 kg
c) 2900 kg
d) 2650 kg
a) 310/85
b) 310/75
c) 290/75
d) 100/75
a) -50
b) -54
c) -52
d) -48
a) 155/40
b) 334/40
c) 135/40
d) 310/40
a) -10
b) +2
c) -55
d) +10
a) 300/60
b) 115/60
c) 320/60
d) 300/70
a) tail wind 55 kt
b) tail wind 70 kt
c) tail wind 40 kt
d) headwind 55 kt
a) severe
b) nil
c) moderate
d) light
a) moderate
b) moderate or severe
c) light
d) nil
a) 300
b) 360
c) 350
d) 270
a) broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100
tops FL270
b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270
c) isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270
d) well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270
a) moderate
b) severe
c) light
d) nil
a) 250/85
b) 280/110
c) 180/105
d) 190/95
a) 270
b) 230
c) 360
d) 310
a) 3 to 4 at 800
b) 3 to 4 at 400
c) 5 to 7 at 800
d) 5 to 7 at 400
a) 27
b) 20
c) 18
d) 9
a) 1 to 2 at 3000
b) 3 to 4 at 2000
c) 3 to 4 at 800
d) 1 to 4 at 3000
a) 180/12
b) 300/05
c) 270/04
d) 270/08
a) nil
b) 1800
c) 0800
d) 1300
a) 30
b) 5
c) 25
d) 10
a) 8000m
b) 6000m
c) 10km
d) 2000m
a) CAVOK
b) rain associated with thunderstorms
c) patches of fog
d) mist and/or fog
389.) (For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Head wind component 15 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
Cruise altitude 35000 ft
Landing mass 50000 kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are:
a) (a) 20000 kg
(b) 7hr 00 min
b) (a) 16200 kg
(b) 6 hr 20 min
c) (a) 17600 kg
(b) 6 hr 50 min
d) (a) 17000 kg
(b) 6 hr 10 min
390.) (For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.5)
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
Brake release mass 64700 kg
The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are:
a) (a) 15800 kg
(b) 6hr 15 min
b) (a) 17000 kg
(b) 6hr 45 min
c) (a) 16200 kg
(b) 6hr 20 min
d) (a) 18400 kg
(b) 7hr 00 min
a) 10000 ft
b) 14000 ft
c) 17000 ft
d) 22000 ft
392.) (For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.5)
Given the following:
Head wind component 50 kt
Temperature ISA + 10°C
Brake release mass 65000kg
Trip fuel available 18000kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
a) 3480 NM
b) 2740 NM
c) 2540 NM
d) 3100 NM
393.) (For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.1C)
Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the
trip time by approximately:
a) +5%
b) -5%
c) -7%
d) +8%
a) -3.6%
b) +2.3%
c) +7.6%
d) +5.3%
395.) (For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.5)
Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a temperature
decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately:
a) +3%
b) + 7%
c) -4%
d) -10%
396.) (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Tail wind component 45kt
Temperature ISA - 10°C
Cruise altitude 29000ft
Landing mass 55000kg
The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are:
a) (a) 16000kg
(b) 6hr 25 min
b) (a) 17100kg
(b) 6hr 07 min
c) (a) 20000kg
(b) 6hr 40 min
d) (a) 18000kg
(b) 5hr 50 min
a) (a) 21800 kg
(b) 9hr 25 min
b) (a) 18100 kg
(b) 7hr 20 min
c) (a) 15800 kg
(b) 6hr 00 min
d) (a) 19000 kg
(b) 7hr 45min
398.) (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.5)
The following apply:
Temperature ISA +15°C
Brake release mass 62000kg
Trip time 5hr 20 min
What is the trip fuel ?
a) 13800kg
b) 13000kg
c) 13200kg
d) 13500kg
399.) (For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 29000ft
Landing mass 45000kg
Trip fuel available 16000kg
What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ?
a) 35 kt
b) 0
c) 70kt
d) 15kt
a) 3740 NM
b) 3250 NM
c) 3500 NM
d) 3640 NM
401.) (For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.5)
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Tail wind 25kt
Temperature ISA - 10°C
Brake release mass 66000kg
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are:
a) (a) 14000kg
(b) 5hr 35 min
b) (a) 15000kg
(b) 6hr 00 min
c) (a) 15800kg
(b)6hr 20 min
d) (a) 14600kg
(b) 5hr 45 min
402.) (For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is:
a) 344
b) 353
c) 350
d) 347
404.) (For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) The initial
great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E)
measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000°
meridian the initial grid course will be:
a) 106°
b) 080°
c) 066°
d) 096°
405.) (For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N
011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be:
a) 172° (G)
b) 353° (G)
c) 177° (G)
d) 194° (G)
a) 20000ft
b) 26000ft
c) 14500ft
d) 16000ft
407.) (For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.7.3)
Given:
Diversion distance 650 NM
Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft
Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C
The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately:
a) (a) 6200kg
(b) 2h 10min
b) (a) 4400kg
(b) 1h 35min
c) (a) 4800kg
(b) 2h 03min
d) (a) 3900kg
(b) 1h 45min
408.) (For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.7.3)
Given:
Distance to alternate 950 NM
Head wind component 20 kt
Mass at point of diversion 50000kg
Diversion fuel available 5800kg
The minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is:
a) 22000ft
b) 18000ft
c) 20000ft
d) 26000ft
a) LRC
b) M/KIAS .74/290
c) M/KIAS .74/330
d) M/KIAS .70/280
410.) (For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.7.2)
Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an
elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could
divert a distance of:
a) 584 NM
b) 603 NM
c) 608 NM
d) 563 NM
411.) (For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.7.2)
An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120
minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA.
Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the
maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is:
a) 735 NM
b) 810 NM
c) 794 NM
d) 875 NM
a) 150kg
b) 278kg
c) 290kg
d) 140kg
413.) (For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
a) 119°
b) 118°
c) 099°
d) 109°
414.) (For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
a) 109°
b) 119°
c) 120°
d) 099°
415.) (For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
a) 113°
b) 080°
c) 098°
d) 116°
a) 278°
b) 116°
c) 098°
d) 080°
417.) (For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
a) 720
b) 690
c) 1590
d) 1440
418.) (For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
a) 279°
b) 271°
c) 247°
d) 259°
419.) For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
a) 079°
b) 271°
c) 247°
d) 259°
420.) For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
a) 275°
b) 267°
c) 262°
d) 271°
a) 271°
b) 246°
c) 275°
d) 267°
422.) For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP)
The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
a) 760
b) 775
c) 725
d) 700
423.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 250 NM
GS Out 130 kt
GS Home 100 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 192 NM
b) 109 NM
c) 141 NM
d) 125 NM
424.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 500 NM
GS Out 95 kt
GS Home 125 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 216 NM
b) 380 NM
c) 284 NM
d) 250 NM
a) 189 NM
b) 151 NM
c) 170 NM
d) 272 NM
426.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 435 NM
GS Out 110 kt
GS Home 130 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 199 NM
b) 236 NM
c) 218 NM
d) 368 NM
427.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 140 NM
GS Out 90 kt
GS Home 80 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 124 NM
b) 66 NM
c) 70 NM
d) 74 NM
429.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 338 NM
True track 045
W/V 225/35
TAS 120 kt
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
430.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 256 NM
GS Out 160 kt
GS Home 110 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 176 NM
b) 104 NM
c) 128 NM
d) 152 NM
432.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 350 NM
True track 320
W/V 350/30
TAS 130 kt
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
433.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 950 NM
GS Out 275 kt
GS Home 225 kt
What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 39 min
b) 139 min
c) 93 min
d) 114 min
a) 132 min
b) 22 min
c) 147 min
d) 163 min
435.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 2500 NM
GS Out 540 kt
GS Home 470 kt
What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 129 min
b) 171 min
c) 149 min
d) 28 min
436.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 1950 NM
GS Out 400 kt
GS Home 300 kt
What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 125 min
b) 223 min
c) 167 min
d) 29 min
437.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 1345 NM
GS Out 480 kt
GS Home 360 kt
What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 128 min
b) 50 min
c) 72 min
d) 96 min
a) 19 min
b) 188 min
c) 152 min
d) 123 min
439.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 875 NM
True track 240
W/V 060/50
TAS 500 kt
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
440.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 2200 NM
True track 150
W/V 330/50
TAS 460 kt
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
442.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 1100 NM
True track 280
W/V 100/80
TAS 440 kt
What is the distance time of the PET from the departure point?
443.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 95 NM
True track 105
W/V 060/15
TAS 140 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 51 NM
b) 47,5 NM
c) 82 NM
d) 44 NM
a) 92 NM
b) 82 NM
c) 90 NM
d) 98 NM
445.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 220 NM
True track 175
W/V 220/10
TAS 135 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 103 NM
b) 136 NM
c) 116 NM
d) 110 NM
446.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 150 NM
True track 020
W/V 180/30
TAS 130 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 91 NM
b) 59 NM
c) 75 NM
d) 65 NM
a) 153 NM
b) 123 NM
c) 131 NM
d) 143 NM
448.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 340 NM
True track 320
W/V 160/40
TAS 110 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 219 NM
b) 121 NM
c) 228 NM
d) 112 NM
449.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 165 NM
True track 055
W/V 360/20
TAS 105 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 73 NM
b) 83 NM
c) 92 NM
d) 132 NM
a) 79 NM
b) 134 NM
c) 75 NM
d) 71 NM
451.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 470 NM
True track 237
W/V 300/25
TAS 125 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 235 NM
b) 214 NM
c) 256 NM
d) 205 NM
452.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination 315 NM
True track 343
W/V 015/15
TAS 100 kt
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 176 NM
b) 148 NM
c) 139 NM
d) 167 NM
a) 136 NM
b) 109 NM
c) 218 NM
d) 82 NM
454.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 200 NM
Endurance: 3 h
TAS: 130 kt
Ground Speed Out: 150 kt
Ground Speed Home: 110 kt
What is the distance PSR from the departure point?
a) 85 NM
b) 95 NM
c) 190 NM
d) 10 NM
455.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM
Endurance: 2,5 h
TAS: 115 kt
Ground Speed Out: 130 kt
Ground Speed Home: 105 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 255 NM
b) 179 NM
c) 145 NM
d) 73 NM
457.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM
Endurance: 2 h
TAS: 120 kt
Ground Speed Out: 135 kt
Ground Speed Home: 105 kt
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
459.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM
Endurance: 2,8 h
True Track: 065
W/V: 245/25
TAS: 100 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 49 NM
b) 68 NM
c) 66 NM
d) 131 NM
460.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 150 NM
Endurance: 3,2 h
TAS: 90 kt
Ground Speed Out: 100 kt
Ground Speed Home: 80 kt
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 185 NM
b) 262 NM
c) 131NM
d) 59 NM
462.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM
Endurance: 3,5 h
True Track: 310
W/V: 270/30
TAS: 120 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 10 NM
b) 200 NM
c) 125 NM
d) 100 NM
463.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 1000 NM
Endurance: 4 h
TAS: 500 kt
Ground Speed Out: 550 kt
Ground Speed Home: 450 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 450 NM
b) 990 NM
c) 10 NM
d) 495 NM
a) 752 NM
b) 624 NM
c) 1040 NM
d) 1248 NM
465.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 5000 NM
Endurance: 10 h
TAS: 450 kt
Ground Speed Out: 500 kt
Ground Speed Home: 400 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 2500 NM
b) 1111 NM
c) 2778 NM
d) 2222 NM
466.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 3000 NM
Endurance: 8 h
TAS: 520 kt
Ground Speed Out: 600 kt
Ground Speed Home: 440 kt
What is the time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 277 min
b) 117 min
c) 203 min
d) 173 min
a) 101 min
b) 124 min
c) 63 min
d) 66 min
468.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 2450 NM
Endurance: 7,5 h
TAS: 410 kt
Ground Speed Out: 360 kt
Ground Speed Home: 460 kt
What is the time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 111 min
b) 252 min
c) 156 min
d) 198 min
469.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 3750 NM
Endurance: 9,5 h
True Track: 360
W/V: 360/50
TAS: 480 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 2070 NM
b) 1128 NM
c) 2255 NM
d) 1495 NM
a) 1878 NM
b) 3756 NM
c) 2584 NM
d) 2560 NM
471.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 950 NM
Endurance: 3,5 h
TAS: 360 kt
Ground Speed Out: 320 kt
Ground Speed Home: 400 kt
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
472.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 4630 NM
Endurance: 12,4 h
True Track: 240
W/V: 060/80
TAS: 530 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 1419 NM
b) 3211 NM
c) 6106 NM
d) 1966 NM
a) 319 NM
b) 116 NM
c) 231 NM
d) 305 NM
474.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 260 NM
Endurance: 4,1 h
True Track:150
W/V: 100/30
TAS: 110 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 107 NM
b) 47 NM
c) 213 NM
d) 154 NM
475.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 150 NM
Endurance: 2,4 h
True Track: 250
W/V:280/15
TAS: 120 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 98 NM
b) 83 NM
c) 142 NM
d) 71 NM
a) 30 NM
b) 194 NM
c) 303 NM
d) 150 NM
477.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 480 NM
Endurance: 5 h
True Track: 315
W/V: 100/20
TAS: 115 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 205 NM
b) 199 NM
c) 141 NM
d) 280 NM
478.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM
Endurance: 2,5 h
True Track: 035
W/V: 250/20
TAS: 105 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 172 NM
b) 64 NM
c) 88 NM
d) 127 NM
a) 102 NM
b) 169 NM
c) 203 NM
d) 207 NM
480.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 190 NM
Endurance: 2,4 h
True Track: 120
W/V: 030/40
TAS: 130 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 44 NM
b) 73 NM
c) 148 NM
d) 95 NM
481.) Given:
Distance from departure to destination: 215 NM
Endurance: 3,3 h
True Track: 005
W/V: 290/15
TAS: 125 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 112 NM
b) 103 NM
c) 205 NM
d) 9 NM
a) 308 NM
b) 52NM
c) 154 NM
d) 185 NM
The fuel and time figures extracted from this chart include the following:
o Missed approach
o Climb to cruise altitude
o Cruise at LRC
o Descent and straight on approach.
The table below provides fuel flow Information necessary for planning holding reserve fuel requirements.
Chart is based on racetrack pattern at minimum drag airspeed - minimum speed 210KIAS.
Figure 4.4
FLAPS UP
Tables are provided for a range of temperature deviations from ISA -15°C to ISA +25°C
Fuel and time given in these tables are from brake release and distance from 1500 ft. with a climb airspeed schedule 280 KIAS/0.74 Mach. The
stated TAS is the average for the climb and should be used to correct the still air distance shown.
033-3327 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING MEP1
Method of Use
The fuel and time figures extracted from this chart include the following:
o Missed approach
o Climb to cruise altitude
o Cruise at LRC
o Descent and straight on approach.
The fuel and time figures extracted from this chart include the following:
o Missed approach
o Climb to cruise altitude
o Cruise at LRC
o Descent and straight on approach.
Enter the power setting table (fig. 3.3) with required % power to obtain fuel flow in US gallons per hour.
Manifold Pressure is read off against pressure altitude and RPM in the correct % power column.
To maintain constant power, add 1 % for each 6° C above Standard. Subtract 1 % for each 6° C below Standard.
Do not exceed 34 inches MAP in cruise.
033-4623 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING MEP 1
Enter the power setting table (fig. 3.3) with required % power to obtain fuel flow in US gallons per hour.
Manifold Pressure is read off against pressure altitude and RPM in the correct % power column.
To maintain constant power, add 1 % for each 6° C above Standard. Subtract 1 % for each 6° C below Standard.
Do not exceed 34 inches MAP in cruise.
033-4735 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING MEP 1
5. ENDURANCE PROFILE
The graph at Figure 2.5 (page 1) provides a rapid method for determination of endurance for the sample aeroplane. An example is shown onthe
graph.
TABLE 2.2.3
20° C LEAN
4. RANGE PROFILE
The graph at Figure 2.4 (page 9) provides a simple and rapid means of determining the still air range (nautical air miles) for the sample
aeroplane. An example of the use of the graph is shown.
Note that the figures make allowance for the taxi, run-up and 45 minutes reserve fuel.
Figure 2. 4 RANGE
033-9543 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FUEL PLANNING MRJT 1
The table below provides fuel flow Information necessary for planning holding reserve fuel requirements.
Chart is based on racetrack pattern at minimum drag airspeed - minimum speed 210KIAS.
Figure 4.4
FLAPS UP
Tables are provided for a ränge of temperature deviations from ISA -15°C to ISA
+25°C
Fuel and time given in these tables are from brake release and distance from 1500 ft. with a climb airspeed
schedule 280 KIAS/0.74 Mach. The stated TAS is the average for the climb and should be used to correct
the still air distance shown.
033-9546 A
CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY DATA SHEET
FUEL PLANNING MRJT 1
The fuel and time figures extracted from this chart include the following:
o Missed approach
o Climb to cruise altitude
o Cruise at LRC
o Descent and straight on approach.
• Monoplane
• Twin turbo-jet engines
• Retractable undercarriage
Structural Limits: -
Maximum Taxi (Ramp) Mass
Maximum Take Off Mass
Maximum Landing Mass 63060 Kg.
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 62800 Kg.
Maximum Fuel Load 54900 Kg.
51300 Kg.
5311 U.S. Gallons
16145 Kg. (@ 3.04 Kg./Gal.)
1.2 Constants
Fuel Density (unless otherwise notified)
3.04 Kg./US Gallon
6.7 IbsAIS Gallon
2. OPTIMUM ALTITUDES
NB. Fuel Penalties will be incurred by operating "off optimum" altitude as shown in table.
ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION
Contingency Fuel
Minimum T/O-Fuel
Extra Fuel
Actual T/O-Fuel
5.4 Descent
These tables (Fig. 4.5.4) provide tabulations of time, fuel and distance for "flight idle" thrust at 0.74 mach/250
KIAS (economy) and 0.70 Mach/280 KIAS (turbulence penetration)
.74M/250 KIAS
.70M/280/250 KIAS
TABLE 2.2.2
20° C LEAN
TABLE 2.2.3
20° C LEAN
The following flight planning tables allow the planner to determine trip fuel consumption and trip time required
to cover a given air distance.
- Takeoff
- Climb profile : 250kt/300kt/M.80
- Cruise mach number: M.80, M.82, M.84, LR
- Descent profile: Cruise Mach number/300kt/250kt
- Approach and landing : 240 kg - 6 minute IFR
- ISA
- CG = 37 %
- Normal air conditioning
-Anti ice OFF
Note:
1. In the tables, the asterisk (*} means that a step climb of 4000 feet must be flown to reach the
corresponding FL.
2. To obtain a flight plan at optimum cruise level, the highest flight level desired within the flight has to
be selected in the table.
3. For each degree Celsius above ISA temperature apply fuel correction 0.010 (kg/°C/NM) x ∆ISA(°C)
x Air Distance (NM).
The fuel consumption must be corrected when the actual landing weight is different from the reference
landing weight
If it is lover (or greater) man the reference landing weight subtract (or add) the value given in the correction
part of the table per 1000 kg below (or above) the reference landing weight.
033-11073 B, 11074 B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
GROUND DISTANCE/ SEQ A
AIR DISTANCE
033-11073 C, 11074 C
DATA SHEET LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
GROUND DISTANCE/ SEQ A
AIR DISTANCE
033-11073 D, 11074 D
DATA SHEET LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
GROUND DISTANCE/ SEQ A
AIR DISTANCE
033-11195 A -11198 A
List of TAFs
TAF EDDF ISSUED AT 042200
EDDF 0524 VRE03KT CAVOK
BECMG 0609 20005KT 9999 SCT030 BKN045 =
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
GROUND DISTANCE/AIR DISTANCE
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
GROUND DISTANCE/AIR DISTANCE
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
FUEL TANKERING
FUEL TANKERING
GENERAL
Fuel tankering graphs allow to determine the Optimum fuel quantity to be tankered as a function of the fuel price ratio between
departure and destination airports. The following pages present for one flight level per page the Optimum aircraft takeoff weight
depending on the fuel price ratio (departure fuel price divided by destination fuel price) and on the air distance to fly.
The computed optimum takeoff weight is based on the additional fuel consumption needed for the transport of the extra (tankered) fuel
and it is the weight at which the maximum profit can be achieved. The quantity of extra fuel that can be loaded is calculated as the
difference between the Optimum takeoff weight (including extra fuel) and the planned takeoff weight {without fuel tankering).
Note:
1. ff necessary, step climbs are performed to reach the indicated flight levels.
2. The crew/operator has to verify that the found aircraft weight complies with basic aircraft limitations (e.g. max fuel capacity) as well as
with mission dependent restrictions (e.g. MLW at destination).
EXAMPLES
Check :
a) new TOW less or equal MTOW from departure airport.
b) total fuel to be loaded less or equal maximum fuel capacity.
c) MLW at destination
033-11207 B, 11209 B, 11210 B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
FUEL TANKERING
033-11211 A - 11214 A
INTRODUCTION
The followtng flight planning tables allow the planner to determine trip fuel consumption and trip time
required to cover a given air distance.
- Takeoff
- Climb profile : 250kt/300kt/M.80
- Cruise mach number: M.80, M.82, M.84, LR
- Descent profile: Cruise Mach number/300kt/250kt
- Approach and landing : 240 kg - 6 minute IFR
-ISA
- CG = 37 %
- Normal air conditioning
-Anti ice OFF
Note:
1. In the tables, the asterisk (*} means that a step climb of 4000 feet must be flown to reach the
corresponding FL.
2. To obtain a ffight plan at optimum cruise level, the highest flight level desired within the flight has to
be selected in the table.
3. For each degree Celsius above ISA temperature apply fuel correction 0.010 (kg/°C/NM) x ∆ISA(°C)
x Air Distance (NM).
The fuel consumption must be corrected when the actual landing weight is different from the reference
landing weight
If it is lover (or greater) man the reference landing weight suibtract (oradd) the value given in the correction
part of the table per 1000 kg below (or above) the reference landing weight.
033-11211 B - 11214B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
QUICK DETERMINTION OF F-PLN
033-11215 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
INTEGRATED CRUISE
033-11223 B,11224 B, 11252 B, 11253 C, 11254 C, 11255 B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
JAR - FCL
FLIGHT PLANNING
INTEGRATED CRUISE
CLIMB
CORRECTION
The planner must correct the values for the fuel and the time obtained from the integrated cruise tables with
the numbers given in the following tables. The tables which are established for M.80, M.82, M.84 and long
range speed take into account climbing from the brake release point at 250KT/300KT/M.80.
CLIMB TO OPTIMUM FL
STEP CLIMB
CORRECTION
When the flight includes one or more step climbs (2000 feet below FL290, 4000 feet above), apply a
correction of 160 kg per step climb to the fuel consurnption.
033-11223 C, 11224 C,11252 C, 11253 D, 11254 D,11255 C
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
JAR - FCL
FLIGHT PLANNING
INTEGRATED CRUISE
DESCENT
CORRECTION
Correct the fuel and the time values determined in the integrated cruise tables äs follows to take into account
the descent down to 1500 feet followed by 6 min IFR approach and landing.
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
JAR - FCL
FLIGHT PLA
CRUISE LEVEL
033-11226 B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
JAR - FCL
FLIGHT PL
CRUISE LEVEL
033-11238 A, 11241 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
INTERGRATED CRUISE
033-11239 A, 11240 A, 11243 A, 11244 A, 11245 A, 11259 A, 11260 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
JAR - FCL
FLIGHT PLANNING
FUEL TANKERING
FUEL TANKERING
GENERAL
Fuel tankering graphs allow to determine the Optimum fuel quantity to be tankered as a function of the
fuel price ratio between departure and destination airports. The following pages present for one flight
level per page the Optimum aircraft takeoff weight depending on the fuel price ratio (departure fuel
price divided by destination fuel price) and on the air distance to fly.
The computed optimum takeoff weight is based on the additional fuel consumption needed for the
transport of the extra (tankered) fuel and it is the weight at which the maximum profit can be achieved.
The quantity of extra fuel that can be loaded is calculated as the difference between the Optimum
takeoff weight (including extra fuel) and the planned takeoff weight {without fuel tankering).
Note:
1. ff necessary, step climbs are performed to reach the indicated flight levels.
2. The crew/operator has to verify that the found aircraft weight complies with basic aircraft limitations
(e.g. max fuel capacity) as well as with mission dependent restrictions (e.g. MLW at destination).
EXAMPLES
Check :
a) new TOW less or equal MTOW from departure airport.
b) total fuel to be loaded less or equal maximum fuel capacity.
c) MLW at destination
033-11239 B, 11240 B, 11243 B, 11244 B, 11245 B,11259 B, 11260 B
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
AR - FCL
FUEL TANKERING
033-11252 A, 11253 B, 11255 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
INTERGRATED CRUISE
033-11253 A, 11254 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
FLIGHT PLANNING
JAR - FCL
INTERGRATED CRUISE
033-11261 A, 11262 A, 12275 A - 12277 A, 12280 A, 12281 A, 12285 A, 12289 A
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
DATA SHEET
LRJT 1
This graph is used for conversion of nautical ground miles to nautical air mtles. (This is intended for use in
conjunctlon with the 'integrated ränge' tables). Enter graph with average TAS. Correct for wind component.
Move to ground distance atthe rightthen verticafly down to read corresponding air distance. For longer
distances than shown on the graph apply a factor of 10 to the tabulated values.
This chart allows the planner to optimise aeroplane performance by increasing the cruise altitude in 4000 ft.
steps in order to allow for the increase in optimum altitude as aeroplane weight decreases.
The graph is valid for altitudes with 'Step Climb' of 4000 ft. to 2000 ft above optimum altitude. The graph
provides trip fuel and time, at LRC or 0.74M, from brake release to touchdown. The method of use is the
same as that for the constant altitude charts except that the argument of 'brake release weight is used in
place of cruise 'pressure altitude'- see example on chart
5.4 Descent
These tables (Fig. 4.5.4) provide tabulations of time, fuel and distance for "flight idle" thrust at 0.74 mach/250
KIAS (economy) and 0.70 Mach/280 KIAS (turbulence penetration)
.74M/250 KIAS
.70M/280/250 KIAS
C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
033-FPLN
Lösungen
002.) Breathing 100% oxygen at 40000 ft is equivalent to breathing ambient air at:
a) 8 000 ft
b) 14 000 ft
c) 18 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
003.) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of
hypoxia be expected?
005.) At which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid
decompression ?
a) initially increased
b) raised leading to an increased tolerance to hypoxia
c) reduced giving a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes
d) unaffected
a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
c) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
d) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
010.) The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is:
a) 5%
b) 42%
c) 10,5%
d) 21%
a) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency
b) only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
c) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT
d) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heating is supplied by passing cabin
air over the exhaust manifold(s)
a) Plasma.
b) Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
c) White blood cells.
d) Blood fat.
a) carbon monoxide
b) oxygen
c) carbon dioxide
d) nitrogen
018.) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
020.) In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse
from the blood into the lungs?
a) Carbon monoxide.
b) Carbon dioxide.
c) Ambient air.
d) Oxygen.
a) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen pressure
gradient.
b) Oxygen is mainly transported in plasma.
c) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen
pressure.
d) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.
a) after decompression at high altitude and not using additional oxygen in time
b) if he/she is flying an unpressurised airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing
100 % oxygen
c) after decompression to 30 000 feet and using 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask
d) if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min
a) it is possible to predict when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in
b) carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency
c) sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person
d) you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia
a) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the haemoglobin to transport
oxygen
b) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases
c) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
d) too much carbon dioxide in the blood
031.) Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ?
032.) A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen
will pass the "critical threshold" at approximately:
a) 16 000 ft
b) 38 000 ft
c) 18 000 ft
d) 20 000 ft
033.) Breathing 100% will elevate the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:
a) 10 000
b) 45 000 ft
c) 22 000 ft
d) 40 000 ft
036.) Which of the following symptoms can mark the onset of hyperventilation?
037.) Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective
measure is:
038.) What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing.
2. Anxiety or fear.
3. Overstress.
4. Strong pain.
5. Jogging.
041.) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become
unconscious.
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
042.) Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:
a) 60000 FT
b) 45000 FT
c) 40000 FT
d) 80000 FT
045.) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of
Useful Consciousness). It
046.) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
approximately:
a) 45-60 seconds
b) 5-15 seconds
c) 60-90 seconds
d) 30-45 seconds
047.) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m
depth)
a) barotrauma
b) air-sickness
c) decompression sickness
d) hypoxia
049.) After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness) will be approximately:
a) 10-15 seconds
b) 30 -40 seconds
c) 3-4 minutes
d) 5 minutes or more
050.) You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression
sickness symptoms.
What should you do before flying ?
051.) Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth) is
forbidden because it:
054.) The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalise the pressure between the:
055.) Disruptions of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.)
are called:
a) barotrauma
b) hypoxia
c) hyperventilation
d) embolism
056.) Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestines can lead to:
a) barotitis
b) barosinusitis
c) decompression sickness
d) pressure pain or flatulence
a) Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the
middle ear
b) Increase rate of descent
c) Stop climbing, start descent
d) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the
mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw
a) is caused by differences in pressure between the sinus cavities and the outside air
pressure
b) only arises in flying and not in diving
c) is only caused by colds and their effects
d) is an irritation of the sinuses caused by the over-use of nasal sprays
059.) Even at normal cabin altitudes (i.e. around 8000 ft) you can get severe abdominal pain
and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks. The correct counter-
measure is:
062.) Which counter-measure can a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear?
065.) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur
a) skin only
b) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts
c) utriculus and sacculus
d) semicircular canals
067.) Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
a) an acute or chronic trauma to the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either
side of the eardrum
b) a dilatation of the Eustachian tube
c) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression
d) a bacterial infection of the middle ear
069.) The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor
coordination.
They
073.) What should a pilot do to optimise his/her night vision (scotopic vision)?
074.) During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments
because:
a) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and
instrument meteorological conditions
b) is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space
c) can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
d) can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space
077.) A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of
illusion could the pilot get?
078.) A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and
wider runway can lead to:
079.) The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long
period of time in the dark is called
a) "autokinesis"
b) "white out"
c) "oculogyral illusion"
d) "oculografic illusion"
a) 10 min
b) 30 min
c) 10 sec
d) 1/10 sec
081.) Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow,
darkness, haze)?
Under these conditions it is:
a) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.
b) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long
c) establishes a higher than normal approach speed
d) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out
083.) What illusion may occur if an aircraft is flying into fog, snow or haze?
084.) Adaptation is
a) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity
b) increase the time for dark adaptation
c) fit to the pilots individual taste
d) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields
088.) A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a
narrow runway, that he/she is at a:
091.) A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a
a) greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a compensatory glide path
and land long
b) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
c) compensatory glide path and stall out
d) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
093.) When assessing an individual's risk of developing coronary artery disease, the
following factors may contribute:
1.obesity
2.chronic stress
3.smoking
4.family history
a) at approximately 5000 FT
b) and causes hyperventilation
c) and causes the autokinetic phenomena
d) less than day vision
097.) What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?
101.) Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
103.) Which part of the ear could be affected by air pressure changes during climb and/or
descent?
a) The cochlea
b) The saccules and utricles
c) The semicircular canals
d) The Eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
a) The cochlea
b) The Eustachian tube
c) The semicircular canals
d) The sacculus and utriculus
105.) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear
acceleration?
106.) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the detection of angular
acceleration?
a) Endolymph
b) Ossicles
c) Semicircular canals
d) Otoliths
110.) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when
altitude is changed?
a) Eustachian tube
b) Cochlea
c) Tympanic membrane
d) External auditory canal
a) only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects are negligible
b) the side effects only have to be considered
c) medication has no influence on pilot´s performance
d) the primary and the side effects have to be considered
115.) How can a pilot overcome vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument
flight?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.
2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling.
3. Ignore arising illusions.
4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to "shake-off" illusions.
a) Only 4 is correct
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
116.) Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are
symptoms of
a) "Oculogravic illusion"
b) "Flicker-vertigo"
c) "Nystagmus"
d) "Pilot`s vertigo"
119.) What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s vertigo"?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.
2. Believe the instruments.
3. Ignore illusions.
4. Minimize head movements.
a) Rely on the information from the semicircular canals, since these will be transmitting
correct information
b) Believe the instruments
c) Concentrate on the vertical speed indicator
d) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe again normally
a) information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored
b) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs
c) the pilot is buckled tightly to his/her seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the
aircraft by the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
d) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions
123.) Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the
rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of
a) give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the aircraft
going down)
b) give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
c) give the illusion of banking
d) give the illusion of straight and level flight
a) Only 5 is false
b) 4 and 5 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
127.) Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause:
1. Drowsiness and dizziness
2. Hypoglycaemia
3. Hyperventilation
4. Flatulence
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
a) only 1
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3
a) Only 2 is false.
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
130.) Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term
and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:
131.) A pilot who smokes will lose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with
haemoglobin.
Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away
when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day?
a) 12 - 18%
b) 5 - 8%
c) 20 - 25%
d) 0.5 - 2%
132.) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has
an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude
a) Graham´s law
b) Boyle Mariotte´s law
c) Dalton´s law
d) Henry´s law
a) spatial disorientation
b) hypoxia
c) hypoglycaemia
d) hyperventilation
139.) One of the first effects to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial
accelerations is
a) red-vision
b) black-out
c) grey-out
d) loss of consciousness
141.) When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the
a) proprioceptive sensitivity
b) vision
c) sense of balance
d) cochlea
142.) The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which
develop a cancer) in cigarettes is
a) tar
b) nicotine
c) lead
d) carbon monoxide
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Tar
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbonic anhydride
144.) The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in
a) ear drum
b) external ear
c) inner ear
d) middle ear
146.) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
a) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss
b) pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic
membrane
d) gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum
147.) The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in
spatial disorientation occurs:
a) spin
b) turn
c) descent
d) climb
152.) The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies
a) 20000 - 40000 Hz
b) 0 - 16 Hz
c) 30 - 15000 dB
d) 16 - 20000 Hz
a) curies
b) decibels
c) hertz
d) cycles per second
a) stratosphere
b) troposphere
c) ionosphere
d) thermosphere
155.) The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at
a) 10 000 feet
b) 25 000 feet
c) 18 000 feet
d) 30 000 feet
156.) Which of the following laws explains bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in
body tissues due to a decrease in atmospheric pressure?
a) to transport oxygen
b) to contribute to the immune response of the organism
c) the cellular defence of the organism
d) to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood
159.) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not usually occur (indifferent
phase)
a) CNS-disturbances
b) loss of peripheral vision
c) pain in the joints
d) pain in the thorax and a cough
a) the Bends
b) the Chokes
c) red coloured cheeks and lips
d) neurological damages to the CNS
164.) When the optical image forms in front of the retina; this results in:
a) hypermetropia
b) astigmatism
c) myopia
d) presbyopia
166.) In order to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should:
a) be avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
b) triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
c) double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
d) double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
a) Regular exercise and reduction in calorie consumption are both essential in order to lose
weight
b) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight
is by reducing calorie consumption
c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose
weight
d) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
a) a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate
by decreasing the heart rate.
b) often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to
the direction in which the aircraft is turning
c) a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
hyperventilating.
d) a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues,
leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement
and slow reactions
169.) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
following symptoms:
170.) In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights
should be delayed
a) 24 hours
b) 36 hours after any scuba diving
c) 3 hours after non decompression diving
d) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made
171.) During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome
illusions is the:
174.) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
a) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing
difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain
and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
b) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in
hyperventilation
d) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it
increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is
swollen, gentle descents at high altitude would result in damage to the ear drum
a) Henry`s law
b) Dalton´s law
c) Graham´s law
d) Boyle Mariotte´s law
178.) Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is
exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
a) insidious
b) obvious
c) sudden
d) intense
a) Isothermy
b) Metastasis
c) Heterostasis
d) Homeostasis
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2,5
c) 2,3,4,5
d) 2,3,4
182.) Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual
system and the vestibular system ?
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects
-4: Illusions of rotation
a) 3,4
b) 1,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 2
a) 2,3,4
b) 2,3
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,4
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 1
d) 4
a) 1,2,3
b) 1
c) 2,4
d) 3
a) The retina
b) The cones
c) The rods
d) The crystalline lens
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,3
189.) The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 39°C:
a) nothing significant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to
appear at 39°C
b) impairment of physical and mental performance
c) apathy
d) considerable dehydration
190.) Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when exposed to
extreme high environmental temperatures?
-1: Shivering
-2: Vaso-constriction of peripheral blood vessels
-3: Sweating
-4: Vaso-dilation of peripheral blood vessels
a) 1
b) 3,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,3,4
191.) The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35°C:
194.) With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that:
195.) The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000
ft must:
a) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot
b) About 18 seconds
c) About 30 seconds
d) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
a) 3,4
b) 1,3
c) 1,2
d) 4
a) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available
b) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level)
c) Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders
d) An improvement of peripheral vision
a) 2,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,3
201.) Of the following alternatives, which effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
- 1: Decrease in heart rate
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
a) 1
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,3
a) 1,3,4
b) 2
c) 1,2,4
d) 2,3,4
205.) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
a) 1,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 2,3
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,3
c) 2,4
d) 2,3,4
210.) What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive
decompression?
211.) What is the approximate Time of Useful Consciousness for a seated pilot following a
rapid decompression at 35,000 ft ?
a) 3 seconds
b) 45 seconds
c) 12 seconds
d) 5 minutes
a) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's
capabilities
b) A condition resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids
after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude
c) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
d) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
aircraft
218.) The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at
sea level.
In accordance with this statement,
219.) You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft.
The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between:
a) disorientation
b) increased atmospheric pressure
c) accelerations
d) decreased atmospheric pressure
a) increases by expansion
b) decreases significantly with lower temperatures
c) decreases with decreasing barometric pressure
d) remains constant, independent from altitude
a) 21% oxygen
b) 10% oxygen
c) 15% oxygen
d) 5% oxygen
a) creeps
b) bends
c) altitude hypoxia
d) decompression sickness
a) decompression sickness
b) hyperventilation
c) diffusion
d) hypoxia
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,3
a) Information exchange
b) The generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues
c) Transfer of chemical messages
d) Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood
229.) One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is:
a) carbon dioxide
b) sugar
c) fat
d) protein
231.) Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) carbon monoxide
d) oxygen
a) gases
b) red blood cells
c) protein
d) platelets
a) 60 to 80 beats/min
b) 30 to 50 beats/min
c) 90 to 100 beats/min
d) 110 to 150 beats/min
a) 8 litres/min
b) 5 litres/min
c) 6 litres/min
d) 7 litres/min
240.) At rest the cardiac output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an
adult is approximately:
a) 75 litres/min
b) 5 litres/min
c) 45 litres/min
d) 450 ml/min
a) 180/120 mm Hg
b) 120/80 mm Hg
c) 80/20 mm Hg
d) 220/180 mm Hg
a) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
b) in the muscles of the upper arm
c) in the veins of the upper arm
d) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)
a) adrenal glands
b) pacemakers
c) arteriols
d) pressoreceptors
a) the lungs
b) the intestines
c) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels
d) the heart
249.) The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces.
a) decrease
b) first increase, then decrease
c) remain constant
d) increase
251.) During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:
253.) The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
a) 500 ml of air
b) 75 ml of air
c) 150 ml of air
d) 350 ml of air
254.) The primary factor in controlling the rate and depth of breathing is the:
255.) The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be described by:
a) Boyle's Law
b) Dalton's Law
c) the law of diffusion
d) Henry's Law
256.) The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:
a) Dalton's Law
b) the law of diffusion
c) Henry's Law
d) Boyles Law
258.) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the concentration of:
260.) Healthy people are usually capable of compensating for a lack of oxygen up to:
a) 20.000 feet
b) 10.000 - 12.000feet
c) 15.000 feet
d) 25.000 feet
267.) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
a) impaired judgement
b) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
c) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
d) cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
269.) Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
a) Hearing.
b) Motor coordination.
c) Speech.
d) Night vision.
271.) During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your visual acuity has decreased. In
this case you can increase your acuity by:
272.) During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms:
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
4. reduction of peripheral vision
Which is the possible cause?
a) Hypothermia.
b) Hypoglycaemia.
c) Glaucoma.
d) Hypoxia.
a) relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia
b) not exceeding a cabin pressure altitude of 20000 ft
c) swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
d) using additional oxygen when flying above 10000 ft
275.) A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because:
278.) If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need
a) controlling the rate and depth of breathing and/or breathing into a bag
b) depending on instruments
c) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
d) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide
281.) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The
intention is:
a) a lesser sensitivity
b) a greater selectivity
c) a greater sensitivity
d) a lesser selectivity
a) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying down
b) the condition of the body itself
c) a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
d) environmental stressors
a) reflex
b) change of stimulation level
c) control system
d) data processing
286.) The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
a) the cornea
b) the ciliary body
c) the lens
d) the pupil
a) accommodation
b) adaptation
c) depth perception
d) binocular vision
291.) Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:
1. anaemia
2. smoking in the cockpit
3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
292.) Glaucoma
1. can lead to total blindness
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
295.) Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use
the scanning technique, because
296.) The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
a) 10 seconds
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 25 - 30 minutes
297.) The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called:
a) the fovea
b) the cones and the rods
c) the cones
d) the rods
a) the cochlea
b) the otholiths
c) the receptors in the skin and the joints
d) the semi circular canals
a) angular speed
b) linear acceleration and gravity
c) constant speed only
d) angular acceleration
309.) Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:
a) pitching up
b) pitching down
c) vertigo
d) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
310.) Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:
a) spinning
b) descending
c) yawing
d) climbing
a) undergoing positive G
b) gazing in the direction of a flashing light
c) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
d) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age
312.) When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This
is a prevention against:
a) pressure vertigo
b) autokinesis
c) oculogyral illusion
d) coriolis illusion
313.) A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn,
experiences:
a) autokinetic illusion
b) pressure vertigo
c) coriolis illusion
d) barotrauma
a) ozone at altitude
b) flying over mountainous terrain
c) atmospheric perspective
d) lack of distant focal points
315.) When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark
he might get the illusion that:
318.) The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water,
jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking visual cues other than those of the
aerodrome there is an illusion of
319.) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport
(runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
320.) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway
width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
a) 1 is false, 2 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are false
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) 1 is correct, 2 is false
a) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the
time.
b) Tilt your head to the side to get better information from the semicircular canals.
c) Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.
d) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
324.) If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
a) shrink
b) be absorbed by tissues and blood
c) stay the same
d) expand
328.) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:
1. flatulence
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. vertigo
4. pain in the nasal sinuses
329.) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect?
a) bends
b) pain in the sinuses
c) hypoxia
d) chokes
a) leans
b) chokes
c) creeps
d) bends
332.) The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are
called:
a) creeps
b) chokes
c) leans
d) bends
333.) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
a) leans
b) creeps
c) bends
d) chokes
334.) Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints.
Which of following answers is correct?
337.) In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:
338.) The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression
sickness:
1. climb to higher level
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible
3. breathe 100 % oxygen
4. obtain medical advice about recompression after landing
a) only 3 is correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
340.) Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness
would be about:
a) 10 to 12 minutes
b) 3 to 5 minutes
c) 5 to 10 minutes
d) between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
341.) After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:
a) 5 minutes.
b) 30 to 60 seconds
c) 15 seconds or less
d) 10 minutes.
342.) After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time
before flying again. This period is at least:
a) 6 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 12 hours
a) hypoxia
b) stress
c) decompression sickness without having a decompression
d) hyperventilation
a) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.
b) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
c) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
d) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.
346.) Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is
because:
a) haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
b) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract
c) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
d) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
a) more acid
b) more alkaline
c) less saturated with oxygen
d) more saturated with carbon dioxide
a) ozone-converters
b) climbing to altitudes above 45,000 ft
c) avoiding flights along the equator
d) spraying detergents
354.) The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to:
a) inspiration
b) changes in atmospheric pressure
c) physical exercise
d) diffusion
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1 and 3
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
a) Oxygen.
b) Carbon dioxide.
c) Sodium.
d) Nitrogen.
a) Interconnnection.
b) Occlusion.
c) Synapse.
d) By-pass.
a) Hearing.
b) Motor co-ordination.
c) Touch.
d) Night vision.
367.) The dry atmosphere of the flight deck may cause dehydration, which may lead to a
reduction in the ability to pay attention. To prevent this, it is appropriate to:
a) 250 mg/day
b) 40-65 mg/day
c) 3 mg/day
d) 150 mg/day
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 5 minutes
b) 1 second
c) 1 minute
d) 20 seconds
372.) Night vision is significantly reduced (i.e. a loss of more than 25%) at 15,000 FT in
which stage of hypoxia?
a) Anaemic phase
b) Clinical manifestation phase
c) Compensatory
d) Indifferent
373.) When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical
stress?
a) By intense vasoconstriction.
b) By increasing cardiac frequency.
c) By speeding up the metabolic rate in the Autonomic Nervous System.
d) By vasodilatation which permits a greater flow of blood to the periphery.
a) 20,000 FT
b) 10,000 FT
c) 25,000 FT
d) 30,000 FT
375.) By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be
balanced?
a) By breathing out.
b) By swallowing.
c) By coughing.
d) By breathing in.
377.) The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate, etc., over which there is
no voluntary control, is:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 only
a) you close your eyes for a moment so that the oculo-vestibular conflict disappears
b) you avoid head movements and rely on your instruments
c) you rely on your sensations only, as humans are much more reliable than flight
instruments
d) you tilt your head to the side opposite to the turn to nullify the stimulus causing the
illusion
390.) When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of:
391.) A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is on the
correct glidepath:
a) is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective
for objects that are further away
b) is impossible with only one eye
c) is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasses
d) is possible at only at distances over 200 m due to binocular vision
394.) When suffering from Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately
at:
a) 12,000 ft
b) 18,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft
d) 25,000 ft
395.) Haemoglobin has an affinity for carbon monoxide of ...............times over oxygen
a) 500 - 1,000
b) 50 - 75
c) 5 - 10
d) 210 - 250
a) A lack of accommodation
b) A lack of empty field
c) A mis-shapened cornea
d) A lack of vitamin A
a) A mis-shapened cornea
b) A clouding of the lens
c) A lack of accommodation at the cornea
d) Lack of mobility of the cornea
a) Vitamin pills
b) Eating plenty of meat and vegetables
c) A balanced diet
d) Dairy products and vegetables
405.) Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100ml take to return to
normal ?
a) 12 hours
b) 20 hours
c) 1 hour
d) 4 hours
a) Insect bites
b) Food or water which has been contaminated
c) Bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin
d) Droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person
a) 55,000 ft
b) 40,000 ft
c) 49,000 ft
d) 45,000 ft
a) Is unaffected by altitude
b) Decreases with altitude
c) Increases with altitude
d) Remains steady up to 49,000 ft and thereafter increases
a) Memory impairment
b) Gastric bleeding
c) Sensory loss
d) Fits
414.) Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are:
415.) The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:
419.) Below 70,000 ft., what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere ?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Ozone
d) Carbon dioxide
001.) The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
a) about 7 items
b) about 30 items
c) very limited - only 3 items
d) unlimited
002.) Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time
measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the third day?
005.) In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian
rhythms require
a) selective attention
b) the recognition of information
c) sensory stimulation
d) perception
009.) Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and
understood ?
a) Feedback.
b) Coding.
c) Encoding.
d) Synchronization.
a) feedback
b) redundancy
c) transference
d) synchronization
a) 1 hour
b) 5 minutes
c) a couple of days
d) 20 seconds
a) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world
b) the tendency not to perceive relevant information
c) the ability to drink too much at social gathering
d) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
022.) A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological
consequence is most likely?
a) His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have tobe
incorporated.
b) His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as acaptain.
c) An upgrading never has psychological consequences.
d) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
028.) 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently
exercised
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft
type, even if it is inappropriate to do so
3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills
029.) A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a
way, that
a) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced as a consequence of 'being out of
the loop'
b) it is guaranteed that the crew always maintains situational awareness
c) Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromising safety
d) the crew can pay more attention to problem-solving in an abnormal situation without
monitoring the automatic systems
a) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible
b) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
c) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
d) make up his mind before consulting other crew members
034.) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably
036.) Doing a general briefing in the pre-flight phase the captain should emphasize
037.) During the pre-flight phase in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the
one hand is rather inexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly
motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviouris is most appropriate?
a) The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailed instructions what to do
b) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to
keep him informed about his decisions
c) The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
d) The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him to ask for support
038.) A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with conflict
by:
a) trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
b) deciding what to do and pushes his own opinion through
c) trying to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re-establish a pleasant
and friendly atmosphere within the team
d) keeping a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
a) both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
b) both pilots wearing the same uniform
c) both pilots flying together very often for a long period
d) both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
042.) During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette
in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-
smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking. What
should the copilot do?
044.) If the co-pilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the Captain, he/she should:
a) point out the problem, concentrate on his/her duties and clarify the matter at a more
appropriate time
b) speak up and point out the possible consequences if the unfair behaviour pesists
c) internally retire and think positive
d) freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4
049.) How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?
a) is unlimited in size
b) is unlimited in duration
c) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its contents
d) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot
055.) Motivation is an important attribute which contributes to flight safety. Which of the
following statements is correct with regards to motivation?
057.) Human errors are frequent and may take several forms:
a) an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of
his/her actions
b) all errors are avoidable through continuous and thorough training
c) a violation is an error which is always involuntary
d) representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is
familiar with the procedure
a) flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this
deficiency
b) task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one
c) experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that
routine causes mistakes
d) inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same
task
061.) Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:
a) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge
b) Human errors are now considered as being inevitable
c) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
d) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
a) Word order is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered are important.
b) Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to
minimize misunderstandings.
c) Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances
d) Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.
a) 1,3,4,6
b) 2,3,5,6
c) 1,2,5
d) 3,4,5
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 2,3,4
069.) What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?
-1: increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.
-2: an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose.
-3: a decrease in stress resistance.
-4: activation of the digestive system.
-5: secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
c) 2,4,5
d) 1,3,5
a) 2, 3
b) 1,2
c) 1,2,4
d) 3,4
a) the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available
b) the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it
c) the evaluation of the situation and the state of fatigue of the individual
d) the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment
073.) Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?
-1: noise.
-2: conflict.
-3: temperature.
-4: an administrative problem.
-5: hunger.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 3,4,5
b) 1,3,4
c) 1,3,5
d) 2,3,5
a) All external stimuli are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium
b) A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
c) An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as being stressful
d) The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
078.) With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that
age:
a) has little impact since normally the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight
experience
b) sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilities
c) increases in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate
d) has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
082.) Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct?
-1 If the sender perceives that the receiver is incompetent, he/she will increase the
length of the message
-2 If the receiver is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by
using more complicated words so as to optimize understanding
-3 If the sender considers the receiver incompetent, he/she tends to simplify the
content of the sentences
-4 It is much safer to fly with a crew who know each other well because
communication will always be excellent.
The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc.
are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload
b) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in
progress
c) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high
workload element to be carried out at the same time
d) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to
limit their number
085.) What are the communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must:
-1: contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible.
-2: be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type.
-3: be short and precise.
-4: be understandable to the other crew member(s).
The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) All the items of a check list are equally important; their sequence is of no importance
b) The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to
be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
c) The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention
is usually focused here
d) The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be
kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
087.) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check
list? -1: The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts.
-2: The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list.
-3: Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with
other tasks.
-4: Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied.
-5: Use should be made of upper case/"bold"/italics/colour with care to emphasize
critical items or points. The combination of correct statements is:
088.) The use of check lists should be carried out in such a way that:
089.) According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the
following type(s):
a) creative errors
b) handling errors
c) errors of technical knowledge
d) routine errors
a) routine errors
b) creative errors
c) handling errors
d) knowledge errors
091.) In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:
-1: know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on
the crew.
-2: divide up tasks among the crew.
-3: ensure that the long-term memory is used as much as possible as short term
memory will add to the stress.
-4: drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.
a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time
b) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time
c) are virtually unlimited
d) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
a) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free
his/her cognitive resources
b) knows how to off-load all his/her resources to the automation of tasks
c) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight
d) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight
095.) With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?
a) It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the
ICAO.
b) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective
management of any flight's communication.
c) The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official
aeronautical language of the destination country.
d) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language.
096.) Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error? Active
error is:
097.) What are the main consequences of latent errors? They: -1: remain undetected in the
system for a certain length of time. -2: may only manifest themselves under certain
conditions. -3: are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental
schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors. -4: lull pilots into a
false sense of security The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
a) have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to identify as
a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error
b) are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and
detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links
c) rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress
d) are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected
after advanced problem-solving
099.) To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at the minimum to
101.) Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism?
-1: It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what
error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is
made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.
-2: If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be
possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc.
-3: It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our
actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better
will be our means for detecting and reducing future errors.
-4: Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of
procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the
future.
The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 4
103.) Concerning the relationship between performance and stress, which of the following
statements is correct?
a) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this
type of stress on the ground.
b) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.
c) A well trained pilot is able to eliminate any kind of stress completely when he is
scheduled to fly.
d) A moderate level of stress may improve performance.
104.) Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following
circumstances does it occur?
1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does
notimmediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed
theirindividual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for
theproblem he/she faces.
107.) Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
110.) Which of the following responses is an example of "habit reversion" (negative habit
transfer):
a) A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward
for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when
flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position
b) Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions
c) Turning the aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right
d) habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items
are on the same line
111.) Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it
can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the
response below which could lead to such a hazard:
112.) With regards to stress, as it affects human beings, which of the folowing statements
is correct?
114.) The trend in aeroplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related
to:
a) the manufacturer
b) the year of manufacture
c) the number of engines
d) the crew
a) are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the top-ten items should
be avoided by every means
b) seem to be the same for most pilots
c) differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors
d) do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters
themselves
116.) What aircraft equipment marked a substantial decrease in hull loss rates in the
eighties?
a) SSR
b) DME
c) GPWS
d) TCAS
117.) One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in:
a) 1 in 100000 times
b) 1 in 1000 times
c) 1 in 100 times
d) 1 in 10000 times
119.) Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot
misinterpretation of the old three-point altimeter?
a) Liveware - Software
b) Liveware - Liveware
c) Liveware - Environment
d) Liveware - Hardware
120.) The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system in an operations manual are
related to an interface mismatch between
a) Liveware - Hardware
b) Liveware - Software
c) Liveware - Liveware
d) Liveware - Environment
a) is always negative
b) is always beneficial
c) is never negative
d) can both be beneficial and negative
a) 2. and 3.
b) 1. and 2.
c) 1. and 3.
d) 3.
a) Response to a particular stressful influence does not vary from one person to another.
b) Performance is totally independent of motivation.
c) Expectation has no influence on perception.
d) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or
later, it will be.
a) 3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,4
d) 1,2
128.) Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic
systems than by people ?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g. holding of
flightpath)
4. Qualitative decision-making
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3,4
c) 3,4
d) 2,4
a) the need for communication between crew members has been decreased
b) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine
relations
c) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew
members
d) it is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice versa
a) 1,2
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,3
d) 1,4
131.) Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. Keep active open communication between man and machine
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
a) 1,3
b) 3,4
c) 1,2
d) 1,4
a) 2 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 1 and 3
a) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed
b) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
c) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
d) The management of several matters of interest dealt with individually one after the other
135.) What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)
?
1. The monotony of the task
2. Tiredness and the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation
4. Excessive stress
a) 1,3
b) 2,4
c) 3,4
d) 1,2,3
a) Excessive motivation in combination with high levels of stress will limit attention
management capabilities
b) Motivation will reduce risk
c) Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities
d) Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention
137.) Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have
on attention?
a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attention
inappropriately
b) It activates resources stored in memory
c) It reduces vigilance and focuses attention
d) It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
139.) The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result
in:
a) decision-making errors
b) routine errors (slips)
c) mistakes
d) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
140.) What is the main adverse effect of expectation with regards to perception?
a) Expectation often guides the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible
alternates are neglected
b) Expectation is a tool that allows capture of all relevant information
c) Expectations always lead to routine errors
d) The attention area is enlarged by expectation, however it will therefore lead to
uncertainties when a pilot is looking for a decision
a) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees
resources
b) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees
resources
c) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees
resources
d) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the
more it frees mental resources
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
a) 2,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,4
a) 2,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,4
d) 1,3,4
a) The egoistic and self-centered personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic
cockpit
b) Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing
while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is
going on
c) While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's
synergy
d) The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes
charge of a situation
a) The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to
tension between the various crew members
b) The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
c) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew
members
d) Each member carries out actions and makes choices informing the other members about
them
153.) What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ?
a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing
delayed responses or aggression
b) Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation
and efficiency
c) High group performance despite the strained relations
d) A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is unassertive
a) Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief
that everyone is aware of what he is doing
b) The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the
various members of the crew
c) Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to
his natural leadership
d) The captain's excessive authority considerably reduces communications and consequently
the synergy and cohesion of the crew
a) 1
b) 2,3
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2
a) While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals,
status defines the hierarchical position and its recognition by the group
b) While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the
group, status defines - via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals
c) Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew
d) Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew
a) are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated
with them
b) Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or
a situation
c) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
d) form part of personality and, as a result, cannot be changed in an adult
a) 2,3
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,4
a) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of
involved parties
b) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities
of one of the involved parties
c) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an
acceptable collective solution
d) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional
party if it is to be effective
161.) Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make a rushed
decision ?
a) analysis of the current actual situation and instead applying a decision prepared
beforehand
b) the skills of air traffic controllers
c) the captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
d) the need to take account of every possible result or outcome
163.) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of stress?
a) 1,2
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,2,4
d) 3,4
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
a) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced
with a defined problem
b) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a
given problem
c) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem
d) an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures
a) 4
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 1,2,4
d) 1,3
a) 3,4
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,2
a) Homeostasis
b) Homeothermy
c) Heterostasis
d) Poikilothermy
a) 1,2 ,3
b) 2,4
c) 2 ,3
d) 1,3 ,4
a) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit
philosophies
b) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to
maintain maximum synergy
c) be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
aircraft
d) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
a) the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system
b) the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system
c) the pilot's knowledge
d) the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 2, 3,4
d) 1,2
181.) General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases: -1: alarm -2:
alert phase -3: resistance phase -4: exhaustion phase -5: vigilance phase
a) 1,2,4,5
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,3,4
d) 2,3,4,5
a) 1,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 1,3
d) 2,3
183.) In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which
you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving
is called:
a) 3
b) 2,4
c) 1
d) 3,4
a) the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
b) the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
c) decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew
members
d) decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
members
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 3,4
d) 1
a) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for
storing and retaining data
b) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the
time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity
c) it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance
d) it stores mainly procedural knowledge (skills)
192.) Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?
-1: Information is stored in the Semantic, Episodic and Procedural memories.
-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency
with which this same information is used.
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.
-4: Ease and speed of access is dependent upon, to a large extent, the frequency with
which the information is recalled.
a) 12 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 1.5 hours
d) 25 hours
a) 1 is false, 2 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
c) 1 and 2 are false
d) 1 is correct, 2 is false
201.) A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a) coping stress
b) distress
c) eustress
d) stressors
203.) The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This
mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General
Adaptation Syndrome". The sequence is:
204.) According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrome" which of the
following statement/s is/are correct?
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a
massiverelease of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure
as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type
ofhormone (cortisol) assisting for the conversion of fat into sugar.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the
wasteproducts which have been generated excessively during the two preceding
phases.
205.) If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
a) adaptation
b) hypoxia
c) distress
d) eustress
a) depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational
demands
b) depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the
perceived demands
c) depends on self-confidence alone
d) does not depend on his capacity to absorb information
208.) An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense
and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
a) 1 is correct, 2 is false
b) 1 is false, 2 is correct
c) 1 and 2 are both correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false
211.) The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of
the landing is:
212.) The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a critical
situation
a) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway
b) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
c) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world
a) very rare
b) not applicable with old and experienced pilots
c) not usual
d) not possible since correct training should have eliminated this problem
216.) The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or standard
behaviour of an individual is known as:
a) learning
b) development
c) heredity
d) personality
217.) The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the following
factors could contribute to human error?
1. Personality.
2. Motivation and attitudes.
3. Emotional state.
4. External environmental factors.Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) organisational factors.
b) ergonomic factors.
c) psychobiological factors.
d) social factors.
219.) Organisational factors which affect or may have some influence on human error are:
1. malfunction of technical systems.
2. fuel-saving policies.
3. rostering.
4. weather phenomena.Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
a) an authoritarian style
b) a "laissez-faire" style
c) an anarchic style
d) a democratic style
221.) In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the readjustment to a new time zone:
a) north-south flights
b) eastbound flights
c) westbound flights
d) south-north flights
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
227.) A pilot experiences difficulties in the control of his aircraft and consequently omits to
monitor the fuel level. This is caused by:
228.) A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot has not
been through flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the engineer as to the
amount of fuel to be loaded, since he is used to flying this route. This behaviour
results from:
a) must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to
co-ordinate actions
b) is not necessary when departing from home base because this is routine
c) is not necessary if the crew members know each other
d) is not required unless both crew members agree it is essential
231.) Planning:
a) in the cockpit typically results in plans that are always easy to modify when things are not
as anticipated
b) allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on possible
responses
c) is dangerous in the cockpit, as it interrupts flight crew creativity
d) is unnecessary in the cockpit, as crew members are so highly trained, they will always
know what to do in unusual situations
a) is characterised by the secretion of adrenalin, increased heart rate and blood pressure
b) allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilization of energy
in the body
c) may cause a person to die by stopping the defence mechanisms of the body
d) is very short duration and is unlikely to give a pilot the opportunity to resolve a problem
a) 6 hours
b) 36 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 25 hours
a) prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of possible problems
b) seeks complex solutions to problems, thus using his capacities up to 100%
c) functions exclusively in a reactive manner, as it is not resource-consuming
d) avoids using automated systems as his experience allows him to perform all tasks
manually
a) maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past
experiences
b) forget about bad past experiences
c) drop activities outside work so as to focus on his work better
d) avoid anticipating events during a flight to manage his workload
237.) The distribution of primary causes of accidents in the worldwide jet aircraft
commercial fleet shows that human error is involved in:
239.) Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are:
a) Glucose level
b) Heart rate
c) Body temperature
d) Blood pressure
a) 90
b) 60
c) 120
d) 180
a) No adjustment is necessary
b) Stay on home time and, on arrival, move to the new time
c) Stay on home time
d) Move to the new time as soon as possible
a) Hardware
b) Check lists
c) Vertigo
d) Automation
a) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is not adaptable.
b) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is adaptable.
c) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is adaptable.
d) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is not adaptable.
a) negative
b) positive and far-reaching
c) popular and positive
d) positive
a) Success
b) Personal advancement
c) Difficulty
d) Achievement
a) Stressful
b) Confrontational
c) Having negative influence on the group and are not to be encouraged
d) Helpful
a) Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing
b) Explain the reasons for the decision only if asked
c) As the leader of the crew, never need explain the reasons behind the decision
d) Explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air
a) Under-worked
b) A good leader
c) Efficient
d) Over-loaded
a) Cohesive
b) Co-operative
c) Synergistic
d) Communicative
257.) A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL Concept of:
a) L and L
b) L and S
c) L and H
d) L and E
258.) The choice of words and their packaging become more important in the cockpit of an
aircraft because:
a) Packaging of sentences
b) Workload and interruptions
c) Packaging of words
d) Packaging of phrases
a) Intermediate-personal conflict
b) Intra-personal conflict
c) Inter-personal conflict
d) Intro-personal conflict
a) 80%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 30%
263.) Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of two, good
synergy is:
a) 1-1=>2
b) 1+1=>2
c) 1+1=<2
d) 1 +/- 1 = < 2
a) the pilot should only attempt a landing at the same aerodrome if the conditions are
improved
b) the same stress level as the first landing
c) a higher level of stress
d) a lower level of stress
a) When the pilot perceives the situation both inside and outside the aircraft
b) When the pilot perceives the instant and immediate situation both inside and outside the
cockpit
c) When a pilot's perception equals reality
d) When a pilot is sure that the situation both inside and outside the aircraft is correct
267.) Having interrupted the Captain for a sound reason, the co-pilot should:
268.) An unnoticed way-point error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of:
a) Active failure/error
b) Pro-active failure/error
c) Latent failure/error
d) Re-active failure/error
a) Error-prone
b) Vulnerable
c) Error tolerant
d) Corrupted
a) cognition
b) the human/workplace interface
c) communications
d) information processing
272.) The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress:
a) Cockpit entity
b) Cockpit synergy
c) Cockpit cohesion
d) Cockpit communications
a) Deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that has been
passed to him/her
b) Double-check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are passing to yourmap
c) Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis
d) Precise and careful pre-flight briefings
275.) Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called:
a) Sensory strength
b) Sensory filter
c) Sensory threshold
d) Sensory volume
a) Imagination
b) Stereopsis
c) 3-D vision
d) Past experience and learning
278.) In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface between
flight crew and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this concept called
and the names of those elements involved ?
a) Aircrew
b) Aircrew and GroundCrew
c) Everyone involved
d) Management, Aircrew, Groundcrew and ATC
001.) How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern
hemisphere?
002.) What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
a) 11 km
b) 8 km
c) 16 km
d) 40 km
a) Stratosphere.
b) Troposphere.
c) Tropopause.
d) Stratopause.
004.) At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
005.) Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO
Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
a) -273°C
b) -44.7°C
c) -56.5°C
d) -100°C
007.) In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
a) FL 50.
b) FL 390.
c) FL 300.
d) FL 100.
009.) What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa
at an altitude of 5500 m ?
a) 8 m (27 FT).
b) 64 m (210 FT).
c) 32 m (105 FT).
d) 15 m (50 FT).
010.) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
a) 1.5°C/1000 FT
b) 2.0°C/1000 FT
c) 3.0°C/1000 FT
d) 3.5°C/1000 FT
013.) A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then
returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
015.) The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied ?
a) -18°C.
b) -9°C.
c) -15°C.
d) -6°C.
a) 6240 FT.
b) 5900 FT.
c) 5760 FT.
d) 6000 FT.
a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
b) Heating of the air by subsidence
c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
d) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
018.) At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the
Significant Weather Chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
a) -58°C.
b) -54°C.
c) -50°C.
d) -56,5°C.
019.) What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
a) Ionosphere.
b) Atmosphere.
c) Tropopause.
d) Stratosphere.
a) 850 hPa.
b) 300 hPa.
c) 500 hPa.
d) 700 hPa.
a) The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.
b) The freezing level (danger of icing).
c) The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the
same.
d) The temperature at which ice melts.
027.) The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this
air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a) does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains
constant.
b) is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
c) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
d) is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
029.) How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by
temperature changes?
030.) How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with
varying temperature?
a) When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains
constant.
b) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
c) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
d) When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
032.) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were
measured. What temperature change must at least occur during the night in order to
induce saturation?
033.) Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)?
035.) Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
a) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C into air with a
temperature above 0°C.
b) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is falling.
c) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
d) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0°C.
a) Hail.
b) Heavy rain with large drops.
c) Moderate rain with large drops.
d) Drizzle.
037.) Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
a) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.
b) Occlusions.
c) Frontal zones.
d) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.
038.) Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
a) Unstable air.
b) The release of latent heat.
c) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.
d) Convection during the day.
039.) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU
and CB clouds?
a) Convection.
b) Subsidence.
c) Radiation.
d) Frontal lifting within stable layers.
a) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
b) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
c) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
d) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
a) SC, NS.
b) CU, CB.
c) CI, SC.
d) ST, CS.
042.) Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate
regions ?
a) AS, AC.
b) SC, NS
c) CI, CC.
d) CS, ST.
a) 3.
b) 2.
c) 4.
d) 1.
044.) What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
a) Ice crystals.
b) Water droplets.
c) Supercooled water droplets.
d) Water vapour.
045.) A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea
level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what
height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) Stratus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Altocumulus.
d) Cirrus.
047.) Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation ?
a) SC.
b) NS.
c) CS.
d) ST.
048.) What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
a) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of
control momentarily.
b) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all
times.
c) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
altitude or attitude.
d) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
a) Severe.
b) Moderate.
c) Light.
d) Violent.
052.) For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan
wind?
a) Thunderstorms.
b) Dust and poor visibility.
c) Hail.
d) Sand up to FL 150.
053.) What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic
coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
a) Scirocco.
b) Mistral.
c) Bora.
d) Ghibli.
a) Land to sea.
b) Variable.
c) Sea to land.
d) Parallel to the coastline.
057.) Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are south-westerly while most
of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between
these two wind directions?
058.) Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
059.) Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift.
What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
a) -35°C.
b) -55°C.
c) -25°C.
d) -75°C.
061.) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
a) Warm depression.
b) Cold low.
c) Warm high.
d) Cold high.
062.) In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a
high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
063.) What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a
cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
064.) You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, the wind is 180°, and intend to land at an airport, at
sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the
surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
a) South.
b) Southwest.
c) South-southeast.
d) South-southwest.
a) The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.
b) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.
c) The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.
d) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air.
066.) Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
a) Southern France.
b) The southern Balkan region and the Near East.
c) Southern Italy.
d) The Azores region.
a) Siberian landmass.
b) The region of Azores.
c) Polar ice cap.
d) The region of the British Isles.
069.) With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a) Cumulonimbus.
b) Stratus.
c) Stratocumulus.
d) Nimbostratus.
a) At sunset.
b) Shortly after midnight.
c) Late evening.
d) Shortly after sunrise.
a) 5 000 FT.
b) 2 000 FT.
c) 10 000 FT.
d) 500 FT.
072.) Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
073.) What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe
when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
074.) Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching
an active warm front at medium to low level ?
a) A strong downdraught.
b) Increasing temperatures.
c) Strong, gusty winds.
d) Decreasing temperatures.
076.) What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass
overrides a cold air mass?
a) Altostratus.
b) Nimbostratus.
c) Cumulonimbus.
d) Cumulus.
a) 1/300
b) 1/150
c) 1/50
d) 1/500
078.) What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
079.) In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal depression
move?
a) Warm front.
b) Cold front.
c) Cold occlusion.
d) Warm occlusion.
082.) Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a
depression during winter?
083.) What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
084.) What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime
air, during a summer afternoon in western Europe ?
086.) In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most
likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
a) 8° - 12°S.
b) 0° - 7°N.
c) 3° - 8°S.
d) 7° - 12°N.
087.) What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a) Fog.
b) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.
c) Sandstorms.
d) Stratus clouds and drizzle.
088.) After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the
cold air, what will you encounter at FL 50, in the northern hemisphere immediately
after a marked change in temperature?
a) The zone where the Harmattan meets the north-easterly trade winds over Africa.
b) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
c) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern
hemisphere.
d) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
091.) What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?
092.) During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
a) All seasons.
b) Winter.
c) Summer and autumn.
d) Winter and spring.
093.) What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
a) Subsidence.
b) Convection.
c) Convergence.
d) Advection.
096.) What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land
in the winter?
097.) In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the
summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?
a) CB, TS.
b) TS, SH.
c) Calm winds, haze.
d) NS.
098.) At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east
generally at their most southerly position?
a) Spring.
b) Autumn.
c) Summer.
d) Winter.
099.) What is the relationship between visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog?
101.) You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150
through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?
102.) You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a fine and hot summer day.
What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a) Mid-day.
b) Morning.
c) Afternoon.
d) Early evening.
103.) At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
a) Winter.
b) Autumn, winter.
c) Spring, summer.
d) Summer, autumn.
104.) In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm
updrafts?
a) Around midnight.
b) Early morning.
c) Mid - afternoon.
d) Late morning.
108.) Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with strong
winds from the south (Foehn)?
a) Frontal weather.
b) Clear skies.
c) Thunderstorms and rain.
d) Continuous rain.
a) 1 - 2 oktas.
b) 5 - 7 oktas.
c) 8 oktas.
d) 3 - 4 oktas.
113.) How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?
116.) On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a
jetstream?
a) Surface chart.
b) Upper air chart.
c) Wind / temperature chart.
d) Significant weather chart.
117.) What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250?
a) By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts,
while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather
Chart.
b) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.
c) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts.
d) By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart.
118.) Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
a) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.
b) The tropopause is always at the same height.
c) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very low and therefore not
important.
d) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.
a) 60 minutes.
b) 120 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
120.) How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
a) FRQ CB.
b) OCNL CB.
c) EMBD CB.
d) ISOL CB.
a) number 3
b) number 1
c) number 2
d) number 4
a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2
a) Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart ? (Spacing of the
b) isobars: 5 hPa)
c) Warm south wind condition (Foehn).
d) Cutting wind.
West wind condition.
Uniform pressure pattern.
a) Track C-A
b) Track B-C
c) Track B-A
d) Track D-A
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
a) Position 4
b) Position 3
c) Position 1
d) Position 2
a) Polar maritime.
b) Tropical continental.
c) Polar continental.
d) Tropical maritime.
129.) Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
a) Altostratus
b) Cirrostratus
c) Altocumulus
d) Cumulonimbus
131.) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature
of -6° C?
a) FL 20
b) FL 100
c) FL 80
d) FL 110
132.) What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
134.) At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe
altitude?
135.) What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
a) FL 200
b) FL 300
c) FL 400
d) FL 500
138.) A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects.
Which of the following changes ?
a) Absolute humidity
b) Mixing ratio
c) Specific humidity
d) Relative humidity
a) Gas to liquid
b) Solid to liquid
c) Liquid to gas
d) Solid to gas
140.) How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally
behind jet aircraft ?
141.) What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS and AS cloud
coverage?
a) Sinking
b) Convection process
c) Radiation
d) Lifting
a) ST
b) AS
c) CS
d) CC
143.) In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to
be encountered?
a) In Nimbostratus cloud
b) Below the freezing level in clear air
c) Within cloud of any type
d) In clear air above the freezing level
144.) What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
145.) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
146.) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog
(arctic smoke)?
a) CB
b) NS
c) CS
d) AC
149.) In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ?
a) Black Sea
b) Region of British Isles
c) Baltic Sea
d) East of Greenland
a) Drizzle
b) Light to moderate continuous rain
c) Freezing rain
d) Showers associated with thunderstorms
153.) What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front ?
154.) What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over
Central Europe in the summer ?
a) Sky clear
b) BKN CU and CB
c) ST with drizzle
d) Fair weather CU
a) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
b) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
c) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
d) The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
a) Winter
b) Winter and spring
c) Summer
d) Autumn and winter
a) A drop in pressure
b) Approximately constant pressure
c) A rise in pressure
d) Irregular fluctuations
159.) What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
a) Instability
b) Sinking air
c) Rising air
d) Divergence at higher levels
160.) On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
greatest?
a) W coast
b) SE coast
c) N coast
d) NE coast
163.) Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
164.) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
a) N
b) SW
c) NE
d) SE
165.) What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from
south?
166.) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in
a CB?
169.) What is the approximate maximum diameter of a the area affected by damaging winds
at the surface caused by a microburst ?
a) 400 m
b) 4 km
c) 50 km
d) 20 km
a) the same
b) in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km
c) less
d) greater
a) Symbol 1
b) Symbol 3
c) Symbol 4
d) Symbol 2
a) No report received
b) Not signed by the meteorologist
c) No weather related problems
d) No significant changes
176.) In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions
on the runway?
a) GAFOR
b) METAR
c) SIGMET
d) TAF
178.) Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
179.) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG
12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
180.) Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong
clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?
a) LEMD
b) LFPO
c) EDDL
d) LOWW
a) LSZH
b) ENFB
c) ESSA
d) EFHK
a) FL 330
b) FL 300
c) FL 150
d) FL 280
a) FL 360
b) FL 340
c) FL 160
d) FL 220
a) FL 160
b) FL 220
c) FL 320
d) FL 140
a) FL 350
b) FL 360
c) FL 320
d) FL 300
a) 500 m
b) 500 FT
c) 800 FT
d) 250 FT
a) FL 180
b) FL 320
c) FL 260
d) FL 140
a) FL 300
b) FL 280
c) FL 360
d) FL 330
a) Position A, FL 200.
b) Position B, FL 270.
c) Position D, FL 290.
d) Position C, FL 200.
a) FL 240
b) FL 300
c) FL 350
d) FL 330
a) 220/60
b) 040/60
c) 160/90
d) 250/80
a) -45°C
b) -57°C
c) -39°C
d) -33°C
a) Warm occlusion
b) Warm front
c) Cold occlusion
d) Cold front
199.) Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on
the approach to Bordeaux ?
TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT
8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
200.) Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted
visibility forecast ?
TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT
8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
a) 10 NM
b) 8 km
c) 8 NM
d) 10 or more km
a) 240/20
b) 190/40
c) 030/40
d) 210/40
a) -25°C
b) -23°C
c) -19°C
d) -15°C
a) ISA -2°C
b) ISA +2°C
c) ISA +13°C
d) ISA -13°C
a) 25 kt
b) 15 kt
c) 30 kt
d) 10 kt
206.) Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface
wind is forecast ?
TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT
SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000
NSW BKN020 =
a) 140° / 10 kt
b) 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
c) 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
d) 250° / 20 kt
207.) Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility
forecast for ETA Amsterdam ?
TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT
SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000
NSW BKN020 =
a) 6 km
b) 5 km
c) 5 NM
d) 3 km
a) Individual cumulonimbus
b) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
c) Scattered towering cumulus
d) Scattered castellanus
a) 5 to 7 oktas
b) 5 to 8 oktas
c) 1 to 4 oktas
d) 3 to 5 oktas
a) -16°C
b) -28°C
c) -24°C
d) -20°C
212.) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA
is -15°C below FL 100.
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
a) 11410 FT.
b) 9790 FT.
c) 8590 FT.
d) 10210 FT.
a) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
b) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
c) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
d) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
214.) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT
below sea level?
215.) You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is
on an average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
What approximate indication should the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
a) 16230 FT.
b) 13830 FT.
c) 15690 FT.
d) 14370 FT.
216.) During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH
1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
a) 1375 FT.
b) 1105 FT.
c) 1280 FT.
d) 1200 FT.
218.) At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands
of Japan?
a) January to May.
b) July to November.
c) September to January.
d) May to July.
a) kt.
b) m/100 FT.
c) kt/100 FT.
d) m/sec.
220.) Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
a) ATIS.
b) TAF.
c) SIGMET.
d) SPECI.
a) 1013 hPa.
b) 1028 hPa.
c) 1015 hPa.
d) 998 hPa.
223.) You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is,
according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through
is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH
(1023 hPa).
At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight
altitude?
a) 15900 FT.
b) 14100 FT.
c) 14370 FT.
d) 13830 FT.
224.) You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature
deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
a) ISA +/-0°C
b) ISA +12°C
c) ISA -20°C
d) ISA +20°C
225.) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
a) snow.
b) small supercooled water drops.
c) large supercooled water drops.
d) water vapour.
228.) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the
core.
How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the
flight?
a) It increases.
b) It remains constant.
c) It first increases, then decreases.
d) It decreases.
229.) What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
a) 20000 FT .
b) 40000 FT.
c) 50000 FT.
d) 30000 FT.
a) 1/1000
b) 1/1
c) 1/100
d) 1/10
231.) Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
232.) What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
a) 50000 FT.
b) 30000 FT.
c) 20000 FT.
d) 40000 FT.
233.) An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in
the southern hemisphere.
What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ?
a) It increases.
b) It decreases and then increases.
c) It stays the same.
d) It decreases.
234.) A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
a) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C
there must be uniform fog.
b) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a visibility of 5 km if shallow
fog is reported.
c) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye
level.
d) The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the visibility is
more than 2 km.
a) 700 m.
b) The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR.
c) 300 m.
d) 900 m.
237.) Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following
METAR ?
LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000 FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026
BECMG 2000 BR =
a) RVR for runway 14 1500 m, visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.
b) Visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.
c) Visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, dew point -2°C,
freezing fog.
d) RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, visibility increasing in the next 2
hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.
238.) An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at
right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
wind is
a) LEMD
b) EKCH
c) LOWW
d) LFPG
240.) What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
a) Monsoon.
b) Westerly winds.
c) Trade winds.
d) Doldrums.
241.) In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
242.) What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
a) 70 kt.
b) 60 kt.
c) 100 kt.
d) 50 kt.
a) With a ITCZ.
b) With a cold front.
c) With a warm front.
d) With an easterly wave.
245.) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from
Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at
the time:
EISN SIGMET 2 VALID 140800/141100 EINNSHANNON
FIR LOC SEV TURB FCST BLW FL050 S OF N53 WKN
a) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be
flown.
b) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
c) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route
would demand too much of the passengers.
d) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
247.) What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the
other jet streams ?
a) Wind speed.
b) Vertical dimension.
c) Horizontal dimension.
d) Wind direction.
248.) Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
249.) Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic
because
a) 2000 m.
b) Between 0 m and 1000 m.
c) 500 m.
d) Between 500 m and 2000 m.
253.) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability
which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
a) Halo.
b) Red cirrus.
c) AC castellanus.
d) AC lenticularis.
a) Orographic thunderstorms.
b) Thermal thunderstorms.
c) Frontal thunderstorms.
d) Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.
a) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
report.
b) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
c) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in
half-hourly intervals.
d) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
257.) How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
a) 9 hours.
b) 2 hours.
c) 1 hour.
d) 30 minutes.
a) Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow.
b) Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
c) Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
d) Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow.
259.) At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a
CB?
a) Probability of 30%.
b) Change expected in less than 30 minutes.
c) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
d) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.
265.) Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
a) 1 to 5 minutes.
b) Less than 1 minute.
c) About 30 minutes.
d) 1 to 2 hours.
267.) You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While
crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely
changes. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no
temperature difference between the two air masses.
b) Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will have the instruments tested
after landing.
c) This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature
differences are possible at these heights.
d) This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.
a) In December.
b) In March.
c) In October.
d) In June.
270.) At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing
westerlies?
a) 80°N.
b) 50°N.
c) 10°N.
d) 30°N.
271.) During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an
average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL
370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason for this difference?
a) The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.
b) The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse wind conditions.
c) The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.
d) The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable
conditions.
a) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
b) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar
front jet stream.
c) One subtropical jet stream.
d) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
273.) While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core)
and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
a) A tailwind.
b) A headwind.
c) Crosswind from the right
d) Crosswind from the left
274.) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a) Change of course.
b) Change of flight level.
c) Increase of speed.
d) Decrease of speed.
275.) Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest
probability of turbulence?
a) FL 150
b) FL 80
c) FL 220
d) FL 180
277.) On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at
3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling.
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm
air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
278.) In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and the temperature at
1000 m/AGL is 13°C. This layer of air is:
a) 3 km
b) 5 km
c) 8 km
d) 11 km
a) the wind
b) latitude
c) rotation of the earth
d) longitude
a) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air
mass is above ground level.
b) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass
is above ground level.
c) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is
above ground level.
d) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is
above ground level.
283.) If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
a) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
b) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
c) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
d) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense
cold front and those of a warm and very active front
286.) The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system
because the
287.) The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because
the
288.) An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet)
and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the
aircraft, does the wind come from ?
a) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
b) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms
when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
c) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
d) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by
evaporation over the sea.
290.) Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind
291.) What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ?
292.) A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you
expect ?
a) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector
within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.
b) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation
stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers
within a couple of hours.
c) Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.
d) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector
the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
295.) In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction
towards the low pressure area because:
296.) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:
a) mountain at night.
b) valley during daylight as much as at night.
c) mountain during daylight hours.
d) valley during daylight hours.
297.) The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
a) at height of observatory
b) at a determined density altitude
c) reduced to sea level
d) at flight level
a) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
b) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
c) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.
d) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
299.) What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?
300.) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere
below the tropopause?
a) Remains constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
301.) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
a) Cirrocumulus
b) Stratocumulus
c) Altocumulus lenticularis
d) Nimbostratus
302.) Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
altitude than that actually flown ?
a) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
b) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing
parallel to the mountain ridge.
c) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
d) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
304.) An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and
experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310.
The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:
a) Maintain FL 270
b) Turn right
c) Descending
d) Climbing
305.) The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by
306.) During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front
jet stream moves toward the
308.) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point
of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
a) Radiation fog
b) Steam fog
c) Advection fog
d) Frontal fog
309.) In addition to a lifting action, what are two other requirements necessary for
thunderstorm formation ?
310.) If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm
air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain
the lowest ?
a) 9000 feet
b) 5000 feet
c) 3000 feet
d) 12000 feet
a) more than 10 km
b) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
c) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
d) a maximum 5 km.
312.) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure
areas ?
313.) Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around highand
low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.
314.) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or
light wind conditions ?
a) Radiation.
b) Steam.
c) Advection.
d) Orographic.
a) Cirrus clouds.
b) Snow.
c) Freezing rain.
d) Stratus clouds.
a) mature stage.
b) initial stage.
c) dissipating stage.
d) period in which precipitation is falling.
a) hoar frost.
b) dry ice.
c) rime ice.
d) clear ice.
321.) In an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely
to be experienced is:
322.) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
a) Upper stratosphere
b) Ozone layer
c) Lower stratosphere
d) Troposphere
323.) The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied ?
a) 0°C
b) -6°C
c) +2°C
d) -4°C
324.) The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied ?
a) +7°C
b) -3°C
c) +3°C
d) 0°C
a) -8°C
b) +4°C
c) 0°C
d) -4°C
326.) A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the
vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
a) 0°C
b) +2°C
c) -2°C
d) +4°C
327.) How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over
western Europe?
a) Low
b) High
c) Within +/-5°C of ISA
d) 20°C below standard
328.) How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level over
western Europe?
330.) What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
a) Advection
b) Adiabatic
c) Subsidence
d) Inversion
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) QNE
d) QFF
a) FL 50
b) FL 100
c) FL 300
d) FL 390
a) FL 390
b) FL 180
c) FL 160
d) FL 100
a) FL 390
b) FL 300
c) FL 100
d) FL 180
a) FL 50
b) FL 390
c) FL 300
d) FL100
336.) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air
temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a) 1016 hPa
b) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
c) Less than 1016 hPa
d) More than 1016 hPa
337.) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air
temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
338.) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air
temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
a) 1022 hPa
b) Less than 1022 hPa
c) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
d) More than 1022 hPa
340.) The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
341.) The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The
air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
a) 1018 hPa
b) More than 1018 hPa
c) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
d) Less than 1018 hPa
342.) The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The
air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
343.) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate
QNH ?
a) 1015 hPa
b) 1000 hPa
c) 1010 hPa
d) 1005 hPa
a) 990 hPa
b) 985 hPa
c) 1025 hPa
d) 1035 hPa
345.) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
a) 995 hPa
b) 1005 hPa
c) 1000 hPa
d) 990 hPa
346.) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
a) 1005 hPa
b) 1025 hPa
c) 995 hPa
d) 1000 hPa
347.) If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a) -60°C
b) -45°C
c) -30°C
d) -15°C
348.) If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a) +15°C
b) -15°C
c) -10°C
d) +5°C
a) FL 150
b) FL 90
c) FL 110
d) FL 130
350.) An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH
1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:
351.) During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if
any, should be taken ?
a) Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
b) Compensate by heading further to the left
c) Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
d) None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around
Marseille
352.) During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the
probable reason for this ?
354.) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is
unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying ?
355.) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH
is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying ?
356.) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH
is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying ?
358.) An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and
there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at
an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the
summit's elevation?
359.) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will
happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?
a) It will decrease
b) It will increase
c) It will not be affected
d) It will remain the same
360.) During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during
the resetting procedure ?
a) It will decrease
b) It will increase
c) It will remain the same
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
366.) You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 21740 feet
b) 20660 feet
c) 19340 feet
d) 18260 feet
367.) You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 15630 feet
b) 16370 feet
c) 15090 feet
d) 16910 feet
368.) You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum
altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is
an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby
airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have
reached the recommended minimum altitude?
a) 12210 feet
b) 11790 feet
c) 11520 feet
d) 11250 feet
a) 0 FT
b) 700 FT
c) 380 FT
d) 1080 FT
370.) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set
to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above
mean sea level ?
a) 660 feet.
b) 2280 feet.
c) 1200 feet.
d) 1740 feet.
371.) What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
a) 60 km/h
b) 45 km/h
c) 35 km/h
d) 55 km/h
a) 70 kt
b) 55 kt
c) 60 kt
d) 50 kt
a) 15 m/sec
b) 30 m/sec
c) 20 m/sec
d) 25 m/sec
375.) Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
376.) An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in
order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low
pressure ?
a) In front.
b) To the left.
c) Behind.
d) To the right.
377.) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure
belt ?
a) 55° - 75°.
b) 35° - 55°.
c) 25° - 35°.
d) 10° - 15°.
378.) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low
pressure systems during summer?
a) 15° - 25°
b) 10° - 15°
c) 25° - 45°
d) 45° - 70°
380.) If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 25025KT
b) 16020KT
c) 22010KT
d) 22030KT
381.) If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 08005KT
b) 08015KT
c) 11020KT
d) 05020KT
382.) If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
a) 19040KT
b) 17015KT
c) 14020KT
d) 16030KT
383.) If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 23030KT
b) 33025KT
c) 27020KT
d) 30025KT
385.) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel
to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind
effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?
a) Headwind
b) Crosswind from the left
c) Crosswind from the right
d) Tailwind
386.) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield (northern hemisphere)
whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on
the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon ?
387.) Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
a) It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is
unknown
b) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
c) It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
d) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
a) ST, AS
b) CU, CB
c) NS, CU
d) CB, CC
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
391.) Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high
cloud levels ?
a) ST
b) CB
c) AC
d) CI
393.) A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level
is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what
height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) CU
b) SC
c) CI
d) AS
a) ST
b) SC
c) AS
d) CS
396.) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a) AC
b) NS
c) SC
d) ST
398.) With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?
a) AS
b) ST
c) CC
d) CB
399.) With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?
a) CC
b) CU
c) CB
d) ST
400.) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
a) CI
b) CB
c) NS
d) AS
401.) With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ?
a) SC, AS
b) NS, CC
c) AS, NS
d) CB, ST
a) NS
b) SC
c) AS
d) CB
403.) Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad
sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at
least it has become a little bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is being
described?
a) A blizzard
b) Weather at the back of a cold front
c) A warm front
d) A cold front
404.) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?
405.) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
407.) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?
a) Track A-E
b) Track A-D
c) Track B-D
d) Track B-C
a) Position 4
b) Position 3
c) Position 2
d) Position 1
a) Increase rapidly.
b) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
c) Decrease rapidly.
d) Show strong fluctuations.
412.) In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
surface?
a) -35°C to -50°C
b) 0°C to -10°C
c) +10°C to 0°C
d) -20°C to -35°C
413.) Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe
icing?
415.) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a) CU
b) SC
c) NS
d) CI
416.) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a) AS
b) SC
c) CS
d) NS
417.) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
a) PE
b) GR
c) SHSN
d) +FZRA
a) Diagram 3
b) Diagram 4
c) Diagram 2
d) Diagram 1
a) Extreme
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Light
420.) At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course and/or altitude immediately"
instruction be followed?
a) Moderate
b) Severe
c) Light
d) Extreme
421.) At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of course and altitude necessary"
recommendation be followed?
a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Extreme
422.) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
a) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
b) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
c) With gusts of at least 25 knots
d) With gusts of at least 35 knots
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
a) Hail
b) Any cloud
c) Fog
d) Water vapour
a) 850 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 700 hPa
d) 300 hPa
a) 500 hPa
b) 700 hPa
c) 200 hPa
d) 300 hPa
a) 500 hPa
b) 200 hPa
c) 700 hPa
d) 300 hPa
a) 300 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 700 hPa
d) 200 hPa
430.) If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature
charts would be nearest your flight level ?
a) 500 hPa
b) 700 hPa
c) 300 hPa
d) 850 hPa
431.) If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature
charts would be nearest your flight level ?
a) 300 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 850 hPa
d) 700 hPa
432.) When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be
nearest your flight level ?
a) 500 hPa
b) 700 hPa
c) 300 hPa
d) 850 hPa
433.) When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be
nearest your flight level ?
a) 500 hPa
b) 850 hPa
c) 700 hPa
d) 300 hPa
a) number 1
b) number 3
c) number 4
d) number 2
a) number 2
b) number 4
c) number 3
d) number 1
a) Depression
b) Trough of low pressure
c) Anticyclone
d) Ridge of high pressure
a) Symbol 3
b) Symbol 2
c) Symbol 1
d) Symbol 4
a) Symbol 2
b) Symbol 1
c) Symbol 3
d) Symbol 4
a) Symbol 3
b) Symbol 1
c) Symbol 2
d) Symbol 4
a) Symbol 4
b) Symbol 2
c) Symbol 1
d) Symbol 3
446.) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?
a) FZFG
b) HZ
c) BCFG
d) SN
a) +SHSN
b) BR
c) MIFG
d) VA
448.) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?
a) DZ
b) TS
c) SQ
d) SA
449.) Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking
action of a runway?
a) FG
b) HZ
c) MIFG
d) +FZRA
a) +RA
b) BCFG
c) SA
d) FG
451.) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next
few hours?
453.) Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced
at 1500 UTC?
TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315
25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z
TN14/21Z =
454.) TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG
1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200
UTC?
a) Visibility 2,5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
b) Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
c) Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
d) Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 feet
455.) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
a) Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23°C
b) Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
c) Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°C
d) Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C
a) Visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than
1500 metres
b) Visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100
feet, fog with hoar frost
c) Visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical
visibility 100 metres
d) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, visibility improving to
800 metres in the next 2 hours
a) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
b) Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this
area above FL 380
c) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
Alps
d) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
a) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
west
b) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm
zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
c) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
Athens by 1820 UTC
d) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
the western part of the Athens FIR
461.) Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240600Z 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =
0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports ?
a) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
b) That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the
latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
c) That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
d) That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted
earlier in the morning
a) EKCH
b) EINN
c) LSZH
d) ESSA
a) LSZH
b) ESSA
c) EKCH
d) ENGM
a) 250/20
b) 200/30
c) 040/10
d) 230/10
a) -12°C
b) -9°C
c) +5°C
d) -6°C
a) FL 20
b) FL 120
c) FL 140
d) FL 60
a) 030/35
b) 200/50
c) 050/40
d) 230/40
a) FL 100
b) FL 180
c) FL 260
d) FL 20
a) 240/40
b) 210/25
c) 260/40
d) 050/35
a) -14°C
b) -11°C
c) -21°C
d) -27°C
a) 200/15
b) 230/20
c) 260/25
d) 020/20
a) -30°C
b) -41°C
c) -33°C
d) -49°C
a) 340/90
b) 030/70
c) 360/80
d) 190/75
a) 260.
b) -55°C
c) -63°C
d) -51°C
-47°C
a) Tunis - Rome
b) Copenhagen - Helsinki
c) Hamburg - Oslo
d) Rome - Frankfurt
a) FL 360
b) FL 390
c) FL 410
d) FL 330
a) Isolated thunderstorms
b) Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
c) Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence
d) CAT for the first half of the flight
a) 140 kt
b) 110 km/h
c) 300 kt
d) 90 kt
a) Zurich - Athens
b) Zurich - Stockholm
c) Madrid - Bordeaux
d) London - Zurich
a) Paris - Lisbon
b) London - Stockholm
c) Madrid - Vienna
d) Zurich - Athens
a) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013
25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100
=
b) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018
BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
c) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810
5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215
25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 =
d) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999
SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
a) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
b) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late
afternoon
c) A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late
afternoon
d) A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late
afternoon
a) Easterly waves
b) Westerly waves
c) cold air pool
d) Uniform pressure pattern
a) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =
b) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT
3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
c) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300
+SHSN VV002 =
d) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500
MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
491.) You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true?
a) In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C
b) If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to
form in such cloud
c) Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
d) Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
497.) The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur
is
a) the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the
USA.
b) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
c) the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of
Réunion.
d) the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
a) Winter: SCT, base 3000 FT/AGL; summer: OVC, base 500 FT/AGL.
b) Winter: OVC, base 500 FT/AGL; summer: SCT, base 3000 FT/AGL.
c) Winter: BKN, base 2500 FT/AGL; summer: BKN, base 3500 FT/AGL.
d) Winter: clear sky; summer: BKN CB, base 1500 FT/AGL.
499.) What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC ?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT
6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
a) 6 NM.
b) 10 km.
c) 4 km.
d) 6 km.
500.) What is the lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich 1200 UTC ?
LSZH 060900Z 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1113 23012KT
6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
a) 1000 FT.
b) 5000 FT.
c) 1500 FT.
d) 1500 m.
a) 24 hour TAF.
b) 9 hour TAF.
c) SPECI.
d) METAR.
503.) An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would
be
a) 4194 FT.
b) 4278 FT.
c) 2922 FT.
d) 3006 FT.
504.) In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE
adjustment in Geneva is
a) 967 hPa.
b) 948 hPa.
c) 942 hPa.
d) 961 hPa.
505.) An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
a) 8600 FT.
b) 8350 FT.
c) 7650 FT.
d) 8000 FT.
a) 11 FT.
b) 20 FT.
c) 560 FT.
d) -10 FT.
508.) While approaching your destination aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runway 23: 400m
This information indicates the
a) 5 - 7 oktas
b) 1 - 2 oktas
c) 1 - 4 oktas
d) 3 - 4 oktas
a) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail
b) stratocumulus and its vertical development
c) all clouds
d) zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity
511.) The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard
atmosphere, to about
a) 34 000 FT
b) 32 000 FT
c) 30 000 FT
d) 39 000 FT
512.) Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio
and Calvi for 1600 UTC:
Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC
altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.
Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT
stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.
The ceilings are therefore:
513.) Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal
depression because of:
a) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
b) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
c) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
d) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
515.) All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience
CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt
or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are
difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a) severe
b) light
c) moderate
d) extreme
516.) Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a) -5°C
b) -35°C
c) -20°C
d) 0°C
522.) What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a
weather stand-point ?
a) Nitrogen
b) Water vapour
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
a) 11 km
b) 14 km
c) 16 km
d) 8 km
524.) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
a) conditionally unstable
b) conditionally stable
c) absolutely unstable
d) absolutely stable
a) 0.65°C/100m
b) 2°C/1000FT
c) 0.5°C/100m
d) 1°C/100m
a) the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents
b) the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
c) the pressure in a given area is constant
d) the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
532.) In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11
km is
a) At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per
100m
b) At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per
100m
c) At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per
100m
d) At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
537.) When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
544.) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more
than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
a) absolutely stable
b) conditionally unstable
c) conditionally stable
d) absolutely unstable
a) warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
b) warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
c) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
d) warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
547.) Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct ?
a) wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
b) stability increases in the layer
c) wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
d) stability decreases in the layer
a) decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
b) increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
c) is higher in warm air than in cool air
d) is higher in cool air than in warm air
559.) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
a) relative humidity
b) air temperature
c) dewpoint
d) stability of the air
a) subsidence
b) convection
c) a decrease in temperature
d) a decrease in pressure
565.) Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
a) is heated by expansion
b) reaches warmer layers
c) is heated by compression
d) loses water vapour
566.) The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a
warm front is the
567.) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
a) 1000 to 2000 FT
b) 500 to 1000 FT
c) the surface to 6500 FT
d) 100 to 200 FT
569.) In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds
a) depends on the
b) wind direction
c) thickness of the unstable layer
d) air pressure at the surface
pressure at different levels
570.) Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is
forced to rise against a mountain range ?
a) Stratified clouds
b) Areas of severe turbulence
c) Showers and thunderstorms
d) Inversions
a) Altostratus
b) Cirrostratus
c) Stratus
d) Nimbostratus
576.) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body
of water will experience wind
a) strong
b) light
c) changing direction rapidly
d) blowing perpendicular to the isobars
579.) In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of
a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
a) directly ahead
b) right and behind
c) about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
d) left and behind
582.) During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage,
northern hemisphere), the wind normally
585.) Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
587.) You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure
surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
590.) What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
a) They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
b) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.
c) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
d) The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across
the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker.
591.) The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because
a) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system
b) the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular
to the gradient force.
c) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
d) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper air
592.) The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight
isobars is (other conditions being the same)
a) always lower
b) higher if curvature is anticyclonic
c) higher if curvature is cyclonic
d) always higher
596.) Ahead of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the
surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
a) backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
b) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
c) veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
d) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
597.) The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by
a) curvature of isobars
b) friction
c) slope of pressure surfaces
d) horizontal temperature gradients
599.) During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the
a) curvature of isobars
b) sine of latitude
c) horizontal pressure gradient
d) density of the air
602.) A strong, dry and warm downslope wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air
over hills or mountains is known as a
a) Foehn
b) Bora
c) Mistral
d) Scirocco
a) Scirocco
b) Harmattan
c) Pampero
d) Khamsin
a) frictional forces
b) the curvature of the isobars
c) centripetal forces
d) the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force
606.) An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a
depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes
to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is
a) continuously veering
b) initially backing, then veering
c) continuously backing
d) initially veering, then backing
607.) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather
conditions are most likely to be
a) unlimited visibility
b) high scattered clouds
c) clear and cool
d) fog or low cloud
a) are frozen
b) freeze when temperature falls below zero
c) are freezing very rapidly
d) are supercooled
615.) Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
617.) The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus,
and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain
begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomena
describe the approach of a
a) sea-breeze front
b) warm front
c) cold front
d) trade wind front
a) warm low
b) warm high
c) cold low
d) cold high
a) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air
currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure,
in association with occluded systems
b) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere
and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
c) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the
influence of cold north-westerly airstream
d) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
620.) The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area
in the mid-latitudes is called
a) subsidence inversion
b) trade wind inversion
c) radiation inversion
d) friction inversion
a) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
b) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity ahead of its trough
c) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in
rear of its trough
d) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough
625.) The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator
(gulf of Guinea) is a
a) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
b) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
c) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
d) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the
chart
629.) The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight
is
a) cirrus
b) stratocumulus
c) cumulonimbus
d) cumulus
630.) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by
downdrafts?
a) Mature stage
b) Tornado stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) Initial stage
631.) What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
a) Frequent lightning
b) Rain or hail at the surface
c) Continuous updraft
d) Roll cloud
a) Temperate
b) Tropical
c) Polar
d) Subtropical
a) has a diameter up to 4 km
b) is always associated with thunderstorms
c) has a life time of more than 30 minutes
d) occurs only in tropical areas
a) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse
rate
b) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic
lapse rate
d) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse
rate
a) Stratus
b) Cumulus mediocris
c) Nimbostratus
d) Cumulonimbus
640.) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
downdrafts simultaneously?
a) Cumulus stage
b) In all stages
c) Dissipating stage
d) Mature stage
644.) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
649.) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is
a) 0.65°C
b) 0.5°C
c) 2°C
d) 1°C
650.) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at
lower level of the atmosphere is approximately
a) 0.6°C
b) 1°C
c) 0.35°C
d) 1.5°C
a) The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere.
b) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would
actually be higher than the indicated altitude.
c) The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable
d) The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.
a) haze
b) drizzle
c) showers of rain or snow
d) low stratus
653.) A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the
temperature profile
654.) A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
656.) In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
657.) The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of
ascending unsaturated air because:
658.) If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of
ascending unsaturated air is:
a) -15°C
b) -5°C
c) 5°C
d) 0°C
659.) An inversion is
a) pressure is constant
b) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
c) the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m
d) the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.
666.) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
669.) From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere
be derived?
a) rime ice
b) hoar frost
c) clear ice
d) cloudy ice
671.) In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
673.) Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure
surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
b) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
c) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
d) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
675.) Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced ?
676.) An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the
left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
a) It remains constant
b) It decreases
c) It increases
d) Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.
a) neutral
b) absolutely stable
c) unstable
d) conditionally unstable
a) absolutely stable
b) neutral
c) absolutely unstable
d) conditionally unstable
680.) A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m increasing altitude is
a) absolutely unstable
b) conditionally unstable
c) neutral for dry air
d) absolutely stable
681.) If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the
top of the layer is 8°C then this layer is
a) absolutely unstable
b) neutral
c) absolutely stable
d) conditionally unstable
682.) An inversion is
685.) Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the
northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains
constant ?
686.) Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is
correct ?
687.) On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the
northern hemisphere. This means that
a) below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
b) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
c) the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
d) the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
a) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the
continents
b) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
c) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
d) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the
oceans
690.) In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds
are
691.) Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
692.) On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows
a) a TAF
b) a METAR
c) a SIGMET
d) both a TAF and a METAR
a) true north
b) magnetic north
c) the 0-meridian
d) grid north
699.) A SPECI is
700.) On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed
with intervals of
a) 1 hour
b) 0.5 hour
c) 3 hours
d) 2 hours
702.) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
a) airfield level
b) the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
c) the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
d) mean sea level
a) T actual = T standard
b) T actual > T standard
c) T actual < T standard
d) the elevation = 0
704.) Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
706.) You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island
with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is your
pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?
a) 0 FT
b) 4000 FT
c) More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
d) Less than 0 FT
709.) A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off
the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
711.) Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease
to minimal
712.) In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
a) QNH
b) QNE
c) QFF
d) QFE
a) cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
b) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
c) squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
d) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
715.) The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
a) between 5 and 10 kt
b) between 10 and 15 kt
c) above 15 kt
d) below 5 kt
716.) When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe
turbulence be located?
717.) Which of the following quantities remains unchanged if unsaturated air is lifted until it
reaches the lifting condensation level?
a) At the equator horizontal motions do not induce any horizontal Coriolis force
b) The Coriolis force is inversely proportional to the sine of latitude
c) The Coriolis force is directed in the same sense at all latitudes
d) In gradient wind the Coriolis force is in balance with the horizontal pressure gradient
force and the frictional force
a) When BR is reported then the visibility is more than 1000 m but less than 8000 m
b) VC denotes not at the aerodrome but not within 8 nm
c) FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice crystals to less
than 1000 m
d) HZ is reported only when visibility is reduced to 2000 m or less
a) If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
b) The jet streams are Easterly
c) The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
d) In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
724.) With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts
of air?
a) Anvil stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Initial stage
d) Mature stage
725.) During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure.
The crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look clear though.
The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that:
726.) The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively
730.) Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain
wave has been reported ?
731.) You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is
geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will
a) increase
b) decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
c) increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
d) decrease
732.) If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
a) the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated just above the
turbulent layer
b) the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth's surface
c) absolute instability exists at low level
d) in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated
below the top of the turbulent layer
735.) The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just
in advance and just after the passage are respectively
736.) The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the
maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are
compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
739.) The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section, the lower situated
pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressure surfaces bulge
downward is a
740.) After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take-off from an airfield at mid-
latitudes in the northern hemisphere an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated
close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the easterly surface
wind is weak. What do you expect?
a) 0°C to -23°C
b) -23°C to -40°C
c) -40°C to -60°C
d) +5°C to 0°C
a) Frontal fog
b) Advection fog
c) Radiation fog
d) Arctic smoke
749.) During the approach of Bombay ( 19°N - 73°E ) on the west coast of India, you are
listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most
likely ?
a) -30°C
b) -20°C
c) -25°C
d) -15°C
753.) Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe ?
a) Arctic air
b) Equatorial air
c) Tropical air
d) Polar air
754.) With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with
increasing
a) temperature
b) relative humidity
c) air pressure
d) stability
755.) For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
a) 600 metres
b) 160 metres
c) 120 metres
d) 540 metres
757.) Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing
when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud
droplets?
758.) A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
a) A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing may occur in the upper part due to
accumulation of large droplets.
b) Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.
c) Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
d) Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
759.) Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is
most correct ?
a) Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees
C.
b) A cloud consisting of both supercooled water droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft
icing
c) Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.
d) Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.
762.) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T),
are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of
small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct
concerning ice accretion ?
a) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
b) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
c) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
d) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
763.) While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and
rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This
contamination is called:
a) Rime ice.
b) Frost.
c) Clear ice.
d) Mixed ice.
765.) What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a
certain part of Europe?
a) Typhoon.
b) Bora.
c) Mistral.
d) Foehn.
767.) The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is
normally lower in winter than in summer is that
a) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of
lows.
b) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
c) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
d) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter.
769.) What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its
greatest proportion of precipitation?
a) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to
southern Spain.
b) In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.
c) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
d) Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.
771.) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial
region ?
a) Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
greatest intensity is in July.
b) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the
year
c) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January.
d) Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is
highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.
773.) The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type
Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect
an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
a) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage. The manoeuvring of the
aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will
be unpleasant.
b) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to
manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
c) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the
manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
d) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale)
and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little
more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
774.) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of
the following statements is correct?
a) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a "Faradays cage", which means
that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional
engine failure. The crew may get a shock.
b) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded
and temporarily lose the hearing.
c) Aircraft made by composite material can't conduct a lightning and will therefore very
seldom be struck.
d) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning
will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
a) 56 000 FT
b) 29 000 FT
c) 37 000 FT
d) 20 000 FT
776.) Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50°N during winter, the mean height of the
tropopause is approximately
a) 43 000 FT
b) 54 000 FT
c) 23 000 FT
d) 31 000 FT
778.) The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic
lapse rate in
a) cumulus
b) stratus
c) cirrus
d) freezing fog
779.) Absolute instability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate
a) greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
b) less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate
d) greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate
781.) For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
a) environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry
adiabatic lapse rate
b) dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than
environmental lapse rate
c) environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
d) environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic
lapse rate
782.) In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater
than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate - the air mass
is described as being
a) unstable
b) conditionally unstable
c) absolutely unstable
d) stable
a) 6796 FT
b) 6146 FT
c) 4854 FT
d) 7446 FT
785.) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 FT from A (360 FT/AMSL -
QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 FT/AMSL - QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-
scale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the
surface at B will be
a) 5175 FT
b) 3135 FT
c) 4485 FT
d) 4815 FT
786.) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 7500 FT from A (270 FT/AMSL -
QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1650 FT/AMSL - QNH 983 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-
scale setting remains unchanged at 1021 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the
surface at B will be
a) 6474 FT
b) 6204 FT
c) 6876 FT
d) 4824 FT
787.) An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 FT on its radio altimeter
when flying over ground 3090 FT above mean sea level. What is the value of the QNH,
to the nearest hPa, at that point?
a) 1030
b) 1013
c) 1042
d) 996
789.) For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic
wind will be
a) greatest at 60°N
b) the same at all latitudes
c) greatest at 40°N
d) least at 50°N
790.) Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the
speed of the gradient wind is
791.) In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate
over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas
during the northern summer?
a) v
b) u
c) w
d) t
a) NE trade winds
b) travelling low pressure systems
c) SE trade winds
d) subtropical high pressure systems
a) t and x
b) s and y
c) t only
d) u and w
a) subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the
adjacent zone of westerly waves
b) Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south
Australia and Antarctica
c) disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts
resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
d) equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over
central Australia
a) u
b) w
c) t
d) v
a) NE trade winds
b) SW trade winds
c) subtropical high pressure
d) travelling depressions
a) 030/28
b) 340/20
c) 030/20
d) 340/28
801.) In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic
wind at 2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most
likely to be
a) 075/12
b) 060/18
c) 045/12
d) 060/12
802.) During summer an anticyclone covers the British Isles giving mainly clear skies. At
0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06.
The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an east/west direction. During the
next twelve hours the surface wind is likely to
803.) During summer, a weak pressure gradient covers a coastal airfield in Eastern England
resulting in mainly clear skies. The surface wind at dawn was calm.
If the alignment of the coastline in the vicinity of the airfield is predominantly
north/south, the surface wind is likely to become
805.) Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in
the
806.) At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually
strongest?
807.) Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between
summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct?
a) The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of greatest wind speed
reduces in winter
b) The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest speeds moves
south in winter
c) The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude
of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter
d) The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude
of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer
809.) In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to
occur
810.) The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are
a) wind direction parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range - wind speed
increasing with height - intense surface heating
b) wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains – intense
radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
c) wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range - wind speed 30 kt
and steadily increasing with height - an inversion just above the crest level with less
stable air above and below
d) wind direction parallel to the mountain range - wind speed increasing with height -
extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopause
a) a mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than
10 kt
b) warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater
than 15 kt
c) cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt
d) cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
813.) Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of
advection fog?
a) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kt
b) Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kt
c) Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
d) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt
815.) The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list
containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
b) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
c) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light
and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
d) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
a) Polar Maritime
b) Polar Continental
c) Tropical Continental
d) Tropical Maritime
a) Tropical Maritime
b) Polar Maritime
c) Tropical Continental
d) Polar Continental
a) Tropical Continental
b) Tropical Maritime
c) Polar Maritime
d) Polar Continental
a) Tropical Continental
b) Polar Maritime
c) Tropical Maritime
d) Polar Continental
a) Newfoundland to Iceland
b) Iceland to Norway
c) NE Canada to Portugal
d) Florida to SW England
822.) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of
the polar front during summer extends from
a) Newfoundland to N Scotland
b) NE Canada to Iceland
c) Florida to SW England
d) Greenland to Spain
a) CS
b) CB
c) AS
d) CI
a) CS
b) AS
c) CU
d) CB
a) AS
b) AC
c) CB
d) NS
a) 3C
b) 3B
c) 2D
d) 2A
a) CS
b) CB
c) AC
d) ST
a) radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind
b) cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong winds
c) mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to strong winds
d) clear skies, good visibility in light winds
a) NS
b) AS
c) SC
d) CS
a) CB
b) SC
c) NS
d) CS
a) CS
b) CB
c) CU
d) AS
a) SC
b) CB
c) CS
d) ST
a) The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated
cold front
b) On meeting the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface
c) It derives from a polar depression
d) The air ahead of the associated warm front is colder than the air behind the associated
cold front
842.) Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement
in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between
30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the
surface is usually centred over
a) USA
b) Azores
c) Iceland / Greenland
d) Siberia
845.) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the
adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at
the surface is
a) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
b) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
c) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passage
d) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear with increase of
height
a) light easterlies
b) a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
c) a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
d) variable in direction and less than 30 kt
a) NE monsoon
b) SW monsoon
c) SE monsoon
d) NW monsoon
a) fine and warm at first - AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms
b) early morning fog lifting to low stratus
c) increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain
d) overcast with drizzle and hill fog
a) Harmattan
b) Bora
c) Chinook
d) Scirocco
862.) The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be
caused by the
a) relatively slow freezing of small supercooled water droplets and ice crystals
b) relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets
c) instantaneous freezing of large supercooled water droplets and snow crystals
d) instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets
863.) What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170
in AS with the outside air temperature at -20°C?
a) Light - rime
b) Severe - clear
c) Moderate - clear
d) Moderate - hoar frost
a) 3 B and 3 C
b) 3 A and 3 B
c) 3 A and 3 C
d) 3 B and 3 D
866.) Assuming that an initial "trigger" force is present, the conditions most likely to result
in the formation of thunderstorms are
a) high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
b) rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
c) high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
d) intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level
867.) Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?
a) Mountain waves
b) Advection of warm air over a cold sea
c) Advection of cold air over a warm sea
d) Low level wind shear
868.) Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below
CB clouds situated
a) Stratospheric inversions
b) Areas of high level clear air turbulence
c) Mountain waves
d) Jet streams
870.) Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
a) Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with
headwind toward high ground
b) Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high
ground, regardless of the height of the ground
c) Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with
tailwind toward high ground
d) The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves
871.) In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing
waves are likely to be experienced
a) conditionally unstable
b) absolutely unstable
c) stable
d) unstable
a) an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower
levels
b) gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the
lower levels
c) terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
d) compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud
875.) The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the
rate of
a) 2°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then increase at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617
FT
b) 2°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT after which it will remain constant to 104987 FT
c) 1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT after which it remains constant to 65617 FT
d) 1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then rise at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617
FT when it will remain constant
876.) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 FT from A (600 FT/AMSL -
QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 FT/AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter
subscale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the
surface at B will be
a) 6515 FT
b) 4625 FT
c) 5225 FT
d) 5555 FT
a) 50°N in an anticyclone
b) 30°N with a cyclonic circulation
c) 30°N in an anticyclone
d) 50°N with a cyclonic circulation
878.) When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction
will cause the surface wind to
a) a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
b) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions
persist
c) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist
d) slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures
880.) From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves
a) Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm
front
b) 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front
c) Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm
front
d) 300 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front
882.) The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is
883.) In addition to a stable layer of air over a substantial mountain range, the conditions
most favourable to the development of standing waves are
a) significant moisture loss due to precipitation, rapid lowering of the tropopause in the area
of the mountain range
b) conditional instability, wind speed constant from a direction parallel to the mountain
range
c) steep dry adiabatic lapse rate, wind speed increasing and changing direction rapidly with
increase in height
d) wind speed excess of 20 kt at the surface and increasing with height, wind direction
perpendicular to the general direction of the range
a) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given
pressure
b) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative
humidity
c) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the
absorption of latent heat
d) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
a) sublimation
b) radiation cooling
c) supercooling
d) supersaturation
886.) When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
a) fog
b) mist
c) dust fog
d) haze
a) stratiform cloud
b) poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
c) cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
d) continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
a) Tropical Continental
b) Polar Maritime
c) Tropical Maritime
d) Polar Continental
a) Polar Maritime
b) Tropical Maritime
c) Polar Continental
d) Tropical Continental
a) Tropical Continental
b) Tropical Maritime
c) Polar Continental
d) Polar Maritime
a) rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
b) rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasing
c) a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasing
d) rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases
a) Altocumulus Lenticularis
b) Nimbostratus
c) Altocumulus Castellanus
d) Altostratus
901.) Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of
thunderstorms?
a) Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the
cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds
b) Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the
freezing level and orographic lifting
c) Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below
0°C and considerable surface heating
d) Environmental lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great
vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process
a) 060°/45 kt
b) 090°/45 kt
c) 270°/45 kt
d) 070°/30 kt
a) warm front
b) cold front
c) warm occlusion
d) cold occlusion
a) Variable/15 to 25 kt
b) Variable/05 kt
c) Calm
d) 260°/10 kt
908.) What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC ?
KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB
BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK.
a) 1300 feet
b) 1000 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) 3000 feet
a) 9000 metres
b) 4000 metres
c) 1000 metres
d) 1600 metres
910.) What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA
OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618
26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK
a) 1500 feet
b) 5000 feet
c) 3000 feet
d) 500 feet
a) -40°C
b) -50°C
c) -45°C
d) -55°C
a) 280/30
b) 180/20
c) 240/25
d) 300/45
a) -12°C
b) +2°C
c) -2°C
d) +12°C
916.) What is the lowest forecast visibility that can be expected during an approach into
Madrid at 2300 UTC ?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030
BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
a) 10 kilometres or more
b) 8000 metres
c) 6000 metres
d) Greater than 10 kilometres
917.) What is the most likely forecast lowest cloud base that can be expected during an
approach to Madrid into 2300 UTC ?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030
BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
a) 2000 feet
b) 800 feet
c) 1500 feet
d) 3000 feet
a) 270/50
b) 310/50
c) 320/70
d) 270/30
a) -5°C
b) +5°C
c) -1°C
d) +2°C
920.) What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at
ETA 0600 UTC ?
TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410
28014G24KT 4000 SA=
a) 4000 yards
b) 4 km
c) 10 km or more
d) 7 km
921.) What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC ?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999
SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB
BECMG 2024 6000=
a) 1200 metres
b) 10 km or more
c) 5 km
d) 6 km
922.) What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC ?
TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999
SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB
BECMG 2024 6000=
a) 1200 feet
b) 1400 feet
c) 900 feet
d) 1800 feet
a) +6°C
b) -2°C
c) 0°C
d) +2°C
a) -55°C
b) -58°C
c) -61°C
d) -52°C
925.) What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston?
MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315 14020G34KT
FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG
2301 34010KT FEW025=
a) 360° / 10 kt
b) 340° / 10 kt
c) 140° / 20 kt gusts 34 kt
d) 140° / 27 kt
926.) What is the lowest probable cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston ?
TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT
FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG
2301 34010KT FEW025=
a) 1500 m
b) 1000 m
c) 1500 FT
d) 1000 FT
a) 1000 FT
b) 500 m
c) 1000 m
d) 500 FT
928.) What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA
SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
a) 6 NM
b) 10 km
c) 8 NM
d) 8 km
929.) What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be experienced
during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC) ?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA
SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
a) Radiation fog
b) Roll cloud associated with standing waves
c) Anabatic winds
d) Low level wind shear
a) 270/70
b) 240/90
c) 220/70
d) 245/55
a) -38°C
b) -30°C
c) -42°C
d) -34°C
a) 225/25
b) 245/50
c) 265/25
d) 265/40
933.) The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of
phenomena described during a specific period.
The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are:
a) 25 or 35
b) 30 or 40
c) 20 or 30
d) 35 or 50
937.) On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is
reached approximately
939.) In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere
between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is
a) 50%
b) 99%
c) 25%
d) 1%
a) 030°/30 kt (diagram A)
b) 030°/30 kt (diagram C)
c) 210°/30 kt (diagram B)
d) 210°/30 kt (diagram D)
a) a wind shear.
b) the instability of the air mass between the surface and the top of Cumulus clouds.
c) system waves.
d) the surface radiation.
a) Orographic lift
b) Convection
c) Convergence
d) Ground radiation
a) Cirrostratus.
b) Cumulus
c) Altostratus
d) Stratus.
947.) The lowest cloud type observed in Stratus fractus, and there is moderate continuous
rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is
948.) For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing
are:
a) flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation
b) flight into supercooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation
c) flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0°C, resulting in rime
ice formation
d) flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation
952.) On a Significant Weather Chart, we see the following for the area where a VFR-flight
will take place:
100
BKN CU SC
023
If the flight is planned at FL 85, we can estimate that
a) 140°
b) 110°
c) 220°
d) 310°
956.) The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is:
a) -2°C/1000 FT
b) -2,5°C/1000 FT
c) -3°C/1000 FT
d) -6,5°C/1000 FT
a) 40 m/sec
b) 10 m/sec
c) 50 km/h
d) 10 km/h
958.) You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 FT over a flat country area. An
anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you,
will be
a) a head wind.
b) from the left.
c) a tail wind.
d) from the right.
a) 1 km
b) 1.5 km
c) 0.8 km
d) 3 km
a) cold occlusion.
b) warm front.
c) warm occlusion.
d) cold front.
965.) After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What
type of icing will you encounter?
a) Smooth icing
b) Hoar frost
c) Rime ice
d) Clear ice
966.) An aircraft flies into supercooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0°C. The
type of icing it will most likely encounter is
a) rime ice
b) hoar frost
c) clear ice
d) granular frost
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
971.) At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is
a) cumulus mediocris.
b) altocumulus lenticularis.
c) cirrus.
d) cirrostratus.
972.) About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with
well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these
clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially
horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are
a) by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular
characteristics
b) by the influence of jet streams
c) by widespread thunderstorms
d) in the westerlies of the mid-latitudes
a) 2100 UTC
b) 1215 UTC
c) 1330 UTC
d) 0300 UTC the following day
976.) Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling
large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are:
a) Stratocumulus.
b) Altostratus.
c) Stratus.
d) Nimbostratus.
977.) In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is
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050-3017 A
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
050-MET
Lösungen
1: D (1 Pkt.) 40: C (2 Pkt.) 79: C (1 Pkt.)
2: C (1 Pkt.) 41: B (1 Pkt.) 80: D (1 Pkt.)
3: B (1 Pkt.) 42: A (1 Pkt.) 81: B (1 Pkt.)
4: B (2 Pkt.) 43: A (1 Pkt.) 82: B (1 Pkt.)
5: C (1 Pkt.) 44: A (1 Pkt.) 83: B (1 Pkt.)
6: D (1 Pkt.) 45: C (1 Pkt.) 84: D (1 Pkt.)
7: A (1 Pkt.) 46: B (1 Pkt.) 85: D (1 Pkt.)
8: B (1 Pkt.) 47: B (1 Pkt.) 86: B (1 Pkt.)
9: D (1 Pkt.) 48: B (1 Pkt.) 87: B (1 Pkt.)
10: A (1 Pkt.) 49: D (1 Pkt.) 88: D (1 Pkt.)
11: C (1 Pkt.) 50: B (1 Pkt.) 89: A (1 Pkt.)
12: D (1 Pkt.) 51: B (1 Pkt.) 90: C (1 Pkt.)
13: D (1 Pkt.) 52: B (1 Pkt.) 91: A (1 Pkt.)
14: C (1 Pkt.) 53: C (1 Pkt.) 92: C (1 Pkt.)
15: D (1 Pkt.) 54: D (1 Pkt.) 93: D (1 Pkt.)
16: A (2 Pkt.) 55: C (1 Pkt.) 94: D (1 Pkt.)
17: D (1 Pkt.) 56: D (1 Pkt.) 95: A (1 Pkt.)
18: B (2 Pkt.) 57: B (1 Pkt.) 96: A (1 Pkt.)
19: C (1 Pkt.) 58: A (1 Pkt.) 97: C (1 Pkt.)
20: A (1 Pkt.) 59: B (2 Pkt.) 98: D (1 Pkt.)
21: D (1 Pkt.) 60: D (1 Pkt.) 99: A (1 Pkt.)
22: B (1 Pkt.) 61: B (1 Pkt.) 100: B (1 Pkt.)
23: A (1 Pkt.) 62: C (1 Pkt.) 101: A (2 Pkt.)
24: A (1 Pkt.) 63: D (2 Pkt.) 102: B (1 Pkt.)
25: A (1 Pkt.) 64: C (1 Pkt.) 103: C (1 Pkt.)
26: D (1 Pkt.) 65: D (1 Pkt.) 104: C (1 Pkt.)
27: A (1 Pkt.) 66: B (1 Pkt.) 105: B (1 Pkt.)
28: C (1 Pkt.) 67: A (1 Pkt.) 106: A (1 Pkt.)
29: C (1 Pkt.) 68: C (1 Pkt.) 107: D (1 Pkt.)
30: A (1 Pkt.) 69: A (1 Pkt.) 108: B (2 Pkt.)
31: B (1 Pkt.) 70: D (1 Pkt.) 109: C (1 Pkt.)
32: A (1 Pkt.) 71: D (1 Pkt.) 110: B (1 Pkt.)
33: C (1 Pkt.) 72: D (1 Pkt.) 111: A (1 Pkt.)
34: B (1 Pkt.) 73: B (1 Pkt.) 112: A (1 Pkt.)
35: D (1 Pkt.) 74: C (1 Pkt.) 113: A (1 Pkt.)
36: D (1 Pkt.) 75: D (1 Pkt.) 114: C (1 Pkt.)
37: A (1 Pkt.) 76: B (1 Pkt.) 115: D (1 Pkt.)
38: C (1 Pkt.) 77: B (1 Pkt.) 116: D (1 Pkt.)
39: A (1 Pkt.) 78: C (1 Pkt.) 117: A (1 Pkt.)
001.) An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward following
the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382
NM to position B.
The coordinates of position B are?
a) 53°20'N 169°22W
b) 45°00'N 172°38'E
c) 53°20'N 172°38'E
d) 45°00'N 169°22W
002.) The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the
following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:
a) 5.2°
b) 15.6°
c) 9°
d) 7.8°
a) 060°11'S
b) 060°06'S
c) 059°49'S
d) 060°00'S
004.) What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between
meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a) 1 HR 45 MIN
b) 5 HR 00 MIN
c) 2 HR 30 MIN
d) 1 HR 15 MIN
a) constant-heading track
b) rhumb line
c) great circle
d) constant-drift track
006.) Given:
value for the flattening of the Earth is 1/298.
Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km.
What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the poles?
a) 6 378.4
b) 6 356.9
c) 6 367.0
d) 6 399.9
a) 01°11'N 131°11'E
b) 01°11'N 128°49'E
c) 01°11'S 128°49'E
d) 01°11'S 131°11'E
008.) In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W),
maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly:
a) 330
b) 300
c) 345
d) 315
a) 18 500 km
b) 12 700 km
c) 6 350 km
d) 40 000 km
011.) The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:
013.) The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:
a) Gnomonic projection
b) Stereographical projection
c) Lambert conformal projection
d) Direct Mercator projection
a) 1: 3 208 000
b) 1: 1 852 000
c) 1: 7 408 000
d) 1: 185 200
a) 3.69 NM
b) 36.30 NM
c) 67.20 NM
d) 370.00 NM
016.) The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and
38°20' N.
The constant of the cone for this chart is:
a) 0.60
b) 0.39
c) 0.42
d) 0.92
a) 1: 3 000 000
b) 1: 5 000 000
c) 1: 6 000 000
d) 1: 1 000 000
019.) On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W to B
70°N 060°E is approximately:
a) 330° (T)
b) 030° (T)
c) 150° (T)
d) 210° (T)
a) straight line
b) curve convex to the nearer pole
c) spiral curve
d) small circle concave to the nearer pole
021.) The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N
171°51.6'W) is:
a) 10 800 NM
b) 5 400 NM
c) 10 800 km
d) 2 700 NM
022.) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:
a) 70 NM
b) 57 NM
c) 86 NM
d) 81 NM
024.) Given:
Position A 45°N, ?°E
Position B 45°N, 45°15'E
Distance A-B = 280 NM
B is to the East of A
Required: longitude of position A?
a) 40°33'E
b) 49°57'E
c) 38°39'E
d) 51°51'E
025.) On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins
position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W).
The true course on departure from position A is approximately:
a) 225°
b) 250°
c) 315°
d) 135°
026.) On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians
spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm.
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
a) 1: 3 500 000
b) 1: 7 000 000
c) 1: 4 750 000
d) 1: 6 000 000
a) 203°
b) 247°
c) 023°
d) 305°
029.) Given:
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift angle 10° left
Relative bearing of NDB 270°
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
a) 211°
b) 208°
c) 221°
d) 180°
a) 180°
b) 190°
c) 194°
d) 204°
a) 072°
b) 064°
c) 048°
d) 056°
032.) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt.
The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt.
The GS and drift angle are:
033.) Given:
FL 350,
Mach 0.80,
OAT -55°C.
Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)?
034.) Given:
Magnetic heading = 255°
VAR = 40°W
GS = 375 kt
W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?
a) 6° right
b) 6° left
c) 3° left
d) 9° left
a) 435 kt
b) 600 kt
c) 450 kt
d) 535 kt
036.) Given:
True heading = 310°
TAS = 200 kt
GS = 176 kt
Drift angle 7° right.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 270° / 33 kt
b) 090° / 33 kt
c) 360° / 33 kt
d) 180° / 33 kt
037.) If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground
speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
a) 550 kt
b) 960 kt
c) 480 kt
d) 240 kt
038.) Given:
True Heading = 090°
TAS = 180 kt
GS = 180 kt
Drift 5° right
Calculate the W/V?
a) 185° / 15 kt
b) 355° / 15 kt
c) 005° / 15 kt
d) 190° / 15 kt
a) 230 kt
b) 180 kt
c) 220 kt
d) 200 kt
a) 88 NM
b) 176 NM
c) 56 NM
d) 85 NM
a) 220° / 60 kt
b) 225° / 60 kt
c) 320° / 60 kt
d) 325° / 60 kt
042.) The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°).
What is the cross-wind component?
a) 24 kt
b) 30 kt
c) 27 kt
d) 21 kt
a) 261°
b) 270°
c) 288°
d) 279°
044.) A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W).
What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B?
a) It decreases by 3°
b) It increases by 6°
c) It increases by 3°
d) It decreases by 6°
a) 093°48.5'W
b) 093°54.0'W
c) 094°12.0'W
d) 093°53.1'W
046.) An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain;
its height is approximately:
a) 3640 FT
b) 680 FT
c) 1890 FT
d) 2210 FT
047.) An aircraft is descending down a 6% slope whilst maintaining a G/S of 300 kt.
The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
a) 3600 FT/MIN
b) 10800 FT/MIN
c) 900 FT/MIN
d) 1800 FT/MIN
a) 23.5°
b) 25.3°
c) 66.5°
d) 27.5°
a) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
b) agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
c) needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°
d) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizon
050.) On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC.
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
a) 2143 UTC
b) 0243 UTC
c) 0523 UTC
d) 0743 UTC
051.) An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt.
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB
track is active.
On route AB, the true track:
a) decreases by 6°
b) increases by 5°
c) varies by 10°
d) varies by 4°
052.) The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N
007°30'W) is:
a) 300 NM
b) 150 NM
c) 600 NM
d) 450 NM
a) 031°
b) 208°
c) 332°
d) 028°
054.) Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
OAT = ISA +10°C,
FL 410.
Calculate the Mach Number?
a) 0.87
b) 0.90
c) 0.85
d) 0.825
a) 80°00'N 080°E
b) 78°45'N 087°E
c) 79°15'N 074°E
d) 70°15'N 080°E
056.) Given:
A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian.
Grid track 344°,
Longitude 115°00'W,
Calculate the true course?
a) 279°
b) 049°
c) 229°
d) 099°
a) 41°05'N 027°50'W
b) 41°00'N 028°10'W
c) 40°55'N 027°55'W
d) 40°50'N 027°40'W
058.) (For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for 1300 UTC)
1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N
016°23'W)
TAS 450 kt,
Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.
Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?
a) 1341
b) 1348
c) 1344
d) 1354
059.) For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground
speed "back" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance
from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
a) 1685 NM
b) 1532 NM
c) 1865 NM
d) 930 NM
060.) Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt.
On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt.
On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt.
What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the Point of Equal Time (PET)?
a) 455 NM
b) 470 NM
c) 530 NM
d) 500 NM
a) GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
b) GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
c) GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
d) GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
062.) An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the
autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer:
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W
WPT 2: 60°N 020°W
When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation
system will be:
a) 60°05.7'N
b) 60°11.0'N
c) 60°00.0'N
d) 59°49.0'N
063.) The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position given
by this unit. "t" being the elapsed time.
The total error is:
a) proportional to t
b) sinusoîdal
c) proportional to t/2
d) proportional to the square of time, t²
066.) An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the
aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have
been entered.
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
a) 263°
b) 270°
c) 277°
d) 284°
067.) Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as "strapdown".
This means that:
a) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft
structure
b) only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft
structure
c) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference
d) gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft
068.) As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are
input instead of 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point
52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be:
a) 080° 27.4'E
b) 099° 32.6'W
c) 099° 32.6'E
d) 080° 27.4'W
070.) The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold.
Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height
of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
a) 1400 FT
b) 1350 FT
c) 1300 FT
d) 1450 FT
071.) A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne
weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is
15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:
a) 130°
b) 310°
c) 220°
d) 160°
072.) Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon
and set every day?
a) 68°
b) 66°
c) 62°
d) 72°
a) 0930
b) 0113
c) 2230
d) 1413
a) 0700
b) 0800
c) 1200
d) 1300
076.) When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass
card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
077.) The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955.
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
a) 23°18'
b) 66°42'
c) 21°35'
d) 68°25'
a) 1: 6 000 000
b) 1: 2 000 000
c) 1: 5 000 000
d) 1: 3 750 000
079.) The Great Circle bearing from A (70°S 030°W) to B (70°S 060°E) is approximately:
a) 132°(T)
b) 312°(T)
c) 048°(T)
d) 090°(T)
080.) In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is
approximately:
a) 1: 700 000
b) 1: 7 000 000
c) 1: 1 300 000
d) 1: 130 000
a) 1: 3 000 000
b) 1: 1 500 000
c) 1: 6 000 000
d) 1: 3 500 000
082.) What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator
chart with a scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator?
a) 106 mm
b) 133 mm
c) 167 mm
d) 72 mm
a) 1: 25 000 000
b) 1: 21 000 000
c) 1: 18 000 000
d) 1: 30 000 000
085.) What is the constant of the cone for a Lambert conic projection whose standard
parallels are at 50°N and 70°N?
a) 0.766
b) 0.500
c) 0.866
d) 0.941
086.) The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle between
longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is:
a) 0.64
b) 0.50
c) 0.40
d) 0.75
a) isotach
b) aclinic line
c) agonic line
d) isogonal
090.) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass should read:
091.) When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of
a direct reading magnetic compass will:
a) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
b) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
c) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
d) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
092.) When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass
card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
a) 1: 5 000 000
b) 1: 2 500 000
c) 1: 6 000 000
d) 1: 3 000 000
094.) On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale is
correct:
096.) The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a) keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping
wires
b) using long magnets
c) using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
d) pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
a) 80°39'
b) 51°45'
c) 52°05'
d) 38°15'
099.) At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches.
The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates:
a) 1: 6 000 000
b) 1: 3 000 000
c) 1: 8 000 000
d) 1: 2 500 000
a) complex curve
b) curve convex to the equator
c) curve concave to the equator
d) straight line
101.) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the
right.
If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass
should read:
a) 895 kg
b) 803 kg
c) 940 kg
d) 862 kg
a) 2.2 m/sec
b) 3.7 m/sec
c) 5.2 m/sec
d) 1.6 m/sec
a) 0 MIN 34 SEC
b) 1 MIN 55 SEC
c) 1 MIN 07 SEC
d) 2 MIN 30 SEC
a) 183 kt
b) 209 kt
c) 131 kt
d) 160 kt
109.) An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E.
The total distance travelled is?
a) 2040 NM
b) 5420 NM
c) 1788 NM
d) 3720 NM
a) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country
b) It is another term for UTC
c) It is an expression for local mean time
d) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA
a) 1345
b) 0615
c) 0815
d) 2200
115.) When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the
effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to:
a) -51°C
b) -56°C
c) -81°C
d) -66°C
a) 124°/36 kt
b) 057°/36 kt
c) 307°/36 kt
d) 237°/36 kt
118.) Given:
TAS 487kt,
FL 330,
Temperature ISA + 15.
Calculate the MACH Number?
a) 0.76
b) 0.81
c) 0.78
d) 0.84
119.) Given:
M 0.80,
OAT -50°C,
FL 330,
GS 490 kt,
VAR 20°W,
Magnetic heading 140°,
Drift is 11° Right.
Calculate the true W/V?
a) 200°/95 kt
b) 020°/95 kt
c) 025°/47 kt
d) 025°/45 kt
a) 27500 FT
b) 33500 FT
c) 31000 FT
d) 26000 FT
121.) Given:
Compass Heading 090°,
Deviation 2°W,
Variation 12°E,
TAS 160 kt.
Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground
distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN.
What is the W/V °(T)?
a) 340°/98 kt
b) 160°/50 kt
c) 340°/25 kt
d) 155°/25 kt
122.) How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt?
a) 2.36
b) 3.94
c) 39.0
d) 3.25
a) 20.6
b) 38.1
c) 44.5
d) 54.2
a) of equal latitude
b) having the same longitude
c) having the same elevation above sea level
d) with the same variation
127.) A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning
purposes:
a) is a Rhumb line
b) is approximately a Great Circle
c) is a Loxodromic line
d) can only be a parallel of latitude
128.) Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL.
What is the endurance?
a) 2 HR 15 MIN
b) 3 HR 53 MIN
c) 4 HR 32 MIN
d) 3 HR 12 MIN
130.) Given:
true track is 348°,
drift 17° left,
variation 32° W,
deviation 4°E.
What is the compass heading?
a) 337°
b) 033°
c) 007°
d) 359°
a) 43200 NM
b) 5400 NM
c) 10800 NM
d) 21600 NM
133.) The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is:
a) 81°10'
b) 78°45'
c) 75°00'
d) 80°05'
135.) What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?
a) 90°
b) 60°
c) 0°
d) 45°
136.) The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
137.) The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is
due to the:
138.) The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called:
a) isotachs
b) isogrives
c) isoclines
d) isogonals
140.) The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:
a) parabolic lines
b) hyperbolic lines
c) arcs of concentric circles
d) straight lines
142.) An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM?
a) 50 MIN
b) 100 MIN
c) 80 MIN
d) 90 MIN
a) 290 kt
b) 246 kt
c) 186 kt
d) 250 kt
144.) Given:
FL250,
OAT -15 ºC,
TAS 250 kt.
Calculate the Mach No.?
a) 0.40
b) 0.39
c) 0.44
d) 0.42
145.) During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft.
The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
a) position
b) groundspeed
c) drift
d) track
146.) Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000
FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
a) 16.0 NM
b) 19.2 NM
c) 38.4 NM
d) 26.7 NM
a) 355 º/15 kt
b) 190 º/63 kt
c) 195 º/63 kt
d) 195 º/61 kt
a) on any heading
b) on a given heading
c) on N, S, E and W only
d) at any latitude
149.) An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the magnetic
variation 12°W?
a) 234°
b) 054°
c) 318°
d) 038°
150.) Given:
True track 180°
Drift 8°R
Compass heading 195°
Deviation -2°
Calculate the variation.
a) 9°W
b) 25°W
c) 21°W
d) 5°W
152.) Given:
True course 300°
drift 8°R
variation 10°W
deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading.
a) 322°
b) 278°
c) 294°
d) 306°
153.) Given:
true track 352°
variation 11° W
deviation is -5°
drift 10°R.
Calculate the compass heading?
a) 025°
b) 018°
c) 346°
d) 358°
154.) Given:
true track 070°
variation 30°W
deviation +1°
drift 10°R
Calculate the compass heading?
a) 100°
b) 089°
c) 091°
d) 101°
a) deviation
b) variation
c) compass error
d) drift
a) compass heading
b) true heading
c) magnetic course
d) magnetic track
a) 1500metres
b) 1852 metres
c) 1012 metres
d) 1609 metres
158.) An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04°00'N
030°00'W:
600 NM South,
then 600 NM East,
then 600 NM North,
then 600 NM West.
The final position of the aircraft is:
a) 04°00'N 030°00'W
b) 03°58'N 030°02'W
c) 04°00'N 030°02'W
d) 04°00'N 029°58'W
a) 59°00'N 090°00'W
b) 60°00'N 090°00'W
c) 59°00'N 060°00'W
d) 60°00'N 030°00'E
160.) Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 270°,
Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 6R - 259kt
b) 6R - 251kt
c) 8R - 259kt
d) 6L - 256kt
161.) Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 145°,
Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 6°R - 259 kt
b) 6°L - 256 kt
c) 8°R - 261 kt
d) 6°R - 251 kt
a) 5°L - 470 kt
b) 5°R - 475 kt
c) 5°L - 475 kt
d) 3°R - 470 kt
163.) Given:
TAS = 140 kt,
True HDG = 302°,
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 9°R - 143 kt
b) 16°L - 156 kt
c) 18°R - 146 kt
d) 9°L - 146 kt
164.) Given:
TAS = 290 kt,
True HDG = 171°,
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 4°R - 310 kt
b) 4°L - 314 kt
c) 4°R - 314 kt
d) 4°L - 310 kt
165.) Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
True HDG = 226°,
W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 8°L - 435 kt
b) 9°R - 533 kt
c) 7°R - 531 kt
d) 9°R - 433 kt
a) 6°R/462 kt
b) 6°L/402 kt
c) 6°L/490 kt
d) 6°R/490 kt
167.) Given:
TAS = 190 kt,
True HDG = 085°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 4°L - 145 kt
b) 4°L - 168 kt
c) 8°L - 146 kt
d) 7°L - 156 kt
168.) Given:
TAS = 132 kt,
True HDG = 257°
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a) 4°R - 165 kt
b) 3°L - 166 kt
c) 2°R - 166 kt
d) 4°L - 167 kt
169.) Given:
TAS = 370 kt,
True HDG = 181°,
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
a) 189 - 370 kt
b) 192 - 370 kt
c) 186 - 370 kt
d) 176 - 370 kt
a) 123 - 320 kt
b) 125 - 322 kt
c) 125 - 318 kt
d) 126 - 320 kt
171.) Given:
TAS = 125 kt,
True HDG = 355°,
W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
a) 002 - 98 kt
b) 345 - 100 kt
c) 348 - 102 kt
d) 005 - 102 kt
172.) Given:
TAS = 198 kt,
HDG (°T) = 180,
W/V = 359/25.
Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
a) 180 - 183 kt
b) 181 - 180 kt
c) 180 - 223 kt
d) 179 - 220 kt
173.) Given:
TAS = 135 kt,
HDG (°T) = 278,
W/V = 140/20kt
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 279 - 152 kt
b) 283 - 150 kt
c) 275 - 150 kt
d) 272 - 121 kt
a) 128 - 180 kt
b) 120 - 190 kt
c) 134 - 188 kt
d) 134 - 178 kt
175.) Given:
TAS = 480 kt,
HDG (°T) = 040°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 034 - 445 kt
b) 032 - 425 kt
c) 036 - 435 kt
d) 028 - 415 kt
176.) Given:
TAS = 155 kt,
HDG (T) = 216°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS.
a) 224 - 175 kt
b) 226 - 186 kt
c) 222 - 181 kt
d) 231 - 196 kt
177.) Given:
TAS = 170 kt,
HDG(T) = 100°,
W/V = 350/30kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 103 - 178 kt
b) 109 - 182 kt
c) 098 - 178 kt
d) 091 - 183 kt
a) 5R - 207 kt
b) 5L - 255 kt
c) 7L - 269 kt
d) 7R - 204 kt
179.) Given:
TAS = 440 kt,
HDG (T) = 349°
W/V = 040/40kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 5L - 385 kt
b) 2L - 420 kt
c) 6L - 395 kt
d) 4L - 415 kt
180.) Given:
TAS = 465 kt,
HDG (T) = 124°,
W/V = 170/80kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 8L - 415 kt
b) 4L - 400 kt
c) 6L - 400 kt
d) 3L - 415 kt
181.) Given:
TAS = 95 kt,
HDG (T) = 075°,
W/V = 310/20kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 8R - 104 kt
b) 9R - 108 kt
c) 10L - 104 kt
d) 9L - 105 kt
a) 9R - 140 kt
b) 11R - 140 kt
c) 10R - 146 kt
d) 11R - 142 kt
183.) Given:
TAS = 190 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 165/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 1R - 175 kt
b) 1R - 165 kt
c) 1L - 225 kt
d) 1L - 215 kt
184.) Given:
TAS = 230 kt,
HDG (T) = 250°,
W/V = 205/10kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 2R - 223 kt
b) 1L - 225 kt
c) 1R - 221 kt
d) 2L - 224 kt
185.) Given:
TAS = 205 kt,
HDG (T) = 180°,
W/V = 240/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 4L - 195 kt
b) 3L - 190 kt
c) 6L - 194 kt
d) 7L - 192 kt
a) 1L - 265 kt
b) 1L - 205 kt
c) 1R - 295 kt
d) 1R - 205 kt
187.) Given:
TAS = 132 kt,
HDG (T) = 053°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 051 - 144 kt
b) 052 - 143 kt
c) 050 - 145 kt
d) 057 - 144 kt
188.) Given:
TAS = 90 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 120/20kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 006 - 95 kt
b) 358 - 101 kt
c) 359 - 102 kt
d) 346 - 102 kt
189.) Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
HDG (T) = 168°,
W/V = 130/75kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 175 - 432 kt
b) 175 - 420 kt
c) 173 - 424 kt
d) 174 - 428 kt
a) 309 - 170 kt
b) 305 - 169 kt
c) 301 - 169 kt
d) 309 - 141 kt
191.) Given:
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 003°,
W/V = 190/40kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
a) 357 - 168 kt
b) 002 - 173 kt
c) 359 - 166 kt
d) 001 - 170 kt
192.) Given:
TAS = 227 kt,
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
a) 311 - 230 kt
b) 312 - 232 kt
c) 310 - 233 kt
d) 313 - 235 kt
193.) Given:
TAS = 465 kt,
Track (T) = 007°,
W/V = 300/80kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
a) 017 - 490 kt
b) 001 - 435 kt
c) 357 - 502 kt
d) 358 - 428 kt
a) 075 - 213 kt
b) 079 - 211 kt
c) 077 - 210 kt
d) 077 - 214 kt
195.) Given:
TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 110°,
W/V = 015/40kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
a) 099 - 199 kt
b) 121 - 199 kt
c) 121 - 207 kt
d) 097 - 201 kt
196.) Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
Track (T) = 260°,
W/V = 275/30kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
a) 264 - 241 kt
b) 262 - 241 kt
c) 264 - 237 kt
d) 262 - 237 kt
a) 257/35kt
b) 265/30kt
c) 260/30kt
d) 255/25kt
198.) Given:
True HDG = 233°,
TAS = 480 kt,
Track (T) = 240°,
GS = 523 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 105/75kt
b) 115/70kt
c) 110/80kt
d) 110/75kt
199.) Given:
True HDG = 133°,
TAS = 225 kt,
Track (T) = 144°,
GS = 206 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 075/45kt
b) 075/50kt
c) 070/45kt
d) 070/40kt
a) 185/35kt
b) 180/35kt
c) 180/40kt
d) 180/30kt
201.) Given:
True HDG = 206°,
TAS = 140 kt,
Track (T) = 207°,
GS = 135 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 180/05kt
b) 180/10kt
c) 000/10kt
d) 000/05kt
202.) Given:
True HDG = 054°,
TAS = 450 kt,
Track (T) = 059°,
GS = 416 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 005/50kt
b) 010/45kt
c) 010/50kt
d) 010/55kt
a) 115/35kt
b) 360/35kt
c) 180/35kt
d) 295/35kt
204.) Given:
True HDG = 002°,
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 353°,
GS = 132 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 090/20kt
b) 095/25kt
c) 090/15kt
d) 095/20kt
205.) Given:
True HDG = 035°,
TAS = 245 kt,
Track (T) = 046°,
GS = 220 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
a) 335/55kt
b) 340/50kt
c) 335/45kt
d) 340/45kt
a) 076°, 34 MIN
b) 095°, 31 MIN
c) 096°, 29 MIN
d) 075°, 39 MIN
207.) Given:
True course from A to B = 090°,
TAS = 460 kt,
W/V = 360/100kt,
Average variation = 10°E,
Deviation = -2°.
Calculate the compass heading and GS?
a) 068° - 460 kt
b) 078° - 450 kt
c) 070° - 453 kt
d) 069° - 448 kt
208.) For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is
180/30kt.
VAR is 13°E.
Calculate the cross wind component?
a) 20 kt
b) 26 kt
c) 15 kt
d) 22 kt
a) 11 kt
b) 8 kt
c) 18 kt
d) 15 kt
210.) Given:
Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt.
Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M).
Wind direction 100°(M)
Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed?
a) 26 kt
b) 33 kt
c) 37 kt
d) 25 kt
211.) Given:
True course A to B = 250°
Distance A to B = 315 NM
TAS = 450 kt.
W/V = 200°/60kt.
ETD A = 0650 UTC.
What is the ETA at B?
a) 0716 UTC
b) 0736 UTC
c) 0810 UTC
d) 0730 UTC
a) 7
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
213.) Given:
GS = 122 kt.
Distance from A to B = 985 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 8 HR 04 MIN
b) 7 HR 49 MIN
c) 8 HR 10 MIN
d) 7 HR 48 MIN
214.) Given:
GS = 236 kt.
Distance from A to B = 354 NM
What is the time from A to B?
a) 1 HR 40 MIN
b) 1 HR 30 MIN
c) 1 HR 09 MIN
d) 1 HR 10 MIN
215.) Given:
GS = 435 kt.
Distance from A to B = 1920 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 4 HR 10 MIN
b) 3 HR 26 MIN
c) 3 HR 25 MIN
d) 4 HR 25 MIN
a) 11 HR 00 MIN
b) 11 HR 02 MIN
c) 10 HR 05 MIN
d) 10 HR 19 MIN
217.) Given:
GS = 480 kt.
Distance from A to B = 5360 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 11 HR 06 MIN
b) 11 HR 15 MIN
c) 11 HR 07 MIN
d) 11 HR 10 MIN
218.) Given:
GS = 95 kt.
Distance from A to B = 480 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 5 HR 03 MIN
b) 5 HR 00 MIN
c) 5 HR 08 MIN
d) 4 HR 59 MIN
219.) Given:
GS = 105 kt.
Distance from A to B = 103 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 01 HR 01 MIN
b) 00 HR 59 MIN
c) 00 HR 58 MIN
d) 00 HR 57 MIN
a) 00 HR 44 MIN
b) 00 HR 42 MIN
c) 00 HR 43 MIN
d) 00 HR 45 MIN
221.) Given:
GS = 135 kt.
Distance from A to B = 433 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
a) 3 HR 19 MIN
b) 3 HR 12 MIN
c) 3 HR 25 MIN
d) 3 HR 20 MIN
222.) A straight line is drawn on a Lamberts conformal conic chart between two positions of
different longitude. The angular difference between the initial true track and the final
true track of the line is equal to:
a) earth convergency
b) difference in longitude
c) chart convergency
d) conversion angle
223.) An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to
cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate
of descent required is:
a) 960 FT/MIN
b) 920 FT/MIN
c) 890 FT/MIN
d) 860 FT/MIN
a) M0.74
b) M0.80
c) M0.76
d) M0.78
225.) A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on
a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift
10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance and true
bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
a) 30 NM and 060°
b) 30 NM and 240°
c) 40 NM and 290°
d) 40 NM and 110°
a) 59 NM
b) 69 NM
c) 79 NM
d) 49 NM
227.) An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to
reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS
should be reduced to:
a) 169 kt
b) 165 kt
c) 174 kt
d) 159 kt
a) 24 kt
b) 34 kt
c) 31 kt
d) 27 kt
229.) Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of
1: 2 000 000?
a) 150
b) 329
c) 43
d) 130
a) 1240 FT/MIN
b) 1290 FT/MIN
c) 1390 FT/MIN
d) 1340 FT/MIN
231.) An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to
reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what Mach
Number is required?
a) M0.73
b) M0.75
c) M0.81
d) M0.79
a) 12 kt and 38 kt
b) 20 kt and 40 kt
c) 15 kt and 43 kt
d) 18 kt and 50 kt
233.) An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum
rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the
minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
a) 63 NM
b) 58 NM
c) 53 NM
d) 68 NM
234.) Given:
Runway direction 230°(T),
Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt.
Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
a) 21 kt
b) 26 kt
c) 36 kt
d) 31 kt
235.) An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME
facility and to cross the station at FL120.
If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is
approximately:
a) 1650 FT/MIN
b) 1550 FT/MIN
c) 2400 FT/MIN
d) 1000 FT/MIN
a) 15 kt
b) 30 kt
c) 25 kt
d) 20 kt
237.) A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B
is 043°(T) at A; course at B is 055°(T).
What is the longitude of B?
a) 34°W
b) 41°W
c) 36°W
d) 38°W
238.) Given:
Runway direction 210°(M),
Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
a) 19 kt
b) 13 kt
c) 10 kt
d) 16 kt
239.) At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant.
The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at
which to commence descent is:
a) 0448
b) 0454
c) 0445
d) 0451
a) 1950 FT/MIN
b) 1750 FT/MIN
c) 1650 FT/MIN
d) 1850 FT/MIN
241.) An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative
bearing from the same NDB is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at
0840?
a) 40 NM
b) 60 NM
c) 50 NM
d) 30 NM
a) 145 kt
b) 136 kt
c) 210 kt
d) 35 kt
243.) An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to
cross that VOR at FL80.
Mean GS during descent is 271kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
a) 1700 FT/MIN
b) 1900 FT/MIN
c) 1800 FT/MIN
d) 2000 FT/MIN
a) 019°E
b) 009°36'E
c) 008°E
d) 011°E
245.) Given:
Runway direction 305°(M),
Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
a) 18 kt
b) 21 kt
c) 24 kt
d) 27 kt
246.) An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to
cross the VOR at FL80.
The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
a) 1600 FT/MIN
b) 1800 FT/MIN
c) 1900 FT/MIN
d) 1700 FT/MIN
a) 302°
b) 122°
c) 088°
d) 268°
a) 2° Left
b) 4° Right
c) 6° Right
d) 8° Right
250.) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on
a direct reading compass?
a) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes
b) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes
c) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes
d) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes
251.) Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct
Reading Compass?
a) Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude
b) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been struck by
lightning
c) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content
d) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability
a) An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero
magnetic dip
b) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic
is the line of zero magnetic dip
c) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic
connects places with the same magnetic field strength
d) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic
line is the line of zero magnetic dip
253.) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of
120 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10°N, a distance
of:
a) 122.3 NM
b) 124.2 NM
c) 118.2 NM
d) 117.7 NM
254.) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of
90 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance
of:
a) 73.5 NM
b) 45 NM
c) 78 NM
d) 110 NM
257.) What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90°
above the horizon at some time during the year?
a) 23°
b) 45°
c) 0°
d) 66°
259.) At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?
a) Beginning of July
b) End of June
c) End of March
d) Beginning of January
260.) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a) End of September
b) Beginning of January
c) End of December
d) Beginning of July
a) 1000
b) 804
c) 540
d) 1222
262.) An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km.
On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
a) 005°15'E
b) 000°15'E
c) 000°40'E
d) 002°10'W
263.) The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM.
What is the longitude of 'x'?
a) 145°E
b) 170°W
c) 140°W
d) 175°E
a) 04°10'S
b) 04°30'S
c) 09°05'S
d) 03°50'S
a) 22°00'N
b) 03°50'N
c) 02°00'N
d) 12°15'N
a) 02°00'S
b) 03°50'S
c) 12°15'S
d) 22°00'S
267.) The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the
wingtip of an aeroplane is:
268.) On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the:
269.) On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude
appear as:
a) straight lines
b) parabolas
c) hyperbolic lines
d) ellipses
272.) Given:
Distance A to B = 120 NM,
After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course.
What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'?
a) 8° right
b) 4° right
c) 6° right
d) 8° left
273.) An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.
Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 1657
b) 1744
c) 1721
d) 1846
274.) An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.
Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1611 NM
b) 2141 NM
c) 2844 NM
d) 1759 NM
a) 183 MIN
b) 173 MIN
c) 193 MIN
d) 163 MIN
276.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM
Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1940 NM
b) 1630 NM
c) 1908 NM
d) 1736 NM
277.) An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.
Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
a) 1752
b) 1756
c) 1742
d) 1820
a) 2290 NM
b) 1310 NM
c) 2370 NM
d) 1510 NM
279.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 162 MIN
b) 145 MIN
c) 130 MIN
d) 181 MIN
280.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1664 NM
b) 1490 NM
c) 1698 NM
d) 1422 NM
a) 167 MIN
b) 197 MIN
c) 219 MIN
d) 290 MIN
282.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt
Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN
The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 219 MIN
b) 197 MIN
c) 209 MIN
d) 290 MIN
283.) Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
a) 106 MIN
b) 114 MIN
c) 110 MIN
d) 102 MIN
a) 1642 NM
b) 1838 NM
c) 1467 NM
d) 1313 NM
285.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 300 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 323 MIN
b) 263 MIN
c) 238 MIN
d) 288 MIN
286.) A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a
relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
a) 6 NM
b) 9 NM
c) 3 NM
d) 12 NM
287.) An island is observed to be 30° to the right of the nose of the aircraft.
The aircraft heading is 290°(M), variation 10°(E).
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
a) 270
b) 330
c) 310
d) 250
a) 268
b) 302
c) 088
d) 122
289.) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 480 NM at an
average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC.
After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
a) 1206
b) 1203
c) 1153
d) 1157
290.) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 320 NM, at an
average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from
'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
a) 1401 UTC
b) 1347 UTC
c) 1333 UTC
d) 1340 UTC
291.) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 250 NM at an
average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC.
After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
a) 1115 UTC
b) 1050 UTC
c) 1044 UTC
d) 1110 UTC
a) 210°/15 kt
b) 340°/45 kt
c) 320°/50 kt
d) 180°/45 kt
293.) Given:
Magnetic track = 210°,
Magnetic HDG = 215°,
VAR = 15°E,
TAS = 360 kt,
Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V?
a) 195°/50 kt
b) 300°/30 kt
c) 265°/50 kt
d) 235°/50 kt
294.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt,
ATD 1000 UTC,
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
a) 320 kt.
b) 360 kt.
c) 340 kt
d) 300 kt
a) 335 kt
b) 355 kt
c) 395 kt
d) 375 kt
296.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM,
Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
a) 9° Right
b) 18° Right
c) 15° Right
d) 6° Right
297.) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
a) 8° Left
b) 12° Left
c) 4° Left
d) 16° Left
304.) The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of
an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is:
a) vehicle longitude
b) change of longitude
c) velocity along the local parallel of latitude
d) departure
305.) Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that
utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is
completely correct?
a) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from 'lock in' error
b) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
c) It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
d) The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically
but it has a longer 'spin up' time
306.) The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation
Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:
a) change latitude
b) groundspeed
c) velocity along the local meridian
d) latitude
308.) Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial
navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give:
a) distance north/south
b) vehicle longitude
c) velocity east/west
d) distance east/west
309.) During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:
a) XTK/TKE
b) DSRTK/STS
c) TK/GS
d) HDG/DA
312.) Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode
selector switched to:
a) ON
b) STBY
c) ALIGN
d) ATT/REF
313.) The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS).
WPT 1: 60°N 30°W
WPT 2: 60°N 20°W
WPT 3: 60°N 10°W
The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3).
The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately:
a) a 9° decrease
b) a 4° decrease
c) zero
d) a 9° increase
314.) The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance
outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from
waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W).
Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final track (°T) at 080°00'W, the
difference between them is that the initial track is approximately:
a) 30°S to 25°S
b) 60°N to 60°N
c) 30°S to 30°N
d) 60°N to 50°N
316.) The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance
outputs of an inertial navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between waypoints No. 4 (45°00'N 040°00'W) and No.5 (45°00'N
030°00'W).
If a constant drift angle were experienced between the two waypoints, on arrival over
waypoint No. 5 the track has:
317.) The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance
outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4
(55°00'N 030°00'W).
With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track
read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
a) 270°
b) 274°
c) 278°
d) 266°
318.) Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode Selector
switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System?
320.) Given:
TAS = 197 kt,
True course = 240°,
W/V = 180/30kt.
Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40.
Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
a) 1500 FT/MIN
b) 1400 FT/MIN
c) 950 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN
321.) Given:
ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,
GS = 150 kt.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
a) 700 FT/MIN
b) 1000 FT/MIN
c) 900 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN
322.) Given:
aircraft height 2500 FT,
ILS GP angle 3°.
At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP?
a) 14.5 NM
b) 8.3 NM
c) 13.1 NM
d) 7.0 NM
a) The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve)
positioned in the wingtip
b) Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the
aircraft magnetic heading
c) The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
d) Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true
heading calculated by the respective IRS
325.) ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
326.) Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial
Reference System (IRS) display is correct?
a) It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight
b) The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried
out in flight
c) The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is inoperative
for the remainder of the flight
d) The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order
to obtain an in-flight realignment
328.) An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the magnetic
variation (VAR) 10°E?
a) 046°
b) 226°
c) 026°
d) 086°
329.) An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic
variation (VAR) 21°W?
a) 239°
b) 329°
c) 059°
d) 101°
330.) An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic
variation (VAR) 15°E?
a) 130°
b) 160°
c) 190°
d) 220°
a) 205°
b) 195°
c) 145°
d) 325°
a) hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under construction
b) the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's magnetic field
c) the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms
d) exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation
333.) The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating
compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:
a) place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the
aircraft
b) reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits
c) facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth's magnetic
field
d) place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors
a) Mach Number
b) IAS
c) TAS
d) Altitude and OAT
a) Solid state
b) Strapdown
c) Rigid
d) Ring laser
336.) The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring
gyros is approximately:
a) 20 MIN
b) 5 MIN
c) 2 MIN
d) 10 MIN
337.) Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for Inertial
Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-latitudes is correct?
338.) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation
System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?
a) The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different sources
b) The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present
position at the departure airport
c) The positions will be the same because they are an average of three different positions
d) The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a
detected malfunction
340.) Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter
flight plan routeing and performance parameters?
341.) What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information
stored in the FMC In the B737-400 Flight Management System?
a) 3 calendar months
b) one calendar month
c) 28 days
d) 14 days
342.) In a Flight Management System (FMS), control Display Units (CDUs) are used pre-
flight to
a) DME/DME or VOR/DME
b) VOR/DME range and bearing
c) DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings
d) VOR/VOR or ADF bearings
344.) What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message
produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
345.) Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the B737-400
Electronic Flight Instrument System?
a) PERF INIT
b) IDENT
c) INITIAL
d) POS INIT
346.) Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used on
initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
a) deviation.
b) variation.
c) parallax error.
d) acceleration errors.
349.) At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct
reading pivot suspended compass:
350.) On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm.
The scale of the chart is approximately:
a) 1: 185 000
b) 1: 18 500 000
c) 1: 1 000 000
d) 1: 1 850 000
351.) Given:
Chart scale is 1: 1 850 000.
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.
Earth distance is approximately:
a) 100 NM
b) 40 NM
c) 74 NM
d) 4 NM
353.) Given:
An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°);
The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.;
TAS on approach is 95 kt.
In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be:
a) 326°
b) 322°
c) 328°
d) 316°
354.) On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and
E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
a) 1: 5 560 000
b) 1: 556 000
c) 1: 2 780 000
d) 1: 278 000
355.) An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of
090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before
sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:
a) 115 NM
b) 105 NM
c) 84 NM
d) 97 NM
a) 45° N or S
b) 60° N or S
c) 30° N or S
d) 0°
357.) On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the straight line
drawn on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the:
358.) Given:
ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC
GS is 441 kt
TAS is 491 kt
At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC.
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
a) 60 kt
b) 75 kt
c) 90 kt
d) 40 kt
361.) At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME station.
At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM.
Magnetic variation is zero.
The true track and ground speed are:
a) 088° - 232 kt
b) 080° - 226 kt
c) 090° - 232 kt
d) 085° - 226 kt
a) 1: 3 500 000
b) 1: 6 000 000
c) 1: 5 000 000
d) 1: 7 000 000
363.) From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is:
a) inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
b) proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
c) inversely proportional to ground speed back
d) inversely proportional to the total distance to go
365.) Given:
Airport elevation is 1000 ft.
QNH is 988 hPa.
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
a) 320 FT
b) 1680 FT
c) 680 FT
d) 320 FT
a) 34 641 NM
b) 18 706 NM
c) 10 800 NM
d) 20 000 NM
369.) Given:
Position 'A' N60 W020,
Position 'B' N60 W021,
Position 'C' N59 W020.
What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a) 52 NM and 60 NM
b) 30 NM and 60 NM
c) 60 NM and 52 NM
d) 60 NM and 30 NM
370.) Given:
True altitude 9000 FT,
OAT -32°C,
CAS 200 kt.
What is the TAS?
a) 200 kt
b) 210 kt
c) 215 kt
d) 220 kt
371.) Given:
An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),
2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station,
2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station.
At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the station is:
a) 0 NM
b) 21 NM
c) 14 NM
d) 7 NM
a) spherical
b) conical
c) cylindrical
d) concentric
375.) Given:
Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport
Elevation of airport 720 FT.
QNH is 1003 hPa.
OAT at FL150 -5°C.
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
a) 15 280 FT
b) 14 160 FT
c) 14 720 FT
d) 15 840 FT
a) 6 500 FT
b) 4 000 FT
c) 6 800 FT
d) 6 300 FT
377.) Given:
Distance A to B is 360 NM.
Wind component A - B is -15 kt,
Wind component B - A is +15 kt,
TAS is 180 kt.
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?
a) 195 NM
b) 180 NM
c) 165 NM
d) 170 NM
378.) Given:
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following
information:
TAS 360 kt,
W/V 330°/80kt,
Compass heading 237°,
Deviation on this heading -5°,
Variation 19°W.
What is the average ground speed for this leg?
a) 360 kt
b) 354 kt
c) 373 kt
d) 403 kt
a) 1303 UTC
b) 1257 UTC
c) 1300 UTC
d) 1302 UTC
382.) Given:
The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48°50' E002°16.5'.
What are the coordinates of the position directly on the opposite side of the earth?
a) S48°50' E177°43.5'
b) S41°10' E177°43.5'
c) S41°10' W177°43.5'
d) S48°50' W177°43.5'
a) 145°
b) 130°
c) 120°
d) 115°
384.) Given:
CAS 120 kt,
FL 80,
OAT +20°C.
What is the TAS?
a) 120 kt
b) 102 kt
c) 132 kt
d) 141 kt
a) magnetic variation.
b) compass deviation.
c) wind velocity.
d) pressure.
388.) Given:FL120,
OAT is ISA standard,
CAS is 200 kt,
Track is 222°(M),
Heading is 215°(M),
Variation is 15°W.
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.
What is the W/V?
389.) At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1: 5 000 000. The length on the
chart between 'C' N60° E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:
a) 35.6 cm
b) 16.2 cm
c) 17.8 cm
d) 19.2 cm
390.) Given:
A is N55° 000°
B is N54° E010°
The average true course of the great circle is 100°.
The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
a) 107°
b) 100°
c) 096°
d) 104°
a) 0.44
b) 0.66
c) 0.18
d) 0.90
392.) Given:
Position 'A' is N00° E100°,
Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'.
What is the position of 'B'?
a) S01°40' E101°40'
b) N01°40' E097°07'
c) N01°40' E101°40'
d) S01°40' E097°07'
393.) A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few
moments later. Following this incident:
a) precession
b) velocity
c) the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
d) acceleration
a) hexadecimal
b) geographic coordinates
c) bearing and distance
d) by waypoints name
396.) The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called:
a) compass deviation
b) alignment error
c) magnetic variation
d) compass error
397.) The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface
where:
a) a position where the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is a maximum
b) the value of magnetic variation equals 90°
c) a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal
d) a freely suspended compass needle would stand vertical
399.) On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north
or south poles?
a) Lambert's conformal
b) Direct Mercator
c) Transverse Mercator
d) Polar stereographic
401.) On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced
the same number of degrees apart:
402.) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great
circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose
tangency is at the pole ?
a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
b) Any straight line is a great circle
c) They are curves convex to the Pole
d) They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole
403.) Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except
meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a) Straight lines
b) Curves concave to the Pole
c) Curves convex to the Pole
d) Ellipses around the Pole
404.) What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a) 1.0
b) 0.0
c) 0.866
d) 0.5
406.) A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the
aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
a) fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
obtained
b) fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
c) set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway
d) fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained
407.) A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert
Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1: 1 000 000 at 60°N.
The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:
a) 66.7 cm
b) 36.0 cm
c) 33.4 cm
d) 38.5 cm
a) 038°
b) 032°
c) 322°
d) 328°
409.) Given:
Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 200 000 at equator;
Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm.
What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?
a) 14 NM
b) 22 NM
c) 21 NM
d) 12 NM
410.) An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled
with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from way-point A to
B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) shows:
- XTK on INS 1 = 0
- XTK on INS 2 = 8L
(XTK = cross track)
From this information it can be deduced that:
a) 014° - 33 NM
b) 220° - 40 NM
c) 048° - 40 NM
d) 030° - 33 NM
a) 295° - 38 NM
b) 170° - 22 NM
c) 311° - 38 NM
d) 350° - 22 NM
a) 023° - 48 NM
b) 017° - 43 NM
c) 039° - 48 NM
d) 024° - 43 NM
a) 104° - 76 NM
b) 106° - 38 NM
c) 293° - 39 NM
d) 113° - 38 NM
a) 057° - 27 NM
b) 293° - 33 NM
c) 324° - 17 NM
d) 309° - 33 NM
a) 207° - 31 NM
b) 070° - 58 NM
c) 035° - 30 NM
d) 019° - 31 NM
a) 139° - 35 NM
b) 129° - 46 NM
c) 212° - 26 NM
d) 132° - 36 NM
a) 214° - 37 NM
b) 354° - 34 NM
c) 346° - 34 NM
d) 198° - 37 NM
a) 358° - 36 NM
b) 049° - 45 NM
c) 214° - 26 NM
d) 169° - 35 NM
a) 094° - 64 NM
b) 320° - 8 NM
c) 088° - 29 NM
d) 260° - 30 NM
a) 119° - 42 NM
b) 140° - 23 NM
c) 311° - 22 NM
d) 240° - 24 NM
a) 165° - 27 NM
b) 025° - 38 NM
c) 233° - 35 NM
d) 335° - 43 NM
a) 320° - 44 NM
b) 236° - 44 NM
c) 223° - 36 NM
d) 333° - 36 NM
a) 090° - 46 NM
b) 098° - 45 NM
c) 278° - 10 NM
d) 278° - 44 NM
a) 296° - 65 NM
b) 315° - 34 NM
c) 222° - 48 NM
d) 126° - 33 NM
a) 090° - 91 NM
b) 098° - 90 NM
c) 278° - 90 NM
d) 270° - 89 NM
a) 357° - 89 NM
b) 169° - 91 NM
c) 177° - 92 NM
d) 349° - 90 NM
a) 142° - 95 NM
b) 315° - 94 NM
c) 322° - 95 NM
d) 135° - 96 NM
a) 018° - 153 NM
b) 026° - 71 NM
c) 206° - 71 NM
d) 198° - 72 NM
a) 197° - 71 NM
b) 017° - 70 NM
c) 205° - 71 NM
d) 025° - 70 NM
a) 316° - 96 NM
b) 308° - 98 NM
c) 262° - 86 NM
d) 128° - 99 NM
a) 238° - 130 NM
b) 058° - 128 NM
c) 229° - 125 NM
d) 089° - 95 NM
a) 293° - 98 NM
b) 113° - 97 NM
c) 063° - 101 NM
d) 071° - 100 NM
a) 348° - 46 NM
b) 191° - 45 NM
c) 011° - 47 NM
d) 020° - 46 NM
a) 294° - 80 NM
b) 075° - 81 NM
c) 286° - 81 NM
d) 277° - 83 NM
a) 336° - 137 NM
b) 156° - 136 NM
c) 344° - 139 NM
d) 164° - 138 NM
a) 002° - 72 NM
b) 010° - 71 NM
c) 006° - 71 NM
d) 358° - 72 NM
a) 278° - 89 NM
b) 270° - 90 NM
c) 272° - 89 NM
d) 268° - 91 NM
a) 327° - 124 NM
b) 325° - 128 NM
c) 320° - 127 NM
d) 335° - 128 NM
a) 031° - 81 NM
b) 044° - 82 NM
c) 035° - 80 NM
d) 042° - 83 NM
a) N5230 W00910
b) N5220 W00920
c) N5210 W00930
d) N5210 W00910
a) N5118 W00913
b) N5205 W00915
c) N5215 W00917
d) N5210 W00910
a) N5230 W00800
b) N5240 W00750
c) N5225 W00805
d) N5220 W00750
a) N5220 W00750
b) N5205 W00755
c) N5215 W00755
d) N5210 W00750
a) N5205 W00805
b) N5200 W00800
c) N5155 W00810
d) N5210 W00800
a) N5230 W00800
b) N5250 W00950
c) N5300 W00945
d) N5225 W00805
a) N5317 W00908
b) N5210 W00830
c) N5208 W00840
d) N5315 W00915
a) N5303 W00810
b) N5220 W00930
c) N5305 W00815
d) N5228 W00935
a) N5328 W00820
b) N5155 W00915
c) N5200 W0925
d) N5330 W00830
a) N5300 W0830
b) N5225 W00917
c) N5228 W00920
d) N5258 W00825
a) SHA 205°
CRK 321°
b) SHA 214°
CRK 330°
c) SHA 033°
CRK 149°
d) SHA 025°
CRK 141°
a) SHA 304°
CRK 189°
b) SHA 124°
CRK 009°
c) SHA 131°
CRK 017°
d) SHA 312°
CRK 197°
a) SHA 068°
CRK 145°
b) SHA 240°
CRK 137°
c) SHA 060°
CRK 138°
d) SHA 248°
CRK 325°
a) SHA 221°
CON 318°
b) SHA 213°
CON 310°
c) SHA 033°
CON 130°
d) SHA 042°
CON 138°
a) SHA 317°
CON 226°
b) SHA 145°
CON 055°
c) SHA 325°
CON 235°
d) SHA 137°
CON 046°
a) N5215 W00745
b) N5235 W00750
c) N5215 W00940
d) N5200 W00935
a) N5215 W00915
b) N5215 W00805
c) N5205 W00915
d) N5225 W00810
a) N5310 W00830
b) N5252 W00923
c) N5355 W00825
d) N5307 W00923
a) N5310 W00820
b) N5305 W00930
c) N5255 W00815
d) N5250 W0030
a) N5337 W00820
b) N5335 W00925
c) N5330 W00820
d) N5343 W00925
a) 299° - 42 NM
b) 119° - 44 NM
c) 127° - 45 NM
d) 307° - 43 NM
a) 248° - 42 NM
b) 240° - 41 NM
c) 068° - 41 NM
d) 060° - 42 Nm
a) 333° - 37 NM
b) 154° - 38 NM
c) 326° - 37 NM
d) 146° - 38 NM
a) 257° - 17 NM
b) 077° - 18 NM
c) 265° - 17 NM
d) 086° - 18 NM
a) 116° - 47 NM
b) 304° - 47 NM
c) 296° - 46 NM
d) 123° - 46 NM
a) Connemara aerodrome
b) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
c) Punchestown aerodrome
d) Waterford NDB
a) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
b) Clonbullogue aerodrome
c) WTD NDB
d) TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB
a) Clonbullogue aerodrome
b) Punchestown aerodrome
c) Connemara aerodrome
d) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
a) Castlebar aerodrome
b) Brittas Bay aerodrome
c) Connaught aerodrome
d) Connemara aerodrome
a) Belmullet aerodrome
b) Clonbullogue aerodrome
c) EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
d) Carnmore aerodrome
a) 2
b) 7
c) 1
d) 6
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 2
a) 6
b) 2
c) 5
d) 3
a) 7
b) 2
c) 6
d) 1
a) 7
b) 1
c) 3
d) 6
a) 3
b) 5
c) 1
d) 4
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
a) 7
b) 8
c) 15
d) 6
a) 15
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
a) 6
b) 15
c) 7
d) 8
a) 10
b) 12
c) 9
d) 11
a) 11
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
a) 9
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
a) 11
b) 12
c) 10
d) 9
a) 11
b) 9
c) 14
d) 13
a) 13
b) 10
c) 14
d) 12
a) Lightship
b) Off-shore helicopter landing platform
c) Off-shore lighthouse
d) Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide
a) 15
b) 10
c) 14
d) 16
a) 10
b) 16
c) 14
d) 12
500.) The purpose of the TAS input, from the air data computer, to the Inertial Navigation
System is for:
501.) The full alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System:
a) may be carried out at any time so long as an accurate position is inserted into the system.
b) may be carried out during any phase of flight
c) is only possible on the ground when the aircraft is at a complete stop
d) may be carried out on the ground or when in straight and level flight
503.) After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the output
data from the INS computer to the platform is:
505.) The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable
the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is:
a) 15 210 ft
b) 14 120 ft
c) 17 160 ft
d) 13 660 ft
508.) An aircraft must fly 2000 ft above an obstacle of which the elevation is 13 600 ft. The
QHN at the nearest airfield is 991 hPa, the elevation is 1500 ft and the temperature is -
20°C. Calculate the minimum altitude required.
a) 14 080 ft
b) 15 600 ft
c) 19 400 ft
d) 17 300 ft
509.) In 8 hours and 8 minutes the mean sun has moved how many degrees (°) along the
celestial equator?
a) 122°
b) 18°
c) 56°
d) 148°
510.) The great circle bearing of position B from position A in the Northern Hemisphere is
040°. If the Conversion Angle is 4°, what is the great circle bearing of A from B?
a) 220°
b) 228°
c) 224°
d) 212°
a) a parallel of latitude.
b) a difference of longitude.
c) a longitude.
d) a meridian.
512.) How many small circles can be drawn between any two points on a sphere?
a) None.
b) Two.
c) One.
d) An unlimited number.
513.) How does the convergency of any two meridians on the Earth change with varying
latitude?
514.) In which occasions does the rhumb line track and the great circle track coincide on
the surface of the Earth?
a) On East - West tracks in the northern hemisphere north of the magnetic equator.
b) On high latitude tracks directly East - West.
c) On tracks directly North - South and on East - West tracks along the Equator.
d) On East - West tracks in polar areas.
515.) What is the rhumb line distance, in nautical miles, between two positions on latitude
60°N, that are separated by 10° of longitude?
a) 520 NM
b) 866 NM
c) 600 NM
d) 300 NM
517.) If you are flying along a parallel of latitude, you are flying:
518.) In the Northern Hemisphere the rhumb line track from position A to B is 230°, the
covergency is 6° and the difference in longitude is 10°. What is the initial rhumb line
track from B to A?
a) 056°
b) 053°
c) 050°
d) 047°
519.) What is the length of one degree of longitude at latitude 60° South?
a) 30 NM
b) 52 NM
c) 90 NM
d) 60 NM
520.) The distance along a meridian between 63°55'N and 13°47'S is:
a) 7702 NM
b) 5008 NM
c) 3008 NM
d) 4662 NM
a) always have the rhumb line track between the departure point and the destination to
b) the left of your great circle track.
c) fly a spiral and finally end up at the south pole.
d) experience an increase in the value of true track.
experience a decrease in the value of true track.
522.) Which of the following alternatives is correct when you cross the international date
line?
525.) If the Compass Heading is 265°, variation is 33° W and deviation is 3°E, what is the
True Heading?
a) 295°
b) 229°
c) 235°
d) 301°
527.) On a Direct Mercator projection a particular chart length is measured at 30°N. What
earth distance will the same chart length be if measured at 60°N?
a) A smaller distance.
b) Twice the distance.
c) The same distance.
d) A larger distance.
528.) Where on a Direct Mercator projection is the chart convergency correct compared to
the earth convergency?
a) straight line.
b) complex curve.
c) small circle concave to the nearer pole.
d) curve convex to the nearer pole.
530.) On a chart a straight line is drawn between two points and has a length of 4.63 cm.
What is the chart scale if the line represents 150 NM?
a) 1 : 3 000 000
b) 1 : 1 000 000
c) 1 : 5 000 000
d) 1 : 6 000 000
a) 0.35 km
b) 3.5 km
c) 35 NM
d) 35 000 m
533.) Grid heading is 299°, grid convergency is 55° West and magnetic variation is 90°
West. What is the corresponding magnetic heading?
a) 154°
b) 334°
c) 084°
d) 264°
534.) An aircraft is flying at FL180 and the outside air temperature is -30°C.
If the CAS is 150 kt, what is the TAS?
a) 195 kt
b) 155 kt
c) 180 kt
d) 115 kt
535.) True Heading of an aircraft is 265° and TAS is 290 kt. If W/V is 210°/35kt, what is True
Track and GS?
a) 165°/100kt
b) 130°/100kt
c) 300°/100kt
d) 310°/100kt
537.) Given:
True Track 245°
Drift 5° right
Variation 3° E
Compass Hdg 242°
Calculate the Magnetic Heading.
a) 253°
b) 237°
c) 247°
d) 243°
538.) Given:
True Track 245°
Drift 5° right
Variation 3° E
Compass Hdg 242°
Calculate the deviation.
a) 1° E
b) 11° E
c) 5° E
d) 5° W
539.) The distance between point of departure and destination is 340 NM and wind velocity
in the whole area is 100°/25kt. TAS is 140kt, True Track is 135° and safe endurance 3
hr and 10 min. How long will it take to reach the Point of Safe Return?
a) 5 hr and 30 min
b) 1 hr and 37 min
c) 1 hr and 49 min
d) 1 hr and 21 min
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
061-ANAV
Lösungen
001.) If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative
bearing to the station will be:
a) 135°.
b) 315°.
c) 225°.
d) Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.
a) 185°
b) 195°
c) 190°
d) 180°
a) 15 NM
b) 17 NM
c) 16 NM
d) 14 NM
004.) Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground
speed?
006.) An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of
magnetic variation is:
007.) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the
equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is
8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
a) 255°
b) 262°
c) 278°
d) 285°
008.) Given:
Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise
the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication?
a) 090°
b) 280°
c) 100°
d) 270°
a) 360
b) 180
c) 212
d) 208
010.) In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
variation:
011.) An aeroplane flies over position A which is due North of a VOR station sited at
position B.
The magnetic variation at A is 18°W, and at B is 10°W.
What radial from B is the aircraft on?
a) 018°
b) 350°
c) 342°
d) 010°
012.) An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from
the ground because:
a) 8 NM
b) 7 NM
c) 6 NM
d) 11 NM
015.) During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from
a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.
The reason for this is that the:
016.) What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3°
ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
a) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline
b) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline
c) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline
d) 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
Transmitter Receiver
a) 1090 MHz 1090 MHz
b) 1090 MHz 1030 MHz
c) 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
d) 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
019.) Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with
a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is
300 000 km/second)
a) 1333 km
b) 666 km
c) 333 km
d) 150 km
020.) What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130
could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
a) 150 NM
b) 180 NM
c) 220 NM
d) 120 NM
a) 114 NM
b) 134 NM
c) 107 NM
d) 158 NM
022.) A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
a) Eight
b) Four
c) Six
d) Two
023.) 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from
NDB transmissions, is due to:
024.) Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
a) skywave/groundwave contamination
b) misalignment of the loop aerial
c) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
d) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
a) UHF
b) SHF
c) VHF
d) HF
a) night effect
b) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
c) quadrantal error
d) static interference
029.) If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors
could be caused by:
a) 4.5
b) 6.0
c) 1.5
d) 3.0
031.) An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing
accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum
distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
a) 105 NM
b) 165 NM
c) 50 NM
d) 210 NM
032.) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following
settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
a) 090°
b) 270°
c) 360°
d) 180°
035.) What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals
from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
a) 184 NM
b) 220 NM
c) 156 NM
d) 147 NM
a) 10 MHz
b) 100 GHz
c) 100 MHz
d) 1000 MHz
038.) For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number
of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
a) 80
b) 60
c) 100
d) 200
a) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each
other
b) the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft
c) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
d) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
040.) The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
ground because:
041.) The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
a) + or - 0.25 NM
b) + or - 1.25 NM
c) + or - 3 NM
d) + or - 1.5 NM
a) 158 NM
b) 186 NM
c) 296 NM
d) 330 NM
044.) The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active
runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during
good weather operations is:
045.) Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS)
localiser radiation pattern?
046.) An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
048.) The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a
frequency of:
049.) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at
a groundspeed of 120 kt?
a) 600 FT/MIN
b) 550 FT/MIN
c) 950 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN
050.) Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
051.) The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
053.) Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the 'weather beam'?
a) altostratus
b) cirrocumulus
c) stratus
d) cumulus
a) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
b) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
c) The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
d) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
055.) In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:
a) 7000
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7700
056.) In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the
aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
a) 7000
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7700
058.) An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
available information from the VOR is:
059.) The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM
represents a width of:
a) 2.5 NM
b) 2.0 NM
c) 3.5 NM
d) 3.0 NM
a) left drift
b) a wind from the west
c) zero drift
d) right drift
a) 254°
b) 074°
c) 072°
d) 252°
a) UHF
b) SHF
c) VHF
d) EHF
a) pulse technique
b) continuous wave transmission
c) transponder interrogation
d) phase comparison
a) 8m
b) 8000 m
c) 80 m
d) 800 m
a) EHF
b) UHF
c) VHF
d) SHF
067.) Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit
display, what does each of the dots represent approximately ?:
a) 1.5 degrees
b) 0.5 degrees
c) 2.0 degrees
d) 2.5 degrees
068.) Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
a) 1300 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 3000 Hz
d) 2000 Hz
070.) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with
the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
a) SW
b) SE
c) NE
d) NW
072.) In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a
tracking accuracy within……… of the published approach track.
a) +/-2°
b) +/-10°
c) +/-2.5°
d) +/-5°
073.) What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
074.) In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of
pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
a) Decca
b) Doppler
c) GPS
d) Loran C
a) timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
b) the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
minimum number of satellites
c) timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
reach and return from a satellite in a known position
d) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in
a known position
a) UHF
b) EHF
c) VHF
d) SHF
080.) Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)
compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
a) It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to
use an ILS
b) It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
c) There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because
there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available
d) The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to
determine range
082.) What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry
out two dimensional operation?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
084.) The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-
shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
085.) Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna
stabilisation axes?
086.) In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
a) 250 FT
b) 150 FT
c) 100 FT
d) 200 FT
088.) Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a
conventional VOR is correct?
a) The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference
signal
b) The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
c) The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the
allocated frequency each time it rotates
d) The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
089.) Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
a) DME/DME
b) NDB/VOR
c) VOR/DME
d) VOR/VOR
a) 135 NM
b) 27 NM
c) 270 NM
d) 69 NM
190 NM
170 NM
230 NM
151 NM
092.) Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C
navigation system?
094.) Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight
between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
a) repetition rate
b) length
c) amplitude
d) frequency
097.) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be
used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200
NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
a) 405 pps
b) 375 pps
c) 308 pps
d) 782 pps
098.) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
099.) ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
100.) In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
102.) MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth
coverage of:
103.) Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on
frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ......... possible to determine
the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
104.) Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ….. °
each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) …. NM minimum from the
threshold.
a) (i) 8 (ii) 10
b) (i) 35 (ii) 25
c) (i) 5 (ii) 8
d) (i) 25 (ii) 17
a) 850 FT/MIN
b) 760 FT/MIN
c) 700 FT/MIN
d) 670 FT/MIN
106.) Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
107.) The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the
mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
108.) Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
109.) The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar
facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
a) 3240 pps
b) 1620 pps
c) 610 pps
d) 713 pps
a) 3000
b) 330
c) 6000
d) 167
111.) Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search
radar?
112.) Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the
Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
113.) In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an
aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet
above mean sea level ?
a) 204 NM
b) 183 NM
c) 245 NM
d) 163 NM
a) 90 HZ 150 HZ
b) 328mHZ 335 mHZ
c) 75kHZ 135 kHZ
d) 63 mHZ 123 mHZ
a) 100 FT/MIN
b) 250 FT/MIN
c) 150 FT/MIN
d) 50 FT/MIN
116.) The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by
the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........
117.) Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is
proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
a) 5
b) 7
c) 4
d) 6
119.) A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum
unambiguous range of approximately:
a) 27 NM
b) 270 NM
c) 67 NM
d) 135 NM
120.) The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping
lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
121.) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate
elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System
(GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5
a) On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended
centreline
b) At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
c) At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the
extended centreline
d) At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown
123.) In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation
pattern.
a) CONTOUR
b) MANUAL
c) MAPPING
d) WEATHER
124.) There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is
over water will be:
a) 123 NM
b) 113 NM
c) 90 NM
d) 98 NM
a) 130 NM
b) 137 NM
c) 145 NM
d) 123 NM
128.) What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to
contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above
MSL?
a) FL80
b) FL50
c) FL60
d) FL100
129.) An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector
(OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
a) Coastal effect
b) Local thunderstorm activity
c) Quadrantal error
d) Precipitation interference
131.) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
a) 265
b) 095
c) 275
d) 085
a) 109.15 MHz
b) 108.25 MHz
c) 110.20 MHz
d) 112.10 MHz
a) 9375 MHz
b) 93.75 MHz
c) 9375 kHz
d) 9375 GHz
a) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known
positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver
b) measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites,
in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver
c) measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites
received in a specific sequential order
d) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of
satellites in known positions
138.) Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
139.) GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals.
Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
a) PZ 90
b) ED 87
c) WGS 84
d) ED 50
141.) Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
a) 400 FT/MIN
b) 450 FT/MIN
c) 700 FT/MIN
d) 600 FT/MIN
143.) ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which
permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
a) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
b) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped
with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
c) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped
with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
d) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with
a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
146.) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
148.) Under JAR-25 general colour code rules, features displayed in green on an
Electronic Flight Information System should indicate:
a) the earth
b) the ILS deviation pointer
c) engaged modes
d) cautions, abnormal sources
a) engaged modes
b) the flight director bar(s)
c) flight envelope and system limits
d) the sky
150.) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
a) Figure 3
b) Figure 2
c) Figure 1
d) Figure 4
a) Figure 3
b) Figure 1
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 4
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 1
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 1
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 5
c) Figure 1
d) Figure 6
a) Figure 6
b) Figure 4
c) Figure 3
d) Figure 2
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 5
d) Figure 2
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 5
c) Figure 6
d) Figure 1
a) Figure 3
b) Figure 6
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 5
a) Figure 6
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 5
a) 20° Left
b) 8° Left
c) 12° Right
d) 20° Right
a) 280°(T)
b) 170°(M)
c) 097°(T)
d) 140°(M)
a) 105°(M)/20KT
b) 285°(M)/20KT
c) 030°(M)/20KT
d) 255°(M)/20KT
a) 280°(M)
b) 260°(M)
c) 299°(M)
d) 272°(M)
a) 260°(M)
b) 272°(M)
c) 280°(M)
d) 300°(M)
a) Airport
b) TACAN
c) VOR/DME/VORTAC
d) VOR
a) 280°(M)
b) 300°(M)
c) 272°(M)
d) 260°(M)
a) none
b) VHF radio
c) VOR
d) VOR/DME
173.) In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
a) UHF
b) VHF
c) SHF
d) EHF
174.) In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation
in the FMC is provided by:
a) GPS
Aircraft Weather Radar
Navigation radios
b) Inertial Reference Systems
Aircraft Weather Radar
Navigation radios
c) Inertial Reference Systems
Navigation radios
Terrain Collision Alerting System
d) Navigation radios
GPS
Inertial Reference Systems
Inertial Reference Systems
a) The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
b) The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
c) It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
d) The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
176.) Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates
the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
a) Navigation database
b) Symbol Generator
c) Flight Management Computer
d) Flight Control Computer
177.) For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary
radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
a) 16
b) 8
c) 4
d) 2
178.) The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:
a) 167°
b) 347°
c) 193°
d) 160°
180.) The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to
enable the pilot to:
181.) An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the
HIS (Horizontal Situation Indicator).
If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model,
will be:
a) in front.
b) left.
c) behind.
d) right.
182.) You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the
course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
a) 100 NM
b) 151 NM
c) 180 NM
d) 120 NM
184.) The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left
and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
a) 060°
b) 230°
c) 050°
d) 240°
185.) An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that
time, the DME reading will be:
a) approximately 2 NM.
b) fluctuating and not significant.
c) FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.
d) 0 NM.
186.) GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and
1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or
military).
Commercial aviation uses:
188.) A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation
systems to give false indications.
This is particularly true of the:
a) ADF
b) DME
c) VOR
d) weather radar
189.) In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
190.) An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground
station.
To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
a) 6.1 NM
b) 6.8 NM
c) 6.8 km
d) 6.1 km
192.) A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial
of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
bearing of:
a) 240
b) 120
c) 060
d) 300
a) amplitude differences
b) frequency differences
c) pulses
d) phase differences
194.) The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
a) 600 MHz
b) 300 MHz
c) 110 MHz
d) 1 000 MHz
197.) You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of
325°. The QDM is:
a) 020°
b) 055°
c) 235°
d) 200°
198.) An aircraft at FL300, with a groundspeed of 300 kt, is about pass overhead a DME
station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground-speed.
One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are
respectively:
199.) Given:
W/V (T) 230/ 20 kt,
Var. 6E,
TAS 80 kt
What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an
outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
a) 172
b) 188
c) 352
d) 008
a) 320°
b) 220°
c) 140°
d) 040°
201.) When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the
horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
a) 4.6 NM
b) 5.2 NM
c) 4.3 NM
d) 4.9 NM
a) 256°
b) 281°
c) 101°
d) 286°
203.) Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO'
with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in
a quadrant defined by the radials:
a) 218°
b) 038°
c) 238°
d) 058°
205.) Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS)
to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
a) Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the
MLS station to the aircraft
b) Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation
transmissions
c) Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from
the aircraft to MLS station
d) A precision facility DME
206.) Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a
Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
a) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
b) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
c) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
d) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
a) UHF
b) EHF
c) VHF
d) SHF
a) 300-400 NM
b) 100-200 NM
c) 50-100 NM
d) 200-300 NM
209.) In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a
cloud will be detected are:
210.) In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is
at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:
(Assume a beam width of 5°)
a) 0°
b) 2.5° up
c) 2.5° down
d) 5° up
213.) Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom
Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
a) 11 NM
b) 12 NM
c) 10 NM
d) 21 NM
a) 11 NM
b) 8 NM
c) 14 NM
d) 9 NM
217.) Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV
system?
a) It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance
indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
b) It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
c) It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
d) It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and
continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air
218.) Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most
accurate position fixes in air navigation?
221.) How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
a) 24
b) 12
c) 30
d) 18
222.) Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability
(FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
a) GLONASS
b) NNSS-Transit
c) NAVSTAR/GPS
d) COSPAS-SARSAT
223.) The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
224.) One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the
satellite
b) to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
c) monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
d) select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
226.) One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
b) monitor the satellites' orbits and status
c) transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and
velocity
d) compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed
position back to the user segment
227.) The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
a) a geoid
b) a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
c) a sphere
d) an ellipsoid
228.) In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
a) flight level
b) height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
c) geometric height above ground
d) height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
230.) How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
231.) At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS
satellites circling the earth?
a) 10900 km
b) 36000 km
c) 19500 km
d) 20200 km
232.) The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
233.) In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
a) UHF
b) EHF
c) SHF
d) VHF
a) PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites
b) PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that exists in space
c) PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time
taken by the signal to reach the receiver
d) PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received
from different directions (multipath effect)
235.) Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be
processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
a) P and Y
b) P
c) C/A- and P
d) C/A
236.) Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
237.) How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of
the received signals belongs to which satellite?
a) The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this
information with the calculated positions of the satellites
b) Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
c) The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
d) Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
Random Noise code
239.) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
a) The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
b) The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
c) The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
d) C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
241.) Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS
receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
a) Receiver noise
b) Multipath
c) Tropospheric
d) Ionospheric
a) It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise
(PRN) code transmitted by the satellites
b) It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations
(ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message
c) It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information
d) It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the
monitoring stations of the ground segment
a) determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed
of light
b) calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite
and the receiver
c) calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
d) determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
speed of light
244.) In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term
used when a receiver:
a) is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the
best geometric coverage
b) requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
c) is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal
with another already being monitored
d) is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously
245.) The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
a) Multiplex
b) Any hand held type
c) Sequential
d) Multichannel
a) 24
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
252.) The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a) minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
transmitted by the satellites
b) minimised by computing the average of all signals
c) negligible
d) only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon
253.) Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs
from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system
(INS)?
255.) Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate
NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
a) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon
b) 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon
c) 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each
other together with a fourth directly overhead
d) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
256.) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the
differential technique (D-GPS)?
a) The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed
by the receiver to determine an error correction
b) Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristic
receiver noise error
c) Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed
distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for
multipath errors
d) Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable
receiver on the aircraft
257.) Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the
differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is
correct?
a) Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'
b) The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in
relation to a D-GPS ground station
c) A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix
d) The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the
position fix
a) The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna
b) It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
c) The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation
message
d) The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
259.) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
a) continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising
above the horizon
b) procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data
available
c) procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational
d) continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
260.) What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not
available?
a) A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are
again available
b) The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
c) The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot
monitors the GPS-System manually
d) The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
a) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off
the faulty system
b) It must be continued under VFR conditions
c) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be
checked
d) It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
263.) What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a) If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise
barometric altitude
b) Barometric altitude
c) Radar altitude
d) GPS altitude
264.) Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights
under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
265.) The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at
the destination airfield (0ft) from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what
is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain
this information?
a) 123 NM
b) 123 km
c) 12.3 NM
d) 1230 km
267.) An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
a) bi-lobal circular
b) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
c) a beam rotating at 30 Hz
d) omnidirectional
a) 600 MHz
b) 110 MHz
c) 1000 MHz
d) 300 MHz
a) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
b) DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
operation
c) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
d) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
272.) The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
273.) What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
transponder codes in Mode A?
a) 4096
b) 3600
c) 760
d) 1000
274.) Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
276.) Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes
from an external, not on-board, system?
a) Pressure altitude
b) VOR/DME radial/distance
c) Magnetic heading
d) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
a) VOR/DME
b) Inertial Navigation System
c) GPS
d) Basic RNAV system
278.) In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data
input?
a) True airspeed
b) VOR/DME radial/distance
c) Doppler drift
d) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) 7000
d) 7700
282.) The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:
a) transponder malfunction
b) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
c) radio communication failure
d) an emergency
287.) In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse
recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
a) target discrimination
b) minimum range
c) beam width
d) maximum theoretical range
288.) In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets
in azimuth is a factor of:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
290.) On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the
shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
291.) In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
292.) In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
a) performance database
b) air data computer
c) navigation database
d) auto flight computer
a) navigation database
b) auto flight computers
c) air data computer
d) performance database
294.) In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
a) navigation database
b) auto flight computers
c) performance database
d) air data computer
295.) In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
296.) In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
297.) Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is
required by the VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind?
a) Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air data computer
b) Heading from the aircraft compass system
c) Vertical speed from the air data computer
d) True airspeed from the air data computer
a) TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
b) TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed
W/V.
c) Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.
d) Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data computer;
heading from the aircraft compass.
299.) Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation
system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
a) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data
information from VOR/DME stations.
b) When 'DR' is selected by the pilot.
c) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the Air Data
Computer.
d) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the aircraft
compass system.
300.) Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation
system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
301.) How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
a) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system
itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines.
b) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft's
normal VHF NAV selector.
c) The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always
tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.
d) the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area
navigation control panel.
a) Mechanical
b) Quartz
c) Laser
d) Atomic
304.) How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
a) 36
b) 24
c) 12
d) 6
305.) How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
306.) What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR
GPS constellation?
a) 45°
b) 65°
c) 35°
d) 55°
a) Elliptical
b) Circular
c) Pole to pole
d) Geo-stationary
309.) What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
a) "Request QNH".
b) "Request QTE".
c) "Request QDR".
d) "Request QDM".
a) 10 - 25 NM
b) 100 - 300 NM
c) 25 - 50 NM
d) 50 - 100 NM
311.) According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally
transmit?
a) HF
b) HF/VHF
c) MF/HF
d) LF/MF
a) The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to night time.
b) The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range.
c) Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB.
d) The range is limited to the line of sight.
313.) In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
a) measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and receiving the
transponder signal.
b) uses pulse technique to determine the radial.
c) measures the time difference between reception of the two signals transmitted from the
ground installation.
d) measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the
signal.
314.) Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
a) Night effect.
b) Coastal refraction.
c) Quadrantal error.
d) Scalloping.
315.) Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
a) Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an unambiguous fix.
b) The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band.
c) The indicated distance is the ground distance measured from the aircraft's projected
position on the ground to the DME ground installation.
d) The DME ground station is always co-located with a VOR station.
317.) What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localizer
beam on an ILS?
a) The difference in depth between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.
b) The difference in time between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.
c) The bearing to the localizer antenna found by means of a loop antenna.
d) The difference in phase between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.
318.) According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the
glide path during ILS approach?
319.) Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?
a) Glide path.
b) Inner marker.
c) Outer marker.
d) Locator.
321.) According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the
following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
a) 19NM from touchdown inbound and 13° displaced from the localiser centreline.
b) 27NM from touchdown inbound and 8° displaced from the localiser centreline.
c) 10NM from touchdown inbound and 38° displaced from the localiser centreline.
d) 20NM from touchdown inbound and 8° displaced from the localiser centreline.
322.) Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
323.) Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
a) False beams will only be found below the correct glide path.
b) False beams are only present when flying a back-beam ILS approach.
c) False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees to the left or to the right of the
localiser centreline.
d) False beams will only be found above the correct glide path.
324.) Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is
approximately:
a) 3000 Hz
b) 1300 Hz
c) 75 MHz
d) 400 Hz
327.) Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in
cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
a) Audio: 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.
b) Audio: 75 MHz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.
c) Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.
d) Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.
328.) In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency
signify?
329.) What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a
primary radar system?
331.) Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when
compared to a primary radar system?
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
062 F-NAV
Lösungen
001.) A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning
must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
002.) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of
Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off
mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be
capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
a) great circle.
b) curve of some type or other.
c) spherical flight segment.
d) rhumb line.
006.) An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro
compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate
corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the
journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be:
a) 334°.
b) 345°.
c) 328°.
d) 003°.
007.) A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian,
with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6
microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass
heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic
variation on the chart is 10°E.
The compass deviation at this heading is:
a) +15°.
b) +5°.
c) -5°.
d) -15°.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
009.) You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate
correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight
time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
a) 076°.
b) 066°.
c) 080°.
d) 085°.
010.) When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to
the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which
is equal to:
011.) When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot
has to:
a) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.
b) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
c) maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the
oceanic clearance.
d) take any Mach number.
a) 136°.
b) 164°.
c) 276°.
d) 316°.
013.) On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in
the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking
point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of
this great circle is:
a) 298°.
b) 295°.
c) 301°.
d) 292°.
015.) In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
a) ground speed.
b) Mach number.
c) indicated airspeed.
d) true airspeed.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
018.) Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:
020.) The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the
zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro
does not comprise a rate correction device.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at
59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being
aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem
delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was
not reset prior to take off.
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
a) +73.5°.
b) +32.5°.
c) +13°.
d) -32.5°.
021.) On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located
on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the
straight line joining the 2 points is:
a) 4.0 NM.
b) 30 NM.
c) 4.0 NM.
d) 9.2 NM.
022.) In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose
printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of
geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment
is:
a) 340°.
b) 240°.
c) 110°.
d) 060°.
025.) In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first
of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation
system:
026.) A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-
GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
a) at FL 280 or less.
b) at FL 290.
c) at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
d) outside scheduled flight times.
027.) After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are
extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
a) under no circumstances.
b) from any side.
c) only from left or right side.
d) only from front or rear side.
a) Aircraft producer.
b) Owner of the aircraft.
c) The national authority.
d) Aircraft operator.
029.) Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft
is equipped with at least:
031.) Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be
safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
032.) For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be
located (in still air conditions) within:
034.) When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
035.) The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which
shall be approved by the authority of:
036.) If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
a) Not available.
b) Equal to the actual.
c) Greater than the actual.
d) Less than the actual.
038.) Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway,
under the following circumstances:
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.
2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2,3.
b) 1,2,3.
c) 1,2.
d) 1,3.
039.) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
a) 1, 2.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 2, 3.
d) 1, 3.
a) The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
b) It is not specified.
c) The operator.
d) The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.
042.) A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted
with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing
units) required for this aeroplane is:
044.) A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following
characteristics:
Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin
compartment should be:
a) 180.
b) 230.
c) 220.
d) 200.
a) FL 390.
b) FL 250.
c) FL 100.
d) FL 300.
046.) An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which
search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance
corresponding to no more than:
047.) An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 NM away from an aerodrome
where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt.
One engine out airspeed is 155 kt, and it is capable to join the diversion aerodrome.
a) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular
case.
b) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
c) Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
d) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
048.) The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) 118.800 MHz.
b) 128.800 MHz.
c) 123.45 MHz.
d) 121.800 MHz.
a) return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledged.
b) continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledged.
c) change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.
d) join one of the so-called "special" routes.
055.) If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
056.) The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
a) the operator.
b) the shipper.
c) the captain.
d) the handling agent.
a) 2,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,4
d) 1,3
058.) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing
tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1- flies above the glide path
2- flies below the glide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2,4.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,4.
d) 1,3.
059.) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing
head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1- flies above the glide path
2- flies below the glide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,4.
b) 1,3.
c) 2,4.
d) 2,3.
a) 1,3.
b) 1,4.
c) 2,3.
d) 2,4.
061.) After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In
the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1- flies above the climb-out path
2- flies below the climb-out path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2,4.
b) 1,4.
c) 2,3.
d) 1,3.
062.) A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of
oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as
the total number of:
a) passengers.
b) seats exceeded by 10%.
c) passengers exceeded by 10%.
d) seats.
a) 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude exceeds 10000 ft.
b) no first aid required.
c) 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude exceeds 14000 ft.
d) 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude exceeds 8000 ft.
a) take-off.
b) the aircraft reaches FL 250.
c) the aircraft reaches FL 140.
d) the aircraft reaches FL 100.
065.) The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
066.) The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
069.) The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction
in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
070.) The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the
same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
a) 15 minutes.
b) 20 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
a) 30 NM.
b) 120 NM.
c) 60 NM.
d) 90 NM.
072.) During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
a) 5 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 10 minutes
073.) If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a
flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control,
you must consider:
a) a period of 12 hours
b) a period of 24 hours
c) a given flight from departure to destination
d) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
a) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved
simulator
b) 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved
simulator in the preceding 90 days
077.) A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over
water at a distance from the shore of more than:
a) 50 NM
b) 400 NM
c) 200 NM
d) 100 NM
078.) On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away
from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that
corresponding to:
082.) For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-
off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
083.) When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-
off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding:
a) 550 m
b) 350 m
c) 500 m
d) 800 m
085.) A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried
out with a runway visual range of at least:
a) 100 m
b) 250 m
c) 50 m
d) 200 m
086.) A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried
out with a runway visual range of at least:
a) 150 m
b) 250 m
c) 200 m
d) 75 m
087.) With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can
read the following information:
- Desired track (DTK) = 100°
- Track (TK) = 120°
You can conclude that the:
089.) To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuvre:
090.) The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger
cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of:
093.) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage
angle of:
a) 110°.
b) 220°.
c) 70°.
d) 140°.
094.) Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the
last:
a) flight.
b) 30 hours of operation.
c) 25 hours of operation.
d) 48 hours of operation.
096.) For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when
required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
a) flight.
b) 25 hours of operation.
c) 48 hours of operation.
d) 30 minutes of operation.
a) 13 000 ft
b) 11 000 ft
c) 10 000 ft
d) 12 000 ft
098.) On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with
oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater
than:
099.) On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is
provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the
passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation,
throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 13 000 ft.
b) 11 000 ft.
c) 12 000 ft.
d) 10 000 ft.
100.) To establish the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular
operation, an operator must take full account of:
1. equipment available for navigation
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas
5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2,4,5
b) 1,2,3,4,5
c) 2,4,5
d) 2,3,5
a) 13 000 ft
b) 10 000 ft
c) 25 000 ft
d) 29 000 ft
102.) All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1
January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum
certificated take-off mass is greater than:
a) 5 700 kg
b) 14 000 kg
c) 20 000 kg
d) 27 000 kg
103.) The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of
VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
a) 243 MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz.
c) 118.5 MHz.
d) 123.45 MHz.
104.) A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using
the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
a) If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
b) If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
d) If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
a) climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
b) descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
d) climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
a) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 60 NM from its assigned
route or track.
b) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 30 NM from its assigned
route or track.
c) Descend below FL275.
d) Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 90 NM from its assigned
route or track.
a) 20° of longitude.
b) 5° of longitude.
c) 10° of longitude.
d) 15° of longitude.
110.) Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west,
north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
a) 15° of longitude.
b) 10° of longitude.
c) 20° of longitude.
d) 5° of longitude.
111.) In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the
estimated time for the next position has changed by:
a) 5 minutes or more.
b) 3 minutes or more.
c) 10 minutes or more.
d) 2 minutes or more.
113.) Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is
used when operating in MNPS airspace?
115.) Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
116.) According to the JAR-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non
ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum
seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that
on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
a) operations manual.
b) journey logbook.
c) flight manual.
d) operational flight plan.
118.) A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
a) the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
b) Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention.
c) Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
d) the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
a) 220°
b) 140°
c) 70°
d) 110°
120.) The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:
121.) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
a) red light
b) white light
c) green light
d) red and white flashing light
122.) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
123.) The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
a) 140°
b) 220°
c) 70°
d) 110°
a) 1.5
b) 1.15
c) 1.3
d) 1.45
125.) In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft
would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
a) rhumb line
b) great circle line
c) spherical flight segment
d) straight map line
126.) Posit:
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
The transport precession is equal to:
127.) Posit:
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar
navigation, is equal to:
a) g.sin Lm
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g/2.sin Lm
a) magnetic North
b) compass North
c) grid North
d) true North
129.) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees,
for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
131.) Posit:
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic
and polar navigation, is equal to:
a) g/2.sin Lm
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g.sin Lm
a) causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere
b) is zero at the North pole
c) is zero at the South pole
d) causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the left in the southern hemisphere
a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere
b) is zero at the South pole
c) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
d) is zero at the North pole
134.) A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological
visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 3600 m
b) 2400 m
c) 1500 m
d) 1600 m
135.) A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological
visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 3600 m
b) 1500 m
c) 1600 m
d) 2400 m
136.) A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological
visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 3600 m
b) 2400 m
c) 1600 m
d) 1500 m
a) 3600 m
b) 2400 m
c) 1500 m
d) 1600 m
138.) During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred to the
runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is
at more than:
139.) According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome
can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at
least:
140.) The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be
inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance
can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
a) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
b) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List
(MMEL)
c) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
142.) The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
143.) The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the:
a) pressurization
b) trim air
c) ventilation of the cargo compartment
d) total air-conditioning
144.) When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
a) to descend
b) to climb
c) not to change its trajectory
d) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
a) lift
b) drag
c) lift destruction
d) spin up
a) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
b) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
c) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
d) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
147.) A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal
component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
a) 6 micro-tesla
b) 38 micro tesla
c) 10 micro-tesla
d) 17 micro-tesla
148.) Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
a) Groundspeed.
b) Pitch angle.
c) Vertical speed.
d) Indicated airspeed.
a) when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
b) if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind.
c) following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
d) when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway
with a light crosswind.
a) A 7500
b) A 7800
c) A 7600
d) A 7700
151.) The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst
other serious consequences, an increase in the:
a) roll rate
b) stalling speed
c) tuck under
d) value of the stall angle of attack
152.) The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
a) ICAO Appendix 8
b) ICAO Annex 18
c) ICAO Annex 17
d) the Washington Convention
154.) Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the
oceanic clearance, the crew:
157.) In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which
forces you to go around. You
1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)
2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker
4- avoid excessive attitude change
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,4
b) 2,3
c) 1,3
d) 2,4
158.) For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
a) A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection
systems
b) The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
c) The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
d) The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
160.) During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will
be:
161.) The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to:
a) rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean
Airspace)
b) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in
this airspace
c) the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
d) rules issued by the bordering States (Document 6530)
162.) As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird
strike hazards by means of:
1 - ATIS.
2 - NOTAMs.
3 - BIRDTAMs.
4 - Weather radar.
5 - The report by another crew.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,2,5
b) 1,2,3,4,5
c) 2,5
d) 1,3,4
a) 1,3,5
b) 2,3,4,5
c) 1,2,3,4,5,6
d) 2,4
164.) While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a
fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-
selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the
occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
a) wake turbulence .
b) supercooled water.
c) convection motion of air mass.
d) windshears (vertical and horizontal).
167.) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
168.) Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The
initial indications will be:
1 - an increase in head wind
2 - an increase in tail wind
3 - better climb performance
4 - a decrease in climb gradient
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 4
c) 1, 4
d) 2, 3
169.) When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice, snow or frost
will cause the following effects:
1 - an increase in the take-off distance
2 - a decrease of the take-off run
3 - an increase in the stalling speed
4 - a decrease of the stalling speed
5 - a decrease of the climb gradient
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 5
171.) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of
Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off
mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records:
1 - Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio
2 - The aural environment of the flight deck
3 - The cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's
interphone system
4 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the
aeroplane's interphone system
5 - Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a
headset or speaker
6 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public
address system, if installed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4, 6
b) 2, 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
172.) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice
recorder which starts to record automatically:
a) prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight
when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.
b) prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when
the parking brake is set.
c) when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking brake
is set.
d) when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no
longer capable of moving under its own power.
a) 1,3
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 3,4
d) 2, 3
174.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima
to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:
175.) JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure
about VFR flights, that:
a) special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
b) for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
c) for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at
least
d) for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000
ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)
176.) In accordance with JAR OPS 1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A
approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
a) 230 m
b) 250 m
c) 200 m
d) 300 m
a) 1 500 ft
b) 3 000 ft
c) 1 000 ft
d) 500 ft
178.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operational Minima), an operator must
ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are
based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are
no lower than MDH following value with:
179.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational
and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a
predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational
flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
a) 15 months
b) 24 months
c) 3 months
d) 12 months
180.) According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO
PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
a) is procedure B
b) depends on the wind component
c) is procedure A
d) is either procedure A or B, because there is not dif difference in noise distribution
a) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding
90 days
b) he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight
simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
c) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an
approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
d) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of
aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the
preceding 60 days
182.) JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls
during take-off and landing unless:
a) he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
30 days
b) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
90 days.
c) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.
d) he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and
landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
183.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot
engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
a) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30
days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
b) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90
days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
c) 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90
days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
d) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90
days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
a) 75 m
b) 150 m
c) 100 m
d) 50 m
a) 3
b) 1
c) 3 and 4
d) 2
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,4
187.) An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.
The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
a) 2 megaphones.
b) 3 megaphones.
c) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
d) 1 megaphone.
189.) In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes,
the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the
aeroplane is:
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the
case of an engine failure.
2. is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching
probability exists in the case of a problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) damp.
b) flooded.
c) contaminated.
d) wet.
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
193.) The number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum
approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is:
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
194.) The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:
1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices).
2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc. ).
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1.
b) 3.
c) 1, 2 and 3.
d) 2 and 3.
195.) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at
the latest when:
a) 1 minute.
b) 12 seconds.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 30 seconds.
a) 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 5, 6
199.) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety
altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration.
b) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
c) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
d) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
aircraft in a clean configuration until the final approach.
a) a rapid depressurization.
b) a slow depressurization.
c) a plastic fire.
d) an electrical fire.
201.) In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate
their life jackets:
a) immediately on ditching.
b) when exiting the aircraft.
c) immediately on the opening of the exits.
d) as soon as ditching is prepared.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 4
a) 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 5
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
a) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.
b) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons.
c) a therapeutic oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers.
d) the oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in case of cabin pressurisation failure.
a) two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in
the passengers compartment.
b) one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in
the passengers compartment.
c) one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and one hand fire-extinguisher in the
passengers compartment.
d) three hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.
a) 2, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
210.) An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must
be equipped with:
211.) he information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry, are listed in
the:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 3, 5, 6
213.) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time
considerably:
214.) Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high
temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
215.) In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
1. a dry powder fire extinguisher
2. a water spray atomizer
3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 4
a) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
b) carry out a dry cranking.
c) fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
d) carry out a damp cranking.
217.) When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right side, you
adopt, whenever possible:
a) a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its
path.
b) an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.
c) a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and under its
path.
d) a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and above
its path.
218.) When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you
adopt, whenever possible:
a) a different flight path form the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its
path.
b) a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and under
its path.
c) an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.
d) a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and above
its path.
219.) The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 1 minute.
a) 3, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) 1
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2
222.) In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane, the
commander should:
1. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane
2. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane
3. position the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane
4. position the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 3, 4
223.) In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:
a) starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.
b) starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.
c) starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 35 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing.
d) starts as soon as the aeroplane commences rolling and stops as soon as it has come to a
stop at landing.
a) low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
decreases by a few hectopascals.
b) low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
increases by a few hectopascals.
c) low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
decreases by a few hectopascals.
d) high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
increases by a few hectopascals.
a) 1,2,3
b) 3,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,2,3,4
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 3, 5
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
232.) The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data:
a) when taking-off.
b) prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power.
c) when the landing gear is retracted.
d) when lining up.
233.) The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
a) when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.
b) when the aeroplane clears the runway.
c) after the aeroplane is unable to move by its own power.
d) when the landing gear is extended and locked.
a) commander.
b) station manager.
c) aerodrome manager.
d) sender.
236.) An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if
required:
237.) After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep
the original recordings for a minimum period of:
a) 30 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 45 days.
d) 90 days.
238.) The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
248.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds
5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater
than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
a) crash axe in the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
b) crash axe or a crow-bar in the flight deck.
c) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
d) crow-bar in the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4.
b) 1, 2.
c) 1, 3, 4.
d) 1,4.
250.) In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement
for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin
pressurisation failure, is:
a) the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13000 ft.
b) 30 minutes.
c) the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10000 ft but not
exceeding 13000ft.
d) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case
less than 10 minutes.
251.) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried
on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane
occupants:
a) plus 30 %.
b) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
c) plus 30 %.
d) plus 10 %.
a) 10000 ft.
b) 13000 ft.
c) 15000 ft.
d) 14000 ft.
a) 10000 ft.
b) 14000 ft.
c) 13000 ft.
d) 15000 ft.
a) seats by 2 %.
b) passengers by 10 %.
c) passengers by 2 %.
d) seats by 10 %.
257.) For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
258.) For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
259.) For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
260.) For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as:
a) counter clockwise.
b) from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
c) clockwise.
d) from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
262.) When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
a) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the
runway .
b) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind
side of the runway .
c) in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
d) beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
263.) An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the
centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear
of:
a) 60 kt.
b) 20 kt.
c) 80 kt.
d) 40 kt.
264.) In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an
aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
a) State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
b) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
c) State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.
d) State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO
a) frost
b) steady snow
c) freezing fog
d) rain on a cold soaked wing
266.) After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of
frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to:
a) complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time
for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
b) carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure
c) switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
conditions when airborne
d) complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further contamination
267.) At any ambient temperature up to + 30° C and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %,
in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
a) cannot occur
b) can occur at any setting
c) can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
d) can occur, but only at a low power setting
268.) Which of the following weather conditions will give the shortest holdover time for a
given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid?
a) edible rubbish
b) short gang-mown grass
c) an area liable to flooding
d) long grass
270.) Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an
aerodrome ?
271.) Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement
purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
a) operator
b) state of the operator
c) commander
d) state in which the aeroplane is operating
272.) In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement
procedures when:
273.) A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest
extinguishant to use is:
a) foam
b) water
c) dry powder
d) CO2 (carbon dioxide)
275.) When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small
leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on
the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
a) zero
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
c) a rate of climb
d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
276.) If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
277.) Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply
at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
a) 2500 ft
b) 8000 ft
c) 25000 ft
d) 14000 ft
a) 8000 ft
b) 14000 ft
c) 25000 ft
d) 32000 ft
a) 13000 ft
b) 15000 ft
c) 25000 ft
d) 14000 ft
280.) Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space,
including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the
amount of control action that is required is:
a) small
b) substantial
c) null
d) medium
281.) In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to:
a) increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle
b) climb away at Vat + 20 kt
c) reduce speed to V2 and hold
d) slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
a) 11.1 km (6 NM)
b) 9.3 km (5 NM)
c) 7.4 km (4 NM)
d) 3.7 km (2 NM)
283.) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg
and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?
284.) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation
time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than
136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
a) 3 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 2 minutes
285.) In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered
into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but
greater than 7000 kg:
a) H
b) S
c) L
d) M
a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 4 minutes
d) 5 minutes
287.) Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should
submit a report to:
a) the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the
unlawful interference
b) both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
c) the local authority only
d) the Authority of the State of the operator only
288.) According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take
adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their
journey can be continued? The:
a) J.A.A.
b) contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
c) aircraft's operator
d) Commander of the aircraft
289.) What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is
being subjected to unlawful interference:
a) code A 7500
b) code A 7600
c) code A 7700
d) code A 2000
291.) In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance
requirements:
a) 30 minutes
b) 90 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 60 minutes
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
293.) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly
outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport
document in addition to any other language ?
a) English
b) French
c) Spanish
d) English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese
a) 24 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 3 hours
a) 80 kt
b) 100 kt
c) 114 kt
d) 129 kt
297.) Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less
than the published length, how is this reported:
a) as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final item of a
SNOWTAM
b) in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
c) it is not reported
d) by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
a) medium
b) unreliable
c) poor
d) good
299.) A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61
seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers
including:
a) no halon fire-extinguisher.
b) 3 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
c) 2 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
d) 1 halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent.
300.) In accordance with JAR OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the
operator should be:
301.) Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
302.) In compliance with JAR OPS and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods
on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
a) even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits.
b) unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to
be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing.
c) unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by
Aircraft Flight Manual.
d) unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 4
d) 1, 2, 3
a) a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.
b) a sealing system which, in case of depressurisation in the compartment area allows the
maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible.
c) a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
d) distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a
blocked door).
308.) When a commander of an aircraft notices, after take-off, a flock of birds presenting a
bird strike hazard, he/she shall:
309.) Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing
distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that
the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance
on a dry runway must be increased by:
a) 15 %
b) 20 %
c) 18 %
d) 17,6 %
310.) In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the
required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).
4. ice, including wet ice.
5. moist grass.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
312.) A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked.
The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
313.) The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
314.) The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
a) flight manual.
b) operations manual.
c) flight record.
d) JAR OPS.
a) you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
b) Extinguish fire only.
c) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.
d) Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-
conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.
317.) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of
airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700
kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of
retaining information recorded during at least the last:
a) a toxic material
b) a corpse
c) an infectious substance
d) an explosive substance
a) the airline is approver to and complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)
b) no passenger is carried on the same flight
c) government permission has been granted and compliance with the technical instructions
d) national aviation administration permission has been granted
a) A 7500
b) A 7600
c) A 7700
d) A 2000
a) 1-2-3
b) 2-4
c) 3-4
d) 1-2-3–4
322.) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
3 - dry-chemical
4 – halon
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 1
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2-3-4
d) 3–4
a) 3-4
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 2
d) 2-3–4
a) Class A fires
b) electrical source fires
c) Class B fires
d) special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
a) 1-2-3
b) 2-3-4
c) 1-2-4
d) 1-3–4
328.) The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) if this exists is established by:
a) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
b) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
c) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
d) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
329.) The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
a) a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short
distance
b) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
c) a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
d) a variation in vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
a) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat
belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.
b) authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and
using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release
their seat belt.
c) forbidden.
d) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt
with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if
necessary.
333.) In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum
crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
a) never.
b) if the aircraft is a twin-engine.
c) if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.
d) if part or all the flight is done at night.
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-3
c) 1-2-3
d) 3–4
336.) The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre
line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR
qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
a) 150 m.
b) 200 m.
c) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
d) 300 m.
337.) The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:
1 - RVR/Visibility
2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H)
4 - the decision altitude/height (DA/H)
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 1-3
b) 1-2-3
c) 1-4
d) 1-2–4
338.) For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used
provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
a) the FAF.
b) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
c) the middle marker.
d) the outer marker (OM).
340.) An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are:
MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres:
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres:
The pilot may start the final approach...
341.) The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of
hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
a) 87 kt
b) 56 kt
c) 145 kt
d) 113 kt
342.) In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to
ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas
in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential
routes:
a) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
b) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached
and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the
highest obstacle.
c) no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise
abatement procedure.
d) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
a) 2 MIN
b) 3 MIN
c) 1 MIN
d) 4 MIN
344.) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3
minutes shall be applied:
345.) According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied to:
a) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the
same runway
b) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a
parallel runway separated by less than 760 m
c) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
d) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
346.) In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using
the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or
departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation
minima of:
a) 2 NM
b) 3 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 4 NM
a) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
runway
b) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
c) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
d) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated
by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
348.) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3
km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
a) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less
than 300 m (1 000 ft)
b) HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than
300 m (1 000 ft)
c) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300
m (1 000 ft)
d) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than
300 m (1 000 ft)
a) D
b) C
c) E
d) B
350.) In the Airspace where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
a) 1 000 ft
b) 1 500 ft
c) 500 ft
d) 2000ft
352.) An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue
flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its
assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by
turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its
assigned route and:
353.) An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance
with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due
to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees)
to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either
direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000
ft or descend 500 ft, if:
a) at FL410
b) at FL 430
c) above FL 410
d) below FL 410
a) at FL 410
b) below FL 410
c) at FL 430
d) above FL 410
355.) DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based
on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum
certificated take-off mass.
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
356.) The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of
flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
357.) During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by JAR OPS is:
a) 5.000 meters
b) 1.500 meters or more
c) 3.000 meters
d) 2.500 meters
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 1 month
d) 3 months
359.) The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log
is stored for a minimum period of:
a) 3 months
b) 24 months
c) 15 months
d) 12 months
a) 30
b) 9
c) 19
d) 61
361.) The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
362.) A windshield wiper or an equivalent device is required at each pilot position in order
to operate an aeroplane with a:
364.) The public address system must be audible and intelligible at:
1 - all passenger seats
2 – toilets
3 - cabin crew seats
4 - work stations
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1
b) 1-2-3
c) 1-2
d) 1-2-3-4
a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 4
d) 1 and 2
a) the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not
exceeding 13 000 ft
b) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding
30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
c) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 500 ft
d) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
368.) For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen during:
a) the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not
exceeding 13 000 ft
b) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
c) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft
d) the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding
30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
369.) For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen during:
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 4
d) 2, 3
371.) For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight
deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a
period in any case no less than:
a) 10 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 30 minutes
d) 2 hours
372.) As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous
package has been damaged during its loading, you:
373.) The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR
flight is:
a) 5 km
b) 2.5 km
c) 3 km
d) 1.5 km
a) 66
b) 0
c) 60
d) None if equipped with life rafts
375.) You intend to operate a multi-engine public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with
60 persons on board.
The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight one
engine inoperative.
The track will overfly water at 380 NM from an emergency landing place.
The minimum equipment configuration complying with JAR OPS is:
376.) According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be
initiated at less than:
377.) According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure"
NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is
initiated:
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
070 OPS
Lösungen
001.) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle
between the:
002.) In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this
part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ...:
003.) The SI units of air density (I) and force (II) are:
004.) The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:
a) F=m. a
b) F=m / a
c) m=F.a
d) a=F. m
a) in all directions.
b) only in the direction of the total pressure.
c) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
d) only in direction of the flow.
008.) Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the stream is V.
An increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V will:
009.) Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?
a) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
b) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
c) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
d) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
a) not change.
b) increase.
c) decrease.
d) increase initially, then decrease.
a) pt = ps + q
b) pt = ps / q
c) pt = ps - q
d) pt = q – ps
a) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.
b) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.
c) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
d) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
013.) Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high
angles of attack?
014.) On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack,
when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a
conventional transport aeroplane):
a) move aft.
b) remain unaffected.
c) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
d) move forward.
a) nowhere.
b) below the origin.
c) above the origin.
d) in the origin.
016.) The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between:
017.) The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:
018.) The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
019.) With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of
lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
a) distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the
resonance frequency.
b) roll control reversal.
c) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
d) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
022.) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon:
024.) The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle
(gamma) is approximately:
a) W(1-sin.gamma).
b) Wcos.gamma.
c) W(1-tan.gamma).
d) W/cos.gamma.
a) 0.74
b) 1.49
c) 1.71
d) 2.49
026.) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
027.) Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitching moment when Cl=0 is:
a) equal to zero.
b) negative (nose-down).
c) infinite
d) positive (nose-up).
028.) On a un-swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic
speeds, the aerodynamic centre:
029.) On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitching moment for which Cl=0 is:
a) negative (pitch-down)
b) positive (pitch-up)
c) zero
d) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.
a) 1.09
b) 2.13
c) 2.0
d) 3.18
031.) An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change
in lift coefficient will be:
a) x 2.0
b) x 0.5
c) x 4.0
d) x 0.25
032.) The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
a) No effect
b) Negative dihedral effect
c) Destabilizing dihedral effect
d) Stabilizing effect
033.) The effect on static stability of an aeroplane with a high wing as compared to a low
wing is:
a) 1.45
b) 0.45
c) 0.9
d) 1.9
035.) When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed,
the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would
be:
a) 59%.
b) 169%.
c) 130%.
d) 77%.
a) L= n W
b) L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
c) L= CL 2 RHO V² S
d) L= W
037.) An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its
turning radius is:
(given: g= 10 m/s²)
a) 4743 metres.
b) 3354 metres.
c) 9000 metres.
d) 2381 metres.
a) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
b) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.
c) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
d) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft
weight.
a) chord line.
b) relative wind/airflow.
c) horizon.
d) longitudinal axis.
041.) At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and
parasite drag Dp? Di/Dp=
a) 1/1
b) 2/1
c) It varies between aeroplane types.
d) ½
a) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
b) D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
c) D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
d) D= CD 2 RHO V² S
044.) An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced
drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:
045.) What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag?
046.) In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed in
straight and level flight ?
047.) Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other
relevant factors constant)
a) Elliptical.
b) Rectangular.
c) Circular.
d) Tapered.
a) decrease.
b) increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
c) increase.
d) remain the same.
049.) The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant
weight varies linearly with:
a) 1/V
b) V²
c) 1/V²
d) V
054.) How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to
maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight?
056.) In order to perform a steady level turn at constant speed in an aeroplane, the pilot
must:
057.) When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the
combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the
tailplane will be:
a) upwards.
b) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of
gravity.
c) downwards.
d) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
a) Up.
b) Down.
c) No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains
unchanged.
d) It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
059.) In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have
the highest value ?
060.) An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only
maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:
a) upwards.
b) zero.
c) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
d) downwards.
062.) If the total sum of moments about one of its axes is not zero, an aeroplane would:
a) slipping.
b) yawing.
c) rolling.
d) pitching.
a) vertical axis.
b) lateral axis.
c) longitudinal axis.
d) wing axis.
066.) An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip to the right, initially the:
067.) The cg of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Speed
changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following
statements about the stick force stability is correct?
a) An increase of 10kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more effect on the stick
force than an increase of 10kt from the trimmed position at high speed.
b) Increase of speed generates pull forces.
c) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
d) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
a) (1) trimming the aeroplane nose up (2) trimming the aeroplane nose up.
b) (1) aft C.G. movement (2) aft CG. movement.
c) (1) forward C.G. movement (2) forward CG. movement.
d) (1) forward C.G. movement (2) trimming the aeroplane nose up.
069.) The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force
required to achieve a load factor of 2,5 from steady level flight is:
a) 450 N.
b) 225 N.
c) 375 N.
d) 150 N.
071.) The maximum aft position of the centre of gravity is, amongst others, limited by the:
074.) Following a disturbance, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant
amplitude. The aeroplane is:
a) the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
b) the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.
c) shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.
d) the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
082.) "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing
and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
084.) How does positive camber of an aerofoil affect static longitudinal stability ? It has
positive effect, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of
attack.
a) negative effect, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
b) positive effect, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.
c) no effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment
d) coefficient, independent of angle of attack.
085.) Which of the following lists contain aeroplane design features that all increase static
lateral stability?
086.) Which wing design feature decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?
089.) Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is
correct?
a) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of
each other because they take place about different axes.
b) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.
c) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to "Dutch roll".
d) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to spiral dive (spiral instability).
a) no pitching moment.
b) a nose-down pitching moment.
c) a force which reduces drag.
d) a nose-up pitching moment.
a) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers
close to MMO.
b) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane
above a certain Mach number.
c) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at
high Mach numbers.
d) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.
094.) With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the
dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
095.) Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"?
a) Roll spoilers.
b) Spoiler mixer.
c) Yaw damper.
d) Rudder limiter.
a) Buffeting.
b) Tuck under.
c) Dutch roll.
d) Spiral dive.
098.) Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept
back wing (2) will:
a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
c) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
d) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
a) During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.
b) Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin.
c) An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.
d) In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.
a) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.
b) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.
c) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.
d) the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
a) The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.
b) Buffeting is the result of tailplane flow separation..
c) Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have an increased nose-down tendency.
d) The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.
103.) How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane ?
a) stick pusher.
b) stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet.
c) stall warning light only.
d) aural warning only.
104.) The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of
the:
a) stagnation point.
b) centre of pressure.
c) point of lowest pressure.
d) centre of gravity.
105.) Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?
106.) When a strongly swept back wing stalls and the wake of the wing contacts the
horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be a(n):
108.) Dangerous stall characteristics, in large transport aeroplanes that require stick
pushers to be installed, include:
109.) By what percentage does the lift increase in a level turn at 45° angle of bank,
compared to straight and level flight?
a) 52%.
b) 19%.
c) 41%.
d) 31%.
110.) In a steady level, co-ordinated turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:
111.) On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "Full extended" position
will produce:
113.) When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
a) increase.
b) vary as the square of IAS.
c) remain the same.
d) decrease.
a) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
b) decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
c) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
d) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
115.) Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?
a) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
b) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
c) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
d) Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
a) Fowler flap.
b) Plain flap.
c) Single slotted flap.
d) Split flap.
119.) In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are
being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
121.) The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is
to:
a) 2, 1, 3.
b) 2, 3, 1.
c) 1, 3, 2.
d) 3, 1, 2.
123.) An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can also be
selected. Which of the following selections will most adversely affect the CL/CD ratio?
124.) After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
a) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
b) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
EXTENDED situation.
c) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
d) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS
EXTENDED.
127.) During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces
a spoiler deflection:
129.) For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade,
measured at the reference section:
a) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
b) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
c) is always positive during idling descent.
d) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
132.) If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle
power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
133.) If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with
idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
135.) An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a feathered (2) propeller.
Which statement about propeller drag is correct?
138.) The torque effect during the take off run in respect of a right hand propeller, when
viewed from behind, will tend to:
142.) A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight.
The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) VMO.
b) MD.
c) MMO.
d) VA.
a) It remains constant.
b) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
c) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
d) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
144.) What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
a) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different
weights and altitudes.
b) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.
c) The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
d) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different
weights and altitudes.
a) shockstall occurs.
b) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
c) the critical angle of attack is reached.
d) Mach buffet occurs.
146.) Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest
Mcrit values?
147.) Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?
a) Accelerated stall.
b) low-speed stall.
c) shockstall.
d) deep stall.
148.) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first
shockwaves will occur:
149.) The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be: (assume no
corrective devices, straight and level flight)
a) Deep stall.
b) Shock stall.
c) Accelerated stall.
d) Low speed stall.
151.) Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
a) Deep stall.
b) Low speed stall.
c) Accelerated stall.
d) Shock stall.
154.) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
156.) The aft movement of the centre of pressure during acceleration through the transonic
range will:
a) triangular.
b) the same as in subsonic flight.
c) rectangular.
d) irregular.
a) separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers.
b) separation of the flow behind the bow wave.
c) separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.
d) separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach Numbers.
159.) In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by:
a) Dutch roll.
b) Elevator stall.
c) Speed instability.
d) Mach buffet.
161.) Which of the following flight phenomena can occur at Mach numbers below the
critical Mach number?
a) Shock stall.
b) Mach buffet.
c) Tuck under.
d) Dutch roll.
a) buffeting.
b) shock stall.
c) tuck under.
d) dutch roll.
164.) When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
a) increased.
b) decreased.
c) unchanged.
d) decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.
a) shock wave.
b) supersonic flow.
c) local sonic flow.
d) buffet.
a) control deflection
b) vortex generators.
c) dihedral of the wings.
d) sweep back of the wings.
168.) In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because:
a) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.
b) behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
c) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
d) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
a) EAS.
b) IAS.
c) TAS.
d) Mach Number.
a) M= a / TAS
b) M= TAS*a
c) M= IAS / a
d) M= TAS / a
171.) Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS
will:
a) remain constant.
b) first increase, then decrease.
c) decrease.
d) increase.
173.) An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range. As the Mach Number increases
the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires:
174.) The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is
due to:
a) wave drag.
b) increased skin friction.
c) increased interference drag.
d) increased angle of attack.
a) Mach 1
b) a Mach number just below M = 1
c) the critical Mach number
d) a Mach number just above M = 1
a) VNE.
b) VMO.
c) MMO.
d) VD.
179.) The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport
aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:
(SQRT= square root)
a) VA <= VS SQRT(2.5)
b) VA > VS SQRT(2.5)
c) VA >= VS SQRT(2.5)
d) VA < VS SQRT(2.5)
a) no change
b) 4.36% lower.
c) 10% lower.
d) 19% lower.
182.) Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean
configuration) ?
183.) The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by
the speed:
a) VMO
b) Vflutter
c) VD
d) VC
184.) What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ?
a) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic
pressure.
b) It will collapse if a turn is made.
c) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
d) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards
a) 3.75
b) 6
c) 1.5
d) 2.5
186.) The most important problem of ice accretion on a transport aeroplane during flight is:
a) reduction in CLmax.
b) increase in drag.
c) increase in weight.
d) blocking of control surfaces.
187.) The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an
aeroplane are:
188.) While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build-up will occur, principally, on:
189.) The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The
shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor:
a) 6.
b) 9.
c) 1.5 .
d) 3.
191.) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4.
The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor:
a) 16 .
b) 12 .
c) 8.
d) 4.
192.) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half
of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor:
a) 1.4 .
b) 4.
c) 8.
d) 2.
193.) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
194.) The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing angle
of attack will:
a) kg/cm²
b) kg/m³
c) Bar
d) psi
a) psi
b) kg/m³
c) lb/gal
d) kg/dm²
202.) The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:
a) camber.
b) degrees cross section tail angle.
c) meters.
d) % chord.
a) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack.
b) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient.
c) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.
d) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord.
a) is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.
b) is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.
c) is the ratio between chord and root chord.
d) is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.
a) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
b) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.
c) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.
d) the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.
209.) Flap selection at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase
the:
212.) If the sum of all the moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about the:
a) an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).
b) a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.
c) an increasing static longitudinal stability.
d) a better recovery performance in the spin.
a) neutral.
b) nose-down.
c) nose-up.
d) nose-left.
217.) An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
220.) Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
a) decreasing weight.
b) increasing air density.
c) increasing altitude.
d) increasing load factor.
221.) Two identical aircraft A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-
ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and that of B is 200 kt:
222.) Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
225.) An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-
ordinate the turn is to apply:
226.) A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at
the same bank and the same speed will:
227.) Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine
failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level ?
a) load factor.
b) weight.
c) wind.
d) TAS.
a) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction,
the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.
b) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip
direction.
c) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
d) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
230.) VA is:
231.) The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at
which:
232.) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which
stick shaker will be triggered is:
a) 1.12 VS.
b) 1.20 VS.
c) 1.30 VS.
d) greater than VS.
233.) VMO:
a) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
b) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow.
c) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
d) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
235.) The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are:
237.) Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
a) CL is lower than CD
b) CL is much lower than CD
c) CL has approximately the same value as CD
d) CL is much greater than CD
a) For an asymmetrical aerofoil with positive camber, if the angle of attack is greater than
zero, Cl is zero.
b) For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is not zero.
c) For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is zero.
d) For an asymmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is zero.
240.) The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is
241.) The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and
beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from:
a) the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge
b) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
c) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
d) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
243.) The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:
245.) What is the effect on induced drag of mass and speed changes? (all other factors of
importance remaining constant)
247.) Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
a) when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface
b) at a speed approaching the stall
c) when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface
d) when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
248.) Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer:
252.) When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed:
253.) The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
a) 2.00
b) 1.07
c) 1.30
d) 1.41
255.) When trailing edge flaps are extended in level flight, the change in pitching moment,
ignoring any effects on the tailplane, will be:
a) nose down.
b) dependent on cg location.
c) zero.
d) nose up.
a) decrease CLmax.
b) increase critical angle of attack.
c) decrease drag.
d) not affect critical angle of attack.
260.) An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the
effect on true airspeed ?
261.) A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a buffet
margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental
the pilot must:
262.) One disadvantage of wing sweep is the stalling characteristics. At the stall:
a) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
b) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
c) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
d) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
263.) For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is:
a) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to
the weight
b) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack
c) The wind and CLmax
d) The wind and the aeroplane's mass
265.) The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as:
a) Newton
b) Joule
c) Pascal
d) Watt
266.) Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of:
267.) Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which:
268.) One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar layer is
that:
270.) When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area
and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
271.) Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a) Spring tab
b) Anti-balance tab
c) Servo tab
d) Balance tab
273.) High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of:
a) wing dihedral
b) straight wings
c) swept wings
d) elliptical wing
275.) "A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower
surface of a aerofoil". This definition is applicable for:
276.) One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with an elevator trim system
is that:
277.) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the
stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ?
a) 78 KCAS
b) 67 KCAS
c) 57 KCAS
d) 91 KCAS
a) Servo tabs
b) Differential aileron deflection
c) Anti-balanced rudder control
d) Horn-balanced controls
a) flaps
b) fuselage mounted speed-brakes
c) spoilers
d) slats
a) kgm/s²
b) Nm/s
c) Pa/m²
d) N/m
282.) The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a
slower speed because:
283.) The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when:
a) 80 000 N
b) 50 000 N
c) 60 000 N
d) 70 000 N
a) 1/Bank angle
b) Wing loading
c) Lift/Weight
d) Weight/Lift
286.) Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being
constant)
a) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.
b) the left engine is the critical motor.
c) the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine.
d) the right engine is the critical motor.
288.) The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the
subsonic and incompressible flow inside is
a) increasing.
b) sonic.
c) not changing.
d) decreasing.
a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = q - ps
c) pt = ps - q
d) pt + ps = q
291.) Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the
surface?
a) No difference
b) Transition boundary layer
c) Turbulent boundary layer
d) Laminar boundary layer
a) Body a
b) Body c
c) Body b
d) Body d
294.) Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an
airstream (angle of attack and TAS are constant):
295.) Which of the following aeroplane parts affect induced drag most?
a) Landing gear
b) Engine cowling
c) Wing tip
d) Wing root junction
296.) Winglets
a) Line c
b) Line a
c) Line b
d) Line d
a) V1 = 0 and V2 > V
b) V1 < V2 and V2 < V
c) V1 = 0 and V2 = V
d) V1 > V2 and V2 < V
301.) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
a) chord line.
b) horizon.
c) longitudinal axis.
d) relative wind/airflow.
304.) Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
a) increases.
b) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
c) does not change.
d) decreases.
305.) An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of
attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant,
assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
a) Point b
b) Point a
c) Point d
d) Point c
a) Point 2
b) Point 1
c) Point 3
d) Point 4
a) Point 3
b) Point 2
c) Point 1
d) Point 4
a) Point 4
b) Point 2
c) Point 3
d) Point 1
310.) What is the correct relationship between the true airspeed for (i) minimum sink rate
and (ii) minimum glide angle, at a given altitude?
311.) If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the
lift to drag ratio will
a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap
d) Double slotted flap
a) Split flap
b) Plain flap
c) Fowler flap
d) Single slotted flap
a) Fowler flap
b) Krueger flap
c) Slotted flap
d) Slat
a) Slotted flap
b) Slot or slat
c) Krueger flap
d) Fowler flap
319.) During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to
(all other factors of importance being constant)
a) sink suddenly.
b) bank.
c) climb.
d) yaw.
320.) During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to
(all other factors of importance being constant)
a) climb.
b) sink suddenly.
c) bank.
d) yaw.
321.) Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with trailing
edge flaps extended is:
a) larger.
b) smaller.
c) smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension.
d) unchanged.
a) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
b) prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.
c) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.
a) a differential aileron.
b) a balance tab.
c) an anti-balance tab.
d) a balance panel.
325.) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of
the
a) transition region.
b) centre of gravity.
c) centre of lift.
d) stagnation point.
326.) Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
a) Swept wings.
b) A canard wing.
c) A low horizontal tail.
d) A T-tail.
a) 500 kts
b) 480 kts
c) 320 kts
d) 600 kts
328.) When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is
329.) When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will
a) stay constant.
b) decrease.
c) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
d) increase.
330.) When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will
a) decrease.
b) stay constant.
c) increase.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
331.) When air has passed through a shock wave the local speed of sound is
a) not affected
b) increased.
c) decreased.
d) decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
333.) The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
334.) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will
a) stay constant.
b) increase.
c) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
d) decrease.
335.) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will
a) decrease.
b) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
c) stay constant.
d) increase.
336.) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will
a) stay constant.
b) decrease.
c) increase.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
a) smaller expansion.
b) smaller compression.
c) higher compression.
d) higher expansion.
338.) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock
wave has a
339.) In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low
loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is
a) lower than 1.
b) exactly 1.
c) small but still supersonic.
d) high (supersonic).
340.) The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to approximately M = 1.3 is
called the:
a) supersonic range.
b) transonic range.
c) subsonic range.
d) hypersonic range.
341.) Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at
the
a) disappear.
b) not move.
c) move towards the leading edge.
d) move towards the trailing edge.
a) increasing lift.
b) decreasing drag.
c) constant lift.
d) decreasing lift.
344.) In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
345.) Is a transport aeroplane allowed to fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset'
Mach number in 1g flight?
348.) Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to
350.) The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the
353.) The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
354.) A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal
cruise Mach number. In this case
356.) What is the effect of an aft shift of the centre of gravity on (1) static longitudinal
stability and (2) the required control deflection for a given pitch change?
a) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
b) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
c) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.
d) The servo tab can also be used as a balance tab.
358.) Assuming an initial condition in straight and level flight with CL=1. What will be the
new value of CL after the value of the speed has doubled?
a) 2.00.
b) 1.00.
c) 0.25.
d) 0.50.
359.) An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and in- and outboard ailerons. Roll control
during cruise is provided by:
360.) The airload on the horizontal tailplane (tailload) of an aeroplane in straight and level
flight:
a) is in general directed downwards and will become less negative when the c.g. moves aft.
b) will in principle be zero on transport aeroplanes without an electronic flight control
system (Fly-by-Wire) due to the trim system.
c) is in general directed upwards and will increase when c.g. is moved forward.
d) is in general directed downwards and will always become less negative in a linear fashion
with increasing airspeed.
a) negative.
b) maximum during cruise.
c) positive.
d) zero.
a) seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance
b) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder
c) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance
d) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control
surface
363.) At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
a) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than
downward maximum deflection.
b) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
c) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
d) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
368.) In what flight phase are the outboard ailerons (if present) not operated ?
370.) Increase of the delta load factor due to a given vertical upgust at a given EAS occurs
when:
a) roll to the left in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left).
b) roll to the right in a right turn.
c) roll to the right in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the right).
d) roll to the left in a right turn.
375.) What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS ?
377.) What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the
cruise flight position ?
378.) In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an
adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because:
379.) At a constant angle of attack, which of the following factors will lead to an increase of
ground distance during a glide and with zero thrust ?
a) Tailwind
b) Headwind
c) Increase of aeroplane mass
d) Decrease of aeroplane mass
382.) An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal co-
ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the:
a) CLmax
b) CL²
c) CL
d) square root (CL)
387.) The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) weight decreases.
b) spoilers are retracted.
c) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
d) pulling out of a dive.
388.) When power assisted controls are used for pitch control:
a) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
b) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
c) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
d) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak.
391.) Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static
longitudinal stability ?
a) If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem
for control of an aeroplane.
b) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to ensure
acceptable control characteristics.
c) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
d) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.
a) Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
been lifted off the ground.
b) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
c) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
d) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
a) 41%
b) 52%
c) 31%
d) 19%
395.) An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
a) 82 kt.
b) 122 kt.
c) 141 kt.
d) 150 kt.
396.) Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local lift coefficient at the
wing root ?
397.) The speed range between high- and low speed buffet:
398.) Whilst flying at a constant IAS and at n = 1, as the aeroplane mass decreases the
value of Mcrit:
a) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control
surface.
b) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
c) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
d) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
401.) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category
in the clean configuration is:
a) 4.4
b) 6.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.8
402.) Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other
factors of importance remaining constant) ?
1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.
2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
403.) The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between:
405.) An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a
location beneath the wing, is:
a) Turn co-ordination.
b) Adverse yaw.
c) Aileron reversal.
d) Sensitivity for spiral dive.
407.) An aeroplane has a servo tab controlled elevator. What will happen if the elevator
jams during flight?
a) Flap extension has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only TAS has to be
taken into account.
b) Flap extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the maximum glide distance.
c) Spoiler extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but
increases the minimum descent angle.
d) Flap extension will increase (CL/CD)max thus causing a reduction in the minimum rate
descent.
411.) In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing
leading edge most critical?
413.) Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
414.) From a polar diagram of the entire aeroplane in the clean configuration one can read:
415.) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load
factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
a) 282 kt
b) 200 kt
c) 141 kt
d) 70 kt
418.) Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip
angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ?
419.) What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabiliser of
a power assisted aeroplane that is in trim?
420.) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with
flaps extended is:
a) 2.5
b) 2.0
c) 1.5
d) 3.75
422.) An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 kt. The turn radius
is 2000 m. The load factor (n) is approximately:
a) 1.4.
b) 1.1.
c) 2.0.
d) 1.8.
423.) Amongst the following factors, which will decrease the ground distance covered
during a glide (assume zero power/thrust)?
a) Tailwind.
b) Headwind.
c) An increase in aeroplane mass.
d) A decrease in aeroplane mass.
424.) An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack
changes:
a) the change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the centre of gravity.
b) the change in total aeroplane lift acts through the centre of gravity.
c) the change in wing lift is equal to the change in tail lift.
d) the resulting moment is positive.
425.) If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be resolved by
installing:
427.) In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared to a co-ordinated turn, the bank
angle (i) and the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively:
428.) For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of VMCG?
429.) During the take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four engine jet
aeroplane with wing mounted engines experiences an engine failure above V1. Which
engine causes the greatest control problem?
430.) A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased from an
equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the:
a) CG.
b) drag line of action.
c) neutral point.
d) centre of pressure.
a) I is correct, II is incorrect.
b) I is correct, II is correct.
c) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
d) I is incorrect, II is correct.
433.) An aeroplane has the following flap positions: 0°, 15°, 30°, 45°. Slats can also be
selected. Generally speaking, which selection provides the highest positive
contribution to the CLMAX?
434.) An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and level
flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed. The:
a) It is located at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the speed of sound.
b) It reaches its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number.
c) It moves slightly aft when an aileron is deflected downward.
d) It moves forward when the Mach number is increased.
a) I is incorrect, II is correct.
b) I is correct, II is correct.
c) I is correct, II is incorrect.
d) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
437.) An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 194.4 kt. The turn radius is
1000 m. The bank angle is: (assume g = 10 m/sec2)
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 30°
d) 50°
439.) The manoeuvre stability of a large jet transport aeroplane is 280 N/g. What stick force
is required, if the aeroplane is pulled to the limit manoeuvring load factor from a
trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight? (cruise configuration)
a) 1050 N
b) 770 N
c) 420 N
d) 630 N
a) I is incorrect, II is correct.
b) I is correct, II is correct.
c) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
d) I is correct, II is incorrect.
a) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not.
b) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves
downwards.
c) The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.
d) The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
444.) How will the density and static temperature change in a supersonic flow from a
position in front of a shock wave to behind it ?
446.) When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these
weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
447.) How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the static lateral
stability?
a) By increasing anhedral.
b) By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area.
c) By applying wing twist.
d) By fitting a ventral fin (a fin at the under side of the aeroplane).
a) An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than for
one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition.
b) An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than for
one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition.
c) Because take-off speeds do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser
adjustment is dependant on flap position only.
d) At the forward C.G. limit , stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to obtain maximum
elevator authority at rotation during take-off.
a) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis.
b) Critical tip velocity is the propeller speed at which flow separation first occurs at some
part of the blade.
c) Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller blade element would travel in a
forward direction during one revolution.
d) Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane.
451.) The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and
the:
a) aeroplane heading.
b) principal direction of the propeller blade.
c) direction of propeller axis.
d) local air speed vector.
452.) Given two identical aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one fitted with jet engines
and the other with counter rotating propellers, what happens following an engine
failure?
a) The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
b) More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
c) Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
d) The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
a) May increase when the cg moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slipstream
from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
b) May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions
and will increase when the cg moves forward
c) Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
d) Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the cg moves aft
454.) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
b) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
c) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle
in a turn
d) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
455.) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
b) Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from
a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
c) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
d) May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
a) Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being
exceeded
b) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall speed will
be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased
c) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall speed and
the structural limitation margins
d) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed moves the centre of pressure aft,
which increases the structural limitation margins
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3
a) 1 and 6
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 5 and 6
459.) Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1.4 VS. The
maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated turn, whilst
maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately:
a) 30°.
b) 44°.
c) 32°.
d) 60°.
a) 12%.
b) 3.7%.
c) 24%.
d) 15.7%.
461.) An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The
point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is
known as the:
a) centre of thrust.
b) neutral point.
c) aerodynamic centre of the wing.
d) centre of gravity.
464.) When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of attack, the
following changes will occur:
a) CL and CD increase.
b) CL increases and the centre of pressure moves forward.
c) CD decreases and the centre of pressure moves aft.
d) CL increases and CD remains constant.
a) 123 kt.
b) 150 kt.
c) 141 kt.
d) 200 kt.
466.) When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20% climb gradient, the
load factor is equal to:
a) 1.
b) 1.02.
c) 0.83.
d) 0.98.
467.) In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure
changes will occur:
Ps = static pressure.
Pdyn = dynamic pressure.
Ptot = total pressure.
468.) An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and maximum
climb thrust, (assume no supercharger).
How do the following variables change during the climb? (gamma = flight path angle)
a) aerodynamic centre.
b) neutral point.
c) centre of gravity.
d) centre of pressure.
a) is a constant value.
b) is independent of aeroplane mass, but dependent on pressure altitude.
c) depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude.
d) depends on aeroplane mass and is independent of pressure altitude.
a) I is correct, II is incorrect
b) I is incorrect, II is correct
c) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
d) I is correct, II is correct
a) I is correct, II is incorrect
b) I is incorrect, II is correct
c) I is correct, II is correct
d) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
a) I is correct, II is correct
b) I is correct, II is incorrect
c) I is incorrect, II is correct
d) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
475.) The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that corresponds to:
(assume zero thrust; ^ … denotes power of …)
a) (CL^3/CD^2)max
b) (CL/CD)max
c) CLmax
d) (CL/CD^2)max
476.) How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature ?
a) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
rudder force
b) decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
c) decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS which decreases with constant TAS and
decreasing density
d) increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the
density decreases
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C.A.T. JAR-ATPL Questionnaire
080-AERO
Lösungen
a) CZ.
b) CTR.
c) CTA.
d) CTZ.
a) CUT.
b) UTC.
c) COUT.
d) GMT.
009.) If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?
a) QDM
b) QBI
c) QFE
d) QNH
a) QNJ
b) QFF
c) QNH
d) QFE
012.) What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?
a) QDM.
b) QNE.
c) QTE.
d) QDR.
014.) What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?
a) QFE
b) QTE
c) QDR
d) QDM
016.) What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?
a) QDM
b) QFE
c) QTE
d) QDR
017.) A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
019.) A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger,
requiring immediate assistance is called:
a) Distress message.
b) Class B message.
c) Urgency message.
d) Flight safety message.
a) Urgency messages.
b) Radio teletype messages.
c) Meteorological messages.
d) Flight safety messages.
021.) The message to an aeronautical ground station "please call a taxi-cab for us. We will
arrive at 1045" is:
024.) What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?
028.) The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no
possibility of confusion about the hour?
031.) Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?
033.) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to
obtain..."?
a) Report
b) Request
c) Acknowledge
d) Confirm
034.) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":
a) Check
b) Say again
c) Report
d) Request
a) Affirm
b) That is right
c) Correct
d) That is affirmative
036.) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this
transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...":
037.) Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:
038.) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I understand your message and will
comply with it":
a) Wilco
b) OK, will do it
c) Roger
d) Will comply with your instruction
a) Roger
b) Affirm
c) Yes
d) Affirmative
041.) Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a
missed approach:
a) TOWER
b) APRON
c) CONTROL
d) AERODROME
046.) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight
information service:
a) CONTROL
b) INFORMATION
c) FLIGHT CENTRE
d) FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
047.) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface
movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:
a) GROUND
b) CONTROL
c) APPROACH
d) TOWER
048.) When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an
aeronautical station be omitted ?
a) Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
b) Never
c) When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be
confusing to do so
d) In dense traffic during rush hours
049.) Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:
a) XY-BC
b) X-BC
c) ABC
d) BC
a) Cherokee BC
b) Cherokee X-ABC
c) Cherokee XY-BC
d) Cherokee X-BC
051.) When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?
052.) How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?
a) Stephenville XY-ABC
b) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC
c) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
d) TOWER XY-ABC
053.) Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7.
What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
a) 118.7 X-BC
b) Will change to TOWER X-BC
c) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
d) Changing over X-BC
054.) Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which
information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will
follow this instruction ?
056.) Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency
118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:
a) No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
b) Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
c) No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g.
StandardInstrument Departure Route/SID)
d) No, if the communication channel is overloaded
061.) An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct
phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?
a) Wilco
b) Will stop before
c) Holding short
d) Roger
062.) Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X-BC climb straight ahead until
2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-off". What is
the correct read back:
064.) An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What
is the correct response:
066.) RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean:
067.) RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean:
068.) RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean?
069.) RADAR instructs aircraft XY-ABC: "X-BC reset squawk 1015". What does this mean:
a) Negative squawk
b) Negative transponder
c) Transponder not available
d) No SSR
071.) When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
amount of clouds covering the sky is:
072.) When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
amount of clouds covering the sky is:
073.) When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
amount of clouds covering the sky is:
074.) When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
values of visibility and clouds are:
078.) How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by
aircraft in flight:
a) VOLMET
b) SIGMET
c) ATIS
d) AFIS
a) 7700
b) 6700
c) 7500
d) 7600
082.) An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the
designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot:
083.) What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to
establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?
084.) A message preceded by the phrase "transmitting blind due to receiver failure" shall
be transmitted:
086.) In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made:
087.) When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to
receiver failure" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:
088.) Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?
089.) When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch
for instructions passed by visual signals?
a) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does
not require immediate assistance
b) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring
immediate assistance
c) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
immediate assistance
d) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during
an ILS approach
091.) A radiotelephony distress message should start with the following signal:
092.) The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be:
093.) The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following
elements/details:
a) 121.500 MHz
b) 122.500 MHz
c) 121.050 MHz
d) 6500 KHz
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 6700
d) 7700
096.) Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?
099.) Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:
101.) To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the
Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?
a) Low frequency
b) Very low frequency
c) Very high frequency
d) Medium frequency
102.) Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:
a) 250 KHz
b) 75 KHz
c) 25 KHz
d) 50 KHz
104.) Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?
a) The ionosphere
b) Day-and night effect
c) Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms
d) Level of aircraft and terrain elevations
a) Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
b) Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a
hill
c) Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
d) Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
106.) Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat
terrain at flight level 50:
a) About 150 NM
b) About 8 NM
c) About 85 NM
d) About 15 NM
107.) Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat
terrain at flight level 100:
a) About 12 NM
b) About 120 NM
c) About 30 NM
d) About 300 NM
108.) Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a
runway in the direction opposite to that in use ?
a) "Clearance to backtrack".
b) "Backtrack clearance".
c) "Request backtrack on runway".
d) "To enter back runway".
110.) Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:
a) Class B messages.
b) Service messages.
c) Flight regularity messages.
d) Flight safety messages.
111.) The clearance: "cleared for immediate take-off runway 03" is:
a) An urgency message.
b) An unauthorized message.
c) A flight safety message.
d) A flight regularity message.
112.) The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
113.) The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
a) The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
b) The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
c) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.
d) The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
118.) Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Wait and I will call you"?
a) Roger.
b) Standby.
c) Go ahead.
d) Wilco.
120.) Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings
at an airport.
a) Radar
b) Control
c) Air Traffic Centre
d) Tower
122.) In order to avoid CB a pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees.
The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is:
123.) From your cruising altitude at FL 240, you want to descend to flight level 100. Your
transmission to the radar controller is:
a) UTC
b) Winter time
c) Greenwich time
d) Local time
125.) You have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is
recommended to wait at least before making a second call?
a) 3 sec.
b) 30 sec.
c) Wait until the station calls you.
d) 10 sec.
126.) When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a
station shall be in the following form:
127.) The radar controller is transmitting: "Confirm squawk". What does he mean?
a) Meteorological station.
b) Volume control meter.
c) A device used for measuring cloud base.
d) Meteorological information for aircraft in flight.
130.) What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?
a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface ofthe
earth
b) Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
c) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of theearth
d) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
a) In most cases.
b) In meteorological conditions.
c) Instrument meteorological conditions.
d) International meteorological channel.
a) Sunset to sunrise.
b) Continuous day and night service.
c) No specific working hours.
d) Sunrise to sunset.
008.) What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message ?
009.) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
011.) The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any
possibility of confusion about the hour ?
013.) Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message:
"Consider that transmission as not sent":
a) Aborting take-off
b) Cancelling take-off
c) Abandoning take-off
d) Stopping
016.) What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has
been received:
017.) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach
control (no radar service) ?
a) RADAR
b) CONTROL
c) ARRIVAL
d) APPROACH
018.) When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC should use the
following phrase:
a) The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metres
b) RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
c) RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metres
d) RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres
021.) Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable":
022.) If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean:
023.) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY
MAYDAY means:
024.) The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be
on:
027.) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN,
PAN PAN means:
a) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure
for a landing will be initiated
b) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the
holding point to complete its approach for a landing
c) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
d) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
030.) When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term
"Visual approach" ?
a) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the
flight has not been commenced
b) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
c) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
d) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
a) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight
path of an aircraft employing area navigation
b) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
c) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
d) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
system
a) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS)
units
b) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in
both directions simultaneously
c) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone
channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
d) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft
only
a) Radio navigation
b) Area navigation
c) Radar aided navigation
d) Route navigation
041.) What does the instruction: "Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean:
043.) Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he
cannot carry out:
a) Disregard
b) Impossible to make it
c) Unable to comply
d) Negative instruction
044.) Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach
procedure:
a) Going around
b) Pulling up
c) Overshooting
d) Missed approach
045.) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area
control centre (no radar):
a) APPROACH
b) RADAR
c) CENTRE
d) CONTROL
046.) What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach
control radar departures:
a) APPROACH
b) RADAR
c) DEPARTURE
d) CONTROL
a) APPROACH
b) RADAR
c) DIRECTOR
d) ARRIVAL
a) Fastair 45
b) Fastair 345
c) 2345
d) No abbreviated form
049.) What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control
tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of
more than 136 tonnes:
a) Fastair 345
b) Fastair 345 heavy
c) Heavy Fastair 345
d) Fastair 345 widebody
050.) When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word
"Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:
a) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit
b) In all calls
c) Never
d) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
053.) What shall the pilot's rea-dback be for "climb to 2500 feet":
054.) ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back
by the pilot:
a) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
b) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case
c) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
d) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival
058.) An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The
aircraft is assumed to:
a) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
rules
b) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid
serving the destination aerodrome
c) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
d) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
060.) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:
a) at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) resulting from the
Current Flight Plan (CPL).
b) 4 minutes after reaching the Initial Approach Fix (IAP).
c) immediately after reaching the navigation aid in any case.
d) at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) based on the Filed
Flight Plan (FPO).
062.) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
land, if possible, within:
063.) Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on
an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
064.) A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under
radar vectors has to:
a) Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the
route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
b) Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the
most direct manner
c) Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route
indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
d) Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes
and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
066.) In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
067.) What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?
a) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport
b) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft
assigned exclusively to medical transportation
c) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land
d) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony
a) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of
an aerodrome.
b) The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
c) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
d) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
072.) What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched "on") ?
a) None.
b) The frequency can not be used by others.
c) Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.
d) Readability will improve for all stations.
a) Readable.
b) Unreadable
c) Readable but with difficulty.
d) Readable now and then.
a) Readable.
b) Unreadable.
c) Perfectly readable.
d) Readable but with difficulty.
a) Perfectly readable.
b) Readable but with difficulty.
c) Readable now and then.
d) Readable.
a) That is correct.
b) Permission for proposed action granted.
c) Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.
d) I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
081.) Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a
message ?
a) Stop.
b) I say again.
c) Over.
d) Break.
084.) Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under
specified conditions ?
a) Go ahead.
b) I say again: proceed.
c) Approved.
d) Cleared.
a) Confirm.
b) Correct.
c) Verify.
d) Acknowledge.
087.) Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ?
a) Confirm .
b) Read back .
c) Verify .
d) I say again .
089.) Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or
message ?
a) Correction.
b) Disregard.
c) Correct.
d) Negative.
091.) What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?
a) I say again.
b) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
c) That is not correct.
d) Consider that transmission as not sent.
094.) Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your
last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part
thereof ?
a) Recleared.
b) Break break.
c) Approved.
d) Cleared.
096.) Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Reduce your rate of speech"
?
a) Words twice.
b) Speak slower.
c) Say again.
d) Repeat.
098.) What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar
service (in general) ?
a) RADAR.
b) CONTROL.
c) RADAR-SERVICE.
d) RADAR-CONTROL.
099.) What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
clearance delivery ?
a) DELIVERY
b) RADIO.
c) CLEARANCE.
d) CLEARANCE DELIVERY.
101.) When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR,
distress traffic ended":
a) the aircraft station has to advice the other stations in the vicinity.
b) the aircraft station has to call Stephenville RADAR to request frequency change.
c) receipt of this message must be acknowledged.
d) normal communication with Stephenville RADAR may be resumed.
102.) Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose
silence ?
104.) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ''Communication is difficult. Please
send every word or group of words twice'' ?
106.) The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall
contain at least the following elements/details:
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level
and heading
b) Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
c) Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight
d) Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
a) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except
distress
b) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
c) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications
d) There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency
communications
108.) To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the
controller:
a) Runway cleared.
b) Runway vacated.
c) Runway free.
d) Clear of runway.
111.) Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read
back?
1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"
2 - "wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"
3 - "turn right heading 210"
4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots"
5 - "squawk 1723"
6 - "braking action poor"
a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) all
112.) The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no answer is
expected. It shall be used by:
a) "Please listen"
b) "All stations
c) "General broadcast"
d) "Message to all aircraft on this frequency"
114.) Fastair 345 has been instructed "Standby 118.9 for TOWER". What does this
instruction mean ?
a) Fastair 345 shall change to frequency 118.9 on which information is being broadcast.
b) Fastair 345 shall squawk standby and then establish radio contact with TOWER on
frequency 118.9.
c) Fastair 345 shall establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.
d) Fastair shall change to frequency 118.9 and listen out, but the TOWER will initiate
further communications.
115.) How will an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency
132.0083 (8.33 KHz frequency spacing) ?:
116.) What does the instruction "Fastair 345 recycle 1240" mean ?:
a) RADAR informs Fastair 345 that radar service is terminated at time 1240.
b) Fastair 345 is requested to reselect assigned mode and code 1240.
c) Fastair 345 is requested to set new code 1240.
d) RADAR instructs Fastair 345 to stop squawk 1240 immediately.
a) About 140 NM
b) About 300 NM
c) About 40 NM
d) About 240 NM
118.) Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel 132.010 MHz. How
would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz equipped ?
119.) How shall a pilot inform the ATS unit that his aircraft does not have 8.33 KHz
capability ?:
120.) Among the following, select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic:
a) AIS
b) ATIS
c) Departure
d) AFIS
121.) Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on
the ground at an airport?
a) Ground
b) Delivery
c) Radar
d) Approach
123.) What is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact in an area
control centre?
a) Control centre
b) Radio
c) Centre
d) Control
126.) The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission.
a) LEAVING FL 200.
b) LEAVING FL 200, DESCENDING TO FL 120
c) LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120.
d) STARTING DESCENT.