ONLINE REVIEW: 9/22/2022

PATIENT CARE, MANAGEMENT, ETHICS AND JURISPRUDENCE, HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY, MEDICAL
TERMINOLOGY

1. Which layer of the heart or pericardium serves the dual purpose of lining the pericardium and forming the outermost
wall of the heart?
A. fibrous pericardium C. visceral pericardium (epicardium)
B. parietal pericardium D. myocardium

2. The layer of the heart that forms a smooth, protective lining of the heart chambers and valves is the _________
A. Endocardium C. epicardium
B. Myocardium D. parietal pericardium

3. The bicuspid valve __________

A. is located on the left side of the heart C. guards the entrance to the aorta
B. guards the auricles of the heart D. guards the entrance to the pulmonary trunk

4. The ________ has the thickest wall because it pumps blood to the _______
A. right atrium; systemic circuit C. left atrium; lungs
B. right ventricle; lungs D. left ventricle; systemic circuit

5. Freshly oxygenated blood enters the heart through the _______ and is pumped out the __________
A. left atrium; aorta C. left ventricle; pulmonary arteries
B. right atrium; aorta D. right ventricle; pulmonary arteries

6. Someone suffering a heart attack in his anterior lower right ventricle probably had a blockage in which coronary
artery?
A. circumflex artery C. anterior interventricular artery
B. posterior interventricular artery D. marginal artery

7. When do the A-V valves close during the cardiac cycle?

A. when pressure is greater in the aorta than in the left ventricle
B. when pressure inside the atria is greater than that inside the ventricles
C. when ventricular pressure exceeds that of the atria
D. when pressure inside the ventricles is at its lowest

8. Chemical digestion of food involves:

A. Condensation reactions in the small intestine
B. hydrolysis reactions in the small intestine
C. Enzymatic conversion of monosaccharides to polysaccharides in the small intestine
D. hydrolysis reactions in the large intestine (colon)

9. The gall bladder:

A. produces bile C. stores bile
B. is attached to the pancreas D. produces gastrin

10. The esophageal hiatus is the:

A. opening between the esophagus and the pharynx
B. junction between the esophagus and stomach
C. site where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm
D. region where the esophagus joins the larynx

11. A patient who has undergone gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) may suffer from:
A. cirrhosis of the liver C. duodenal ulcer
B. pernicious anemia D. salmonella

12. The organs of taste are called:

A. papillae C. hair cells
B. taste pores D. taste buds

13. Blood is drained from the liver by the:

A. hepatic artery and hepatic vein C. efferent lymphatic vessels
 B. hepatic veins D. hepatic portal vein and hepatic veins

14. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is an example of.

A. gluconeogenesis C. beta oxidation
B. glycogenolysis D. glycogenesis

15. Which of the following cell types is responsible for skeletal muscle regeneration?
A. Myoepithelial cell C. Satellite cell
B. Myofibril D. Myofibroblast

16. How many T-tubules lie within a single skeletal muscle sarcomere?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

17. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the name given to which of the following?

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum in smooth muscle cells
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in cells of the epimysium
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in all muscle cells
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle cells

18. The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the:
A. Perichondrium C. Perimysium
B. Perineurium D. Epimysium

19. An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the:

A. A Band C. Z Line
B. I Band D. H Band

20. In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of the following?

A. AT tubule sandwiched between 2 dilated cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B.AZ line flanked by 2 A bands
C. An A band flanked by 2 1 bands
D. An H zone flanked by 2 A bands

21. Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle fibers?
A. Striated C. Multinucleate
B. Typically voluntary D. Branched

22. Which of the following are the parts of neurons?

A. brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column C. sensory and motor
B. dendrite, axon, and cell body D. cortex, medulla and sheath

23. A dendrite conducts nerve impulses the cell body.

A. Away from C. Both toward and away from
B. Toward D. Only inside

24. An axon conducts nerve impulses the cell body.

A. Away from C. Both toward and away from
B. Toward D. Only inside

25. Neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the

A. Muscle cells C. Neurons
B. Glands D. Nephrons

26. A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the ________
A. motor neurons C. autonomic nervous system
B. interneurons D. central nervous system

27. An interneuron has _______

A. long dendrites and a short axon C. short dendrites and a long axon
B. long dendrites and a long axon D. short dendrites and a long or short axon
28. Schwann cells are one of ______ cells in the several types of nervous system
A. Sensory C. Association
B. Motor D. Neuroglial

29. The human ovum and spermatozoon are similar in that

A. about the same number of each is produced each month
B. they have the same degree of motility
C. they are about the same size
D. they have the same number of chromosomes

30. Spermiogenesis involves:

A. the formation of spermatozoa from spermatogonia
B. the movement of spermatozoa in the female reproductive tract
C. the formation of primordial or primitive reproductive cells in the yolk sac membrane
D. the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa

31. During early and middle fetal life, the testes are located in the:
A. inguinal canal C. pelvic cavity
B. abdominal cavity D. scrotal

32. Inflammation of the seminiferous tubules could interfere with the ability to:
A. make semen alkaline C. produce spermatozoa
B. secrete testosterone D. eliminate urine from the bladder

33. The mitochondria in mature sperm cells are located in the:

A. head of the sperm C. acrosome of the sperm
B. body (middle piece) of the sperm D. tail (flagellum) of the sperm

34. The movement of spermatozoa, from the epididymal duct, and seminal fluid into the ejaculatory duct and the urethra
is called and is under control.
A. ejaculation/parasympathetic C. erection / parasympathetic
B. emigration / parasympathetic D. emission/sympathetic

35. Prostaglandins within the seminal fluid are thought to:

A. cause ovulation
B. decrease sperm motility
C. stimulate muscular contractions within the uterus
D. stimulate the vestibular (Bartholin's) glands to produce mucus

36. Which of the following cell types is responsible for synthesizing the organic component of cartilage matrix?
A. Chondrocytes C. Osteocytes
B. Osteoblasts D. Chondroclasts

37. Which of the following hormones acts to stimulate osteoclast activity and thus increase bone resorption?
A. Growth Hormone C. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid Hormone D. Insulin

38. Which of the following statements about bone is TRUE?

A. Bone is the hardest tissue in the body
B. Bone is a dynamic tissue which changes in response to hormonal demands
C. Bone has an organic component of hydroxyapatite
D. Bone contains 95% of the body's calcium in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals

39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bone tissue?

A. Periosteum C. Lacunae that contain 2-4 cells each
B. Calcium phosphate crystals D. None of the above

40. The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Collagen fibers C. Lacunae
B. Chondrocytes D. Perichondrium
41. The organic component of bone matrix is produced by:
A. Chondrocytes C. Osteoblasts
B. Chondroblasts D. Osteocytes

42. Which of the following statements about osteoblasts is TRUE?

A. Osteoblasts are quiescent, inactive bone cells
B. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid, which contains only the inorganic component of bone matrix
C. Osteoblasts respond to parathyroid hormone
D. Osteoblasts maintain contact with each other via cytoplasmic processes known as canaliculi

43. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called ________

A. Renal pyramids C. Renal sinus
B. Nephrons D. Renal pelvis

44. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with ______ cells to form the juxtagomerular apparatus in the kidney cells to form the
A. Macula densa C. Nephron
B. Renal pelvis D. Renal sinus

45. Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is the renal artery and
the finishing point is the renal vein.

A. Arciform artery C. Interlobar Vein

B. Afferent arteriole D. Arciform vein

46. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?

A. Uric acid C. Glucose
B. Urea D. Creatinine

47. The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
A. The active re-absorption of sodium C. The passive re-absorption of potassium
B. The active re-absorption of chloride ions D. The passive re-absorption of urea

48. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as _________

A. Mucous coat C. Muscular Coat
B. Submucous coat D. Sphincter Coat

49. The micturition reflex center is located in the _________

A. Pons C. Lumbar plexus
B. Midbrain D. Sacral plexus

50. Which statement(s) would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?

1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking
2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view
3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction
A.1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B.1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

51. The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart is
called:
A. Tachycardia C. Angina pectoris
B. Bradycardia D. Syncope

52. Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock?

1.Pallor and weakness 2.Increased pulse rate 3.Fever

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B.1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

53. An intravenous urogram requires the patient to remain in one position for an extended period of time. What can be
done to make the patient as comfortable as possible
1. Place a pillow under the patient's head
2. Place a support cushion under the patient's knees to relieve back strain
3. Place a radiopaque pad on the entire table prior to the start of the examination
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

54. Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent?

1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue
3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

55. What are important considerations of radiologic technologists when working with geriatric patients?
1. There is an increased pain threshold and breakdown of skin
2. Atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands
3. Physical changes include loss of hearing and mental alertness
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

56. When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is required that the number of compressions
per minute, compared to that for an adult,
A. Remain the same C. Decrease
B. Double D. Increase

57. Which of the following statements are true regarding a two-member team performing mobile radiography on a
patient with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus aureus) precautions?
1. One radiographer remains "clean", he or she has no physical contact with the patient
2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure
3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective
cover
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

58. With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to

1. Elevate the head slightly with a pillow
2. Perform the exam in the Trendelenburg position
3. Place a support under the knees
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

59. All of the following statements are true regarding the administration of a barium enema to a patient with a
colostomy, except
A. The dressing should be removed and disposed of
B. The drainage pouch should be retained unless a fresh one can be provided
C. The colostomy tip or catheter should be selected by the radiologist
D. The patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip

60. The most effective means of reducing friction when moving a patient is by:
A. Placing patient's arm across his chest C. Rolling the patient into a prone position
B. Pushing patient rather than pulling D. Asking the patient to cooperate with you

61. To have an effective communication, it should start with:

A. Introduction of healthcare provider to the patient C. Explanation of the medical procedure.
B. Verification of patients' identity by the healthcare. D. Verification of healthcare's identity to the patient.

62. Which of the following is an example of a second verification on patient's identity?

A. Ask his/her birth date. C. Calls out a name.
B. Ask his/her gender. D. Ask his/her chief complaint.

63. Symptoms of fever includes:

1.Malaise 2. Tachycardia 3. Tachypnea
 A. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

64. Frequent litigation in radiology involves:

1. A patient with a spinal injury is moved from the stretcher to the x-ray table, resulting in irreversible damage to the
spinal cord
2. The radiographer fails to inquire about a possible pregnancy before performing a radiologic examination.
3. The patient undergoes an x-ray examination in the emergency department and is sent home. The radiologist
interprets the images and fails to notify the emergency department physician of the findings. The physician gets a
written report 2 days later. Meanwhile, the patient suffers permanent damage from an untreated condition.
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

65. Oversized heart, or enlargement of the heart is medically termed as?

1.Megalocardio 2.Cardiomegaly 3.Carditis

A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

66. A surgeon may need to remove a portion of a diseased stomach. If the natural connection is removed, then the
surgeon must form a new opening between the stomach and duodenum. This procedure is called ________
A. Gastroduodenoscopy C. Gastroduodenectomy
B. Gastroduodenostomy D. Gastrostomy

67. Cardialgia means?

A. infection in the heart's vessel C. Pain the heart
B. Angina Pectoris D. Pain in the stomach

68. Hypertrophy means overdevelopment; troph/o comes from the Greek word for___________
A. Shrinking C. Excessive
B. Nourishment D. Inflammation
69. What medical terminology specifically refers to gland?
A. Fibr/o C. Derm/o
B. Aden/o D. Squam/o

70. Movement toward the midline.

A. Abduction C. Adhesion
B. Adduction D. Aberrant

71. Alopecia is medically known as?

A. unexplained weight loss C. loss of hair
B. loss of appetite D. white patchy appearance

72. In which of the following refer to smooth muscle tumor.

A. Rhabdomyosacrcoma C. Leiomyoma
B. Leiosarcoma D. Osteoma

73. What is cryptorchism?

A. Condition of a hidden testes C. Genitals discharge
B. Inflammation of the epididymis D. Inflammation of the glans penis

74. Which of the following referring to the narrowing of the prepuce?

A. Penile prosthesis C. Balanitis
B. Phimosis D. cryptorchism

75. Qualifications of Board Member must be a?

1. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines
2. Be a good moral character
3. With pleasing personality
4. Be at least thirty (30) years of age
5. A member of the faculty, lecturer of any school or college.
 A. 1, 2 and 5 only C. 3 only
B. All of the above D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

76. Because of medicolegal considerations, radiographic images are required to include all the following information,
except;
A. The patient's name and/or identification number. C. A right or left side marker
B. The patient's birth date D. The date of the examination

77. The RRT in a unit is caring for several clients on his department. To distribute care, he utilized the principle of triage
due to the limited availability of resources. The radtech is promoting which ethical principle?
A. Fidelity C. Veracity
B. Justice D. Confidentiality

78. Which of the following auxiliary branch of radiology which deals with the technical application of radiation?
A. Radiologist C. Radiotherapist
B. Radiologic technology D. Ultrasonographer

79. Greatest benefit and the least harm is a principle of?

A. Principle of Utility C. Principle of Beneficence
B. Res Ipsa Loquitor D. Principle of Nonmaleficence

80. A _______ is an offense against the state committed or omitted in violation of a public law.
A. fraud C. Misdemeanor
B. Crime D. Invasion of Privacy

81. Health-care practitioners might be accused of _________ for promising patients "miracle cures" or for accepting fees
from patients while using mystical or spiritual powers to heal.
A. Negligence C. Tort
B. Fraud D. False imprisonment

82. Which of the following is not an element of contract?

A. Agreement C. Legal Subject money
B. Consideration D. Abandonment

83. Classification of negligence, it is a lawful act that is done incorrectly

A. malfeasance C. Nonfeasance
B. Misfeasance D. Non maleficence

84. Are lawsuits by a patient against a physician for errors in diagnosis or treatment.
A. Malpractice claims C. Direct cause
B. Res ipsa loquitor D. Derelict

85. Sometimes called an advance directive, is a legal document addressed to the patient's family and health-care
providers.
A. Uniform donor card C. Dual power of attorney
B. Living will D. Good Samaritan law

86. In cases of needle stick and sharp injury, what should the employee do If he/she refuses vaccination?
A. They must sign a waiver C. They must file a lawsuit
B. They must write an incident letter D. They must report it their superior

87. A health-care professional who stops care without providing an equally qualified substitute can be charged with a?
A. Delayed treatment lawsuit C. Abandonment
B. Negligence D. Battery

88. If the patient lacks decision-making capacity, their rights can be exercised on their behalf by:
1. designated surrogate 2. designated proxy 3. no one

A. 1 only C. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only D. 3 only
89. An ordinary or usual manner of doing or acting or the habitual practice
A. Morality C. Custom
B. Habit D. Ideal

90. Who is the chairman of the commission?

A. the Chairman C. the Associate commission
B. the Commissioner D. the Board member

91. In the Radiologic technology law, Section 19: Qualification for Examination states that every applicant for
examination shall satisfy the following requirements, which includes:
1.Filipino Citizen 3.Resident of the Philippines
2.Good moral character 4.Not been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude

A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, and 3

92. A developmental manager is the one who helps and encourages employees to develop their strengths and improve
their performance. This management style is also known as?
A. Coercive style C. Coaching style
B. Visionary style D. Democratic style

93. The radiographer manager's most important communication skills is:

A. Cognitive skills C. Communication skills
B. Deductive skills D. Eye-hand coordination skills

94. Among six management styles, which style has primary objective of providing long term direction and vision for
employees?
A. Authoritative C. Participative
B. Directive D. Affiliative

95. Which of the following is not part of Code of Ethics of Radiologic Technology?
A. Responsibility to Patients C. Responsibility to Allied Health Institutions
B. Responsibility to Public D. Responsibility to Non Profitable Organizations

96. A termed reclusion perpetua is penalties of crimes

A. From 1 year and 1 day to 6 years C. From 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B. From 6 years and 1 day to 12 years D. From 20 years and 1 day to 30 years

97. Which of the following defines a manager who practices a Pacesetting style of management?
1. Do it myself manager
2. Everyone has input
3. Accomplishing task to a high standard of excellence
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

98. Which of the following is included in the management process of staffing?

1. Identifying the type of and number of personnel 3. Recruitment
2. Salary scaling 4. Selection and appointment

A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. For effective implementation, the radiographer must possess assessment skills, interpersonal skills, psychosocial skills
and also:
A. Cognitive skills C. Communication skills
B. Deductive skills D. Eye-hand coordination skills

100. Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?
A. Oliguria C. Enuresis
B. Pyruia D. Diuresis