MS All Fa and Sa

20.
On a clinic visit a client who has a relative with cancer, is asking about the warning signs that may
relate to cancer. The nurse correctly identifies the warning signs of cancer by responding:
 "If a sore healing took a month or more to heal, cancer shou*i be suspected."
 "A lump located only in the breast area may suggest the presence of cancer.'
 Presence of dry cough is one of the warning signs of cancer.'
 "Sudden weight loss of unexplained etiology can be a warning sign of cancer."
19. During a routine health examination, a 30year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of
colon cancer. The nurse will plan to
 Have the patient ask the doctor about specific tests for colon cancer
 Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient
 Ask the patient to bring in a stool specimen to test for occult blood
 Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50
18. During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-year-old
woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the breast as opposed
to fibrocystic disease?
 Cyclic changes in mass size

 Increased vascularity of the breast
 History of anovulatory cycles
 History of early menarche
17. Which of the following is the reason to perform a spinal tap on a client newly diagnosed with
leukemia?
 To aid in classification of the leukemia

 To assess for central nervous system infiltration
 To rule out meningitis
 To decrease intracranial pressure
16. Which of the following are needed for the formation of anti-bodies?
 B Lymphocytes
 Lymphokines
 Immunoglobulin
 cytokines
15. Which of the following types of cells "turn off ' the immune response when not needed?
 IgM
 lgD
 lgG
 lgE
14. Which of the following lab test are used to monitor the effectiveness of coumadin therapy?
 C reactive CHON
 PT
 CBC
 PTT
13. Which of the following is a risk factors for bladder cancer ?
 Incontinence
 Smoking
 Frequent Urination
 high fat diet
12. Which of the following diagnostic procedure would indicate a diagnosis of esophagitis and
aspiration?
 ERCP
 Barium swallow
 barium enema
 EGD
11. A terminally ill adult refuses for further therapy, in such situation, it is generally agreed that:
 The person has the right to such decision

 Health worker should use every effort to dissuade the patient from refusing the therapy.
 Only responsible family members should make the decision
10. Nurse Mary is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should
tell the client to do her self-examination:
 Immediately after her menstrual period

 At the end of her menstrual cycle
 On the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
 On the same day each month
9. Nina, an oncology nurse educator, is speaking to a women's group about breast cancer. Questions and
comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Various
members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which one is accurate?
 Breast cancer requires a mastectomy

 Men can develop breast cancer
 Mammography is the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer
 Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of childbearing age
8. What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
 Perform monthly testicular self-examinations especially after age 5

 Have a digital rectal prostate-specific yearly
 Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
checked yearly
 Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
7. A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug.
Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic
actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:
 Normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle

 Cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle
 One or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle
nonspecific)
 The chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA
molecules (cell cycle-nonspecific)
6. The nurse is instructing the client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
 The best time for the examination is after a shower

 To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
 To examine the testicles while lying down
 That testicular examination should be done at least every 6 months
5. When providing hygiene and comfort for the child with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy, the
nurse should avoid the use of:
 Any powder
 A toothbrush
 Mouthwash
 Straw
4. A child receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer is at risk for mouth lesion from
chemotherapy. The nurse must stress to the mother the importance of:
 Frequent washing of undiluted mouthwash

 Brushing 3x a with a toothbrush
 Frequent mouth rinsing with hydrogen peroxide
 Brushing with foam tip applicator
3. When examining the laboratory reports of a child with ALL, the nurse notes that the child is
neutropenic. The alteration is a result of
 Decrease intake of iron rich nutrients

 Increased immune cell growth
 Increase internal bleeding
 Overwhelming infection
2. With a diagnosis Of ALL the nurse should consider it unusual to observe:
 Marked jaundiced and generalized edema

 enlarged lymph nodes, spleen and liver
 multiple bruises and petechiae
 marked fatigue and pallor
1. A child is for blood transfusion, if allergic reaction arises, the nurse first intervention would be
 Call the physician

 Slow the flow rate
 Administer antihistamine
 Stop the blood at once
A combination of drugs which includes vincristine and prednisone is prescribed for a child with
leukemia. Because of their toxicity the nurse should expect:
Neurologic symptoms
Anemia and fever
Irreversible alopecia
Gastrointestinal symptoms
An adolescent client started on chemo drugs - vincristine, prednisone, L asparaginase the side effect of
drugs that requires early preparation of the client is
Alopecia
Constipation
Retarded growth and height
Generalized short term paralysis
A client with a tumor of the brain experience seizure, client was given phenytoin. Important nursing
responsibility for the client who only 3 years old would be:
Administer scrupulous oral hygiene
Observe for flushing of the face
Check pupillary reaction
Offer urinal frequently
A client with esophageal cancer is to receive TPN a right Subclavian catheter was inserted primarily to:
The large amount of blood helps to dilute the concentrated solution
More convenient for the client
Less chance of infusion infiltration
Prevent development of phlebitis
A client undergo BMA, immediately post procedure, the nurse should
Briefly apple pressure over aspiration site
Cleanse the site with antiseptic solution
Begin frequent monitoring of VS
Position client on affected site

What are the three most important prognostic factors in determining long-term survival for children
with acute leukemia
Histologic type of disease, initial WBC count and client’s age at diagnosis
Progression of illness. WBC at the time of diagnosis, and client’s age at the time of diagnosis
Histologic type of disease. Initial platelet count, and type of treatment
Type of treatment and client’s sex
Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation and chemotherapy. When should a
nurse administer antiemetics?
30 minutes before the initiation of therapy
With the administration of therapy
Immediately
When therapy is complete
The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma The nurse includes which
priority intervention in the plan of care?
Encouraging fluids
Providing frequent oral care
Coughing and deep breathing
Monitoring red blood cell count
A nurse is providing education in a community setting about general measures to avoid excessive sun
exposure. Which of the following recommendations
Apply sunscreen only after going into the water
Avoid peak exposure hours from 9:00 AM to 1:00 PM
Where loosely wild and clothing for added ventilation
Apply sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 30 or more before sun exposure.
A client with stomach cancer is admitted to the oncology unit after vomiting for 3 days. Physical
assessment findings include irregular pulse, muscle twitching, and complaints of prickling sensations
in the finger and hands. Laboratory results include a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L, a pH level of 7.46,
an a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L/ The client is experiencing:
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
The primary reason for using prednisone for children in treatment of acute leukemia is:
To decrease inflammation
To reduce irradiation edema
Suppress mitosis in lymphocytes
Increase appetite and sense of well-beng
After supre pubic prostatectomy, the client should encourage to walk cautioned not to sit for long
period of time primarily:
Increased risk for bleeding
Potentiates risk of infection
Decrease amount of urine
Produce vasalva maneuver
What is the rationale why a client with surgery of upper GI should not be given straw?
They can swallow much air using them
It is difficult to monitor I and O
It is difficult for client to create suction to seal around the straw
It might injure the suture site
A client has had a mastectomy is concerned that her affected arm will become enlarged and sore.
Which of the following nursing intervention will decrease lymphedema of the affected arm?
Take BP and draw from unaffected arm
Continue to bind affected arm to chest wall while hospitalized
Perform passive range of motion exercise to affected arm (ito daw dapat sagot sabi ni nao galit na galit
siya RAWR!)
Instruct client to wear loose, comfortable bra
In addition to rectal bleeding, what information in the client’s medical history strongly suggest that he
may have colorectal cancer?
Bowel habit have change
He has difficulty in swallowing
He experienced indigestion
Some food give him intestinal gas
Before liver biopsy, a client may receive an IV infusion of vit__ to decrease the chance of bleeding
Which of the following lifestyle habits has been lined to development of oral cancer
Chewing tobacco
Cosmetic overuse
Non steroidal anti inflammation drug use
Spicy foods
Understanding the side effects of vincristine, the nurse plans a diet for the client as:
High in both roughage an fluids
High iron with decrease fluid
Low in residue with increased fluid

Low in fat with regular fluids
When observing a client for cortisone overdose the nurse should be alert for:
Behavioral changes
Anaphylactic shock
Severe anorexia
Hypoglycemia
To prevent bleeding post prostatectomy the client should be instructed to avoid straining, therefore
increase of food intake of ____ is encourage
Green vegetables
Creamed potatoes
Ripe bananas
Milk products
Green - quizlet/net
Yellow - sure
Blue - not sure
CANCER SA (PERFECT)
Question1 pts
1
Which of the following medications usually is given to a client with leukemia as

prophylaxis against P. carinii pneumonia?
Group of answer choices
Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim)

Oral nystatin suspension
Prednisone (Deltasone)
Vincristine (Oncovin)
Flag question: Question 2
Question1 2pts
The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of
the larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:
Sore throat
Constipation
Dyspnea
Diarrhea
Question 31 pts
A 40 year old male diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia finished his first cycle of
chemotherapy. Which of the following statements by the patient warrants further teaching by the
nurse?
“Try eating sashimi in one of the famous Japanese restaurants around the city”
“You can eat soft cheeses from pasteurized milk”
“You can enjoy the turkey on the day of thanksgiving party”
“ A medium well steak is a good idea of a sumptuous meal”
Question14pts
When a client has a lobectomy, what fills the space where the lobe was?
The remaining lobe or lobes over expand to fill the space
The lung space fills up with serous fluid
The space stays empty
The surgeon fills the space with gel
Question1 pts
5
Bebang was a 97 year old female client with skin alteration described as
waxy nodule telangiectasis nevi, what type of skin cancer would this be?
Basal cell CA (module)
Squamous CA
Malignant melanoma
Kaposis sarcoma
Question 61 pts
Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse
provides which pre-procedure instruction to the client?
Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
Eat a light breakfast only
Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
Question 71 pts
The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and
develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown
Restrict fluid intake
Restrict all visitors
Question18pts
The removal of entire breast, pectoralis major and minor muscles and neck
lymph nodes which is followed by skin grafting is a procedure called:
Halstead surgery (Answer: D. Radical mastectomy
Halstead surgery also called radical mastectomy involves the removal of the entire breast,
pectoralis major and minor muscles and neck lymph nodes. It is followed by skin grafting. Removal
of the entire breast, pectoralis major muscle and the axillary lymph nodes is a surgical procedure
called modified radical mastectomy. Simple mastectomy is the removal of the entire breast but the
pectoralis muscles and nipples remain intact)
Radiation therapy
Modified radical mastectomy
Simple mastectomy
Question 91 pts
A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects
cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this
disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Human papillomavirus infection at age 32
Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
Spontaneous abortion at age 19
Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
Question 101 pts
Which of the following is the primary goal for surgical resection of lung cancer?
To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue as possible
To remove the tumor and all surrounding tissue
To remove as much as the tumor as possible, without removing any alveoli
To remove all of the tumor and any collapsed alveoli in the same region
Question111
pts
If the client with lung cancer also has preexisting pulmonary disease, which of
the following statements bestdescribes the extentof a surgery that can be
performed?

It may prevent surgery if the client can’t tolerate lung tissue removal
The entire tumor may not be able to be removed
It may require a whole lung to be removed
It doesn’t affect it
The client with leukemia is receiving Myleran (busulfan) and Zyloprim

Question 121 pts
(allo
purinol). The nurse tells the client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent
Hyperuricemia
Mouth sores
Nausea
Alopecia
Question 113
pts
According to a standard staging classification of Hodgkin’s disease, which of

the following criteria reflects stage III?
Involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both sides of the diaphragm
Involvement of two or more lymph node regions or structures
Involvement of single lymph node region or structure
Involvement of extra lymphatic organs or tissues
Question 141 pts
A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to
care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
“Keep the stoma moist.”
“Keep the stoma dry.”
“Keep the stoma uncovered.”
“Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”
Question 151 pts
A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two
hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens.
What should the nurse do first?
Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container
Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help
Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for help
Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately
A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which

Question 161 pts
asse
ssment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
Question 171 pts
Which plan of care would be your highest priority for client with Hgb of 10%, RBC of 4.5, WBC of
5,000 and PC of 75,000?
Implement bleeding precaution (Wala sa net pero malakas kutob ko ito)
Implement rest period activity
Implement neutropenic precaution
Implement universal precaution

Question 118
pts
Warning signs and symptoms of lung cancer include persistent cough, bloody
sputum, dyspnea, and which of the other following symptoms?
Recurrent pleural effusion
Generalized weakness
Question
Dizziness 191 pts
Hypotension
According to American Cancer Society Surveillance Research (ref: MS of Brunner & Suddarth) the
leading cancer deaths for both male and female from Northern America and Asia are:
Lung & Bronchus
Colon & Rectum
Pancreas & Ovary
Prostate & Breast
Question 201 pts
Joseph who had a history of long-term smoking and alcoholism is diagnosed with oropharyngeal
cancer. He is admitted into the chemo unit for the initiation of chemotherapy. Which of the
following tests is performed before the infusion of chemotherapeutic agents?
Liver function test
Complete blood count (CBC)
Peripheral blood smear
Lumbar puncture
The oncology nurse specialist provides an educational session to nursing staff

Question 211 pts
regarding the characteristics of Hodgkin’s disease. The nurse determines that further education is
needed if a nursing staff member states which of the following is characteristic of the disease?
Occurs most often in the older client
Prognosis depends on the stage of the disease
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
Involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, and liver

Question 221 pts
The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition
may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Polyps
Weight gain
Hemorrhoids
Duodenal ulcers
Question123
pts
The nurse is assessing the stoma of a client following a ureterostomy. Which of

the following would the nurse expect to note?
A red and moist stoma
A dark- colored stoma
Question
A dry stoma 241 pts
A pale stoma
Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs
the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Fine needle aspiration
Chest X-ray
Mammography
Breast self-examination
Question 125
pts
Gio, a community health nurse, is instructing a group of female clients about

breast self-examination. The nurse instructs the client to perform the
examination:
1 week after menstruation begins
Weekly at the same time of day
Every month during ovulation
At the onset of menstruation
Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular

Question 261 pts
self-
examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose
Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males
Testicular cancer is more common in older men
Question 271 pts
The nurse is teaching a 17-year old client and the client’s family about what to expect with high-
dose chemotherapy and the effects of neutropenia. What should the nurse teach as the most
reliable early indicator of infection in a neutropenic client?
Fever
Dyspnea
Tachycardia
Chills
Question 281 pts
Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing intervention for
a client with pruritus caused by cancer or the treatments?
Medicated cool baths
Administration of antihistamines
Steroids
Silk sheets
Question 291 pts
The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program at a local school and is discussing
the risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following, if identified by the client as a risk
factor, indicates a need for further instructions?
Low-fat and high-fiber diet
Viral factors
Exposure to radiation
Stress

Question 301 pts
A 58-year-old man is going to have chemotherapy for lung cancer. He asks the nurse how the
chemotherapeutic drugs will work. The most accurate explanation the nurse can give is which of
the following?
“Chemotherapy affects all rapidly dividing cells.”
“Cancer cells are susceptible to drug toxins.”
“Chemotherapy encourages cancer cells to divide.”
“The molecular structure of the DNA is altered.”
A male client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of

Question 31 pts
Hodgkin’s disease. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to note specifically in the
client?
Enlarged lymph nodes
Weight gain
Weakness
Fatigue

Question 321 pts
The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that
it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be
experiencing:
The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
Rupture of the bladder
Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving

Question 331 pts
che
motherapy. The platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm. Based on this laboratory value, the priority
nursing assessment is which of the following?
Assess level of consciousness
Assess temperature
Assess bowel sounds
Assess skin turgor

Question 341 pts
One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals with cancer and for those
undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most common
cause of this bleeding disorder is:
Sepsis
Brain metastasis
Intravenous heparin therapy
Underlying liver disease
Question 351 pts
assessment findings include irregular pulse, muscle twitching, and complaints of prickling
sensations in the fingers and hands. Laboratory results include a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L, a pH
of 7.46, and a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L. The client is experiencing:

Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Question 361 pts
Nurse Jane is a pediatric nurse, the admitting department is about to admit a 6yrs child diagnosed with
ALL. The best room mate of the child would be: Group of answer choices
a 7 years old who receive new kidney
a 4yrs old with fever and unknown origin
a 6 years old with pneumonia
a 9 years old with rupture AP
Question 37
1 pts
Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing multiple myeloma?
A 60-year-old African-American man
A 52-year-old Hispanic woman
A 35-year-old White man
A 25-year-old Asian woman
Question 138
pts
A client complained of nodule in the breast that is fixed , other deviation that
EXCEPT:
should be reported would be all,
Inverted nipple
Orange de Peau
Dimpling
Evident Asymmetry

Question 39
1 pts
A 3 y/o old child was diagnosed to have retinoblastoma. A priority in

communicating with this client would be:
Prepare the child for permanent disfigurement
Suggest that total blindness may follow after surgery
State that combine therapy is sometimes failed
Discuss need for genetic counseling
Question 401 pts
A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart
while the nurse was out of the room, the client asked what dysplasia means. Which definition
should the nurse provide?
Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells
Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their
origin
Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type
normally isn’t found
Question 141
pts
A client had undergone radiation therapy (external). The expected side effects
include the following apart from:
Constipation
Headache
Ulceration of oral mucous membranes
Hair loss
Question 421 pts
A child is seen in the pediatrician’s office for complaints of bone and joint pain. Which of the
following other assessment findings may suggest leukemia?
Petechiae
Abdominal pain
Increased appetite
Increased activity level
Question 431 pts
When caring for a client with a central venous line, which of the following nursing actions should
be implemented in the plan of care for chemotherapy administration? Select all that apply.
If unable to aspirate blood, reposition the client and encourage the client to cough.
Contact the health care provider about verifying placement if the status is questionable.
Inspect the insertion site for swelling, erythema, or drainage.
Verify patency of the line by the presence of a blood return at regular intervals.
Administer a cytotoxic agent to keep the regimen on schedule even if blood return is not present.

For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a
Question 441 pts
nursi
ng diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which
expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
“Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
“Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
“Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
“Client stops seeking information.”
Question 451 pts
Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse
reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression
become noticeable?

7 to 14 days
21 to 28 days
2 to 4 days
24 hours
Question 461 pts
Which of the following interventions is the key to increasing the survival rates of clients with lung
cancer?
Early detection
Smoking cessation
Early bronchoscopy
High-dose chemotherapy

Question 147
pts
What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure early identification of
prostate cancer?
Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels checked
yearly
Question148
pts
Chemotherapy is one of the therapeutic modalities for cancer. This treatment is

contraindicated to which of the following conditions?

All of the above
Pregnancy
Recent surgery
Bone marrow depression
Question149
pts
When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe,
the nurse expects to assess:
Tactile agnosia
Seizures
Short-term memory impairment
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Question 501 pts
The home health care nurse is caring for a male client with cancer and the client is complaining of
acute pain. The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain would include which of the
following?
The client’s pain rating
The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
Nonverbal cues from the client
Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a male client in severe pain receiving a
continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose
Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear
Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins
Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids
Question 21 pts
The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule
out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the
client?

The client wears a watch and wedding band
The client hears thumping sounds
The client asks questions
The client lies still
Question13pts
A centrally located tumor would produce which of the following symptoms?
Coughing
Hemoptysis
Pleuritic pain
Shoulder pain

Question1 pts
4
During the admission assessment of a 35 year old client with advanced ovarian
cancer, the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
Abdominal distention
Abdominal bleeding
Diarrhea
Hypermenorrhea
Question 51 pts
A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading
that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign
of cancer?
Indigestion
Rash
Chronic ache or pain
Persistent nausea
Question1 6
pts
Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The

American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms:
Yearly after age 40

After the first menstrual period and annually thereafter
Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter
After the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter

Question 71 pts
self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
Question 81 pts
The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most
likely side effect to be expected is:
Sore throat
Constipation
Dyspnea
Diarrhea
Question1 9pts
The hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the
client shouted “why Lord, why me ?” Which phase of coping is this client
experiencing
Anger
Depression
Bargaining
Denial

Question 101 pts
The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse
that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be
experiencing:

1
Question 11
A client who undergo Barium enema. Which of the following verbalization

entails further explanation?
It s a Chalky taste
I have LBM
I’m on high fiber diet
I was given Duphalac 40 cc
Question 121 pts
Joseph who had a history of long-term smoking and alcoholism is diagnosed with
oropharyngeal cancer. He is admitted into the chemo unit for the initiation of chemotherapy.
Which of the following tests is performed before the infusion of chemotherapeutic agents?
Liver function test (chegg)
Complete blood count (CBC)

Peripheral blood smear
Lumbar puncture
Question 113
pts
The nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit.
The nurse assesses for whichmostcommon risk factorfor this type of cancer?
Cigarette smoking (RN pedia)
Alcohol abuse
Use of chewing tobacco
Exposure to air pollutants
Question 14
During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-year-
old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the
breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease?

Increased vascularity of the breast (nurselabs)
History of anovulatory cycles
Cyclic changes in mass size
History of early menarche
Question 151 pts
A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days after
chemotherapy. The nurse would expect which of the following to be present?
Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia (freezing blue)
Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
High-grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations
Question 161 pts
The oncology nurse specialist provides an educational session to nursing staff regarding the
characteristics of Hodgkin’s disease. The nurse determines that further education is needed if
a nursing staff member states which of the following is characteristic of the disease?
Occurs most often in the older client
Prognosis depends on the stage of the disease
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
Involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, and liver
Question 17
The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program at a local school and is
discussing the risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following, if identified by the
client as a risk factor, indicates a need for further instructions?
Low-fat and high-fiber diet
Viral factors
Exposure to radiation
Stress

Question 181 pts
Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse
should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
Changes from previous self-examinations
Fibrocystic masses
Areas of thickness or fullness
Cancerous lumps
Question 191 pts
Rhea has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes
chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10 mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches
her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first
administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur?
2 to 3 weeks
1 month
1 week
Immediately
Question 201 pts
A 40 year old male diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia finished his first cycle of
chemotherapy. Which of the following statements by the patient warrants further teaching
by the nurse?
“Try eating sashimi in one of the famous Japanese restaurants around the city”
“You can eat soft cheeses from pasteurized milk”
“You can enjoy the turkey on the day of thanksgiving party”
“ A medium well steak is a good idea of a sumptuous meal”
Question 211 pts
Gina Tan had undergo radical mastectomy 5 days ago, nurse Milan most important nursing
responsibility in the care of client would be EXCEPT:

No BP taking, blood extraction on affected site
Administration of antibiotic
Teach client active exercise
WOF for DOB, desaturation
Question122
pts
The nurse is assessing the stoma of a client following a ureterostomy. Which of

the following would the nurse expect to note?
A red and moist stoma
A dark- colored stoma
A dry stoma
A pale stoma
Question 123
pts
A child is seen in the pediatrician’s office for complaints of bone and joint pain.
Which of the following other assessment findings may suggest leukemia?

Petechiae
Abdominal pain
Increased appetite
Increased activity level
Question 241 pts
A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left
mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is still not good,
she is not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and
she is really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should
the nurse explore to support the client’s current needs?
Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy
Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her insomnia
Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier
Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia

Question125
pts
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple
myeloma. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in
this disorder?
Increased calcium levels
Increased WBC’s
Decreased blood urea nitrogen
Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow.
Question 126
pts
Nurse Cindy is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy.
The nurse avoids which of the following in the care of this client?
Elevating the knee gatch on the bed
Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises

Checking placement of pneumatic compression boots
Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily
Question 271 pts
A client had undergone radiation therapy (external). The expected side effects include the
following apart from:
Constipation
Headache
Ulceration of oral mucous membranes
Hair loss
Question 128
pts
A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for treatment

of non-small-cell lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves removal of:
An entire lung field
One lobe of a lung
One or more segments of a lung lobe
A small, wedge-shaped lung surface
Question 291 pts
A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical
cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history
finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Question 301 pts
Jenny with an advanced breast cancer is prescribed Nolvadex (tamoxifen). When teaching the
client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse
reaction immediately?
Vision changes
Hearing loss
Headache
Anorexia
Question 311 pts
Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The
average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society
guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Have a mammogram annually
Perform breast self-examination annually

Have a hormonal receptor assay annually
Have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years
Question 132
pts
The client with a benign lung tumor is treated in which of the following ways?
The tumor is removed, involving the least possible amount of tissue
The tumor is left alone unless symptoms are present
The tumor is treated with radiation only
The tumor is treated with chemotherapy only
Question 331 pts
hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do
first?
Question 341 pts
When caring for a client with a central venous line, which of the following nursing actions
should be implemented in the plan of care for chemotherapy administration? Select all that
apply.
If unable to aspirate blood, reposition the client and encourage the client to cough.
Contact the health care provider about verifying placement if the status is questionable.
Inspect the insertion site for swelling, erythema, or drainage.
Verify patency of the line by the presence of a blood return at regular intervals.
Administer a cytotoxic agent to keep the regimen on schedule even if blood return is not
present.
Question 351 pts
Maria was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Upon the early diagnosis, the nurse
will expect which of the following areas is often involved?
Neck
Chest
Groin
Pelvis
Question 361 pts
A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client
how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
“Keep the stoma moist.”

“Keep the stoma dry.”
“Keep the stoma uncovered.”
“Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”
Question 371 pts
The nurse is reviewing the preoperative orders of a client with a colon tumor who is
scheduled for abdominal perineal resection. The nurse notes that the physician has
prescribed neomycin ( Mycifradin ) for the client. The nurse determines that this medication
has been prescribed primarily.
To prevent an infection
Because the client has an infection
To decrease the bacteria in the bowel
Because the client is allergic to penicillin

Question 381 pts
According to American Cancer Society Surveillance Research (ref: MS of Brunner & Suddarth)
the leading cancer deaths for both male and female from Northern America and Asia are:
Lung & Bronchus
Colon & Rectum
Pancreas & Ovary
Prostate & Breast
Question 139
pts
prostate cancer?
Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
checked yearly

For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a
Question 401 pts
nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis.
Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
“Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
“Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
“Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
“Client stops seeking information.”
Question 141
pts
In which of the following diseases would bone marrow transplantation not be

indicated in a newly diagnosed client?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Chronic myeloid leukemia
Severe combined immunodeficiency
Severe aplastic anemia
Question 421 pts
A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks the nurse about the diagnosis.
The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?
Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone
Altered red blood cell production
Altered production of lymph
Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes

Question 431 pts
The nurse is reviewing the chart of a client who is newly diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic
leukemia. Which of the following laboratory values is expected to be seen?
Thrombocytopenia and increased lymphocytes
Uncontrolled proliferation of granulocytes
Elevated sedimentation rate
Elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels
Question 441 pts
The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program and the topic of the
discussion relates to the risk factors of gastric cancer. Which risk factor if identified by a client
indicates a need for further discussion?
High meat and carbohydrate consumption
A diet of smoked, highly salted, and spiced food
History of gastric pernicious anemia
History of gastric polyps

Question 145
pts
During the admission assessment of a client with advanced ovarian cancer,

the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
Abdominal distention
Abnormal bleeding
Hypermenorrhea
Diarrhea
Question 461 pts
A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart
while the nurse was out of the room, the client asked what dysplasia means. Which definition
should the nurse provide?
Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells

Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of
their origin
Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second
type normally isn’t found
Question 47
1 pts
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin
cancer. What does the A stand for?
Asymmetry
Actinic
Arcus
Assessment
Question 148pts
Sam is 6 yrs old diagnosed with ALL. His asked if they could tell their child
that he is dying, the best response of the nurse Aimelle would be:
Being honest promote an atmosphere in which thoughts and feelings can be shared
Most research suggest that dying should not be known to the child
Only child over 10 years old could understandconcept of death
In my experience, telling the child he is dying would cause anxiety
Question 149
pts
Nurse Jane is a pediatric nurse, the admitting department is about to admit a

6yrs child diagnosed with ALL. The best room mate of the child would : be
a 7 years old who receive new kidney
a 4yrs old with fever and unknown origin
a 6 years old with pneumonia
a 9 years old with rupture AP

Question 501 pts
The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting
condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Polyps
Weight gain
Hemorrhoids
Duodenal ulcers
Question 11 pts
A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left
mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is still not good,
she is not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and
she is really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should
the nurse explore to support the client’s current needs?
Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy Suggest that the
client learn relaxation techniques to help with her insomnia
Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier
Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia

Question 21 pts
A 56-year-old woman is currently receiving radiation therapy to the chest wall for recurrent
breast cancer. She calls her health care provider to report that she has pain while swallowing
and burning and tightness in her chest. Which of the following complications of radiation
therapy is A. Radiation enteritis likely responsible for her symptoms?
Esophagitis
Radiation enteritis
Stomatitis
Hiatal hernia
Question 31 pts
Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast.
The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Fine needle aspiration
Chest X-ray
Mammography
Breast self-examination
Question1 pts
4
Which of the following interventions is the key to increasing the survival rates of
clients with lung cancer?
Early detection
Smoking cessation
Early bronchoscopy
High-dose chemotherapy
Question1 5
pts
Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The

American Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms:
Yearly after age 40
After the first menstrual period and annually thereafter
Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter

After the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter
Question 61 pts
During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous
membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic
effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of
stomatitis?
Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse
Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy
Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis
Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
Nurse Mary is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast

Question 71 pts
self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

Immediately after her menstrual period
At the end of her menstrual cycle
On the same day each month
On the 1st day of the menstrual cycle
Question18pts
A centrally located tumor would produce which of the following symptoms?
Coughing
Hemoptysis
Pleuritic pain
Shoulder pain

Question 91 pts
Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health promotion program regarding

testicular cancer to community members. The nurse determines that further information
needs to be provided if a community member states that which of the following is a sign of
testicular cancer?
Alopecia
Back pain
Heavy sensation in the scrotum
Painless testicular swelling
Question 110
pts
In which of the following diseases would bone marrow transplantation not be

indicated in a newly diagnosed client?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Chronic myeloid leukemia
Severe combined immunodeficiency
Severe aplastic anemia

Question 111 pts
Angela, a clinical instructor is conducting a lecture about chemotherapy. Which of the

following statements is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?
Faster growing cells are less susceptible to chemotherapy
Faster growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
Slower growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
Non-dividing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
Question 121 pts
A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent Thioplex (thiotepa), 60 mg
weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat
bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its
therapeutic effects?
It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription

It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis
It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only
It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only
Question 113
pts
prostate cancer?
Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
checked yearly
Question 114
pts
Nurse Waldo is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with gastric
EXCEPT:
cancer. The following are identified
History of pain over right iliac region

History of achalasia
History of ulcerative colitis
History of Pernicious anemia
Question 151 pts
A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an

antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that
interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of
antimetabolites interferes with:
Normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle
Cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle
The chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA
molecules (cell cycle–nonspecific)
One or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle–
nonspecific)

Question 161 pts
A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical
cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history
finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Question 171 pts
Which of the following types of leukemia carries the best prognosis?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Basophilic leukemia
Eosinophilic leukemia
Question 18
1 pts
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin
cancer. What does the A stand for?
Asymmetry
Actinic
Arcus
Assessment
Question119
pts
Bebang was a 97 year old female client with skin alteration described as waxy
nodule telangiectasis nevi, what type of skin cancer would this be?
Basal cell CA
Squamous CA
Malignant melanoma
Kaposis sarcoma
Flag question: Question 20 Nurse Melinda is caring for a client who is postoperative following
Question 201 pts
a pelvic exenteration and the physician changes the client’s diet from NPO status to clear
liquids. The nurse makes which priority assessment before administering the diet?
Bowel sounds
Incision appearance
Urine specific gravity
Ability to ambulate
Question 121
pts
Which of the following treatment measures should be implemented for a child

with leukemia who has been exposed to the chickenpox?
VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure

Acyclovir (Zovirax) should be started on exposure
No treatment is indicated
Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) should be given with the evidence of disease
Question 122
pts
Lulu a client with liver nodule was told to have cryosurgery, nurse Princess
should explain that this means :
using liquid nitrogen to destroy cancer cell (module)
using chloride to fi cell before they are dissected
using heat to destroy malignant cell
using mustard gas component to kill cancer cell
Question 123
pts
A client with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the following functions must
be frequently assessed?

Breath sounds
Blood pressure
Bowel sounds
Heart sounds
Question 124
pts
During the admission assessment of a client with advanced ovarian cancer,

the nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
Group of answer choices Abdominal distention
Abnormal bleeding
Hypermenorrhea
Diarrhea
Question 25
1 pts
Which of the following assessment findings in a client with leukemia would

indicate that cancer has invaded the brain?

Headache and vomiting
Hypervigilant and anxious behavior
Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
Question 261 pts
A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative

period the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric tube. Which of the following is
the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Continue to monitor the drainage
Irrigate the nasogastric tube
Measure abdominal girth
Notify the physician
Question 271 pts
Nurse Donald is caring for a client following a modified radical mastectomy. Which
assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to
this surgery?
Arm edema on the operative side
Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
Pain at the incisional site
Question 281 pts
A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse
formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse
add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
Related to impaired balance
Related to psychomotor seizures
Related to visual field deficits
Related to difficulty swallowing

Question 129
pts
The client with a benign lung tumor is treated in which of the following ways?
The tumor is removed, involving the least possible amount of tissue
The tumor is left alone unless symptoms are present
The tumor is treated with radiation only
The tumor is treated with chemotherapy only
Question 30
1 pts
A client who undergo Barium enema. Which of the following verbalization

entails further explanation?
It s a Chalky taste
I have LBM
I’m on high fiber diet
I was given Duphalac 40 cc

Question 311 pts
A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic

carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other
drug to protect normal cells?
Wellcovorin (leucovorin or citrovorum factor or folinic acid)
Tabloid (thioguanine)
Cytosar-U (cytarabine)
Benemid (probenecid)
Question 132
pts
Which plan of care would be your highest priority for client with Hgb of 10%,
RBC of 4.5, WBC of 5,000 and PC of 75,000?
Implement bleeding precaution
Implement rest period activity
Implement neutropenic precaution
Implement universal precaution

Question 33
1 pts
The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the
larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:
Sore throat
Constipation
Dyspnea
Diarrhea
Question 341 pts
During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-
year-old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of
the breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease?
Increased vascularity of the breast
History of anovulatory cycles
Cyclic changes in mass size
History of early menarche

Question 351 pts
The nurse is reviewing the chart of a client who is newly diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic
leukemia. Which of the following laboratory values is expected to be seen?
Thrombocytopenia and increased lymphocytes
Uncontrolled proliferation of granulocytes
Elevated sedimentation rate
Elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels
Question 361 pts

A nurse is providing education in a community setting about general measures to avoid excessive
sun exposure. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
Apply sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 30 or more before sun exposure
Avoid peak exposure hours from 9am to 1pm
Apply sunscreen only after going in the water
Wear loosely woven clothing for added ventilation
Question137
pts
When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe,
the nurse expects to assess:
Tactile agnosia Rationale: a (inability to identify objects by touch) is a sign of a parietal lobe tumor.
Short-term memory impairment occurs with a frontal lobe tumor. Seizures may result from a
tumor of the frontal, temporal, or occipital lobe. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia suggests
an occipital lobe tumor.
Seizures
Short-term memory impairment
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

Question 138
pts
Which of the following is the reason to perform a spinal tap on a client newly
diagnosed with leukemia?
To assess for central nervous system infiltration
To aid in classification of the leukemia
To rule out meningitis
To decrease intracranial pressure
Question 139
pts
Warning signs and symptoms of lung cancer include persistent cough, bloody
sputum, dyspnea, and which of the other following symptoms?
Recurrent pleural effusion
Generalized weakness
Dizziness
Hypotension
Question 401 pts
Maria was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Upon the early diagnosis, the nurse will
expect which of the following areas is often involved?
Neck
Chest
Groin
Pelvis
Question 411 pts
hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens.
What should the nurse do first?
Question 42
1 pts
A 3 y/o old child was diagnose to have retinoblastoma. A priority in

communicating with this client would be:
Prepare the child for permanent disfigurement
Suggest that total blindness may follow after surgery
State that combine therapy is sometimes failed
Discuss need for genetic counseling
Question 431 pts
What are the three most important prognostic factors in determining long-term
survival for children with acute leukemia?
Histologic type of disease, initial WBC count, and client’s age at diagnosis
Progression of illness, WBC at the time of diagnosis, and client’s age at the time of diagnosis
Histologic type of disease, initial platelet count, and type of treatment
Type of treatment and client’s sex
Question 144
pts
The nurse is preparing a client for a mammography. The nurse tells the client
To avoid the use of deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the test.
That there is no discomfort associated with the procedure To maintain a
nothing-by-mouth status on the day of the test
That mammography takes about 1 hour.
The client with leukemia is receiving Myleran (busulfan) and Zyloprim

Question 451 pts
(allo
purinol). The nurse tells the client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent:
Hyperuricemia
Mouth sores
Nausea
Alopecia
Question 461 pts
the following?

Question 147
pts
A sexually active worker found to have stage 0 carcinoma of the cervix and
scheduled for hysterectomy, what is the interpretation for this?
centered to epithelial cell of cervix
It has spread into pelvis
It metastasize to the bones
limited to cervical tissue and vaginal mucous
Question 481 pts
According to American Cancer Society Surveillance Research (ref: MS of Brunner & Suddarth) the
leading cancer deaths for both male and female from Northern America and Asia are:
Lung & Bronchus

Colon & Rectum
Pancreas & Ovary
Prostate & Breast
Question 491 pts
Nurse John is assigned to Medical Surgical ward and it is part of his daily routine to explain to his
patients the disease process. Nurse John shared to his patients that the process of transforming
normal cells into malignant cells is called:
carcinogenesis
cancer
chemotherapy
cytokenesis
Question 50
1 pts
Which of the following complications are three main consequences of

leukemia?
Anemia, infection, and bleeding tendencies
Bone deformities, spherocytosis, and infection
Polycythemia, decreased clotting time, and infection
Lymphocytopoiesis, growth delays, and hirsutism
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of cancer of the prostate. The nurse
analyzes the laboratory values and notes that the serum acid phosphatase level is elevated. The nurse
determines that this laboratory test is most often useful in determining
The progression or regression of the cancer

The diagnosis of prostate cancer
Complications associated with cancer
The likelihood of associated bone cancer
Sarah, a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the client expresses that “If
I can just live long enough to attend my daughter’s graduation, I’ll be ready to die.” Which phrase of
coping is this client experiencing?
Bargaining
Depression
Denial
Anger
A client was admitted at OPD and impression was liver cirrhosis, he had history of Hep B. Which of the
following would be appropriate in the plan of care?
Wear mask, gown and goggles

Observe stool, and extent of jaundice
Implement enteric precaution
Place client in negative pressure room or isolation
Jasmin is an oncology nurse at TMC She handled a client with liver CA. What would be your initial
independent nursing intervention to client complaining of severe DOB related to enlarging tumor and
with ascites?
Place client on semi fowlers position

Monitor client’s vital sign
Nebulize the client
Administer O2 at 2LPm initially
The home health care nurse is caring for a male client with cancer and the client is complaining of acute
pain. The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain would include which of the following?
The client’s pain rating

The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
Nonverbal cues from the client
Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
Which of the following substances has abnormal values early in the course of multiple myeloma (MM)?
Immunoglobulins White
blood cells Red blood cells
Platelets
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client diagnosed with a RIGHT colon tumor.
The nurse asks the client about which characteristic symptom of this type of a tumor
Crampy, colicky abdominal pain

Rectal bleeding
Flat, ribbonlike stools
Alternating constipation and diarrhea
One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals with cancer and for those
undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most common
cause of this bleeding disorder is:
Sepsis
Brain metastasis
Intravenous heparin therapy
Underlying liver disease
What would the nurse anticipate findings into the health history of client diagnose with cervical
cancer? Group of answer choices
post coital bleeding weight

gain dysmenorrhea irregular
menses Clinical
manifestation that are often
found in client diagnose with
CA of the esophagus are the
following,EXCEPT:
Positive for HBSag test

Substernal burning pain
Eructation
Pain upon ingestion of tea
A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are prescribed. The
nurse understands which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
Biopsy of the tumor

Abdominal ultrasound
Computerized tomography scan
Magnetic resonance imagin
Angela, a clinical instructor is conducting a lecture about chemotherapy. Which of the following
statements is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?

The client with which of the following types of lung cancer has the best prognosis?

Squamous cell
Oat cell
Small cell
Adenocarcinoma
Prof. Mel Tan discussed that the cells that lack the normal cellular characteristics and differ in
shape and organization is called: Group of answer choices
anaplasia alopecia
benign tumor
malignant cells
The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma. The nurse includes which
priority intervention in the plan of care?
Encouraging fluids
Providing frequent oral care
Coughing and deep breathing
Monitoring red blood cell count
Question 11 pts
Which of the following nursing interventions would be most helpful in making the respiratory
effort of a client with metastatic lung cancer more efficient?
Teaching and encouraging pursed-lip breathing
Placing the client in a low semi-Fowlers position
Administering cough suppressants as ordered
Teaching the client diaphragmatic breathing techniques
Question12pts
Which of the following assessment findings in a client with leukemia would

indicate that cancer has invaded the brain?
Headache and vomiting
Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks the nurse about
Question 31 pts
the
diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?
Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone
Altered red blood cell production
Altered production of lymph
Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes

Question 41 pts
The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and
develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown
Restrict fluid intake
Restrict all visitors
Question 51 pts
Angela, a clinical instructor is conducting a lecture about chemotherapy. Which of the following
statements is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?

Question1 6
pts
A 25-year-old patient is inquiring about the methods or ways to detect cancer

earlier. The nurseleastlikely identifies this method
by stating:
Annual Pap smear for sexually active women only
Yearly physical and blood examination
Annual digital rectal examination for persons over age 40
Annual chest x-ray
Question 71 pts
the following?
Question18pts
What would the nurse anticipate findings into the health history of client
diagnose with cervical cancer?
post coital bleeding
weight gain
dysmenorrhea
irregular menses

Question 91 pts
Which of the following types of leukemia carries the best prognosis?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Basophilic leukemia
Eosinophilic leukemia
Question 101 pts
Which of the following is the primary goal for surgical resection of lung cancer?
To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue as possible
To remove the tumor and all surrounding tissue
To remove as much as the tumor as possible, without removing any alveoli
To remove all of the tumor and any collapsed alveoli in the same region
Question 11
1 pts
Which assessment would be very important regarding SAFETY for client

receiving ONCOVIN?
Hypotension & alopecia
Paresthesia and difficulty in gait
Polyphagia and polydipsia
Fatigue and nausea
Question 121 pts
The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that
it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be
experiencing:

Question 131 pts
A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are
prescribed. The nurse understands which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
Biopsy of the tumor
Abdominal ultrasound
Computerized tomography scan
Magnetic resonance imaging
Question 114
pts
According to a standard staging classification of Hodgkin’s disease, which of

the following criteria reflects stage III?
Involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both sides of the diaphragm
Involvement of two or more lymph node regions or structures
Involvement of single lymph node region or structure
Involvement of extra lymphatic organs or tissues
Question 151 pts
Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health promotion program regarding testicular
cancer to community members. The nurse determines that further information needs to be
provided if a community member states that which of the following is a sign of testicular cancer?
Alopecia
Back pain
Heavy sensation in the scrotum
Painless testicular swelling
Question 116
pts
The nurse is preparing a client for a mammography. The nurse tells the client
To avoid the use of deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the test.
That there is no discomfort associated with the procedure To maintain a
nothing-by-mouth status on the day of the test That mammography takes
about 1 hour.
Question 117
pts
The nurse is instructing the client to perform a testicular self-examination. The

nurse tells the client:
The best time for the examination is after a shower
To examine the testicles while lying down
To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
That testicular examination should be done at least every 6 months

Question 118
pts
If the client with lung cancer also has preexisting pulmonary disease, which of
the following statements bestdescribes the extentof a surgery that can be
performed?
It may prevent surgery if the client can’t tolerate lung tissue removal
The entire tumor may not be able to be removed
It may require a whole lung to be removed
It doesn’t affect it
Question 119pts
Which of the following immunizations should not be given to a 4-month-old

sibling of a client with leukemia?
Oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)
Hepatitis B vaccine
Diphtheria and tetanus and pertussis (DPT) vaccine
Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccines (Hib)

Question 201 pts
A 35-year-old client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding
suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
Rust-colored sputum
Yellow tooth discoloration
White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue
Question 21
1 pts
The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the
larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:
Sore throat
Constipation
Dyspnea
Diarrhea
Question 431 pts
assessment findings include irregular pulse, muscle twitching, and complaints of prickling
sensations in the fingers and hands. Laboratory results include a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L, a
pH of 7.46, and a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L. The client is experiencing:
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Question 441 pts
The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program and the topic of the discussion
relates to the risk factors of gastric cancer. Which risk factor if identified by a client indicates a
need for further discussion?
High meat and carbohydrate consumption
A diet of smoked, highly salted, and spiced food

History of gastric pernicious anemia
History of gastric polyps
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving

Question 451 pts
che
motherapy. The platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm. Based on this laboratory value, the priority
nursing assessment is which of the following?
Assess level of consciousness
Assess temperature
Assess bowel sounds
Assess skin turgor
Question 461 pts
Parents of pediatric clients who undergo irradiation involving the central nervous system should
be warned about postirradiation somnolence. When does this neurologic syndrome usually
occur?
Within 5 to 8 weeks
Within 3 to 6 months
Within 1 to 2 weeks
Immediately
Question 471 pts
A diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease was made to a 58- year old man and is admitted for the initial
cycle of chemotherapy. During the hospitalization, the nurse should watch out for the following
complication, except?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Infection
Secondary cancer
Fertility problems

Question 481 pts
self-
examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
Question 491 pts
During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous
membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic
effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of
stomatitis?
Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse
Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy
Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis

Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
Question 150
pts
A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent Thioplex

(thiotepa), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a
chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works.
How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription
It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis
It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only
It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only
A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any
treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to
expect:
Fatigue
Vomiting
Hair loss
Stomatitis
A client has been diagnosed with lung cancer and requires a wedge resection. How much of the lung is
removed?
A small, localized area near the surface of the lung

A lobe of the lung
One entire lung

A segment of the lung, including a bronchiole and its alveoli
All of the following are TRUE about Pump Failure, except;
a process by which areas of myocardial cells are permanently destroyed

classified according to the major ventricular dysfunction
unable to maintain adequate circulation to meet the metabolic needs of the body inability of the heart
to pump sufficiently
Osler's nodes is characterized by abnormal urine

color
red painful nodes in pads of fingers and toes splinter

hemorrhages under the nails
red, painless nodes in the pads of the fingers and
The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to: - on the jaw, the left arm, neck outer aspect of the upper
arms on the left the jaw, of the upper arms
The following are the signs and symptoms of MI except; -Increase left ventricular function and cardiac
output
Health Teaching in CAD is focused on the following except; -Increasing dietary intake of sodium and fats
Morphine SO4 is a drug of choice as analgesic - Decrease cardiac output
A complication of myocardial Infarction that must be watched - Chest pain
The following re nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial infarction except -Provide
active ROM exercises
Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor of myocardial infarction? - Ethic Background
These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except - Increasing age
It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest - Angina Pectoris
Examples of drugs that reduces vasospasm - Nitroglycerine
An example of a non-modifiable risk factor in CAD is - Increasing age
Nitroglycerine medications Act to; - Reduce Vasospasm
The objective of medical and nursing management of angina pectoris - FALSE
It is the visualization of lymphatics and lymph nodes by radiography following the intralymphatic
injection of a contrast medium?
Lymphography
Bone marrow aspiration
x-ray
venogram
Nursing interventions after the bone marrow aspiration are the following exceot:
Rest because of slight pain on injection site after the procedure
Lie down on side and local anesthesia given

Keep the wound/injection site dry
Pain managed by pain relievers as prescribed by physician
The normal sodium level in the blood is
4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
It prevents the extension and formation of blood clots and decreases blood coagulability Anticoagulant
Calcium channel blockers
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics
Anticoagulants are used for the following conditions, except:
Thrombosis
Myocardial infraction
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment finding will cause the
nurse to take action?
Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
Blood pressure 110/90 mmHg
A client who has angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse reviews which appropriate nursing
interventions for nitroglycerin?
Call the health care provider after taking 5 tablets if chest pain persists
Have the client lie down when taking a nitroglycerin sublingual tablet
Teach client to repeat taking a tablet in 3 minutes if chest pain persist
Apply transderm-nitro patch to a hairy area to protect skin from burning
Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction regarding the use of
nitroglycerin?
“I can take up to five tables at 3-minutes intervals for chest pain if necessary.”
“I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy.”
“if I get a headache, I should keep taking nitroglycerin and use Tylenol for pain relief.”
“I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.”
It involves injection of a radiopause contrast agent directly into the arterial system to visualize the vessel
and area of aneurysm can be detected.
Coronary angiography
Venogram
Cardia catheterization
TEE
It is a procedure that involves taking a sample of liquid part of the soft tissue inside your bone Bone
marrow
Venogram

Lymphography
What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin?
Apply nitroglycerin patch every other day
Apply the nitroglycerin patch for 14 hours and remove it for 10 hours at night
Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the client’s systolic blood pressure elevates to more than 140
mmHg
Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only
The normal potassium level in the blood is:
2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration, except: Preserve left
ventricular function
Limit MI damage
Decrease blood coagulability

Prevents death
Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client with atrial fibrillation. While implementing this
prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit? Aminocaproic
acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K
Thrombolytic medications break down blood clots
False
True
Mario listens to richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs.
The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when mario
does the percussion would be:
Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on the Trendelenburg position Client seated upright in
the bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position and then flat on his back and on his
abdomen
Client is lying on his right then left side in Trendelenburg position
Client lying flat on his back and then flat on his abdomen
Which of the following is not advisable during incentive spirometry test?
Make sure the patients lean forward during the test

Hold or place the spirometer in an upright position
Continue until no more air can be exhaled
Which action indicates that the client understands teaching on the correct way to perform
diaphragmatic breathing?
Having hands on abdomen

Having hands over head
Lying on side with knees bent
Lying prone
Deep ventilation may loosen secretions, and coughing can facilitate their removal True
Partly true
Partly false
False
All of the following are steps to consider in preparing the site for pulse oximetry reading, except:
Nail polish of acrylic nails should be removed when taking the pulse oximetry
Position the sensor on the side of the finger rather then the perpendicular to the nail bed
Cleanse the site with alcohol wipe before applying the sensor
Nail polish must be removed because it may interfere with accurate measurements
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention if your patient’s heart rate drops during
suctioning? Notify the physician
Limit suctioning to 15 seconds
Stop and re-oxygenate the patient

Continue to suction
The nurse observes the nursing student suctioning the client. Which intervention on the
nurse’s part has the greatest potential to cause tissue damage
Applying suction when the catheter is inserted

Hyper-oxygenating the client after removing the suction catheter
Oxygen saturation post suctioning is 93%
Applying intermittent suctioning
You are a student nurse assigned to do suctioning to your patient. What suctioning, you must limit the
suctioning time to a maximum of:
1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
Protocol for use of inhaled medications select that applies:
Possible triggering factors
All of the above

Date the protocol the time comes into effect and a review date and or expiration date
Possible warning signs
None of the above

The purpose of nebulization is the following except:
When a child or young person has stridor
When the child or young has an acute asthma attack
When a child or young person is not respiratory distress

None of the above
All of the above
Most aerosol medication has ___ effects and is administered by respiratory therapist
Removes thick secretions
Reduced difficulty of breathing
Liquefying effects
Broncho dilating effects
Prepare the medication following the following rights of medication administration except: Explain to
the client what you are going to do
Right reason
Assist the client to make comfortable position in lying position

Right response
All of the above
None of the above
Equipment required except:
Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above
Dr’s order card is not important

Inhaler
A therapy that liquefies and remove retained secretions from the respiratory tract. A nebulize is a device
that a stable aerosol of fluid and/or drug particles
None of the above
Steam inhalation therapy

Nebulization therapy
Suctioning
The considered protocol are the following except:
All of the above
None of the above

When medication should be given
When emergency services should be contacted
Maximum dose over a 12 hour period
Another protocols to be considered are the following select all that applies Whether a repeated
does can be given How much is given
All of the above except A
All of the above except B

When inhaled medication should not be administered
Time interval for a repeated dose
The purpose of this therapy select that do not apply
To reduce inflammatory and allergic responses in the upper respiratory tract To liquefy and
remove retained secretions form from the lower respiratory tract To relieve respiratory
insufficiency only
To correct underlying respiratory disorders responsible for bronchospasm
I will do the following instruction to my patient
Obtain verbal positive patient identification and secure hospital bracelet
All of the above

None of the above
All patients must be treated in a room equipped with negative pressure filtration, and ensure the
windows are closed
Explain the procedure to the patient, including the drugs, equipment, why it is necessary and possible
side effects. Written patient information will be provided on the first treatment
These are the purposes of steam inhalation, except:
To lessen irritation of the respiratory membranes by warming and moistening the membranes by
warming and moistening the air
To treat chronic or acute infections of the respiratory tract
To relieve muscle pain or congestion of the respiratory membranes as cold

To loosen secretions thereby facilitating easy expectorations easy expectoration
These are the supplies and equipment needed in steam inhalation, except
Baking powder
Face towl (eye cover)
Steam inhalator with water
Extension spout or conveyer
In nebulization, we must measure the prescribed amount of drug with a syringe needle and place into
the nebulizer’s drug compartment
True
False
After we check the doctor’s order of nebulization, we must assemble all equipment at the bed side
True
False
In nebulization we must place client in fowler’s or sitting position if tolerated True False
In steam inhalation, it needs that when the steam comes out direct the spout towards the patient’s face
True
False
True
False
Drawing in of a plain steam, impregnated with drug into the respiratory tract, brings moist heat to the
respiratory tract which produce vasodilation thus reducing edema of the respiratory membranes
humidification steam
inhalation water
inhalation
moisture inhalation
In steam inhalation it needs to adjust apparatus 18-24 inches from the patient or at a safe distance to
enable the steam to reach him
True
False
Drawing into the respiratory tract, a non-volatile drug, transformed into a fine mist with the use of
nebulizer, or aerosol apparatus
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
The nurse is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which of the following is an
appropriate aspect of planning the client’s care? Percussion and postural drainage should be done
before lunch
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding pulse oximetry? A light is used to estimate the
oxyhemoglobin saturation of hemoglobin
On room air, a fit and healthy person assesses by pulse oximetry should have an arterial oxygen level
saturation at least: 97%
These are the supplies and equipment needed for nebulization, except: d5 water
1. Which of the following are manifestation of left sided CHF?

Anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins
Weight gain, pulsus alter axis, ascites
Hepatomegaly, weight gain, anorexia
Decreased, peripheral pulses, tachycardia, fatigue
2. Most characteristic of pericarditis

ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain
3. All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except:
Sensation of skipped heartbeats
Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue
4. A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain

Pericardial effusion
Cardiomyopathy
Myocardial infarction
Coronary artery disease
5. A patient is having difficulty understanding the complication of additional fluid surround the heart.
The report that “having extra fluid…” information would be best used to educate the patient on their
condition.
The sack will compress the lungs, leading to less expansion causing shortness of breath
More fluid is surrounding the heart allows for less blood to fill the heart to be pumped out leading to
poor circulation
The bacteria in the pericardial sack are being pumped out throughout the body and need to be
eliminated
The sack of fluid is pooling blood that needs to go into circulation
6. The manifestation of body weakness in right sided CHF is due to:

Retention of fluid
Decreased cardiac output and impaired circulation

Increased venous pressure
Venous engorgement
7. Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot

Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs
8. A fusiform aneurysm is described as:

Only a portion of the arterial segment becomes dilated
Only a portion of arterial segment becomes constricted
Entire arterial segment becomes dilated

Entire arterial segment becomes constricted
9. Arteriosclerosis is:
Hardening of the veins
Hardening of plaques
Hardening of the capilliaries
Hardening of the arteries
10. The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease must be watched
closely, except:
Decrease urine output
Increased urine output

Hematuria
Bleeding
11. Nicotine use a modifiable risk factor of disorders of the peripheral arteries may result to the
following, except:
Decreased blood flow to the extremities
Decrease risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation

Increase risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation
Vasoconstriction
12. As a preventive measure of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis includes the following, except: Low
salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet

Monitoring serum cholesterol level
13. It is the narrowing and hardening of arteries that supplies the peripheral extremities
Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
Peripheral arterial occlusive disorder

Aneurysm
14. The following are modifiable risk factors of peripheral arterial occlusive disease, except: Obesity,
sedentary lifestyle, stress Smoking, hypertension, familial tendencies
Obesity and cigarette smoking
Diabetes mellitus and hypertension
15. It is the inflammation of the deep vein of lower extremities and pelvis veins
Atherosclerosis
Deep with thrombosis

Arteriosclerosis
16. Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal layer of the artery,
except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits
17. Arteriosclerosis affects the

Intima of the large and medium-sized arteries
Intima of the small and medium-sized arteries
Intima of the medium and large-sized veins
Intima of the small and medium-sized veins
18. A clinical manifestations of aneurysm which is believed to be the due to impingement on the
esophagus by the aneurysm is:
Pain
Dysphagia
Hoarseness or complete loss of voice
Cough
19. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following, except:
Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain
20. The following are pathophysiologic events of arteriosclerosis, except:

Reduced blood supply to the tissues or organs
Obstruction by the thrombus
Dilation of the lumen

Narrowing of the lumen
21. Blood type A has an antigen A and antibody A

False
True
22. An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased RBC count because
High altitude cause vascular fluid loss, leading to hemoconcentration.
Impaired production of leukocytes and platelets leads to proportionally higher and cell counts
The function of the spleen in removing old RBCs is impaired at high altitudes
Hypoxia caused by decreased atmospheric oxygen stimulates erythropoiesis
23. It releases chemicals that can cause activation of fibrinogen

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
24. The following are formed elements in the blood system, except: Platelets
Plasma
WBC
RBC
25. Which of the blood types carries no antigens? Blood type O

26. Average functional lifespan of RBC? 100-120 days
27. It acts to dissolve clots and lyse fibrin? Plasmin
28. It is called as the cellular immunity mediators? T-lymphocytes
29. Homeostasis involves 3 major processes, except: dilation of blood vessels
30. It is increased in allergic and parasitic reactions? Eosinophils
31. Which antigen(s) does type AB blood contains: A and B antigen
32. Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes? Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
33. These are called immature RBCs? Reticulocytes
34. Blood type B has an antigen B and antibody A? True
35. During anginal attack in MI, it is best to advise the patient to stop all activities. Then administer
nitroglycerine sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved, take again one tablet sublingually
then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved again take again one table sublingually then wait another 5
minutes. If still unrelieved, advise to seek immediate medical consult or attention
False
True
36. Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor of myocardial infarction? Hypertension
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking
37. The most common cause of coronary artery disease is:

Abnormal accumulation of fats
Increased level of lipids
Increased BP
Increased blood glucose
38. It characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest Atherosclerosis
Congestive heart disease
Angina pectoris
39. Which of the following promotes myocardial profusion?

Instruct patient on Valsalva maneuver
Provide laxatives or high fiber to lessen constipation

Minimize anxiety
Encourage to increased physical activities
40. A surgical management that compresses the lipid plaques against the wall of the artery
Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA
41. Chest pain in angina pectoris is described as:

Mild to moderate suprasternal, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation
Mild to moderate retrosternal, squeezing, tightness, and burning sensation
Mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing tightness, and burning sensation Mild to severe
retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness, and burning sensation
42. These are the common signs and symptoms of CAD except
Chest pain and palpitations
Dyspnea and syncope
Palpitation and dyspnea
Fear and anxiety

Dyspnea and chest pain
43. It improves the circulation of blood to muscles of the heart at risk for infarct due to obstructed
artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent
Coronary artery bypass grafting
44. These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except

Increased weight
Increased level of BP
Increased age
Increased level of blood glucose
45. As part of nursing intervention in caring for clients with CAD, it is important to note for the client
which are the following except
Low fat and low sodium diet
Low cholesterol and low calorie
Increase in dietary fiber and low fat diet
Decrease dietary fiber and low fat diet

CARDIO QUIZ 1
1. Which of the following are Semilunar valves?

a. Mitral and Apical
b. Aortic and Pulmonic
c. Mitral and Tricuspid
d. Mitral Only
2. Which of the following is the innermost layer of the heart muscle?
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
3. A 150-250 beats per minute heart rate is
a. Flutter
b. Paroxysmal tachycardia
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
4. Oxygenation is the process of delivering O2 and CO2 molecules into the different parts
of the body
a. TRUE
b. No answer text provided
c. FALSE
5. All of the following are examples of chief complaints from a client with cardiovascular
diseases, except:
a. Edema and weight gain
b. Dizziness and syncope
c. Fatigue
d. Loss of sensation
6. These are nursing interventions in clients for stress test, except:
a. No calcium channel blockers prior to test
b. No theophylline prior to test
c. No beta blockers prior to test
d. Caffeine/soda/cola drinks allowed before the test
7. The PR interval is measured
a. Duration between the beginning of one QRS and the beginning of the next QRS
complex
b. From the beginning of the R wave to the beginning of the QRS complex
c. From the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex
d. Represents duration between the beginning of the R wave and the beginning of the R
wave
8. From the Right anterior chamber of the heart, the blood goes to the pulmonary
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
9. All of the following pertains to role and relationship pattern of functioning, except: a.
Roles in the family
b. Decisions and judgments
c. Finances and health insurance
d. Support from family
10. It refers to the beliefs and feelings about self and the key determinants and adherence
to self-care recommendations after cardiac events.
a. Self-perception and self-concept pattern
b. Cognitive and perceptual pattern
c. Health perception and management pattern
d. Value belief pattern
11. Automaticity is the ability to respond to an electrical impulse to while excitability is the
ability to initiate an electrical impulse.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
12. Which of the following is the main pacemaker of the heart?
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
13. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
c. Decreased myocardial contractility
d. Tachycardia
14. Nurse Sarah is assigned to perform ECG to a patient admitted in the Medical Surgical
ward. A patient complained of anterior left sternal chest pain. The electrical activity for
the contraction of the heart is initiated by the:
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Atrioventricular (AV) node
c. Myocytes
d. Sino atrial (SA) node
15. Dela Cruz accompanied by her daughter was brought to ER due to severe chest pain
anxiety and dizziness. All of the diagnostic listed below are crucial in diagnosing a heart
attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
c. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
d. CT scan
16. The right side of the heart distributes oxygenated blood to the remainder of the body.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No answer text provided
17. The client is having a cardiac catheterization. During the procedure, the client tells the
nurse. “I’m feeling really hot.” Which response would be best?
a. “You are having an allergic reaction. I will get an order for Benadryl.”
b. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected.”
c. “I will tell your doctor and let him explain to you the reason for the hot feeling that
you are experiencing.”
d. “That feeling of warmth indicates that the clots in the coronary vessels are
dissolving.”
18. It examines the size, shape and portions of the cardiac structures.
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
c. Electrocardiogram
d. Ultrasound
19. A thorough Physical assessment diagnostic exam was schedule for Mr. Mark
Hernandez prior to admission. Auscultation of the heart sound can reveal:
a. The patient has a blocked vessel
b. Whether blood is flowing well to the extremities
c. The patient is having chest pain
d. The heart rate, rhythm, presence of murmur
20. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate?
a. Normally functioning heart
b. Decreased myocardial contractility
c. Dilated aorta
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole
21. It is the most common mode of stress test.
a. 2DEcho
b. Treadmill test
c. ECG
d. Holter monitoring
CARDIO QUIZ 2
1. Nursing intervention during TEE is focused on;

a. Provide emotional support; check the level of consciousness and vital signs
b. Monitor gag reflex
c. Remove dentures
d. Bed rest with head of bead elevated at 45 degrees
2. Before the nurse administers isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur), what is a priority
nursing assessment?
a. Assess blood pressure
b. Measure blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
c. Assess serum electrolytes
d. Monitor level of consciousness
3. A client who had angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse reviews which
appropriate nursing interventions for nitroglycerin.
a. Have a client lie down when taking a nitroglycerin sublingual tablet
b. Call the health care provider after taking 5 tablets if chest pain persists.
c. Apply transderm-nitro patch to hairy area to protect skin from burning
d. Teach client to repeat taking a tablet in 3 minutes if chest pain persists
4. What instructions should the nurse provide to the client who needs to apply
nitroglycerin ointment?
a. Massage the ointment into the skin
b. Use the fingers to spread the ointment evenly a 3-inch area
c. Cover the application paper with ointment before use
d. Apply the ointment to a nonhairy part of the upper torso
5. It is a crystalline anticoagulant coumarin derivative that inhibits the production of
prothrombin by Vitamin K.
a. Prothrombin
b. Warfarin
c. Thrombin
d. Vitamin K
6. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client with atrial fibrillation who is
taking warfarin sodium. Which statement by the client reflects the need for further
teaching?
a. “I will avoid alcohol”
b. “I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach”
c. “I will take my pills everyday at the same time”
d. “I have already called my family to pick up a Medical bracelet”
7. Which client assessment would the nurse in evaluating therapeutic effects of a
calcium channel blocker?
a. Client states that she feels stronger.
b. Client states that she has no chest pain
c. Client state the she does not feel dizzy
d. Client states that the swelling in her feet is reduced
8. If preliminary blood tests show abnormal levels of WBC, RBC and platelets, then
the doctor may order;
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
9. Thrombolytic medications break down blood clots
a. True
b. False
10. All of the following are nursing care of clients before cardiac catheterization,
except;
a. Check the status of peripheral pulses
b. Obtain informed consent
c. Check the peripheral pulses every 15 minutes
d. NPO 12 hours prior to procedure
11. Warfarin sodium suppresses coagulation by acting as an antagonist to;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
12. Upon injection of contrast dye during venogram procedure, all these are normal
reactions, except;
a. Trouble breathing and feeling itchy after the injection.
b. Feel nauseated as the contrast dye travels through the body
c. Develop a slight headache
d. Feeling warmth as the dye infected
13. It prevents the extension and formation of blood clots and decreases blood
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
14. All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration, except;
a. Preserve left ventricle function
b. Decrease blood coagulability
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
15. It involves injection of a radiopaque contrast agent directly into the arterial system
to visualize the vessel and area of aneurysm can be detected.
a. Coronary angiography
b. TEE
c. Cardiac catheterization
d. Venogram
16. It does not dissolve blood clots but prevents new thrombus formation
a. Sodium heparin
b. sodium bicarbonate
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
17. Anticoagulants are used for the following conditions, except;
a. Hypotension
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Thrombosis
18. It is an antidote for Heparin Sodium
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Potassium sulfate
c. Magnesium sulfate
d. Warfarin sodium
19. Allergic reactions to the iodine contained in the contrast agent during angiography
must be monitored. As a nurse all these symptoms must be reported at once, except;
a. Numbness of extremities
b. Bradycardia
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. DOB and tachycardia
20. Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further instructions
regarding the use of nitroglycerin?
a. “If I get a headache, I should keep taking nitroglycerin and use Tylenol for pain
relief”
b. “I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place”
c. “I can take up to five tablets at 3-monute intervals for chest pain if necessary”
d. “I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy”
21. The nurse is monitoring a client with heart failure who is taking digoxin. Which
findings are characteristics of digoxin toxicity?
a. Irritability
b. Diarrhea, blurred vision, nausea and vomiting
c. Neurologic defects
d. Tremors
22. In heparin sodium administrations, all of the following are nursing intervention,
except;
a. Monitor platelet count
b. Monitor PT and INR
c. Observe for gum bleeding, bruises, nose bleeding and hematuria
d. Monitor clotting time and a PTT
23. It is used early in the course of myocardial infarction within 4-6 hours to restore
blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
b. Adrenergic medications
c. Thrombolytic medications
d. Antimicrobials
24. The venogram is used to diagnose
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
25. It is the visualization of lymphatics and lymph nodes by radiography following the
intralymphatic injection of a contrast medium
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
26. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client with atrial fibrillation. While
implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available
on the nursing unit?
b. Aminocaproic acid
c. Vitamin K
d. Potassium chloride
27. Conditions and diseases related to bone marrow aspiration include
hemochromatosis, which is a;
a. Cancer of the bone marrow
b. Bone marrow disease
c. Low red blood cell count
d. Genetic disorder in which iron increases in the blood and builds up in organs and
tissues
28. All of the following are side effects of anticoagulant drugs, except;
a. Hypotension
b. Hemorrhage and hematuria
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Dysrhythmia and fever
29. The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment
finding will cause the nurse to take action?
a. Flushing
b. Blood pressure 110/90 mmHg
c. Headache
d. Chest pain
30. Nursing interventions after the bone marrow aspiration are the following except:
a. Pain managed by pain relievers as prescribed by physician
b. Lie down on side and local anesthesia given
c. Keep the wound/injection site dry
d. Rest because of slight pain on injection site after the procedure
31. If INR is below normal range, decrease warfarin sodium administration and
likewise in increased INR, increase the warfarin sodium administration.
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
32. All these are causes of complications during TEE, except:
a. Caused by sedation
b. Poor vascular access
c. Impaired swallowing from topical anesthesia
d. Insertion and manipulation of the transducer into the esophagus and stomach
33. It is a procedure that involves taking a sample of liquid part of the soft tissue inside
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
d. Bone marrow aspiration
34. It is used to confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease when surgery and
other interventions are considered.
b. Venogram
c. TEE
d. Cardiac catheterization
35. In the administration of Warfarin sodium, all of the following are nursing
interventions, except:
a. Monitor clotting time and aPTT
b. Observe for gum bleeding, bruises, nose bleeding and hematuria
c. Instruct client on measures to prevent bleeding
d. Monitor PT and INR
36. What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of tolerance
to nitroglycerin?
a. Apply the nitroglycerin patch every other day
b. Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only
c. Apply the nitroglycerin patch 14 hours and remove it for 10 hours at night
d. Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the client’s systolic blood pressure
elevates to more than 140 mmHg
37. Nursing care/nursing intervention post-TEE are the following, except:
a. Monitor level of consciousness and gag reflex
b. Informed consent signed
c. Monitor vital signs
d. Bed rest with head of bed elevated at 45 degrees
38. The normal sodium level in the blood is:
a. 135-145
b. 3.5-5.5
c. 4.5-5.3
d. 1.3-2.1
39. It is an antidote for warfarin sodium
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Vitamin E
c. Protamine Sulfate
d. Vitamin K
40. All of these conditions are at risk for allergic reaction to contrast dye, except:
a. People who have kidney disease
b. People who have multiple food and drug allergies
c. People with liver problem
d. People who have hay fever or asthma
CARDIO QUIZ 1

d. Mitral Only
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
a. Flutter
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
of the body
a. TRUE
c. FALSE
diseases, except:
c. Fatigue
complex
wave
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
Roles in the family
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
c. Myocytes
attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
d. CT scan
16. The right side of the heart distributes oxygenated blood to the remainder of the body. a.
TRUE
b. FALSE
dissolving.”
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
d. Ultrasound
c. Dilated aorta
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole 21. It is the most
common mode of stress test.
a. 2DEcho
b. Treadmill test
c. ECG
CARDIO QUIZ 2

c. Remove dentures
nursing assessment?
a. Prothrombin
b. Warfarin
c. Thrombin
d. Vitamin K
teaching?
b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
a. True
b. False
except;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
reactions, except;
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
b. TEE
d. Venogram
a. Sodium heparin
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
a. Hypotension
d. Thrombosis
d. Warfarin sodium
b. Bradycardia
relief”
a. Irritability
d. Tremors
except;
blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
d. Antimicrobials
a. Atherosclerosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
c. Vitamin K
tissues
a. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
a. Flushing
c. Headache
d. Chest pain
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
b. Venogram
c. TEE
to nitroglycerin?
Oxy-Cardio (FA 3) mod 5
Green - checked
Yellow - default ans
Blue - hunch
1. Examples of drugs that reduces vasospasm and also dilates coronary arteries.
Nitroglycerine - net
Norvasc
Metoprolol
Atenolol
2. These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except;
increased level of blood glucose

increasing age
increased level of BP
increased weight
artery.
Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting

Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent
PTCA - hunch
4.The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;
the jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of left and right upper arms
the jaw, the left arm, neck, outer aspect of the upper arms on the left
the jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms
the jaw, the left arm, neck, inner aspect of upper arms on the left
5. Nitroglycerine medications act to;
decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as dilates the coronary arteries
reduce vasospasm
reduce development of atherosclerotic plaques
reduce the BP
6 These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it dilates the
coronary artery.
beta blockers calcium

channel blockers
Nitrates- net
cholesterol-lowering medications
7. Laser angioplasty is to vaporize the plaque; while atherectomy is to;
dilate the vessels

prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis
compress the plaque against the walls of the artery
remove the plaques from the artery- net
8. Health teaching in CAD is focused on the following, except;
controlling BP and blood sugar level

increasing exercise
decreasing dietary intake of fats and cholesterol - mod ""recheck this. Low fat chol sodium to eh
increasing dietary intake of sodium, fats and cholesterol
9. These are all signs and symptoms of Angina Pectoris except;
feeling of impending death and impending doom

Shortness of breath and difficulty of breathing
light sensation and tightness in upper chest
dizziness, nausea and vomiting
10 . A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse
caring for the client is;
dysrhythmias - mod
chest pain
stress/anxiety
hypertension
11. An example of a non-modifiable risk factor in CAD is;
increasing age
obesity
increased level of lipids/fats
physical inactivity
12. Patient reports no pain but there is an ECG changes with a stress test which is an evidence of
ischemia is what type of angina?
Variant Angina
Silent Angina
Silent Ischemia - mod
Variant Ischemia
13. The following are the signs and symptoms of MI except;
difficulty of breathing/shortness of breath

increased/decreased heart rate
increased left ventricular function and cardiac output
decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
14. It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest.
Congestive Heart Disease

Atherosclerosis
angina pectoris
Coronary Artery Disease
15. Chest pain in angina pectoris is described as;
mild to moderate suprasternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation

mild to severe retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation
mild to moderate retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation - mod
mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation
16. A surgical management that compresses the lipid plaques against the wall of the artery.
PTCA
CABG
LASER ANGIOPLASTY
ATHERECTOMY
17. Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor of myocardial infarction?
Ethnic background
18. The objective of medical and nursing management of Angina Pectoris is to increase the
oxygen demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply.
FALSE
19. These common signs and symptoms of CAD except:
FEAR AND ANXIETY
20. During anginal attack in MI, it is best to advise ....
FALSE
21. Health teaching in a CAD is focused on the following, except:
Increasing dietary intake
22. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial infraction,
except:
Provide active rom exercises

23. Morphine SO4 is a drug of choice as analgesic in myocardial infarction. The action og the
drug is following except:
Relaxes bronchioles to enhance oxygenation.
24. Which of the following promotes myocardial perfusion

Provide laxatives or high fiber diet to lessen constipation
25. All of the following are associated factors in anginal attack, except:
Physical exertion
Eating heavy meal
Stress
Exposure to warm temperature
26. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with Myocardial infarction,
except:
Provide active ROM exercise
1. During anginal attack in MI, It is best to advise the patient to stop all activities. Then administer
Nitroglycerine sublingually then wait for 5 minutes, if unrelieved, take again one tablet sublingually
then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved, take again one tablet sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If
still unrelieved, advise to seek immediate medical consult or attention.
● FALSE
● TRUE
2. Which of the following promotes myocardial perfusion?

● Minimize anxiety
● Instruct patient on valsalva maneuver
● Provide laxatives or high fiber diet to lessen constipation
● Encourage to increase physical activities
3. These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it dilates the
coronary artery
● Calcium channel
blockers
● Nitrates
● Cholesterol-lowering medications
● Beta blockers
4. Chest pain in myocardial infarction is described as;

● Last not more than 30 minutes, radiating to the left arm, back and jaw
● Last longer than 30 minutes, radiating to the left arm, back and jaw
● Occurring without a cause usually in the evening
● Occurring with a cause usually in the morning
5. The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;

● The jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms
● The jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of left and right upper arms
● The jaw, the left arm, neck inner aspect of upper arms on the left
● The jaw, the left arm, neck outer aspect of the upper arms on the left
6. A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse caring for
the client
is;
● stress/anxiety
● Hypertension
● Chest pain
● Dysrhythmias
7. All of the following are associated factors in anginal attack, except;

● Physical exertion
● Stress
● Exposure to warm temperature
● Eating heavy meal

● Dilate the vessels
● Remove the plaques from the artery
● Prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis
● Compress the plaque against the walls of the artery
9. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with Myocardial Infarction, except;
● Provide O2 at 2LPM and position in semi-Fowler’s
● Provide passive ROM exercises
● Provide adequate rest periods
● Provide active ROM exercises
10. The objective of medical and nursing management of angina pectoris is to increase the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply
● TRUE
● FALSE
11. Examples of drugs that reduces vasospasm and also dilates coronary arteries
● Nitroglycerine
● Metoprolol
● Norvasc
● Atenolol

● Difficulty of breathing/shortness of breath
● Increased left ventricular function and cardiac output
● Decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
● increased/decreased heart rate
13. It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest

● Congestive heart disease
● Angina pectoris
● Coronary Artery Disease
● Atherosclerosis
● Variant Angina
● Variant Ischemia
● Silent Angina
● Silent Ischemia
15. Nitroglycerine medications act to:

● Reduce the development of atherosclerotic plaques
● Reduce the BP
● Reduce vasospasm
● Decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as dilates the coronary arteries
PTCA
CABG
LASER ANGIOPLASTY
ATHERECTOMY
Ethnic background
18. The objective of medical and nursing management of Angina Pectoris is to increase the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply. FALSE
FEAR AND ANXIETY
20. During naginal attack in MI, it is best to advise ....
FALSE
21.Health teaching in a CAD is focused on the following, except:
22. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial
infraction, except:
23. Morphine SO4 is a drug of choice as analgesic in myocardial infarction. The action of
the drug are following except:
Oxy-Cardio FA 4 (mod 6) 8/10
1. All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except;
fatigue
shortness of breath
sensation of skipped heart beats

chest pain
2. Which of the following system is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as
knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?
Cardiac
Musculoskeletal
Pulmonary - quizlet
Gastrointestinal
3. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated
by Auscultation of crackles in the lungs?
Right-sided heart failure
Tricuspid valve malfunction
Pulmonic valve malfunction
Left-sided heart failure - quizlet
5. Most characteristic symptoms of pericarditis.
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
7. It measures how quickly the erythrocytes settle in the bottom of the test tube that contains a
blood sample. CBC
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
blood CS blood
chemistry
7. Which of the following are manifestations of left sided CHF?
hepatomegaly, weight gain, anorexia
decreased peripheral pulses, tachycardia, fatigue
anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins wright
gain, pulsus alterans, ascites

8. Osler's nodes is characterized by
splinter hemorrhages under the nails red, painless

nodes in the pads of the fingers and toes
red painful nodes in pads of fingers and toes abnormal

urine color
9. The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings, except
dyspnea
signs of cerebral anoxia
oliguria
body weakness
10. All of the following are TRUE about Pump Failure, except;
inability of the heart to pump sufficiently

unable to maintain adequate circulation to meet the metabolic needs of the body
Ibang source
FA4
It is a red painless skin spots located on palms and soles.
Janeway lesions
oster's nodes Roth spots
Petechiae
Most characteristic symptoms of pericarditis.

ST changes in ECG
high WBC count
fever
chest pain
It measures how quickly the erythrocytes settle in the bottom of the test tube that contains a
blood sample.
O CBC
O blood chemistry
O blood CS
After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by
Auscultation of crackles in the lungs?
Left-sided heart failure

© Pulmonic valve malfunction
O Right-sided heart failure
The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings, except
body weakness
dyspnea
oliguria
All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except;

shortness of breath
chest pain
o fatigue
O sensation of skipped heart beats
A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain and body malaise. Which of the follo
cardiovascular diseases?
O Cardiomyopathy
O Coronary artery disease
O- Myocardial infarction
Which of the following are manifestations of left sided CHF?

anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins wright gain, pulsus
alterans, ascites
O hepatomegaly, weight gain, anorexia
The manifestation of body weakness in right sided CHF is due to;
increased venous pressure
venous engorgement
decreased cardiac output and impaired circulation 0-
retention of fluid
Which of the following system is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain
that increases in internity with indication?
Musculoskeletal
The clinical manifestation of fatigue in left sided CHF

is due to
decreased cardiac output
The primary presenting symptoms of infective endocarditis are:
Fatigue and weakness
Oxy-Cardio FA 5 (mod 7)
1. A clinical manifestation of aneurysm which is believed to be due to impingement on the

esophagus by the aneurysm is; hoarseness or complete loss of voice pain
cough
dysphagia
2. The following are pathophysiologic events of arteriosclerosis, except; dilation of the lumen
reduced blood supply to the tissues or organs
obstruction by the thrombus narrowing

of the lumen
3. Nicotine use as a modifiable risk factor of disorders pf the peripheral arteries may result to the
following, except; decreased blood flow to the extremities decrease risk of clot formation by
increasing platelet aggregation increase risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation
vasoconstriction
4. It is the narrowing and hardening of arteries that supplies the peripheral extremities.
Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disorder

Aneurysm
Arteriosclerosis Atherosclerosis
5. It is the inflammation of the deep vein of lower extremities and pelvis veins.
peripheral arterial occlusive disorder

atherosclerosis deep vein thrombosis
arteriosclerosis
6. A mycotic aneurysm can be due to; localized infection
systemic infection dilation of the artery
constriction of the artery
7. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following, except;
headache
fatigue body
malaise chest
pain
closely, except; bleeding increased urine output decrease urine output hematuria
9. Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot.
Homan's sign
Human's sign
Herman's sign
Heman's sign
10. Arteriosclerosis is; hardening of the arteries hardening of the capillaries hardening of
plaques hardening of the veins

Moreee
Yellow = unsure Green = sure
1. Narrowing and hardening of arteries supplying the peripheral extremities -- Peripheral

arterial occlusive disorders
2. Hallmark of Peripheral arterial occlusive disord ers (PAOD) -- intermittent claudication
3. Mycotic aneurysm can be due to:
1. Systemic infection
2. Localized infection
3. Constriction of the artery
4. Dilation of the artery
4. Build up of fatty substances in the wall of the arteries -- arteriosclerosis
5. Nicotine use as risk factor of peripheral arteries diseases may result to the ff except
1. Decrease risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation
2. Increase risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation
3. Decreased blood flow the extremities
4. Vasoconstriction
6. Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the ff in the initial layer except
1. Protein deposits
2. Carbohydrates
3. Calcium
4. Lipid deposits
7. A fusiform aneurysm is described as

1. Only a portion of the arterial segment becomes dilated
2. Entire anterior segment becomes dilated
3. Only a portion of the arterial segment becomes constricted
4. Entire anterior segment becomes constricted
8. All of the ff are manifestations of PAOD except -- warm sensation and numbness
IBANG SOURCE
FA5
1.blood clots in veins
Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot.

Human's sign
Herman's sign
/ Heman's sign
O Homan's sign
An etiologic factor of aneurysm are the following except;

traumatic causes
O familial history
congenital
O hemodynamic causes
The following are modifiable risk factors of peripheral arterial occlusive disease, except;
O Diabetes Mellitus and hypertension
smoking, hypertension, familial tendencies O
obesity and cigarette smoking
obesity, sedentary lifestyle, stress
Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following, except;
O headache
) body malaise
O fatigue
O chest pain
Arteriosclerosis is:
hardening of the arteries O
hardening of the capillaries
O hardening of plaques
O hardening of the veins
It is the narrowing and hardening of arteries that supplies the peripheral extremities.
O Aneurysm
O Atherosclerosis
O Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal layer of the
artery, except; O calcium
O lipid deposits
O carbohydrates
• Protein deposits
A clinical manifestation of aneurysm which is believed to be due to impingement on the

esophagus by the aneurysm is;
O dysphagia
O cough O
pain
Build up of fatty substances in the wall of the arteries.

O hemorrhage
O Thrombus
Arteriosclerosis
O Infarction
A mycotic aneurysm can be due to:

Localized infection
It is a localized sac or dilation formed at weak point at the wall of the aorta
Aneurysm
The most common type of aneurysm that projects from one side of the vessel.
Saccular aneurysm
It is the inflammation of the deep vein of lower extremities and pelvis veins.
Deep vein thrombosis
The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease must be watched closely,
except:
A fusiform aneurysm is described as

It is the hallmark of peripheral arterial occlusive disorder

Intermittent claudication
Nicotine use as a modifiable risk factor of disorders of the peripheral arteries may result to the
following, except:
Oxy-cardio FA 6 (mod 8)
1. Which of these blood types carries no antigens: -
blood type O
2. Average functional lifespan of RBC
100-120 days
3. It acts to dissolve clots and lyse fibrin –
plasmin
4. It is called as the cellular immunity mediators
T-lymphocytes
5. Homeostasis involves 3 major processes, except:
dilation of blood vessels
6. It is increased in allergic and parasitic reactions –
eosinophils
7. Which antigen (s) does type AB blood contains:
A and B antigen
8. Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
9. these are called immature RBCs

Reticulocytes
10. Blood type B has an antigen B and antibody A

TRUE


color

output

Lymphography
x-ray
venogram

4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics
Thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
nitroglycerin?
Venogram
TEE
marrow
Venogram

Lymphography
mmHg
2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
Limit MI damage

Prevents death
acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K
False
True
abdomen


Lying prone
Partly true
Partly false
False

Continue to suction

1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
All of the above

None of the above

None of the above
All of the above

Liquefying effects
Right reason

Right response
All of the above
None of the above
Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above

Inhaler
None of the above
Suctioning
All of the above
None of the above


insufficiency only
All of the above

None of the above
windows are closed

Baking powder
Face towel (eye cover)

True
False
True
False
True
False
True
False
inhalation water
inhalation
moisture inhalation
True
False
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
before lunch


ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue

Cardiomyopathy
condition.
poor circulation
eliminated

Retention of fluid

Venous engorgement

Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs



closely, except:

Hematuria
Bleeding
following, except:

Vasoconstriction
salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet

Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis

Aneurysm
14. The following are modifiable risk factors of peripheral arterial occlusive disease, except:
Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, stress
Smoking, hypertension, familial tendencies
Atherosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis
except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits

Pain
Dysphagia
Cough
Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain



False
True

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
Plasma
WBC
RBC
25. Which of the blood types carries no antigens?

Blood type O
26. Average functional lifespan of RBC?
100-120 days
27. It acts to dissolve clots and lyse fibrin?
Plasmin
28. It is called as the cellular immunity mediators?
T-lymphocytes
29. Homeostasis involves 3 major processes, except:
dilation of blood vessels
30. It is increased in allergic and parasitic reactions?
Eosinophils
31. Which antigen(s) does type AB blood contains:
A and B antigen
32. Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
33. These are called immature RBCs?
Reticulocytes
34. Blood type B has an antigen B and antibody A?
True
False
True
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking

Increased BP
Angina pectoris


Minimize anxiety
Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA

Mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing tightness, and burning sensation
Mild to severe retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness, and burning sensation
Dyspnea and syncope
Fear and anxiety

artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent

Increased weight
Increased age

CONCEPT
EXAM
50. When a client is receiving an anti-coagulant, the nursing care should include observation
for;
A. Nausea
B. Headache
C. Epistaxis
D. Chest pain
49. Pletaal is a drug of choice for Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease. It acts to;
A. Improves supply of O2 to the blood and muscles
B. Reduces blood viscosity
C. Inhibit platelet aggregation and increases vasodilation
D. Inhibit platelet aggregation and decreases vasodilation
48. Nursing care for a patient immediately after a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration includes;
A. Preparing to administer a blood transfusion
B. Monitoring vital signs and assessing the site for excess drainage or bleeding
C. Instructing on the need for pre procedure and post procedure antibiotic medications.
D. Instructing on need to lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact
47. Which of the following diagnostic findings are most likely for a client with aplastic anemia?
A. Decreased production of T-helper cells
B. Decreased levels of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
C. reed -stemberg cells and lymph node enlargement
D. Increased levels of WBCs, RBCs, and platelets
46. A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest
of her life. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because
of kidney dysfunction
B. The reason of your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient acid
C. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin
because of rapid red blood cell production
D. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor
45. A nurse is monitoring a client with angina for therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Which
assessment finding indicates that the nitroglycerin has been effective?
A. Blood pressure 120/80
B. Heart rate 70 bpm
C. Ecg without evidence of ST changes
D. Client stating that pain is 0 out of 10
44. The nurse in the coronary care unit should observe for one of the following complications
of myocardial infarction, which is;
A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. hypokalemia
43. It is best to maintain laboratory findings in CAD on the following except:
A. Triglycerides of 100 mg/dl
B. Good cholesterol level of 40 mg/dl
C. Cholesterol level of 155 mg/dl
D. Bad cholesterol level of 150 mg/dl
42. What B vitamin is lacking that contributes to the development of Pernicious anemia?
A. B10
B. B12
C. B1
D. B6
41. These are considered as the reliable and critical marker of damage to myocardium in
Myocardial Infarction.
A. Elevated CK-MB and CK-MM
B. Troponin I and Troponin T
C. ST elevation and T wave inversion in ECG
D. Troponin I and CK-MB
40. Insufficient folate in the body will lead to what hematologic disorder?
A. Microblastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia - mod
C. Leukemia
D. Aplastic anemia
39
.
38. Hemophilia B is caused by;
A. Deficient and defective clotting factor VII
B. Deficient and defective clotting factor X
C. Deficient and defective clotting factor XI
D. Deficient and defective clotting factor IX - mod & quizlet
37. Disseminated intravascular Coagulation or DIC is thought to be caused by widespread

injury to endothelial cells, except:
A. Major trauma
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Renal disease - mod
D. Sepsis
E. malignancy/tumor
36. The nurse understands that the client with pernicious anemia will have which
distinguishing laboratory findings?
A. Sedimentation rate, 16 mm/hour
B. Intrinsic factor, absent - quizlet
C. RBC’s, 5.0 million
D. Schilling’s test, elevated
35. Fragments of cells in the bloodstream that breakdown on exposure to injured tissue and
begin the chain reaction leading to a blood clot are known as;
A. Erythrocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Platelets
34. A client has heart failure and is prescribed Lasix. The nurse is aware that furosemide
(Lasix) is what kind of drug?
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. High-ceiling (loop) diuretic
33. The nurse is caring for an adult who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Oxygen
is administered. Administering oxygen to this client is related to which of the client
problems? A. Alteration in heart rate, rhythm and conduction
B. Anxiety
C. Chest pain
D. Ineffective myocardial perfusion - quizlet
32. These are manifestations of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) in the laboratory
examination results, except;
A. Decreased WBC -mod
B. Prolonged bleeding time
C. Decreased hemoglobin level
D. Platelet count less than 20,000
31. A drug of choice for Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease is Trental. This drug acts to:
A. Inhibit platelet aggregation
B. Reduce blood viscosity - mod
C. Increases vasodilation
D. Increase blood viscosity
30. Joint bleeding is;

A. Hematochezia
B. Hematopoeia
C. Hemarthrosis
D. Hemarthritis
29. All of the following describes Myocardial Infarction, except;

A. Process by which the areas of the pericardial cells in the heat are temporarily
destroyed
B. It is known as heart attack
C. Process by which the areas of the Myocardial Cells are permanently destroyed
D. Death of the myocardial tissues in regions of the heart with abrupt interruption of the
coronary blood supply.
28. The goal of the therapy is to maintain the normal hemoglobin levels by the administration
of blood transfusion.
A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Von Willebrand’s Disease
D. Factor VII Disease
27. Reducing myocardial oxygen demand and increasing O2 supply can be achieved by the
following, except:
A. Increased O2 supply/administration
B. Medication
C. Active Exercise/Physical exertion
D. Bedrest
26. Laboratory findings in von Willebrand’s Disease are the following,
except:
A. Abnormal Platelet count
B. Prolonged aPTT
C. Increased bleeding time
D. Decreased clotting factor VIII
25. Which of the following characters sickle cell anemia?

A. Microcytic RBC
B. Disc-shaped or crescent moon-shaped RBC
C. Large RBC being produced
D. Too small RBC being produced
24. It is generally caused by a genetic defect that results in deficient or defective clotting factor
VIll.
a. Parenchymal disease of the liver
b. Hemophilia A
c. Hemophilia B
d. Vitamin K deficiency
23.
Situation:
Mr. Herrera, a 57 years old vice president of a bank, began having intermittent chest
discomfort over the past three weeks but did not seek medical consultation; however, the pain
finally interrupted his activities during the day, so he went to the physician. After evaluation, a
diagnosis of angina pectoris due to atherosclerotic heart disease was made. Nitroglycerin was
prescribed to control Mr. Herrera’s attack.
Question: As Mr. Herrera’s nurse, you teach him that Nitroglycerin

should be taken:
A. At the first indication of chest pain
B. Only if the chest pain is not relieved by stress
C. Before every meal and at bedtime
D. Every two to three hours during the day
22. A client is to be discharged home with a transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which instruction
will the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
A. “If you have chest pain, apply a second patch next to the first patch.”
B. “If you have a headache, remove the patch for 4 hours and then reapply.”
C. “Apply the patch to the same site each day”
D. “Apply the patch to a non hairy area of the torso or arm.”
21. Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia?

A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Platelets
20. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be prevented?
A. Gender
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Heredity
D. age
19. It is best to consider the following laboratory findings in client with coronary artery
disease, except:
A. good cholesterol level of 100mg/dl
B. bad cholesterol level of 120mg/dl
C. triglycerides level of 150mg/dt or lower
D. cholesterol level of 129mg/dl
18. Unstable angina is to increase in frequency and severity; while stable angina is to;
A. severe capacitating chest pain
B. relieved by rest and Nitrates, predictable and consistent pain that occurs on
exertion C. severe incapacitating chest pain
D. relieved by rest and Nitrates, predictable and inconsistent pain that occurs on
exertion
17. The nurse devises a teaching plan for the patient with aplastic anemia,Which of the
following is the most important concept to teach for health maintenance?
A. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day
B. Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety
C. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables each day
D. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection
16. Mr. Herrera was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit (CU) with a diagnosis of
myocardial infarction. Shortly after admission, he states that he might as well have died
because now he won't be able to do anything. Your best response would be;
A. “What do you mean about not being able to do anything, Mr. Herrera?"
B. "Don't worry about it, Mr. Herrera, Everything will be alright"
C. "You shouldn't be thinking about that because you are doing so well now
D. Take life one day at a time, Mr. Herrera
15. A type of Willebrad’s disease which is characterized by decrease in structurally normal von
Willebrad’s disease?
A. Type 2 Von Willebrad’s disease
B. Type 4 Von Willebrad’s disease
C. Type 1 Von Willebrad’s disease
D. Type 3 Von Willebrad’s disease
14. Mr, de Guzman was diagnosed with leukemia, His laboratory results indicate bone
marrow depression, The nurse should encourage him to:
A. drink citrus fruits frequently for nourishment
B. Increase activity level and ambulates frequently
C. sleep with head of the bed slightly elevated
D. use a soft toothbrush and electric razor
13. In interviewing waveform strips or ECG for a hospitalized client, the nurse instructed a
student nurse that the P wave represents
A. Ventricular repolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
D. Atrial depolarization
12. Joint bleeding causing pain

A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Factor VII disorder
D. Von Willebrand’s disease
11. All of the following are etiologic factors associated with idiopathic Thrombocytopenic
Purpura (ITP), except:
A. Reaction to nicot
B. Viral infection
C. Immunization of live virus
10. The release of catecholamines with increased BP and HR and myocardial workload is
related to the following associated factors of angina pectoris.
A. Physical exertion
B. Eating heavy meal
C. Stress
D. Exposure to cold
9. All of the following is true about hemophilia, except:

A. It can result from the union between the affected male and normal female or a carrier
female-
B. Management is symptomatic treatment approach
C. It is most frequently transmitted by union of affected male with a trait carrier female
D. It is most frequently transmitted by union of unaffected male with a trait carrier female
8. Hemarthroses is to hemophilia; while Wide-set eyes with flat nose is to:

A. Thrombosis
B. Thalassemia Major
C. Von Willebrand's Disease
D. Hemostasis
7. The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are as effective as antianginals because they
do what?
A. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility
B. Decrease heart rate and increase myocardial contractility
C. Maintain heart rate and blood pressure
D. Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation
6. Laboratory findings which may help diagnose Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease are the
following. Except:
A. Increased doppler flow studies
B. Sensation of cold
C. Unequal pulses between extremities
D. Numbness of extremities
5. Situation : One evening Mr. Herrera awakes with severe substernal chest pressure and
dyspnea . He takes two Nitroglycerin tablets without relief . In five minutes , he takes two
more without relief . He calls his physician who instructs him to go directly to the hospital .
Question : One afternoon Mr. Herrera requests a snack Food on the menu that would be the
most appropriate for him is;
A. Seafood salad
B. Ice cream
C. Chicken sandwich
D. Fresh fruits
4. The nurse is aware that the term bradycardia means;

A. Grossly irregular heart beats
B. Heart rate that has regular skipped beats
C. Heart rate of over 90 beats per minute
D. Heart rate of under 60 beats per minute
3. Heparin Therapy is to disseminated intravascular Coagulation; while plasmapheresis is to;

A. Hemorrhage
B. Hemostasis
C. Thrombosis
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
2. In type A hemophilia, a child is deficient in the clotting factor of;

A. XI
B. VIII
C. IX
D. XII
1. Laboratory studies are performed for a child suspected of having iron deficiency anemia.
The nurse reviews the laboratory results , knowing that which of the following results would
indicate this type of anemia?
A. An elevated RBC count
B. An elevated hemoglobin level
C. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic
D. A decreased reticulocyte count
51. a variant angina is also called prinzmetal angina characterized by pain at rest with
reversible st-segment elevation thought to be cause by coronary artery vasodilation
-True
52. The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is starting a Schilling
test?
- Starting a 24- to 48 hour urine specimen collection
53. The nurse is obtaining a health history on a patient admitted with a diagnosis of "rule
out aplastic anemia." Considering the diagnosis, which of the following data is most
important for the nurse to elicit during the interview? -Exposure to chemicals and drugs
54. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following

mechanisms -plaques obstruct the artery
55. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, & edema are classic signs &
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
-Heart
failure
56. The following are the manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation
diseases except:
-increased hematocrit and platelet count
57. The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain
the best supply of vitamin B12? -Meats and dairy products
58. The nurse is monitoring a client taking digoxin (lanoxin) for treatment heart
failure. -heart rate 58 beats per minute
59. All of the following mechanism occur in disseminated intravascular coagulation

disease, except? -activation hemolysis
60. An adult woman is admitted to the cardiac care unit with a myocardial infarction.
The morning after admission she and her husband tell the nurse that she must be home
tonight to care for the children when her husband goes to work. The problem identified
at this point would he
-inability of the client/family to understand the disease process
61. A client was admitted with iron deficiency anemia and blood-streaked emesis.
Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask in determining the extent of the
client’s activity intolerance?
- “What activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared to the present?”
62. Disseminated intravascular coagulation DIC is a disorder in which:

-a disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant thrombosis, as well as
depletion of clotting factors,leading to diffuse clotting and hemorrhage
63. A client was admitted with iron deficiency anemia and blood streaked einesis,.
client's activity intolerance?
-”What activities were you able to do 6 months…”
64. Which laboratory result would the nurse expect in the client diagnosed with
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
-a decreased prothrombin time
65. Jon, is 11 years old and has a Type A Hemophilia. He is brought to the emergency
room after being knocked down in a football game. This condition is accompanied
by frequent bruising and persistent bleeding even from minor injuries.
-Vitamin K
66. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis: -vascular
spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
67. Laboratory findings in Von Willebrand’s disease are the following, except: -
Abnormal platelet count
68. Which of the following classes of medication maximizes cardiac performance by
increasing myocardial contractility?
-
inotropics
68. Angina pectoris characterizes by: -abnormal accumulation of fatty substances and
fibrous tissues in the vessel wall
69. Which of the following conditions most commonly results in coronary artery
disease? -atherosclerosis
70. When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors for changes
in which of the following physiological functions?
-Bleeding tendencies
71. Von willebrand’s disease is a common bleeding disorder affecting males and
females equally usually inherited as recessive trait:
-
false
71. The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is starting a schilling
test?
-starting a 24 to 48 hour urine specimen collection
72. You are taking care of a male patient who has the following laboratory values from
his CBC: WBC 6.5 - 103/pL. Hgb 13.4 g/dt. Hct 40%, platelets 50 > 103/uL What are you
most concerned about?
-your patient is at risk for
bleeding
73. Maxillary prominence is a manifestation of: -thalassemia
ADDITIONAL SOURCE NAE
When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors for changes in which
of the following physiological functions?
A. Bleeding tendencies
Osler's nodes is characterized by

abnormal urine color
red painful nodes in pads of fingers and toes
splinter hemorrhages under the nails
The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to: - on the jaw, the left arm, neck outer
aspect of the upper arms on the left the jaw, of the upper arms
The following are the signs and symptoms of MI except; -Increase left ventricular
function and cardiac output
Health Teaching in CAD is focused on the following except; -Increasing dietary intake
of sodium and fats
The following re nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial infarction
except -Provide active ROM exercises
Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor of myocardial infarction? - Ethic
Background
It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest - Angina

Pectoris

It is the visualization of lymphatics and lymph nodes by radiography following the

intralymphatic injection of a contrast medium?
Lymphography
x-ray
venogram

4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
It prevents the extension and formation of blood clots and decreases blood
coagulability Anticoagulant
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics

Thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment

Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
A client who has angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse reviews which
appropriate nursing interventions for nitroglycerin?
Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction
It involves injection of a radiopause contrast agent directly into the arterial system to
visualize the vessel and area of aneurysm can be detected.
Venogram
TEE
It is a procedure that involves taking a sample of liquid part of the soft tissue inside
your bone Bone marrow
Venogram
Lymphography
What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of tolerance to
nitroglycerin?
Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the client’s systolic blood pressure elevates to
more than 140 mmHg

2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration, except:

Preserve left ventricular function
Limit MI damage
Prevents death
Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client with atrial fibrillation. While
on the nursing unit? Aminocaproic acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K

False
True
Mario listens to richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper
lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical
segments of the lungs when mario does the percussion would be:
Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on the Trendelenburg position Client
seated upright in the bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position and then
flat on his back and on his abdomen

Which action indicates that the client understands teaching on the correct way to
perform diaphragmatic breathing?
Lying prone
Deep ventilation may loosen secretions, and coughing can facilitate their removal
True
Partly true
Partly false
False
All of the following are steps to consider in preparing the site for pulse oximetry
reading, except:
Position the sensor on the side of the finger rather then the perpendicular to the nail
bed
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention if your patient’s heart rate
drops during suctioning? Notify the physician
Continue to suction
You are a student nurse assigned to do suctioning to your patient. What suctioning,
you must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of:
1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds

All of the above
None of the above

None of the above
All of the above
Liquefying effects
Prepare the medication following the following rights of medication administration

except: Explain to the client what you are going to do
Right reason
Right response
All of the above
None of the above

Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above
Inhaler
A therapy that liquefies and remove retained secretions from the respiratory tract. A
nebulize is a device that a stable aerosol of fluid and/or drug particles
None of the above
Suctioning

All of the above
None of the above
Another protocols to be considered are the following select all that applies Whether
a repeated does can be given How much is given

To reduce inflammatory and allergic responses in the upper respiratory tract To
liquefy and remove retained secretions form from the lower respiratory tract To
relieve respiratory insufficiency only

All of the above
None of the above
All patients must be treated in a room equipped with negative pressure filtration, and
ensure the windows are closed
Explain the procedure to the patient, including the drugs, equipment, why it is
necessary and possible side effects. Written patient information will be provided on the
first treatment

To lessen irritation of the respiratory membranes by warming and moistening the
membranes by warming and moistening the air
Baking powder
In nebulization, we must measure the prescribed amount of drug with a syringe needle
and place into the nebulizer’s drug compartment
True
False
After we check the doctor’s order of nebulization, we must assemble all equipment at
the bed side
True
False
In nebulization we must place client in fowler’s or sitting position if tolerated True
False
In steam inhalation, it needs that when the steam comes out direct the spout towards
the patient’s face
True
False
the bed side
True
False
Drawing in of a plain steam, impregnated with drug into the respiratory tract, brings
moist heat to the respiratory tract which produce vasodilation thus reducing edema of
the respiratory membranes
humidification
steam inhalation
water inhalation
moisture inhalation
In steam inhalation it needs to adjust apparatus 18-24 inches from the patient or at a
safe distance to enable the steam to reach him
True
False
Drawing into the respiratory tract, a non-volatile drug, transformed into a fine mist with
the use of nebulizer, or aerosol apparatus
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
The nurse is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which of the
following is an appropriate aspect of planning the client’s care? Percussion and
postural drainage should be done before lunch
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding pulse oximetry? A light is used
to estimate the oxyhemoglobin saturation of hemoglobin
On room air, a fit and healthy person assesses by pulse oximetry should have an
arterial oxygen level saturation at least: 97%

ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue

Cardiomyopathy
5. A patient is having difficulty understanding the complication of additional fluid

surround the heart.
The report that “having extra fluid…” information would be best used to educate the
patient on their condition.
The sack will compress the lungs, leading to less expansion causing shortness of
breath
More fluid is surrounding the heart allows for less blood to fill the heart to be pumped
out leading to poor circulation
The bacteria in the pericardial sack are being pumped out throughout the body and
need to be eliminated

Retention of fluid
Venous engorgement
Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs

10. The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease
must be watched closely, except:
Hematuria
Bleeding
11. Nicotine use a modifiable risk factor of disorders of the peripheral arteries may
result to the following, except:
Vasoconstriction
12. As a preventive measure of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis includes the

following, except: Low salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet
Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
Aneurysm
14. The following are modifiable risk factors of peripheral arterial occlusive disease,
except: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, stress Smoking, hypertension, familial
tendencies
Atherosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis
16. Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal

layer of the artery, except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits

18. A clinical manifestations of aneurysm which is believed to be the due to

impingement on the esophagus by the aneurysm is:
Pain
Dysphagia
Cough
19. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the
following, except: Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain


False
True
22. An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased RBC
count because
Impaired production of leukocytes and platelets leads to proportionally higher and cell
counts

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
Plasma
WBC
RBC

32. Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes? Neutrophils,
eosinophils, and basophils
35. During anginal attack in MI, it is best to advise the patient to stop all activities. Then
administer nitroglycerine sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved, take
again one tablet sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved again take again
one table sublingually then wait another 5 minutes. If still unrelieved, advise to seek
immediate medical consult or attention
False
True
Hypertension
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking

Increased BP
38. It characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest

Atherosclerosis
Angina pectoris

Minimize anxiety
40. A surgical management that compresses the lipid plaques against the wall of the
artery Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA

Dyspnea and syncope
Fear and anxiety
43. It improves the circulation of blood to muscles of the heart at risk for infarct due to
obstructed artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent

Increased weight
Increased age
45. As part of nursing intervention in caring for clients with CAD, it is important to note
for the client which are the following except

cough
dysphagia
2. The following are pathophysiologic events of arteriosclerosis, except; dilation of the
lumen reduced blood supply to the tissues or organs
obstruction by the thrombus

narrowing of the lumen
3. Nicotine use as a modifiable risk factor of disorders pf the peripheral arteries may result
to the following, except; decreased blood flow to the extremities decrease risk of clot
formation by increasing platelet aggregation increase risk of clot formation by increasing
platelet aggregation vasoconstriction
Aneurysm
Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
peripheral arterial occlusive

disorder atherosclerosis deep vein
thrombosis arteriosclerosis
7. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following,
except; headache
fatigue
body
malaise
chest pain
8. The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease must be
watched closely, except; bleeding increased urine output decrease urine output
hematuria
Homan's sign
Human's sign
Herman's sign
Heman's sign
10. Arteriosclerosis is; hardening of the arteries hardening of the capillaries hardening
of plaques hardening of the veins
Moreee
1. Narrowing and hardening of arteries supplying the peripheral extremities -- Periphera
l
2. Hallmark of Peripheral arterial occlusive disorders (PAOD) -- intermittent claudication
4. Vasoconstriction
1. Protein deposits
2. Carbohydrates
3. Calcium
4. Lipid deposits

IBANG SOURCE
FA5

Human's sign
Herman's sign
/ Heman's sign
O Homan's sign
An etiologic factor of aneurysm are the following

except; traumatic causes O familial history congenital
Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following,
except;
O headache
) body malaise
O fatigue
O chest pain
O Aneurysm
O Atherosclerosis
O Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal layer of

the artery, except; O calcium
O lipid deposits
O carbohydrates
• Protein Reposits

O dysphagia
O cough
O pain
hoarseness or complete loss of voice

O hemorrhage
O Thrombus
Arteriosclerosis
O Infarction
1.All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except;
fatigue
shortness of breath sensation

of skipped heart beats chest
pain
Cardiac
Musculoskeletal
Pulmonary - quizlet
Gastrointestinal
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
blood sample. CBC
blood CS
blood
chemistry

decreased peripheral pulses, tachycardia,
fatigue anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins
wright gain, pulsus alterans, ascites

nodes in the pads of the fingers and toes red painful
nodes in pads of fingers and toes abnormal urine
color
9. The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings, except dyspnea
signs of cerebral anoxia oliguria
body weakness
10. All of the following are TRUE about Pump Failure, except; classified
according to the major ventricular dysfunction a process by which areas of
myocardial cells are permanently destroyed

Ibang source
FA4
It is a red painless skin spots located on palms and
soles. Janeway lesions oster's nodes Roth spots
Petechiae
Most characteristic symptoms of

pericarditis. ST changes in ECG high WBC
count fever chest pain
It measures how quickly the erythrocytes settle in the bottom of the test tube that contains
a blood sample. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
O CBC
O blood chemistry
O blood CS
The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings,

except body weakness dyspnea
oliguria
All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis,

except; shortness of breath chest pain o fatigue
A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain and body malaise. Which of the
follo cardiovascular diseases? O Cardiomyopathy
Which of the following are manifestations of left sided

CHF? anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins wright gain,
pulsus alterans, ascites
The manifestation of body weakness in right sided CHF is due

to; increased venous pressure venous engorgement
decreased cardiac output and impaired circulation
0- retention of fluid
Green - checked
Blue - hunch
Norvasc
Metoprolol
Atenolol
2. These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except;increased level of blood
glucose increasing age increased level of BP increased weight
obstructedartery.
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent
PTCA - hunch
4. The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;the jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of
left and right upper arms he jaw, the left arm, neck, outer aspect of the upper arms on
the left the jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms the jaw, the left
arm, neck, inner aspect of upper arms on the left
5. Nitroglycerine medications act to;decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as

well as dilates the coronary arteries reduce vasospasm reduce development of
atherosclerotic plaques reduce the BP
6. These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it
dilatesthe coronary artery.
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
Nitrates- net cholesterol-
lowering medications
7. Laser angioplasty is to vaporize the plaque; while atherectomy is to;dilate the vessels
prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis compress the plaque against
the walls of the artery remove the plaques from the artery- net
8. Health teaching in CAD is focused on the following, except;controlling BP and blood

sugar level increasing exercise decreasing dietary intake of fats and cholesterol - mod
9. These are all signs and symptoms of Angina Pectoris except;feeling of impending
death and impending doom Shortness of breath and difficulty of breathing light
sensation and tightness in upper chest dizziness, nausea and vomiting
10. A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse
caringfor the client is;
dysrhythmias - mod
chest pain
stress/anxiety
hypertension
11. An example of a non-modifiable risk factor in CAD is;increasing age obesity increased
level of lipids/fats physical inactivity
12. Patient reports no pain but there is an ECG changes with a stress test which is an
evidenceof ischemia is what type of angina?
Variant Angina
Silent Angina
Variant Ischemia
13. The following are the signs and symptoms of Ml except;difficulty of breathing/shortness
of breath increased/decreased heart rate increased left ventricular function and cardiac
output decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
Congestive Heart
Disease Atherosclerosis
angina pectoris
15. Chest pain in angina pectoris is described as;mild to moderate suprasternal pain,
squeezing, tightness and burning sensation mild to severe retrosternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation mild to moderate retrosternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation - mod mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation
CARDIO QUIZ 1

d. Mitral Only
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
a. Flutter
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
of the body
a. TRUE
c. FALSE
diseases, except:
c. Fatigue
complex
wave
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
Roles in the family
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
ward. A patient complained of anterior left sternal chest pain. The electrical activity
for the contraction of the heart is initiated by the:
c. Myocytes
anxiety and dizziness. All of the diagnostic listed below are crucial in diagnosing a
heart attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
d. CT scan
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
dissolving.”
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
d. Ultrasound
c. Dilated aorta
a. 2DEcho
b. Treadmill test
c. ECG
CARDIO QUIZ 2

c. Remove dentures
nursing assessment?
a. Prothrombin
b. Warfarin
c. Thrombin
d. Vitamin K
teaching?
b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
a. True
b. False
except;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
reactions, except;
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
14. All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration,
except;
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
b. TEE
d. Venogram
a. Sodium heparin
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
a. Hypotension
d. Thrombosis
d. Warfarin sodium
must be monitored. As a nurse all these symptoms must be reported at once,
except;
b. Bradycardia
relief”
a. Irritability
d. Tremors
except;
blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
d. Antimicrobials
a. Atherosclerosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is
available on the nursing unit?
c. Vitamin K
tissues
a. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
29. The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which
assessment finding will cause the nurse to take action?
a. Flushing
c. Headache
d. Chest pain
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
b. Venogram
c. TEE
36. What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of
tolerance to nitroglycerin?
CARDIO QUIZ 1

d. Mitral Only
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
a. Flutter
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
of the body
a. TRUE
c. FALSE
diseases, except:
c. Fatigue
complex
wave
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
Roles in the family
e. Decisions and judgments
f. Finances and health insurance
g. Support from family
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
c. Myocytes
attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
d. CT scan
a. TRUE
d. FALSE
e. No answer text provided
dissolving.”
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
d. Ultrasound
c. Dilated aorta
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole
21. It is the most common mode of stress test.
e. 2DEcho
f. Treadmill test
g. ECG
h. Holter monitoring
CARDIO QUIZ 2

e. Provide emotional support; check the level of consciousness and vital signs
f. Monitor gag reflex
g. Remove dentures
h. Bed rest with head of bead elevated at 45 degrees
nursing assessment?
e. Assess blood pressure
f. Measure blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
g. Assess serum electrolytes
h. Monitor level of consciousness
e. Have a client lie down when taking a nitroglycerin sublingual tablet
f. Call the health care provider after taking 5 tablets if chest pain persists.
g. Apply transderm-nitro patch to hairy area to protect skin from burning
h. Teach client to repeat taking a tablet in 3 minutes if chest pain persists
e. Massage the ointment into the skin
f. Use the fingers to spread the ointment evenly a 3-inch area
g. Cover the application paper with ointment before use
h. Apply the ointment to a nonhairy part of the upper torso
e. Prothrombin
f. Warfarin
g. Thrombin
h. Vitamin K
teaching?
e. “I will avoid alcohol”
f. “I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach”
g. “I will take my pills everyday at the same time”
h. “I have already called my family to pick up a Medical bracelet”
e. Client states that she feels stronger.
f. Client states that she has no chest pain
g. Client state the she does not feel dizzy
h. Client states that the swelling in her feet is reduced
b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
a. True
b. False
except;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
reactions, except;
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
b. TEE
d. Venogram
a. Sodium heparin
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
a. Hypotension
d. Thrombosis
d. Warfarin sodium
b. Bradycardia
relief”
a. Irritability
d. Tremors
except;
blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
d. Antimicrobials
a. Atherosclerosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
c. Vitamin K
tissues
a. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
a. Flushing
c. Headache
d. Chest pain
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
b. Venogram
c. TEE
to nitroglycerin?
78. The normal sodium level in the blood is:
a. 135-145
b. 3.5-5.5
c. 4.5-5.3
d. 1.3-2.1
79. It is an antidote for warfarin sodium
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Vitamin E
c. Protamine Sulfate
d. Vitamin K
80. All of these conditions are at risk for allergic reaction to contrast dye, except:
a. People who have kidney disease
b. People who have multiple food and drug allergies
c. People with liver problem
d. People who have hay fever or asthma
CARDIO QUIZ 1

d. Mitral Only
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
a. Flutter
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
of the body
a. TRUE
c. FALSE
diseases, except:
c. Fatigue
complex
wave
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
Roles in the family
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
c. Myocytes
attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
d. CT scan
16. The right side of the heart distributes oxygenated blood to the remainder of the body. a.
TRUE
b. FALSE
dissolving.”
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
d. Ultrasound
c. Dilated aorta
a. 2DEcho
b. Treadmill test
c. ECG
CARDIO QUIZ 2

c. Remove dentures
nursing assessment?
a. Prothrombin
b. Warfarin
c. Thrombin
d. Vitamin K
teaching?
b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
a. True
b. False
except;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
reactions, except;
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
b. TEE
d. Venogram
a. Sodium heparin
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
a. Hypotension
d. Thrombosis
d. Warfarin sodium
b. Bradycardia
relief”
a. Irritability
d. Tremors
except;
blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
d. Antimicrobials
a. Atherosclerosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
c. Vitamin K
tissues
a. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
a. Flushing
c. Headache
d. Chest pain
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
b. Venogram
c. TEE
to nitroglycerin?
1. During anginal attack in MI, It is best to advise the patient to stop all activities. Then administer
Nitroglycerine sublingually then wait for 5 minutes, if unrelieved, take again one tablet sublingually
then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved, take again one tablet sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If
still unrelieved, advise to seek immediate medical consult or attention.
● FALSE
● TRUE
2. Which of the following promotes myocardial perfusion?

● Minimize anxiety
● Instruct patient on valsalva maneuver
● Provide laxatives or high fiber diet to lessen constipation
● Encourage to increase physical activities
3. These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it dilates the
coronary artery
● Calcium channel
blockers
● Nitrates
● Cholesterol-lowering medications
● Beta blockers
4. Chest pain in myocardial infarction is described as;

● Last not more than 30 minutes, radiating to the left arm, back and jaw
● Last longer than 30 minutes, radiating to the left arm, back and jaw
● Occurring without a cause usually in the evening
● Occurring with a cause usually in the morning
5. The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;

● The jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms
● The jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of left and right upper arms
● The jaw, the left arm, neck inner aspect of upper arms on the left
● The jaw, the left arm, neck outer aspect of the upper arms on the left
6. A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse caring for
the client
is;
● stress/anxiety
● Hypertension
● Chest pain
● Dysrhythmias
7. All of the following are associated factors in anginal attack, except;

● Physical exertion
● Stress
● Exposure to warm temperature
● Eating heavy meal

● Dilate the vessels
● Remove the plaques from the artery
12/18/2020 Module 5.4 Formative Assessment: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
● Prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis

● Compress the plaque against the walls of the artery
9. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with Myocardial Infarction, except;
● Provide O2 at 2LPM and position in semi-Fowler’s
● Provide passive ROM exercises
● Provide adequate rest periods
● Provide active ROM exercises
10. The objective of medical and nursing management of angina pectoris is to increase the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply
● TRUE
● FALSE
11. Examples of drugs that reduces vasospasm and also dilates coronary arteries
● Nitroglycerine
● Metoprolol
● Norvasc
● Atenolol

● Difficulty of breathing/shortness of breath
● Increased left ventricular function and cardiac output
● Decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
● increased/decreased heart rate
13. It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest

● Congestive heart disease
● Angina pectoris
● Coronary Artery Disease
● Atherosclerosis
● Variant Angina
● Variant Ischemia
● Silent Angina
● Silent Ischemia
15. Nitroglycerine medications act to:

● Reduce the development of atherosclerotic plaques
● Reduce the BP
● Reduce vasospasm
● Decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as dilates the coronary arteries
PTCA
CABG
LASER ANGIOPLASTY
ATHERECTOMY
Ethnic background
18. The objective of medical and nursing management of Angina Pectoris is to increase the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply. FALSE
FEAR AND ANXIETY
20. During naginal attack in MI, it is best to advise ....
FALSE
21.Health teaching in a CAD is focused on the following, except:
22. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial
infraction, except:
23. Morphine SO4 is a drug of choice as analgesic in myocardial infarction. The action og
the drug are following except:

Green - checked
Blue - hunch
Norvasc
Metoprolol
Atenolol
2. These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except;
increased level of blood glucose

increasing age
increased level of BP
increased weight
artery.

Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent
PTCA - hunch
4.The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;
the jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of left and right upper arms
the jaw, the left arm, neck, outer aspect of the upper arms on the left
the jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms
the jaw, the left arm, neck, inner aspect of upper arms on the left
5. Nitroglycerine medications act to;
decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as dilates the coronary arteries
reduce vasospasm
reduce development of atherosclerotic plaques
reduce the BP
6 These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it dilates the
coronary artery.
beta blockers calcium

channel blockers
Nitrates- net
cholesterol-lowering medications
dilate the vessels

prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis
compress the plaque against the walls of the artery
remove the plaques from the artery- net
8. Health teaching in CAD is focused on the following, except;
controlling BP and blood sugar level

increasing exercise
decreasing dietary intake of fats and cholesterol - mod ""recheck this. Low fat chol sodium to eh
9. These are all signs and symptoms of Angina Pectoris except;
feeling of impending death and impending doom

Shortness of breath and difficulty of breathing
light sensation and tightness in upper chest
dizziness, nausea and vomiting
10 . A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse
caring for the client is;
dysrhythmias - mod
chest pain
stress/anxiety
hypertension
11. An example of a non-modifiable risk factor in CAD is;
increasing age
obesity
increased level of lipids/fats
physical inactivity
Variant Angina
Silent Angina
Variant Ischemia
difficulty of breathing/shortness of breath

increased/decreased heart rate
increased left ventricular function and cardiac output
decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
Congestive Heart Disease

Atherosclerosis
angina pectoris
15. Chest pain in angina pectoris is described as;
mild to moderate suprasternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation

mild to severe retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation
mild to moderate retrosternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation - mod
mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing, tightness and burning sensation
PTCA
CABG
LASER ANGIOPLASTY
ATHERECTOMY
Ethnic background
18. The objective of medical and nursing management of Angina Pectoris is to increase the
oxygen demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply.
FALSE
FEAR AND ANXIETY
20. During anginal attack in MI, it is best to advise ....
FALSE
21. Health teaching in a CAD is focused on the following, except:
22. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial infraction,
except:

23. Morphine SO4 is a drug of choice as analgesic in myocardial infarction. The action og the
drug is following except:
24. Which of the following promotes myocardial perfusion

Provide laxatives or high fiber diet to lessen constipation
25. All of the following are associated factors in anginal attack, except:
Physical exertion
Eating heavy meal
Stress
Exposure to warm temperature
26. The following are nursing care to consider in caring for clients with Myocardial infarction,
except:
Provide active ROM exercise
1.All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except; fatigue
shortness of breath sensation of

skipped heart beats chest pain
Cardiac
Musculoskeletal
Pulmonary - quizlet
Gastrointestinal

high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
blood sample. CBC
blood CS blood
chemistry
hepatomegaly, weight gain, anorexia decreased
peripheral pulses, tachycardia, fatigue anorexia,
nausea, distended neck veins wright gain, pulsus
alterans, ascites

color
body weakness

Ibang source
FA4
It is a red painless skin spots located on palms and soles.
Janeway lesions oster's nodes Roth spots
Petechiae
Most characteristic symptoms of pericarditis.

ST changes in ECG high WBC count fever
chest pain
It measures how quickly the erythrocytes settle in the bottom of the test tube that contains a
blood sample. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
O CBC
O blood chemistry
O blood CS
The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings, except
body weakness dyspnea
All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except;

shortness of breath chest pain o fatigue
A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain and body malaise. Which of the follo
cardiovascular diseases? O Cardiomyopathy
Which of the following are manifestations of left sided CHF?

anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins wright gain, pulsus
alterans, ascites
The manifestation of body weakness in right sided CHF is due to;

increased venous pressure venous engorgement
decreased cardiac output and impaired circulation 0-
retention of fluid

cough
dysphagia
2. The following are pathophysiologic events of arteriosclerosis, except; dilation of the lumen
reduced blood supply to the tissues or organs
obstruction by the thrombus narrowing

of the lumen
3. Nicotine use as a modifiable risk factor of disorders pf the peripheral arteries may result to the
following, except; decreased blood flow to the extremities decrease risk of clot formation by
increasing platelet aggregation increase risk of clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation
vasoconstriction
Aneurysm
Arteriosclerosis Atherosclerosis
peripheral arterial occlusive disorder

atherosclerosis deep vein thrombosis
arteriosclerosis
7. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following, except;
headache
fatigue body
malaise chest
pain
closely, except; bleeding increased urine output decrease urine output hematuria
Homan's sign Human's
sign
Herman's sign
Heman's sign
10. Arteriosclerosis is; hardening of the arteries hardening of the capillaries hardening of
plaques hardening of the veins

Moreee
1. Narrowing and hardening of arteries supplying the peripheral extremities -- Peripheral

2. Hallmark of Peripheral arterial occlusive disord ers (PAOD) -- intermittent claudication
4. Vasoconstriction
1. Protein deposits
2. Carbohydrates
3. Calcium
4. Lipid deposits

IBANG SOURCE
FA5

Human's sign
Herman's sign
/ Heman's sign
O Homan's sign
An etiologic factor of aneurysm are the following except;

traumatic causes O familial history congenital
O Diabetes Mellitus and hypertension smoking,
hypertension, familial tendencies O obesity
and cigarette smoking
Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following, except;
O headache
) body malaise
O fatigue
O chest pain
O Aneurysm
O Atherosclerosis
O Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal layer of the
artery, except; O calcium
O lipid deposits
O carbohydrates

O dysphagia
O cough O
pain

O hemorrhage
O Thrombus
Arteriosclerosis
O Infarction
Blood type A has an antigen A and antibody A.
 False
Which of these blood types carries no antigens:
 blood type O
Average functional lifespan of RBC:
 100-120 days
It acts to dissolve clots and lyse fibrin
 plasmin
It is called as the cellular immunity mediators
 T-lymphocytes
Homeostasis involves 3 major processes, except:
 dilation of blood vessels
It is increased in allergic and parasitic reactions
 eosinophils
Which antigen (s) does type AB blood contains:
 A and B antigen
Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes
 neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
these are called immature RBCs
 Reticulocytes
Blood type B has an antigen B and antibody A
 TRUE
The following are formed elements in the blood system, except
 Plasma


color

output

Lymphography
x-ray
venogram

4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics
Thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
nitroglycerin?
Venogram
TEE
marrow
Venogram

Lymphography
mmHg
2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
Limit MI damage

Prevents death
acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K
False
True
abdomen


Lying prone
Partly true
Partly false
False

Continue to suction

1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
All of the above

None of the above

None of the above
All of the above
Liquefying effects
Right reason

Right response
All of the above
None of the above
Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above

Inhaler
None of the above
Suctioning
All of the above
None of the above


insufficiency only
All of the above

None of the above
windows are closed

Baking powder
True
False
True
False
True
False
True
False
inhalation water
inhalation
moisture inhalation
True
False
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
before lunch



ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue

Cardiomyopathy
condition.
poor circulation
eliminated

Retention of fluid

Venous engorgement

Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs


closely, except:

Hematuria
Bleeding
following, except:

Vasoconstriction
salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet

Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis

Aneurysm
Atherosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis
except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits

Pain
Dysphagia
Cough
Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain



False
True

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
Plasma
WBC
RBC

False
True
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking

Increased BP
Angina pectoris


Minimize anxiety
Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA

Dyspnea and syncope
Fear and anxiety

artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent

Increased weight
Increased age
CONCEPT
EXAM
50. When a client is receiving an anti-coagulant, the nursing care should include observation
for;
A. Nausea
B. Headache
C. Epistaxis
D. Chest pain
49. Pletaal is a drug of choice for Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease. It acts to;
A. Improves supply of O2 to the blood and muscles
B. Reduces blood viscosity
C. Inhibit platelet aggregation and increases vasodilation
D. Inhibit platelet aggregation and decreases vasodilation
48. Nursing care for a patient immediately after a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration includes;
A. Preparing to administer a blood transfusion
B. Monitoring vital signs and assessing the site for excess drainage or bleeding
C. Instructing on the need for pre procedure and post procedure antibiotic medications.
D. Instructing on need to lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact
47. Which of the following diagnostic findings are most likely for a client with aplastic anemia?
A. Decreased production of T-helper cells
B. Decreased levels of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
C. reed -stemberg cells and lymph node enlargement
D. Increased levels of WBCs, RBCs, and platelets
46. A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest
of her life. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because
of kidney dysfunction
B. The reason of your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient acid
C. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin
because of rapid red blood cell production
D. The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor
45. A nurse is monitoring a client with angina for therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Which
assessment finding indicates that the nitroglycerin has been effective?
A. Blood pressure 120/80
B. Heart rate 70 bpm
C. Ecg without evidence of ST changes
D. Client stating that pain is 0 out of 10
44. The nurse in the coronary care unit should observe for one of the following complications
of myocardial infarction, which is;
A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Cardiac enlargement
D. hypokalemia
43. It is best to maintain laboratory findings in CAD on the following except:
A. Triglycerides of 100 mg/dl
B. Good cholesterol level of 40 mg/dl

C. Cholesterol level of 155 mg/dl
D. Bad cholesterol level of 150 mg/dl
42. What B vitamin is lacking that contributes to the development of Pernicious anemia?
A. B10
B. B12
C. B1
D. B6
41. These are considered as the reliable and critical marker of damage to myocardium in
Myocardial Infarction.
A. Elevated CK-MB and CK-MM
B. Troponin I and Troponin T
C. ST elevation and T wave inversion in ECG
D. Troponin I and CK-MB
40. Insufficient folate in the body will lead to what hematologic disorder?
A. Microblastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia - mod
C. Leukemia
D. Aplastic anemia
39
.
38. Hemophilia B is caused by;
A. Deficient and defective clotting factor VII
B. Deficient and defective clotting factor X
C. Deficient and defective clotting factor XI
D. Deficient and defective clotting factor IX - mod & quizlet
37. Disseminated intravascular Coagulation or DIC is thought to be caused by widespread

injury to endothelial cells, except:
A. Major trauma
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Renal disease - mod
D. Sepsis
E. malignancy/tumor
36. The nurse understands that the client with pernicious anemia will have which
distinguishing laboratory findings?
A. Sedimentation rate, 16 mm/hour
B. Intrinsic factor, absent - quizlet
C. RBC’s, 5.0 million
D. Schilling’s test, elevated

35. Fragments of cells in the bloodstream that breakdown on exposure to injured tissue and
begin the chain reaction leading to a blood clot are known as;
A. Erythrocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Platelets
34. A client has heart failure and is prescribed Lasix. The nurse is aware that furosemide
(Lasix) is what kind of drug?
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. High-ceiling (loop) diuretic
33. The nurse is caring for an adult who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Oxygen
is administered. Administering oxygen to this client is related to which of the client
problems? A. Alteration in heart rate, rhythm and conduction
B. Anxiety
C. Chest pain
D. Ineffective myocardial perfusion - quizlet
32. These are manifestations of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) in the laboratory
examination results, except;
A. Decreased WBC -mod
B. Prolonged bleeding time
C. Decreased hemoglobin level
D. Platelet count less than 20,000
31. A drug of choice for Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease is Trental. This drug acts to:
A. Inhibit platelet aggregation
B. Reduce blood viscosity - mod
C. Increases vasodilation
D. Increase blood viscosity
30. Joint bleeding is;

A. Hematochezia
B. Hematopoeia
C. Hemarthrosis
D. Hemarthritis
29. All of the following describes Myocardial Infarction, except;

A. Process by which the areas of the pericardial cells in the heat are temporarily
destroyed
B. It is known as heart attack
C. Process by which the areas of the Myocardial Cells are permanently destroyed
D. Death of the myocardial tissues in regions of the heart with abrupt interruption of the
coronary blood supply.
28. The goal of the therapy is to maintain the normal hemoglobin levels by the administration
of blood transfusion.
A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Von Willebrand’s Disease
D. Factor VII Disease
27. Reducing myocardial oxygen demand and increasing O2 supply can be achieved by the
following, except:
A. Increased O2 supply/administration
B. Medication
C. Active Exercise/Physical exertion
D. Bedrest
26. Laboratory findings in von Willebrand’s Disease are the following,
except:
A. Abnormal Platelet count
B. Prolonged aPTT
C. Increased bleeding time
D. Decreased clotting factor VIII
25. Which of the following characters sickle cell anemia?

A. Microcytic RBC
B. Disc-shaped or crescent moon-shaped RBC
C. Large RBC being produced
D. Too small RBC being produced
24. It is generally caused by a genetic defect that results in deficient or defective clotting factor
VIll.
a. Parenchymal disease of the liver
b. Hemophilia A
c. Hemophilia B
d. Vitamin K deficiency
23.
Situation:
Mr. Herrera, a 57 years old vice president of a bank, began having intermittent chest
discomfort over the past three weeks but did not seek medical consultation; however, the pain
finally interrupted his activities during the day, so he went to the physician. After evaluation, a
diagnosis of angina pectoris due to atherosclerotic heart disease was made. Nitroglycerin was
prescribed to control Mr. Herrera’s attack.
Question: As Mr. Herrera’s nurse, you teach him that Nitroglycerin

should be taken:
A. At the first indication of chest pain
B. Only if the chest pain is not relieved by stress
C. Before every meal and at bedtime
D. Every two to three hours during the day
22. A client is to be discharged home with a transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which instruction
will the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
A. “If you have chest pain, apply a second patch next to the first patch.”
B. “If you have a headache, remove the patch for 4 hours and then reapply.”
C. “Apply the patch to the same site each day”
D. “Apply the patch to a non hairy area of the torso or arm.”
21. Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia?

A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Platelets
20. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be prevented?
A. Gender
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Heredity
D. age
19. It is best to consider the following laboratory findings in client with coronary artery
disease, except:
A. good cholesterol level of 100mg/dl
B. bad cholesterol level of 120mg/dl
C. triglycerides level of 150mg/dt or lower
D. cholesterol level of 129mg/dl
18. Unstable angina is to increase in frequency and severity; while stable angina is to;
A. severe capacitating chest pain
B. relieved by rest and Nitrates, predictable and consistent pain that occurs on
exertion C. severe incapacitating chest pain
D. relieved by rest and Nitrates, predictable and inconsistent pain that occurs on
exertion
17. The nurse devises a teaching plan for the patient with aplastic anemia,Which of the
following is the most important concept to teach for health maintenance?
A. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day
B. Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety
C. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables each day
D. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection
16. Mr. Herrera was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit (CU) with a diagnosis of
myocardial infarction. Shortly after admission, he states that he might as well have died
because now he won't be able to do anything. Your best response would be;
A. “What do you mean about not being able to do anything, Mr. Herrera?"
B. "Don't worry about it, Mr. Herrera, Everything will be alright"
C. "You shouldn't be thinking about that because you are doing so well now
D. Take life one day at a time, Mr. Herrera
15. A type of Willebrad’s disease which is characterized by decrease in structurally normal von
Willebrad’s disease?
A. Type 2 Von Willebrad’s disease
B. Type 4 Von Willebrad’s disease
C. Type 1 Von Willebrad’s disease
D. Type 3 Von Willebrad’s disease
14. Mr, de Guzman was diagnosed with leukemia, His laboratory results indicate bone
marrow depression, The nurse should encourage him to:
A. drink citrus fruits frequently for nourishment
B. Increase activity level and ambulates frequently
C. sleep with head of the bed slightly elevated
D. use a soft toothbrush and electric razor
13. In interviewing waveform strips or ECG for a hospitalized client, the nurse instructed a
student nurse that the P wave represents
A. Ventricular repolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
D. Atrial depolarization
12. Joint bleeding causing pain

A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Factor VII disorder
D. Von Willebrand’s disease
11. All of the following are etiologic factors associated with idiopathic Thrombocytopenic
Purpura (ITP), except:
A. Reaction to nicot
B. Viral infection
C. Immunization of live virus
10. The release of catecholamines with increased BP and HR and myocardial workload is
related to the following associated factors of angina pectoris.
A. Physical exertion
B. Eating heavy meal
C. Stress
D. Exposure to cold
9. All of the following is true about hemophilia, except:

A. It can result from the union between the affected male and normal female or a carrier
female-
B. Management is symptomatic treatment approach
C. It is most frequently transmitted by union of affected male with a trait carrier female
D. It is most frequently transmitted by union of unaffected male with a trait carrier female
8. Hemarthroses is to hemophilia; while Wide-set eyes with flat nose is to:

A. Thrombosis
B. Thalassemia Major
C. Von Willebrand's Disease
D. Hemostasis
7. The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are as effective as antianginals because they
do what?
A. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility
B. Decrease heart rate and increase myocardial contractility
C. Maintain heart rate and blood pressure
D. Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation
6. Laboratory findings which may help diagnose Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease are the
following. Except:
A. Increased doppler flow studies
B. Sensation of cold
C. Unequal pulses between extremities
D. Numbness of extremities
5. Situation : One evening Mr. Herrera awakes with severe substernal chest pressure and
dyspnea . He takes two Nitroglycerin tablets without relief . In five minutes , he takes two
more without relief . He calls his physician who instructs him to go directly to the hospital .
Question : One afternoon Mr. Herrera requests a snack Food on the menu that would be the
most appropriate for him is;
A. Seafood salad
B. Ice cream
C. Chicken sandwich
D. Fresh fruits
4. The nurse is aware that the term bradycardia means;

A. Grossly irregular heart beats
B. Heart rate that has regular skipped beats
C. Heart rate of over 90 beats per minute
D. Heart rate of under 60 beats per minute
3. Heparin Therapy is to disseminated intravascular Coagulation; while plasmapheresis is to;

A. Hemorrhage
B. Hemostasis
C. Thrombosis
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
2. In type A hemophilia, a child is deficient in the clotting factor of;

A. XI
B. VIII
C. IX
D. XII
1. Laboratory studies are performed for a child suspected of having iron deficiency anemia.
The nurse reviews the laboratory results , knowing that which of the following results would
indicate this type of anemia?
A. An elevated RBC count
B. An elevated hemoglobin level
C. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic
D. A decreased reticulocyte count
51. a variant angina is also called prinzmetal angina characterized by pain at rest with
reversible st-segment elevation thought to be cause by coronary artery vasodilation
-True
52. The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is starting a Schilling
test?
- Starting a 24- to 48 hour urine specimen collection
53. The nurse is obtaining a health history on a patient admitted with a diagnosis of "rule
out aplastic anemia." Considering the diagnosis, which of the following data is most
important for the nurse to elicit during the interview? -Exposure to chemicals and drugs
54. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following

mechanisms -plaques obstruct the artery
55. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, & edema are classic signs &
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
-Heart
failure
56. The following are the manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation
diseases except:
-increased hematocrit and platelet count
57. The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain
the best supply of vitamin B12? -Meats and dairy products
58. The nurse is monitoring a client taking digoxin (lanoxin) for treatment heart
failure. -heart rate 58 beats per minute
59. All of the following mechanism occur in disseminated intravascular coagulation

disease, except? -activation hemolysis
60. An adult woman is admitted to the cardiac care unit with a myocardial infarction.
The morning after admission she and her husband tell the nurse that she must be home
tonight to care for the children when her husband goes to work. The problem identified
at this point would he
-inability of the client/family to understand the disease process
61. A client was admitted with iron deficiency anemia and blood-streaked emesis.
client’s activity intolerance?
- “What activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared to the present?”
62. Disseminated intravascular coagulation DIC is a disorder in which:

-a disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant thrombosis, as well as
depletion of clotting factors,leading to diffuse clotting and hemorrhage
63. A client was admitted with iron deficiency anemia and blood streaked einesis,.
client's activity intolerance?
-”What activities were you able to do 6 months…”
64. Which laboratory result would the nurse expect in the client diagnosed with
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
-a decreased prothrombin time
65. Jon, is 11 years old and has a Type A Hemophilia. He is brought to the emergency
room after being knocked down in a football game. This condition is accompanied
by frequent bruising and persistent bleeding even from minor injuries.
-Vitamin K
66. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis: -vascular
spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
67. Laboratory findings in Von Willebrand’s disease are the following, except: -
Abnormal platelet count
68. Which of the following classes of medication maximizes cardiac performance by
increasing myocardial contractility?
-
inotropics
68. Angina pectoris characterizes by: -abnormal accumulation of fatty substances and
fibrous tissues in the vessel wall
69. Which of the following conditions most commonly results in coronary artery
disease? -atherosclerosis
70. When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors for changes
in which of the following physiological functions?
-Bleeding tendencies
71. Von willebrand’s disease is a common bleeding disorder affecting males and
females equally usually inherited as recessive trait:
-
false
71. The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is starting a schilling
test?
-starting a 24 to 48 hour urine specimen collection
72. You are taking care of a male patient who has the following laboratory values from
his CBC: WBC 6.5 - 103/pL. Hgb 13.4 g/dt. Hct 40%, platelets 50 > 103/uL What are you
most concerned about?
-your patient is at risk for
bleeding
73. Maxillary prominence is a manifestation of: -thalassemia
ADDITIONAL SOURCE NAE
When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors for changes in which
of the following physiological functions?
A. Bleeding tendencies

Osler's nodes is characterized by

abnormal urine color
red painful nodes in pads of fingers and toes
splinter hemorrhages under the nails
The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to: - on the jaw, the left arm, neck outer
aspect of the upper arms on the left the jaw, of the upper arms
The following are the signs and symptoms of MI except; -Increase left ventricular
function and cardiac output
Health Teaching in CAD is focused on the following except; -Increasing dietary intake
of sodium and fats
The following re nursing care to consider in caring for clients with myocardial infarction
except -Provide active ROM exercises
Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor of myocardial infarction? - Ethic
Background
It is characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest - Angina

Pectoris

It is the visualization of lymphatics and lymph nodes by radiography following the

intralymphatic injection of a contrast medium?
Lymphography
x-ray
venogram

4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
It prevents the extension and formation of blood clots and decreases blood
coagulability Anticoagulant
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics

Thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment

Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
A client who has angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse reviews which
appropriate nursing interventions for nitroglycerin?
Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction
It involves injection of a radiopause contrast agent directly into the arterial system to
visualize the vessel and area of aneurysm can be detected.
Venogram
TEE
It is a procedure that involves taking a sample of liquid part of the soft tissue inside
your bone Bone marrow
Venogram
Lymphography
What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of tolerance to
nitroglycerin?
Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the client’s systolic blood pressure elevates to
more than 140 mmHg

2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration, except:

Preserve left ventricular function
Limit MI damage
Prevents death
Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client with atrial fibrillation. While
on the nursing unit? Aminocaproic acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K

False
True
Mario listens to richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper
lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical
segments of the lungs when mario does the percussion would be:
Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on the Trendelenburg position Client
seated upright in the bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position and then
flat on his back and on his abdomen

Which action indicates that the client understands teaching on the correct way to
perform diaphragmatic breathing?
Lying prone
Deep ventilation may loosen secretions, and coughing can facilitate their removal
True
Partly true
Partly false
False
All of the following are steps to consider in preparing the site for pulse oximetry
reading, except:
Position the sensor on the side of the finger rather then the perpendicular to the nail
bed
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention if your patient’s heart rate
drops during suctioning? Notify the physician
Continue to suction
You are a student nurse assigned to do suctioning to your patient. What suctioning,
you must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of:
1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds

All of the above
None of the above

None of the above
All of the above
Liquefying effects
Prepare the medication following the following rights of medication administration

except: Explain to the client what you are going to do
Right reason
Right response
All of the above
None of the above

Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above
Inhaler
A therapy that liquefies and remove retained secretions from the respiratory tract. A
nebulize is a device that a stable aerosol of fluid and/or drug particles
None of the above
Suctioning

All of the above
None of the above
Another protocols to be considered are the following select all that applies Whether
a repeated does can be given How much is given

To reduce inflammatory and allergic responses in the upper respiratory tract To
liquefy and remove retained secretions form from the lower respiratory tract To
relieve respiratory insufficiency only

All of the above
None of the above
All patients must be treated in a room equipped with negative pressure filtration, and
ensure the windows are closed
Explain the procedure to the patient, including the drugs, equipment, why it is
necessary and possible side effects. Written patient information will be provided on the
first treatment

To lessen irritation of the respiratory membranes by warming and moistening the
membranes by warming and moistening the air
Baking powder
In nebulization, we must measure the prescribed amount of drug with a syringe needle
and place into the nebulizer’s drug compartment
True
False
the bed side
True
False
In nebulization we must place client in fowler’s or sitting position if tolerated True

False
In steam inhalation, it needs that when the steam comes out direct the spout towards
the patient’s face
True
False
the bed side
True
False
Drawing in of a plain steam, impregnated with drug into the respiratory tract, brings
moist heat to the respiratory tract which produce vasodilation thus reducing edema of
the respiratory membranes
humidification
steam inhalation
water inhalation
moisture inhalation
In steam inhalation it needs to adjust apparatus 18-24 inches from the patient or at a
safe distance to enable the steam to reach him
True
False
Drawing into the respiratory tract, a non-volatile drug, transformed into a fine mist with
the use of nebulizer, or aerosol apparatus
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
The nurse is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which of the
following is an appropriate aspect of planning the client’s care? Percussion and
postural drainage should be done before lunch
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding pulse oximetry? A light is used
to estimate the oxyhemoglobin saturation of hemoglobin
On room air, a fit and healthy person assesses by pulse oximetry should have an
arterial oxygen level saturation at least: 97%


ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue

Cardiomyopathy
5. A patient is having difficulty understanding the complication of additional fluid

surround the heart.
The report that “having extra fluid…” information would be best used to educate the
patient on their condition.
The sack will compress the lungs, leading to less expansion causing shortness of
breath
More fluid is surrounding the heart allows for less blood to fill the heart to be pumped
out leading to poor circulation
The bacteria in the pericardial sack are being pumped out throughout the body and
need to be eliminated

Retention of fluid
Venous engorgement

Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs

10. The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease
must be watched closely, except:
Hematuria
Bleeding
11. Nicotine use a modifiable risk factor of disorders of the peripheral arteries may
result to the following, except:
Vasoconstriction
12. As a preventive measure of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis includes the

following, except: Low salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet
Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis

Aneurysm
14. The following are modifiable risk factors of peripheral arterial occlusive disease,
except: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, stress Smoking, hypertension, familial
tendencies
Atherosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis
16. Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal

layer of the artery, except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits

18. A clinical manifestations of aneurysm which is believed to be the due to

impingement on the esophagus by the aneurysm is:
Pain
Dysphagia
Cough
19. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the
following, except: Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain



False
True
22. An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased RBC
count because
Impaired production of leukocytes and platelets leads to proportionally higher and cell
counts

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
Plasma
WBC
RBC

32. Which one of the following group consists of granulocytes? Neutrophils,
eosinophils, and basophils
35. During anginal attack in MI, it is best to advise the patient to stop all activities. Then
administer nitroglycerine sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved, take
again one tablet sublingually then wait for 5 minutes. If unrelieved again take again
one table sublingually then wait another 5 minutes. If still unrelieved, advise to seek
immediate medical consult or attention
False
True
Hypertension
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking

Increased BP
38. It characterized by episodes of chest pain or pressure in the anterior chest

Atherosclerosis
Angina pectoris

Minimize anxiety
40. A surgical management that compresses the lipid plaques against the wall of the
artery Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA


Dyspnea and syncope
Fear and anxiety
obstructed artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent

Increased weight
Increased age
45. As part of nursing intervention in caring for clients with CAD, it is important to note
for the client which are the following except

cough
dysphagia
2. The following are pathophysiologic events of arteriosclerosis, except; dilation of the
lumen reduced blood supply to the tissues or organs
obstruction by the thrombus

narrowing of the lumen
3. Nicotine use as a modifiable risk factor of disorders pf the peripheral arteries may result
to the following, except; decreased blood flow to the extremities decrease risk of clot
formation by increasing platelet aggregation increase risk of clot formation by increasing
platelet aggregation vasoconstriction
Aneurysm
Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
peripheral arterial occlusive

disorder atherosclerosis deep vein
thrombosis arteriosclerosis
7. Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following,
except; headache
fatigue
body
malaise
chest pain
8. The following manifestations in client with peripheral arterial occlusive disease must be
watched closely, except; bleeding increased urine output decrease urine output
hematuria
Homan's sign
Human's sign
Herman's sign
Heman's sign
10. Arteriosclerosis is; hardening of the arteries hardening of the capillaries hardening
of plaques hardening of the veins
Moreee
1. Narrowing and hardening of arteries supplying the peripheral extremities -- Periphera
l
2. Hallmark of Peripheral arterial occlusive disorders (PAOD) -- intermittent claudication
4. Vasoconstriction
1. Protein deposits
2. Carbohydrates
3. Calcium
4. Lipid deposits

IBANG SOURCE
FA5

Human's sign
Herman's sign
/ Heman's sign
O Homan's sign
An etiologic factor of aneurysm are the following

except; traumatic causes O familial history congenital
Clinical manifestations of the disorders of the peripheral arteries include the following,
except;
O headache
) body malaise
O fatigue
O chest pain

O Aneurysm
O Atherosclerosis
O Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis may be secondary to accumulation of the following in the intimal layer of

the artery, except; O calcium
O lipid deposits
O carbohydrates

O dysphagia
O cough
O pain

O hemorrhage
O Thrombus
Arteriosclerosis
O Infarction
1.All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis, except;
fatigue
shortness of breath sensation

of skipped heart beats chest
pain
Cardiac
Musculoskeletal
Pulmonary - quizlet
Gastrointestinal
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
high WBC count
fever
ST changes in ECG
chest pain
blood sample. CBC
blood CS
blood
chemistry

decreased peripheral pulses, tachycardia,
fatigue anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins
wright gain, pulsus alterans, ascites

color
body weakness

Ibang source
FA4
It is a red painless skin spots located on palms and
soles. Janeway lesions oster's nodes Roth spots
Petechiae
Most characteristic symptoms of

pericarditis. ST changes in ECG high WBC
count fever chest pain
It measures how quickly the erythrocytes settle in the bottom of the test tube that contains
a blood sample. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
O CBC
O blood chemistry
O blood CS
The following are left sided heart failure assessment findings,

except body weakness dyspnea
oliguria
All of the following are manifestations of chronic myocarditis,

except; shortness of breath chest pain o fatigue
A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain and body malaise. Which of the
follo cardiovascular diseases? O Cardiomyopathy
Which of the following are manifestations of left sided

CHF? anorexia, nausea, distended neck veins wright gain,
pulsus alterans, ascites
The manifestation of body weakness in right sided CHF is due

to; increased venous pressure venous engorgement
decreased cardiac output and impaired circulation
0- retention of fluid
Green - checked
Blue - hunch
Norvasc
Metoprolol
Atenolol
2. These are examples of modifiable risk factors in CAD except;increased level of blood
glucose increasing age increased level of BP increased weight
obstructedartery.
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent
PTCA - hunch
4. The chest pain in angina pectoris radiates to;the jaw, both arms, neck, inner aspect of
left and right upper arms he jaw, the left arm, neck, outer aspect of the upper arms on
the left the jaw, both arms, neck, outer aspect of left and right arms the jaw, the left
arm, neck, inner aspect of upper arms on the left
5. Nitroglycerine medications act to;decrease filling pressure and resistance to eject as

well as dilates the coronary arteries reduce vasospasm reduce development of
atherosclerotic plaques reduce the BP
6. These are drugs to decrease the filling pressure and resistance to eject as well as it
dilatesthe coronary artery.
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
Nitrates- net cholesterol-
lowering medications
7. Laser angioplasty is to vaporize the plaque; while atherectomy is to;dilate the vessels
prevent the artery from closing and to prevent restenosis compress the plaque against
the walls of the artery remove the plaques from the artery- net
8. Health teaching in CAD is focused on the following, except;controlling BP and blood

sugar level increasing exercise decreasing dietary intake of fats and cholesterol - mod
9. These are all signs and symptoms of Angina Pectoris except;feeling of impending
death and impending doom Shortness of breath and difficulty of breathing light
sensation and tightness in upper chest dizziness, nausea and vomiting
10. A complication of Myocardial Infarction that must be watched out closely by the nurse
caringfor the client is;
dysrhythmias - mod
chest pain
stress/anxiety
hypertension
11. An example of a non-modifiable risk factor in CAD is;increasing age obesity increased
level of lipids/fats physical inactivity
12. Patient reports no pain but there is an ECG changes with a stress test which is an
evidenceof ischemia is what type of angina?
Variant Angina
Silent Angina
Variant Ischemia
13. The following are the signs and symptoms of Ml except;difficulty of breathing/shortness
of breath increased/decreased heart rate increased left ventricular function and cardiac
output decreased left ventricular function and cardiac output
Congestive Heart
Disease Atherosclerosis
angina pectoris
15. Chest pain in angina pectoris is described as;mild to moderate suprasternal pain,
squeezing, tightness and burning sensation mild to severe retrosternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation mild to moderate retrosternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation - mod mild to severe suprasternal pain, squeezing,
tightness and burning sensation
CARDIO QUIZ 1

d. Mitral Only
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
a. Flutter
c. Tachycardia
d. Fibrillation
of the body
a. TRUE
c. FALSE
diseases, except:
c. Fatigue
complex
wave
circulation via:
a. Aorta
b. Atrium
c. Pulmonic Artery
d. Pulmonic Vein
Roles in the family
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. No text provided
a. AV node
b. Left chamber
c. SA Node
d. Purkenji Fiber
responses?
a. Hypotension
b. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
ward. A patient complained of anterior left sternal chest pain. The electrical activity
for the contraction of the heart is initiated by the:
c. Myocytes
anxiety and dizziness. All of the diagnostic listed below are crucial in diagnosing a
heart attack except:
a. Stress test
b. Cardiac catheter
d. CT scan
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
dissolving.”
a. Echocardiography
b. Angiogram
d. Ultrasound
c. Dilated aorta
a. 2DEcho
b. Treadmill test
c. ECG
CARDIO QUIZ 2
c. Remove dentures
nursing assessment?
a. Prothrombin
b. Warfarin
c. Thrombin
d. Vitamin K
teaching?

b. Blood chemistry
c. Lymphangiogram
d. Venogram
a. True
b. False
except;
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
reactions, except;
coagulability
a. Antibiotics
c. Anticoagulant
d. Anti-anginal
14. All of the following are purposes of thrombolytic medication administration,
except;
c. Limit MI damage
d. Prevents death
b. TEE
d. Venogram
a. Sodium heparin
c. Heparin sodium
d. Warfarin sodium
a. Hypotension
d. Thrombosis
d. Warfarin sodium
must be monitored. As a nurse all these symptoms must be reported at once,
except;
b. Bradycardia
relief”
a. Irritability
d. Tremors
except;

blood flow
a. Anticoagulant
d. Antimicrobials
a. Atherosclerosis
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Heart problems
b. Lymphography
c. X-ray
d. Venogram
implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is
available on the nursing unit?
c. Vitamin K
tissues
a. Hypotension
c. Thrombocytopenia
29. The nurse is monitoring a client during IV nitroglycerin infusion. Which
assessment finding will cause the nurse to take action?
a. Flushing

c. Headache
d. Chest pain
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
your bone.
a. Venogram
b. Bone marrow
c. Lymphography
b. Venogram
c. TEE
36. What will the nurse instruct the client to do to prevent the development of
tolerance to nitroglycerin?



color

output
Lymphography
x-ray
venogram

4.5 – 5.3 mEq/L
3.5-5.5 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1mEq/L
Anti-anginal
Antibiotics
Thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Hypotension
Flushing
Headache
Chest pain
nitroglycerin?
Venogram
TEE
marrow
Venogram

Lymphography
mmHg
2.5-3.5 mEq/L
4.5-5.3 mEq/L
1.35-1.45 mEq/L
1.3-2.1 mEq/L
Limit MI damage

Prevents death
acid
Protamine sulfate
Potassium chloride
Vitamin K
False
True
abdomen


Lying prone
Partly true
Partly false
False

Continue to suction

1 minute
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
All of the above

None of the above


None of the above
All of the above
Liquefying effects
Right reason

Right response
All of the above
None of the above
Tissue paper
None of the above
All of the above

Inhaler
None of the above
Suctioning

All of the above
None of the above


insufficiency only
All of the above

None of the above
windows are closed

Baking powder
True
False
True
False
True
False
True
False
inhalation water
inhalation
moisture inhalation
True
False
Aspiration
Nebulization
Steam inhalation
Suctioning
before lunch


ST changes in ECG
High WBC count
Fever
Chest pain

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Fatigue

Cardiomyopathy
condition.
poor circulation
eliminated

Retention of fluid

Venous engorgement

Homan’s sign
Human’s sign
Herman’s sign
Heman’s signs


closely, except:

Hematuria
Bleeding
following, except:

Vasoconstriction
salt low fat diet
High fiber diet
Low fiber diet

Arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis

Aneurysm
Atherosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis
except:
Carbohydrates
Protein deposits
Calcium
Lipid deposits

Pain
Dysphagia
Cough
Fatigue
Body malaise
Headache
Chest pain



False
True

Monocytes
RBC
WBC
Platelet
Plasma
WBC
RBC

False
True
Stress
Ethnic background
Cigarette smoking

Increased BP
Angina pectoris


Minimize anxiety
Atherectomy
CABG
Laser angioplasty
PTCA

Dyspnea and syncope
Fear and anxiety

artery
PTCA
Laser angioplasty
Vascular stent

Increased weight
Increased age
1.Which of the following concurrent electrolyte imbalances should the nurse anticipate while working
with a client who has hyperphosphatemia
Hyperkalemia
hypocalcemia
hypermagnesemia
hyponatremia
2. A 70-year-old client is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and hyponatremia. The nurse would write
which of the following in the care plan about weighing this client?
O Rotate scales used on a daily basis.

O Weigh the client without clothing.
O Obtain a physician order to measure daily weight.
O Weigh the client at the same time each day.
3. The nurse suspects hypokalemia is present when the client experiences which of the following signs
and symptoms:
O Edema, distended neck vein, bounding pulse

O Sunken eyeballs, deep, rapid respiration excessive thirst
Apathy. weakness, abdominal distention
O Abdominal cramps. diarrhea, dysrhythmias
4. The nurse has been caring for a client who has become extremely anxious and agitated. Which of the
following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find in this client because of anxiety and
agitation?
Rapid, shallow respiratory pattern

O Slow, irregular heart rate
O Rapid, irregular heart rate
Rapid, deep respiratory pattern
5. Which of the following nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client experiencing neuromuscular
abnormalities related to a chloride imbalance?
Fluid volume excess

O Risk for injury
O Ineffective individual coping
O Fluid volume deficit
9. The nurse would recommend to a client with hypomagnesemia to increase intake of which of the
following foods that contain high amounts of magnesium?
O Bread
O Fresh fruit
O Rice
O Legumes
10 . When assessing a patient for signs of fluid overload, the nurse would expect to observe:
O Flat neck veins

O increased temperature
O Bounding pulse
O poor skin turgor
11. All of the following are included in the home care considerations for suctioning except:
O Suction catheters treated in the manner described above may be used. It is recommended that catheters
be discarded after 24 hours.
None of the above
O Airway suctioning in the home is considered a clean procedure.
O The catheter or Yankauer should be flushed by suctioning recently boiled water to rinse away mucus,
followed by suctioning of air through the device to dry the internal surface.
12. A 71-year-old client develops hypertension, tachycardia and increased respirations two days surgery.
ABG results are pH 7.29, PaCO2 52, and HCO3 24, SaO2 at 95%. As a nurse. you will interpret this as:
O Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated

O Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated
O Metabolic acidosis, partially compensated
O Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
13. The client with COPD asks the nurse why a continuous pulse oximeter is ordered. Which of the
following responses by the nurse is correct?
"The machine is used to adequately assess your ventilatory effort while you are in bed."
O "The pulse oximeter is being used so we don't ever have to draw ABGs on you while you are in the
hospital."
O "The pulse oximeter measures your CO2 level so ABGs only need to be drawn once a day." O "The
pulse oximeter measures the oxygen saturation in your blood at any given time."
14. The nurse anticipates which of the following responses in a client who develops metabolic acidosis?
O Heart rate will increase

O Temperature will increase
O Respiratory rate will increase
O Urinary output will increase
Question 6
A client admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle accident with chest injuries
complains that it hurts to breath. The client's respiratory rate is 12 and very shallow. The nurse would
anticipate which of the following results on ABG?
O pH 7.42. PaCO2 41 mmHg. HCO3- 23 mEq/L. SaO2 96%

O pH 7.31. PaCO2 49 mmHg. HCO3- 24 mEq/L, SaO2 87%
O pH 7.38. PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3- 22 mEq/L. SaO2 90% O pH 7.49. PaCO2 34 mmHg. HCO3- 30
mEq/L. SaO2 89%
Question 7
Which of the following clients would be most at risk to develop a sodium imbalance?
O A diabetic who is under glycemic control

An adult client taking corticosteroid therapy
O An elderly client who drinks 8 glasses (8 ounces each) of water each day
O A teenager who is drinking Gatorade during exercise workouts
Question 8
The client's serum potassium is 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following medications does the nurse prepare to
administer?
Aluminum Hydroxide
O Magnesium Sulfate
Sodium Bicarbonate
O Calcium Gluconate
Question 9
The nurse would recommend to a client with hypomagnesemia to increase intake of which of the
following foods that contain high amounts of magnesium?
O Bread
Fresh fruit
O Rice
O Legumes
Question 10
When assessing a patient for signs of fluid overload, the nurse would expect to observe:
O Flat neck veins

O increased temperature
O Bounding pulse
O poor skin turgor
15.Which of the following should be restricted when caring for an adult client diagnosed with
hyponatremia?
O Na
O Water
O Ca
OK
Question 161 pts
A 55-year-old client is semi-conscious, restless and exhibits tremors and muscle weakness. Physical
examination reveals a dry, swollen tongue, body temperature of 99.8'F and urine specific gravity of 1030.
The nurse knows that the serum sodiu value for this client is most likely to be which of the following?
135 mEq/L
155 mEq/L
115 mEq/L
125 mEq/L
Question 171 pts
A 36-year-old female is admitted with vomiting and dehydration and 3 days flu. ABG are pH 7.46.
PaCO2 50, and HCO3 33, SaO2 at 95%. What do these values indicate to the nurse?
O Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated

O Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated
O Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated
O Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
Question 181 pts
The client who is very anxious and is experiencing deep, rapid respiration is admitted in the emergency
department. Which of the following acid-base imbalance may occur?
O Metabolic acidosis
O Respiratory acidosis
O Metabolic alkalosis
Question 19
A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning procedure,
the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which of the following is the appropriate
nursing intervention?
Continue to suction.
Notify the physician immediately.

Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.
Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.
O Continue to suction.
Notify the physician immediately.
Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.
O Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.
Question 201 pts
A client in renal failure has an abnormality high potassium level. Which of the following is a priority
nursing intervention?
O Obtain an electro cardiogramaG )
Draw arterial blood gases
O Measure urinary output
O Evaluate level of consciousness
Question 211 pts
Which of the following statements by a student nurse reflects correct understanding about the body's
attempt to restore homeostasis during periods of acidosis?
O "The kidneys are not as effective as the lungs in restoring the acid-base balance because the bicarbonate
ion is not a god buffer."
"The kidneys may not start to function immediately but are very effective as buffer system to restore the
acid base balance."
"The kidneys are very slow to respond to any acid-base imbalance but are very effective in riding the
body of carbonic acid."
"The kidneys start to work within seconds after an imbalance occurs and are very effective in restoring
the body to a correct acid-base balance."
Question 22
Which of the following clients would be most likely to develop hyperkalemia?
O A client just diagnosed with cirrhosis

O A client who has had diarrhea for the last four days
O A client with intestinal and nasogastric suctioning
O A client with chronic renal failure
Question 231 pts
The most accurate indicator is fluid deficit is:
O Poor skin turgor

O decrease in blood pressure O A change in body weight

O elevation of body temperature
Question 241 pts
The client's serum potassium levels is 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for
the client?
Aluminum hydroxide
O Vitamin D
O exchange resin kayexalate
O TPN administration
Question 251 pts
Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are present in the following electrolyte imbalances. Select all that
applies
O Hypocalcemia
O hyperphosphatemia
O Hypomagnesemia
O hypokalemia
Question 261 pts
A client with very dry mouth, skin and mucous membranes is diagnosed of having dehydration.
Which intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client diagnosed with fluid volume
deficit?
O Assessing urinary intake and output

Maintaining I.V. therapy at the keep-vein-open rate
O Obtaining the client's weight weekly at different times of the day
O Monitoring arterial blood gas (ABG) results
Question 271 pts
An 85-year-old patient with a feeding tube has been experiencing severe watery diarrhea. The client is
lethargic with decreased skin turgor, pulse rate of 110 and hyperactive reflexes. Nursing interventions
would include:
O Administering salt tablets and monitoring hypertonic parenteral solutions

Monitoring and recording intake, output and daily weights
O Restricting fluid intake

Administering sedatives and analgesics
28
nurse caring for a client with calcium imbalance places highest priority on nursing interventions help to
manage:
Cardiac changes
Renal signs and symptoms
Hematologic disorders
Neuromuscular clinical manifestations
Question 291 pts
A client has just finished an hour of strenuous exercise. Which of the following laboratory results would
the nurse expect?
O Increased osmolality
O Decreased creatinine
O Decrease osmolarity
O Increase hemoglobin
Question 301 pts
The following are interventions for a patient receiving IV replacement of potassium. Which of the
following is a priority nursing intervention?
monitor the BP and cardiac rate

assess patient's IV site
O check neuro vital signs
O check regularly the IVF flow rate
Question 311 pts
A 57-year-old client is admitted with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. ABG results are pH
7.36, PaCO2 29, and HCO3 20, SaO2 at 100%. As a nurse, you will conclude that this client is:
Hypoxemic with partially compensated metabolic acidosis

Well oxygenated with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Well oxygenated with fully compensated metabolic acidosis
Hypoxemic with fully compensated respiratory acidosis
32. A client is admitted to the hospital with severe hypokalemia. Which of the following data would
confirm the diagnosis? Potassium level 3.3 mEq/L, irregular pulse rate, and shallow respirations
33. Which of the following foods should the client who is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) be advised to
avoid?
Cantaloupe
34. Which of the following clients is at highest risk for developing FVD?
A 1-year-old child being treated in the clinic for a runny nose and ear infection.
A 30-year-old client jogging in 50-degree weather

O A thin 55-year-old client who smokes and takes glucocorticoids for chronic lung disease
A 76-year-old client who has an NG tube to low suction following colon cancer surgery
35. The nurse who is working with a client with magnesium deficiency understands that magnesium is
bound to ATP, which is responsible for what body activity?
Vitamin conservation
Energy
O Sugar absorption ?
Bone absorption
36.. A 28-year-old client is admitted with severe bleeding from a fractured femur. Which intravenous
fluid does the nurse anticipate using as the most appropriate to replace potential fluid loss?
3% saline
ONormal saline??
DS NSS
DSW
37. A client is admitted to the Emergency Department due to cardiac arrest. ABG results indicate a
respiratory acidosis. As a nurse, how would you respond to correct this imbalance?
Help client ventilate to "blow off" excess CO2
38. Which of thefollowing assessmentfindings does not indicate dehydration?

O Sudden weight gain
39. As a nurse, you would interpret a serum magnesium level of 3.2 mEq/L as indicative of which of the
following?
O Hypermagnesemia
Question 401 pts
A client with diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been drinking copious amount of water and voiding
frequently. The patient is experiencing bounding pulse and confusion and is reporting headache. The
nurse checks laboratory test results for which of the following?
O High urine specific gravity
O Low platelet count
O Low sodium level
O High serum osmolality
Question 42
pts
for The 12 physician ordered to discontinue TPN. Which of the following IV fluids does the nurse
administer to 24 hours after TPN therapy is discontinued?
O NaCl 0.9
O DSW
O DSLR
O D10W
1 pts
Question 41
Which of the following clients admitted to the hospital would be at risk for developing hypokalemia?
A client who had developed metabolic alkalosis
O A client whose blood gases indicate metabolic acidosis
O A client with acute renal failure
O A client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Question 451 pts
The client will receive calcium gluconate per IV. The appropriate IV fluid to be used to mix this
medication is:
O D5W
O D10W
O 0.45% NaCI
O 0.9% NaCl
Question 431 pts
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse assess for when developing a plan of care for a
client with hypernatremia?
Moist mucous membrane
O Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L

O Thirst
O Muscle weakness
Question 441 pts
The nurse must use which of the following scientific principles when caring for the pediatric client with
hypophosphatemia?
Serum phosphate levels are higher in children because of their rapid skeletal growth rate.
O Serum phosphate levels are consistent throughout the day
Phosphorus is the primary cation of intracellular fluid
O The least abundant mineral in the body id phosphorus
Question 46
Which of the following may cause an intracellular shift of potassium?
O Steroid therapy
O Hypoaldosteronism
O cellular shifting during acidosis O hypertonic glucose administration
Question 471 pts
The nurse is educating the client who has a decreased magnesium level. What information is most
important for the nurse to include in discussions with the client?
O Diet counseling
Avoid hazardous activities
O Weekly laboratory evaluations
O Moderate alcohol consumption

Question 481 pts
A 78-year-old client is admitted with fluid volume deficit & urinary tract infection. After a rapid IV
infusion of 750mL NS, the client begins to cough and asks for the head of the bed to be elevated to ease
breathing. The nurse assesses the jugular vein distention (JVD) and increased respiratory rate. What
should the nurse suspect is happening to this client?
Fluid volume deficit is worsening

Ascites is causing respiratory compromise
O Hypotonic water intoxication is beginning
O Hypervolemia is developing
Question 491 pts
Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect to see when a client is admitted with diarrhea
that has lasted for four days?
O pH 7.30, PaCO2 40 mmHg. HCO3- 18 mEq/L
O pH 7.40. PaCO2 38 mmHg. HCO3- 28 mEq/L

Question 501 pts
The nurse is helping a client who was recently placed on a low-sodium diet to choose foods for lunch.
Which lunch menu would be best for this client?
O Bologna spaghetti, canned fruit cocktail, salad & a soda
Ham sandwich, canned bean soup, fresh fruit salad and a diet soda
Grilled chicken sandwich on white bread and an apple iced tea
O Fast food cheese burger, grapes & fresh pineapple juice
Question 531 pts
The client asks the nurse to explain the role of phosphorus in the body. The nurse's best response would
be which of the following?
O Phosphorus is the end product of metabolism of 2,3-DGP
Phosphorus is essential for muscle function
Phosphorus is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not fats or proteins
O Cell membranes contain large amounts of phosphorus combined with calcium.
Question 541 pts

Don Juan is an 85 year old patient with a feeding tube and has been experiencing severe watery stool. The
patient is lethargic and has poor skin turgor, a pulse of 120 beats per minute and hypoactive reflexes.
Nursing intervention for this patient would include:
Measuring and recording intake and output and daily weight
O Administer sedatives as ordered
Applying wrist restraints to avoid displacement of the feeding tube Administering salt tablets &
monitoring hypertonic parenteral solution
Question 551 pts
A client took 8 ounces of cranberry juice, 6 ounces of tea and 6 ounces of milk. What is the calculated
intake of the client?
O 400 mL
O 500 ml O 600 mL
O 700 mL
Question 561 pts
A 17-year-old client who sustained a head injury in a motorcycle collision two days ago is responsive
only to pain. Which intravenous fluid order would the nurse question because it could increase the risk of
complication?
O Lactated Ringer's solution
O 5% dextrose in water
O Normal saline O Ringer's solution
Question 57
1 pts
The client is on low sodium diet. Which of the following foods may be allowed in the client's diet?
O Celery
O Carrots
O Orange juice
O Tomato juice
Question 601 pts
A nurse administers IV solution of 0.9% sodium chloride. This solution is:
O Hypotonic
O Hypertonic
O Isometric
O Isotonic
A client with dry skin and mucous membranes is weak, has orthostatic blood pressure changes and has
decreased urine output. The client’s serum osmolality, however, is normal. Which of the following IV
fluids would the nurse anticipate being prescribe for this client?
5% Dextrose in water
½ normal saline
10% dextrose in water
Plain normal saline
A 68-year-oldd client is admitted pneumonia secondary to Covid-19. ABG results ph 7.46, PaCO2 30,
HCO3 19, SaO2 at 72%. The nurse will interpret this as:
Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated
Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated
Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated
A client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
A client whose blood gases indicate metabolic acidosis
A client with acute renal failure
Which of the following activities would be least acceptable for a client diagnosed with hypochloremia?
Decrease bananas and eat more citrus fruits
Use of iodized salt

Decrease salt in the diet
Use soy sauce sparingly in the diet
The client’s serum potassium is 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following medications does the nurse prepare
to administer?
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium sulfate
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarbonate
The nurse would assess for which of the following classic manifestations in a client suspected of having
hypermagnesemia?
Diarrhea
Diminished deep tendon reflexes
Hyperreflexia
Hypertension
The client who is very anxious and its experiencing deep, rapid respiration is admitted in the emergency
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
patient with hypernatremia?
Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Thirst
Muscle weakness
The nurse is monitoring IV fluid therapy for a client with hyponatremia. The nurse knows that which of
the following types of solutions exerts the same osmotic pressure as the fluid on the other side of the
cell membrane and thus maintains equilibrium and minimizes fluid shifts?
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hyperosmolar
A client has developed weakness, lethargy and fatigue due to a chloride imbalance. Which of the
following statements to the client by the nurse is most accurate?
Your symptoms are permanent but you can learn to live with them
Your symptoms will disappear after your chloride level decreases to normal
Your will need to increase your salt intake in order to eliminate your symptoms
If you increase your exercise routine, your chloride level will return to normal
The nurse suspect hypokalemia is present when the client experiences which of the following signs and
symptoms:
Abdominal cramps, diarrhea, dysrhythmias
Sunken eyeballs, deep, rapid respiration excessive thirst
Apathy, weakness, abdominal distention
Edema distended neck vein, bounding pulse
The physician ordered to discontinue TPN. Which of the following IV fluids does the nurse administer for
12 to 24 fours after TPN therapy is discounted?
Nacl 0.9
D5W
D5LR
D10W
Bologna spaghetti, canned fruit cocktail, salad & a soda
Fat food cheese burger, grapes & fresh pineapple juice
What action can the nurse take initially when a client becomes anxious and starts to hyperventilate?
Give the client a sedative to decrease anxiety and stop hyperventilation
Tell the client to stop breathing so fast because he may pass out
Give the client a paper bag to breathe into
the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which of the following is the
appropriate nursing intervention?
1.continue to suction
2.notify the physician immediately
3.stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client
4.ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds
Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds
Continue to suction
Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client
A 57-year-old client is admitted with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. ABG result are pH
The client’s serum potassium levels is 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the interventions following interventions is
appropriate for the client?
Exchange resin kayexalate
TPN administration
Vitamin D
Aluminum hydroxide
The client is on low sodium diet. Which of the following foods may be allowed in the client’s diet?
Tomato juice
Celery
Carrots
Orange juice
A 58-year-old client was brought to the hospital following a near drowning experience in the Atlantic
Ocean. In providing care to this client, the nurse knows that its is important to monitor for:
Hypocalcemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
The physician orders a a high phosphorus diet for the client with hypophosphatemia. You would expect
to see which of the following dietary items on the meal tray?
Noncarbonated soft drinks
Fresh fruits
White bread
Dairy products
The percentage of water in an infant is:
20%
60%
40%
80%
The results of a client’s laboratory tests show an elevated ionized calcium and parathyroid hormone
(PTH). The nurse suspects that the cause is:
A malignancy
Vitamin d deficiency
Hypoparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
400 ml
500 ml
600 ml
700 ml

A client just diagnosed with cirrhosis
A client with intestinal and nasogastric suctioning
A client who has had diarrhea for the last four days
A client with chronic failure
The client asks the nurse to explain the role of phosphorus in the body. The nurse’s best response would
Phosphorus is the end product of metabolism of 2,3-DGP
Cell membranes contain large amounts of phosphorus combined with calcium
Phosphorus is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not fats or protein
The nurse assesses a client with uncontrolled Type I diabetes mellitus for which of the following acid-
base imbalances?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Baby James was confined in pediatric ward with the following ABG results: ph=7.24, PaCO2=32 mmHg
and serum HCO3= 19 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base imbalance with corresponding
compensation is associated with baby James ABG results?
Metabolic alkalosis fully compensated
Metabolic acidosis partially compensated
Respiratory acidosis uncompensated
Metabolic acidosis uncompensated
The client is admitted with chronic renal failure. The nurse concludes that this client may also be hypo-
calcemic because:
The serum creatinine will be low renal colic is resent
Diseased kidneys are unable to produce calcitriol
There is decrease renal excretion of calcium
examination reveals a dry, swollen tongue, body temperature of 99.8’F and urine specific gravity of
1030. The nurse knows that the serum sodium value for this client is most likely to be which of the
following?
135 mEq/L
125 mEq/L
115 mEq/L
155 mEq/L
Which if the following serum potassium levels would most likely be seen a client in the Emergency
Department with a three-day history of diarrhea?
4.1 mEq/L
6.2 mEq/L
3.0 mEq/L
3.6 mEq/L
1.The body’s compensation of metabolic alkalosis involves: Group of answer choices

Decreasing the respiratory rate
Decreasing urine output
Increasing urine output
Increasing the respiratory rate
2. Joshua is receiving furosemide and digoxin, which laboratory data would be the most
important to assess in planning the care for the client? Group of answer
Sodium level
Potassium level
Magnesium level
Calcium level
3.Genevieve is diagnosed with hypomagnesemia, which nursing intervention would
appropriate? Group of answer choices
Instituting seizure precaution to prevent injury
Teaching the client on the importance of early ambulation
Instructing the client on the importance of preventing infection
Avoiding the use of tight tourniquet when drawing blood
4.Nursing intervention for a patient with hyponatremia include_________. (Select all that
applies)
Group of answer choice
Encouraging water intake
Restricting fluid intake
Administering hypotonic IV fluids
Restricting sodium intake
Administer loop diuretic
5.John Reid is admitted in the hospital an is currently receiving hypertonic fluids. Nursing
management for the client includes monitoring for all of the following potential
complication except: Group of answer choices
Cellular dehydration
Fluid volume excess (FVE)
Cell shrinkage
Water intoxication
6.Mang Teban has history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has the following
arterial blood gas result: partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), 55 mm Hg, and partial pressure
of carbon dioxide (PC02), 60 mm Hg. When attempting to improve the client’s blood gas
values through improved ventilation and oxygen therapy, which is the client’s primary
stimulus for breathing? Group of answer choices
High PCO2
Low PO2
Normal pH
Normal bicarbonate (HCO3)ft
7.Mr. Salcedo has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH of 7.34 partial
pressure of arterial oxygen of 80 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 49
mm Hg, and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L. Based on these results, which intervention
should the nurse implement? Group of answer choices
Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
Nothing, because these ABG values are within normal limits
Instructing the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag
Administering low-flow oxygen
8.Which client situation requires the nurse to discuss the importance of avoiding foods high
in potassium? Group of answer choices
16-year-old John Joseph with ileostomy
18-year-old Albert who has renal disease
16-year-old Gabriel with metabolic acidosis
14-year-old Elena who is taking diuretic
9. Jonas is admitted with 1,000 ml o diarrhea per day for the last 3 days. An IV of 0.45%
NaCl mixed with 5% dextrose is infusing. Which of the following nursing interventions is
the most appropriate? Group of answer choices
Mix all antibiotics is 0.45% NaCl with 5% dextrose
Get an infusion controller from central supply
Assess the patient for signs of hyperkalemia
Check the patient’s potassium level and contact the doctor for IV additive orders.
10.Which clinical manifestation would lead the nurse to suspect that a client is experiencing
hypermagnesemia? Group of answer choices
Increased respiratory rate depth
Hot, flushed skin and diaphoresis
Muscle pain and acute rhabdomyolysis
Soft-tissue calcification and hyperreflexia
11. Lee Angela’s lab test just revealed that her chloride level is 96 mEq/L. As a nurse, you
would interpret this serum chloride level as: Group of answer choices
Low
Within normal range
High normal high
12. Mrs. Waltraud is receiving digoxin and Lasix daily. Today, she complains of nausea,
and her apical pulse is 130 and irregular. Which of the following nursing intervention is the
most appropriate? Group of answer choices
Identify the patient as high risk for hyperkalemia
Hold the digoxin and check the patient’s tray.
Assess the patient for other signs of hypernatremia
13.Marie Joy’s lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment
data does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a
carpopedal spasm after the blood-pressure cuff is inflated? Group of answer choices
Positive trousseau’s sign
Positive chvostek’s sign
Tetany
Paresthesia
14. Which of the following statements provides the rationale for using a hypotonic solution
for a patient with FVD? Group of answer choices
A hypotonic solution supplies an excess of sodium and chloride ions
Excessive volumes are recommended in the early postoperative period
A hypotonic solution provides free water to help kidneys eliminate the solute
A hypotonic solution is used to treat hyponatremia
15. When assessing a patient’s total body water percentage, the nurse is aware that which
of the following factors influence this? Select all that applies. Group of answer choices
Age
Height & weight
Muscle mass
Gender
Fat tissue
16. A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the health
care provider to order? Group of answer choices
Serum sodium level
sodium bicarbonate
Potassium
Bronchodilator
17. Mary Jean, a first year nursing student, was rushed to the clinic department due to
hyperventilation. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate for the client who is
subsequently developing respiratory alkalosis? Group of answer choices
Encouraging slow, deep breaths
Administer low-flow oxygen therapy
Administering sodium chloride I.V.
Preparing to administer sodium bicarbonate

18. Mr. Wenceslao is scheduled to receive an isotonic solution; which one of the following is
an example of such solution? Group of answer choices
3% normal saline W
D10% W
0.9% saline
0.45% saline
19. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values indicates uncompensated
metabolic alkalosis?
pH 7.48, PaCO2 46, HCO3 30
pH 7.48, PaC02 34, HC03 20
pH 7.48, PaC02 34, HC03 26
pH 7.48, PaC02 42, HC03 30
Sure
Di sure
Lee Angela's lab test just revealed that her chloride level is 96 mEq/L. As a nurse. you
would interpret this serum chloride level as
-High
-Low
-High normal
-Within normal range
Mang Teban has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has the
following arterial blood gas results: Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), 55 mm hg, and
partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), 60 mmHg. When attempting to improve the
client's blood gas values through improved ventilation and oxygen therapy, which is the
client's primary stimulus for breathing?
-High PCO2
-Low PCO2 (nclex)
-Normal pH
-Normal bicarbonate (HCO2)
Mrs. Waltraid is receiving digoxin and Lasix daily. Today, she complains of nausea and her
apical pulse is 130 and irregular. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most
appropriate?
-Identify the patient as high risk for hyperkalemia

-Hold the digoxin and check the patient's potassium level (practice test)
-Remove the orange juice from the patient's tray
-Assess the patient for other signs and hypernatremia
Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate for a patient with hypocalcemia?
- High risk for injury confusion (Quizlet)

-Airway clearance, ineffective
-Constipation, bowel
-High risk for injury bleeding
When assessing a patient for metabolic alkalosis, the nurse would expect to find
-Low serum potassium (quizlet)

-Increased CVP
-Changes in urine output
-Hypotension
A patient with tented skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urinary output is
under nurse Mark's care. Which nursing intervention should be included in the care plan
for Mark for his patient?
-Administering I.V. and oral fluids (nclex)

-Assessing color, odor, and amount of sputum
-Clustering necessary activities throughout the day
-Monitoring serum albumin and total protein levels
Nursing interventions for a patient with hyponatremia include (Select all that applies)
-Restricting sodium intake

-Administering hypotonic IV fluids
-Administer loop diuretics
-Encouraging water intake
-Restricting fluid intake
When assessing the patient's total body water percentage, the nurse is aware that
which of the following factors influence this? Select all that applies.
-Fat tissue
-Age
-Muscle mass
-Gender
-Height & weight
ANSWER: NCLEX - all except gender
Orly Khan is suffering from fluid volume deficit (FVD), which of the following symptoms
would the nurse expect to assess in the patient? Select all that applies.
-Bulging neck veins.

-Rales
-Tachycardia (Nurseslabs)
-Bounding pulse
When chloride concentration drops below 95 mEq/L, reabsorption of which of the

following electrolytes increases proportionally?
-Sodium
-Hydrogen
-Potassium
-Bicarbonate (quizlet)
Lab tests revealed that patient Z's (NA+) is 170 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation would
nurse Natty expect to assess?
-Tented skin turgor and thirst (nclex)

-Muscle weakness and paresthesia-
-Muscle twitching and tetany
-Fruity breath and Kussmaul's respirations
Mr. Wenceslao is scheduled to receive an isotonic solution; which one of the following is an
example of such solution?
-0.45% saline
-3% normal saline W
-D10% W
-0.9% saline (Nurseslabs)
Nurse John Joseph is totaling the intake and output for Elena Reyes, a client diagnosed
with septicemia who is on a clear liquid diet. The client intakes 8 oz of apple juice, 850 ml
of water, 2 cups of beef broth, and 90 ml of half-normal saline and outputs 1,500 ml of
urine during the shift. How many milliliters should the nurse document as the client's
intake?
-2,740
-2,230
-2,320
-2,470 (Nurseslabs)
Jon has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which medication would nurse Wilma anticipate?
-Calcium gluconate
-Sodium tablets
-Kayexalate (Nurseslabs)
-Potassium supplements
The body's compensation of metabolic alkalosis involves:
-Increasing urine output

-Decreasing urine output
-Decreasing the respiratory rate
-Increasing the respiratory rate
New:
A client with a very dry mouth, skin, and mucous membranes is diagnosed of having
dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client
diagnosed with fluid volume deficit?
-Monitoring arterial blood gas (ABG) results

-Maintaining IV therapy at the keep-vein-open rate
-Assessing urinary intake and output (nclex)
-Obtaining the client's weight weekly at different times of the day
When assessing a patient for a metabolic alkalosis, the nurse would expect to find:

-Hypotension
-Increased CVP
Jonas is admitted with 1.000 ml of diarrhea per day for the last 3 days. An IV of 0.5%
NaCl mixed 5% dextrose is infusing. Which of the following nursing interventions is the
most appropriate?
-Mix all antibiotics in 0.45% NaCl with 5% dextrose

-Get an infusion controller from central supply
-Assess the patient for signs of hyperkalemia
-Check the patient's potassium level and contact the doctor for IV additive orders
(Nurseslabs)
Mr. Salcedo has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH of 7.34, partial pressure
of arterial oxygen of 80 mmHg, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 49 mmHg,
and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L. Based on these results, which intervention should the
nurse implement?
-Instructuring the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag

-Nothing, because these ABG values are within normal limits
-Encourage the client to cough and deep breath (medsurg book)
Khaleesi is admitted in the hospital due to having lower than normal potassium level in her
bloodstream. Her medical history reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to hospitalization.
Which fools should the nurse instruct the client to increase?
-Pork products and canned vegetables

-Orange juice and bananas
-Whole grains and nuts
-Milk products and green, leafy vegetables
A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the health care
provider to order?
-Bronchodilator
-Sodium bicarbonate
-Potassium
-Serum sodium level
Marie Joy's lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment data
does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a carpopedal
spasm after the blood-pressure cuff is inflated?
-Positive Trousseau's sign (quizlet)

-Tetany
-Paresthesia
-Positive Chvostek's sign
Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for
determining the concentration of the extracellular fluid?
Sodium
Lisa. a client with altered urinary function. is under the care of nurse Tine. Which
intervention is appropriate to include when developing a plan of care for Lisa who is
experiencing urinary dribbling?
Keeping the skin clean and dry
What intravenous fluids should be given immediately? And why?

Case Scenario
A 23-year-old client is admitted to the Emergency Department with multiple fractures of
the legs and pelvis. BP is 86/40, heart rate is 120, RR is 30, skin is cool and pale; and
peripheral pulses are weak and thready.
It’s a hypertonic solution since there’s a hypovolemia and there’s a signs and symptoms of
hypotension, weak & thready pulse and I think the best IV fluid to administer to the client is
Lactated Ringers
Question Interpret the ABG results and explain the acid base imbalance that occurred to
this patient. Case scenario A 68-year-old client admitted with pneumonia secondary to
COVID-19 has the following ABG results:
pH = 7.46
PaCO2 = 30
HCO4 = 19
SaO2= 72
Respiratory alkalosis partially compensated with hypoxemia
The pH value is above normal which is Alkalosis. The partial carbon indicates blow the normal
values which is alkalosis, then the acid base balance is respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate is
indicating below normal which is acidosis, then the oxygen saturation is indicating that the
patient is hypoxemia.
A 61 year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is brought into clinic by his family
who are concerned that he is more somnolent than normal. On further history, they report
that he has been having problems with morning headaches and does not feel very refreshed
when he wakes up. An arterial blood gas is performed and reveals: pH 7.37, PCO2 57, PO2
70, HCO3 32. What is the patient's Acid-base status? Explanation for the clinical picture:
Respiratory Acidosis and Metabolic Alkalosis fully compensated with mild hypoxemia
The patient has a respiratory acidosis with a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. The respiratory
acidosis tells us that the patient is hypoventilating while the compensatory metabolic alkalosis
tells us that this is a chronic process. The patient is likely hypoventilating due to progression of
his amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a neurodegenerative disorder associated with progressive
muscle weakness that eventually involves the muscles of respiration.
Merlyn chan
The fluid imbalance is hyperosmolar in balance because of the increase in body temperature and
manifest signs of dehydration. The electrolyte imbalance are hypernatremia hyperchloremia and
hypokalemia. The acid-base imbalance is metabolic alkalosis and compensated because of the
low potassium
Dennis
hyperkalemia is caused by dehydration and then need ng 0.45% solution to replace the fluids and
keep the patient hydrated.
A 45 year-old woman with a history of inhalant abuse presents to the emergency room
complaining of dyspnea. She has an SpO2 of 99% on room air and is obviously tachypneic
on exam with what appears to be Kussmaul’s respirations. A room air arterial blood gas is
performed and reveals: pH 6.95, PCO2 9, PO2 128, HCO3- 2
metabolic acidosis partially compensated
The patient has a very low pH (acidemia)

The patient has a low PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) and a very low bicarbonate (metabolic
acidosis). The low pH in conjunction with the low bicarbonate tells us that the metabolic acidosis
is the primary process
Which of the following client admitted to the hospital would be at risk for developing
hypokalemia
A client with adult respiratory distress syndrome

A client Who had develop metabolic alkalosis
Which of the following activities would be least acceptable for a client diagnosed with
hypochloremia
Decrease bananas and it more citrus fruits
Use of iodized salt
Decreased salt in the diet
The client serum potassium is 6.0 meq/L. Which of the following medication does the nurse
prepare to administer
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium sulfate
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarbonate
The nurse would assess for which of the following classic manifestation in a client suspected
of having hypermagnesemia
Diarrhea
Hyperreflexia
Hypertension
The client who is very anxious and experiencing deep rapid respiration is admitted to the
emergency department which of the following acid base imbalance may occur
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse assess for when developing a plan
of care for a client with hypernatremia
Serum sodium level of 140 meq/L
Moist mucus membrane
Thirst
Muscle weakness
The nurse is monitoring iv fluid therapy for a client with hyponatremia the nurse knows
that which of the following types of solutions exerts the same osmotic pressure as the fluid
on the other side of the cell membrane and thus maintain equilibrium and minimize fluid
shift?
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hyperosmolar
A client has developed weakness lethargy and fatigue due to a chloride imbalance which of
the following statements to the client by the nurse is most accurate?
Your symptoms will disappear after your chloride level decreases tuner
You will need to increase salt intake in order to eliminate your symptoms
You increase your exercise routine your chloride level will return to normal
½ normal saline
Plain normal saline
Use of iodized salt
to administer?
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium sulfate
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarbonate
hypermagnesemia?
Diarrhea
Hyperreflexia
Hypertension
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Thirst
Muscle weakness
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hyperosmolar
symptoms:
Nacl 0.9
D5W
D5LR
D10W
Continue to suction

TPN administration
Vitamin D
Aluminum hydroxide
Tomato juice
Celery
Carrots
Orange juice
Hypocalcemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
Fresh fruits
White bread
Dairy products
20%
60%
40%
80%
A malignancy
Hypoparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
400 ml
500 ml
600 ml
700 ml
base imbalances?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
calcemic because:
following?
135 mEq/L
125 mEq/L
115 mEq/L
155 mEq/L
4.1 mEq/L
6.2 mEq/L
3.0 mEq/L
3.6 mEq/L
1.The body’s compensation of metabolic alkalosis involves: Group of answer choices

Decreasing the respiratory rate
Decreasing urine output
Increasing urine output
Increasing the respiratory rate
2. Joshua is receiving furosemide and digoxin, which laboratory data would be the most
important to assess in planning the care for the client? Group of answer
Sodium level
Potassium level
Magnesium level
Calcium level
3.Genevieve is diagnosed with hypomagnesemia, which nursing intervention would
appropriate? Group of answer choices
Instituting seizure precaution to prevent injury
Teaching the client on the importance of early ambulation
Avoiding the use of tight tourniquet when drawing blood
4.Nursing intervention for a patient with hyponatremia include_________. (Select all that
applies)
Group of answer choice
Encouraging water intake
Restricting fluid intake
Administering hypotonic IV fluids
Restricting sodium intake
Administer loop diuretic
5.John Reid is admitted in the hospital an is currently receiving hypertonic fluids. Nursing
management for the client includes monitoring for all of the following potential
complication except: Group of answer choices
Cellular dehydration
Fluid volume excess (FVE)
Cell shrinkage
Water intoxication
6.Mang Teban has history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has the following
arterial blood gas result: partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), 55 mm Hg, and partial pressure
of carbon dioxide (PC02), 60 mm Hg. When attempting to improve the client’s blood gas
values through improved ventilation and oxygen therapy, which is the client’s primary
stimulus for breathing? Group of answer choices
High PCO2
Low PO2
Normal pH
Normal bicarbonate (HCO3)ft
7.Mr. Salcedo has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH of 7.34 partial
pressure of arterial oxygen of 80 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 49
mm Hg, and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L. Based on these results, which intervention
should the nurse implement? Group of answer choices
Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
Nothing, because these ABG values are within normal limits
Instructing the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag
Administering low-flow oxygen
8.Which client situation requires the nurse to discuss the importance of avoiding foods high
in potassium? Group of answer choices
16-year-old John Joseph with ileostomy
18-year-old Albert who has renal disease

16-year-old Gabriel with metabolic acidosis
14-year-old Elena who is taking diuretic
9. Jonas is admitted with 1,000 ml o diarrhea per day for the last 3 days. An IV of 0.45%
NaCl mixed with 5% dextrose is infusing. Which of the following nursing interventions is
the most appropriate? Group of answer choices
Mix all antibiotics is 0.45% NaCl with 5% dextrose
Get an infusion controller from central supply
Assess the patient for signs of hyperkalemia
Check the patient’s potassium level and contact the doctor for IV additive orders.
10.Which clinical manifestation would lead the nurse to suspect that a client is experiencing
hypermagnesemia? Group of answer choices
Increased respiratory rate depth
Hot, flushed skin and diaphoresis
Muscle pain and acute rhabdomyolysis
Soft-tissue calcification and hyperreflexia
11. Lee Angela’s lab test just revealed that her chloride level is 96 mEq/L. As a nurse, you
would interpret this serum chloride level as: Group of answer choices
Low
Within normal range
High normal high
12. Mrs. Waltraud is receiving digoxin and Lasix daily. Today, she complains of nausea,
and her apical pulse is 130 and irregular. Which of the following nursing intervention is the
most appropriate? Group of answer choices
Identify the patient as high risk for hyperkalemia
Hold the digoxin and check the patient’s tray.
Assess the patient for other signs of hypernatremia
13.Marie Joy’s lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment
data does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a
carpopedal spasm after the blood-pressure cuff is inflated? Group of answer choices
Positive trousseau’s sign
Positive chvostek’s sign
Tetany
Paresthesia
14. Which of the following statements provides the rationale for using a hypotonic solution
for a patient with FVD? Group of answer choices
A hypotonic solution supplies an excess of sodium and chloride ions
Excessive volumes are recommended in the early postoperative period
A hypotonic solution provides free water to help kidneys eliminate the solute
A hypotonic solution is used to treat hyponatremia
15. When assessing a patient’s total body water percentage, the nurse is aware that which
of the following factors influence this? Select all that applies. Group of answer choices
Age
Height & weight

Muscle mass
Gender
Fat tissue
16. A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the health
care provider to order? Group of answer choices
Serum sodium level
sodium bicarbonate
Potassium
Bronchodilator
17. Mary Jean, a first year nursing student, was rushed to the clinic department due to
hyperventilation. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate for the client who is
subsequently developing respiratory alkalosis? Group of answer choices
Encouraging slow, deep breaths
Administer low-flow oxygen therapy
Administering sodium chloride I.V.
Preparing to administer sodium bicarbonate
18. Mr. Wenceslao is scheduled to receive an isotonic solution; which one of the following is
an example of such solution? Group of answer choices
3% normal saline W
D10% W
0.9% saline
0.45% saline
19. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values indicates uncompensated
metabolic alkalosis?
pH 7.48, PaCO2 46, HCO3 30
pH 7.48, PaC02 34, HC03 20
pH 7.48, PaC02 34, HC03 26
pH 7.48, PaC02 42, HC03 30
Sure
Di sure
Lee Angela's lab test just revealed that her chloride level is 96 mEq/L. As a nurse. you
would interpret this serum chloride level as
-High
-Low
-High normal
-Within normal range
Mang Teban has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and has the
following arterial blood gas results: Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), 55 mm hg, and
partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), 60 mmHg. When attempting to improve the
client's blood gas values through improved ventilation and oxygen therapy, which is the
client's primary stimulus for breathing?
-High PCO2
-Low PCO2 (nclex)
-Normal pH
-Normal bicarbonate (HCO2)
Mrs. Waltraid is receiving digoxin and Lasix daily. Today, she complains of nausea and her
apical pulse is 130 and irregular. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most
appropriate?
-Identify the patient as high risk for hyperkalemia

-Hold the digoxin and check the patient's potassium level (practice test)
-Remove the orange juice from the patient's tray
-Assess the patient for other signs and hypernatremia
Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate for a patient with hypocalcemia?
- High risk for injury confusion (Quizlet)

-Airway clearance, ineffective
-Constipation, bowel
-High risk for injury bleeding
When assessing a patient for metabolic alkalosis, the nurse would expect to find

-Increased CVP
-Hypotension
A patient with tented skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urinary output is
under nurse Mark's care. Which nursing intervention should be included in the care plan
for Mark for his patient?
-Administering I.V. and oral fluids (nclex)

-Assessing color, odor, and amount of sputum
-Clustering necessary activities throughout the day
-Monitoring serum albumin and total protein levels
Nursing interventions for a patient with hyponatremia include (Select all that applies)
-Restricting sodium intake

-Administering hypotonic IV fluids
-Administer loop diuretics
-Encouraging water intake
-Restricting fluid intake
When assessing the patient's total body water percentage, the nurse is aware that
which of the following factors influence this? Select all that applies.
-Fat tissue
-Age
-Muscle mass
-Gender
-Height & weight
ANSWER: NCLEX - all except gender
Orly Khan is suffering from fluid volume deficit (FVD), which of the following symptoms
would the nurse expect to assess in the patient? Select all that applies.
-Bulging neck veins.

-Rales
-Tachycardia (Nurseslabs)
-Bounding pulse
When chloride concentration drops below 95 mEq/L, reabsorption of which of the

following electrolytes increases proportionally?
-Sodium
-Hydrogen
-Potassium
-Bicarbonate (quizlet)
Lab tests revealed that patient Z's (NA+) is 170 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation would
nurse Natty expect to assess?
-Tented skin turgor and thirst (nclex)

-Muscle weakness and paresthesia-
-Muscle twitching and tetany
-Fruity breath and Kussmaul's respirations
Mr. Wenceslao is scheduled to receive an isotonic solution; which one of the following is an
example of such solution?
-0.45% saline
-3% normal saline W
-D10% W
-0.9% saline (Nurseslabs)
Nurse John Joseph is totaling the intake and output for Elena Reyes, a client diagnosed
with septicemia who is on a clear liquid diet. The client intakes 8 oz of apple juice, 850 ml
of water, 2 cups of beef broth, and 90 ml of half-normal saline and outputs 1,500 ml of
urine during the shift. How many milliliters should the nurse document as the client's
intake?
-2,740
-2,230
-2,320
-2,470 (Nurseslabs)
Jon has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which medication would nurse Wilma anticipate?
-Calcium gluconate
-Sodium tablets
-Kayexalate (Nurseslabs)
-Potassium supplements
The body's compensation of metabolic alkalosis involves:
-Increasing urine output

-Decreasing urine output
-Decreasing the respiratory rate
-Increasing the respiratory rate
New:
A client with a very dry mouth, skin, and mucous membranes is diagnosed of having
dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client
diagnosed with fluid volume deficit?
-Monitoring arterial blood gas (ABG) results

-Maintaining IV therapy at the keep-vein-open rate
-Assessing urinary intake and output (nclex)
-Obtaining the client's weight weekly at different times of the day
When assessing a patient for a metabolic alkalosis, the nurse would expect to find:

-Hypotension
-Increased CVP
Jonas is admitted with 1.000 ml of diarrhea per day for the last 3 days. An IV of 0.5%
NaCl mixed 5% dextrose is infusing. Which of the following nursing interventions is the
most appropriate?
-Mix all antibiotics in 0.45% NaCl with 5% dextrose

-Get an infusion controller from central supply
-Assess the patient for signs of hyperkalemia
-Check the patient's potassium level and contact the doctor for IV additive orders
(Nurseslabs)
Mr. Salcedo has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH of 7.34, partial pressure
of arterial oxygen of 80 mmHg, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 49 mmHg,
and a bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L. Based on these results, which intervention should the
nurse implement?
-Instructuring the client to breathe slowly into a paper bag

-Nothing, because these ABG values are within normal limits
-Encourage the client to cough and deep breath (medsurg book)
Khaleesi is admitted in the hospital due to having lower than normal potassium level in her
bloodstream. Her medical history reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to hospitalization.
Which fools should the nurse instruct the client to increase?
-Pork products and canned vegetables

-Whole grains and nuts
-Milk products and green, leafy vegetables
A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the health care
provider to order?
-Bronchodilator
-Sodium bicarbonate
-Potassium
-Serum sodium level
Marie Joy's lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. Which assessment data
does the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a carpopedal
spasm after the blood-pressure cuff is inflated?
-Positive Trousseau's sign (quizlet)

-Tetany
-Paresthesia
-Positive Chvostek's sign
Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for
determining the concentration of the extracellular fluid?
Sodium
Lisa. a client with altered urinary function. is under the care of nurse Tine. Which
intervention is appropriate to include when developing a plan of care for Lisa who is
experiencing urinary dribbling?
Keeping the skin clean and dry
What intravenous fluids should be given immediately? And why?

Case Scenario
A 23-year-old client is admitted to the Emergency Department with multiple fractures of
the legs and pelvis. BP is 86/40, heart rate is 120, RR is 30, skin is cool and pale; and
peripheral pulses are weak and thready.
It’s a hypertonic solution since there’s a hypovolemia and there’s a signs and symptoms of
hypotension, weak & thready pulse and I think the best IV fluid to administer to the client is
Lactated Ringers
Question Interpret the ABG results and explain the acid base imbalance that occurred to
this patient. Case scenario A 68-year-old client admitted with pneumonia secondary to
COVID-19 has the following ABG results:
pH = 7.46
PaCO2 = 30
HCO4 = 19
SaO2= 72
Respiratory alkalosis partially compensated with hypoxemia
The pH value is above normal which is Alkalosis. The partial carbon indicates blow the normal
values which is alkalosis, then the acid base balance is respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate is
indicating below normal which is acidosis, then the oxygen saturation is indicating that the
patient is hypoxemia.
A 61 year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is brought into clinic by his family
who are concerned that he is more somnolent than normal. On further history, they report
that he has been having problems with morning headaches and does not feel very refreshed
when he wakes up. An arterial blood gas is performed and reveals: pH 7.37, PCO2 57, PO2
70, HCO3 32. What is the patient's Acid-base status? Explanation for the clinical picture:
Respiratory Acidosis and Metabolic Alkalosis fully compensated with mild hypoxemia
The patient has a respiratory acidosis with a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. The respiratory
acidosis tells us that the patient is hypoventilating while the compensatory metabolic alkalosis
tells us that this is a chronic process. The patient is likely hypoventilating due to progression of
his amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a neurodegenerative disorder associated with progressive
muscle weakness that eventually involves the muscles of respiration.
Merlyn chan
The fluid imbalance is hyperosmolar in balance because of the increase in body temperature and
manifest signs of dehydration. The electrolyte imbalance are hypernatremia hyperchloremia and
hypokalemia. The acid-base imbalance is metabolic alkalosis and compensated because of the
low potassium
Dennis
hyperkalemia is caused by dehydration and then need ng 0.45% solution to replace the fluids and
keep the patient hydrated.
A 45 year-old woman with a history of inhalant abuse presents to the emergency room
complaining of dyspnea. She has an SpO2 of 99% on room air and is obviously tachypneic
on exam with what appears to be Kussmaul’s respirations. A room air arterial blood gas is
performed and reveals: pH 6.95, PCO2 9, PO2 128, HCO3- 2
metabolic acidosis partially compensated
The patient has a very low pH (acidemia)

The patient has a low PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) and a very low bicarbonate (metabolic
acidosis). The low pH in conjunction with the low bicarbonate tells us that the metabolic acidosis
is the primary process
Which of the following client admitted to the hospital would be at risk for developing
hypokalemia
A client with adult respiratory distress syndrome

A client Who had develop metabolic alkalosis
Which of the following activities would be least acceptable for a client diagnosed with
hypochloremia
Decrease bananas and it more citrus fruits
Use of iodized salt
Decreased salt in the diet
The client serum potassium is 6.0 meq/L. Which of the following medication does the nurse
prepare to administer
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium sulfate
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarbonate
The nurse would assess for which of the following classic manifestation in a client suspected
of having hypermagnesemia
Diarrhea
Hyperreflexia
Hypertension
The client who is very anxious and experiencing deep rapid respiration is admitted to the
emergency department which of the following acid base imbalance may occur
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse assess for when developing a plan
of care for a client with hypernatremia
Serum sodium level of 140 meq/L
Moist mucus membrane
Thirst
Muscle weakness
The nurse is monitoring iv fluid therapy for a client with hyponatremia the nurse knows
that which of the following types of solutions exerts the same osmotic pressure as the fluid
on the other side of the cell membrane and thus maintain equilibrium and minimize fluid
shift?
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hyperosmolar
A client has developed weakness lethargy and fatigue due to a chloride imbalance which of
the following statements to the client by the nurse is most accurate?
Your symptoms will disappear after your chloride level decreases tuner
You will need to increase salt intake in order to eliminate your symptoms
You increase your exercise routine your chloride level will return to normal
½ normal saline
Plain normal saline
Use of iodized salt
to administer?
Aluminum hydroxide
Magnesium sulfate
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarbonate
hypermagnesemia?
Diarrhea
Hyperreflexia
Hypertension
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Thirst
Muscle weakness
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hyperosmolar
symptoms:
Nacl 0.9
D5W
D5LR
D10W

Continue to suction
TPN administration
Vitamin D
Aluminum hydroxide
Tomato juice
Celery
Carrots
Orange juice
Hypocalcemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
Fresh fruits
White bread
Dairy products
20%
60%
40%
80%
A malignancy
Hypoparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
400 ml
500 ml
600 ml
700 ml
base imbalances?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
calcemic because:
following?
135 mEq/L
125 mEq/L
115 mEq/L
155 mEq/L
4.1 mEq/L
6.2 mEq/L
3.0 mEq/L
3.6 mEq/L
Module 5.4 Formative Assessment
Due Oct 9 at 11:45am Points 10 Questions 10
Available after Oct 9 at 11:15am Time Limit 15 Minutes
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 12 minutes 10 out of 10
 Correct answers are

hidden. Score for this
quiz: 10 out of 10
Submitted Oct 9 at
11:42am
This attempt took 12 minutes.
Question 1 1 / 1 pts
Cedric Evangelista, a 60-year-old Filipino client was mobbed by teen

gangsters near New York, Cubao. He was rushed to Cardinal Medical Center
and was unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions.
In which position should you place Mr. Evangelista?
Side lying
Rationale
Answer: Side lying
Position the unconscious client in a side-lying position facing you. A

side-lying position facilitates drainage of secretions by gravity and
prevents aspiration.
High fowlers
Semi fowlers
Prone
You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Evangelista. Using
portable suction equipment, how much pressure of suction equipment is
needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable
suction units?
15-25 mmHg
5-10 mmHg
2-5 mmHg
10-15 mmHg
Rationale
Answer: 10-15 mmHg
The pressure for portable suction equipment depends on the age of the
patient. For adults (10-15 mmHg); for children (5-10 mmHg)’; and for
infants (2-5 mmHg).
There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should
you use for Mr. Evangelista?
Fr. 18
Rationale
Answer: Fr. 18
Appropriate-sized catheter: infants, 5 to 8 Fr; children, 8 to 10 Fr;

adults, 12 to 18 Fr.
Fr. 5
https://feu.instructure.com/courses/51592/quizzes/360479?module_item_id=1193544 38
Fr. 12
Fr. 10
Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence

during suctioning an unconscious client?
Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning
Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion
The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds
Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from

the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
Rationale:
Answer:
Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by

measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid
process Determine the depth the suction device will be inserted, by
measuring the device against the distance from the corner of the
patient’s mouth to the tip of the earlobe on the same side.
Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?
1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia
3. Cyanosis
4. Pallor
5. Irritability
6. Flaring of Nares
2, 6
2, 5
Rationale:
Answer: 2, 5
Restlessness, irritability and tachycardia are early signs of hypoxia.

Chronic hypoxemia may result in cognitive changes, such as memory
changes.
1, 2
3, 4
Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and

apprehension?
Partial rebreather mask
Non-rebreather mask
Simple Face mask
Nasal Cannula
Rationale:
Answer: Nasal Cannula
Among the methods of oxygenation, nasal cannulas least likely produce

anxiety and apprehension. However, patients with nasal cannulas
sometimes complain of nasal dryness, particularly when receiving
oxygen at high levels. New devices can help with this by adding
moisture and warmth to the delivery process.
Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100%

oxygen at 15 LPM?
Partial re-breather mask
Simple Face mask
Non re-breather mask
Rationale:
Answer: Non re-breather mask
A non-rebreather mask has a reservoir bag that is inflated with pure

oxygen. Between the mask and the bag is another one-way valve that
allows the patient to breathe in the oxygen supplied by the source as
well as oxygen from the reservoir. This provides the patient with an
oxygen concentration of nearly 100%. A piece of tubing, usually
connected to extension tubing, connects the mask to the oxygen source.
Nasal Cannula
Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?
Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
Rationale:
Answer: Excessive oxygen administration results in

respiratory acidosis
Oxygen, in its natural state, is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas.

Oxygen is considered to be the most important of all the elements to
life. Oxygen does not burn, but it does support combustion. Oxygen
may also dry out the nasal mucosa and can irritate the nares.
Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas
Oxygen supports combustion
Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane
Andrew, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient

with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if
Andrew will:
Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen
Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration
Put a non-rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
Rationale:
Answer: Put a non-rebreather mask in the patient

before opening the oxygen source
In using a non-rebreather mask, nurses should connect oxygen flow

meter to an oxygen source first and preset the oxygen flow to 15 liters
per minute and check the system before placing the mask over patient’s
face covering the nose and mouth.
Uses venture mask in oxygen administration
Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?
Client is frequently turning from side to side
Rationale:
Answer: Client is frequently turning from side to side
Restlessness, irritability and tachycardia are early signs of hypoxia.
The client is coughing out blood
Client is tired and dyspneic
The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM
Quiz Score: 10 out of 10
Due No due date Points 5 Questions 5 Time Limit 10 Minutes
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
Score for this quiz: 5 out of 5

Submitted Nov 4 at 7:19pm This
attempt took 10 minutes.
1. For a patient with advance chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

(COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?
Encouraging the patient to drink 3 glasses of water daily
Keeping the patient in semi-fowler’s position
Using a high-flow venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribe

Co
orrrect
ct!
Administering a sedative, as prescribe
https://feu.instructure.com/courses/51592/quizzes/360542?module_item_id=1193548 1/3
2. A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should
the nurse take first?
Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level
Co
orrrect
ct!
3. Nurse Cathy instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of

breathing, and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of
breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-
lip breathing is to:
Promote oxygen intake
Strengthen the diaphragm
Strengthen the intercostal muscles
Co
orrrect
ct!
Promote carbon dioxide elimination
4. An emergency room nurse is assessing a male client who has sustained a

blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of these signs would indicate the
presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
A low respiratory rate
Co
orrrect
ct! Diminished breath sounds
The presence of barrel chest
A sucking sound at the site of injury
5. While changing the tape and dressingon a tracheostomy tube, the male
patient coughs and the tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action is to:
Call the physician to reinsert the tube
Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening

Co
orrrect
ct!
Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheostomy
Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection
Due Oct 2 at 9:50am Points 10 Questions 10

Available after Oct 2 at 9:30am Time Limit 15 Minutes
Instructions
Life Sciences Questions and Answers – Respiratory System
This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Respiratory System”.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
 Correct answers are hidden. Score for
this quiz: 8 out of 10 Submitted Oct 2 at

9:41am
Name the process of gaseous exchange in the body.
Cardiovascular system
Lymphatic system
Respiration
Answer:
Explanation: Respiration is the process of gaseous exchange

in the body while cardiovascular regulates the blood flow
throughout the body.
Respiratory system
Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea, and bronchi are the parts of the
respiratory system.
True
Explanation: Respiratory system consists of all the organs which take

part in the respiration. It includes bronchi, trachea, lungs, nose, larynx,
and pharynx.
False
Which of the following is NOT the function of the respiratory system?
Regulate Blood Ph
Contains receptors for the sense of smell
Helps in gaseous exchange
Protection against blood loss
Explanation: Respiratory system helps in regulation of blood, pH, and

also contain receptors of smell, produces vocal sound and filter inspired
air while cardiovascular system protects against blood loss by the
formation of blood clots.
Which of this statement is TRUE for pulmonary respiration?
Breathing between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs
Exchange of gases between alveoli of lungs and the blood
Explanation: Pulmonary respiration is the exchange of gases

between the alveoli of the lungs and the blood in the capillaries.
Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cell occurs in internal
respiration.
Production of ATP
Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cells
Which of the following controls the normal breathing process?
Cholesterol
Ventral respiratory group
Amino acids
Dorsal respiratory group
Explanation: Ventral respiratory group contains both inspiratory and

expiratory neurons and controlled forced breathing while dorsal
respiratory group contains only inspiratory neurons control normal
breathing.
Oxygen and hemoglobin bind in a reversible manner to form
Carboxyhemoglobin
Methoglobin
Oxyhemoglobin
Explanation: Oxyhemoglobin is formed by the combination of

oxygen and hemoglobin. Oxygen binds to the hemoglobin in a
reversible manner. 98% of oxygen is trapped inside RBC.
BPG
How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50%

saturation?
Explanation: Hemoglobin can bind with maximum 4 oxygen

molecules, so for obtaining 50% saturation only 2 molecules of
oxygen should be bound to hemoglobin.
What is the name of the gland which secrete melatonin?
Hypothalamus
Pineal gland
Explanation: Pineal gland is the smallest endocrine gland attached to

the roof of the brain and secrete melatonin. Melatonin is responsible
for settling of the biological clock.
Thyroid gland
Pituitary gland
In
nco
orrrect
ct Question 9 0 / 1 pts
Gas exchange takes place in the?
larynx
pharynx
No answer text provided.
trachea
alveoli
In
nco
orrrect
ct
The area between the lungs is known as the?
mediastinum
thoracic cage
pleura
hilum
https://feu.instructure.com/courses/51592/quizzes/360474?module_item_id=1193527 10/
12/18/2020 Summative Assessment (Concept Exam): NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
Summative Assessment (Concept Exam)
Due Sep 7 at 11:59pm Points 50 Questions 50

Available Sep 5 at 12pm - Sep 7 at 11:59pm 2 days Time Limit 50 Minutes
Instructions
MULTIPLE CHOICE : Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer.
This quiz was locked Sep 7 at 11:59pm.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
 Correct answers are hidden. Score for
this quiz: 43 out of 50 Submitted Sep 7 at

4:43pm
What is the act of cleaning one’s hands with the use of any liquid with or
without soap for the purpose of removing dirt or microorganisms?
Handwashing
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Handwashing is the act of cleaning one’s hands with the use

of any liquid with or without soap for the purpose of removing
dirt or microorganisms. It is the most effective measure in
reducing the risk of transmitting infectious diseases
It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by

removing or destroying the pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Surgical Asepsis (Sterile technique) is the practice and

procedure that keep an area or object totally free from all
microorganisms.
Asepsis freedom from infection or infectious materials. Aseptic
technique is practice and procedure to prevent contamination from
pathogens
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Part of the Related Learning Experience is exposure in special clinical area

like Operating Room. As a junior nursing student, correct and proper
application of this technique in the Operating Room is vital in order to
provide better and efficient care to surgical patients.
Handwashing
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis or Sterile Technique prevents contamination of

an open wound, serves to isolate the operative area from the
unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for
surgery.
Among other things, this is one of the important responsibilities of a

perioperative nurse.
Flexible and Adaptable
Helps plan, implement and evaluate treatment of the patient.
Helps plan, implement and evaluate treatment of the

patient. Well organized, flexible and adaptable, sensitive and
perceptive are the attributes of perioperative nurse.
Well organized
Sensitive and Perceptive
Part of infection control practices is following the standard precaution

which includes the following except:
Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively non
abrasive.
The standard precautions for infection control practices are

wearing of appropriate PPE, environment cleaning and spills
management, and proper handling of waste and waste
disposal.
Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be
relatively nonabrasive are the guidelines on sterilization and
disinfection.
Environment cleaning and spills management
Proper handling of waste and waste disposal
Wearing of appropriate PPE
The country is currently in the midst of difficult situation. The COVID-19

pandemic brought huge changes in the lives of people. Many sacrifices have
to be endured. Filipino can help in combating this virus thru a simple way of
frequent hand washing. This effective method reduces or eliminates what kind
of pathogens?
Viruses
Bacteria
All the options above
In hand washing we are trying to reduce or eliminate

microorganisms and these include viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
Fungi
Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or

multi celled plants that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the
mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body parts?
Protozoa
Bacteria
Fungi
Bacteria (Bacterium) are single-celled microscopic organisms that

multiply rapidly. Some are beneficial to humans while others can
cause infection. Protozoa are single-celled, microscopic animals,
usually living in water, that can cause disease. Rickettsiae are
found in fleas, lice, ticks and other insects; spread to humans by
insect bites. Person infected may experience fever, chills,
headaches, rashes, etc.
Rickettsiae
Some patients acquired natural diseases prior to admission to health care

facility. And these diseases may either aggravate their health condition or
be the immediate cause of their hospitalization. This acquisition of natural
disease processes is known as?
Cross infection
Community acquired infection
Nosocomial infection is the infections that are acquired as a

result of being in the health care facility environment.
Reinfection
infections that are required as a result of being in the health
care facility environment. Cross infection occurs when one
patient or staff passes the pathogens to another patient, staff
or visitors.
Nosocomial infection
Reinfection
COVID 19 virus can easily be transferred from one person to another. Just by
merely talking directly to person under investigation, one can acquire the
illness. Saliva and other human secretions are good means of transferring this
virus. In the chain of infection, saliva and other human secretions is known
as?
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Mode of transmission
Portal of exit
The reservoir of an infectious agent is the habitat in which the

agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. Reservoirs include
humans, animals, and the environment. The reservoir may or
may not be the source from which an agent is transferred to a
host.
The mode of transmission is the way the pathogen is transmitted
from one reservoir to the new host’s body. The portal of entry is
the site through which micro-organisms enter the susceptible host
and cause disease/infection.
The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for hand washing. The
nurse is correct if she/he answered that hand washing is expected to remove:
media for bacterial growth.
transient flora from the skin
There are two types of normal flora: transient and resident.

Transient flora is normal flora that a person picks up by coming
in contact with objects or another person. You can remove these
with hand washing.
resident flora from the skin.
all microorganisms from the skin.
A client has been diagnosed with disseminated herpes zoster. Which

personal protective equipment (PPE) will the nurse needs to put on when
preparing to assess the client? Select all that apply
Gloves, shoe cover, surgical face mask
Goggles, gloves, surgical mask
Goggles, gown, surgical face mask
Gown, gloves, N95 respirator
Because herpes zoster is spread through airborne means and by

direct contact with the lesions, you should wear an N95
respirator or high-efficiency particulate air filter respirator, a
gown, and
gloves. Goggles and shoe covers are not needed for airborne or
contact precautions. Surgical face mask filters only large
particles and will not provide protection from herpes zoster.
The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral

suctioning on a client who is in contact with airborne precautions.
Which of the following actions will you perform?
Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove
gloves, perform hand hygiene
Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95
respirator, perform hand hygiene
The sequence will prevent contact of the contaminated gloves

and gowns with areas (such as your hair) that cannot be easily
cleaned after client contact and stop transmission
of microorganisms to you and your other clients.
Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the
gown, perform hand hygiene
Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the
In
nco
orrrect
ct
The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an
infected wound in sacral area. Which PPE items will the nurse use?
N95 respirator and goggles
Gloves and gown
Surgical mask and gown
Goggles and gown
Nurse Mulan recalls the history of wearing the proper PPE inside the
Operating Room. The wearing of caps among the Operating Room
personnel started during the period of Gustav Neuber in the year of?
1958
1960
1883
The use of sterile gowns antedated the routine use of caps,

gloves and masks, although in 1883 Gustav Neuber insisted that
team members wear caps also.
1950
While surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes

before the hospital generator could be started. Emergency lights were
malfunctioning. Whose responsibility was it to prepare hand flashlights in the
OR?
scrub nurse
surgeon
assistant surgeon
circulating nurse
Circulating Nurse is in charge of handling unsterile things,

since she is unsterile.
In
nco
orrrect
ct
Caine, 16 year old G1P0 is brought to the Emergency Room in a nearby

public tertiary hospital by her 24 year old live in partner Mar, because of
vaginal bleeding and severe unbearable hypogastric pain. The patient is on it's
34 weeks of gestation and BOW had already ruptured 2 hours ago. Upon
examination of an OB resident, an emergency Cesarean section has to be
perform. Consent for surgery and anesthesia need to be sign prior to
operation. In this case, who will sign the consent?
Mar
Caine
Mar's parents
Caine's parents
In
nco
orrrect
During surgery, the scrub nurse plays a vital role in the success of
operation. As member of the sterile team, one of the major
responsibilities of scrub nurse Heaven is?
Applying sterile surgical drapes to patient
Counting of sponges, sharps and instruments
Handling surgical instruments to surgeon
Putting padded strap to the patient
The most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the OR?
Non surgical team
Instruments
Faulty ventilation system
Surgical team
People remain the major source of microorganisms in the

OR environment. The surgical team is the most common
source of transmission followed by contaminated
instrumentation.
In
nco
orrrect
What is the best way to prevent fomite contamination of items in the OR?
Keeping shipping boxes and cartons within the surgical suite for easy reach.
Utilize a potable fan in the OR to prevent flies and other insects from
inhabiting the space.
Placement of dust covers over sterile items while in storage
Weekly disinfection of OR surfaces after use.
Because of the rapid spread of COVID 19 virus in NCR, it is essential that

every household should wear PPE to prevent further spread of pathogen. And
one of the common household PPE that can be use is?
Goggles
Scrub suit
Mask
Cap
These are the following purposes of surgical scrub except.
keep the microorganisms to minimum during the surgical procedure by

suppression of growth.
help prevent possibility of contamination of the operative wound by

bacteria on the hands and arms.
remove as many microorganisms as possible from the hands and arms by

mechanical washing & chemical antisepsis before participating in surgery.
reduce the hazard of microbial contamination of the surgical wound by skin

flora.
Prior the surgical hand scrubbing, OR nurse should check the following
except:
No jewelries on the hands and arms
No nail polish or enamel
Turning the outside of the gown away from the body with flexed elbows
This is step two in removing the gown.
Fingernails cut short
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During the entire procedure of surgical scrubbing, the hands are kept always
higher than the elbow. The rationale for this is.
To avoid cross contamination of the hands
To allow dripping of water following the Law of gravity
Hands are considered the cleanest part of the upper extremities
Hands are sterile than elbow
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During gowning, circulating nurse Jung can assist the scrub person by:
Pulling the bottom edge of the front of the gowns to eliminate blousing
Reaching inside the gown and pulling the inside seam
None of the above
Helping to get the creases out of the gown’s sleeves by pulling the
shoulders up
Wearing of proper PPE inside the Operating Room to cover the human body
helps to avoid spread of pathogens. Which three areas of the human body are
major areas of microbial shedding?
Neck, axillae, perineum
In all individuals the major areas of microbial shedding include

the head, axillae, hands, groin, perineum, legs and feet.
Ankle, chest
Flank, waist, groin
Feet, lips, umbilicus
One of the roles of OR nurse Jeong is to protect the patient from injury. To
ensure this, which is first in the sequence of functions he should perform?
verify patient’s record and check chart for completeness
Verify patient’s record and check chart for completeness.
The first sequence to protect the patient from injury is

verifying patient’s record and checking that it is complete can
assure the nurse all the information about the real status of
the patient.
discourage disparaging remarks/ degrading comments from the surgical staff to

the patient
surgical asepsis
anticipate surgical complications
Which of the following OR nurse Tien should be given the highest priority
when admitting a patient into the operating room?
positioning and skin preparation
vital signs
level of consciousness
patient identification and correct operative consent
Verifying patient’s record and checking that it is complete can

assure the nurse all the information about the real status of
the patient.
As a nurse which statement is incorrect when obtaining the consent signed

by the patient?
The nurse can witness the client signing the consent form.
The nurse is responsible for obtaining the consent for surgery.
All statements are correct except that it is the nurse

responsibility to obtained the consent for surgery. It is the
surgeon's
responsibility.
It is the nurse responsibility to ensure the patient has been educated by the
physician about the procedure before informed consent is obtained.
Patients under 18 years of age may need a parent or legal guardian to sign a
consent form.
As the nurse getting the patient ready for surgery, Nurse Colleen is
completing the preoperative checklist. Which of the following Nurse
Colleen identified not include in the preoperative checklist?
Conducting the Time Out
The time out is conducted by the OR nurse prior to surgery. All

other options are conducted by the nurse getting the patient
ready for surgery.
Ensuring that the history and physical examination have been

completed
Informed consent is signed
Assessment for allergies
After surgery your patient starts to shiver uncontrollably. What nursing

intervention would you do FIRST?
Take the patient's rectal temperature
Adjust the thermostat in the room
Page the doctor for further orders
Apply warm blankets and continue oxygen as prescribed
Apply warm blankets and continue oxygen as prescribed.
Shivering is an early sign that the patient is starting to

experience hypothermia.
PACU Nurse Jang is monitoring the patient who is 24 hours post-op.

Which finding requires his immediate intervention?
Pain rating of 4 on 1-10 scale
Temperature of 99.3' F
BP 100/80 mmHg
24-hour urine output of 300 ml
The nurse needs to watch the patient's urinary output closely.

Urinary output within a 24-hour period should be at least 30
ml/hr. In this case, the patient is only urinating 12.5 ml/hr.
Nurse In is developing a care plan for a patient who is at risk for

developing pneumonia after surgery. Which of the following is not an
Encourage early ambulation and patient to eat meals in beside chair
Encourage patient to use the incentive spirometer device 10 times every

1-2 hours while awake
Repositioning every 3-4 hours
All options are correct expect for repositioning every 3-4 hours.
If the patient is unable to reposition themselves or ambulate,
they must be repositioned every 1 to 2 hours minimally.
Encourage patient intake of 3000 ml/day of fluids if not contraindicated
OR Nurse Jhung scrub in TAHBSO operation. He knows that this

operation is a major surgical procedure. According to urgency and
purpose, TAHBSO is classified as ?
Exploratory, Urgent
Diagnostic, Optional
Curative, Elective
Palliative , Emergency
During Caesarean Section, OR Nurse Den anticipated the cutting of the uterus
when the OB surgeon already got hold of the organ. In this situation, the
surgeon laid her hand for the next instrument without saying anything. Nurse
Den should hand over what cutting instrument?
Straight Mayo scissor
Bandage scissor
Bandage scissors is used to cut drains and dressings and

to open items such as plastic packets. During surgical
operation, Bandage is used to cut the uterus and umbilicus
in CS.
Curved Mayo scissor
Metz scissor
After draping the patient, the head surgeon positioned near at the operative
site to start the incision. Scrub nurse Kim, familiar with the layers of the
abdominal wall, will hand over first what dissecting instrument?
Scalpel No. 4
Scalpel No. 4 is the first knife use to cut tough tissues like skin.
Stab knife
Scalpel No. 3
Scalpel No. 7
Various positions for rectal, vaginal and perineal surgeries are the
following except:
Fowler's position
Dorsal recumbent position, lithotomy position, and jack knife

position are the positions used to examine the rectal, perineal
and vaginal. And also used for any procedure like
hemorrhoidectomy, rectal and vaginal procedures.
Dorsal Recumbent position
Jack knife position
Lithotomy position
OR Nurse Zia assisted in the positioning of the patient after induction of

anesthesia. She knows that surgical position is influenced by several factors
such as?
Age, height, and weight
Procedure to be performed
All of the options
The factors that influence the surgical position are the procedure
to be performed, surgeon’s choice of approach, age,
height, weight, cardiopulmonary status and pre-existing
diseases.
Surgeon’s choice of surgical approach
Patient Dy is scheduled for Laminectomy. To give the surgeon better view of

the operative site, OR nurse Hwan knows that the ideal position for this kind
of operation is ?
Prone position
Laminectomy is a surgical operation to remove the back of one or

more vertebrae, usually to give access to the spinal cord or to relieve
pressure on nerves. hence prone position is the ideal position for this
operatioin.
Supine position
Modified jack knife position
Fowler’s position
Patient Rivera with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a
colonoscopy. How should nurse Patricia position the client for this test
initially?
Bent over with hands touching the floor
Prone with the torso elevated
Lying on the left side with knees bent
For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client

on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right
side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent
over with
hands touching the floor would not allow proper visualization of
the large intestine.
Lying on the right side with legs straight
This procedure can be performed either by the scrub nurse or surgeon where
patient and surrounding areas are covered with a sterile barrier to create and
maintain an adequate sterile field.
Gloving
Hand washing
Draping
The procedure of covering a patient and surrounding areas with a

sterile barrier to create and maintain a sterile field during a
surgical procedure is called draping. The purpose of draping is
to eliminate the passage of microorganisms between nonsterile
and sterile areas
Gowning
Which is an example of an impervious barrier used in a surgical

procedure?
Clean garbage liner
Plastic pillowcase cover
OR bed sheet
Sterile drapes
These establish an aseptic barrier minimizing the passage

of microorganisms from nonsterile to sterile areas
The counterpart of surgeon in non sterile team for having big responsibilies
pre operatively, intra operatively and post operatively to patient .
Anesthesiologist
Circulating Nurse
Technician
Nurse Anesthetist
During induction of anesthesia, circulating nurse Eden noticed that the

patient is having irregular breathing and slight movements of the extremities.
Aware that the patient is on LOC stage of anesthesia, nurse Eden should:
Reposition the patient
Drape the patient
Unstrap the patient
Patient should not be stimulated and restrain
This is to prevent possible fall or accident of the patient.
Luigi, 5 years old, accidentally ingested a one peso coin while playing with
it. He was rushed to the ER by his father and and an emergency FBE was
requested. Under this situation, what type of anesthesia will be given to
patient Luigi?
General anesthesia
For operation that involves the chest part up, ideally General
anesthesia is given. Children preferably will have general
anesthesia.
Regional anesthesia
Epidural anesthesia
Spinal anesthesia
OR Nurse Kring is asked to perform skin preparation to patient undergoing

AP. The materials she will need and use are the following except:
Surgical skin marker pen
This is use to mark the incision site prior to incision. If pen is not
available, gentian violet can be use.
Povidone-iodine
Electric Clipper
Soap suds
It is the point at which a stimulus is perceived as pain.
Pain threshold
Pain threshold is the minimum intensity at which a person

begins to perceive, or sense, a stimulus as being painful. The
pain
tolerance is expressed as duration of time or the intensity of pain
that an individual will endure before initiation overt pain
responses. Then intermittent pain produces a physiologic
response similar to acute pain. The persistent pain allows for
adaptation (functions of the body are normal but the pain is not
relieved).
Intermittent pain
Pain tolerance
Persistent pain
Chronic pain is described as an unpleasant sensory and emotional

experience associated with:
Actual tissue damage
Actual or potential tissue damage
Actual or potential tissue damage, Chronic pain is associated

with actual or potential tissue damage. Chronic pain is
associated with many pain behaviors that people do not
normally associate with pain. There is no charge in vital signs
with chronic pain.
Physiologic signs and symptoms that the pain exists
Only observable pain behavior
To evaluate adequately the effectiveness of pain control regimens, the nurse

should
Use a pain assessment tool
Use a pain assessment tool, an effective pain treatment

requires a through pain assessment.
Not bother if the client is quiet
Be casual and informal
Rely on the feedback from the client's family member
Staff nurse Korky is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the

following should the nurse document as subjective data?
Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms
Laboratory test result
Vital signs
Patient’s description of pain
Patient’s description of pain, subjective data come directly from

the patient and usually are recorded as direct quotations that
reflect the patient’s opinions or feelings about a situation. Vital
signs, laboratory test result, and ECG waveforms are examples
of objective data.
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It is the second most common cause of chronic pain.
Neuralgias
Myofascial pain syndrome
Chronic pain associated with cancer
Persistent low back pain
12/18/2020 Quiz in Pain and Surgery: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
Quiz in Pain and Surgery

Available Sep 12 at 12am - Sep 12 at 11:59pm about 24 hours Time
Limit 20 Minutes
Instructions
Choose the best answer.
Attempt History
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 Correct answers are hidden.

Submitted Sep 12 at 4:59pm This
Which three areas of the human body are major areas of microbial
shedding?
Feet, lips, umbilicus
Flank, waist, groin
o Neck, axillae, perineum
On all individuals the major areas of microbial shedding include the

head, axillae, hands, groin, perineum, legs and feet.
Fingertips. Ankle, chest
What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the

OR?
Instruments
Infection
Surgical Team
People remain the major source of microorganisms in the OR

environment. The surgical team is the most common source of
transmission followed by contaminated instrumentation.
What is a way to prevent fomite contamination of items in the OR?
Utilize a potable fan in the OR to prevent flies and other insects from
inhabiting the space.
Keeping shipping boxes and cartons within the surgical suite for easy reach
Placement of dust covers over sterile items while in storage.
Fomites are contaminated particles present in dust that settle on

inanimate objects. OR surfaces must be disinfected promptly and dust
covers kept over sterile supplies to prevent the settling of dust on the
packages.
Weekly disinfection of OR surfaces after use.
Which is an example of a hospital-acquired infection?
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
Catheter-associated urinary tract infection
An infection is considered hospital associated or acquired (formerly

referred to as nosocomial) during the course of health care if it was
neither present nor incubating when patient was admitted.
Gunshot wound septicemia
Which is an example of an impervious barrier used in a surgical

procedure?
Sterile drapes
Sterile drapes establish an aseptic barrier minimizing the passage of

microorganisms from nonsterile to sterile areas
Plastic pillowcase cover
OR bed sheet
Clean garbage liner
The following about surgical asepsis is true except.
Items of doubtful sterility are considered unsterile.
Gowns of the surgical team are considered sterile from the neck to the level
of the knees
Gowns are considered sterile in front from chest to level of sterile

field, and the sleeves from above the elbow to cuffs. Gloves are
sterile.
The sleeves of the scrub gown are considered sterile from the cuff up to 2 cm
above the elbow
After a sterile package is opened, the edges are considered unsterile.


OR.
Scrub Niurse
circulating nurse
Circulating nurse is in charge of handling unsterile things, since she

is unsterile.
Assistant surgeon
Surgeon
One role of the OR nurse is to protect the patient from injury. To ensure this,
which is first in the sequence of functions he/ she performs?
verify patient’s record and check chart for completeness

assure the nurse all the information about the real status of the
patient.
anticipate surgical complications
discourage disparaging remarks/ degrading comments from the surgical staff to

the patient
surgical asepsis
Which of the following should be given the highest priority when

admitting a patient into the operating room?
vital signs
level of consciousness
position and skin preparation
patient identification and correct operative consent

assure the nurse all the information about the real status of the
patient
The sterile team includes the:
Anesthesiologist or anesthetist
Circulating nurse
Technicians
Scrub nurse
Among all that has been mentioned, the scrub nurse is the only one
sterile, the rest are considered unsterile
The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the

following should the nurse document as subjective data?
Laboratory test result
Vital signs
Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms
Patient’s description of pain
Subjective data come directly from the patient and usually are
recorded as direct quotations that reflect the patient’s opinions or
feelings about a situation. Vital signs, laboratory test result, and ECG
waveforms are examples of objective data.
A scrub nurse in the operating room has which responsibility?
Applying surgical drapes
Positioning the patient
Handling surgical instruments to the surgeon
The scrub nurse assists the surgeon by providing appropriate surgical

instruments and supplies, maintaining strict surgical asepsis and, with
the circulating nurse, accounting for all gauze, sponges, needles, and
instruments. The circulating nurse assists the surgeon and scrub nurse,
positions the patient, applies appropriate equipment and surgical
drapes, assists with gowning and gloving, and provides the surgeon
and scrub nurse with supplies
Assisting with gowning and gloving
During gowning, the circulating nurse can assist the scrub person by:
Reaching inside the gown and pulling the inside seam
Helping to get the creases out of the gown’s sleeves by pulling the
shoulders up
All of the above
Pulling the bottom edge of the front of the gowns to eliminate blousing
As the nurse you are getting the patient ready for surgery. You are completing
the preoperative checklist. Which of the following is not part of the
preoperative checklist?
Ensuring that the history and physical examination has been completed
Conducting the Time Out
The time out is conducted by the OR nurse prior to surgery. All of the
other options are conducted by the nurse getting the patient ready for
surgery.
Assess for allergies
The following are the preparation of surgical hand scrubbing,

EXCEPT .
Skin & nails should be kept clean and in good condition and cuticles
should be uncut.
Fingernails should not reach beyond the fingertip to avoid glove

puncture.
Keeping your left fingers straight, pull down the glove. By pulling sleeve up,
glove is pulled onto hand
Keeping your left fingers straight, pull down the glove. By pulling
sleeve up, glove is pulled onto hand, this is a step-in closed glove
technique.
Fingernail polish should not be worn.
12/18/2020 Formative Assessment No. 1: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
Formative Assessment No. 1

Available Aug 19 at 12am - Sep 4 at 11:59pm 17 days Time Limit 15 Minutes
Instructions
Read the questions carefully and choose the best answer. Submit this formative assessment either thru this
canvas or email prior to the start of second concept, i.e. Fluid & Electrolytes
Attempt History
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Submitted Aug 26 at 5:49pm This
He is a Greek physician who performed an extensive dissection in

animals, also he studied the muscles, spinal cord, heart, urinary system,
and proved that the arteries are full of blood.
Claudius Galen
Claudius Galen is a Greek physician performing extensive dissections

in animals. He studied the muscles, spinal cord, heart, urinary system,
and proved that the arteries are full of blood. He believed that blood
originated in the liver, and sloshed back and forth through the body,
passing through the heart, where it was mixed with air, by pores in the
septum.
Lord Berkeley George Moynihan
Florence Nightingale
Abraham Lincoln
It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive

entrance into a body cavity for either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during
which protective reflexes or self-care abilities are potentially compromised.
Surgical Procedure
Aseptic Technique is a practice and procedures to prevent

contamination from pathogens. Disinfection is process of destroying
all pathogenic microorganism except spore bearing ones. Asepsis is
freedom from infection or absence of microorganism.
Aseptic Technique
Disinfection
Asepsis
Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or

multi celled plants that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the
mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body parts?
Fungi
Bacteria (Bacterium) are single-celled microscopic organisms that

multiply rapidly. Some are beneficial to humans while others can cause
infection. Protozoa are single-celled, microscopic animals, usually living
in water, that can cause disease. Rickettsiae are found in fleas, lice,
ticks and other insects; spread to humans by insect bites. Person
infected may experience fever, chills, headaches, rashes, etc.
Bacteria
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
These are natural disease processes that develop or incubate before the
patient is admitted to the hospital.
Community Acquired Infection
Nosocomial infection, infections that are acquired as a result of being

in the health care facility environment. Reinfection infections that are
required as a result of being in the health care facility environment.
Cross infection occurs when one patient or staff passes the pathogens to
another patient, staff or visitors.
Reinfection
Cross infection
It is the chain of infection in which the pathogens leave the reservoir like
human secretions.
Portal of Exit
The reservoir of an infectious agent is the habitat in which the agent

normally lives, grows, and multiplies. Reservoirs include humans,
animals, and the environment. The reservoir may or may not be the
source from which an agent is transferred to a host.
The mode of transmission is the way the pathogen is transmitted from
one reservoir to the new host’s body. The portal of entry is the site
through which micro-organisms enter the susceptible host and cause
disease/infection.
Reservoir
Portal of entry
It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by

removing or destroying the pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Surgical Asepsis (Sterile technique) is the practice and procedure that

keep an area or object totally free from all microorganisms.
Asepsis freedom from infection or infectious materials. Aseptic technique is
practice and procedure to prevent contamination from pathogens
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices

except.
Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively

nonabrasive
The standard precautions for infection control practices are wearing of

appropriate PPE, environment cleaning and spills management, and
proper handling of waste and waste disposal. Be free from toxic
ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively nonabrasive are the
guidelines on sterilization and disinfection.
Which of the following are the responsibilities of perioperative nurse?
Helps plan, implement and evaluate treatment of the patient.
Helps plan, implement and evaluate treatment of the patient. Well

organized, flexible and adaptable, sensitive and perceptive are the
attributes of perioperative nurse.
Well Organized
A client has been diagnosed with disseminated herpes zoster. Which

personal protective equipment (PPE) will you need to put on when
preparing to assess the client? Select all that apply
Gown, gloves, N95 respirator
Because herpes zoster is spread through airborne means and by direct

contact with the lesions, you should wear an N95 respirator or high-
efficiency particulate air filter respirator, a gown, and gloves. Goggles
and shoe covers are not needed for airborne or contact precautions.
Surgical face mask filters only large particles and will not provide
protection from herpes zoster.
Goggles, gloves, surgical mask
Gloves, shoe cover, surgical face mask
Goggles, gown, surgical face mask
The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral

suctioning on a client who is in contact with airborne precautions.
Which of the following actions will you perform?
Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95
respirator, perform hand hygiene
The sequence will prevent contact of the contaminated gloves and

gowns with areas (such as your hair) that cannot be easily cleaned after
client contact and stop transmission of microorganisms to you and your
other clients.
Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the
Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove
gloves, perform hand hygiene
Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the
The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an
infected wound in sacral area. Which PPE items will you use?
Select the answer.
Gloves and gown
A gown and gloves should be used when coming in contact with

linens that may be decontaminated by the client’s wound secretions.
The other items are not necessary because transmission by splashes,
droplets, or airborne means will not occur when the bed is changed.
surgical, mask and gown
Goggles and gown
An infection is considered hospital associated or acquired (formerly

referred to as nosocomial) during the course of health care if it was
neither present nor incubating when patient was admitted.
Gunshot wound septicemia
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis

OR?
Circulating Nurse
Circulating nurse is in charge of handling unsterile things, since she

is unsterile
surgeon
assistant surgeon
scrub nurse
What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the

OR?
Surgical team
People remain the major source of microorganisms in the OR

environment. The surgical team is the most common source of
transmission followed by contaminated instrumentation.
Instruments
Infection
This is worn in the restricted areas to contain and filter droplets containing
microorganisms expelled from the mouth and nasopharynx during breathing,
talking, sneezing and coughing.
Mask
It should be worn at all times in the restricted areas where sterile

supplies are exposed, should be worn at all times in the restricted areas
where sterile supplies are exposed.
Goggles
Gloves
Shoe cover
Ingesting large amounts of sodium bicarbonate can lead to
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following is most likely to happen to a student who relax by drinking a pitcher of
his/her favorite beverage?
An increase in urine osmolality An
increase in urine volume An
increase in ADH production
Increased aldosterone secretion
A falling blood pH and a rising concentration of carbon dioxide due to emphysema,

indicates
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Genevieve is diagnosed with hypomagnesemia, which nursing intervention would be appropriate?

Avoiding the use of tight tourniquet when drawing blood Teaching
the client the importance of early ambulation Instituting seizure
precaution to prevent injury
Lab tests revealed that patient Z’s [Na+] is 170 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation would nurse
Sheree expect to assess?
Fruity breath and Kussmaul’s respirations
Tented skin turgor and thirst
Muscle weakness and paresthesia
Muscle twitching and tetany
A client with very dry mouth, skin, and mucous membranes is diagnosed of having dehydration.
Which intervention should the nurse perform when caring for a client diagnosed with fluid
volume deficit?
Assessing urinary intake and output
Obtaining the client’s weight weekly at different times of the day
Maintaining I.V. therapy at the keep-vein-open rate
Monitoring arterial blood gas (ABG) results
KC is admitted in the hospital due to having lower than normal potassium level in her
bloodstream. Her medical history reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to hospitalization. Which
foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase?
Whole grains and nuts
Pork products and canned vegetables Milk
products and green leafy vegetables
Orange juice and bananas
Water moves back and forth across plasma membrane by the process of
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration
Active transport
In a long-standing metabolic acidosis, the respiratory rate may increase. This is an example
of:
Compensation
Mixed acidosis
Hypoxemia
A primary respiratory acidosis
The distribution of sodium and potassium ions between intracellular and extracellular
compartments is
Equal amounts of both ions, in both intracellular and extracellular fluids
Sodium mainly intracellular, potassium mainly in extracellular Potassium
mainly intracellular, sodium mainly in extracellular Little of either
intracellular but large amounts of both extracellular
What do you call the chemicals that functions to minimize changes in the pH of body fluids?
Activators
Inhibitors
Accelerators
Buffers
Stabilizers
Jon has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L which medication would nurse Wilma anticipate?
Calcium gluconate
Kayexalate
Potassium supplements
Sodium tablets
Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for determining
the concentration of the extracellular fluid?
Potassium
Chloride
Sodium
Phosphate
Prolonged vomiting of stomach contents will result in

Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
A patient with stage 5 CKD is experiencing extreme pruritus and has several areas of crystallized
white deposits on the skin. As the nurse, you know this is due to excessive amount of?
Urea
Erythropoietin
Phosphate
Calcium
Cholo, has idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. He has generalized edema with puffy face, distended
abdomen and edematous legs. Blood pressure is normal. Blood test show hypoalbuminemia.
The attending physician of Cholo prescribed Renal Biopsy. When the nurse plans for the nursing
care of Cholo after the biopsy. Which of the following will be a priority intervention to prevent
bleeding?
Observe for abdominal pain and tenderness
Place on complete bed rest
Monitor vital signs
Closely watch urine output
The nurse is aware that generalized edema is due to hypoalbuminemia. Which lead
primarily to which of the following?
Stimulation of the Renin Angiotensin system
Decrease plasma osmotic pressure
Increased secretions of anti-diuretic hormone
Reduced intravascular volume
A client receiving NPH insulin 20 units subcutaneous at seven am (7am) daily. At three pm
(3pm), the nurse finds the client apparently asleep. How would the nurse know if the client were
having a hypoglycemic reaction?
Smell the client’s breath for acetone odor
Check the client’s pupils for dilation
Observe client for Kussmaul’s respirations
Feel the client and bed for dampness
A priority nursing diagnosis for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetes
insipidus is?
Sleep pattern deprivation related to nocturia
Risk for impaired skin integrity related to generalized edema
Activity intolerance related to muscle weakness
Fluid volume excess related to intake greater than output
In patients who are experiencing acute glomerulonephritis, the glomerulus is permeable to what
substance?
Red blood cells, protein, and lipids
Proteins
Protein and white blood cells
Red blood cells and protein
A 65-year-old female patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) the patient’s recent
GFR was 25 mL/min. What stage of chronic kidney disease is this known as?
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
Stage 1
A patient with CKD has a low erythropoietin (EPO) level. The patient is at risk for?
Hyperkalemia
Blood cells
Hypercalcemia
Anemia
Which of the following is a life threatening acute complication of diabetes mellitus?

Hypoglycemia
Neuropathy
Impaired microcirculation
Retinopathy
Hemodialysis was stated in an effort to

Cleanse the blood vessel
Replenish the action of normal renal issue
Assist in the metabolism of fats
Facilitate the elimination of amino acids
Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates
A disorder of the pituitary gland
A complicated pregnancy A
disorder of the pancreas
Mr. Juan dela Cruz was admitted to FEU hospital ward with the complaint of puffiness of the
eyes and face for the past 9 days. A tentative diagnosis of glomerulonephritis was established.
The fluid intake of a renal failure patient like Mr. dela Cruz is based upon: Exact
measurement of intake and output
Desired intake
Usual intake
Exact measurement of output only
The nurse closely monitors the urine output of the patient. Which of the following
characteristics of a urine sample will the nurse expect?
Blood in urine
Urine is frothy
Increased amount
Fruity odor
A client with Acute Renal Failure and edema is taking furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO twice a day.
Which of the following interventions, if included in the plan of care by the nurse, would require
further clarification?
Daily weights before breakfast
Limit fluid intake to 1 L in 24 hours
Monitor intake and output Orthostatic
BP check every 8 hours
The client receives an IV infusion of packed red blood cells and normal saline solution. Which of
the following would be a priority assessment for the client receiving a blood product?
Anaphylactic reaction
Altered level of consciousness
Hypovolemia
Pain
Which patient below is NOT at risk for developing chronic kidney disease?
A 78 year old female with intrarenal injury
A 45 year old female with polycystic ovarian disease
A 58 year old female with uncontrolled hypertension A
69 year old male with diabetes mellitus
It is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute
concentration
Osmosis
Active transport
Filtration
Diffusion
When caring for a patient diagnosed with hypocalcemia, which of the following should the nurse
additionally assess in the patient?
Drug toxicity
Visual disturbances
Other electrolyte imbalances
Hypertension
The nurse is planning care for a patient with fluid volume overload and hyponatremia. Which
of the following should be included in this patient’s plan of care?
Restrict fluids
Administer intravenous fluids
Administer intravenous normal saline with furosemide
Provide Kayexalate
A client is presumed to be in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. All of the following
assessment findings indicate early shock EXCEPT:
Tachypnea
Bradycardia
Restlessness
Cool, clammy skin
Walter was admitted to the hospital because of HYPERKALEMIA. In relation to the above
alteration, it is considered hyperkalemia if the potassium level is
6.0 mEq/L
4 mEq/L
3.5 mEq/L
5.0 mEq/L
A client’s serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dl. The nurse is immediately concerned, knowing that
this level could ultimately lead to which of the following?
Cardiac arrest
Stroke
Urinary stone formation
High blood pressure
A nurse is caring for a client following a kidney transplant. The client develops oliguria. Which
of the following would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed as the treatment for the oliguria?
Irrigation of the Foley catheter
Administration of diuretics
Restricting fluids
Forcing fluids
The nurse transcribing orders should clarify the order of: Potassium
chloride, 80 mEq in 1000 mL D5W in 12 hours Potassium
chloride, 40 mEq in 10 mL D5W IV push
A nurse is caring for a client who has a lost significant amount of blood because of
complications of a surgical procedure. The nurse understands that which of the following client
measurements will provide the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume?
Blood pressure (BP)
Lung crackles Pulse
rate Presence of
edema
A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with acute renal failure who is in the oliguric
phase. During this phase, the nurse understands that which of the following is not a characteristic
finding?
A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24 hour period
Increased plasma creatinine level
Increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
A low and fixed specific gravity
An elderly patient who is being medicated for pain had an episode of incontinence. The nurse
realizes that this patient is at risk for developing
Dehydration
Over-hydration
Fecal incontinence
A stroke
Charming learned that the cause of metabolic acidosis of her mother Bakekang is… Constipation
Shock
Diarrhea
pneumothorax
When analyzing an arterial blood gas report of a patient with COPD and respiratory acidosis, the
nurse anticipates that compensation will develop through which of the following medications?
The lungs will retain carbon dioxide
The kidneys retain bicarbonate
The lungs will excrete carbon dioxide
The kidneys excrete bicarbonate
If none of the following bed positions is contraindicated, which position would be preferred for
the client with hypovolemic shock?
Flat with the head elevated and the head below the level of the heart
Flat with legs elevated
Flat on bed
With the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
A nurse is reviewing the assessment findings on a client with a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. Which
of the following would the nurse expect to note in this client?
Decreased serum albumin levels
Decreased protein in the urine Signs
of fluid volume deficit Decreased
serum lipids
A pregnant patient is admitted with excessive thirst, increased urination, and has a medical
diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse chooses which of the following nursing diagnoses as
most appropriate?
Excess fluid volume
Ineffective tissue perfusion
Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume
Imbalanced nutrition
A nurse is providing instruction to a client with a diagnosis of hypertension about foods to avoid
that are high in sodium. The nurse instructs the client to avoid which of the following?
Bananas
Mineral water
Broccoli
Cantaloupe
25 year old, Benz suffered from motorcycle accident was bleeding on upper right arm, burned on
both legs. Vital signs PR- 140 /min, BP- 92/50 & is oliguric. Level of consciousness lethargic.
Doctor ordered intravenous fluid to run at fast drip to replace his loss of fluid. Foley catheter
inserted. Your immediate nursing diagnosis is:
Impaired physical mobility Fluid
volume deficit Decreased
cardiac output Decreased
sensory perception
For patient with Renal Failure and hyperkalemia we should administer the following drugs
EXCEPT
Administer Na+ HCO3 ampules
Insulin drip
Kayexalate
Laxatives
A client who escaped from a burning house presented an ABG result of pH=7.59, pCO2=40,
HCO3=31 which is interpreted as:
Normal
Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Which of the following is a sign of dehydration?

Edema Increased
weight Moist
cough
Rough, dry tongue
A client was admitted to the hospital with client chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood
gases were: pH=7.52, pCO2= 27, HCO3= 22. These values indicate:
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
A 47-year-old woman has had gastric ulcer for years, after she stated vomiting blood today, her
neighbor drove her to the emergency room. Identify what is the acid base imbalance for this
patient?
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
A postoperative patient is diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which of the following
should the nurse assess in this patient?
Concentrated hemoglobin & hematocrit levels
Poor skin turgor
Decreased urine output
Distended neck veins
25 year old Ben suffered from motorcycle accident was bleeding on upper right arm, burned on
both legs, vital signs PR-140/min BP-92/50 and is olliguric. Level of consciousness is lethargic.
Doctor ordered intravenous fluid to run at fast drip to replace his loss fluid. Foley catheter
inserter. Your immediate nursing diagnosis is:
-Fluid Volume Deficit
For patient with Renal failure and hyperkalemia we should administer the following drugs
EXCEPT
-Administer Na+ HCO3 ampule
A client who escaped from burning house presented and ABG result of pH-7.59, PCO2- 40,
HCO3-31 which is interpreted as
-Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Which of the following is a sign of dehydration?
-rough,dry tongue
A client was admitted to the hospital with client chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood
gases were pH-7.52, pCO2-27, HCO3-22. This values indicate
-Respiratory alkalosis
A 47 year old woman has had gastric ulcer for year. After she stated vomiting blood today, her
neighbor drove her to the emergency room. Identify what is the acid base imbalance for this
patient
-Metabolic alkalosis
A postoperative pt is diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which of the following should the
nurse asses this pt?
-distended neck vein
What is the nurse primary concern regarding fluid and electrolyes when caring for an elderly pt
who is intermittently confused?
-risk of dehydration
A nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse evaluate the the client
has proper fluid balance if which of the following 24 hour intake and output has noted?
-Intake 1800 mL output 1750 mL
Bakekang is experiencing metabolic acidosis. The following are the clinical manifestation of
metabolic acidosis except:
-hypertension
A client is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia and
transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is performed. Four hours after surgery, nurse take
te clients vital signs and empties the urinary drainage bag. Which of the following assessment
finding would indicate the need to notify the physician?
-Blood pressure of 100/50 mmHg, pulse of 130 beats per minute
Which of the following would be the best indication that fluid replacement for the client in
hypovolemic schock is adequate
-urine output reater than 30 ml./hr
A nurse student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of acute renal failure, diuretic
phase.the nursing instructor ask the student about the primary goal of the treatment plan for this
client. Which of the following statement if made by the nursing students would indicate an
adequate understanding of the treatment plan for this client?
-Prevent loss of electrolytes
A client with acute renal failure and edema is taking furosemide(Lasix) 40 mg PO twice a day.
which of the following intervention if included in the plan of care by the nurse would require
further clarification?
-Orthostatic BP check every 8 hrs
Functions of Potassium are the following except

-it regulates Na level
With patients experiencing acute glomerulonephritis, it is important to know that the glomerulus
becomes permeable to what substance?
-red blood cells and protein
Which of the following disorders would be most associated with development of metabolic
acidosis?
-Cerebrovascular accident involving the pons
A pts blood gases show a pH greater of 7.53 and bicarbonate level of 36 mEq/L. the nurse
realizes that the acid base disorder this t is demonstrating which of the following?
-Respiratory Alkalosis
Which electrolyte would the nurse identify as the major electrolyte responsible for determining
the concentration of the extracellular fluid?
-Sodium
A pt with fluid retention related to renal problems is admitted to the hospital. The nurse realizes
that this pt could possibly have which of the following electrolyte imbalance?
-hypernatremia
Lab test revealed that patient Z’s Na+ is 170 mEq/L. which clinical manifestation would nurse
Natty expect to assess?
-Tented skin turgor and thirst
Marie Joy’s lab test revealed that her serum calcium is 2.5 mEq/L. which assessment data does
the nurse document when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia develops a carpopedal spasm
after the blood pressure cuff is inflated?
- Positive Trousseau’s sign
An elderly postoperative pt is demonstrating lethargy, confusion and a respt rate of 8 per minute.
The nurse sees that the last dose of pain medication administered via a pt controlled
anesthesia(PCA) pump was within 30 minutes. Which of the following acid base disorders might
this pt be experiencing?
-Metabolic acidosis
The sensation of thirst results from

-stimulation of osmoreceptor cells in the hypothalamus
A person working in the hot sun loses the greatest amount of water from the
-skin
Genevieve is diagnosed with hypomagnesemia which nursing intervention would be appropriate

-instituting seizure precaution to prevent injury
Which of the following people would be most severely affected by prolonged vomiting?
-5o year old female
A failing blood pH and a rising concentration of carbon dioxide due to emphysema indicate
-Respiratory acidosis
The predominant intracellular cation is

-Potassium
Upon assessment a client seem very anxious and that vital signs included a respiratory rate of 38
breathes per minute. Which acid base imbalance should you suspect?
-Respiratory alkalosis
Jon has a potassium level of 6.5 meEq/L which medication would nurse Wilma anticipate
-Kayexalate
KC is admitted in the hospital due to having lower than normal potassium level in her
bloodstream. Her medical history reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to hospitalization. Which
foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase?
A client with very dry mouth, skin and mucous membrane is diagnosed of having dehydration.
Which prioritized intervention should the nurse performed when caring for a client diagnosed
with fluid volume deficit?
-Assessing urinary intake and output
The flow of the fluid such as blood through an organ or tissue is called
-perfusion
The distribution of sodium and potassium ion between intracellular and extracellular compartments is
-potassium mainly intracellular, sodium mainly in extracellular
Which of the following individuals would have the largest percentage of their body weight as
water?
-a small 7 year old female
Which of the following fluid compartments contain the largest volume of water?
-intracellular compartment
An elderly pt does not complain of thirst. What should the nurse do to assess that this patient
is not dehydrated?
-Assess the urine for osmolality
A pt is prescribed 40 mEq potassium as a replacement. The nurse realizes that this replacement should
be administered?
-mixed in the prescribed intravenous fluid
1. A nurse is providing instruction to a asks
client with a diagnosis of hypertension
about foods to avoid that are high in
sodium. The nurse insrtucts the client to
avois which of the following
 Mineral water
 Cantaloupe
 Banana
 Broccoli
2. A client’s serum calcium level is
7.9mg/dl. The nurse is immediately
concerned, knowing that this level coil
ultimately lead to which of the ff?
 Cardiac arrest
 High bp
 Stroke
 Urinary stone formation
3. A nurse is caring for a client
following a kidney transplant. The client
develops oliguria. Which of the ff would the
nurse anticipate to be prescribed as the
treatment for the oliguria.
 Administration of diuretics
 Restricting fluids
 Forcing fluids
 Irrigation of the foley
catheter
4. A client was admitted to the hospital with

diagnosis of benign prostate hyperplasia
transurethral resection of the prostate
(TURP) is performed. Four hours after
surgery, a nurse takes the clients vital signs
and empties the urinary bag. Which of the
urinary assessment findings would indicate
the need to notify the physician?
 Pain related to bladder spasms

 Red bloody urine
 Urinary output 200mL greater than
intake
 Blood pressure 100/50 mmHg,
pulse of 130 beats/m
5. A nurse student is assigned to care for a

client with a diagnosis of acute renal failure,
diuretic phase. The nursing instructor
the student about the primary goal of disease is due for a morning dose of
the treatment plan for this client. furosemide. A nurse plans to report which
Which of the following statement, if serum potassium
made by the nursing students, would
indicate an adequate understanding of
the treatment plan for this client?
 Prevent fluid overload
 Promote the excretion of wastes
 Reduce the urine specific gravity
 Prevent loss of electrolytes
6. A nurse is reviewing the

assessment findings on a client with
a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome.
Which of the following would the
nurse expect to note in this client?
 Signs of fluid volume deficit
 Decreased serum albumin levels
 Decreased serum lipids
 Decreased protein in the urine
7. A nurse is performing an
assessment on a client with acute
renal failure who is oliguric phase.
During this phase, the nurse
understands that which of the
following is not a characteristic
finding?
 Increase in the blood urea
nitrogen bun level
 A urine output of 600 to 800
mL in a 24 hr period
 Increased creatinine level
 A low and fixed specific gravity
8. A nurse is assessing the renal

function of a client at risk for renal
failure. After noting the amount of
urine output and urine characteristic.
The nurse would proceed to assess
which of the following is the best
indicator of renal status?
 Blood pressure
 Apical heart rate
 Jugular vein distension
 Level of consciousness
9. The client with a history of cardiac

level before administering the dose of  Cerebrovascular accident involving
furosemide. the pons\
 3.8 mEq/L
 Diabetes insipidus
 4.2 mEq/L
 COPD
 3.2 mEq/L
 4.8 mEq/L 14. Which of the ff describes the movement
of potassium during acidosis?
 Intracellular K moves out into the
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has a
extra K, causing hypokalemia
lost significant amount of blood because of
 H added with K in the presence of an
complications of a surgical procedure. The
enzyme
nurse understands that which of the ff
 ExtraC K becomes excreted and
client measurements will provide the
IntraC K moves out, causing
earliest indication of new decreases in fluid
hypokalemia
volume?
 K concentrations remains the same
 Blood pressure
 K in the ECF moves into the ICF
 Lung crackles
 Pulse rate
15. It is the movement of water from an
 Presence of edema
area of the lower solute concentration to an
area of higher solute concentration.
11. A nurse is monitoring the fluid balance
 Filtration
of an assigned client. The nurse evaluates
 Osmosis
that the client has proper fluid balance if
 Diffusion
which of the following 24 hr intake and
 Active transport
output total is noted.
 Intake 3000mL, Output 1400 mL
16. Bakekang is experiencing metabolic
acidosis. The following are the clinical
manifestation of metabolic acidosis.
EXCEPT:
 Decrease cardiac output
SITUATION: Faye works as nurse in the
 Nausea and vomiting
Medical Floor FEU Hospital where she is
caring for Carol, a patient with  Hypertension
hyperkalemia sec to metabolic acidosis.  Increased RR
In taking care for this client, Carol would 17. Charming learned that the cause of
most certainly not perform which of the metabolic acidosis of her mother Bakekang
following? is..
 Administer KCl by IV drip as ordered  Shock
 Monitor for cardiac dysrhythmias  Pneumothorax
 Administer insulin, as ordered  Constipation
 Administer KCl im as ordered.*  Diarrhea
13. Which of the ff disorders would be most 18. The following are causes of respiratory
associated with development of metabolic acidosis, Except:
acidosis  Hypoventilation
 Uncontrolled Type II diabetes  Pneumothorax
mellitus*
 Overdose of sedatives  Daily weights before breakfast
 Hypercapnia
24. Which of the ff would be the best
19. Walter was admitted to the hospital indication that fluid replacement for the
because of HYPERKALEMIA. client in hypovolemic shock is adequate?
In relation to the above alteration, it is  Diastolic blood pressure
considered hyperkalemia if the potassium above 90mmHg
level is.  Urine output og 20-30 mL/hr
 6.0 mEq/L
 Systolic bp above 110 mmHg
 4 mEq/L
 Urine output greater than 30 mL/hr
 3.5 mEq/L
 5.0 mEq/L
25. The nurse transcribing orders should
20. Function of Potassium are the following clarify the order of:
except  Potassium chloride, 40 mEq IV in 10
 Regulation of acid base balance of K mL D5W IV push
exchanges with H when pH lowers  Potassium chloride, 50 mEq in 500
than 7.35 (acidosis) mL D5W in 4 hours
 It regulates NA level  Potassium chloride, 80 mEq in
 Glucose uptake into cells 1000mL D5W in 24 hours
 Maintenance of cellular osmotic  Potassium chloride, 80 mEq in
pressure 1000mL D5W in 12 hours
21. 21. For patient with Renal Failure and 26. A client was admitted to the hospital
hyperkalemia we should administer the with client chest pain and shortness of
following drugs except: breath. Arterial blood gases were: pH=7.52,
 Laxatives pCO2=27, HCO3=22. These values indicate:
 Insulin drip  M acidosis
 Administer Na = HCO3 ampoules  R alkalosis*
 kayexalate  R acidosis
 M alkalosis
22. Which of the following is a sign of
dehydration? 27. A client who escaped from a burning
 Edema house presented an ABG result of pH=7.59,
 Increase weight pCO2=40, HCO3=31 which is interpreted as:
 Moist cough  Uncompensated
 Rough, dry tongue respiratory alkalosis*
 Partially compensated
23. A client with Acute Renal Failure and respiratory acidosis
edema is taking furosemide (Lasix) 40mg PO  Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis*
twice a day. Which of the ff interventions, if  Normal
included the plan of care by the nurse,
would require further clarification? 28. 25 year old Benz suffered from
 Monitor i and o motorcycle accident and was bleeding on
 Limit fluid intake to 1L in 24 hrs upper right ar,, burned on both legs. Vital
 Orthostatic BP check every 8hrs signs PR- 140/min, BP-92//50 & is oliguric.
Level of consciousness lethargic.. Doctor
ordered intravenous fluid to run at a fast drip 33. A client is presumed to be in the early
to replace his loss fluid. Foley catheter stages of hypovolemic shock. All of the
inserted. Your immediate nursing diagnosis following assessment findings indicate early
is:
shock EXCEPT:
 Impaired physical mobility
 Restlessness
 Decreased sensory perception
 Cool, clammy skin
 Fluid volume deficit*
 Bradycardia
 Decreased cardiac output
 Tachypnea
29. Which position will you replace your

34. In none of the following bed positions is
patient in when they are demonstrating the
contraindicated, which position would be
signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
preferred for the client with hypovolemic
 Trendelenburg position
shock?
 Right lateral position
 Flat with the head elevated and
 Left lateral position
the head below the level of the
 Supine position
heart
 Flat with legs elevated
30. Which of the following is a life
 Flat on bed
threatening acute complication of diabete
 With the head of the bed elevated
mellitus?
45 degrees
 Impaired microcirculation
 Retinopathy
35. With patients experiencing acute
 Neuropathy
glomerulonephritis, it is important to know
 Hypoglycemia
that the glomerulus becomes permeable to
what substance?
31. A 47-year old woman has had gastric
 Red blood cells and protein
ulcer for years. After she stated vomiting
 Protein and white blood cells
blood today, her neighbor drove her to the
 Red blood cells, protein, and lipids
emergency room. Identify what is the acid
 Proteins only
base imbalance for this patient?
 M acidosis*
36. Which of the following patients in the
 R alkalosis
given choices is NOT at risk for developing
 R alkalosis
chronic kidney disease?
 M alkalosis (NAULIT TALAGA TONG
 A 69 year old male with diabetes
CHOICES)
mellitus
 A 78 year old female with intrarenal
32. The client receives an IV infusion of
injury
packed red blood cells and normal saline
 A 58 year old female with
solution. Which of the following would be a
uncontrolled hypertension
priority assessment for the client receiving a
 A 45 year old female with polycystic
blood product?
ovarian disease
 Hypovolemia
 Anaphylactic reaction
37. A patient with stage 5 CKD is
 Altered level of consciousness
experiencing extreme pruritus and has
 Pain
several areas of crystallized white deposits
on the skin. As the nurse, you know this is
due to excessive amounts of?
 Erythropoietin 42. When caring for a pt diagnosed with
 Urea hypocalcemia, which of the following
 Calcium should the nurse additionally assess in the
 Phosphate pt?
 Hypertension
38. What is the nurse’s primary concern  Visual disturbances
regarding fluid and electrolyte when caring for  Other electrolyte disturbances
an elderly pt who is intermittently confused?  Drug toxicity
 Risk of bleeding
 Risk of kidney damage 43. When analyzing an arterial blood gas
 Risk of dehydration report of a pt with COPD & respiratory
 Risk of stroke acidosis, the nurse anticipates that
compensation will develop through which
39. A pregnant pt is admitted with excessive of the following mechanisms?
thirst, increased urination, & has a medical  The lungs will retain carbon dioxide
diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse  The kidneys retain bicarbonate
chooses which of the following nursing  The lungs will excrete carbon dioxide
diagnoses as most appropriate?  The kidneys excrete bicarbonate
 Imbalanced nutrition
 Risk for imbalance fluid volume 44. A postoperative pt is diagnosed with
 Ineffective tissue perfusion fluid volume overload. Which of the
 Excess fluid volume following should the nurse assess in this pt?
 Poor skin turgor
40. A pt recovering from surgery has an  Decreased urine output
indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse  Distended neck veins*
would contact the pt’s primary health care  Concentrated hemoglobin
provider with which of the following 24- and hematocrit levels
hour urine output volumes?
 1200 ml 45. An elderly pt who is being medicated for
 1000 ml pain had an episode of incontinence. The
 600ml nurse realizes that this pt is at risk for
 750ml developing
 Fecal incontinence
41. The nurse is planning care for a pt with  Overhydration
fluid volume overload & hyponatremia. Which  Stroke
of the following should be included in this pt’s  Dehydration
plan of care?
 Provide kayexalate 46.a pt with fluid retention related to renal
 Administer intravenous normal problem is admitted to the hospital. The
saline with furosemide nurse realizes that this pt could possibly
 Administer intravenous fluids have which of the following electrolyte
 Restrict fluids. imbalance?
 Hypernatremia
 Hypocalcemia
 Hypokalemia
 Hypermagnesemia
47. An elderly pt comes into the clinic with  R alkalosis
the complaint of watery diarrhea for several  R acidosis
days with abdominal & muscle cramping.
The nurse realizes that this pt is 52. Upon assessment a client seems very
demonstrating which of the following? anxious and that vital signs included a
 Hypernatremia respiratory rate of 38 breaths per min.
 Hyponatremia Which acid-base imbalance should you
 Fluid volume excess suspect?
 Hyperkalemia  M acidosis
 R acidosis
48. The nurse is admitting a pt who was  M alkalosis
diagnosed with acute renal failure. Which of  R alkalosis
the following electrolytes will be most
affected with this disorder? 53.Kc is admitted in the hospital due to
 Phosphorus having lower than normal potassium level in
 Magnesium her bloodstream. Her medical history
 Potassium reveals vomiting and diarrhea prior to
 Calcium hospitalization. Which foods should the
nurse instruct the client to increase?
49. A pt is prescribed 40 meq potassium as  Whole grain and nuts
a replacement. The nurse realizes that this  Orange juice and bananas
replacement should be administered  Milk products and green,
 Via a rectal suppository leafy vegetables
 Mixed in the prescribed  Pork products and canned
intravenous fluid vegetables
 Via intramuscular injection
 Directly into the venous access line 54. Marie joy’s lab test revealed that her
serum calcium is 2.5 meq/l. Which
50. A pt’s blood gases show a ph greater assessment data does the nurse document
of when a client diagnosed with hypocalcemia
7.53 & bicarbonate level of 36 meq/l/ the develops a carpopedal spasm after the
nurse realizes that the acid-case disorder this blood pressure cuff is inflated?
pt is demonstrating is which of the  Tetany
following?
 Paresthesia
 R acidosis
 + trosseau’s sign
 R alkalosis
 + chovstek’s sign
 M alkalosis*
 M acidosis 55. Lab tests revealed that patient z’s NA is
170 meq/l. Which clinical manifestation
51. an elderly postoperative pt is would nurse sheree expect to assess?
demonstrating lethargy, confusion, & a resp  Fruity breath and kussmaul’s
rate of 8 per min. The nurse sees that the last respiration
dose of pain medication administered via a pt  Muscle twitching and tetany
controlled anesthesia pump was within 30  Tented skin turgor and thirst
mins. Which of the following acid-base  Muscle weakness
disorders might this pt be experiencing? and paresthesia
 M alkalosis
 M acidosis
56. A client with very dry mouth, skin and  A primary respiratory acidosis
mucus membrane is diagnosed of having  Hypoxemia
dehydration. Which prioritized intervention 61. An elderly pt does not complain of
should the nurse perform when caring for a thirst, what should the nurse do to assess
client diagnosed with fluid volume deficit? that this patient is not hydrated?
 Assessing urinary intake and output  Assess the urine for osmolality*
 Obtaining the client’s weight weekly  Ask the physician for an order for a
at different times of the day brain scan
 Monitor abg result  Ask the physician to order a chest x-
 Maintaining IV therapy at the KVO ray
rate  Ask the physician for an order to
begin intravenous fluid replacement.
57. Genevieve is diagnosed with
hypomagnesemia, which nursing 62. Which of the following fluid
intervention would be appropriate? compartments contains the largest volume
 Instituting seizure precaution of water
to prevent injury  ICF compartment
 Avoiding the use of tight  Plasma
tourniquet when drawing blood  Interstitial compartment
 Teaching the client the importance  ECF compartment
of early ambulation
 Instructing the client on 63. Which of the ff individuals would have
the importance of preventing the largest percentage of their body weight
infection as water?
 A small 7 yr old female
 A lean 35 yr old athlete
58. Which electrolyte would the nurse  A healthy 88 yr old male
identify as the major electrolyte responsible  An adult female marathon runner
for determining the concentration of the
extracellular fluid? 64. Which of the ff people would be
 Potassium most severely affected by prolonged
 Calcium vomiting?
 Phosphate  35 yr old male
 Sodium  3 yr old male
 15 yr old male
59.john has a potassium level of 6.5 meq/l,  50 yr old female
which medication would nurse wilma
anticipate? 65. Predominant intracellular cation is
 Calcium gluconate  Sodium
 Potassium supplements  Chloride
 Sodium tables  Potassium
 Kayexalate  Calcium
60. In a long-standing metabolic acidosis, 66. The distribution of sodium and
the respiratory rate may increase. This is an potassium ions between intracellular and
example of: extracellular compartment is
 Compensation  Equal amounts of both ions, in both
 Mixed acidosis intracellular and extracellular fluids
 Potassium mainly intra;
sodium mainly extra*
 Little of either intra but large
amounts of both extra
 Sodium mainly intra’
potassium mainly extra
67. The sensation or thirst results from:
 An increase in plasma volume
 Hypertension (increase
blood pressure)
 A decrease in the osmolality of
the extracellular fluid
 Stimulation of osmoreceptor cells
in the hypothalamus
68. A person working in the hot sun loses
the greatest amount of water from the
 Skin
 GI tract
 Urine
 Lungs
69.A falling blood ph and a rising
concentration of carbon dioxide due to
emphysema, indicates
 M acidosis
 R alkalosis
 R acidosis
 M alkalosis
70. The flow of a fluid such as blood through
an organ or tissue is called
 Perfusion
 Osmosis
 Metabolism
 Diffusion
11/19/2020 Formative Assessment Oxy-Respi Skills: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
Formative Assessment Oxy-Respi Skills

Due No due date Points 10 Questions 10
Available Nov 14 at 7am - Nov 21 at 11:59pm 8 days Time Limit 20 Minutes
Instructions
Good day.
Choose the best answer.
Good luck.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

Submitted Nov 19 at 5:10pm
https://feu.instructure.com/courses/51591/quizzes/471627 1/6
Deep ventilation may loosen secretions, and coughing can facilitate their
removal.
TRUE
FALSE
PARTLY FALSE
PARTLY TRUE
All of the following are steps to consider in preparing the site for pulse
oximetry reading except;
Nail polish must ne removed because it may interfere with accurate

measurements.
Cleanse the site with alcohol wipe before applying the sensor.
position the sensor on the side of the finger rather than perpendicular to
the nail bed.
Nail polosh or acrylic nails may not be removed when taking the pulse
oximetry reading.
Which action indicates that the client understands teaching on the correct
way to perform diaphragmatic breathing?
having hands over head
lying on side with knees bent
lying prone
The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in

the lungs. The difference between the procedure is;
Percussion delivers cushione blows to the chest with cupped palms while
vibration gently shakes secretion loose on the exhalation cycle.
Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions while vibrationshakes the

secretions along with the inhalation of air.
Percussion uses only one hand while vibration uses both hands.
In both percussion and vibration, the handsare on top of each other and
hand action is in tune with the client's breath rhythm
Arrange the steps in correct order on how to apply the sensor and connect it to the pulse oximeter.
Attach the sensor cable to the connection outlet of the oximeter.
Observe for audible beep indicating each arterial pulsation.
Make sure LED and the photodetector are accurately aligned, that is opposite each other on either side of
Turn on the machine.
V. Ensure that the bar of light or waveform on the face of the oximeter
fluctuates with each pulsation.
IV, V, III, I, II
I, II, III, IV, V
II, I, V, IV, III
III, I, IV, II, V
In using incentive spirometer, greater lung expansion is achieved with a;
shallow breath
brisk breath
very slow expiration
very slow inspiration
The nurse is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which of the following is an important
Percussion and postural drainage should always be preceded by 3

minutes of 100% oxygen.
The order should be coughing, percussion, positioning and then

suctioning.
Percussion and postural drainage should be done before the lunch
A good time to perform percussion and postural drainage is in the morning

after breakfast when the client is swell rested.
In doing incentive spirometry, intermittent elevation of the balls or cylinder

ensures adequate ventilation of the alveoli (ling air sacs).
PARTLY FALSE
FALSE
PARTLY TRUE
TRUE
You are a student nurse assigned to do suctioning to your patient. When suctioning, you must limit the suc
1 minute
30 seconds
5 seconds
10 seconds
The home care nurse is performing chest physiotherapy on an elderly client with chronic airflow limitati
should the nurse take first?
Percuss each lobe prior to asking the client to cough.
Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
Auscultate the chest prior to beginning of the procedure.
Perform chest physiotherapy prior to meals.
It is higly recommended that clients with asthma, chronic bronchitis and emphysema have
Pneumovax and flu vaccinations for which of the following reasons?
-respiratory infections can cause severe hypoxia and possibly death in these
clients
Sevio Evangelista, a 60 year old Filipino client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New York,
Cubao. He was rushed to Cardinal Medical Center and was unconscious. You are his nurse and
you are to suction his secretion. In which position should you have place Mr. Evangelista?
-Side lying
A 7 year old client is brought to the E.R. Hes tachypneic and afebrile and has a respitory rate of
36 breaths/minute and a non productive cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the
client may have which of the following
-Acute asthma
There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation
is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?
-consider this as normal findings
A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased
expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right
away?
-Bronchodilators
Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia
-Client is frequentlu turning from side to side
An 18 year old comes into emergency department with acute asthma. His respiratory rate is 44
breathes per minute, and he appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Which of the following
actions should be taken first?
-Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer
The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD uses:
-cannula
Which of the following, if done by the nurse indicates incompetence during sunctioning an
unconscious client?
-Measure the length of the suction cathether to be inserted by measuring from the
tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xyphoid process
Hemoglobin also carries carbon dioxide in the form of

-carboxyhemoglobin
Fluid between pleura permitting smooth motion of lungs

-pleural fluid
It is simply mean “percent oxygen”

-Fraction of Inspired Oxygen(FIO2)
Gas exchange takes place in the

-alveoli
The area between lungs is known as the

-mediastinum

-Dorsal respitaroy group

-Oxyhemoglobin
Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea and bronchi are the parts of the respiratory system
-True
Which of the following is NOT the function of the respiratory system?

-Protection against blood loss
The process of gaseous exchange in the body

-Respiration
A slightly female client with a history of allergy induced asthma, hypertension and mitral valve
prolapse id admitted to an acute facility for elective surgery. the nurse obtains a complete history
and performs a thorough physical examination, paying special attention to the cardiovascular and
respiratory system. When percussing the client’s chest wall the nurse expect to elicit
-Resonant sound
Nurse Fatima is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy, which of the following signs
if noticed in the client,should be reported immediately to the physician
-Bronchospasm
The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercise. Which of
the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
-Use diaphragmatic breathing
A female client is undergoing a complete physical examination as requirement for the college.
When checking the clients respiratory status,the nurse observes respiratory excursion to help
assess
-chest movements
A male client abruptly sits up in bed reports having difficulty of breathing and has arterial
oxygen saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the
manifestation
-Non rebreather mask
When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory distress
syndrome(ARDS) which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is
effective?
-The patient’s PaO2 is 90 mmHg,and the SaO2 is 92%
After receiving change of shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first?
-A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retraction
Which is a classic finding with ARDS

-Hypoxemia despite increased oxygen administration
The most common early clinical manifestation or ARDS that the nurse may observe are
-dyspnea and tachypnea
Maintenance of fluid balance in the patient with ARDS involves

-fluid restriction and diuretics as necessary
A whistling sound heard on auscultation with asthmatics clients when breathing out is
-wheezing
It provides relief from acute asthma symptoms

-quick relief medications
COPD is a non specific term referring to a set of conditions that develops abruptly as a result of
a number of different processes
-FALSE
Common asthma triggers include the following except

-genetics
Chronic bronchitis is characterized by a persistent mucus producing cough in most days of the
month in absence of secondary cause of cough
-3 months of a year for 2 consecutive years
The narrowing of the airways in asthma is caused by

-inflammation of the airways
It is a chronic dilatation of bronchi or bronchioles

-Bronchiectasis
It is the obstruction of the pulmonary artery or one of its branches by a blood clot that
originates somewhere in the venous system or in the right side of heart
-Pulmonary Embolism
Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

-nasal cannula
Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% oxygen t 15 LPM?
Non re-breather mask
Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occurs in the lung parenchyma
allows pneumonia to develop?
Inflammation
Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client
suspected of having the disorder?
Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing
A 59-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes a day has a
chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this
information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?
Chronic Obstruction Bronchitis
Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang Nestor’s pleura?
8th ICS
Mang Nestor, a 50-year-old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R. because of difficulty in
breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was orders. What does C.T.T. stands for?
Closed Tube Thoracotomy
The term “pink buffer” refers to the client with which of the following conditions?
Emphysema
There are four catheter sizes available to use, which one of these should you use for Mr.
Evangelista?
Fr. 18
Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

Nasal Cannula
An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following symptoms first?
Altered mental status and dehydration
Andrew, a new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory
distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Andrew will:
Put a non-rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Evangelista. Using portable suction
equipment, how much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus
membrane and airways in case of portable suction units?
10-15 mmHg
Which of the following types of asthma involves an acute asthma attack brought on by an upper
respiratory infection?
Intrinsic
Instructions
Instructions: Choose the correct answer.
Good luck and God Bless.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

Decreased Factor VIII
Factor VII Disease
Thalassemia
Hemophilia
Von Willebrand's Disease
Reduced production of globin chains.
Factor VII Disorder
hemophilia
Thalassemia
The goal of the therapy is to maintain the normal hemoglobin levels by the
administration of blood transfusion.
Factor VII Disease
Thalassemia
Hemophilia
DIC is a disorder in which
the coagulation pathway is genetically altered, leading to thrombus

formation in all major blood vessels.
an underlying disease depletes hemolytic factors in the blood, leading to

diffuse thrombotic episodes and infarcts.
an inherited predisposition causes a deficiency of clotting factors that leads

to overstimulation of coagulation processes in the vasculature.
a disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant thrombosis, as well as depletion of clotting fa
clotting and hemorrhage.
Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of

hemostasis:
coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm
vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
The client having a cardiac catheterization. Which of ff cardiac conditions does a 4th heart
During the procedure the client tells the nurse. sound indicate?
“I’m feeling really hot.” Which response would
be best? - Failure of ventricle to eject all blood
systole
- That feeling of warmth is normal when
the dye is injected” It is a procedure that involves taking a sample of
liquid part of the soft tissue inside your bone.
Which of the following is the main pacemaker
of the heart? - Bone marrow aspiration
- SA Node The normal sodium level in the blood is
From the right anterior chamber of the heart, - 135-145 mEq/L

the blood goes to the pulmonary circulation via
It is used early in the course of myocardial
- Pulmonic Artery infraction within 4-6 hours to restore blood flow
Which of the following are semilunar valve? - Thrombolytic medications
- Aortic and pulmonic It prevents the extension and formation of

blood clots and decreases blood coagulability.
Which of the following is the innermost layer of
the heart muscle? - Anticoagulant
- Endocardium It is an antidote for warfarin sodium
Ms. Dela Cruz accompanied her daughter to ER, - Vitamin K

all of diagnostic listed below are crucial in heart The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are
attack except: as effective as antianginals because they do
- Ct Scan what
Nurse sarah is assigned to perform ecg, the - Decrease heart rate and decrease
electrical activity for contraction of heart is by: myocardial contractility
- SA Node A client is to be discharged home with a

transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which
A thorough p.a and diagnostic exam was instruction will the nurse include in the client’s
scheduled, auscultation of heart sound can teaching plan?
reveal:
- Apply the patch to a non hairy area of
- Heart rate, rhythm, murmur the upper torso or arm
Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system A nurse is monitoring a client with angina for
produces: therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Which
- Tachycardia assessment findings indicates that the
nitroglycerin has been effective.
- client stating that pain is 0 out of 10

which client assessment would assist the nurse The pain experienced by patient with
in evaluating therapeutic effects of a calcium myocardial insufficiency is due to?
channel blocker?
- Lactic acidosis
- Clients states that she has no chest
pain Which of the following enzymes are being
checked in patients with myocardial infarction?
A client has heart failure and is prescribed Lasix.
The nurse is aware that furosemide (Lasix) is - Troponin
what kind of drug? Risk factors to consider in the development of
- High-ceiling (loop) diuretic. coronary artery disease
When prone positioning is used in the care of a - High cholesterol diet

patient with acute respiratory distress What is the drug of choice to relieve the pain
syndrome, which information obtained by the experienced by clients with heart attack?
nurse indicates that the positioning is effective?
- Morphine sulfate
- The patient’s PaO2 is 90 mm Hg, and
Sa02 is 92% The normal potassium level in the blood is
After receiving change of shirt report which - 3.5-5.0 mEq/L

patient will the nurse assess first?
Warfarin sodium suppresses coagulation by
- A patient with septicemia who has acting as an antagonist to
intercostal and suprasternal
- Vitamin K
retractions
It is used early in the course of myocardial
Which is a classic finding for a patient with
infarction within 4-6 hours to restore blood flow
ARDS?
- Thrombolytic medications
- Hypoxemia despite increased oxygen
administration A venogram is used to diagnose
The most common early clinical manifestation - Deep vein thrombosis

of ARDS that the nurse may observe
It does not dissolve blood clots but prevents
- dyspnea and tachypnea new thrombus formation
maintenance of fluid balance in the patient with - Heparin sodium
ARDS involves
It is the visualization of lymphatics and lymph
- fluid restriction and diuretics as nodes by radiography following the
necessary intralymphatic injection of a contract medium
nurse kate is giving nitroglycerin tablets - Lymphography
sublingually for chest pain for a client with
It is considered as the major cause of
angina pectoris. The it causes headache. Which
emphysema
of the following interpretations about the
client’s statement is the appropriate response? - Cigarette smoking
- This is a common response that will
diminish as tolerance to the
medication develops
It is a severe decrease concentration of oxygen information will be of most concern to the
in the blood nurse?
- Hypoxemia - The patient is somnolent
The type of pulmonary emphysema that is most Which of the following system is the most likely
common and affects the upper lung region origin of pain the client describes as knifelike
chest pain that increases in intensity with
- Centrilobular emphysema
inspiration?
The following are signs and symptoms of
- Pulmonary
pulmonary emphysema except
After an anterior wall myocardial infarction
- Bradycardia
which of the following problems is indicated by
It is a type of pulmonary emphysema which
- Left-sided heart failure
affects the lower lung and forms a bleb.
A patient presents to the ER with complaints of
- Paraseptal emphysema
chest pain and body malaise. Which of the
Which patient is most likely going into following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to
respiratory failure? other cardiovascular diseases?
- A patient with the following arterial - Cardiomyopathy

blood gas values over the past 3 hours:
When examining a patient with pericarditis, a
ph 7.50, 7.45, and 7.40
pericardial friction rub is detected. What a
What distinguishes hypercapnic respiratory distinguishes a pericardial friction rub from a
failure from hypoxemic respiratory failure pleural friction rub?
- Acidemia for which the body cannot - A pericardial friction rub can still be
compensate detected with the cessation of
breathing
Which is a proper nursing action for a patient in
acute respiratory failure A patient is having difficulty understanding the
complication of additional fluid surround the
- Provide chest physical therapy for
heart. They report that “having extra fluid
patients who produce more that 30 mL
means extra protection around their heart”
of sputum per day
what information would best used to educate
A patient has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective the patient on their condition
airway clearance related to thick secretions.
- More fluid is surrounding the heart
Which action will be best for the nurse to
allows for less blood to fill the heart to
include in the plan of care?
be pumped out leading to poor
- Offer the patient fluids at frequent circulation
intervals
Deep vein thrombosis results from the
When admitting a patient in possible respiratory formation of
failure with a high PaCO2 which assessment
- Blood clots in the deep vein
It is the inflammation of the deep vein of lower For a patient with advance chronic obstructive
extremities and pelvis veins pulmonary disease which nursing action best
promotes adequate gas exchange?
- Deep vein thrombosis
- Using a high-flow venturi mask to
Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot
deliver oxygen as prescribe
- Homan’s sign
A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the
Build up of fatty substances in the wall of the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?
arteries.
- Applying a dressing over the wound
- Arteriosclerosis and taping it on three sides
An individual who lives at a high altitude may Nurse Cathy instructs a female client to use the
normally have an increased RBC count because pursed-lip method of breathing and the client
asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of
- Hypoxia caused by decreased
breathing. The nurse responds knowing that the
atmospheric oxygen stimulates
primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to
erythropoiesis.
- Promote carbon dioxide elimination
Which one of the following groups consist of
granulocytes An emergency room nurse is assessing a male
client who has sustained a blunt injury to the
- Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
chest wall. Which of these signs would indicate
The average functional lifespan of an RBC is the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
- 100-120 days - Diminished breath sounds
Which antigens does type AB blood contain While changing the tape and dressing on a
tracheostomy tube the male patient coughs and
- A and B antigens the tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action
is to
Which of these blood types carries no antigens
- Grasp the retention sutures to spread
- Blood type AB
the opening
It is the narrowing and hardening of arteries
On assessment of a patient receiving treatment
that supplies the peripheral extremities
for infective endocarditis, you find tender, red
- Atherosclerosis lesions on the patient’s hands and feet. This is
known as:
The most common type of aneurysm that
projects from one side of the vessel - Osler’s node
- Saccular aneurysm When the ventricle is unable to properly fill with

blood because it is too stiff and the blood backs
It is the hallmark of peripheral arterial occlusive up into the lungs causing the patient to
disorder experience shortness of breath, what type of
- Intermittent claudication heart failure is described?
- Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction

Which of the following is NOT a typical sign and Which of the following enzymes are being
symptom of right-sided heart failure? checked in patients with Myocardial Infarction?
- Crackles - Troponin
A patient is having difficulty understanding the Risk factor to consider in the development of
complication of additional fluid surround the Coronary Artery Disease
heart. They report that “having extra fluid
means extra protection around their heart”. - Morphine Sulfate
What information would be best used to Which of these blood types carries no antigens:
educate the patient on their condition.
- Blood type O
- More fluid is surrounding the heart
allows for less blood to fill the heart to Which of the following data is most important
be pumped out leading to poor to elicit during the interview once with this kind
circulation. of diagnosis of to “rule out aplastic anemia”?
It competitively block the effects of histamine - Exposure to chemical and drugs

H1-receptor sites, has atropine-like, antipruritic
You are taking care of a patient with Iron-
and sedative effects
deficiency anemia and is prescribed with
- Antihistamine ferrous gluconate. As a nurse, what specific
instruction should you give?
surgical creation of stoma/ opening into trachea
- The stool may be very dark which can
- Tracheostomy mask blood
Bypasses the upper airways and the glottis, Which of the following characterizes sickle cell
making stabilization, suction and the anemia?
attachment of respi equipment
- Disc shaped or crescent moon shaped
- Tracheostomy RBC
Pressurized, handheld devices that uses What B vitamin is lacking that contributes to the
propellants to deliver doses of med to the lungs development of Pernicious anemia
- metered dose inhalers - B12
Ordered for patients is Acute Respi Distress and Insufficient folate in the body will lead to what
is often used in an intensive care situation hematologic disorder?
- mechanical ventilation - Megaloblastic Anemia
Which of the following symptoms should the Mr. de Guzman was diagnosed with leukemia.
nurse teach the client with unstable angina to His laboratory results indicate bone marrow
report immediately to her physician? depression. The nurse should encourage him to:
- A change in the pattern of her pain - Drink citrus juices frequently for
nourishment
The goal of the therapy is to maintain the Blood in the pulmonary arteries:
normal hemoglobin levels by the administration
of blood transfusion. - is heading towards the lungs
- Thalassemia In the cardiac conduction system, after the

sinoatrial node(SA) node, the signal of electrical
Which lab result would the nurse expect in the impulses then passes to:
client diagnosed with DIC?
- the atrioventricular (AV) node
- A low fibrinogen level
The amount of blood pumped by the ventricles
Decreased Factor VIII in liters per minute
- Von Willebrand's Disease - cardiac output
Joint bleeding causing pain In ECG, this represents ventricular muscle
depolarization
- Hemophilia
- QRS complex
DIC is a disorder in which
These drugs are used in the treatment of
- a disease process stimulates
hypertension. They prevent peripheral
coagulation processes with resultant
vasoconstriction by blocking the conversion of
thrombosis, as well as depletion of
angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
clotting factors, leading to diffuse
clotting and hemorrhage. - Ace inhibitors
Reduced production of globin chains. A non invasive test in which the client wears a
holter monitor and an ECG tracing recorded
- Thalassemia continuously over a period of 24 hours
Which one of the following represents the - Holter monitoring
proper sequence of hemostasis:
When providing teachings for the patient with
- Vascular spasm, platelet plug iron-deficiency anemia prescribed with iron
formation, coagulation
supplements, you should instruct him to take
Which client would be most at risk for the iron with which beverage?
developing disseminated intravascular
- orange juice
coagulation (DIC)?
In evaluating the laboratory data of the patient
- A 78 year old client with septicaemia
with suspected aplastic anemia, which findings
Maxillary prominence is a manifestation of: support the diagnosis?
- Thalassemia - Reduced RBCs, reduced white blood

cells (WBCs), and reduced platelets
The lining of the inner walls of the heart’s
chambers is termed as the:
- Endocardium
As a nurse performing an assessment to a client A murmur is heard at the second left intercostal
diagnosed with pernicious anemia, which of the space along the left sternal border. Which valve
following findings would you expect to note in is this?
this client?
- Pulmonic
- beefy tongue
Weight gain, distended neck veins,
Which assessment component would elicit hepatomegaly and splenomegaly, dependent
specific information regarding the client's left- peripheral edema are clinical signs of :
sided heart function?
- right sided heart failure
- Listening to lung sounds
A client comes into the emergency department
The force against which the ventricle must expel with complaints of crushing chest pain that
blood is termed as? radiates to his shoulder and left arm. The
admitting diagnosis is acute myocardial
- Afterload
infarction. Immediate admission orders include
A fourth heart sound (S4) indicate which of the oxygen by NC at 4L/minute, blood work, chest
following cardiac conditions? x- ray, an ECG, and 2 mg of morphine given
intravenously. The nurse should first:
- Failure of the ventricle to eject all of
the blood during systole - administer Morphine
The lining of the inner walls of the heart’s In the treatment of hypertension, the most
important long-term goal for a client would be
chambers is termed as the:
to:
- Endocardium
These medications maximize cardiac - make commitment for long term

performance in patients with heart failure by therapy
increasing ventricular contractility?
Which of the following blood tests is most
- Inotropic agents indicative of cardiac damage?
Visual disturbance is the most common sign of - Troponin I

toxicity of which of the following medications?
the community health nurse is instructing a
- Digoxin group of female clients about breast Self-
examination. The nurse would instruct the
Jugular vein distention is most prominent in
clients to perform the examination
which of the following disorders?
- 5 days after menstruation begins
- Heart Failure
The client reports to the nurse that when
As a nurse, you are aware that Nitroglycerin is
performing breast self-exam, she found a lump
prescribed as an initial step in treating angina.
in ductal area the size of a pea. The most
You are also aware that this drug’s principal
appropriate response to the client is which of
effects are produced by:
the following
- Vasodilation
- That’s important to report even though
it might not be serious
The nurse is caring for a client following a
modified radical mastectomy which assessment
finding would indicate that the client is
experiencing a complication related to the
surgery?
- Arm edema on the operative side
The nurse is preparing a client for a

mammography. The nurse tells the client
- To avoid the use of deodorants powders

or creams on the day of the test.
Best exercises appropriate for client who

undergo Modified radical mastectomy would be
- Brushing of hair
A client complained of nodule in the breast that

is fixed other deviation that should be reported
would be all
- Evident asymmetry
What would the nurse anticipate findings into

the health history of client diagnose with
cervical cancer?
- Irregular menses
Which of the following would predispose a risk

for cervical cancer
- Early coitus
Nurse jhoeylene is conducting a health teaching

about cancer prevention. Highest risk in breast
cancer would be: EXCEPT
- Multipara
Jasmin is an oncology nurse at TMC. She

handled a client with breast CA. what would be
your initial independent nursing intervention to
a client complaining of severe DOB related to an
enlarging tumor of the breast.
- Place client on semi fowlers position

Formative Assessment 2 MCQ
Due Dec 17 at 11:59pm Points 10 Questions 10 Time Limit None
Instructions
Select the best answer:
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 1 minute 10 out of 10

Submitted Dec 4 at 6:22am
This attempt took 1 minute.
A new growth of tissue resulting from a continuous proliferation of

abnormal cell. That invade and destroys other tissues:1
Correct! Cancer
Muscle
Cell
Tissue
Cancri is aword, which means crab
Spanish
Correct! Latin
English
Greek
Cell suicide means..
Tumor
Metastasis
Angiogenesis
Correct! Apoptosis
Administrative center of the cell and its serves as the information

processing
Correct! Nucleus
Mitochondria
RNA
DNA
The main power generator of the cell that converts O2 and nutrients into
energy
Nucleus
RNA
DNA
Correct! Mitochondria
Cell division is.
Apoptosis
Carcinogenesis
Correct! Mitosis
Angiogenesis
A substance, situation or exposure that can damage a genetic material

{DNA}
Mitochondria
Angiogenesis
Cell Division
Correct! Carcinogen
Refers to a rapid growth and reproduction of cells
Correct! Proliferation
Promotion
Metastasis
Initiation
A characteristics of a cancer cells that invade or spread other tissues or to
other distant site is
Initiation
Promotion
Correct! Metastasis
Proliferation
In cell cycle it is known as the resting phase
Correct! G0
G2
G1
G3

Module 5_Formative Assessment 10

Available Oct 27 at 12am - Dec 6 at 11:59pm about 1 month Time Limit 20 Minutes
Instructions
Choose the BEST answer.
This quiz was locked Dec 6 at 11:59pm.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

Most common causative agent of UTI.
Aedes Aegypti
Correct! E. coli
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except:
Toxoplasmosis
Correct! Striae Gravidarum
Candida Albicans
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Clinical manifestations of Measles:
Fever, runny nose , dehydration
Petechaie, Koplik’s spots , coryza
Correct! Conjunctivitis, coryza , Koplik’s spots
Koplik’s spots, hepatomegaly, rashes

Diagnostic Test, NAATs means?
None of the above
Correct! Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests

Nucleic Acid Amplified Tests
Nucleic Acid Amplifier Tests
Mode of transmission of Measles.
Sexual Contact
Droplet
Direct Contact
Correct! Airborne
The following are treatments for Nephrotic Syndrome, except:
Correct! Fluid therapy
Anticoagulants
Diuretics
Blood pressure medications
A treponemal antibody diagnostic test for Syphilis.
Thayer Martin Culture
Correct! FTA-ABS Test
Eliza Test
Swab Test
Drug or medication of choice for patient diagnosed with Syphilis
Foladin
Correct! Benzathine Penicillin
Obimin
Natalac
A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick,

cottage cheese-like exudates and oral thrush.
CMV
Pneumocystis Carini
Herpes Simplex
Correct! Candida Albicans
Patients diagnosed with DM type 1 are mostly, except one:
b. Within ideal body weight but mostly thin
a. Juvenile
c. Young onset
Correct! d. Obese
Medication prescribed for patient with Gonorrhea:
Correct! Ceftriaxone Sodium
Metformin
Simvastatin
Thiazide
Chicken pox is also called as.
German Measles
Rubella
Correct! Varicella
Rubeola
What is the cause of Ulcerative Colitis?
Unknown but it can be an autoimmune condition.
Environment
Correct! All of the above
Genetics
Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many nonjoint structures, except:
Heart
Kidneys
Correct! Genitalia
Lungs
Management for patient diagnosed with Measles, except one:
MMR vaccine
Correct! Trendelenburg Position
Antipyretics
Vitamin A supplementation
Multiple Sclerosis is best described as:
People have long-term nerve damage.
A person's own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing

muscle weakness
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and
spreading to your upper body and arms.
Correct! Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
Medication of choice for Varicella:
Oresol
Pen G
Acinlovir
Correct! Acyclovir
What is the etiologic agent of genital warts?
GWV
MMR
Correct! HPV
CMV
Incubation period of AIDS.

Median 10-12 months
Median 10-12 days
Correct! Median 10-12 years
10 days and above
Most of common neoplasm and an HIV associated malignancies:
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Correct! Kaposis Sarcoma
Cryptococcus Neoformans
Candida Albicans

Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

Submitted Nov 6 at 10:58am
1. Which of the following system is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest p
inspiration?
Cardiac
Gastrointestinal
Musculoskeletal
Correct! Pulmonary
2. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by
Correct! Left-sided heart failure
3. A patient presents to the ER with complaints of chest pain and body malaise. Which of the following h
other cardiovascular diseases?
Correct! Cardiomyopathy
4. When examining a patient with pericarditis, a pericardial friction rub is detected. What a distinguishes a
Pericardial friction rub is a palpable vibration on the anterior chest wall that
is in tandem with the apical pulse.
A pleural friction rub only appears upon inspiration when the thoracic cavity
expands.
Correct!
A pericardial friction rub can still be detected with the cessation of
breathing.
A pleural friction rub can only be detected laterally.

5. A patient is having difficulty understanding the complication of additional fluid surround the heart. Th
best used to educate the patient on their condition.
The sack of fluid is pooling blood that needs to go into circulation.
Correct!
More fluid is surrounding the heart allows for less blood to fill the heart to
be pumped out leading to poor circulation.
The bacteria in the pericardial sack are being pumped out throughout the
body and need tobe eliminated.
The sack will compress the lungs, leading to less expansion causing shortness of breath.

Due No due date Points 5 Questions 5 Time Limit None
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 1 minute 5 out of 5

Submitted Nov 6 at 11:08am
This attempt took 1 minute.
An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased

RBC count because
high altitudes cause vascular fluid loss, leading to hemoconcentration.
Correct!
hypoxia caused by decreased atmospheric oxygen stimulates
erythropoiesis.
the function of the spleen in removing old RBCs is impaired at high

altitudes.
impaired production of leukocytes and platelets leads to proportionally

higher red cell counts.
Which one of the following groups consist of granulocytes:
Correct! neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
lymphocytes and monocytes
eosinophils and monocytes
basophils and eosinophils
neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils
The average functional lifespan of an RBC is:
20-30 days
50-75 days
Correct! 100-120 days
one year
the body's lifetime

Which antigen(s) does type AB blood contain:
A antigen
B antigen
Correct! A and B antigens
sometimes A antigens, other times B antigens
no antigens
Which of these blood types carries no antigens:
blood type A
blood type B
blood type AB
blood types A,B, and AB
Correct! blood type O

11/11/2020 Module 5_Formative Assessment 9: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
Due Nov 14 at 11:59pm Points 20 Questions 20

Available Oct 27 at 12am - Nov 26 at 11:59pm about 1 month Time Limit 20 Minutes
Instructions
Hello my dear students :) Please
select the best option :)
#enjoylearning
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

What is the causative agent for Pulmoary Tuberculosis?
Correct! Mycobaterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium Aves
Mycobacterium Bovis
Mycobacterium leprae
What is the mode of transmission of the MERSCOV disease?
Fecal-oral
Auto-immune
Correct! Airborne
Vector borne
Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode

of transmission has the infection agent taken?
Correct! Fecal-oral one to two weeks before onset
General susceptibility
Fecal-oral on the appearance of jaundice
Homologous after attack
The standard treatment for malaria is?
Correct! Chloroquine
Tetracycline
Ceftriaxone
Primaquine
Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission.

Which of the following can cause you to have an Ebola?
Semen, droplets, urine
Droplets and airborne
Correct!
Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, Stool,
Urine, Saliva, Semen
Stool, urine, semen
What is the causative agent of COVID 19 infection?
Corona Virus 1
COV2a
Corona Virus 2
Correct! SARS-COV 2
What is the pathognomonic symptom of cholera?
Bloody mucoid stool
Correct! Rice watery stool
Severe dehydration
Diarrhea
What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?
Entamoeba Histolytica
Clostridium Tetani
Correct! Salmonella typhosa
Vibrio El tor
What is the mode of transmission of H1N1 disease?
Correct! Coughing and sneezing
Hugging and embracing
Eating pork and beef
Sexual contact
If a tourniquet test is done to count the petechiae in an imaginary 2.5 cm

square just below the cuff, how many petechiae count is positive?
Correct! 20 or more
Exactly 20
Regardless of how many
Less than 20
After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the

following signifies that he is having pneumonia?
Correct! Chest indrawing in visible in patient
Equal chest wall expansion occurs during inspiration
Percussion is cleared over areas of pneumonia
Chest auscultation reveals bronchial breath sounds
Which of the following is the source of infection of Dengue Hemorrhagic

fever?
Party foods
Airborne droplet
Aedes Aegypti bite
Correct! Tap water of the school
Which of the following is the nursing consideration for typhoid fever?
Avoid antispasmodic and laxative
Drug of choice is chloramphenicol
Educate public about control of flies
Preventive measure to prevent getting infected with H1N1 disease is by:
Cleanse environment as always
Avoid eating fish
Correct! Receive vaccine every year
Avoid eating pork and beef
Which of the following is plasmodium specie?
ou An
nsw
were
red Aedes Aegypti
orrect Answer Malariae
Anopheles
Wuchereria Bancrofti
During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is

immediately done by the Nurse?
BCG injection
Isoniazid treatment
Correct! Collection of sputum
X-ray exam
The drug of choice for Filariasis infection is:
Ivermectin
Doxycycline
Albendazole
Correct! Hetrazan
What vector mosquito is specific to transmit plasmodium species?
orrect Answer Aedes Aygypti
Cules Mosquito
ou An
nsw
were
red Anopheles
Mansori Mosquito
Amoebiasis is also rampant now days, the nurse should give the following
instruction:
Eat fresh vegetables
Destroy breeding places of mosquito
Wash hands with water
Correct! Boil water for drinking
Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in

determining Filariasis infestation is:
Dusk and dawn
In the morning
In the afternoon
Correct! In the evening
Module 5_ Day 7_Summative Assessment_Inflammatory and Immunologic Disorders
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Oresol
Acinlovir
Acyclovir
Pen G
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission. Which of the following can cause
you to have an Ebola?
Stool, urine, semen

Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, Stool, Urine, Saliva, Semen Droplets and
airborne
Question 3
1 / 1 pts

Nucleic Acid Amplified Tests Nucleic
Acid Amplifier Tests Nucleic Acid
Amplification Tests None of the above
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Bloody mucoid stool

Severe dehydration
Diarrhea
Rice watery stool
Question 5
1 / 1 pts

All of the above
Genetics
Environment
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Aedes Aegypti
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
E. coli
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
What is the causative agent for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium Bovis
Mycobacterium Aves
Mycobaterium tuberculosis
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Primary signs of Syphilis.
Sore throat
Chancre
Hair loss
Rashes
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Anticoagulants
Blood pressure medications Diuretics
Fluid therapy
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Benzathine Penicillin
Natalac
Obimin
Foladin
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What barn animal is the predominant carrier of MERSCOV infection?
Chicken
Pingolin
Goat
Camel
Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Mansori Mosquito
Aedes Aygypti
Cules Mosquito
Anopheles
Question
13
What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A?
30 days
14 days
40 days
60 days
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the
infection agent taken?

Fecal-oral one to two weeks before onset

Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Metformin
Thiazide
Ceftriaxone Sodium
Simvastatin
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in determining Filariasis infestation is:
In the afternoon
In the morning
Dusk and dawn
In the evening
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Clostridium Tetani
Question
13
Vibrio El tor Salmonella
typhosa
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is immediately done by the Nurse?
Collection of sputum
X-ray exam
BCG injection
Isoniazid treatment
Question
19
CMV
MMR
GWV
HPV
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
The following are manifestations of dehydration except:
Poor skin turgor

Excessive thirst
Sunken eyeballs
Flushed skin
Question 21
1 / 1 pts
Acronym MMR stands for?

Mumps Measles Rubeolla vaccine
Measles Mumps Rubella vaccine
Measles Mumps Rubeolla vaccine
Mumps Measles Rubella vaccine
Question 22
1 / 1 pts
Conjunctivitis, coryza , Koplik’s spots

Petechiae, Koplik’s spots , coryza Fever,
runny nose , dehydration
Question 23
1 / 1 pts
Candida Albicans
Kaposis Sarcoma
Question
19
Question 24
1 / 1 pts
Viruses in the Ebola genus are recognizable because of their?
Unique Color
Long Filaments
Due to their oblong heads

Hooked shape
Question 25
1 / 1 pts
A person's own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing muscle weakness
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper body and arms. Disabling
disease of brain and spinal cord
Question 26
1 / 1 pts
Etiologic agent of Syphilis.
Trachomatis
Pallidum
Retro virus
Neisseria
Question 27
1 / 1 pts
Albendazole
Hetrazan
Ivermectin
Doxycycline
Question 28
1 / 1 pts
A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheese-like
exudates and oral thrush.
Candida Albicans
Herpes Simplex
CMV
Pneumocystis Carini
Question 29
1 / 1 pts
Median 10-12 days

Median 10-12 years 10
days and above Median
10-12 months
Question 30
1 / 1 pts
Receive vaccine every year Avoid

eating fish
Cleanse environment as always Avoid

eating pork and beef
Question 31
1 / 1 pts
The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes the most serious
disease as pneumonia in the lung.
Herpes Simplex
Retro virus
Toxoplamosis
Question 32
1 / 1 pts
Primaquine
Ceftriaxone
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Question 33
1 / 1 pts
After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the following signifies that he is
having pneumonia?

Chest auscultation reveals bronchial breath sounds Chest
indrawing in visible in patient
Question 34
1 / 1 pts
Striae Gravidarum
Candida Albicans
Toxoplasmosis
Question 35
1 / 1 pts

Sexual contact

Coughing and sneezing
Question 36
1 / 1 pts
b. Within ideal body weight but mostly thin d.

Obese
a. Juvenile
c. Young onset
Question 37
1 / 1 pts
COV2a
Corona Virus 2
SARS-COV 2
Corona Virus 1
Question 38
1 / 1 pts
A college student is required to be inoculated for hepatitis before beginning college. The nurse realizes
this client will be inoculated to prevent the development of:
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
Question 39
1 / 1 pts
Chicken pox is also called as:
Rubella
German Measles
Varicella Rubeola
Question 40
1 / 1 pts
A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the
disease is called:
Infected
Carrier
Contact
Suspect
Question 41
Which of the following terms refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the
relative ability of a microbe to cause disease?
Infection
Virulence
None of the given options

Susceptibility
Question 42
1 / 1 pts
A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine
discoloration. According to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client
that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?
Ethambutol
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Question 43
1 / 1 pts
Rumpel Leads Test for DHF is positive when:
No petechiae are present
20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed 15-20
petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
10-15 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
Question 44
Preventive measures for malaria least likely include:
Wearing clothing that covers the arms and legs during the daytime. c. Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils.
Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils. Planting of

Neem trees and other herbal plants.
Question 45
A child with measles (rubeola) is being admitted to the hospital. In preparing for the admission of the
child, which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
respiratory isolation
blood precautions
enteric precautions
contact precautions
Question 46
1 / 1 pts
Koplik spots are the pathognomonic signs of Measles. Student nurse understands that Pathognomonic
means:
untoward symptoms
pathology of disease
characteristic of a disease
prodromal signs
Question 47
1 / 1 pts
Emy is a 4- year old child who developed chicken pox. At the late stage of life she is expected to
develop:
Shigella
Varicella
Small pox
Chicken pox
Shingles
Question 48
1 / 1 pts
During the interview Rina stated that vesicles of chicken pox grows from to - -.
● head
● Chest
● Toes
● Distal Parts
● Arms
● Abdomen
● 33116
1,2
2,4
2,3
1,3
6,5
Question 49
During inspection you noted for the progression of lesion of chicken pox as:
Macules, papules, vesicles, pustules, crusts, scabs, pock marks Pustules,

Vesicles, Macules, Papules, Scabs, Crusts, Pock Marks Macules, Pustules,
Papules, Scabs, Vesicles, crusts, pock marks Papules, Macules, Vesicles,
Crusts, Scabs, Pustules, Pock Marks
Question 50
1 / 1 pts
Trina has jaundice and diagnosed with Hepatitis E. She asks the nurse how to prevent the
transmission of disease to her family members?
Do not engage in unprotected sex with your husband. Do

not share needles with family
Do not donate blood.

Do not share eating utensils.
Question 51
Trina would like to know what diet is best for patients like her with Hepatitis E. The nurse’s best
response is:
high carbohydrates, low protein, high caloric low

salt, low fat
high fiber diet

high calorie, high carbohydrate, high protein
Question 52
The cause of multiple sclerosis is unknown but there are risk factors that may contribute to the
development of the disease. Select all that applies.
Asian
Catholic
History of Epstein-Barr infection
If one of your parents or siblings has had the disease Men

Women
20 and 40 years of age.
Question 53
Patient MS will undergo diagnostic test that will record the electrical signals produced by your nervous
system in response to stimuli. This means she will be undergoing .
Spinal tap (lumbar puncture) Blood

tests
MRI
Evoked potential tests
Question 54
1 / 1 pts
Patient with multiple sclerosis is experiencing electric-shock sensations that occur with certain neck
movements, especially bending the neck forward. This is characterized as:
Lhermitte sign
Risus Sardonicus sign
Kernig's sign Brudzinski
Sign
Question 55
1 / 1 pts
Guillain-Barré syndrome is usually treated with immune system treatments, which help your child's
immune system go back to working normally. These include the following. Select all the applies.
Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)
Atropine
edrophonium test
Mestinon
Immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG)
Question 56
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following diagnostic test for Myasthenia gravis is both intented to diagnose and manage
signs and symptoms
edrophonium test.
Electrodiagnostics
mRI
Blood test
Women
Question 57
1 / 1 pts
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is an inflammatory bowel disease. It causes irritation, inflammation, and ulcers
in the lining of your large intestine. There are many types of UC. Please select all that applies.

Gastritis
Pancreatitis
Proctosigmoiditis
Left-sided colitis
Cholecystitis
Pancolitis
Ulcerative proctitis
Question 58
1 / 1 pts
This test indicates your child's average blood sugar level for the past three months.
Random blood sugar test.

Hemoglucotest
Fasting blood sugar test. Glycated

hemoglobin (A1C) test.
Question 59
1 / 1 pts
Client DM is manifesting the following signs and symptoms:

● Increased thirst
● Frequent urination
● Bed-wetting in children who previously didn't wet the bed during the night
● Extreme hunger
● Unintended weight loss
● Irritability and other mood changes
● Fatigue and weakness
● Blurred vision
Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient caloric intake to meet growth and development
needs and the inability of the body to use nutrients
Risk for infection related to elevated glucose levels.

Risk for impaired skin integrity related to slow healing process and decreased circulation. Risk for
injury related to blurred vision
Question 60
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following is the pathognomonic sign of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Butterfly-shaped rash
Joint pain photosensitivity
Raynaud's phenomenon
Module 5_ Day 7_Summative Assessment_Inflammatory and Immunologic Disorders
Question 1
1 / 1 pts
Oresol
Acinlovir
Acyclovir
Pen G
Question 2
1 / 1 pts
Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission. Which of the following can cause
you to have an Ebola?
Stool, urine, semen

Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, Stool, Urine, Saliva, Semen Droplets and
airborne
Question 3
1 / 1 pts

Nucleic Acid Amplified Tests Nucleic
Acid Amplifier Tests Nucleic Acid
Amplification Tests None of the above
Question 4
1 / 1 pts
Bloody mucoid stool

Severe dehydration
Diarrhea
Rice watery stool
Question 5
1 / 1 pts

All of the above
Genetics
Environment
Question 6
1 / 1 pts
Aedes Aegypti
Staphylococcus
Gonococcus
E. coli
Question 7
1 / 1 pts
What is the causative agent for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium Bovis
Mycobacterium Aves
Mycobaterium tuberculosis
Question 8
1 / 1 pts
Sore throat
Chancre
Hair loss
Rashes
Question 9
1 / 1 pts
Anticoagulants
Blood pressure medications Diuretics
Fluid therapy
Question 10
1 / 1 pts
Natalac
Obimin
Foladin
Question 11
1 / 1 pts
What barn animal is the predominant carrier of MERSCOV infection?
Chicken
Pingolin
Goat
Camel
Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Mansori Mosquito
Aedes Aygypti
Cules Mosquito
Anopheles
Question
13
What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A?
30 days
14 days
40 days
60 days
Question 14
1 / 1 pts
Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the

Fecal-oral one to two weeks before onset

Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Metformin
Thiazide
Ceftriaxone Sodium
Simvastatin
Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in determining Filariasis infestation is:
In the afternoon
In the morning
Dusk and dawn
In the evening
Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Clostridium Tetani
Question
13
Vibrio El tor Salmonella
typhosa
Question 18
1 / 1 pts
During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is immediately done by the Nurse?
X-ray exam
BCG injection
Isoniazid treatment
Question
19
CMV
MMR
GWV
HPV
Question 20
1 / 1 pts
The following are manifestations of dehydration except:
Poor skin turgor

Excessive thirst
Sunken eyeballs
Flushed skin
Question 21
1 / 1 pts

Mumps Measles Rubeolla vaccine
Question 22
1 / 1 pts
Conjunctivitis, coryza , Koplik’s spots

Petechiae, Koplik’s spots , coryza Fever,
runny nose , dehydration
Question 23
1 / 1 pts
Candida Albicans
Kaposis Sarcoma
Question
19
Question 24
1 / 1 pts
Viruses in the Ebola genus are recognizable because of their?
Unique Color
Long Filaments

Hooked shape
Question 25
1 / 1 pts
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper body and arms. Disabling
disease of brain and spinal cord
Question 26
1 / 1 pts
Etiologic agent of Syphilis.
Trachomatis
Pallidum
Retro virus
Neisseria
Question 27
1 / 1 pts
Albendazole
Hetrazan
Ivermectin
Doxycycline
Question 28
1 / 1 pts
Candida Albicans
Herpes Simplex
CMV
Pneumocystis Carini
Question 29
1 / 1 pts
Median 10-12 days

Median 10-12 years 10
days and above Median
10-12 months
Question 30
1 / 1 pts
Receive vaccine every year Avoid

eating fish
Cleanse environment as always Avoid

eating pork and beef
Question 31
1 / 1 pts
The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes the most serious
Herpes Simplex
Retro virus
Toxoplamosis
Question 32
1 / 1 pts
Primaquine
Ceftriaxone
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Question 33
1 / 1 pts
After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the following signifies that he is
having pneumonia?

Chest auscultation reveals bronchial breath sounds Chest
indrawing in visible in patient
Question 34
1 / 1 pts
Striae Gravidarum
Candida Albicans
Toxoplasmosis
Question 35
1 / 1 pts

Sexual contact

Question 36
1 / 1 pts
b. Within ideal body weight but mostly thin d.

Obese
a. Juvenile
c. Young onset
Question 37
1 / 1 pts
COV2a
Corona Virus 2
SARS-COV 2
Corona Virus 1
Question 38
1 / 1 pts
A college student is required to be inoculated for hepatitis before beginning college. The nurse realizes
this client will be inoculated to prevent the development of:
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B
Question 39
1 / 1 pts
Chicken pox is also called as:
Rubella
German Measles
Varicella Rubeola
Question 40
1 / 1 pts
A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and symptoms of the
disease is called:
Infected
Carrier
Contact
Suspect
Question 41
Which of the following terms refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the
relative ability of a microbe to cause disease?
Infection
Virulence

Susceptibility
Question 42
1 / 1 pts
A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine
discoloration. According to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client
that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?
Ethambutol
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Question 43
1 / 1 pts
Rumpel Leads Test for DHF is positive when:
No petechiae are present
20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed 15-20
petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
10-15 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch square are observed
Question 44
Preventive measures for malaria least likely include:
Wearing clothing that covers the arms and legs during the daytime. c. Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils.
Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils. Planting of

Neem trees and other herbal plants.
Question 45
A child with measles (rubeola) is being admitted to the hospital. In preparing for the admission of the
child, which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
respiratory isolation
blood precautions
enteric precautions
contact precautions
Question 46
1 / 1 pts
Koplik spots are the pathognomonic signs of Measles. Student nurse understands that Pathognomonic
means:
untoward symptoms
pathology of disease
characteristic of a disease
prodromal signs
Question 47
1 / 1 pts
Emy is a 4- year old child who developed chicken pox. At the late stage of life she is expected to
develop:
Shigella
Varicella
Small pox
Chicken pox
Shingles
Question 48
1 / 1 pts
During the interview Rina stated that vesicles of chicken pox grows from to - -.
● head
● Chest
● Toes
● Distal Parts
● Arms
● Abdomen
● 33116
1,2
2,4
2,3
1,3
6,5
Question 49
During inspection you noted for the progression of lesion of chicken pox as:
Macules, papules, vesicles, pustules, crusts, scabs, pock marks Pustules,

Vesicles, Macules, Papules, Scabs, Crusts, Pock Marks Macules, Pustules,
Papules, Scabs, Vesicles, crusts, pock marks Papules, Macules, Vesicles,
Crusts, Scabs, Pustules, Pock Marks
Question 50
1 / 1 pts
Trina has jaundice and diagnosed with Hepatitis E. She asks the nurse how to prevent the
transmission of disease to her family members?
Do not engage in unprotected sex with your husband. Do

not share needles with family
Do not donate blood.

Do not share eating utensils.
Question 51
Trina would like to know what diet is best for patients like her with Hepatitis E. The nurse’s best
response is:
high carbohydrates, low protein, high caloric low

salt, low fat
high fiber diet

high calorie, high carbohydrate, high protein
Question 52
The cause of multiple sclerosis is unknown but there are risk factors that may contribute to the
development of the disease. Select all that applies.
Asian
Catholic
History of Epstein-Barr infection
If one of your parents or siblings has had the disease Men

Women
20 and 40 years of age.
Question 53
Patient MS will undergo diagnostic test that will record the electrical signals produced by your nervous
system in response to stimuli. This means she will be undergoing .
Spinal tap (lumbar puncture) Blood

tests
MRI
Evoked potential tests
Question 54
1 / 1 pts
Patient with multiple sclerosis is experiencing electric-shock sensations that occur with certain neck
movements, especially bending the neck forward. This is characterized as:
Lhermitte sign
Risus Sardonicus sign
Kernig's sign Brudzinski
Sign
Question 55
1 / 1 pts
Guillain-Barré syndrome is usually treated with immune system treatments, which help your child's
immune system go back to working normally. These include the following. Select all the applies.
Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)
Atropine
edrophonium test
Mestinon
Immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG)
Question 56
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following diagnostic test for Myasthenia gravis is both intented to diagnose and manage
signs and symptoms
edrophonium test.
Electrodiagnostics
mRI
Blood test
Women
Question 57
1 / 1 pts
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is an inflammatory bowel disease. It causes irritation, inflammation, and ulcers
in the lining of your large intestine. There are many types of UC. Please select all that applies.

Gastritis
Pancreatitis
Proctosigmoiditis
Left-sided colitis
Cholecystitis
Pancolitis
Ulcerative proctitis
Question 58
1 / 1 pts
This test indicates your child's average blood sugar level for the past three months.
Random blood sugar test.

Hemoglucotest
Fasting blood sugar test. Glycated

hemoglobin (A1C) test.
Question 59
1 / 1 pts
Client DM is manifesting the following signs and symptoms:

● Increased thirst
● Frequent urination
● Bed-wetting in children who previously didn't wet the bed during the night
● Extreme hunger
● Unintended weight loss
● Irritability and other mood changes
● Fatigue and weakness
● Blurred vision
Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient caloric intake to meet growth and development
needs and the inability of the body to use nutrients
Risk for infection related to elevated glucose levels.

Risk for impaired skin integrity related to slow healing process and decreased circulation. Risk for
injury related to blurred vision
Question 60
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following is the pathognomonic sign of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Butterfly-shaped rash
Joint pain photosensitivity
Raynaud's phenomenon
Due Nov 14 at 11:59pm Points 20 Questions 20

Available Oct 27 at 12am - Nov 26 at 11:59pm about 1 month Time Limit 20 Minutes
Instructions
Hello my dear students :) Please
select the best option :)
#enjoylearning
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score

What is the causative agent for Pulmoary Tuberculosis?
Correct! Mycobaterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium Aves
Mycobacterium Bovis
What is the mode of transmission of the MERSCOV disease?
Fecal-oral
Auto-immune
Correct! Airborne
Vector borne
Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode

of transmission has the infection agent taken?
Correct! Fecal-oral one to two weeks before onset
Correct! Chloroquine
Tetracycline
Ceftriaxone
Primaquine
Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission.

Which of the following can cause you to have an Ebola?
Correct!
Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, Stool,
Urine, Saliva, Semen
Stool, urine, semen
Corona Virus 1
COV2a
Corona Virus 2
Correct! SARS-COV 2
Bloody mucoid stool
Correct! Rice watery stool
Severe dehydration
Diarrhea
Clostridium Tetani
Correct! Salmonella typhosa
Vibrio El tor
Correct! Coughing and sneezing
Sexual contact
If a tourniquet test is done to count the petechiae in an imaginary 2.5 cm

square just below the cuff, how many petechiae count is positive?
Correct! 20 or more
Exactly 20
Less than 20
After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the

following signifies that he is having pneumonia?
Correct! Chest indrawing in visible in patient
Which of the following is the source of infection of Dengue Hemorrhagic

fever?
Party foods
Airborne droplet
Aedes Aegypti bite
Correct! Tap water of the school
Which of the following is the nursing consideration for typhoid fever?
Educate public about control of flies
Avoid eating fish
Correct! Receive vaccine every year
Which of the following is plasmodium specie?
ou An
nsw
were
red Aedes Aegypti
orrect Answer Malariae
Anopheles
Wuchereria Bancrofti
During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is

immediately done by the Nurse?
BCG injection
Isoniazid treatment
Correct! Collection of sputum
X-ray exam
Ivermectin
Doxycycline
Albendazole
Correct! Hetrazan
orrect Answer Aedes Aygypti
Cules Mosquito
ou An
nsw
were
red Anopheles
Mansori Mosquito
Amoebiasis is also rampant now days, the nurse should give the following
instruction:
Correct! Boil water for drinking
Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in

determining Filariasis infestation is:
Dusk and dawn
In the morning
In the afternoon
Correct! In the evening
NUR1213 Quizzes Module 5_Formative Assessment 10
!
Account
SY 2020 1st Sem MLA
Special
Module 5_Formative Assessment 10 Submission Details:
Dashboard

Home Time: 14 minutes
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Courses Available Oct 27 at 12am - Nov 26 at 11:59pm about 1 month Time Limit 20 Minutes
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Current Score: 19 out of 20
Calendar Discussions
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Office 365
EbscoHost Question 1 1 / 1 pts
Office 365
Chat Multiple Sclerosis is best described as:
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper body and arms.
Correct! Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord

What is the screening diagnostic test for AIDS?
FTA-ABS Test
Correct! Eliza Test
Western Blot
Kahn Wasserman Test
GWV
MMR
Correct! HPV
CMV
Sore throat
Correct! Chancre
Hair loss
Rashes
Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many nonjoint structures, except:
Kidneys
Correct! Genitalia
Heart
Lungs
MMR vaccine
Correct! Trendelenburg Position
Antipyretics
Vitamin A supplementation
Fever, runny nose , dehydration
Petechaie, Koplik’s spots , coryza
Correct! Conjunctivitis, coryza , Koplik’s spots
Foladin
Natalac
Correct! Benzathine Penicillin
Obimin
Correct! Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests
None of the above
Candida Albicans
Correct! Kaposis Sarcoma
Correct! Fluid therapy
Blood pressure medications
Anticoagulants
Diuretics
b. Within ideal body weight but mostly thin
a. Juvenile
Correct! d. Obese
c. Young onset
Staphylococcus
Aedes Aegypti
Gonococcus
Correct! E. coli
The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes the most serious disease as pneumonia in the lung.
Retro virus
Correct Answer Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Toxoplamosis
You Answered Herpes Simplex
Mode of transmission of Measles.
Direct Contact
Droplet
Sexual Contact
Correct! Airborne
Acinlovir
Oresol
Correct! Acyclovir
Pen G
Correct! Striae Gravidarum
Toxoplasmosis
Candida Albicans
A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheese-like exudates and oral thrush.
Herpes Simplex
CMV
Correct! Candida Albicans
Pneumocystis Carini
Correct! Measles Mumps Rubella vaccine
Mumps Measels Rubeolla vaccine
Genetics

EPrevious Next#
12/9/2020 5.2. SL_CD Formative Assessment: NCM 112 - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PROBLEMS IN OXYGFENATION, FLU
5.2. SL_CD Formative Assessment
Instructions
Choose the BEST answer.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
Score for this quiz: 10 out of 10 Submitted

Dec 9 at 5:45pm
An adult client has a virulent respiratory infection, which of these

actions best prevents the transfer of airborne organism?
Co
orrrect
ct!
Use N95 respirator mask as much as possible and institute hand
washing always.
Having the clients laundry disinfected after use.
Having the clients dishes sterilized after use.
Instructing the family effective hand washing only.
Co
orrrect
ct!
A nurse is bathing a client who has infection spread by droplets. Prior to

reporting to work, the nurse’s hand was scratch by her pet cat.
Which of the following will not be included?
Goggles
Gloves
Co
orrrect
ct!
Mask
Gown
In caring for a client on contact precautions for a draining infected foot ulcer,
correct technique includes?
following standard precautions in all interactions with the client
providing disposable meal trays & silverware
Co
orrrect
ct!
Which of the following PPE may be reused by the same RN during a single
shift caring for a single client?
Co
orrrect
ct! goggles
clean gloves
surgical mask
gown
After caring for a client with COVID 19, the nurse performs which of the
following actions when removing protective wear?
Remove gloves, N95 mask, gown, face shield
Remove N95 mask, gown, gloves, face shield
Co
orrrect
ct!
Remove gloves, face shield, gown, N-95 mask
Remove gown, N95 mask, gloves, face shield
Co
orrrect
ct!
Which of the following is an appropriate principle to prevent spread of

infection?
Co
orrrect
ct!
Perform hand hygiene before and after each procedure
Using gloves for 24-hour duty
Frequent touching of face to adjust Personal Protective Equipment
Touching surfaces as long as it is clean
When leaving an isolation room, the nurse correctly removes her

equipment:
Mask, gown and gloves
Gown, gloves and mask
Gown and mask inside the room and gloves outside the room
Co
orrrect
ct!
The nurse is planning a staff development program for health care staff on
how to care for clients with hepatitis A. Which of the following precautions
would the nurse indicate as essential when caring for clients with hepatitis A?
gowning when entering a client’s room
assigning the client in a private room
wearing a mask when providing care
Co
orrrect
ct! wearing gloves when giving direct care
SL Formative Assessment 1 MCQ
Due Dec 12 at 11:59pm Points 10 Questions 10

Available Dec 12 at 12am - Dec 12 at 11:59pm about 24 hours Time
Limit 15 Minutes
Instructions
Select the letter of your choice.
This quiz was locked Dec 12 at 11:59pm.
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 less than 1 minute 9 out of 10
Score for this quiz: 9 out of 10 Submitted

Dec 12 at 3:20pm
This attempt took less than 1 minute.
A procedure of visualization of the esophagus using a swallowed

rediopaque contrast medium.
ou An
nsw
were
red
Esophagographic
Biopsy
Barium Swallow Aspiration
orrect Answer Esophagograhy

A procedure where the nurse must instruct the client to restrict dairy
products for 24 hours prior.
Barium Swallow Aspiration
Correct! Barium Enema
Biopsy
None of the above
Refraining from deodorant use on the day of an exam is part of nursing

responsibility of which procedure?
Correct! Mammography
Pap Smear
TSE
BSE
During Barium Swallow procedure, most commonly, patients complain of
nausea and vomiting withinof ingestion.
Correct! 30 minutes
An hour
24 hrs
Within 2 hours
Pap Smear or Pap test is also called?
Alpha Feto CHON
Papdesal Test
Correct! Papanicolaou Test
Mammotome
Which of the following ways will reduce the risk of breast cancer besides routine self-exams?
Correct! All of the above.
Have clinical breast exams starting at age 20 and mammograms starting at

age 40
Cutting down use of menopausal hormone therapy
Maintaining a healthy weight.
What other symptoms should women look for while checking her breasts
for lumps?
Correct! All of the above.
Redness, swelling, enlarged pores or a scaly texture (similar to orange

peel) on skin of breast, nipple and/or areola.
Change in shape or size of breast, with any unexplained shrinking of the

breast.
Discharge from nipple (clear, milky, bloody).

During the Testicular Exam, the nurse should inspect the penis on all
sides and note for any:
All of the above
Correct! Lumps, swellings and scars
Swellings, lumps and discoloration
Ulcers, lumps and rashes
Define as infection or inflammation of prostate gland.
Prostatic Cancer
Prostate infection
Correct! Prostatitis
Prostatectomy
PSA stands for?
None of the above.

Prostate Sepsis Antidote
Prostate Specific Antidote
Correct! Prostate Specific Antigen
CORRECT
1. What is the mode of transmission of H1N1 disease?
Sexual contact
2. What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A?
40 days
30 days
14 days
60 days
3. If a tourniquet test is done to count the petechiae in an imaginary 2.5 cm square just below the
cuff, how many petechiae count is positive?
Exactly 20
Less than 20
20 or more
4. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode of transmissionhas
the infection agent taken?
fecal- oral one to two weeks before onset
5. What barn animal is predominantly carrier of MERSCOV infection?
Chicken
Pangolin
Goat
Camel
6. Which of the following is plasmodium specie?
Anopheles
Wichereia Bancrofti
Aedes Aegypti
Malariae
7. The standard treatment for malaria is?
Primaquine
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Ceftriaxone
8. Preventive measure to prevent getting infected with H1N1 disease is by:
Avoid eating fish
Receive vaccine every year
9. Which of the following is the nursing consideration for typhoid fever
Educate public about the control of flies
All of the above
10. The most dangerous situation on the case
Cardiovascular collapse
Shortness of Breath
Difficulty of breathing
High Grade fever leading to delirium
11. It is considered as the most dangerous plasmodium species
Vivax
Falciparum
Malariae
Ovale
12. Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission. Which of thefollowing
can cause you to have an Ebola?
Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, stool, urine, saliva, semen
Stool, urine, semen
13. What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?
Vibrio El tor
Clostridium Tetani
Salmonella typhosa
14. Plasmodium Species are
Protozoal parasites
Virus
Bacteria
Microscopic worms
15. Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in determining
Filariasisinfestation In the evening
In the morning
Dusk and dawn
In the afternoon
16. Amoebiasis is also rampant now days, the nurse should give the following instruction:
Boil water for drinking
17. Drug of choice for Dengue Fever is”
Azithromycin
None of the above
Anti-viral (Indinavir) Praziquantel
18. The following are manifestations of dehydration except:
Flushed skin
Sunken eyeballs
Poor skin turgor
Excessive thirst
19. What is the causative agent for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium Bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium Aved
20. What is the pathognomonic symptom of cholera
Rice watery stool
Bloody mucoid stool
Diarrhea
Severe dehydration
21. All, but one, are Drugs intended for Pulmonary Tuberculosis
Streptomycin
Azithromycin
Isoniazhiid
Rifampicin
22. After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the following
signifiesthat he is having pneumonia?
Chest indrawing in visible in patient
23. The drug of choice for Filariasis infection is:
Albendazone
Doxy
Hetrazan
Ivermectin
24. Viruses in Ebola genus are recognizable because of their?
Long Filaments
Hooked Shape
Unique color
25. Which of the following is the source of infection of dengue Hemorrhagic fever?
Party foods
Airborne droplet
Tap water of the school
Aedes Aegypti bite
26. During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is immediately fone bythe
Nurse?
X-ray exam
Isoniazid treatment
BCG injection
27. A college student is required to be inoculated for hepatitis before beginning college.
Thenurse realizes this client will be inoculated to prevent the development of:
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
28. What vector mosquito is specific to transmit plasmodium species
Aedes Aygypti
Masori Mosquito
Culex Mosquito
Anopheles
29. What is the causative agent of COVID 19 infection?
Corona Virus 2 SARS-COV 2
Corona Virus 1
COV2a
30. What is the mode of transmission of the MERSCOV disease?
Fecal-oral
Airborne
Auto-immune
Vector borne
1. Treatment of Choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2.
 Acyclovir
 Zanamivir
 Indinavir
 Tamcyclovir
2. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as whitethick, cottage cheese-
like exudates and oral thrush.
 CMV
 Candida Albicans
 Pneumocystis Carini
 Herpes Simplex
3. Drug or medication of choice for patient diagnosed with Syphilis.
 Foladin
 Benzathine Penincillin
 c. Natalac
 d. Obimin
4. Initial screening test for HIV.
 Western Blot Test

 ELISA Test
 Serologic Test
 d. PCR Test
5. Mode of transmission of Measles
 Sexual Contact
 Droplet
 Airborne
 b. Direct Contact
6. AIDS will be pronounced if:
 CDC count is below 200 plus Opportunistic infections

 b. CDC count of 250
 CDC count is 350
 Severe form of Pneumonia
7. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer
 Type 16 only
 Type 16 and 19 only
 Type 7 and 11
 Type 16 and 19
8. Multiple Sclerosis is best described as:
 Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord

 A person’s own immune system damages after nerve cells, causing muscle weakness
 Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your
upper body and arms
 People have long-term nerve damage
9. Primary signs of Syphilis
 Sore throat
 hair loss
 rashes
 Chancre
10. Etiologic agent syphilis
 Trachomatis
 Pallidum
 Neisseria
 Retro virus
11. Medication of choice for varicella
 Oresol
 Acinlovir
 Acyclovir
 Pen G
12. Incubation period of aids
 Median 10-12 months

 10 days and above
 Median 10-12 days
 Median 10-12 years
13. Medication prescribed for patient with gonorrhea
 Ceftriaxone sodium
 b)Metformin
 c) Simvastatin
 Thiazide
14.What is the etiologic agent of genital warts?
 HPV
 MMR
 c) GWV
 CMV
15, Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many nonjoint structures, except:
 Genitalia
 b)Lungs
 c)Heart
 d.Kidneys
16. Clinical manifestation of measles:
 Conjunctivitis, coryza, Koplik’s spots

 Fever, runny nose, dehydration
 Koplik’s spots, hepatomegaly, rashes
 Petechiae, KOplik’s spots, coryza
17. Acronym MMR stands for?
 Measles mumps rubella vaccine

 Mumps measels rubeolla vaccine
 Measles mumps rubeolla vaccine
 Mumps measles rubella vaccine
18. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except!
 Striae gravidarum
 Candida albicans
 Toxoplasmosis
 Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
19. The following are treatments for nephrotic syndrome, except:
 Anticoagulants
 b. Fluid therapy
 c, Blood pressure medications
 d. Diuretics
20.The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with aids, It causes the
most serious pneumonia in the lung
 Retro virus
 c, Herpes simplex
 d. toxoplasmosis
8. Diagnostic Test, NAATs means?
 Nucleic acid amplification tests
10. A treponemal antibody diagnostic test syphilis

 FTA-ABS
CORRECT
INCORRECT
NOT SURE
1. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheese-like
Candida Albicans
Herpes Simplex
CMV
Pneumocystis Carini
2.
Obese
Young onset
Within ideal body weight but mostly thin
Juvenile
3. Diagnostic Test, AATs means?
Nucleic acid amplified Tests
None of the above
Nuclei Acid Amplification Tests
4. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer.
Type 16 and 19
Type 1 and 1
Type 16 only
Type 16 and 19
16 and 18 daw accr to web md
5. The following are treatments for Nephrotic Syndrome, except:
Fluid therapy
Blood pressure medication
Anticoagulants
Diuretics
All three are treatments according to WEB md
6. Etiologic agent of Syphilis
Retrovirus
Neisseria
Pallidum
Trachomatis
Acronym MMR stands for
8. What is the screening diagnostic test for AIDS?
Eliza Test
FTA-ABS Test
Kahn Wasserman Test
Western Blot
9.
Incubation period of AIDS
Median 10-12 days
Median 10-12 months
10 days and above
Median 10-12 years
10. Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
People have long-term nerve damage
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your
upper and arms
11. Chicken pox is also called as
Rubeola
German Measles
Varicella
Rubella
12. A treponemal antibody diagnostic test for Syphilis.
Thayer martin Culture
FTA-ABS Test
Eliza Test
Swab test
13. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many non joint structure, except:
Lung
Genitalia
Heart
Kidneys
14. Causative Agent of Herpes-Zoster Infection:
ParamyxoVirus
Varicella
Herpes Simplex
Retrovirus
15.Management for patient diagnosed with Measles, except one:
Trendelenburg Position
Antipyretics MMR
vaccine
vitamin a supplements
16.Medication of choice for Varicella

Pen G
Acyclovir
Oresol
Aciclovir
17. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following except
Toxoplasmosis
Candida Albicans
Striae Gravidarum
18. Treatment of choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2
Zanamivir
Tamcyclovir
Indinavir
Acyclovir
19. Initial screening test for HIV:
Serologic Test
PCR Test
ELISA Test
Western blot Test
20. Most common causative agent of UTI
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Gonococcus
Aedes aegypti
1. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes cervical Cancer.

- type 16 only
- type 7 and 11
- htyen 16 and 19
- type 16 and 19
- Nucleic Acid Amplified
Tests
- None of the above
- Nucleic Acid Amplifier Tests
- Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests
3. The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes t most
serious disease as pneumonia in the lung.
- Herpes Simplex
- Toxoplamosis
- Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- Retro virus
- A person's own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing muscle weakness People
have long-term nerve damage.
- Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
- Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your body
and arms
5. Causative Agent of Herpes-Zoster Infection: -
Herpes Simplex - Paramyxo Virus
- Retrovirus
- Varicella
6. Etiologic agent of Syphilis.
- Neisseria
- Trachomatis
- Pallidum
- Retro virus
7. A treponemal antibody diagnostic test for Syphilis. -
- Swab Test
- Eliza Test
- FTA-ABS Test
- Western Blot
- Eliza Test
-
FTA-ABS Test
-
Kalin Wasserman Test
9. Most of common neoplasm and an HIV associated malignancies:
- Candida Albicans
Cryptococcus Neoformans -
Kaposis Sarcoma
- Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
10. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except: -
- Toxoplasmosis
- Candida Albicans
- Striae Gravidarum
11. Management for patient diagnosed with Measles, except one: -
- MMR vaccine
- Vitamin A supplementation
- Antipyretics
12. Patients diagnosed with DM type 1 are mostly, except one: -
Juvenile
- Within ideal body weight but mostly thin
- Young onset - Obese
13. Incubation period of AIDS. -
Median 10-12 months
- Median 10-12 days
- 10 days and above
- Median 10-12 years
14. Medication of choice for Varicella: -
Pen G
- Oresol
- Acyclovir
- Acinlovir
15. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheeselike
- Pneumocystis Carini
- CMV
- Herpes Simplex
Candida Albicans
- CD4 count is below 200 plus opportunistic Infections
- CD4 count is 350
-
Severe from pneumonia CD4 count
- of 250
17. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many nonjoint structures, except:
- Kidneys
-- Heart
Lungs
- Genitalia
18. What is the etiologic agent of genital warts?
- MMR - GWV
- HPV
- CMV
19. Initial screening test for HIV: -
Western blot test
- Pcr test
- Serologic test
- Elisa test
20. Treatment of Choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2. -
Indinavir
- Zanamivir
- Acyclovir
- Tamcyclovir
21. Drug or medication of choice for patient diagnosed with Syphilis
Obimin
Natalac
Foladin
Metformin
- Cetriaxone sodium
- Simvastatin
- Thiazide
23. The following are treatments for nephrotic syndrome, except: -
- Fluid therapy
- Diuretics
- anticoagulants
24. Clinical manifestations of measles: -
Petechaie, Koplik's spots, coryza
- Koplik's spots, hepatomegaly, rashes
- Fever, runny nose, dehydration
- Conjunctivitis, coryza, Kopliks spots
25. Mode of transmission of measles - Airborne
26. Acronym MMR stands for:
- Measles mumps rubella vaccine
27. What is the cause of Ulcerative colitis Unknown but it
can be an autoimmune condition
1. What is the cause of Ulcerative Colitis?
a. Unknown but it can be an autoimmune condition
b. Genetics
All of c. the above
d. Environment
a. CD4 count is below 200 plus Opportunistic Infections
CD4 b. count of 250
CD4 c. count is 350
d. Sever form of Pneumonia
3. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except:
a. Striae Gravidarum
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Candida Albicans
d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
4. What is the etiologic agent of genital warts
MMR a.
b. GWV
c. HPV
d. CMV
5. Medication of choice for Varicella:
a. Pen G
b. Acyclovir
c. Oresol
d. Acinclovir
6. Mode of transmission of Measles.
Direct a. Contact
Sexual b. Contact
c. Droplet
d. Airborne
a. Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
People b. have long-term nerve damage
c.
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper
body and arms
d. A person’s own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing muscle weakness 8.
Causative Agent of Herpes-Zoster Infection:
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Varicella
c. Retrovirus
d. Paramyxo Virus
a. Serologic Test
b. PCR Test
c. ELISA Test
d. Western Blot Test
a. Western Blot
b. FTA-ABS Test
c. Eliza Test
d. Kahn Wasserman Test
a. Zanamivir
b. Indinavir
c. Tamcyclovir
d. Acyclovir
a. Pallidum
b. Retro virus
c. Trachomatis
d. Neisseria
13. The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes the most
serious disease as pneumonia in the lung.
a. Toxoplamosis
b. Retro virus
c. Herpes Simplex
a. Blood pressure medications
b. Anticoagulants
c. Diuretics
d. Fluid therapy
a. Eliza
b. Thayer Martin Culture
c. FTA-ABS Test
d. Swab Test
a. Candida Albicans
b. Kaposis Sarcoma
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
a. E.coli
b. Staphylococcus
c. Aedes Aegypti
d. Gonococcus
18. Medication prescribed for patient with Gonorrhea:
a. Metformin
b. Thiazide
c. Ceftriaxone Sodium
d. Simvastatin
Kidneys
a. Genitalia
b. Heart
c. Lungs
a. Benzathine Penicillin
b. Foladin
c. Obimin
d. Natalac
Candida Albicans
Obese Young onset
Juvenile
Diagnostic Test, AATs means?
Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests
Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer.
Type 16 and 19 Type 1 and 1
Type 16 only
Type 16 and 19
16 and 18 (web md)

Fluid therapy
All three are treatments (web md)
Etiologic agent of Syphilis

Pallidum

Eliza Test
Median 10-12 years
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Chicken pox is also called as
Varicella
FTA-ABS Test
Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many non joint structure, except: Genitalia
Varicella
Medication of choice for Varicella
Acyclovir
AIDS opportunistic infection are the following except
Striae Gravidarum
Treatment of choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2
Acyclovir
Initial screening test for HIV:
ELISA Test
Western blot Test
Most common causative agent of UTI
E.coli
CORRECT
1. What is the mode of transmission of H1N1 disease?

Sexual contact

2. What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A?

40 days
30 days
14 days
60 days
3. If a tourniquet test is done to count the petechiae in an imaginary 2.5 cm square just below the cuff,
how many petechiae count is positive?
Exactly 20
Less than 20
20 or more
4. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode of transmissionhas the
fecal- oral one to two weeks before onset

5. What barn animal is predominantly carrier of MERSCOV infection?

Chicken
Pangolin
Goat
Camel
6. Which of the following is plasmodium specie?

Anopheles
Wichereia Bancrofti
Aedes Aegypti
Malariae
7. The standard treatment for malaria is?

Primaquine
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Ceftriaxone
8. Preventive measure to prevent getting infected with H1N1 disease is by:

Avoid eating fish
Receive vaccine every year

9. Which of the following is the nursing consideration for typhoid fever

Educate public about the control of flies
All of the above
10. The most dangerous situation on the case

Cardiovascular collapse
Shortness of Breath
Difficulty of breathing
High Grade fever leading to delirium

11. It is considered as the most dangerous plasmodium species
Vivax
Falciparum
Malariae
Ovale
12. Ebola virus outbreak occurred due to human-to-human transmission. Which of thefollowing can
cause you to have an Ebola?
Direct contact through broken skin or mucous membrane, Blood, stool, urine, saliva, semen
Stool, urine, semen
13. What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?

Vibrio El tor
Clostridium Tetani
Salmonella typhosa
14. Plasmodium Species are

Protozoal parasites
Virus
Bacteria
Microscopic worms
15. Nurse Alfred is aware that best time to collect blood sample in determining Filariasisinfestation In
the evening
In the morning
Dusk and dawn
In the afternoon
16. Amoebiasis is also rampant now days, the nurse should give the following instruction:
Boil water for drinking


17. Drug of choice for Dengue Fever is”
Azithromycin
None of the above
Anti-viral (Indinavir) Praziquantel
18. The following are manifestations of dehydration except:

Flushed skin
Sunken eyeballs
Poor skin turgor
Excessive thirst
19. What is the causative agent for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium Bovis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium Aved
20. What is the pathognomonic symptom of cholera

Rice watery stool
Bloody mucoid stool
Diarrhea
Severe dehydration
21. All, but one, are Drugs intended for Pulmonary Tuberculosis
Streptomycin
Azithromycin
Isoniazhiid
Rifampicin
22. After performing your physical assessment to Mr. Santos, which of the following signifiesthat he is
having pneumonia?
Chest indrawing in visible in patient


23. The drug of choice for Filariasis infection is:
Albendazone
Doxy
Hetrazan
Ivermectin
24. Viruses in Ebola genus are recognizable because of their?

Long Filaments
Hooked Shape
Unique color
25. Which of the following is the source of infection of dengue Hemorrhagic fever?
Party foods
Airborne droplet
Tap water of the school

Aedes Aegypti bite
26. During case finding of the TB infected persons, which procedure is immediately fone bythe Nurse?
X-ray exam
Isoniazid treatment
BCG injection
27. A college student is required to be inoculated for hepatitis before beginning college. Thenurse
realizes this client will be inoculated to prevent the development of:
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
28. What vector mosquito is specific to transmit plasmodium species

Aedes Aygypti
Masori Mosquito
Culex Mosquito
Anopheles
29. What is the causative agent of COVID 19 infection?
Corona Virus 2 SARS-COV 2
Corona Virus 1
COV2a
30. What is the mode of transmission of the MERSCOV disease?

Fecal-oral
Airborne
Auto-immune
Vector borne
 Acyclovir
 Zanamivir
 Indinavir
 Tamcyclovir
2. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as whitethick, cottage cheese-like
 CMV
 Candida Albicans
 Pneumocystis Carini
 Herpes Simplex
 Foladin
 Benzathine Penincillin
 c. Natalac
 d. Obimin
4. Initial screening test for HIV.
 Western Blot Test

 ELISA Test
 Serologic Test
 d. PCR Test
5. Mode of transmission of Measles
 Sexual Contact
 Droplet
 Airborne
 b. Direct Contact
 CDC count is below 200 plus Opportunistic infections

 b. CDC count of 250
 CDC count is 350
 Severe form of Pneumonia
7. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer
 Type 16 only
 Type 16 and 19 only
 Type 7 and 11
 Type 16 and 19
 Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord

 A person’s own immune system damages after nerve cells, causing muscle weakness
 Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper
body and arms
 People have long-term nerve damage
9. Primary signs of Syphilis
 Sore throat
 hair loss
 rashes
 Chancre
10. Etiologic agent syphilis
 Trachomatis
 Pallidum
 Neisseria
 Retro virus
11. Medication of choice for varicella
 Oresol
 Acinlovir
 Acyclovir
 Pen G
12. Incubation period of aids
 Median 10-12 months

 10 days and above
 Median 10-12 days
 Median 10-12 years
 Ceftriaxone sodium
 b)Metformin
 c) Simvastatin
 Thiazide
14.What is the etiologic agent of genital warts?
 HPV
 MMR
 c) GWV
 CMV
15, Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many nonjoint structures, except:
 Genitalia
 b)Lungs
 c)Heart
 d.Kidneys
16. Clinical manifestation of measles:
 Conjunctivitis, coryza, Koplik’s spots

 Fever, runny nose, dehydration
 Koplik’s spots, hepatomegaly, rashes
 Petechiae, KOplik’s spots, coryza
17. Acronym MMR stands for?
 Measles mumps rubella vaccine

 Mumps measels rubeolla vaccine
 Measles mumps rubeolla vaccine
 Mumps measles rubella vaccine
18. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except!
 Striae gravidarum
 Candida albicans
 Toxoplasmosis
19. The following are treatments for nephrotic syndrome, except:
 Anticoagulants
 b. Fluid therapy
 c, Blood pressure medications
 d. Diuretics
20.The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with aids, It causes the most serious
pneumonia in the lung
 Retro virus
 c, Herpes simplex
 d. toxoplasmosis
 Nucleic acid amplification tests
10. A treponemal antibody diagnostic test syphilis
 FTA-ABS
CORRECT
INCORRECT
NOT SURE
1. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheese-like exudates
and oral thrush.
Candida Albicans
Herpes Simplex
CMV
Pneumocystis Carini
2.
Obese
Young onset
Juvenile
5. Diagnostic Test, AATs means?

Nucleic acid amplified Tests
None of the above
Nuclei Acid Amplification Tests
6. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer.
Type 16 and 19
Type 1 and 1
Type 16 only
Type 16 and 19
16 and 18 daw accr to web md

Fluid therapy
Anticoagulants
Diuretics
All three are treatments according to WEB md

Retrovirus
Neisseria
Pallidum
Trachomatis

Eliza Test
FTA-ABS Test
Kahn Wasserman Test
Western Blot
9.
Median 10-12 days
Median 10-12 months
10 days and above
Median 10-12 years
10. Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
People have long-term nerve damage
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper
and arms
15. Chicken pox is also called as

Rubeola
German Measles
Varicella
Rubella

Thayer martin Culture
FTA-ABS Test
Eliza Test
Swab test
17. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many non joint structure, except:
Lung
Genitalia
Heart
Kidneys
18. Causative Agent of Herpes-Zoster Infection:

ParamyxoVirus
Varicella
Herpes Simplex
Retrovirus
15.Management for patient diagnosed with Measles, except one:
Antipyretics MMR
vaccine
vitamin a supplements
16.Medication of choice for Varicella
Pen G
Acyclovir
Oresol
Aciclovir
21. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following except

Toxoplasmosis
Candida Albicans
Striae Gravidarum
22. Treatment of choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2
Zanamivir
Tamcyclovir
Indinavir
Acyclovir
Serologic Test
PCR Test
ELISA Test
Western blot Test
Staphylococcus
E.coli
Gonococcus
Aedes aegypti
1. Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes cervical Cancer.

- type 16 only
-
- type 7 and 11 htyen
16 and 19 type 16
- and 19
2. Diagnostic Test, NAATs means? -

- None of the above
- Nucleic Acid Amplifier Tests
- Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests
3. The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes t most serious
- Herpes Simplex
- Toxoplamosis
- Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- Retro virus

- A person's own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing muscle weakness People
have long-term nerve damage.
- Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
- Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your body and
arms
5. Causative Agent of Herpes-Zoster Infection: -

Herpes Simplex - Paramyxo Virus
- Retrovirus
- Varicella
6. Etiologic agent of Syphilis. -

Neisseria
- Trachomatis
- Pallidum
- Retro virus
7. A treponemal antibody diagnostic test for Syphilis. -

- Swab Test
- Eliza Test
- FTA-ABS Test
- Western Blot
- Eliza Test
- FTA-ABS Test
- Kalin Wasserman Test

- Candida Albicans
Cryptococcus Neoformans -
Kaposis Sarcoma
- Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
10. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except: -

- Toxoplasmosis
- Candida Albicans
- Striae Gravidarum
11. Management for patient diagnosed with Measles, except one: -

- MMR vaccine
- Vitamin A supplementation
- Antipyretics
12. Patients diagnosed with DM type 1 are mostly, except one: -

Juvenile
- Within ideal body weight but mostly thin
- Young onset - Obese
13. Incubation period of AIDS. -

Median 10-12 months
- Median 10-12 days
- 10 days and above
- Median 10-12 years
14. Medication of choice for Varicella: - Pen

G
- Oresol
- Acyclovir
- Acinlovir
15. A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheeselike
- Pneumocystis Carini
- CMV
- Herpes Simplex
Candida Albicans
d.
- CD4 count is below 200 plus opportunistic Infections
- CD4 count is 350
- Severe from pneumonia CD4
- count of 250

- Kidneys Heart
-- Lungs
-
Genitalia
18. What is the etiologic agent of genital warts?

- MMR - GWV
- HPV
- CMV
19. Initial screening test for HIV: -

Western blot test
- Pcr test
- Serologic test
- Elisa test
20. Treatment of Choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2. -

Indinavir
- Zanamivir
- Acyclovir
- Tamcyclovir
23. Drug or medication of choice for patient diagnosed with Syphilis

Obimin
Natalac
Foladin

Metformin
- Cetriaxone sodium
- Simvastatin
- Thiazide
d.
23. The following are treatments for nephrotic syndrome, except: - Blood
pressure medication
- Fluid therapy
- Diuretics
- anticoagulants
24. Clinical manifestations of measles: -

Petechaie, Koplik's spots, coryza
- Koplik's spots, hepatomegaly, rashes
- Fever, runny nose, dehydration
- Conjunctivitis, coryza, Kopliks spots
27. Mode of transmission of measles - Airborne
28. Acronym MMR stands for:

- Measles mumps rubella vaccine
27. What is the cause of Ulcerative colitis Unknown but it can be

an autoimmune condition
8. What is the cause of Ulcerative Colitis?

a. Unknown but it can be an autoimmune condition
b. Genetics
c.
All of the above
d.
Environment
a. CD4 count is below 200 plus Opportunistic Infections
CD4 b. count of 250
c.
CD4 count is 350
d.
Sever form of Pneumonia
10. AIDS opportunistic infection are the following, except:
a. Striae Gravidarum
b. Toxoplasmosis
c.
Candida Albicans
d.
d.
11. What is the etiologic agent of genital warts
MMR a.
b. GWV
c. HPV
d. CMV
12. Medication of choice for Varicella:
a. Pen G
b. Acyclovir
c. Oresol
d. Acinclovir
13. Mode of transmission of Measles.
Direct a. Contact
b.
Sexual Contact
c. Droplet
d. Airborne

a. Disabling disease of brain and spinal cord
People b. have long-term nerve damage
c.
Begins with tingling and weakness starting in your feet and legs and spreading to your upper body
and arms
d. A person’s own immune system damages their nerve cells, causing muscle weakness 8.
e. Herpes Simplex
f. Varicella
g. Retrovirus
h. Paramyxo Virus
a. Serologic Test
b. PCR Test
c. ELISA Test
d. Western Blot Test
a. Western Blot
b. FTA-ABS Test
c. Eliza Test
d. Kahn Wasserman Test
a. Zanamivir
d.
b. Indinavir
c. Tamcyclovir
d. Acyclovir
a. Pallidum
b. Retro virus
c. Trachomatis
d. Neisseria
25. The most frequent disseminated opportunistic infection seen with AIDS. It causes the most serious
a. Toxoplamosis
b. Retro virus
c. Herpes Simplex
a. Blood pressure medications
b. Anticoagulants
c. Diuretics
d. Fluid therapy
a. Eliza
b. Thayer Martin Culture
c. FTA-ABS Test
d. Swab Test
a. Candida Albicans
b. Kaposis Sarcoma
c. Cryptococcus Neoformans
d. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
a. E.coli
b. Staphylococcus
c. Aedes Aegypti
d. Gonococcus
30. Medication prescribed for patient with Gonorrhea:
a. Metformin
b. Thiazide
c. Ceftriaxone Sodium
d. Simvastatin
d.
Kidneys
a. Genitalia
b. Heart
c. Lungs
a. Benzathine Penicillin
b. Foladin
c. Obimin
d. Natalac
A fungus causing infection of mouth and vagina appearing as white thick, cottage cheese-like exudates
and oral thrush.
Candida Albicans
Obese Young onset

Juvenile
Diagnostic Test, AATs means?
Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests

Human Papilloma Virus strain that causes Cervical Cancer.
Type 16 and 19 Type 1 and 1

Type 16 only
Type 16 and 19
16 and 18 (web md)
Fluid therapy
All three are treatments (web md)
Etiologic agent of Syphilis
d.
Pallidum

Eliza Test
Median 10-12 years

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:

Chicken pox is also called as
Varicella
FTA-ABS Test
Rheumatoid arthritis can affect many non joint structure, except: Genitalia
Varicella
Medication of choice for Varicella
Acyclovir
AIDS opportunistic infection are the following except
Striae Gravidarum
Treatment of choice for Herpes Simplex Type 1 and 2
Acyclovir
Initial screening test for HIV:
ELISA Test
Western blot Test
Most common causative agent of UTI
E.coli
d.
July 2011 Nurse Licensure Examination
t Resul
- July 2011 Nurse Board Exam
t Resul
July 2011 Nurse Licensure Examination Result - July 2011 Nurse Board Exam Result
Su nd a y, Oc t o be r 2 2, 2 0 06
100Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Oxygenation and

Nutrition Answer Key
100 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Oxygenation and Nutrition
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST V

By : Budek
http://www.pinoybsn.tk
Content Outline
1. Oxygenation
2. Nutrition
1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?
A. For clearance mechanism such as

coughing
B. Transport gases to the lower airways
C. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
D. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater
2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects
A. Cilia
B. Nares
C. Carina
D.
Vibrissae
3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull
A.
Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal d.
4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

July 2011 Nurse Licensure Examination
t Resul
- July 2011 Nurse Board Exam
t Resul
July 2011 Nurse Licensure Examination Result - July 2011 Nurse Board Exam Result
Su nd a y, Oc t o be r 2 2, 2 0 06
100Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Oxygenation and

Nutrition Answer Key
100 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Oxygenation and Nutrition
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST V

By : Budek
http://www.pinoybsn.tk
Content Outline
1. Oxygenation
2. Nutrition
1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?
A. For clearance mechanism such as

coughing
B. Transport gases to the lower airways
C. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
D. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater
2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects
A. Cilia
B. Nares
C. Carina
D.
Vibrissae
3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull
A.
Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
d.
4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?
A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
5. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court
denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large
piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?
A. Right main stem bronchus

B. Left main stem bronchus
C. Be dislodged in between the carina D. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis
6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells D. Adipose cells
7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three D. Four
8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?
A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter

B. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter
C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
D. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter
9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells
10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
d.
C. 3:1
D. 1:3
11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume
A. Inspiratory reserve volume

B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume
12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration
A. Inspiratory reserve volume

B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume
13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my
ribs? Your best response is which of the following?
A. We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
C. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543
D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating
14. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?
A. Lungs
B. Intercostal Muscles
C. Diaphragm
D. Pectoralis major
15. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires?
Which of the following is the best response :
A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
B. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air
C. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air
D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?
d.
A. A passive process
B. The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration
C. Stridor is commonly heard during expiration
D. Requires energy to be carried out
17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?
A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

B. Should last only for 60 minutes
C. Done best P.C
D. An independent nursing action
18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation
A. Mucolytic
B. Warm and humidify air
C. Administer medications
D. Promote bronchoconstriction
19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?
A. It is a dependent nursing action

B. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose
C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes D. Cover the client’s eye with wash
cloth to prevent irritation
20. When should a nurse suction a client?
A. As desired
B. As needed
C. Every 1 hour
D. Every 4 hours
21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New
york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse
and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?
A. High fowlers
B. Semi fowlers
C. Prone
D. Side lying
d.
22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit
suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?
A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 200-350 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 10-15 mmHg
23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How
much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in
case of portable suction units?
A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg D. 15-25 mmHg
24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?
A. Fr. 18
B. Fr. 12
C. Fr. 10
D. Fr, 5
25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an
unconscious client?
A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by

measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
B. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion
C. The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds
D. Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning
26. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?
1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia
3. Cyanosis
4. Pallor
5. Irritability
6. Flaring of Nares
A. 1,2
B. 2,5
d.
C. 2,6
D. 3,4
27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask
28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask

D. Partial Rebreather mask
29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?
A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane
C. Oxygen supports combustion
D. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with
Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:
A. Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen
source
C. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen
D. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration
31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?
A. Client is tired and dyspneic

B. The client is coughing out blood
C. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM
D. Client is frequently turning from side to side
32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of
the following associated finding should the nurse expect?
d.
A. Pancytopenia
B. Anemia
C. Fingers are Club-like
D. Hematocrit of client is decreased
33. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:
A. Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non rebreather mask D. Venturi mask
34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing.
Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?
A. Chest tube thoracotomy

B. Chest tube thoracostomy
C. Closed tube thoracotomy
D. Closed tube thoracostmy
35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?
A. 2nd ICS
B. 4th ICS
C. 5th ICS
D. 8th ICS
36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is
observed. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Consider this as normal findings

B. Notify the physician
C. Check for tube leak
D. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing
37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?
A. It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and development B.
It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported
into the circulation
C. It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use,
growthand tissue repair
D. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the
body
d.
38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the
A. Mouth
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
39. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except
A. It is where the digestion process starts

B. Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication
C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into
maltose D. Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with
saliva
40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?
A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice

B. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers
C. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman
D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg
41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach
A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour

B. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours
C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
D. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion
d.
44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?
A. Sucrase
B. Enterokinase
C. Amylase
D. Enterokinase
45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice
which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach
A. Enterogastrone
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Pancreozymin D. Enterokinase
46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?
A. Galactose + Galactose
B. Glucose + Fructose
C. Glucose + Galactose
D. Fructose + Fructose
47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion
A. Trypsin
B. Enterokinase
C. Enterogastrone
D. Amylase
48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call
A. Nucleotides
B. Fatty acids
C. Glucose
D. Amino Acids
49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the
gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its
digestion.
A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Cholecystokinin
d.
D. Pancreozymin
50. Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?
A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid
B. The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed
C. It is a sterile body cavity
D. It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine
51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius
A. Calorie
B. Joules
C. Metabolism
D. Basal metabolic rate
52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup
of rice?
A. 150 calories
B. 200 calories
C. 250 calories
D. 400 calories
53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?
A. 1,000 calories
B. 1,500 calories
C. 2,000 calories
D. 2,500 calories
54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?
A. All individual have the same caloric needs

B. Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories
C. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
D. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day
55. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?
A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis

B. An individual in a long state of glycogenolysis
C. A pregnant individual
d.
D. An adolescent with a BMI of 25
56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s
Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin C
61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?
A. Green leafy vegetables

B. Vegetable oil
d.
C. Fortified Milk D. Fish liver oil
62. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client?
A. Pork liver and organ meats, Pork

B. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy products
C. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy products
D. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts
63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent
neural tube defects?
A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes

B. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk
C. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts
D. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs
64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food
should you instruct the client to avoid?
A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver

B. Salmon, Sardines, Tuna
C. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals
D. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken
65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the latest
research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of acquiring prostate
cancer
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Selenium
D. Vanadium
66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable
amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
d.
67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the
following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT
A. Phosphorous
B. Iron
C. Calcium D. Sodium
68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Calcium D. Sodium
69. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?
A. Cantaloupe
B. Avocado
C. Raisin
D. Banana
70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the
client?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium EDTA
D. Activated charcoal
71. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?
A. Pork meat
B. Lean read meat
C. Pork liver
D. Green mongo
72. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?
A. Height
B. Weight
C. Arm muscle circumference
D. BMI
d.
73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that
Jose Miguel is :
A. Overweight
B. Underweight
C. Normal
D. Obese
74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s
nausea?
A. Coke
B. Sprite
C. Mirinda
D. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice
75. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?
A. Tachycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Thirst
D. Poor skin turgor
76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?
A. 1.007
B. 1.020
C. 1.039
D. 1.029
77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?
A. 67%
B. 50%
C. 36%
D. 45%
78. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of
hypokalemia?
A. My arm feels so weak

B. I felt my heart beat just right now
C. My face muscle is twitching
d.
D. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping
79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?
A. Marinol
B. Dramamine
C. Benadryl
D. Alevaire
80. Which is not a clear liquid diet?
A. Hard candy
B. Gelatin
C. Coffee with Coffee mate
D. Bouillon
81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?
A. Popsicles
B. Pureed vegetable meat
C. Pineapple juice with pulps
D. Mashed potato
82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?
A. Steamed broccoli
B. Creamed potato
C. Spinach in garlic
D. Sweet potato
83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?
A. Use an oil based lubricant

B. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose,
to the earlobe, tothe xiphoid process
C. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion
D. Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for
bubblingsound
84. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?
A. X-Ray
B. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced
d.
C. Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic
D. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area
85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you position the
patient?
A. Semi fowlers in bed

B. Bring the client into a chair
C. Slightly elevated right side lying position
D. Supine in bed
86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40
cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of
feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How
much will you put in the client’s chart as input?
A. 250 cc
B. 290 cc
C. 350 cc
D. 310 cc
87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?
A. Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal
to50 ml
B. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow
introductionof feeding
C. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to
prevent dumpingsyndrome
D. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach
88. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?
A. Diarrhea
B. Infection
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Vomiting
89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?
A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowly
B. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administration
C. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stoma
d.
D. A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well
90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I
feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous
one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being
experienced by the client?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Infection
D. Fluid overload
91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?
A. Food likes and dislikes

B. Regularity of meal times
C. 3 day diet recall
D. Eating style and habits
92. The vomiting center is found in the
A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is
A. Aspiration
B. Dehydration
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D. Malnutrition
94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?
A. Ampalaya
B. Broccoli
C. Mongo
D. Malunggay leaves
95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?
A. Egg yolk
d.
B. Liver
C. Fish
D. Peanuts
96. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is
A. Check V/S
B. Assess for patency of the tube
C. Measure residual feeding
D. Check the placement of the tube
97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is
A. Ensures adequate nutrition

B. It prevents aspiration
C. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrity
D. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance
98. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.
A. 20
B. 19
C. 15
D. 25
99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Currant Jelly stool
C. Beefy red tongue
D. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC
100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the
following is a normal serum lipase value?
A. 10 U/L
B. 100 U/L
C. 200 U/L
D. 350 U/L
1. How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation?

 2 --- di ko rin sure hahahahahaha
d.
 6
 4
 7
2. Which of the following is NOT the function of the respiratory system?
 Helps in gaseous exchange
 Regulate blood Ph
 Protection against blood loss
 Contains receptors for the sense of smell
3. Which of the following controls the normal breathing process?
 Dorsal respiratory group
 Ventral respiratory group
 Cholesterol
 Amino acids
4. It is the body process of supplying oxygenated blood to the cells and is reliant on adequate
cardiac output to be optimal. (ALL small letter)
 perfusion
5. The process of supplying oxygen to the body cells. (answer: all small letter)
 oxygenation
6. Which of the following statement is TRUE for pulmonary respiration?
 Exchange of gasses between alveoli of lungs and the blood
 Production of atp
 Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cells
 Breathing between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs
7. What is the name of the gland which secrete melatonin?

 Pineal gland
 Thyroid gland
 Hypothalamus
 Pituitary gland
8. Deliver the oxygen at rate that is less than the amount of air that the patient can inhale or exhale
in one minute (CALLED "MINUTE VENTILLATION.)
 HIGH-FLOW systems
 HYPOXEMIA
 LOW-FLOW systems
 HYPOXIA
9. Gas exchange takes place in the?
 No answer text provided.
 trachea
 pharynx
 alveoli
 larynx
10.Types of Alveolar Epithelial Cells most abundant, thin & flat where gas exchange occurs
d.
 Type IV Pneumocyte
 Type | Pneumocytes
 Type III Pneumocyte
 Type Il Pneumocyte
11. A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty of breathing and has arterial
manifestations?
 Nasal cannula
 Non-rebreather mask
 Face mask
 Simple mask
12.A slightly obese female client with a history of allergy-induced asthma, hypertension, and mitral
valve prolapse is admitted to an acute care facility for elective surgery. The nurse obtains a
complete history and performs a thorough physical examination, paying special attention to the
cardiovascular and respiratory system. When percussing the client's chest wall, the nurse expects
to elicit:
 Resonant sounds
 Flat sounds
 Dull sound
 Hyper resonant sounds
13.A female client is undergoing a complete physical examination as requirement for the college.
When checking the client's respiratory status. The nurse observes respiratory excursion to help
assess:
 Vocal sounds
 Lung vibration
 Breath sounds
 Chest movements
14.Nurse Fatima is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs,
if noticed in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician?
 Dry cough
 Blood-streaked sputum
 Bronchospasm
 Hematuria
15.The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
 Use chest breathing
 Exhale through an open mouth
 Use diaphragmatic breathing
 Make inhalation longer than exhalation
16.It competitively blocks the effects of histamine at H1-receptor sites, has atropine-like, antipruritic
and sedative effects.
d.
 Antihistamine
 Expectorants
 Bronchodilator
 Adrenergic drugs
17.They initiate a response at the adrenergic receptor sites and mimics the effects of norepinephrine.
 Antimicrobials
 Corticosteroids
 antihistamines
18.It is ordered for patients in acute respiratory distress, and is often used in an intensive care
situation.
 mechanical ventilation
 oxygen therapy
 chest tube insertion tracheotomy
19.When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective?
 The patient's Pa02 is 90 mm Hg, and the Sa02 is 92%.
 Endotracheal suctioning results in minimal mucous return.
 Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 24 hours.
 The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness
.
20.Which is a classic finding for a patient with ARDS?
 Hypoxemia despite increased oxygen administration
 Bronchodilators ordered to relieve airway spasms
 Development of Cheyne-Stokes respirations
 Development of Kussmaul respirations
21.Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea, and bronchi are the parts of the respiratory systems.
 False
 True
22.After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first?
 A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions
 A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum
 A patient with pneumonia who has coarse crackles in both lung bases
 A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 91% to 92%
23.It binds to intracellular corticosteroid receptors, thereby initiating many natural complex reactions
that are responsible for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive
effects.
 Bronchodilators
 Steroids
 antihistamine
d.
24.It involves substances moving across concentration gradients from areas of higher concentration
areas of lower concentration. This is the process involved with gas exchange. (answer: ALL small
letters)
 diffusion
25.Name the process of gaseous exchange in the body
 Cardiovascular system
 Lymphatic system
 Respiratory system
 Respiration
d.
26. Xanthines are classified as:
 Bronchodilators
27. Oxygen and hemoglobin bind in a reversible manner to form ______
 BPG
 Methoglobin
 Oxyhemoglobin ←- hindi ba ito? IKAW SUMAGOT NIITO NUNG FIRST DAY DIBA
 Carboxyhemoglobin
28. The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, which is essentially breathing. Oxygen comes
into the body via the airway. Its offloaded onto the red cells while carbon dioxide diffuses across the
membrane into the alveoli and is then exhaled, You breath in oxygen and exhaled CO2, (answer:
ALL SMALL CAPS)
ventillation
29. The area between the lungs is known as the
B. Mediastinum
Name the process of gaseous exchange in the body.

 Lymphatic System
 Cardiovascular System
 Respiratory System
 Respiration
Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea, and bronchi are the parts of the respiratory system.
 True
 False
The process of supplying oxygen to the body cells. (Answer: all small letter)
 oxygenation
What is the name of the gland which secrete melatonin?
 Thyroid Gland
 Hypothalamus
 Pineal Gland
 Pituitary Gland
Systems are going to deliver oxygen at a rate higher than the patient's minute per ventilation.
Remember, this is not a hard AND fast 6liters per minute rule ... it is Relative to the patient's own
minute ventilation, which will change based on their physiologic status, activity and one person to
person.
 Gas Exchange
 FLOW RATE
 Oxyhemoglobin
 BPG
 Carboxyhemoglobin
d.
 Methoglobin
Deliver the oxygen at rate that is less than the amount of air that the patient can inhale or exhale in
one minute (CALLED "MINUTE VENTILLATION.)
 HYPOXIA
 HYPOXEMIA
 Amino acids
 Dorsal respiratory group
 Ventral respiratory group
 Cholesterol
The area between the lungs is known as the?
 pleura
 thoracic cage
 mediastinum
 hilum
 No answer text provided.
How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation?
 6
 4
 2
 7
A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty of breathing and has arterial oxygen
saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?
 Non-rebreather mask
 Nasal cannula
 Simple mask
 Face mask
A slightly obese female client with a history of allergy-induced asthma, hypertension, and mitral
cardiovascular and respiratory system. When percussing the client's chest wall, the nurse expects to
elicit:
 Dull sound
 Flat sounds
 Resonant sounds
 Hyper resonant sounds
A female client is undergoing a complete physical examination as requirement for the college.
When checking the client's respiratory status. The nurse observes respirator excursion to help
assess:
 Vocal sounds
d.
 breath sounds
 chest movements
 lung vibration
Nurse Fatima is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs, if
noticed in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician?
 Bronchospasm
 Blood-streaked sputum
 Dry cough
 Hematuria
The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises. Which of the
following should the nurse include in the teaching?
 Make inhalation longer than exhalation
 Use diaphragmatic breathing
 Exhale through an open mouth
 Use chest breathing
It binds to intracellular corticosteroid receptors, thereby initiating many natural complex reactions
that are responsible for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects.
 bronchodilators
 adrenergic drugs
 steroids
 antihistamine
They initiate a response at the adrenergic receptor sites and mimics the effects of norepinephrine.
 corticosteroids
 adrenergic drugs
 antimicrobials
 antihistamines
Xanthine’s are classified as;
 expectorants
 bronchodilators
 mucolytics
 bronchoconstrictors
Which is a classic finding for a patient with ARDS?
 Development of Cheyne-Stokes respirations
 Development of Kussmaul respirations
 Hypoxemia despite increased oxygen administration
 Bronchodilators ordered to relieve airway spasms
After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first?
 A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions
 A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 91% to 92%
 A patient with pneumonia who has coarse crackles in both lung bases
 A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum
d.
SURE
NOT
SURE
QUIZ
LET
TO
TRY
NET
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lang yan
eh
1. How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation?
a. 2 --- di ko rin sure hahahahahaha
b. 6
c. 4 ←- hindi ba to? HAHAH jk bobo po aq
d. 7
2. Which of the following is NOT the function of the respiratory system?
a. Helps in gaseous exchange
b. Regulate blood Ph
c. Protection against blood loss
d. Contains receptors for the sense of smell
3. Which of the following controls the normal breathing process?
a. Dorsal respiratory group
b. Ventral respiratory group
c. Cholesterol
d. Amino acids
4. It is the body process of supplying oxygenated blood to the cells and is reliant on adequate
cardiac output to be opminuttimal. (ALL small letter) perfusion
5. The process of supplying oxygen to the body cells. (answer: all small letter) cellular
respiration/respiration
6. Which of the following statement is TRUE for pulmonary respiration?

a. Exchange of gasses between alveoli of lungs and the blood
b. Production of atp
d.
c. Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cells
d. Breathing between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs
7. What is the name of the gland which secrete melatonin?

A. Pineal gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pituitary gland
8. Deliver the oxygen at rate that is less than the amount of air that the patient can inhale or
exhale in one minute (CALLED "MINUTE VENTILLATION.)
A. HIGH-FLOW systems
B. HYPOXEMIA
C. LOW-FLOW systems
D. HYPOXIA
9. Gas exchange takes place in the? A. No

answer text provided.
B. trachea
C. pharynx
D. alveoli
E. larynx
10.Types of Alveolar Epithelial Cells most abundant, thin & flat where gas exchange occurs
A. Type IV Pneumocyte
B. Type | Pneumocytes
C. Type III Pneumocyte
D. Type Il Pneumocyte
11. A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty of breathing and has arterial
manifestations?
a. Nasal cannula
b. Non-rebreather mask
c. Face mask
d. Simple mask
12.A slightly obese female client with a history of allergy-induced asthma, hypertension, and mitral
d.
cardiovascular and respiratory system. When percussing the client's chest wall, the nurse
expects to elicit:
a. Resonant sounds
b. Flat sounds
c. Dull sound
Hyper resonant sounds
13.A female client is undergoing a complete physical examination as requirement for the college.
When checking the client's respiratory status. The nurse observes respiratory excursion to help
assess:
a. Vocal sounds
b. Lung vibration
c. Breath sounds
d. Chest movements
14.Nurse Fatima is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which of the following signs,
if noticed in the client, should be reported immediately to the physician?
a. Dry cough
b. Blood-streaked sputum
c. Bronchospasm
d. Hematuria
15.The nurse is teaching a male client with chronic bronchitis about breathing exercises.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Use chest breathing

b. Exhale through an open mouth
c. Use diaphragmatic breathing
d. Make inhalation longer than exhalation
16.It competitively blocks the effects of histamine at H1-receptor sites, has atropine-like, antipruritic
and sedative effects.
a. Antihistamine
b. Expectorants
c. Bronchodilator
d. Adrenergic drugs
17.They initiate a response at the adrenergic receptor sites and mimics the effects of
norepinephrine.
d.
a. Adrenergic drugs
b. Antimicrobials
c. Corticosteroids
d. antihistamines
18.It is ordered for patients in acute respiratory distress, and is often used in an intensive care
situation.
a. mechanical ventilation
b. oxygen therapy
c. chest tube insertion tracheotomy
19.When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective?
a. The patient's Pa02 is 90 mm Hg, and the Sa02 is 92%.
b. Endotracheal suctioning results in minimal mucous return.
c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 24 hours.
d. The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness
.
20.Which is a classic finding for a patient with ARDS?
a. Hypoxemia despite increased oxygen administration

b. Bronchodilators ordered to relieve airway spasms
c. Development of Cheyne-Stokes respirations
d. Development of Kussmaul respirations
21.Nose, larynx, pharynx, lungs, trachea, and bronchi are the parts of the respiratory systems.
a. False
b. True
22.After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first?
a. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions

b. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum
c. A patient with pneumonia who has coarse crackles in both lung bases
d. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 91% to 92%
23.It binds to intracellular corticosteroid receptors, thereby initiating many natural complex
reactions that are responsible for its anti-inflammatory
and immunosuppressive effects.
a. Bronchodilators
b. Steroids
d.
c. Adrenergic drugs
d. antihistamine
24.It involves substances moving across concentration gradients from areas of higher concentration
areas of lower concentration. This is the process involved with gas exchange. (answer: ALL small
letters) diffusion
25.Name the process of gaseous exchange in the body
a. Cardiovascular system
b. Lymphatic system
c. Respiratory system
Respiration
d.
26. Xanthines are classified as: B. Bronchodilators
27. Oxygen and hemoglobin bind in a reversible manner to form ______

a. BPG
b. Methoglobin
c. Oxyhemoglobin ←- hindi ba ito? IKAW SUMAGOT NIITO NUNG FIRST DAY DIBA
d. Carboxyhemoglobin
28. The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, which is essentially breathing. Oxygen comes
intothe body via the airway. Its offloaded onto the red cells while carbon dioxide diffuses across the
membrane into the alveoli and is then exhaled, You breath in oxygen and exhaled CO2, (answer: ALL
SMALL CAPS) gas exchange
29. The are between the lungs is known as the

B. Mediastinum
FA1
Surgical asepsis is a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What personal
protective equipment should the nurse wear at all times in the restricted zone of the operating
room?
Reusable shoe covers

Goggles
Gloves
Mask covering the nose and mouth
You are the circulating nurse, Which task are you solely responsible for?
Monitoring the patient and documents

Setting up the sterile tables
Keeping track of drains and sponges
Estimating the patient's blood loss
The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed. What
action by the nurse is best?
Notify the charge nurse.

Get another piece of equipment
Check the machine before using.
Call maintenance for repair.
The worst of all fears among clients undergoing surgery is:
d.
Fear of loss of job
Fear of financial burden
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
As an OR nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. You know that a basic
guideline for maintaining surgical asepsis is what?
The outer lip of a sterile solution is considered sterile.

Sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces.
The scrub nurse may pour a sterile solution from a nonsterile bottle
Sterile supplies can be used on another patient if the packages are intact
When evaluating the effectiveness of the OR physical environment and flow of traffic and
supplies, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
patient satisfaction with the surgical experience

amount of OR staff turnover.
Infection rates of patients. Eto sagot sa canvas
average length of time for surgical procedures
The most important factor in the prevention of postop infection is:
Frequent change of wound dressings

Fluidintakeof2-3L/day
Practice of strict aseptic techniques
Proper administration of antibiotics
What is the act of cleaning one's hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap for the
purpose of removing dirt or microorganisms?
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by removing or destroying the
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
d.
What is known as sterile technique, prevents contamination of an open wound, serves to isolate
the operative area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Helps plan, implement, and evaluate treatment of the patient.

Well organized
Microscopic single celled or multi celled plants that live either on plants or animals, it can infect
Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices except.

Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively nonabrasive
What are we trying to reduce or eliminate when we are doing handwashing?
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
Which of the following microbes described as the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body parts?
Bacteria eto sagot sa canvas

Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
These are natural disease processes that develop or incubate before the patientis admitted to the
hospital.

Cross infection
d.
Reinfection
It is the chain of infection in which the pathogens leave the reservoir like human secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for handwashing. The nurse is correct if
she/he answered that handwashing is expected to remove:

transient flora from the skin,
When surgery is on-going, who coordinates the activities outside, including the family?
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
In the OR, the nursing tandem for every surgery is
Scrub nurse and nurse anesthetist

Nurse anesthetist, nurse assistant, and instrument technician
Scrub and circulating nurses
Instrument technician and circulating nurse
If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information do you
need to ask the surgeon?
Who are your anesthesiologist, internist, and assistant?

Who is your internist? Eto sagot sa canvas
Who is your anesthesiologist?
Who is your assistant and anesthesiologist, and what is your preferred time and type
of surgery?
1.Surgical asepsis is a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What
personal protective equipment should the nurse wear at all times in the restricted zone
of the operating room?
d.
Goggles
Gloves
2.You are the circulating nurse. Which task are you solely responsible for?
3.The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is
frayed. What action by the nurse is best?
Get another piece of equipment.
4.The worst of all fears among clients undergoing surgery is:
Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
5.As an OR nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. You know that a
basic guideline for maintaining surgical asepsis is what?
Sterile supplies can be used on another patient if the packages are intact.
6.When evaluating the effectiveness of the OR physical environment and flow of traffic
and supplies, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
d.
infection rates of patients. Eto sagot sa cnavas
average length of time for surgical procedures.
7.The most important factor in the prevention of postop infection is:
Fluid intake of 2-3L/day
8.What is the act of cleaning one’s hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap
for the purpose of removing dirt or microorganisms?
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
9.It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by removing or
destroying the pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
10.What is known as sterile technique, prevents contamination of an open wound, serves
to isolate the operative area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field
for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
d.
11.Which of the following are the responsibilities of perioperative nurse?
Well organized
12.Microscopic single celled or multi celled plants that live either on plants or animals, it
can infect Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices except.
Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively nonabrasive.
13.What are we trying to reduce or eliminate when we are doing handwashing?
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
14.Which of the following microbes described as a the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other
body parts?
Bacteria Eto sagot sa cnavas
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
15.These are natural disease processes that develop or incubate before the patient is
admitted to the hospital.
Cross infection
Reinfection
d.
16.It is the chain of infection in which the pathogens leave the reservoir like human
secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
17.The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for handwashing. The nurse is
correct if she/he answered that handwashing is expected to remove:
transient flora from the skin.
18.When surgery is on-going, who coordinates the activities outside, including the family?
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
19.In the OR, the nursing tandem for every surgery is:
20.If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information
do you need to ask the surgeon?
Who is your internist? Eto sagot sa cnavas
d.
of surgery?
-Who is your anesthesiologist?
-Who are your anesthesiologist, internist, and assistant?
The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for handwashing. the nurse is correct if
-transient flora from the skin
the operative area form the unsterile environment, and maintains sterile field for surgery?
-surgical asepsis
what is the act cleaning one’s hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap for the
-handwashing
most important factor in the prevention of postop infection is:

-practice of strict aseptic techniques
when evaluating the effectiveness of the OR physical environment and the flow of traffic and
supplies, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is
-infection rates of patients
as an or nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. you know that a basic
-sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces
worst of all fears among clients undergoing surgery is

-fear of the unknown
the circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed. what
-get another piece of equipment
you are the circulating nurse. which tasks are you solely responsible for?
-monitoring the patient and environment
surgical asepsis is a requirement zone of the operating site. what PPE should the nurse wear at all
times in the restricted one of the OR?
-mask covering the nose and mouth
1. It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a body
cavity for either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during which protective reflexes or self-care
abilities are potentially compromised.
d.
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
2. Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled plants
that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body parts?
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
3. It is the chain of infection in which the pathogens leave the reservoir like human secretions.
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
4. It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by removing or destroying
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
5. Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices EXCEPT:
Proper handling of waste and waste diposal…
d.
6. following are the responsibilities of perioperative nurse?
Sensitive and perceptive
• Well organized
• Helps plan, implement, and evaluate treatment
• Flexible and adaptable
7. The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is
in contact with airborne precautions. Which of the following actions will you perform? Take off the
gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene
Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, perform hand hygiene
Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform hand hygiene
Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform hand hygiene
8.The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes later,
the nurse is informed the surgery is delayed for 20 minutes because the surgeon is working at
another hospital. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
Monitor the sterile field while awaiting the surgeon (ito nasa quizlet)
Close and tape the OR doors so that no one may enter
Tear down the sterile field until the surgeon arrives in the OR
Cover the sterile field with a sterile drape until the surgery is about to begin
9. He is a greek physician who performed an extensive dissection in animals, also he studied the
muscles, spinal cord, heart, urinary system, and proved that the arteries are full of blood.
Lord berkeley george moynihan
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
10. The physical environment control measures of the operating room are designed primarily to
d.
Prevent transmission of infection
Ensures efficient completion of surgical procedures
Protect the privacy of the patient
allow smooth functioning of the operating room team
11 . While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should
limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who compromises this team
Answer: Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
13. What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the OR?
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
14.While the surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the hospital
generator could be started. Emergency lights we're malfunctioning. Whose responsibility was it to
prepare hand flashlight in the OR?
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
15.The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound in
the sacral area. Which PPE items will you use? Select your answer.
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
d.
16.The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within
prescribed time frame and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs surgical
procedure, who monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss?
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
17.This is worn in restricted area to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled
from the mouth and nasopharynx during breathing, talking, sneezing and coughing.
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask
18.Appendectomy is classified as:
Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive
19.When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include the:
Educational level of staff working in the operating room
Clarity of any narrative charting in the patient record.
Number of personnel required for the operative procedure
Patients complaints of pain during perioperative period
20.Which is an example of a hospital-acquired infection?
Diabetic gangrene
d.
Tuberculosis
Gunshot wound septimicia

FA1
Surgical asepsis is a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What personal protective
equipment should the nurse wear at all times in the restricted zone of the operating room?
Goggles
Gloves

The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed. What action
by the nurse is best?
Get another piece of equipment Check

the machine before using.
Fear of loss of job
d.
Fear of financial burden Fear
of death
Fear of the unknown
As an OR nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. You know that a basic guideline for
maintaining surgical asepsis is what?

When evaluating the effectiveness of the OR physical environment and flow of traffic and supplies, the
most important information for the nurse to obtain is:
patient satisfaction with the surgical experience amount of

OR staff turnover.
Infection rates of patients. average length of
time for surgical procedures

What is the act of cleaning one's hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap for the purpose
of removing dirt or microorganisms?
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
d.
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
What is known as sterile technique, prevents contamination of an open wound, serves to isolate the
operative area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis

Well organized
d.
Viruses

Fungi
Bacteria
Bacteria
Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
hospital.

Cross infection
Reinfection
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for handwashing. The nurse is correct if she/he
answered that handwashing is expected to remove:

transient flora from the skin, media
for bacterial growth. all
microorganisms from the skin.
d.
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk

If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information do you need to
ask the surgeon?
Who is your internist?

of surgery?
1.Surgical asepsis is a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What personal
room?
Goggles
Gloves
d.
3.The circulating nurse is plugging in a piece of equipment and notes that the cord is frayed.
What action by the nurse is best?
Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
5.As an OR nurse, you have an increased awareness regarding asepsis. You know that a basic
6.When evaluating the effectiveness of the OR physical environment and flow of traffic and
patient satisfaction with the surgical experience infection
rates of patients.

d.
8.What is the act of cleaning one’s hands with the use of any liquid with or without soap for the
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
9.It is the practice and procedure that maintains a clean environment by removing or destroying
the pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
10.What is known as sterile technique, prevents contamination of an open wound, serves to

isolate the operative area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for
surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Well organized
12.Microscopic single celled or multi celled plants that live either on plants or animals, it can
infect Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices except.
d.
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
14.Which of the following microbes described as a the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body
parts? Bacteria
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
15.These are natural disease processes that develop or incubate before the patient is admitted to
the hospital.
Cross infection
Reinfection
16.It is the chain of infection in which the pathogens leave the reservoir like human secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
17.The nurse supervisor asks her staff about the rationale for handwashing. The nurse is correct
if she/he answered that handwashing is expected to remove: resident flora from the skin. transient
flora from the skin. media for bacterial growth.
d.
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
20.If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information do you
Who is your assistant and anesthesiologist, and what is your preferred time and type of
surgery?
MEDSURG
PAIN & SURGERY EXAM.
During the preoperative interview with the nurse, a patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy to
treat benign tumors of the uterus tells the nurse that she just does not know whether she can go
through with the surgery because she knows she will die in surgery as her mother did. The most
appropriate response by the nurse is: A. You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety.
B. Surgical techniques have improved a lot in recent years

C. Tell me more about what happened to your mother.
D. Many people have fears and anxieties about surgery
You are the nurse caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. In what surgeries a transsacral
block is useful for pain control.
A. Breast reduction
B. Thoracotomy
C. Closed reduction of a right humerus
d.
D. Inguinal hernia repair
The nurse is admitting a patient to the operating room. Which of the following nursing actions should be
given highest priority by the nurse?
A. Positioning and performing skin preparation to the patient

B. Checking the patient’s identification and correct operative permit
C. Checking the patient’s vital signs
D. Assessing the patient’s level of consciousness
While caring for a patient with abdominal surgery the first postoperative day, the nurse notices new
bright-red drainage about 6 cm in diameter on the dressing. In response to this finding, the nurse should
initially
A. Reinforce the dressing

B. Take the patient’s vital signs
C. Notify the patient’s surgeon of a potential hemorrhage
D. Recheck the dressing in 1 hour for increased drainage
The nurse is caring for a first day postoperative surgical client. Prioritize the patient’s desired dietary
progression. Arrange in sequence the dietary progression from 1 to 4:
1. Full liquid
2. NPO
3. Clear liquid
4. Soft
A. 2,1,4,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 4,3,2,1
D. 2,3,1,4
After a new nurse has been oriented to the PACU, the charge nurse will evaluate that the orientation
has been successful when the new nurse
A. Places a patient in the trendelenburg position when the BP drops

B. Assists a patient to the prone position when the patient is nauseated
C. Positions a newly admitted patient supine with the head elevated
D. Turns a patient to the side when the patient arrives in the PACU
Ten minutes after receiving the ordered preoperative opioid by intravenous (IV) injection, the patient
asks to get up to go to the bathroom to urinate. The most appropriate action of the nurse is to
d.
A. Assist the patient to the bathroom and stay with the patient to prevent falls
B. Offer a urinal or bedpan and position the patient in bed to promote voiding
C. Allow the patient up to the bathroom because the onset of the medication takes more than 10
minutes.
D. Ask the patient to wait because catheterization is performed at the beginning of the surgical
procedure.
10. To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the
nurse asks the patient
A. “Can you describe where your pain is the worst”

B. “Can you describe your daily activities in relation to your pain?”
C. “Would you describe your pain as aching, throbbing, or sharp?”
D. “What is the intensity of your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?”
11. A patient being treated for chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because I
can’t even go out and play a round of golf.” The patient describes the pain as “aching” and says it
usually at a level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Base on these assessment data, which
patient goal is most appropriate? After treatment, the patient will
A. Exhibit fever signs of depression

B. Say that aching has decreased
C. State that pain is at level 2 of 10
D. Be able to play 1 to 2 rounds of golf
12. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a
mask over my face?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is,
A. “General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need a
mask over your face.”
B. “A drug will be injected through your IV line, which will cause you to go to sleep almost
immediately.”
C. “Only your surgeon can tell you for sure what method of anesthesia will be used. Should
I ask your surgeon?”
D. “Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat deliver a
gas that will put you to sleep.”
13. An elderly patient with chronic arthritis asks you for suggestions for pain relief. You advise
A. Marijuana
B. Guided imagery
C. Decreasing caffeine
D. Increasing caffeine
d.
14. All the following medications are included in the admission orders for an 86-year-old patient with
moderate degenerative arthritis in both hips. Which medication will the nurse use as an initial
therapy?
A. Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg orally
B. Oxycodone (Roxicodone) 5 mg orally
C. Aspirin (Bayer) 650 mg orally
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally
15. The hospice RN obtains the following information about a 72-year-old terminally ill patient with
cancer of colon. The patient takes oxycodone (OxyContin) 100 mg twice daily for level 6 abdomen
pain on a 10-point scale. The pain has made it difficult to continue with favorite activities such as
playing cards with friends twice a week. The patient’s children are supportive of the patient’s wish
to stop chemotherapy but express sadness that the patient does not have long to live. Based on this
information, which nursing diagnosis has priority in planning patient’s care?
A. Disabled family coping related to patient-family conflict
B. Anxiety related to poor patient coping skills
C. Risk for aspiration related to opioid use
D. Impaired social interaction related to disabling pain
16. A diabetic patient well controlled with insulin injections has been NPO since midnight before having
a mastectomy. The nurse will anticipate the need to
A. Administer a lower dose of insulin because there will be no oral intake before surgery
B. Give the patient the usual insulin dose because stress will increase the blood glucose
C. Withhold any insulin dose because the patient is NPO
D. Obtain a blood glucose measurement before any insulin administration
17. You are the circulating nurse caring for a 78-year-old patient who is scheduled for a total hip
replacement. Which of the factors should you consider during the preparation of the patient in the
operating room?
A. The preoperative shave should be done by the circulating nurse
B. Pressure points should be assessed and well padded
C. The patient should be placed in Trendelenburg position
D. The patient must be firmly restrained at all times
18. The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day for a patient who had
abdominal surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. Four hours later, the patient complains of
abdominal distention and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to
A. Reinsert the NG tube
B. Administer the ordered as-needed morphine sulfate
C. Assist the patient to ambulate in the hall
D. Place the patient on NPO status
d.
19. A patient with a history of chronic cancer pain is admitted to the hospital. When reviewing the
patient’s home medications, which will these will be of most concern to the admitting nurse?
A. Oxycodone (OxyContin) 80 mg twice daily
B. Ibuprofen (Advil) 800 mg three times daily
C. Meperidine (Demerol) 25 mg every 4 hours
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 50 mg at bedtime
20. When a postoperative nurse patient in the PACU complains of pain and the abdominal incision site,
the nurse should
A. Tell the patient that the respiratory rate and effort must be adequate before pain medication
can be administered
B. Administer analgesics as written in the patient’s postoperative orders
C. Give half of the postoperative dose of analgesic ordered for the patient
D. Consult with the ACP to determine an effective dose of an analgesic for the patient
23. A patient with chronic abdominal pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and
hypnosis. A family member asks the nurse how these techniques work. The nurse’s reply will be
based on the information that these strategies.
A. Slow the release of transmitters chemicals in the dorsal horn B. Increase the modulating effect
of the efferent pathways
C. Impact the cognitive and affective components of pain.
D. Prevent transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the cortex
24. A patient who has begun to awaken after 30 minutes in the PACU is restless and shouting at the
nurse. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 99%, and recent lab results are all normal. Which action
by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Insert an oral or nasal airway

B. Be sure that the patient’s IV lines are secure
C. Notify the anesthesia care provider
D. Orient the patient to time, place and person.
25. A patient becomes restless and agitated while beginning to regain consciousness in the PACU, and
the SpO2 is 88 %. The nurse should first:
A. Suction the patient's mouth and throat to clear the airway
B. Listen to the lung sounds to assess for wheezes or congestion
C. Check the nasogastric (NG) tube patency to prevent aspiration of gastric contents.
D. Ask the patient to breathe deeply to open the alveoli
d.
26. On the first postoperative day after a fractured femur, the patient is resting quietly, watching TV.
Your nursing intervention would include:
A. Encouraging ambulation
B. Asking the patient what their pain level is on scale of 1 to 1
C. Administering an ordered dose of opioid
D. Telling the next shift nurse not to give any pain medication.
27. A patients family history reveals that the patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia (MH)
during anesthesia. The nurse explains to the patient that:
A. Surgery must be performed under local anesthesia to prevent development of a sudden,

extreme increase in body temperature
B. Surgery will be delayed until the patient is generally tested to determine whenever he or she is
susceptible to malignant hyperthermia.
C. Anesthesia can be administered with minimal risks with the use of appropriate precautions and
medications
D. As long as succinylcholine (Anectine) is not administered as a muscle relaxant, the reaction
should not occur.
28. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain complains to the nurse of
the rapid onset of pain at a level 9 (of 0-10 scale) and request “something got pain that will work
quickly.” The best way for the nurse to document this informations is as
A. Neuropathic pain
B. Breakthrough pain
C. Somatic pain
D. Referred pain
29. You are caring for a patient who borrowed pain medication from a friend at a beauty salon. She
seems to be experiencing side effects of the medication. Your most appropriate response would
be:
A. Instruct the patient as to the proper use of the medication
B. Stop the medication and call the friend's practitioner.
C. Continue the medication if pain reliefs adequate
D. Take the medication with mlk
30. It would not be unusual for a patient with chronic pain to be taking:
A. Antidiabetic medication
B. Tricyclic antidepressants
C. Antibiotics
d.
D. Hypertensive medication
31. While assessing patients for complications during recovery from anesthesia, the nurse recognizes
that the patient who is at the greatest risk for developing postoperative hypothermia is a:
A. 34-year-old who is having a repair of a knee cartilage under local anesthesia.
B. 68-year-old diabetic undergoing a great-toe amputation under local anesthesia
C. 48-year-old trauma victim having repair of multiple injuries under local anesthesia
D. 62-year-old undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia
32. A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit.
Initially the nurse should:
A. Assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.

B. Notify the health care provider.
C. Palpate the bladder.
D. Perform the ordered prn straight catheterization.
33. A 42-year-old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the
blood pressure (BP) was 124/70. Thirty minutes after admission, the blood pressure falls to 112/60,
with a pulse of 72 and warm, dry skin. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:
A. Administer oxygen therapy at 100% per mask.
B. Increase the rate of the IV fluid replacement.
C. Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes.
D. Notify the anesthesia care provider (ACP) immediately.
34. The nurse notes that a preoperative patient is drowsy but oriented in the receiving area. To
identify the patient, the nurse should:
A. Check the patient’s hospital ID number with the ID band and patient chart.
B. Check the patient’s hospital ID number with the ID band and patient chart.
C. Ask family members to verify the patient’s identity, the surgeon, and the planned operative
procedure and location.
D. Have the patient state name, doctor’s name, and the operative procedure planned in addition
to checking the hospital number, ID band, and chart.
35. When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural morphine, which information obtained by the
nurse indicates that the patient may be experiencing a side effect of the medication? A. The patient
becomes restless and agitated.
B. The patient complains of a “pounding” headache.
C. The patient has not voided for over 10 hours.
D. The patient has cramping abdominal pain.
d.
36. An elderly patient has a two-year history of back pain from arthritis. You would encourage: A.
Diagnostic tests.
B. Vigorous physical therapy
C. Use of antibiotics for pain management.
D. Lifestyle modification and NSAIDs.
37. Which information about medication use in preoperative patients is most important to
communicate to the health care provider?
A. The patient has a history of cocaine use but quit using the drug over 10 yrs ago.
B. The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) as needed for occasional aches and pains.
C. The patient took a sedative medication the previous night to assist in falling asleep.
D. The patient takes garlic capsules daily but did not take any on the surgical day.
38. You are caring for a male patient who has had spinal anesthesia. The patient is under a physician’s
order to lie flat postoperatively. When the patient asks to go to the bathroom, you encourage him
to comply with the physician’s order. What is the rationale for complying with this order?
A. Hypotension
B. Respiratory depression
C. Pain at the lumbar injection site
D. A headache
39. After orienting a new staff member to the scrub nurse role, the charge nurse will know that the
education was effective if the new staff member:
A. Takes the patient to the postanesthesia recovery area.
B. Documents all patient care accurately.
C. Labels all specimens to send to the lab
D. Keeps both hands above the operating table level.
40. The health care provider tells a patient to use ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) to relieve pain after
treating a laceration of the patient’s forearm from a dog bite. The patient asks the nurse how
ibuprofen will control the pain. The nurse will teach the patient that ibuprofen interferes with the
pain process by decreasing the:
A. Sensitivity of the brain to painful stimuli.
B. Modulating effect of descending nerves.
C. Spinal cord transmission of pain impulses.
D. Production of pain-sensitizing chemicals.
41. You are the nurse caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. In what surgeries would
a transsacral block be useful for pain control?
d.
A. Inguinal hernia repair
B. Closed reduction of a right humerus
C. Breast reduction
D. Thoracotomy
42. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively who develops sinus tachycardia. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
A. Manage the client’s anxiety
B. Apply warmed blankets
C. Administer atropine sulfate
D. Position the client in a left lateral position
43. A surgical patient received a volatile liquid as an inhalation anesthetic during surgery.
Postoperatively the nurse should monitor the patient for:
A. Incisional pain
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Hypertension
44. The intraoperative activity that is performed by the perioperative nurse and is specific to the
circulating functions is:
A. Preparing the instrument table and sterile equipment
B. Passing instruments to the surgeon and assistants
C. Admitting, identifying, and assessing the patients
D. Counting sponges, needles and surgical instruments
45. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of imipramine (Totranil), a tricyclic antidepressant, for a
patient who is receiving the medication to help relieve chronic cancer pain. Which information is
the best indicator that the imipramine is effective?
A. Take patients states “ I feel much less depressant since ive been taking imipramine”
B. The patient says that the pain is manageable and that he or she can accomplish desired
activities.
C. The patient sleeps 8 hours every night.
D. The patient has no symptoms of anxiety.
46. While caring for a postoperative patient on the second postoperative day, which information about
the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider:
A. The 24-hour intake is 600 ml greater than the output
d.
B. The patient’s temperature is 100.3 F
C. The right calf is swollen, warm, and painful
D. The patient complains of 6 on a 10-point pain scale when walking
47. The nurse is admitting a patient to the operating room. Which of the following nursing
actions should be given

48. A patient is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic.
Preoperatively, it is most important for the nurse to determine whether the:
A. Patient has someone available for transportation and care at home

B. Patient plans to stay overnight at the surgical center
C. Patient’s medical plan covers outpatient surgery
D. Patient has had any experience with outpatient surgery in the past
49. 50.
51. When the patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the
nurse on the surgical unit should be to:
A. Read the postoperative orders

B. Check the rate of the IV infusion
C. Take the patient's vital signs
D. Assess the patient's skin
52. Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before
surgery?
A. To prevent electrolyte imbalance

B. To prevent malnutrition
C. To prevent aspiration pneumonia
D. To prevent intestinal obstruction
d.
53. You are the circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center. Your patient is scheduled to receive
moderate sedation. You know that a patient receiving this form of anesthesia should?
A. Never be left unattended by the nurse

B. Receive an antiemetic
C. Be able to maintain his or her own airway
D. Remember most of the procedure
54. The nurse evaluates that the intervention for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance
in a postoperative patient have been successful when the
A. Patients breath sound are clear to auscultation

B. Patient drinks 2 to 3 L of fluid in 24 hrs
C. Patient uses the spirometer 10 times every hour
D. Patients temperature is less than 100.4 F orally
55. When caring for a patient during the second postoperative day after abdominal surgery, the nurse
obtains an oral temperature of 100.8 F. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take first?
A. Have the patient use the incentive spirometer.

B. Assess the surgical incision for redness and swelling.
C. Administer the ordered PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
D. Notify the patient's health care provider about the fever.
56. The nurse is obtaining the health history for a patient who is scheduled for outpatient knee
surgery. Which statement by the patient is most important to report to the health care provider?
A. I had rheumatic fever when I was 6 years old

B. I had bacterial pneumonia 2 years ago
C. I have a strong family history of breast cancer
D. I Have knee pain whenever I walk or jog
57. In intervening to promote ambulation, coughing, deep breathing, and turning by a postoperative
patient on the first postoperative day, which action by the nurse is most helpful?
A. Administer ordered analgesic medications before these activities

B. Give the patient positive reinforcement for accomplishing these activities
C. Discuss the complications of immobility and poor cough effort
D. Teach the patient the purpose of respiratory care and ambulation
Your nursing interventions would include:
d.
A. Administering an ordered dose of opioid
B. Encouraging ambulation
C. Telling the next shift nurse not to give any pain medication
D. Asking the patient what their pain level is on a scale of 1 to 10
replacement. Which of the factors should you consider during the preparation of the patient in
the operating room?

B. Pressure points should be assessed and well padded C. The patient should be placed in
Trendelenburg position
D. The patient must be firmly restrained at all times.
60. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is
most important to do before surgery?
A. Verify that all laboratory work is complete

B. Inform family or next of kin
C. Remove all jewelries or tape wedding ring
D. Have all consent forms signed
A. A headache
D. Hypotension
62. Your post discharge instructions for a 65-year-old male with peripheral neuropathy from diabetes
would include:
A. Walk barefoot to increase the stimulation

B. Wear socks and shoes
C. Soak feet in hot water daily
D. Check feet weekly for wounds
63. Prior to giving a requested pain medication, you would:
A. Call a doctor
d.
B. Administer after the family left
C. Assess the vital signs
D. Wait longer, the patient did not appear to be uncomfortable
based on the information that these strategies
A. Increase the modulating effect of the efferent pathways

B. Impact the cognitive and affective components of pain
C. Slow the release of transmitter chemicals in the dorsal horn
65. A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the
dislocation with conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of
A. IV midazolam (Versed)
B. Intramuscular fentanyl/ droperidol (Innovar)
C. Inhaled nitrous oxide
D. Intramuscular ketamine (Ketalar)
66. A nurse is caring for a patient following surgery under a spinal anesthetic. What interventions can
the nurse implement to prevent a spinal headache?
A. Keep the patient lying flat

B. Have the patient sit in a chair
C. Ambulate the patient
D. Limit fluids
67. Which of the following factors ensure validity of informed written consent, except:
A. If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient
B. If the patient is a child, secure consent from the parents or legal guardian
C. The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition
D. The consent is secured before administration of preoperative medications
68. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a
A. “Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to deliver
a gas that will put you to sleep.”
d.
immediately.”
C. “General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need a
D. “Only your surgeon can tell you for sure what method of anesthesia will be used. Should I ask
your surgeon?”
69. Postoperatively a patient is receiving low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). When administering

this drug, the nurse
A. Informs the patient that frequent blood testing will be necessary

B. Checks the baseline activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT)
C. Administers the dose with meals to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding
D. Explains that the drug will help prevent clot formation in the legs
70. The circulating nurse and the scrub technician find a discrepancy in the sponge count.
Which action should the circulating nurse take first?
A. Contact the surgical manager

B. Complete an occurrence report
C. Re-count all sponges
D. Notify the client’s surgeon
71. A client is experiencing confusion in the immediate postoperative period. Which of the following
assessments is essential to determine the reason for the confusion?
A. Cardiac rhythm
B. Level of consciousness
C. Airway status
D. Level of anxiety
72. The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a patient
when
A. Same-day discharge is desirable after surgery

B. The patient has recently taken food and fluids
C. The patient is very apprehensive about having surgery
D. The surgical procedure requires major-muscle relaxation
Postoperatively the nurse should monitor the patient for
A. Hypertension
d.
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Incisional pain
74. A postoperative patient who has undergone extensive bowel surgery moves as little as possible
and does not use the incentive spirometer unless specifically reminded. The patient rates the pain
severity as an 8 on a 10-point scale but tells the nurse, “I can tough it out.” In encouraging the
patient to use pain medication, the best explanation by nurse is that
A. Unrelieved pain can be harmful due to the effect on respiratory function and activity level
B. Very few patient become addicted to opioids when using them for acute pain control
C. There are many pain medications and if one drug is ineffective, other drugs may be tried
D. There is little need to worry about side effects because these problems decrease over time
75. A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the dislocation
with conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of:
A. IV midazolam (versed)
B. Intramuscular fentanyl/droperidol (innovar)
D. Intramuscular ketamine (ketalar)
76. The most appropriate assessment of the efficacy of administered pain medication would be:
A. The nurse vital assessment

B. Changes in blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate,
C. The patient’s perception measured on pain scale
D. The nurse’s verbal assessment
77. A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based
on the foods on the client’s tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client’s current order to be:
(PRO PROFS)
A. Bland diet
B. Soft diet
C. Regular diet
D. Full liquid diet
78. To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the nurse
asks the patient: (QUIZLET)
A. “What is the intensity of your pain on a scale of 0 to 10”

B. “Can you describe your daily activities in relation to your pain”
d.
C. “Would you describe your pain as aching, throbbing, or sharp”
D. “Can you describe where your pain is the worst”
79. A hospice patient is in continuous pain, and the health care provider has left orders to administer
morphine at a rate that controls the pain. When the nurse visits the patient, the patient is awake
but moaning with severe pain and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. The respiratory
rate is 10 breaths per minute. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to:
A. Titrate the morphine dose upward until the patient states there adequate pain relief.
B. Tell the patient that additional morphine can be administered when the respirations are 12
C. Administer a nonopioid analgesic, such as ibuprofen, to improve patient pain control. D. Inform
the patient that increasing the morphine will cause the respiratory drive to fail.
80. Which of the following primarily prevents post op complications?(QUIZLET)
A. Administered of antimicrobials
B. Early ambulation
C. Adequate fluid intake
D. Well-balanced diet
81. Following gallbladder surgery, a patient has a T-tube with thick, dark green drainage. When the
patient asks about the tube and the drainage, the best response by the nurse is
A. “The drainage is from your gallbladder, but it should be bright yellow rather than green”
B. “The drainage is old blood and fluid that accumulates at the surgical sites. Its removal will
promote healing.”
C. The tube is draining secretions from the duodenum and small bowel, and this is normal
drainage from this area.”
D. “The tube you see has been placed in the bile duct, and the drainage is normal bile.”
82. A patient being treated for chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because
I can’t even go out and play a round of golf.” Thepatient describes the pain as “aching” and says it
is usually at a level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Based on these assessment data, which
A. State the pain is at level 2 of 10

C. Be able to play 1 to 2 rounds of a golf
D. Exhibit fewer signs of depression
83. The perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the
preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room primarily to:
d.
(QUIZLET)
A. Assist the perioperative nurse to obtain a complete patient history.

B. Help relieve the stress of separation for the patient and significant others.
C. Protect the patient from cross contamination with other patients.
D. Ensure the proper identification of the patient prior to surgery.
84. A 42- year old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the
blood pressure was 124/70. Thirty minutes after the admission, blood pressure falls to 112/60,
(QUIZLET)
A. Increase the rate IV fluid replacement

B. Administer oxygen therapy at 100% per mask
C. Notify the anesthesia care provider ACP immediately
D. Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes.
85. The nurse notes that the oxygen saturation is 88 % in an unconscious patient who was transferred
to the PACU 10 minutes previously. Which nurse should take first?
A. Elevate the patients head

B. Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Suction the patient’s mouth
D. Increase the oxygen flow rate
86. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “ Will the doctor put me to sleep with a
mask over my face?” the most appropriate response by the nurse is?
A. A drug will be injected through your IV line, which will cause you to go to sleep almost
immediately
B. Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to deliver a
gas that will put you to sleep.
C. General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need a
mask over your face."
D. Only your surgeon can tell you for sure what method of anesthesia will be used. Should I ask
your surgeon?"
87. The nurse from the general surgical unit is asked to bring the patient's hearing aid to the surgical
site. The nurse will take the hearing aid to the
A. corridors of the operating room area.

B. clean core.
d.
C. scrub sink areas.
D. nursing station or information desk.
A. Marijuana
B. Decreasing caffeine
C. Increasing caffeine
D. Guided imagery
89. A patient is receiving morphine sulfate intravenously (IV) for right flank pain associated
with a kidney stone in the right ureter. The patient also complains of right inner thigh
pain and asks the nurse whether something is wrong with the right leg. In responding to
the question, the nurse understand that the patient
A. Has acute pain that may be progressing into chronic pain

B. Is experiencing referred pain from the kidney stone
C. Experiencing pain perception that has been affected by the morphine received earlier.
D. Has neuropathic pain from nerve damage cause by inflammation
90. The nurse evaluate that the interventions for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway
clearance postoperative patient been successful when the
A. Patients temperature is less than 100.4 F daily

B. Patients breath sound are clear to auscultation C. Patient uses the spirometer 10 time
every hour
D. Patient drinks 2 to 3 L of fluid in 24hours.
91. When the nurse in the clinic is doing a preoperative assessment for a patient who is scheduled for
outpatient surgery in 1 week, which information about the patient is most important to
communicate to the staff at the outpatient surgery center before the patient arrives for surgery?
A. The patient has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin

B. The patient is allergic to latex products
C. The patient has lactose intolerance
D. The patient develops itching when iodine is used on the skin
surgery?
A. To prevent malnutrition
d.
B. To prevent electrolyte imbalance
C. To prevent intestinal obstruction
D. To prevent aspiration pneumonia
93. A mother is concerned about her teenage son who is depressed and irritable. His school teachers
have called, concerned about his declining grades. You would ask:
A. If you can recommend a psychiatrist

B. About any allergies
C. If he has a fever
D. About any family history of substance use disorders
A. Intramuscular fentanyl/droperidol (Innovar)

B. Inhaled nitrous oxide
C. Intramuscular ketamine (Ketalar)
D. IV midazolam (Versed)
95. Data obtained during the perioperative nurse’s assessment of a patient in the preoperative
holding area that would indicate a need for special protection techniques during surgery include
A. Having a sip of water 2 hours previously

B. A history of spinal and hip arthritis
C. Verbalization of anxiety by the patient
D. A stated allergy to cats and dogs
96. The health care provider plans to titrate a patient-controlled opioid infusion (PCA) to provide pain
relief for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opioids in the past. Which of
the following nursing actions regarding opioid administration are appropriate at this time?
A. Educating the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity level
B. Assessing for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opioid C. Emphasizing that the
risk of opioid side effects increases over time
D. Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects of opioid administration
E. Teaching about the need to decrease opioid doses by the second postoperative day
97. A patient’s blood pressure in the PACU has dropped from an admission blood pressure of
138/84 to 110/78 with a pulse change of 68 to 84. The first action indicated by the nurse is to
A. Assess the patient’s dressing
d.
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
C. Raise the iv infusion rate
D. Check the patient’s temperature
A. Complete an occurrence report

B. Recount all sponges
C. Notify the client’s surgeon
D. Contact the surgical manager
A. Assess the surgical incision for redness and swelling
B. Have the patient use the incentive spirometer
C. Administer the ordered prn acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. Notify the patient’s health care provider about the fever
100. To prevent complications of immobility, which activity would a nurse plan for the first
postoperative day after colon resection?
A. Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 mins around the clock
B. Provide passive range of motion three times a day
C. It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first postoperative day
D. Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair
101. When maintaining aseptic technique in operating room, the perioperative nurse who is in the
scrubbing role will
A. Wear personal protective equipment such as gloves and face shields
B. Use waterproof shoe covers to keep the shoe sterile
C. Ensure that all staff in the OR have performed a surgical scrub D. Change gloves after touching
the upper arm of the surgeon’s gown
102. What is the best rationale for intubation during surgical procedure?
A. The patient's heart rate can be monitored with the tube
B. The tube protects the esophagus
C. The tube provides an airway for ventilation
D. The patient may receive an antiemetic through the tube
103. The nursing student is preparing an elderly patient for surgery. The patient is scheduled for a
general aesthetic. Which side effect should the nurse monitor the patient to:
d.
A. Cerebral ischemia’
B. Hypothermia
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Increased ability to resist stress
104. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning, preoperative orders have been written, what is
the most important thing to do before surgery?
A. Have all consent forms signed
D. Verify that all laboratory work is complete
105. A patient who has just started taking sustained- release morphine sulfate (MS contin) for a
chronic pain complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The most appropriate initial action by
the nurse is to :
A. Order the patient a clear liquid diet until nausea decreases.
B. Tell the patient that the nausea will subside in about a week.
C. Administer the ordered metoclopramide (plasil) 10 mg 1V
D. Consult with the health care provider about using a different opioid.
106. A 45 year old patient has breast cancer that has spread to the liver and spine. The patient has
been taking oxycodone (Oxycontin) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home but now has
constant severe pain and is hospitalized for pain control and development of a pain management
program. When doing the initial assessment. Which question will be the most appropriate to ask
first?
A. How long have you had this pain?

B. How would you describe your pain?
C. How many times a day do you medicate for pain?
D. How much medication do you take for the pain?
Preoperatively it is most important for the nurse to determine whether the:

B. Patient has had any experience with the outpatient surgery in the past C. Patient plants to stay
overnight at the surgical center
D. Patient’s medical plan covers outpatient surgery.
d.
108. The nurse is assessing a 36-years old woman who has been admitted for knee surgery. Which
information obtained during the preoperative assessment should be reported to the surgeon
before surgery?
A. The patient’s concern that she will be unable to care for her children postoperatively
B. The patient’s lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control measures C. The patient's
history of postoperative infection following a prior cholecystectomy
D. The patient’s statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks previously.
109. The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a
patient when
A. The patient is very apprehensive about having surgery
B. Same-day discharge is desirable after the surgery.
C. The surgical procedure requires major- muscle relaxation.
D. The patient has recently taken the food and fluids
110. Appropriate preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for abdominal surgery includes A.
Care for the surgical incision.
B. Methods for effective deep breathing and coughing
C. Medications used during surgery
D. The need to complete all ordered antibiotics after surgery
111. When the nurse interviews a 53-year-old patient who is to have abdominal surgery using a
general anesthetic, which information is most important to communicate to the surgeon and
anesthesiologist before surgery?
A. The patient’s father died after receiving general anesthesia for abdominal surgery.
B. The patient drank a glass of apple juice 3 hours before coming to the hospital.
C. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee every morning before going to work.
112. Postoperatively a patient is receiving low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). When

administering this drug, the nurse
113. A patient with chronic cancer pain experiences breakthrough pain (level 9 of 10) and anxiety
while receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) 160 mg every 12 hours. All these
medications are ordered for the patient. Which one will be most appropriate for the nurse to
administer first?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally
d.
B. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400-800 mg orally
C. Immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 10 mg orally.
114. A two day postoperative right-below-the knee amputation patient complains of severe right foot
pain. Your appropriate nursing response would be:
A. Medicate the patient for pain
B. Refer the patient to psychiatry
C. Explain to patient the pain is not real because the foot is not here
D. Encourage guided imagery or another diversion technique.
115. For which of these actions by an inexperienced staff member would the charge nurse be
required to intervene?
A. Wearing street clothes into the nursing station
B. Walking into the hallway outside an operating room without the hair covered
C. Wearing surgical mask into the holding room
D. Putting on a surgical mask, cap, and scrubs before entering the operating room.
116. An 83 year old patient had a surgical repair of a hip fracture and has restrictions on ambulation.
Based on this information the nurse identifies the priority collaborative problem for the patient as
potential complication:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. Imapaired surgical wound healing
D. thromboembolism
117. As the nurse prepares a patient the morning of surgery, the patient refuse to remove a
wedding ring saying, “ I have never taken off since the day I was married.” The nurse should
A. Tell the patient that the hospital is not liable for loss of the ring
B. Have the patient sign a release and leave the ring on
C. Suggest that the patient give the ring to a family member to keep
D. Tape the wedding ring securely to the patients finger
MEDSURG
PAIN & SURGERY EXAM.
d.
appropriate response by the nurse is: A. You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety.

A. Breast reduction
B. Thoracotomy

initially

1. Full liquid
2. NPO
3. Clear liquid
4. Soft
A. 2,1,4,3
d.
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 4,3,2,1
D. 2,3,1,4

C. Allow the patient up to the bathroom because the onset of the medication takes more than 10
minutes.
procedure.
10. To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the

can’t even go out and play a round of golf.” The patient describes the pain as “aching” and says it
usually at a level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Base on these assessment data, which

12. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a
d.
immediately.”
C. “Only your surgeon can tell you for sure what method of anesthesia will be used. Should
I ask your surgeon?”
A. Marijuana
B. Guided imagery
14. All the following medications are included in the admission orders for an 86-year-old patient with
moderate degenerative arthritis in both hips. Which medication will the nurse use as an initial
therapy?
15. The hospice RN obtains the following information about a 72-year-old terminally ill patient with
cancer of colon. The patient takes oxycodone (OxyContin) 100 mg twice daily for level 6 abdomen
pain on a 10-point scale. The pain has made it difficult to continue with favorite activities such as
playing cards with friends twice a week. The patient’s children are supportive of the patient’s wish
to stop chemotherapy but express sadness that the patient does not have long to live. Based on this
information, which nursing diagnosis has priority in planning patient’s care?
16. A diabetic patient well controlled with insulin injections has been NPO since midnight before having
a mastectomy. The nurse will anticipate the need to
d.
operating room?
18. The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day for a patient who had
abdominal surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. Four hours later, the patient complains of
abdominal distention and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to
19. A patient with a history of chronic cancer pain is admitted to the hospital. When reviewing the
patient’s home medications, which will these will be of most concern to the admitting nurse?
20. When a postoperative nurse patient in the PACU complains of pain and the abdominal incision site,
the nurse should
can be administered
based on the information that these strategies.
A. Slow the release of transmitters chemicals in the dorsal horn B. Increase the modulating effect
of the efferent pathways
d.
24. A patient who has begun to awaken after 30 minutes in the PACU is restless and shouting at the
nurse. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 99%, and recent lab results are all normal. Which action
by the nurse is most appropriate?

25. A patient becomes restless and agitated while beginning to regain consciousness in the PACU, and
the SpO2 is 88 %. The nurse should first:
Your nursing intervention would include:
27. A patients family history reveals that the patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia (MH)
during anesthesia. The nurse explains to the patient that:

medications
should not occur.
28. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain complains to the nurse of
the rapid onset of pain at a level 9 (of 0-10 scale) and request “something got pain that will work
quickly.” The best way for the nurse to document this informations is as
A. Neuropathic pain
d.
C. Somatic pain
D. Referred pain
29. You are caring for a patient who borrowed pain medication from a friend at a beauty salon. She
seems to be experiencing side effects of the medication. Your most appropriate response would
be:
D. Take the medication with mlk
30. It would not be unusual for a patient with chronic pain to be taking:
C. Antibiotics
31. While assessing patients for complications during recovery from anesthesia, the nurse recognizes
that the patient who is at the greatest risk for developing postoperative hypothermia is a:
32. A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit.

33. A 42-year-old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the
blood pressure (BP) was 124/70. Thirty minutes after admission, the blood pressure falls to 112/60,
d.
34. The nurse notes that a preoperative patient is drowsy but oriented in the receiving area. To
identify the patient, the nurse should:
D. Have the patient state name, doctor’s name, and the operative procedure planned in addition
to checking the hospital number, ID band, and chart.
35. When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural morphine, which information obtained by the
nurse indicates that the patient may be experiencing a side effect of the medication? A. The patient
becomes restless and agitated.
36. An elderly patient has a two-year history of back pain from arthritis. You would encourage: A.
Diagnostic tests.
C. Use of antibiotics for pain management.
37. Which information about medication use in preoperative patients is most important to
communicate to the health care provider?
A. Hypotension
D. A headache
39. After orienting a new staff member to the scrub nurse role, the charge nurse will know that the
d.
40. The health care provider tells a patient to use ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) to relieve pain after
treating a laceration of the patient’s forearm from a dog bite. The patient asks the nurse how
ibuprofen will control the pain. The nurse will teach the patient that ibuprofen interferes with the
pain process by decreasing the:
41. You are the nurse caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. In what surgeries would
a transsacral block be useful for pain control?
C. Breast reduction
D. Thoracotomy
42. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively who develops sinus tachycardia. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
Postoperatively the nurse should monitor the patient for:
A. Incisional pain
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Hypertension
44. The intraoperative activity that is performed by the perioperative nurse and is specific to the
circulating functions is:
d.
45. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of imipramine (Totranil), a tricyclic antidepressant, for a
patient who is receiving the medication to help relieve chronic cancer pain. Which information is
the best indicator that the imipramine is effective?
activities.
46. While caring for a postoperative patient on the second postoperative day, which information about
the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider:

47. The nurse is admitting a patient to the operating room. Which of the following nursing
actions should be given


49. 50.
51. When the patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the
nurse on the surgical unit should be to:
d.
52. Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before surgery?

53. You are the circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center. Your patient is scheduled to receive

54. The nurse evaluates that the intervention for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance
in a postoperative patient have been successful when the


56. The nurse is obtaining the health history for a patient who is scheduled for outpatient knee surgery.
Which statement by the patient is most important to report to the health care provider?

d.
57. In intervening to promote ambulation, coughing, deep breathing, and turning by a postoperative
patient on the first postoperative day, which action by the nurse is most helpful?

Your nursing interventions would include:

operating room?

B. Pressure points should be assessed and well padded C. The patient should be placed in
Trendelenburg position
60. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is

A. A headache
d.
D. Hypotension
62. Your post discharge instructions for a 65-year-old male with peripheral neuropathy from diabetes
would include:

63. Prior to giving a requested pain medication, you would:
A. Call a doctor
based on the information that these strategies

66. A nurse is caring for a patient following surgery under a spinal anesthetic. What interventions can
the nurse implement to prevent a spinal headache?

D. Limit fluids
d.
67. Which of the following factors ensure validity of informed written consent, except:
68. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask
over my face?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is,
A. “Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to deliver
a gas that will put you to sleep.”
immediately.”
C. “General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need a
your surgeon?”
69. Postoperatively a patient is receiving low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). When administering

this drug, the nurse


71. A client is experiencing confusion in the immediate postoperative period. Which of the following
A. Cardiac rhythm
C. Airway status
D. Level of anxiety
d.
72. The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a patient
when

A. Hypertension
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Incisional pain
74. A postoperative patient who has undergone extensive bowel surgery moves as little as possible and
does not use the incentive spirometer unless specifically reminded. The patient rates the pain
severity as an 8 on a 10-point scale but tells the nurse, “I can tough it out.” In encouraging the
patient to use pain medication, the best explanation by nurse is that
75. A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the dislocation
with conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of:
76. The most appropriate assessment of the efficacy of administered pain medication would be:

d.
77. A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based on
the foods on the client’s tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client’s current order to be:
(PRO PROFS)
A. Bland diet
B. Soft diet
C. Regular diet
D. Full liquid diet
78. To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the nurse asks
the patient: (QUIZLET)

79. A hospice patient is in continuous pain, and the health care provider has left orders to administer
morphine at a rate that controls the pain. When the nurse visits the patient, the patient is awake
but moaning with severe pain and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. The respiratory rate
is 10 breaths per minute. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to:
C. Administer a nonopioid analgesic, such as ibuprofen, to improve patient pain control. D. Inform
the patient that increasing the morphine will cause the respiratory drive to fail.
80. Which of the following primarily prevents post op complications?(QUIZLET)
B. Early ambulation
81. Following gallbladder surgery, a patient has a T-tube with thick, dark green drainage. When the
patient asks about the tube and the drainage, the best response by the nurse is
promote healing.”
d.
can’t even go out and play a round of golf.” Thepatient describes the pain as “aching” and says it is
usually at a level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Based on these assessment data, which

83. The perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the
preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room primarily to:
(QUIZLET)

84. A 42- year old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the
blood pressure was 124/70. Thirty minutes after the admission, blood pressure falls to 112/60, with
a pulse of 72 and warm, dry skin. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:
(QUIZLET)

85. The nurse notes that the oxygen saturation is 88 % in an unconscious patient who was transferred
to the PACU 10 minutes previously. Which nurse should take first?

86. A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “ Will the doctor put me to sleep with a
mask over my face?” the most appropriate response by the nurse is?
d.
immediately
B. Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to deliver a
gas that will put you to sleep.
C. General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need a
mask over your face."
your surgeon?"
The nurse from the general surgical unit is asked to bring the patient's hearing aid to the surgical site.
The nurse will take the hearing aid to the

B. clean core.
An elderly patient with chronic arthritis asks you for suggestions for pain relief. You advise
A. Marijuana
D. Guided imagery
A patient is receiving morphine sulfate intravenously (IV) for right flank pain associated with a
kidney stone in the right ureter. The patient also complains of right inner thigh pain and asks
the nurse whether something is wrong with the right leg. In responding to the question, the
nurse understand that the patient

C. Experiencing pain perception that has been affected by the morphine received earlier.
The nurse evaluate that the interventions for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway

B. Patients breath sound are clear to auscultation C. Patient uses the
spirometer 10 time every hour
d.
When the nurse in the clinic is doing a preoperative assessment for a patient who is scheduled for
outpatient surgery in 1 week, which information about the patient is most important to communicate to
the staff at the outpatient surgery center before the patient arrives for surgery?

Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before surgery?
A mother is concerned about her teenaged son who is depressed and irritable. His school teachers have
called, concerned about his declining grades. You would ask:

A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the dislocation with
conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of

Data obtained during the perioperative nurse’s assessment of a patient in the preoperative holding area
that would indicate a need for special protection techniques during surgery include

d.
The health care provider plans to titrate a patient-controlled opioid infusion (PCA) to provide pain relief
for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opioids in the past. Which of the following
nursing actions regarding opioid administration are appropriate at this time?
A. Educating the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity level
B. Assessing for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opioid
C. Emphasizing that the risk of opioid side effects increases over time
D. Monitoring for therapeutic
A patient’s blood pressure in the PACU has dropped from an admission blood pressure of
138/84 to 110/78 with a pulse change of 68 to 84. The first action indicated by the nurse is to

The circulating nurse and the scrub technician find a discrepancy in the sponge count. Which action
should the circulating nurse take first?

B. Re-count all sponges
When caring for a patient during the second postoperative day after abdominal surgery, the nurse

To prevent complications of immobility, which activity would a nurse plan for the first postoperative day
after colon resection?
d.
When maintaining aseptic technique in operating room, the perioperative nurse who is in the scrubbing
role will

C. Ensure that all staff in the OR have performed a surgical scrub
D. Change gloves after touching the upper arm of the surgeon’s gown
What is the best rationale for intubation during surgical procedure?

The nursing student is preparing and elderly patient for surgery. The patient is scheduled for a general
aesthetic. Which side effect should the nurse monitor the patient to:
B. Hypothermia
C. Pulmonary edema
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning, preoperative orders have been written, what is the

A patient who has just started taking sustained- release morphine sulfate (MS contin) for a chronic pain
complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is to :

d.
A 45 year old patient has a breast cancer that has spread to the liver and spine. The patient has been
taking oxycodone (Oxycontin) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home but now has constant
severe pain and is hospitalized for pain control and development of a pain management program. When
doing the initial assessment. Which question will be the most appropriate to ask first?

A patient is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic. Preoperatively it is most
important for the nurse to determine whether the:

B. Patient has had any experience with the outpatient surgery in the past
d.
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
d.
• Well organized
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
d.
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
d.
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask
Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive
d.
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
PAIN AND SURGERY
FA1
Question 1
He is a Greek physician who performed an extensive dissection in animals, also he studied the muscles,
spinal cord, heart, urinary system, and proved that the arteries are full of blood.
O Abraham Lincoln
O Lord Berkeley George Moynihan
O Florence Nightingale
O Claudius Galen
Question 2
It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a body cavity for
either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during which protective reflexes or self-care abilities are
potentially compromised.
O Surgical Procedure
O Disinfection
O Asepsis
d.
O Aseptic Technique
Question 3
Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled plants that live
either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body parts?
O Bacteria
O Rickettsiae
O Protozoa
O Fungi
Question 4
These are natural disease processes that develop or incubate before the patient is admitted to the
hospital. O Reinfection
O Nosocomial infection
O Community acquired infection

O Cross infection
Question 5
O Reservoir
O Portal of entry
O Mode of transmission
O Portal of exit
Question 6
pathogens.
O Aseptic Technique
O Medical asepsis
O Asepsis
O Surgical Asepsis
Question 7
d.
Following are the standard precautions of infection control practices EXCEPT:
O Environment cleaning and spills management
O Be free from toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes and be relatively nonabrasive.
O Wearing of appropriate PPE
O Proper handling of waste and waste disposal
Question 8
O Flexible and Adaptable
O Sensitive and Perceptive
O Helps plan, implement and evaluate treatment of the patient.

O Well organized
Question 9
The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is in contact
with airborne precautions. Which of the following actions will you perform?
O Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform hand
hygiene
O Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, perform
hand
hygiene
O Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
O Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
Question 10
The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes later, the
nurse is informed the surgery is delayed for 20 minutes because the surgeon is working at another
hospital.
Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
O Monitor the sterile field while awaiting the surgeon.

O Close and tape the OR doors so that no one may enter.
d.
O Cover the sterile field with a sterile drape until the surgery is about to begin.
O Tear down the sterile field until the surgeon arrives in the OR.
Question 11
The physical environment and traffic control measures of the operating room are designed primarily to:
O prevent transmission of infection.

O allow smooth functioning of the operating room team.
O ensure efficient completion of surgical procedures.

O protect the privacy of the patient.
Question 12
While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should limit the
number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprise this team?
O Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse O Surgeon, assistant surgeon,
anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
O Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist

O Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
Question 13
What is the most common source of transmission of microorganisms in the OR?
O Instruments
O Surgical team
O Infection
O Faulty Ventilation
Question 14
While surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the hospital generator
could be started. Emergency lights were malfunctioning. Whose responsibility was it to prepare hand
flashlights in the OR?
O assistant surgeon
O surgeon
O scrub nurse
O circulating nurse
d.
Question 15
The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound in sacral
area
O Gloves and Gown
Question 16
The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within a prescribed
time and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs the surgical procedure, who
monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss?
O Scrub Nurse
O Anesthesiologist
O Circulating Nurse
O Surgeon
Question 17
This is worn in the restricted areas to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled
O Goggles
O Gloves
O Shoe cover
O Mask
Question 18
Appendectomy is classifies as:
O Constructive
O Ablative
O Reconstructive
O Palliative
Question 19
When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include
the: O number of personnel required for the operative procedure O
clarity of any narrative charting in the patient record.
d.
O educational level of staff working in the operating room O
patient's complaints of pain during the perioperative period.
Question 20
O Catheter associated urinary tract infection

O Diabetic gangrene
O Gunshot wound septicemia
O Tuberculosis
PAIN AND SURGERY
FA1
Question 1
He is a Greek physician who performed an extensive dissection in animals, also he studied the
O Abraham Lincoln
O Claudius Galen
Question 2
It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a body
O Disinfection
O Asepsis
O Aseptic Technique
Question 3
Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled plants
that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body
parts?
O Bacteria
O Rickettsiae
O Protozoa
O Fungi
Question 4
hospital.
O Reinfection
d.
O Cross infection
Question 5
O Reservoir
O Portal of entry
O Portal of exit
Question 6
pathogens.
O Aseptic Technique
O Medical asepsis
O Asepsis
O Surgical Asepsis
Question 7
Question 8
O Well organized
Question 9
The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is in
contact with airborne precautions. Which of the following actions will you perform?
O Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform
hand hygiene
hand hygiene
O Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform
hand hygiene
O Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform
hand hygiene
Question 10
d.
The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes later,
Question 11
The physical environment and traffic control measures of the operating room are designed
primarily to:
Question 12
While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should
limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprise this team?
O Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse O Surgeon, assistant
surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
Question 13
O Instruments
O Surgical team
O Infection
Question 14
While surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the hospital
generator could be started. Emergency lights were malfunctioning. Whose responsibility was it
to prepare hand flashlights in the OR?
O assistant surgeon
O surgeon
O scrub nurse
O circulating nurse
Question 15
The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound in
sacral area
O Gloves and Gown
Question 16
d.
The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within a
prescribed time and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs the surgical
O Scrub Nurse
O Anesthesiologist
O Circulating Nurse
O Surgeon
Question 17
This is worn in the restricted areas to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms
expelled from the mouth and nasopharynx during breathing, talking, sneezing and coughing.
O Goggles
O Gloves
O Shoe cover
O Mask
Question 18
O Constructive
O Ablative
O Reconstructive
O Palliative
Question 19
When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include the:
O number of personnel required for the operative procedure
O clarity of any narrative charting in the patient record.
O educational level of staff working in the operating room
O patient's complaints of pain during the perioperative period.
Question 20
O Diabetic gangrene
O Tuberculosis
1. It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a
body cavity for either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during which protective reflexes or self-
care abilities are potentially compromised.
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
d.
2. Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled
plants that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other
body parts?
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique


• Well organized
7. The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who
is in contact with airborne precautions. Which of the following actions will you perform? Take
off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene
Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, perform hand
hygiene
Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
d.
8.The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes
later, the nurse is informed the surgery is delayed for 20 minutes because the surgeon is working
at another hospital. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
11 . While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we
should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who compromises this team
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
14.While the surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the
hospital generator could be started. Emergency lights we're malfunctioning. Whose
responsibility was it to prepare hand flashlight in the OR?
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
15.The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound
in the sacral area. Which PPE items will you use? Select your answer.
d.
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
prescribed time frame and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs
surgical procedure, who monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss?
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
17.This is worn in restricted area to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask

Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive

Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
FA1
d.
room?

Goggles
Gloves


Fear of loss of job

Fear of death
Fear of the unknown


d.
Infection rates of patients.

Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis

Well organized
d.
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
Bacteria
Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
hospital.

Cross infection
Reinfection
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit

d.
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk


of surgery?
Goggles
Gloves
d.
Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
infection rates of patients.
Surgical Asepsis
d.
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Well organized
d.
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
body parts?
Bacteria
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
Cross infection
Reinfection
secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
d.
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
of surgery?
-surgical asepsis
-handwashing

d.

Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
d.
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
• Well organized
d.
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
Infection
Surgical team
d.
Instruments
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
d.
Mask
Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
FA1
room?

Goggles
Gloves
d.

Fear of loss of job

Fear of death
Fear of the unknown



d.
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis

Well organized

Viruses
Fungi
d.
Bacteria

Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
hospital.

Cross infection
Reinfection
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit

Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk

d.

of surgery?
Goggles
Gloves
Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
d.
Fear of the unknown
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
d.
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Well organized
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
body parts?
d.
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
Cross infection
Reinfection
secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
d.
of surgery?
-surgical asepsis
-handwashing


d.
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
d.
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
• Well organized
d.
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
Surgeon
d.
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask
Ablative
Palliative
d.
Reconstructive
constructive
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
d.
Pain and Surgery Concept Exam
Sagot sa PDF
Sagot sa Pic
1. Full liquid
2. NPO
3. Clear liquid
4. Soft
A. 2,1,4,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 4,3,2,1
D. 2,3,1,4
C. Allow the patient up to the bathroom because the onset of the medication takes more than
10 minutes.
procedure.
d.
To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the
A patient being treated for chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because I can’t
even go out and play a round of golf.” The patient describes the pain as “aching” and says it usually at a
level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Base on these assessment data, which
A. Marijuana
B. Guided imagery
All the following medications are included in the admission orders for an 86-year-old patient with
moderate degenerative arthritis in both hips. Which medication will the nurse use as an initial therapy?
d.
You are the circulating nurse caring for a 78-year-old patient who is scheduled for a total hip
operating room?
The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day for a patient who had abdominal
surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. Four hours later, the patient complains of abdominal distention
and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to
A patient with a history of chronic cancer pain is admitted to the hospital. When reviewing the patient’s
home medications, which will these will be of most concern to the admitting nurse?
When a postoperative nurse patient in the PACU complains of pain and the abdominal incision site, the
nurse should
can be administered
d.
A patient who has begun to awaken after 30 minutes in the PACU is restless and shouting at the nurse.
The patient’s oxygen saturation is 99%, and recent lab results are all normal. Which action by the nurse
is most appropriate?
On the first postoperative day after a fractured femur, the patient is resting quietly, watching TV. Your
nursing intervention would include:
While assessing patients for complications during recovery from anesthesia, the nurse recognizes that
the patient who is at the greatest risk for developing postoperative hypothermia is a:
A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit.
d.
A 42-year-old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the blood
pressure (BP) was 124/70. Thirty minutes after admission, the blood pressure falls to 112/60, with a
pulse of 72 and warm, dry skin. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:
The nurse notes that a preoperative patient is drowsy but oriented in the receiving area. To identify the
patient, the nurse should:
D. Have the patient state name, doctor’s name, and the operative procedure planned in
addition to checking the hospital number, ID band, and chart.
A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain complains to the nurse of the
rapid onset of pain at a level 9 (of 0-10 scale) and request “something got pain that will work quickly.”
The best way for the nurse to document this informations is as
A. Neuropathic pain
C. Somatic pain
D. Referred pain
When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural morphine, which information obtained by the nurse
indicates that the patient may be experiencing a side effect of the medication? A. The patient becomes
restless and agitated.
d.
Which information about medication use in preoperative patients is most important to communicate to
the health care provider?
You are caring for a male patient who has had spinal anesthesia. The patient is under a physician’s order
to lie flat postoperatively. When the patient asks to go to the bathroom, you encourage him to comply
with the physician’s order. What is the rationale for complying with this order?
A. Hypotension
D. A headache
You are the nurse caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. In what surgeries would a
transsacral block be useful for pain control?
C. Breast reduction
D. Thoracotomy
The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively who develops sinus tachycardia. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse perform?
A surgical patient received a volatile liquid as an inhalation anesthetic during surgery. Postoperatively
the nurse should monitor the patient for:
d.
A. Incisional pain
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Hypertension
After orienting a new staff member to the scrub nurse role, the charge nurse will know that the
The intraoperative activity that is performed by the perioperative nurse and is specific to the circulating
functions is:
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of imipramine (Totranil), a tricyclic antidepressant, for a patient
who is receiving the medication to help relieve chronic cancer pain. Which information is the best
indicator that the imipramine is effective?
activities.
While caring for a postoperative patient on the second postoperative day, which information about the
patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider:
d.
A patient is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic.
You are the circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center. Your patient is scheduled to receive
The nurse is obtaining the health history for a patient who is scheduled for outpatient knee surgery.
d.
A patient being treated for chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because I
can’t even go out and play a round of golf.” The patient describes the pain as “aching” and says it is
usually at a level 7 of a scale of 10. Based on these assessment data, which patient goal is most
appropriate? After treatment, the patient will:
State that pain is a level 2 of 10
Say that the aching has decreased
Be able to play 1 to 2 rounds of golf
Exhibit fewer sign of depression
In intervening to promote ambulation, coughing, deep breathing, and turning by a postoperative patient
on the first postoperative day, which action by the nurse is most helpful?
On the first postoperative day after a fractured femur, the patient is resting quietly, watching TV. Your
nursing interventions would include:
You are the circulating nurse caring for a 78-year-old patient who is scheduled for a total hip
operating room?
d.
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is most
important to do before surgery?
Your post discharge instructions for a 65-year-old male with peripheral neuropathy from diabetes would
include:
Prior to giving a requested pain medication, you would:
A. Call a doctor
A nurse is caring for a patient following surgery under a spinal anesthetic. What interventions can the
nurse implement to prevent a spinal headache?
D. Limit fluids
Which of the following factors ensure validity of informed written consent, except:
d.
A preoperative patient in the holding area asks nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask over
my face?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is,
A. “Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to
deliver a gas that will put you to sleep.”
immediately.”
C. “General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need
a mask over your face.”
your surgeon?”
Postoperatively a patient is receiving low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). When administering this

drug, the nurse
The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a patient when
A surgical patient received a volatile liquid as an inhalation anesthetic during surgery.
A. Hypertension
d.
B. Tachypnea
C. Myoclonia
D. Incisional pain
A postoperative patient who has undergone extensive bowel surgery moves as little as possible and
does not use the incentive spirometer unless specifically reminded. The patient rates the pain severity as
an 8 on a 10-point scale but tells the nurse, “I can tough it out.” In encouraging the patient to use pain
medication, the best explanation by nurse is that
You are caring for a male patient who has had spinal anesthesia. The patient is under a physician’s order
to lie flat postoperatively. When the patient asks to go to the bathroom, you encourage him to comply
with the physician’s order. What is the rationale for complying with this order?
A. A headache
D. Hypotension
To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, the nurse asks the
patient: (asa quizlet)
A hospice patient is in continuous pain, and the health care provider has left orders to administer
morphine at a rate that controls the pain. When the nurse visits the patient, the patient is awake but
moaning with severe pain and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. The respiratory rate is 10
breaths per minute. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to:
d.
C. Administer a nonopioid analgesic, such as ibuprofen, to improve patient pain control.
D. Inform the patient that increasing the morphine will cause the respiratory drive to fail.
Which of the following primarily prevents post op complications? (asa quizlet)
B. Early ambulation
Following gallbladder surgery, a patient has a T-tube with thick, dark green drainage. When the patient
asks about the tube and the drainage, the best response by the nurse is
promote healing.”
A patient being treated for chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because I can’t
even go out and play a round of golf.” Thepatient describes the pain as “aching” and says it is usually at
a level 7 of a scale of 1 to 10. Based on these assessment data, which patient goal is most appropriate?
After treatment, the patient will
The perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the
preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room primarily to:(asa quizlet)
d.
A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “ Will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask
over my face?” the most appropriate response by the nurse is?
immediately
B. Masks are not used anymore for anesthesia. A tube will be inserted into your throat to
deliver a gas that will put you to sleep.
C. General anesthesia is now given by injecting medication into your veins, so you will not need
a mask over your face."
your surgeon?"
A 42-year-old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the blood
pressure (BP) was 124/70. Thirty minutes after admission, the blood pressure falls to 112/60 with a
pulse of 72 and warm, dry skin. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:
Increase the rate of IV fluid replacement
Administer oxygen therapy at 100% per mask
Continue to take vital signs every 15 minutes
The nurse from the general surgical unit is asked to bring the patient's hearing aid to the surgical site.
The nurse will take the hearing aid to the
B. clean core.
The nurse evaluate that the interventions for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway
B. Patients breath sound are clear to auscultation C. Patient uses the spirometer 10 time
every hour
d.
A mother is concerned about her teenage son who is depressed and irritable. His school teachers have
called, concerned about his declining grades. You would ask:
A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the
The circulating nurse and the scrub technician find a discrepancy in the sponge count.
B. Recount all sponges
d.
To prevent complications of immobility, which activity would a nurse plan for the first postoperative day
after colon resection?
When maintaining aseptic technique in operating room, the perioperative nurse who is in the scrubbing
role will
C. Ensure that all staff in the OR have performed a surgical scrub D. Change gloves after
touching the upper arm of the surgeon’s gown
What is the best rationale for intubation during surgical procedure?
The nursing student is preparing an elderly patient for surgery. The patient is scheduled for a general
aesthetic. Which side effect should the nurse monitor the patient to:
B. Hypothermia
C. Pulmonary edema
d.
A patient who has just started taking sustained- release morphine sulfate (MS contin) for a chronic pain
complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is to :
A 45 year old patient has breast cancer that has spread to the liver and spine. The patient has been
taking oxycodone (Oxycontin) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home but now has constant
severe pain and is hospitalized for pain control and development of a pain management program. When
doing the initial assessment. Which question will be the most appropriate to ask first?
A patient is receiving morphine sulfate intravenously (IV) for right flank pain associated with a
kidney stone in the right ureter. The patient also complains of right inner thigh pain and asks
the nurse whether something is wrong with the right leg. In responding to the question, the
nurse understand that the patient
C. Experiencing pain perception that has been affected by the morphine received
earlier.
A patient is to have a left inguinal hernia repair at the outpatient surgical clinic.
Preoperatively it is most important for the nurse to determine whether the:
B. Patient has had any experience with the outpatient surgery in the past C. Patient plants to
stay overnight at the surgical center
D. Patient’s medical plan covers outpatient surgery.
d.
The nurse is assessing a 36-years old woman who has been admitted for knee surgery. Which
information obtained during the preoperative assessment should be reported to the surgeon before
surgery?
A. The patient’s concern that she will be unable to care for her children postoperatively
B. The patient’s lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control measures C. The patient's
history of postoperative infection following a prior cholecystectomy
D. The patient’s statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks previously.
The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a patient when
A. The patient is very apprehensive about having surgery
B. Same-day discharge is desirable after the surgery.
C. The surgical procedure requires major- muscle relaxation.
D. The patient has recently taken the food and fluids
Appropriate preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for abdominal surgery includes A. Care for
the surgical incision.
B. Methods for effective deep breathing and coughing
C. Medications used during surgery
D. The need to complete all ordered antibiotics after surgery
Postoperatively a patient is receiving low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). When administering this

drug, the nurse
A patient with chronic cancer pain experiences breakthrough pain (level 9 of 10) and anxiety while
receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) 160 mg every 12 hours. All these medications
are ordered for the patient. Which one will be most appropriate for the nurse to administer first?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally
B. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400-800 mg orally
d.
C. Immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 10 mg orally.
For which of these actions by an inexperienced staff member would the charge nurse be required to
intervene?
A. Wearing street clothes into the nursing station
B. Walking into the hallway outside an operating room without the hair covered
C. Wearing surgical mask into the holding room
D. Putting on a surgical mask, cap, and scrubs before entering the operating room.
During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a colon resection, the patient tells the
nurse about using St. John’s wort to prevent depression. The nurse should alert the staff in the
postanesthesia recovery area that the patient may
A. Have more postoperative bleeding than expected

B. Take longer to recover from the anesthesia
C. Experience increased pain
D. Have hypertensive episodes
A patient is seen at the health care provider’s office several weeks before hip surgery for preoperative
assessment. The patient reports use of echinea, saw palmetto, and glucosamine/chondroitin. The nurse
should
A. Teach the patient that these products may be continued preoperatively

B. Advise the patient to stop the use of all herbs and supplements at this time
C. Ascertain that there will be no interactions with anesthetic agents
D. Discuss the supplement use with the patient’s health care provider
A patient in surgery receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to general anesthesia. At

completion of the surgery, it is most important that the nurse monitor the patient for
d.
A. Weak chest wall movement
B. Nausea
C. Confusion
D. Laryngospasm or bronchospasm
An 82 year old man is admitted to the hospital the evening before a prostatectomy. He is alert and
oriented but has difficulty seeing and hearing. His wife answers most questions directed to the patient.
To accomplish preoperative teaching with the patient, the nurse plans to
A. Direct the teaching toward the wife because she is the obvious support and caregiver for the
patient
B. Use printed materials for instruction so that the patient will have more time to review the
material
C. Provide additional time for the patient to understand preoperative instructions and carry out
procedures
D. Ask the patient’s wife to wait in a hall in order to focus preoperative teaching with the patient
himself
Any patient guilt about having a therapeutic abortion may be identified when the nurse assesses the
functional health pattern of
A. Cognitive-perceptual
B. Value-belief
C. Coping-stress tolerance
D. Sexuality-reproductive
A patient receiving prn intermittent IV administration of opiates following gastric surgery watches a
favorite television program every morning. The patient does not request pain medication during this
time when questioned denies the need for medication. The nurse’s evaluation of this situation is that
A. The patient’s dose of opiates needs to be decreased because her pain is well controlled
B. The distraction of the television enables the patient to decrease the perception of pain
C. Lying quietly in bed is the best method of controlling the patient’s incisional pain
D. Encouraging the patient to watch other television programs will decrease the pain
A 74 year old patient is to be discharged from the ambulatory surgical unit following left eye surgery.
The patient tells the nurse, “ I do not know if I can take care of myself with this patch over my eye.” The
most appropriate nursing action is to
d.
A. Discuss the pacific concerns regarding self-care
B. Give the patient written instructions regarding care
C. Refer the patient for home health care services
D. Assess the patient’s support system for care at home
A patient with chronic abdominal pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and
hypnosis. A family member asks the nurse how these techniques work. The nurse’s reply will be based
on the information that these strategies

The health care provider plans to titrate a patient-controlled opioid infusion (PCA) to provide pain relief
for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opioids in the past. Which of the following
nursing actions regarding opioid administration are appropriate at this time?
A. Educating the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity level (Ito naman
yung hindi sagot ng pic)
B. Assessing for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opioid
C. Emphasizing that the risk of opioid side effects increases over time
D. Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects of opioid administration
E. Teaching about the need to decrease opioid doses by the second postoperative day
A patient becomes restless and agitated while beginning to regain consciousness in the PACU, and the
SpO2 is 88 %. The nurse should first:

The health care provider tells a patient to use ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) to relieve pain after treating a
laceration of the patient’s forearm from a dog bite. The patient asks the nurse how ibuprofen will
control the pain. The nurse will teach the patient that ibuprofen interferes with the pain process by
decreasing the:

d.
A. Breast reduction
B. Thoracotomy
A preoperative patient in the holding area asks the nurse, “Will the doctor put me to sleep with a mask
over my face?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is,
immediately.”
C. “Only your surgeon can tell you for sure what method of anesthesia will be used. Should I ask
your surgeon?”
It would not be unusual for a patient with chronic pain to be taking:
C. Antibiotics
on the information that these strategies.
A. Slow the release of transmitters chemicals in the dorsal horn

B. Increase the modulating effect of the efferent pathways
conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of
The most appropriate assessment of the efficacy of administered pain medication would be:
d.
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning, preoperative orders have been written, what

A two day postoperative right-below-the knee amputation patient complains of severe right foot pain.
Your appropriate nursing response would be:
A. Medicate the patient for pain

B. Refer the patient to psychiatry
C. Explain to patient the pain is not real because the foot is not here
D. Encourage guided imagery or another diversion technique.
The circulating nurse and the scrub technician find a discrepancy in the sponge count. Which action
should the circulating nurse take first?

A diabetic patient well controlled with insulin injections has been NPO since midnight before having a
mastectomy. The nurse will anticipate the need to
given

The hospice RN obtains the following information about a 72-year-old terminally ill patient with cancer
of colon. The patient takes oxycodone (OxyContin) 100 mg twice daily for level 6 abdomen pain on a 10-
point scale. The pain has made it difficult to continue with favorite activities such as playing cards with
friends twice a week. The patient’s children are supportive of the patient’s wish to stop chemotherapy
but express sadness that the patient does not have long to live. Based on this information, which nursing
diagnosis has priority in planning patient’s care?
d.
Data obtained during the perioperative nurse’s assessment of a patient in the preoperative holding area
that would indicate a need for special protection techniques during surgery include

The nurse notes that the oxygen saturation is 88 % in an unconscious patient who was transferred to the
PACU 10 minutes previously. Which nurse should take first?

An 83 year old patient had a surgical repair of a hip fracture and has restrictions on ambulation. Based
on this information the nurse identifies the priority collaborative problem for the patient as potential
complication:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. Imapaired surgical wound healing
D. Thromboembolism
When the nurse interviews a 53-year-old patient who is to have abdominal surgery using a general
anesthetic, which information is most important to communicate to the surgeon and anesthesiologist
before surgery?
A. The patient’s father died after receiving general anesthesia for abdominal surgery.
B. The patient drank a glass of apple juice 3 hours before coming to the hospital.
C. The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee every morning before going to work.
When the nurse in the clinic is doing a preoperative assessment for a patient who is scheduled for
outpatient surgery in 1 week, which information about the patient is most important to communicate to
the staff at the outpatient surgery center before the patient arrives for surgery?

An elderly patient has a two-year history of back pain from arthritis. You would encourage:
d.
A. Diagnostic tests.
C. Use of antibiotics for pain management
A patient’s blood pressure in the PACU has dropped from an admission blood pressure of 138/84 to
110/78 with a pulse change of 68 to 84. The first action indicated by the nurse is to

A. Marijuana
D. Guided imagery
appropriate response by the nurse is:
A. You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety.

A 42- year old patient is recovering from anesthesia in the PACU. On admission to the PACU the blood
pressure was 124/70. Thirty minutes after the admission, blood pressure falls to 112/60, with a pulse of
72 and warm, dry skin. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to: (asa quizlet)

When the nurse is performing a physical examination of a patient who smokes and who is being
admitted on the day of surgery, it is especially important to
A. Auscultate for normal and adventitious breath sounds

B. Calculate the patient’s smoking history in pack years
C. Determine whether the patient quit smoking for a few weeks preoperatively
D. Encourage the patient stop smoking during the postoperative period
d.
The nurse evaluates that the intervention for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance in a
postoperative patient have been successful when the

initially

As the nurse prepares a patient the morning of surgery, the patient refuse to remove a wedding ring
saying, “ I have never taken off since the day I was married.” The nurse should
A. Tell the patient that the hospital is not liable for loss of the ring
B. Have the patient sign a release and leave the ring on
C. Suggest that the patient give the ring to a family member to keep
D. Tape the wedding ring securely to the patients finger
When the patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit, the first action by the nurse
on the surgical unit should be to:

You are caring for a patient who borrowed pain medication from a friend at a beauty salon. She seems
to be experiencing side effects of the medication. Your most appropriate response would be:

D. Take the medication with milk
A client is experiencing confusion in the immediate postoperative period. Which of the following
d.
A. Cardiac rhythm
C. Airway status
D. Level of anxiety
A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based on the
foods on the client’s tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client’s current order to be: (PRO PROFS)
A. Bland diet
B. Soft diet
C. Regular diet
D. Full liquid diet
A patients family history reveals that the patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia (MH) during
anesthesia. The nurse explains to the patient that:

medications
should not occur.
conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of:
1. Which of the following characterizes excitement stage of anesthesia?
Occurs from the administration of anesthesia to the loss of consciousness

Extends from the loss of consciousness to the loss of lid reflex, characterized by struggling and
talking
From the loss of lid reflex to the loss of most reflexes
From the loss of most reflexes to respiratory and circulatory failure
2. To prevent headache after spinal anesthesia the patient should be positioned:
d.
Flat on bed for 6 to 8 hours
Modified trendelenburg
Semi-fowler’s
Prone position
3. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when admitting the into
the operating room?
Positioning and skin preparation

Patient identification and correct operative consent
Vital signs
Level of consciousness
4. What is the primary reason for the gradual change of position of the patient after surgery?
To prevent respiratory distress

To promote comfort
To prevent muscle injury
To prevent sudden drop of BP
5. Which of the following assessment data is most important to determine when caring for a
patient who has received spinal anesthesia?
Level of consciousness
The time of return of motion and sensation in the legs and toes
The character of respiration
6. Which of the following postop findings should the nurse report to the M.D.?
Urine output is 20ml/hr for the past two hours

VS are as follows: BP=110/70;PR=95;RR=19, Temp=36.8C
d.
The patient pushes out the oral airway with his tounge
Wound drainage is serosanguinous
7. Which of the following is the earliest sign of poor respiratory function?
Cyanosis
Fast thready pulse
Faintness
Restlessness
8. If wound eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is:
Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NSS
Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze
Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze
9. The best time to provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing and turning
exercises is:
Upon admission of the client in the recovery room

Several days prior to surgery
Before administration of preoperative medications
The afternoon or evening prior to surgery
10. The following are the appropriate nursing actions before administration of preoperative
medications EXCEPT:
Ensure that NPO has been maintained

Shave the skin at the site of surgery
d.
11. The patient has been observed pacing along the hallway, goes to the bathroom frequently and
asks questions repeatedly during preoperative assessment. The most likely cause of the behavior is:
She is anxious about the surgical procedure

She is worried about separation from the family
She has an underlying emotional problem
She has urinary tractinfection
12. Which of the following nursing actions would help the patient decrease anxiety during the
preoperative period?
Encouraging sleep and limiting interruptions

Spending time listening to the patient and answering questions
Reassuring the patient that the surgical staff are competent professional
Explaining all procedures thoroughly in chronological order
surgery?
To prevent electrolyte imbalance
To prevent malnutrition
To prevent aspiration pneumonia
To prevent intestinal obstruction
14. The following ensure validity of informed written consent EXCEPT:
The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition

The consent has been secured within 24 hours before the surgery
The consent is secured before administration of any medication that alter the level of
consciousness
If the patient is unable to write, secure the consent from a relative
d.
15. Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory secretions preop?
Phenergan (Promethazine)
Valium (Diazepam)
Nubain ( Nalbuphine HCL)
Atropine Sulfate
16. Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under spinal anesthesia?
The patient is unconscious

The patient experiences total loss of sensation
The patient experiences amnesia
The patient is awake
17. The patient who has undergone TAHBSO complains of pain. Which of the following is an initial
nursing action?
Change the patient's position

Assess the VS
Instruct to do deep breathing exercises
Administer the PRN analgesics
18. How frequent should the nurse monitor the VS of the patient in the recovery room?
Every 45 mins
Every 60 mins
Every 30 mins
Every 15 minutes
d.
19. Which of the following drugs is given to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Plasil
Mepivacaine
Aquamephyton
Nubain
20. Which of the following materials for skin preparation is incorrect?
Betadine
Soup suds
Shaving equipment
Surgical skin marker pens
It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a body cavity
for either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during which protective reflexes or self-care abilities
are potentially compromised.
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
Portal of exit
d.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique

6. ollowing are the responsibilities of perioperative nurse?

Well organized
Helps plan, implement, and evaluate treatment
Flexible and adaptable
7. The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is in
Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene
8. The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes later,
d.

Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln

Protect the privacy of the patien
Allow smooth functioning of the operating room team
11 .While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
d.
14. While the surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the hospital
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
15. The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound in
Goggles and gown

Gloves and gown
16. The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
17. This is worn in restricted area to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
d.
Mask
18. Appendectomy is classified as:
Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
Constructive
19. When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include the:

20. Which is an example of a hospital-acquired infection?
Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
When did Gustav Neuber insist the wearing of caps among the Operating Room personnel?
1883
1950
1958
1960
These are the following purposes of surgical scrub except:
Reduce the hazard of microbial contamination of the surgical wound by skin flora
Keep the microorganisms to minimum during the surgical procedure by suppression of growth
d.
Remove as many microorganisms as possible from the hands and arms by mechanical washing
and chemical antisepsis before participating in surgery
Help prevent possibility of contamination of the operative wound by bacteria on the hands and
arms
Before performing the 5-minute times scrub method, the following are checked except:
No nail polish or enamel

Fingernails cut short
Turning the outside of the gown away from the body with flexed elbows
No jewelries on the hands and arms
Which of the following is classified as the cutting and dissecting instrument?
Bone cutter
Scissors
Knives
All of the options
As a nurse which statement is incorrect when obtaining the consent signed by the patient?
The nurse is responsible for obtaining the consent for surgery

Patients under 18 years of age may need a parent or legal guardian to sign a consent form
The nurse can witness the client signing the consent form
It is the nurse responsibility to ensure the patient has been educated by the physician about the
procedure before informed consent is obtained
As the nurse getting the patient ready for surgery. You complete the preoperative checklist.
Which of the following is not part of the preoperative checklist?
Assessment for allergies

Conducting the time out
d.
This is the position used for rectal, vaginal and perineal procedures except:
Dorsal recumbent position
Lithotomy position
Fowler’s position
Jack knife position
Which position is most used for spinal surgeries?

Sitting position
Fowler’s position
Prone position
Knee-chest position
It is the procedure of covering the patient and surrounding areas with sterile barrier to create and
Gowning
Gloving
Draping
Hand washing
It is the stage of anesthesia which is characterized by respiratory & cardiac depression or arrest. It is
due to overdose of anesthesia
Stage I- onset/induction
Stage II- Excitement/delirium stage
Stage III- state of surgical anesthesia
Stage 4- Danger stage
It is the type of anesthesia administered through intravenous, inhalation or rectal instillation. Select the
answer.
Local anesthesia
Spinal anesthesia
General anesthesia
Regional anesthesia
Rivera with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for colonoscopy. How should
nurse Patricia position the client for this test initially?
Lying on the right side with legs straight
Lying on the left side with knees bent
Prone with the torso elevated
Bent over with hands touching the floor
d.
Lucinda a 37-year old with a history of asthma who is scheduled for an appendectomy later today.
Because of her asthma, you would include as part of her preoperative teaching her need to perform
post operatively:
Coughing and deep breathing exercises
Leg exercises
Wound dressing changes
All of the above
d.
Josie is the mother of a healthy 19-year-old having surgery tomorrow. After the surgeon discusses the
surgery, risks, and benefits with the patient and her mother, the mother wants to sign the consent
form. The most appropriate response to this would be:
Of course she can sign the consent form; after all the patient is her daughter.
No, she can’t sign the form.
While you appreciate her concern for her daughter, the patient is consenting adult and legally has to
sign her own consent form.
Why don’t both the patient and mother sign the form?
Suzette is having a minor procedure performed. Which type of anesthesia is most likely to be used?
General
Epidural
Regional
Conscious Sedation
65-year-old Dominic is being transferred into the PACU from the OR. Once there, initial assessment
will focus on:
Airway, breathing, circulation, and wound site.
Intake, output, and intravenous access.
Abdominal sounds, oxygen setting, and level of consciousness.
Pulse oximeter, pupil responses, and keep tendon reflexes.
Denise is recovering from an open cholecystectomy. You know that because of the location of the
surgery, there has an increased risk of postoperative:
Respiratory complications
Deep vein thrombosis
Wound infection
Three days after surgery, Mark notices that the wound site is more painful now than it was the day
before. When you inspect the surgical site you are looking for redness or inflammation. Other
indicators of infection would include:
Elevated RBC and elevated respiratory rate
Elevated WBC and elevated temperature
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and decreased pulse.
Decreased platelets and decreased blood pressure
Which of the following is the most dangerous complication during induction of spinal
anesthesia?
Tachycardia
d.
Hypotension
Hyperthermia
Bradypnea
Which type of surgery is most likely to predispose a patient to postoperative atelectasis,

pneumonia, or respiratory failure?
Upper abdominal surgery on an obese patient with a long history of smoking
d.
Upper abdominal surgery on a patient with normal pulmonary function
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of imipramine (Tofranil), a tricyclic antidepressant, for a
patient who is receiving the medication to help relieve chronic cancer pain. Which information is the
best indicator that the imipramine is effective? Group of answer choices
The patient sleeps 8 hours every night.
The patient says that the pain is manageable and that he or she can accomplish desired
activities.
The patient has no symptoms of anxiety.
A home health patient has a prescription for pentazocine (Talwin,) a mixed opioid
agonistantagonist. When teaching the patient and family about adverse effects, the nurse will plan
to focus on how to monitor for Group of answer choices
agitation
physical dependence.
respiratory depression.
hypotension.
Which of the following factors ensure validity of informed written consent, except:
If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient
If the patient is a child, secure consent from the parents or legal guardian
The consent is secured before administration of preoperative medications
The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition

The most appropriate assessment of the efficacy of administered pain medication would be:
The patient’s perception measured on a pain scale.
Changes in blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate.
The nurses visual assessment.
The nurse’s verbal assessment.
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is
Verify that all laboratory work is complete
Inform family or next of kin
Have all consent forms signed
Remove all jewelries or tape wedding ring
A patient receiving prn intermittent IV administration of opiates following gastric surgery watches a
favorite television program every morning. The patient does not request pain medication during
this time and when questioned denies the need for medication. The nurse’s evaluation of this
situation is that Group of answer choices
lying quietly in bed is the best method of controlling the patient’s incisional pain.
the distraction of the television enables the patient to decrease the perception of pain.
encouraging the patient to watch other television programs will decrease the pain.
the patient’s dose of opiates needs to be decreased because her pain is well controlled.
The nurse is assessing a 36-year-old woman who has been admitted for knee surgery. Which
information obtained during the preoperative assessment should be reported to the surgeon
before surgery? Group of answer choices
The patient’s concern that she will be unable to care for her children postoperatively
The patient’s lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control measures
The patient’s statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks previously
The patient’s history of a postoperative infection following a prior cholecystectomy
You are caring for a patient who borrowed pain medication from a friend at a beauty salon. She
seems to be experiencing side effects of the medication. Your most appropriate response would be:
Instruct the patient as to the proper use of the medication.
Stop the medication and call the friend’s practitioner.
Take the medication with milk.
Continue the medication if pain relief is adequate.

To prevent complications of immobility, which activity would a nurse plan for the first
postoperative day after colon resection? Group of answer choices
t is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first postoperative day
Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside
chair
Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock
Provide passive range of motion three times a day
An 82-year-old man is admitted to the hospital the evening before a prostatectomy. He is alert and
oriented but has difficulty seeing and hearing. His wife answers most questions directed to the
patient. To accomplish preoperative teaching with the patient, the nurse plans to Group of answer
choices
ask the patient’s wife to wait in the hall in order to focus preoperative teaching with the patient
himself.
provide additional time for the patient to understand preoperative instructions and carry out
procedures.
use printed materials for instruction so that the patient will have more time to review the material.
direct the teaching toward the wife because she is the obvious support and caregiver for the patient.
A patient’s family history reveals that the patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia
(MH) during anesthesia. The nurse explains to the patient that Group of
answer choices
surgery must be performed under local anesthetic to prevent development of a sudden, extreme
increase in body temperature.
as long as succinylcholine (Anectine) is not administered as a muscle relaxant, the reaction should
not occur.
surgery will be delayed until the patient is genetically tested to determine whether he or she is
anesthesia can be administered with minimal risks with the use of appropriate precautions and
medications.
A patient’s family history reveals that the patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia
(MH) during anesthesia. The nurse explains to the patient that Group of
answer choices
surgery must be performed under local anesthetic to prevent development of a sudden, extreme
increase in body temperature.
as long as succinylcholine (Anectine) is not administered as a muscle relaxant, the reaction
should not occur.
surgery will be delayed until the patient is genetically tested to determine whether he or she is
anesthesia can be administered with minimal risks with the use of appropriate precautions and
medications.
The nurse is obtaining the health history for a patient who is scheduled for outpatient knee surgery.
“I had bacterial pneumonia 2 years ago.”
“I had rheumatic fever when I was 6 years old.”
“I have knee pain whenever I walk or jog.”
“I have a strong family history of breast cancer.”
The nurse from the general surgical unit is asked to bring the patient’s hearing aid to the
surgical suite. The nurse will take the hearing aid to the Group of answer choices
scrub sink areas.
clean core.
corridors of the operating room area.
nursing station or information desk.
A patient with a dislocated shoulder is prepared for a closed, manual reduction of the
dislocation with conscious sedation. The nurse anticipates the administration of Group of
answer choices
intramuscular fentanyl/droperidol (Innovar).

intramuscular ketamine (Ketalar).
inhaled nitrous oxide.
IV midazolam (Versed)
asks to get up to go to the bathroom to urinate. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
allow the patient up to the bathroom because the onset of the medication takes more than 10 minutes.
assist the patient to the bathroom and stay with the patient to prevent falls.
ask the patient to wait because catheterization is performed at the beginning of the surgical procedure.
offer a urinal or bedpan and position the patient in bed to promote voiding.
After orienting a new staff member to the scrub nurse role, the charge nurse will know that the
education was effective if the new staff member Group of answer choices
takes the patient to the postanesthesia recovery area.
labels all specimens to send to the lab.
keeps both hands above the operating table level.
documents all patient care accurately.
A patient with chronic cancer pain experiences breakthrough pain (level 9 of 10) and anxiety while
receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) 160 mg every 12 hours. All these
medications are ordered for the patient. Which one will be most appropriate for the nurse to
administer first? Group of answer choices
Lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally

Ibuprofen (Advil) 400-800 mg orally
Immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally
Amitriptyline (Elavil) 10 mg orally.
You are the nurse caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. In what surgeries would a
transsacral block be useful for pain control?
Thoracotomy
Breast reduction
Inguinal hernia repair
Closed reduction of a right humerus
The nurse notes that the oxygen saturation is 88% in an unconscious patient who was transferred to
the PACU 10 minutes previously. Which action should the nurse take first? Group of answer choices
Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver.
Suction the patient’s mouth.
Increase the oxygen flow rate.
Elevate the patient’s head.
on the information that these strategies

-
slow the release of transmitter chemicals in the dorsal horn.
prevent transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the cortex.
increase the modulating effect of the efferent pathways.
impact the cognitive and affective components of pain
A patient is seen at the health care provider’s office several weeks before hip surgery for
preoperative assessment. The patient reports use of echinacea, saw palmetto, and
glucosamine/chondroitin. The nurse should Group of answer choices
teach the patient that these products may be continued preoperatively.
discuss the supplement use with the patient’s health care provider.
advise the patient to stop the use of all herbs and supplements at this time.
ascertain that there will be no interactions with anesthetic agents.
On admission of a patient to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) from surgery, the nurse should
first assess the Group of answer choices
patient’s oxygen saturation.
dressing at the surgical site.

-
patient’s level of consciousness.
intravenous (IV) site and fluid rate.
The nasogastric (NG) tube is removed on the second postoperative day for a patient who had abdominal
surgery. A clear liquid diet is ordered. Four hours later, the patient complains of abdominal distention
and sharp, cramping gas pains. The most appropriate nursing action is to Group of answer choices
place the patient on NPO status.
reinsert the NG tube.
assist the patient to ambulate in the hall.
administer the ordered as-needed morphine sulfate.
Following gallbladder surgery, a patient has a T-tube with thick, dark green drainage. When the
patient asks about the tube and the drainage, the best response by the nurse is Group of
answer choices
“The drainage is old blood and fluid that accumulates at the surgical site. Its removal will promote
healing.”
-
“The tube you see has been placed in the bile duct, and the drainage is normal bile.”
“The drainage is from your gallbladder, but it should be bright yellow rather than green.”
“The tube is draining secretions from the duodenum and small bowel, and this is normal drainage from
this area.”
appropriate response by the nurse is: Group of answer choices
“Surgical techniques have improved a lot in recent years.”
“Tell me more about what happened to your mother.”
“Many people have fears and anxieties about surgery.”
“You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety.”
A patient is to receive atropine before surgery. The nurse teaches the patient to expect Group of
answer choices
-
dry mouth.
forgetfulness.
weakness.
dizziness.
The perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the
preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room primarily to Group of
answer choices
ensure the proper identification of the patient prior to surgery.
protect the patient from cross-contamination with other patients.
assist the perioperative nurse to obtain a complete patient history.
help relieve the stress of separation for the patient and significant others.
When the nurse interviews a 53-year-old patient who is to have abdominal surgery using a general
anesthetic, which information is most important to communicate to the surgeon and anesthesiologist
before surgery? Group of answer choices
-
The patient’s father died after receiving general anesthesia for abdominal surgery.
The patient drank a glass of apple juice 3 hours before coming to the hospital.
The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee every morning before going to work.
The patient usually takes a baby aspirin daily and stopped taking aspirin 10 days ago. When the nurse
interviews a 53-year-old patient who is to have abdominal surgery using a general anesthetic, which
information is most important to communicate to the surgeon and anesthesiologist before surgery?
The patient’s father died after receiving general anesthesia for abdominal surgery.
The patient drank a glass of apple juice 3 hours before coming to the hospital.
The patient drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee every morning before going to work.
The patient usually takes a baby aspirin daily and stopped taking aspirin 10 days ago.
Your patient is a 35-year-old female who has been administered general anesthesia. The patient is in
stage II (the excitement stage) of anesthesia. Which intervention might you need to implement
during this stage?
-
Rub the patient's back
Stroke the patient's hand
Restrain the patient
Encourage the patient to express feelings
Appropriate preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for abdominal surgery includes Group of
answer choices
the need to complete all ordered antibiotics after surgery.
care for the surgical incision.
methods for effective deep breathing and coughing.
medications used during surgery.

-
During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a colon resection, the patient tells the
nurse about using St. John’s wort to prevent depression. The nurse should alert the
staff in the postanesthesia recovery area that the patient may Group of
answer choices
experience increased pain.
have hypertensive episodes.
take longer to recover from the anesthesia.
have more postoperative bleeding than expected.
To prevent malnutrition
To prevent electrolyte imbalance
To prevent aspiration pneumonia
To prevent intestinal obstruction

-
A patient in surgery receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to general anesthesia. At

completion of the surgery, it is most important that the nurse monitor the patient for
confusion.
laryngospasm or bronchospasm.
nausea.
weak chest-wall movement.
PAIN AND SURGERY
FA1
Question 1
He is a Greek physician who performed an extensive dissection in animals, also he studied the
O Abraham Lincoln
O Claudius Galen
Question 2
-
It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a body
O Disinfection
O Asepsis
O Aseptic Technique
Question 3
Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled plants
that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other body
parts?
O Bacteria
O Rickettsiae
O Protozoa
O Fungi
Question 4
hospital.
O Reinfection
O Cross infection
Question 5
O Reservoir
O Portal of entry
O Portal of exit
-
Question 6
pathogens.
O Aseptic Technique
O Medical asepsis
O Asepsis
O Surgical Asepsis
Question 7
Question 8
O Well organized
Question 9
The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is in
O Take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform
hand hygiene
hand hygiene
-
O Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform
hand hygiene
O Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform
hand hygiene
Question 10
The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes later,
Question 11
The physical environment and traffic control measures of the operating room are designed
primarily to:
Question 12
While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we should
limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who comprise this team?
O Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse O Surgeon, assistant
surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
Question 13
-

O Instruments
O Surgical team
O Infection
Question 14
While surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the hospital
generator could be started. Emergency lights were malfunctioning. Whose responsibility was it
to prepare hand flashlights in the OR?
O assistant surgeon
O surgeon
O scrub nurse
O circulating nurse
Question 15
The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound in
sacral area
O Gloves and Gown
Question 16
The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within a
prescribed time and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs the surgical
O Scrub Nurse
O Anesthesiologist
O Circulating Nurse
O Surgeon
Question 17
This is worn in the restricted areas to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms
-
O Goggles
O Gloves
O Shoe cover
O Mask
Question 18
O Constructive
O Ablative
O Reconstructive
O Palliative
Question 19
When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include the:
O number of personnel required for the operative procedure
O clarity of any narrative charting in the patient record.
O educational level of staff working in the operating room
O patient's complaints of pain during the perioperative period.
Question 20
O Diabetic gangrene
O Tuberculosis
1. It is the invasive incision into the body tissues or a minimally invasive entrance into a
body cavity for either therapeutic or diagnostic purpose during which protective reflexes or self-
care abilities are potentially compromised.
Disinfection
-
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
2. Which of the following microbes described as a microscopic single celled or multi celled
plants that live either on plants or animals, it can infect the mouth, vagina, skin, feet & other
body parts?
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique


-
• Well organized
7. The nurse is preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who
is in contact with airborne precautions. Which of the following actions will you perform? Take
off the gown, remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, perform hand hygiene
Remove gloves, take off goggles, take off the gown, remove N95 respirator, perform hand
hygiene
Take off goggles, remove gloves, remove N95 respirator, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
Remove N95 respirator, take off goggles, remove gloves, take off the gown, perform hand
hygiene
8.The circulating nurse prepares the sterile field in the operating room (OR). Fifteen minutes
later, the nurse is informed the surgery is delayed for 20 minutes because the surgeon is working
at another hospital. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
-
11 . While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery, we
should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Who compromises this team
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
14.While the surgery was ongoing, a power failure occurred. It took 5 minutes before the
hospital generator could be started. Emergency lights we're malfunctioning. Whose
responsibility was it to prepare hand flashlight in the OR?
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
15.The nurse is preparing to change the linens on the bed of a client who has an infected wound
in the sacral area. Which PPE items will you use? Select your answer.
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
prescribed time frame and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs
surgical procedure, who monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss?
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
-
surgeon
17.This is worn in restricted area to contain and filter droplets containing microorganisms
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask

Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive

Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
FA1
-
room?

Goggles
Gloves


Fear of loss of job

Fear of death
-
Fear of the unknown


Infection rates of patients.

Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
-
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis

Well organized
-

Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
Bacteria
Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
hospital.

Cross infection
Reinfection
-
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit

Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk

-

of surgery?
Goggles
Gloves
Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
-
infection rates of patients.
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
-

for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Well organized
Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
body parts?
Bacteria
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
-

Cross infection
Reinfection
secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
-

of surgery?
-surgical asepsis
-handwashing


-
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Bacteria
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
-
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique


• Well organized
-

Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
-
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
surgeon
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask

Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive
-

Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
FA1
room?

Goggles
Gloves

-

Fear of loss of job

Fear of death
Fear of the unknown


-

Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
pathogens.
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
-
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis

Well organized

Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
-

Rickettsia
Protozoa
Fungi
hospital.

Cross infection
Reinfection
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit

-
Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk


of surgery?
Goggles
Gloves
-

Fear of loss of job
Fear of death
Fear of the unknown
-

Surgical Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Handwashing
Medical Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Asepsis
Surgical Asepsis
for surgery?
Aseptic Technique
Medical Asepsis
Handwashing
Surgical Asepsis
Well organized
-

Viruses
Fungi
Bacteria
body parts?
Rickettsiae
Protozoa
Fungi
Cross infection
Reinfection
secretions.
Portal of entry
Reservoir
Portal of exit
-

Anesthesiologist
Nurse Supervisor
Circulating Nurse
Orderly/clerk
of surgery?
-surgical asepsis
-
-handwashing


-
Disinfection
Surgical Procedure
Asepsis
Aseptic Technique
Protozoa
Rickettsiae
Fungi
Portal of exit
Portal of entry
Reservoir
the pathogens.
Surgical Asepsis
Asepsis
Medical asepsis
Aseptic Technique


-

• Well organized
Cladius Galen
Abraham Lincoln
-
Infection
Surgical team
Instruments
Surgeon
Scrub nurse
Circulating nurse
Assistant surgeon
Goggles and gown
Gloves and gown
Anesthesiologist
Scrub nurse
-
Circulating nurse
surgeon
Shoe cover
Gloves
Goggles
Mask

Ablative
Palliative
Reconstructive
constructive

Diabetic gangrene
Tuberculosis
QUIZ 2 - 20/20
-
1. When did Gustav Neuber insist the wearing of caps among the Operating Room personnel?
• · 1883
• · 1950
• · 1958
• · 1960
2. These are the following purposes of surgical scrub except:

• · Reduce the hazard of microbial contamination of the surgical wound
by skin flora
• · Keep the microorganisms to minimum during the surgical procedure
by suppression of growth
• · Remove as many microorganisms as possible from the hands and arms
by mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis before participating in
surgery
• · Help prevent possibility of contamination of the operative wound by
bacteria on the hands and arms
3. Before performing the 5-minute times scrub method, the following are checked except:
• · No nail polish or enamel
• · Fingernails cut short
• · Turning the outside of the gown away from the body with flexed
elbows
• · No jewelries on
the hands and arms
4. Which of the following is classified as the cutting and dissecting instrument?

• · Bone cutter
• · Scissors
• · Knives
• · All of the options
5. As a nurse which statement is incorrect when obtaining the consent signed by the patient?
• · The nurse is responsible for obtaining the consent for surgery
• · Patients under 18 years of age may need a parent or legal guardian to
sign a consent form
• · The nurse can witness the client signing the consent form
• · It is the nurse responsibility to ensure the patient has been educated
by the physician about the procedure before informed consent is obtained
6. As the nurse getting the patient ready for surgery. You complete the preoperative checklist.
Which of the following is not part of the preoperative checklist?
-
• · Assessment for allergies

• · Conducting the time out
• · Informed consent is signed
• · Ensuring that the history and physical examination have been
completed
7. This is the position used for rectal, vaginal and perineal procedures except:
a. Dorsal recumbent position
b. Lithotomy position
c. Fowler’s position
d. Jack knife position
8. Which position is most used for spinal surgeries?
a. Sitting position
b. Fowler’s position
c. Prone position
d. Knee-chest position
9. It is the procedure of covering the patient and surrounding areas with sterile barrier to create and
a. Gowning
b. Gloving
c. Draping
d. Hand washing
10. It is the stage of anesthesia which is characterized by respiratory & cardiac depression or
arrest. It is due to overdose of anesthesia a. Stage I- onset/induction
b. Stage II- Excitement/delirium stage

c. Stage III- state of surgical anesthesia
d. Stage 4- Danger stage
11. It is the type of anesthesia administered through intravenous, inhalation or rectal instillation.
Select the answer.
a. Local anesthesia
b. Spinal anesthesia
c. General anesthesia
d. Regional anesthesia
12. Rivera with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for colonoscopy. How
should nurse Patricia position the client for this test initially? a. Lying on the right side
with legs straight
-
b. Lying on the left side with knees bent

c. Prone with the torso elevated
d. Bent over with hands touching the floor
13. Lucinda a 37-year old with a history of asthma who is scheduled for an appendectomy later
today. Because of her asthma, you would include as part of her preoperative teaching her need to
perform post operatively:
a. Coughing and deep breathing exercises

b. Leg exercises
c. Wound dressing changes
d. All of the above
14. Josie is the mother of a healthy 19-year-old having surgery tomorrow. After the surgeon
discusses the surgery, risks, and benefits with the patient and her mother, the mother wants to sign
the consent form. The most appropriate response to this would be:
a. Of course she can sign the consent form; after all the patient is her daughter.
b. No, she can’t sign the form.
c. While you appreciate her concern for her daughter, the patient is consenting adult and
legally has to sign her own consent form.
d. Why don’t both the patient and mother sign the form?
15. Suzette is having a minor procedure performed. Which type of anesthesia is most likely to be
used?
a. General
b. Epidural
c. Regional
d. Conscious Sedation
16. 65-year-old Dominic is being transferred into the PACU from the OR. Once there, initial
assessment will focus on:
a. Airway, breathing, circulation, and wound site.

b. Intake, output, and intravenous access.
c. Abdominal sounds, oxygen setting, and level of consciousness.
d. Pulse oximeter, pupil responses, and keep tendon reflexes.
17. Denise is recovering from an open cholecystectomy. You know that because of the location of
the surgery, there has an increased risk of postoperative: a. Myocardial infarction
b. Respiratory complications
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Wound infection
-
18. Three days after surgery, Mark notices that the wound site is more painful now than it was the
day before. When you inspect the surgical site you are looking for redness or inflammation.
Other indicators of infection would include:
a. Elevated RBC and elevated respiratory rate

b. Elevated WBC and elevated temperature
c. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and decreased pulse.
d. Decreased platelets and decreased blood pressure
19. Which of the following is the most dangerous complication during induction of spinal
anesthesia?
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperthermia
d. Bradypnea
20. Which type of surgery is most likely to predispose a patient to postoperative atelectasis,
pneumonia, or respiratory failure?
a. Upper abdominal surgery on an obese patient with a long history of smoking

b. Upper abdominal surgery on a patient with normal pulmonary function
-

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20.

 Cyclic changes in mass size

 To aid in classification of the leukemia

13. Which of the following is a risk factors for bladder cancer ?

 The person has the right to such decision

 Immediately after her menstrual period

 Breast cancer requires a mastectomy

 Perform monthly testicular self-examinations especially after age 5

 Normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle

 The best time for the examination is after a shower

 Frequent washing of undiluted mouthwash

 Decrease intake of iron rich nutrients

2. With a diagnosis Of ALL the nurse should consider it unusual to observe:

 Marked jaundiced and generalized edema

 Call the physician

Retarded growth and height

Generalized short term paralysis

Administer scrupulous oral hygiene

Observe for flushing of the face

Check pupillary reaction

Offer urinal frequently

The large amount of blood helps to dilute the concentrated solution

More convenient for the client

Less chance of infusion infiltration

Prevent development of phlebitis

A client undergo BMA, immediately post procedure, the nurse should

Briefly apple pressure over aspiration site

Cleanse the site with antiseptic solution

Begin frequent monitoring of VS

Position client on affected site

Histologic type of disease. Initial platelet count, and type of treatment

Type of treatment and client’s sex

30 minutes before the initiation of therapy

With the administration of therapy

When therapy is complete

Providing frequent oral care

Coughing and deep breathing

Monitoring red blood cell count

Apply sunscreen only after going into the water

Avoid peak exposure hours from 9:00 AM to 1:00 PM

Where loosely wild and clothing for added ventilation

To reduce irradiation edema

Suppress mitosis in lymphocytes

Increase appetite and sense of well-beng

Increased risk for bleeding

Potentiates risk of infection

Decrease amount of urine

Produce vasalva maneuver

They can swallow much air using them

It is difficult to monitor I and O

It is difficult for client to create suction to seal around the straw

It might injure the suture site

Continue to bind affected arm to chest wall while hospitalized

Instruct client to wear loose, comfortable bra

Bowel habit have change

He has difficulty in swallowing

Some food give him intestinal gas

Non steroidal anti inflammation drug use

High in both roughage an fluids

High iron with decrease fluid

Low in residue with increased fluid

Which of the following medications usually is given to a client with leukemia as

Group of answer choices