“aa CLAT MOCK-3 Test Code: CP/22/C03 Instructions Before the test: 1) Donot start the test until the invigilator gives the instruction to start the test. 2) Do not keep with you books, rulers, slide rulers, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), papers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose papers. You are allowed to only keep pencil, pen eraser and sharpener. 3) Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on the Answer Sheet. At the start of the test: 1) As soon as the signal to start the test is given, open the test booklet. 2) This test booklet contains 38 pages. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. If there is @ problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator, You wil be provided with a replacement, How to Answer: 1) This test contains 180 questions in five sections as follows: Section | — English Section tt — Current Affairs including Gk Section ill ~ Legal Reasoning Section IV ~ Quantitative Technique Section V = Logical Reasoning 2 Jone rere copes ie ot 3) Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriable circles on the Answer Sheet. 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JSS13. Dr Edward Jenner published his findings with the aim that: 4) the scientist community will laud his efforts. 'b) people will sop being afraid of taking vaccines. ¢) the world will use cowpox to cure smallpox. «d) smallpox will be eradicated as a deadly disease, 14, The WHO's attempt to eradicate smallpox via vaccination: 8) fouind little to no takers in the scientific community. ») suffered an early setback before bouncing back. c) was renewed in the 1980s. ) was given a lot of funds in the 1970s, 15. Refer to the line, “Jenner also knew about variolation and guessed that exposure to cowpox ‘could be used to protect against smallpox.” Which of the sentences in the passage shows that this practice has now been discontinued? a) The 33rd World Health Assembly declared the world free of this disease on May 8, 1980, ) At some point in the 1800s, the virus used 1 make the smallpox vaceine changed from ‘cowpox to vaccinia virus. ) The Intensified Eradication Program began in 1967 with a prOmisBof renewed efforts. sradication to be the biggest welfevement in international i carefilly. Answer the questions by choosing the most stable option. ‘und:*30s, “the overwhelming catastrophe that eracy, called the Weimar Republic. In the words of fature” Germans, who were suffering from the i for vengeance. The Treaty of Versailles, which. ns felt, All Germans, no matter their political German ‘would remain a festering sore omithé’body df the new Republic. Yet, the Sarcmtee SGShase ‘excitement. In that even the failures of the Weimar as warning signs s " Hermann Heller, a pro-Weimar lawyer, argued tat nationalism was compatible with democracy and individ ‘ bri He Rteved atte Sol Democrat he et of prs apoing te Rep, ad eae 4 thet ‘nationalism to help to bridge gaps between - seit reasons fer he fluc of tac Weinnr Republic the diplomat Republic issued more uniforms and shown more flags it could sation on the rod to genocide, and yet thy also t M y ina time of great ieee17. As used in the passage, the expression “stacked the eards forthe future” means; 4) Unexpected outcomes of an event 1b) A war that resulted in creativity ¢) Learning from the past d) Shaping forthcaming events: 18. Which of the following has not been mentioned as a cause for the failure of the Weitier Republic? 2) Not adopting a more nationalist stance b) Teachers propagating anti-democratic ideologies ¢) People's continued anger towards the ‘outcome of World War I 4) The concept of German learning 19. The author says, “the fourteen years of Weitnar Republic were a way station on the road to enocide’. Which of the following events is most likely referred to here? a) The atrocities committed by Hitler }) The fall and rise of nationalism in post-World War I Germany €) The Hitler professors and their crimes d) The crimes committed by creative people 20. As per the passage, The Treaty of Versailles: 44) aggravated the wounded pride of the Germans. 5 'b) ended the World War 1. : ©) was typically perceived as being unjust by the ) All of the above. Directions for questions 21-25: Read the gly ages ca i demic”, Audrey Azoulay said in her message. Pointing to performers tapping into their 's. fa ‘whose birth, on 15 ‘chosen for the World been revisited in a variety of ways, including images of her Cian oars agen enon ee “This is how, despite the crisis, art is demonstrating its resilience today”, explained the UNESCO chief. Paying tribute to the solidarity shown by artists and institutions at a time when “artis suffering the full force of ee eacncl tes esi cohen sa cg Mage as dpe fenton eos Ce eet aren ene eee ‘closed muscums and cancelled concerts, plunging many cultural institutions into ee ieee cogs aa «And Joking forward, guidelines will bo drawn up on improving the protection of artists for future crises ‘The UNESCO chief urged everyone to participate in “this strong impetus for culture” to prove that even in a Period of personal distancing. “art brings us closer together than ever before”. [Prom an article published in ‘wn.org” in April, 2020) 21. From the passage, it cam be inferred that Audrey Avoulay is: 44) 4 patron of many artistic institutions. ) an artist herself ‘c) a member of UNESCO. 4) a supporter of the current eriis. 22. Ms, Azoulay cites the Mona Lisa in order to: 4) give an example that undermines a ertic. +b) highlight the longevity of an artistic genius. ©) strengthen her main point about art and artists. 4d) provide a context for the celebration of a world heritage. 23. The coronavirus pandemic has: a) impacted the field of art the most. b) resulted in a degree of uncertainty for artists. ) brought artists closer. 4) revived the faith the tee Cd 24. Which of the following indicator of the resilience of art during the pandemic? i tek peter te ‘0 deeply interiorized writing, we find it difficult to consider writing to be i ‘assume printing and the computer to be. Most are surprised to learn that essentially th h Penge ody pant compen Wer bby Plato in the Phacdrus, against writincannot other beautiful and Without writing, human consciousness cannot achieve its fuller potentials, produce, ee creations. Literacy is absolutely necessary forthe development not only of science, but also of history, explicative understanding of literature and of any ar, and indeed for the explanation of languais (including oral specch) itself. Literate users of a grapholect such as Standard English have access ‘vocabularies hundreds of times larger than any oral language can manage. Thus, in many ways, writing heightens consciousness, Technology, properly interiorized, does not degrade human life but enhances it. In the total absence of any writing, there is nothing outside the writer, no text, to enable him or her to produce the same line of thought again or even verify whether he has done so of not. In primary oral culture, to solve ‘effectively the problem of retaining and retrieving carefully articulated thought, you have to do your thinking in ‘mnemonic patterns, shaped for ready oral recurrence. A judge in an oral culture is often called upon to articulate <1 of relevant proverbs out of which he can produce equitable decisions in the cases under formal litigation ‘under him. The more sophisticated orally pattemed thought is, the more it is likely to be marked by set ‘expressions skilfully used. Among the ancient Greeks, Hesiod, who was intermediate between oral Homeric ‘Greece and fully developed Greek literacy, delivered quasi-philosophic material in the formulaic verse forms ‘which he had emerged. [Source: hitps:U?books.google.co.in/books?id=liy QCwAAQBAJ&pa=PA37élpg=PA37&dg) 26. ‘The mention of Hesiod is to elucidate which of the following idea in reference to paragraph 5: 0 than the written ones.(UNM RUC eke cca Ss: Directions for questions 31-35: Read the passage below and answer the questions that fallow: Passage 1 Global negotiations today revolve around debates about the transfer and security of data, In this cont Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill, 2019 is the India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection. The Bill derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committer headed by retired Justice (X). Data is collected and handled by entities called data fiduciaries. While the fiduciary controls how and why data js processed, the processing itself‘ may be by a third party, the data processor. The processing of this data (based on one's ontine habits and preferences, but without prior knowledge of the data Subject) has become an important source of profits for big corporations. Targeted advertising: Companics, governments, and political parties find it valuable because they can use it to find the most convincing ways 49 advertise online. The Bill stated the penalties as: Rs violations and Rs 15 crore or 4 percent of total worldwide turnover for mor 31. Who headed (X) the committee from which data protection bill get inspiration? ‘a) Justice BN Srikrishna b) Justice Mukopadhaya ¢) Justice Fali Sam Nariman 4) Justice Shanataraman 32. In which of the following cifeumbtaneey The céttral govennm cot at exempt any ofits agencies from the provisions of the Act? 1. In the interest of the security of the state 2. Public order 3. Sovereignty and integrity of india 4, Friendly relations with foreign states , the percent of worldwide turnover for minor serious violations. erore or 2 al &2 by2e3 1,283 4d) All of the above 33. General Data Protection Regulation was in news recently which of the following is true about GDPR- A. i's a rofulation in Buropean Union lawl prbtéet data and privacy ofall individuals B. The regulition is applicable only for members ‘of European Union a) Only A b) Only B ©) Both A and B 4) None of the above {In the context of BHIM 2. 0, consider the following statements 1, Itis developed by SBE 2 Ithas three levels of authentication } New version of BHIM supports three additional languages — Kenkani, Bhojperi and Haryanvi — over and above the existing 13 4, Unver BHIM 2. 0, the existing cap of Rs. 20,000 has been increased to Rs 1,00,000, from ‘verified merchants Which of the above statements given is‘are correct? a)2,3and4 b) 1. 2and3 )2and 3 4d) All of the above With reference to regulation of social media, consider the following statements 1 In India, Social media platforms are regulated 2m India, Right to have access to the internet is part of the fundamental Right 5, Puttaswamy judgement made Right to Privacy a fundamental right |Which of the above statements given is/are correct? ay Land 2 by Zand 3 ©) Land 3 d) Allof the above 35.4) Global Goalkeeper sage below and answer the questions that follow: osoealitie soe ‘with the new IT rules, usage of the ‘manipulated media’ tag and fact-checking. According to sources, senior manager of public policy Shagufta Kamran and Twitter India legal counsel Ayushi apes pecech ste meting—~uy 41. Twitter failed to comply with the set of new rules and lost its intermediary status. What does it mean? a) Twitter will be banned in the future | 'b) Twitter will be Directly editorially responsible for posts published on it ) Twitter will have to limit its user base to less than 50 Lakh now d) None of the options 42. Which one of the following committees is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament? 8) Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Finance ) Public Accounts Committee ¢) Estimates Committee 4) Select Committee 43. Committee on Public Undertakings, Estimates Committee and Estimates Committee are all__ D 4) Departmentally-related standing committees 44. What is not true about The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethies Code) Rules 2021 announced recently? by Ministry of Inform 4) Significant social medi minimum . | tsar oe ht neve pn co on OFA 1% ad pan pl “Afi years of discussion, G7 Finance Ministers have reached a histor agreement to refon ‘stem to make it fit forthe global digital age,” British Finance Minister Rist Semcelicore etal ‘The accord, which could form ? bottom’, in which countries have competed hese cot thr public coffers hundreds of ilionsSS ee 48. The global minimum tax rate will help curb the issue of 4) Base price shifting country to country _) Base Erosion and Profit Shifting «¢) Base Profit sharing dd) None of the above 49. Indian government has levied an equalization levy of 6% on - a) Non resident e-commerce operators +) Resident Indian operators ¢) Any Company (Indian or foreign) with tangible presence in India 4) All of the above ‘50, Which of the following countries are a part of G-20 but not G-7. a) Ialy b) Australia ¢) Germany 6) Canada Directions for questions 51-55: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow: Passage 5 Britain has offically left the European Union (EU) and has become the first country to leave the 28-member bloc, The UK faced a lot of challenges in materialising this move finally. It is a notable change for the UK although nothing will change immediately because of the 1|-month transition period negotiated as part of an EUL-UK exit deal, 2019, The UK will be able to work in and trade free! (U nations and vice versa until December 31, 2020. However, it will no longer be represented in the E' From 2021, the UK and p sets out the exact clear, on what terms the UK and EU"s subjects like trade, law, and immigy relationship including a possible frePareaniin Aareo yey syouurey> pue Aqavou ants Burdump v wou; ssans spun 1 sdars ayfinos oy ‘jeusuis yousy aarsumy jusunedag 1 van (4 vidonng (© iqeaso uy KnuMOD YoY UF POLY Jo WON UT “99, wopaury powuy pue snmumeyy (9 SOAIpIOWY pure expuy (2 eet, ‘usoasioq purjs! paindsip st odjadiyary soBey -6g siw94 OPI (@ steak ool (e 8 81 Suoy Huoy aso] ak ue MOY JOA “gs 9H Sueny (qed sary prog (e a I S1 Buoy Suoy eyop yor UO “7g s1v0k 661 (P wyjoq azure, (p JUAA ueIpuT ourg (Pe WMI sity (0 {200 ayn Jo yns94 9goat@ig pu onooroud youosted 20) Purp ano tpiom steapnoeuureyd snoseR asitj 24) a0u8 safe] op “ponowt: ‘94 404 Apo jepou at st ey fosje sorouste werpuy “Jodsay aryey Jo 98s oun ISU tue ul UMOp Hoye) 1 G9M UAE] “| UE SOW gadesseg io suonsanb a1 4asisup pun sojaq aSossnd ays poay +99-59 oe ey,69. Tewari is@/full blowijaleotiolic. He"also, visits aidoctor*for his treatment regarding the same. Before onieiof the consultations, Tewari visits a bar and a8ks for a 30 ml drinke'so that his blood alcohol level remains under control. Rather, the bartender mistakenly gives him a 60 ml peg, which Tewari gulps and leaves for the consultation, Reaching the doctor's place, he has an argument and thrashes the doctor. Now, Tewari pleads the defence of intoxication. 4a) He cannot plead intoxication as he voluntarily ordered and consumed the drink. 'b) He can take the defence of intoxication. ©) He cannot plead intoxication as the difference between a 30 ml drink and 60 mil drink is decipherable. 14) None of the above. 70, Rohan mistook alcohol as juice and drank it. Is this a case of involuntary intoxication? a) Yes. 'b) No, as both the drinks taste very different, ) Yes, as it was a mistake. 4) Cannot be determined, as the facts of the case do not suggest a clear answer, ‘What is the main reason for negation of mens rea under involuntary intoxication? 4a) The person becomes negligent. 'b) The person is not incapable of forming the requisite intention. c) The person has no control over his actions. n.‘committed extortion. Section 384 of the Indian Penal Code defines the punishment for extortion. It states that any person who cermitsextoion shall be punished with imprisonment of up t0 3 years or with fine or with both, Section 398 of IPC defines Dacoity as when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a Tobbery, or where the whole number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery, and persons present and aiding such commission or atfempt, amount to five or more, every person so committing, attempting or aiding, is said to commit “dacoity.” Section 395 of IPC lays down Whoever commits dacoity shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. aA ace tee cbetoiet, Gi PossibleSES oe jn, 74. Raju was an intimidating criminal and smbers. 1 a) Theft, as there were only three peoy 'b) Robbery, as five or more people ©) Dacoity. Baie 0.508 oan is ens fin 7 z Re;However, SaPPEM indemnity clause ee foresceubility and ‘operates on a differen footing as the concept of teasonability, Sarestien hacen, Tin ptable wo damage clan i not coplabte ia th sdjodieaan Of tte fiquidated damage clause. “° % *I€ 10 claim far more through a capped indemnity clause compared to 8 Under a claim for damages, the Contract Act only permits seeking compensation for any lows which the parties Anew. when s made the peviees to be likely t0 result from ie breach of it’ at the time of entering inte the contractwhich cabin nD termed as: the principle of contemplation of damages between the parties Reasonable foresceability is construcd as the serious possibility of occurrence of loss and is often the test used for Garmages. Forth, the damages claimed must be reasonable and hence damages tay not be stain toss of profit or opportunity costs ordinarily, Section 73 specifically states that, “Compensation ie not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.” No such restriction applies for an indemnity claim. Section 124 of the Contract Act defines a contract of Sndemnity as “a contract by which one party promises to save the other from lass caused to him by the conduct (0f the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other perwn.” A claim tor damages is subject to the ordinary ules of remoteness discussed whereas a claim for indemnity is not subject to the same rules. Thus, Sonsequential, remote, indirect, and third party losses can all be claimed by the indemnified party unless “specifically excladed in the indemnity clause [Extracted from: htips://www.mondag.com/india/contracts-and- indemnin-vs-damages-debate and edited for academic pur 7. Raj and Saran have a contract, where there imerchat lave 48.2908/revisiting-the-ee Ee | ae 79. In the abovementioned factual scenario, ifthe subsequent delivery was made on 31st May. Neha ‘col not make the payment on the delivery date as the bank server was down. She mad a call to Nuriya and requested her to tke the payment after the bank server was up. Subsequently, the banks nationwide went on a strike, which was to continue for a week. After the strike was over, ‘she tmade the payment, however, her bank account was blocked by the bank on advice of the government, It was discovered that she had been involved in some: anti-national activities and ‘was being accused under the UAPA. Cut cloth did not receive the payment and desires for the money and you being her lawyer, advise her on the safest option to claim her money back 1a) Cut cloth should claim damages under Section 73 'b) Cut cloth should be indemnified under Section 124. ‘¢) Cut cloth should ask for both damages and indemnity, 4) Cut cloth should ask for exemplary damages in addition to nominal damages and the amount of sale. ). If there is a contract between two parties, where the parties have the capacity to contract and the consideration is lawful, thus there is valid contact. The relations between the parties turned sour and as the goods were not being delivered on time and hence the other party was not willing to ‘pay timely. During one such delivery, the truck carrying the goods met with an accident on the Jaipur Agra highway. The goods were to be delivered to Delhi, Thelseller was informed about the accident and made no alternative arrangements to get the goods delivered on time. The buyer a le judge/benich which thas jurisdiction, decide the(2) “A mark shall not be rewistered as a trade mark if (a) itis of such nature as to deceive the public or cause confusion; (6) it contains or comprises of any matter likely to hurt the religious susceptibilities of any class or section of the citizens of India; (©) itcomprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter; (d)_its use is prohibited under the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 (12 of 1950), (3) A mark shall not be registered as a trade mark if it consists exclusively of- (9) the shape of goods which results from the nature of the goods themselves, or (b) the shape of goods which is necessary to obtain a technical result; or (©) the shape which gives substantial value to the goods Section 11 of the Act defines a Well-known trademark. It reads as, the Registrar shall, while determining Whether a trade mark is a well-known trade mark, take into account any fact. which he considers relevant for determining a trade mark as a well-known trade mark including (the knowlege o ecogntion of aE in section Of the public including knowledge India obtained as a result of promotion of " ea re ay scl Sx pened Ot ad a ‘mark under this Act to the extent that use or recognition of the trade mark; w fe ecad of in that trade matk, the extent to which the SS Soesiiie OT acetal eile aon ial features of the two are to be considered. They should not be placed side by side to find out if83. BHD Industries is a leader in chemicals manufacturing in the Souther region of India. It has ‘come up with its subsidiary company named Bluhaar Iron Chem Ltd. The company wants to trademark its logo which carris the Indian tricolour without the spikes in the background and ‘over the tricolour, BIC is engraved in orange, while and grecn colours. The logo has a circular design and the CEO of BDH industries in a press conference said that the company represents the national sentiment of the country and plans on reaching the widest and diverse areas of the ‘country and at the same time it also inculcates the diversity in its working culture. They file fora trademark within a month of the said statement, is the logo liable fora trademark registration? a) Yes, it isa distinct logo which also inculcates the values ofthe company, b) No, the trademark is will be rejected c) Yes, as it is a proper use of a national emblem, d) No, the mark does not have distinctiveness and is liable to confuse the public. ‘84. The word Sulekha in hindi means someone who has a good handwriting. Mr. Kamal, who is the CEO of SULEKHA INC. said while explaining to the public the name of his family business which he took over afier the death of his father. The business was started by Mr. Kamal’s grandfather in 1950, The company has spread its portfolio all over the country and also is known for making the cheapest stationary which every person no matter their status can afford, SULEKHA INC. also tied up with the government 10 provi ‘and books. Surprisingly, the company does not have a regis same is the top agenda of Mry ‘registration. 85, Peaky Blinders FC is a regional footba f in Chicago, It has been participating in the i . ce its advent, It has a huge fan following insurety in respect of all transactions taking, 6) Four im. Garima agrees to do so as long as Ahmed's personal aide Mahesh pledges to flows from Garima to Mahesh inthis case?” Ossie ‘payment and Vidushi reaches Tanya Payment to which Tanya expressly refuses. Vidushi Tanya and Shashwat forthe debt. Tanya is ukimately ordered by the court to pay the debt with the costs as she was the surety. Can Tanya recover the same from Shashwat and to ftaq wong, A ape mtn on nsod an Ta “pso1 t Jo yes ay Jo we Ul 6 *fjataqduyos uoxea0sax a 2894 YoU pyno> BUDAWY SP 2}9{lwI0D Ou st WOLIEDOADI IL (P “uorn@s0nad oy} HOE BUDIIA LLLOJUT 0} uORUBT|GO siy paroidutoo yntuNg se PayoAdT st J9yjO oy] (9 “"poyOrds 30H $1 49950 241, (4 ]099H aq PINOYS HORILDTUMULOD [Ty yeorumustu09 snooueyuRysU JO 2se9 am q poyonas aq weo yesodoud y “yesodoud yp Jo nosy uM 40 jeI0 “sps0M Kq ONPDI joan pen ou ot JO Spout ery oan a “aoueidaooe Jo woreSTuMUNHOS ty 9 aBesseg, “woof voy) suoysanb ays somsup pun sojag aXossod ay! pooy 256-16 Swonsomb sof suopooutcyoJ aroym “HUgOUS PUP HON UadmIaG FENUOD w Sem arOKy “BurUIMSse “oN pg 230524 MYON YORE IOU PIP 19H] IN| SB NOW vung. 3s] wo aouerdao0e jo 222] sy parsod oYariqour deays Suumoeynueus jothe ‘There should be an immediate threat over the life or property of the defendant or another person's property {in which there is no time to report to the nearest authority. Ifthe defendant is not able to contact tha specific authority, then he can start the private defence.WEES Ss ‘When a defendant acts under a mistaken belief in some or the other situation, he may plead the defence of mistake. A mistake is of two types: 1, ‘The mistake of law: No defence in each civil und criminal case. 2, ‘The mistake of fact: Not valid in torts Statutory Authority Another general defence is statutory Authority. If an act is sanctioned by « statutory enactment or a law passed by the legislanure, then the defendant cannot be held liable for the damages resulting in the course of such an act. ‘When 2 plaintiff himself is the wrongdoer tis based on the maxim ex furpi causa that if the plaintiff himself is engaged in the wrongful act or conduct, then he cannot recover damages. But if a defendant asserts that claimant himself is the wrongdoer and not ‘entitled to the damages, then it docs not mean that the court will declare him free from the liability. YolentiNon Fit injuria In volenti non fit injuria, if 9 plasntiff bas, free content, either express or ‘frand or Fisk, then he has no right to sue ‘of the road, which was correct as per the ‘wns driving at a normal speed, but as one Saaesoscipie through Oe by waking the of the road, Mahela voluntarily, z 00 the wrong si tok the risk. “Yes, Mahila mew the consequences of his act, and still volunteered to walk on the wrong.ays sty papoaaxo maupuy (P 3y9p-s198 peayd woo maspury (2 ‘sn you pip pur yeasty yuauruut Jopun OU sear saupUEY ( yeaud pasn Aypryes pue “easy USUILIK J9puN SEA MOIPEY (® capraag “aatjod amp £q, keep Ajjouy sem pu pam{uy sea spuowlks ur spawns paw 11 payoid “31qr Sump ayy wo ajtuy wv avesay “PoreprUInU) ay Sean ‘ayMi 0} payse puw AspUY IE 1! Payuod uw 19AjoAa4 SIY NO yoo spuows “suosssnasodas amp Jo preayy wi aysines pur 4arq paumias saupuy “Buryoswas Jen. 2 aqrqa “104 prnod Appreunuoyun ing “spuowrerp aq) Puyy OF P9UN pare asmot| Of pas2ItI9 |} sIoseUT jeUONEUDU! yp uw SUONT|HMLE YOM IDK PUR BLY YANOS wor pauoduit duo eet eae mE GE ee eeRT entonge EI Directions for questions 106-110: The table represents the population of a village Kharkhoda from year 2000 to 2004 and the pie chart gives the distribution of the population of the same village in the yeur 2004, Answer the following questions using the given information ee Distribution of population of year 2004 a4 atm | DAdults or 30% GMiddle-Aged a SS . Senior Citizens 106, What was the number of senior citizens in Kharklhods in the year 2004? a) 15,000 ) 12,000 ) 80,000 ) cannot be determined 107. What is the ratio of adults inthe year-2003.and the mumber of feenagery'in the year 2004? a) 15:16 b) 16:15 ©) 20:21 d) cannot be determined 108, If the population of Kharkhbds increases by 259% and the middle-aged population reduces by 300 people in the year 2005 mé compared to the previous year, what will be the percentage of middle-aged population in the year 2005? a) 2.35% 235% 23.5% 4) 0.235% 109. What is the ratio of average number oP adults, teenagers and senior citizens to the number of middle aged people in Kharkhoda in the year 2004 a) 19 by 911 79 4) 9:10 110. What is wth Fate of population of Kharkhoda from year 200] to 2004? 3) 33.33% hee bys% ©) 16566%, 20%: Directions for questions 111-113: The table represents the scores of five students in 3 subjects, Answer the following ‘questions using the given information: ‘Student Name Physics | Chemistry Math Akshara 60 Joan Vihaan Soham 7s Vedant 100 A. Maximum score of each subject is 100. B_ Scores of Akshara in Physics, Chemistry and Math is in the ratio 16:15:12. © Vihan’s score in Physics were 20% less than Akshara's score in Physics and were 4/3nd of Joan's score in D. Seam and Vedat wed ae in two ajc E. Ratio of Soham’s score in Chemistry. 's neare in Chemistry is $:4, i ‘Akshara’ {in Math and Vedant’s seore in Chemisty is 6:5 ea came 111, What is the overall percentage of edant in all the three subjects? a) 70% 1) 75% £9) 80% 4) 85% (28) an112, What is the ratio of Joan’s score in Chemistry and Soham’s score in Math? | a) 25:12 ©) 12:25 15:13 113, Who scored maximum a) Akshara ©) Vedant 4) cannot be determined 114, Joan’s score in Chemistry is how much percent less than Akshara’s scores in Chemistry? a) 25% b) 36% ©) 37% d) 30% 11S. If the average score of all the five students i of Joan ee in Math is 80, then what is the average score three companies at the opening bell itsel the morning, no other transaction was done till the evening when _F._ Rakesh sold twice the number of sh shares bought by Naren Eerie = _ 117. Who made the maximum profit at the end of the day? +b) Narendra c) Rakesh.a BAMBINI se ions for. Passage 1 testions 121-128: Answer the questions that follow strictly on the baxis of the given passage ‘The path of social reform, like the path to heaven (at any rate, in India), is strewn with many difficulties Social teform in India has few friends an id many crities. The critics fall into two distinct classes. One class consists of Political reformers, and the other of the socialist Kwas at one time recognised that without social efficiency, no permanent progress in the other fields of activity Pear ubls: that owing to mischief wrought by evil customs, Hindu society was notin a state of efficiency, and that ceaseless efforts must be made to eradicate these evils. It was due tothe recognition of thi birth of the National Congress was acc ompanied by the foundation of the Social Conference. While the ‘Congress was concerned with defining the weak points in t the political organisation of the country, the Social Conference was engaged in removing the weak points inthe social organisation of Hind society. For amas ‘time the Congress and the Conference worked as two ‘wings of one common activity, and they held their annual sessions in the same pandal fact that the erence lamented that the majority of the educated Hindus were for Political advancement and indiffereat to social reform; and that while the number of those who attended the ‘Congress was very large, and the ‘number who did not attend but who sympathised with it was even larger, the nce was very much smaller. ‘number of those who attended the Social Conferet 121. The pri "Of the Passage i840 4) highlight the reasons for the failure of social conference 'b) reason the inability to bring about social reforms in India ©) bring out the inefficiency of the rigid Hindu rituals 4) highlight the inefficiency of the national congress. 122. According two the passage, which one of the following is an inference? 4) The central objective of the Congress and the Social Conference was is the same +b) The social reform and politcal reform wings were always unable to work together ¢) It is possible to achieve political advancement without social reforms, 4) Social and political reforms among the people in general wore perceived differently 123. Which one of the following would strengthen the argument against the proponents of the political reform party? Political reforms. ‘inherently impossible to achieve without social reforms, coolant pl ahr le paeeialarncl be state, The Social Conference was unable to make a proper Pitch to amass support for itself. The National Congress was not very sure about the path that it wanted to tread.124. What the Conference? "9% Pind the tuentaion | aR Imade by the gentleman presiding over’ the Social Or att hn ay ©) The scarcity in tthe Nationa Son Congress, 4) The abundance in suppenen Ss Sal Conference 18 fortunes of; from the Hi ©) National C nl eon bo sl 4) Without seers WOU be oblivious teen Customs of Hindu society. ‘Mout social reforms, ‘onal Congress will not become a strong political party, Directions for questions 126-130: Answer the ‘questions that folla. ‘Strictly on the basis of the given passage: Passage 2 : feel, believe, desire feeling, believing, desiring and so on are The no-mind thesis doesn't mean { Whole person, we shouldn't think be neatly carved up between the ‘can be consistently transiated as * of communicating parts~ “the sprit inside my beat Of human beings, as a big bundle af everlappin increasingly defended in cognitive “oe Gay etre.conscious, and that they think, it being conscious, thinking, 8 ind. not compatible with is the ‘mental, past of the x Wmeans that, when faced with a fm kl a ‘body’, or that their properties can lable that Homeric Greek lacks terms that of people as a coherent collection Band arms arc willing’. A similar view in near-constant communication, is Deecnge te cht meme ae uscd VOR ere ach x chequered stay tt tc cry mae baggage than meani of the mind and the mental are si p mbiguous and mi ‘especially in vari a16icingy eeplelatk of thesmind’ and “the mental” fis copii oa oie comeing eng a really mean psychiatric: ‘others Paschological; others still immaterial; and yet others, something else. ‘This conceptual blurriness is fatal to the usefulness of the idea of ‘the mind”. [Extract from “The Mind does not exist” by Jon Dough, Avon.co) 126. What is the central idea of the passage? 1 that the mind does not exist and iss hoax created by neuroscientists By To ape fort Home Greek view of Human a -c) To argue against the differential perception of the mind, d) To argue against the “it’s all in your head” narrative ei acsenatectacnsriintartanterssreedt ae a) th ts a coherent collection parts Pest areetecinateseen gece HB Vey ome eS a te mel has control over all ee ae ana ian ee,See 128, Each of the following is a reason for the ambiguity attached to the term ‘mental’, EXCEPT: 4) Its repeated usage in an irregular manner over history. ‘b) The mind being attributed for bodily function. ¢) Its usage to describe a physical ailment. 4) Its usage to describe a multitude of aspects. 129. Which of the following is the correct interpretation, as stated by the author, of the “no-mind thesis"? 4) To disprove the existence of brain as an organ }b) To argue for the distinction between brain and body ¢) To prove why the terms mind and mental only entail a baggage 4) To argue against the attribution of all humanly functions to the mind 130. What is the relation between the Homeric view of mind and body snd the view frequently defended by cognitive sciences and biology? a) Both perceive humans as a coordinated integrated whole 'b) Both argue for the body to be distinguished from the mind ©) Both are contradictory in nature as one believes in scientific terminology while the other telies on terms like “spirit” 4 ) Both are complementary in nature and have the same premise but a different conclusion Directions for questions 131-137: Answer the questions that fo Passage 3 ¥ President Joe Biden has mounted a i American troops and civilians out of Kabul, an operation widely reg y the era of meddling in the polities of other nations had ended. His com ideal exit, coterminous with deadly terro E Since the withdrawal, U.S, polls suggest that i f the end of the long war as those who approved, ‘on foreign policy, and his overall job of Amey in another round of the classic historical cycles in Afghanistan, of # sbesSiarcat nad lap inno levlcsmces, orthodory, and ations Woks eee ote EESS SE 131. Which of the following, iftru, strengthens Joe Biden’s argument in the first paragraph? 1) America’s operation in Afghanistan is opposed mostly by right-wing extremists who have & bias against Biden, ‘ion was conducted in the best ‘manner possible and any other alternative or delay would have resulted in loss of life. ©) Most of these numbers and percentages mentioned are an estimated figure and not completely nntion has generally proved to be useful for many countries. ‘an assumption made by the author in the second paragraph? meddling in foreign countries is not going to cease by the American from Afghanistan a) America ha: to a stanee of non-intervention in foreign countries b) The withdrawal of troops from Afghanistan did more harm than good for both Afghanistan and America frorti this pféoccupation are low” ‘of the following disproves the credibility ofthe polls mentioned inthe frst paragraph? n after being informed of the status quoDirections for questions 138-142: Answer the questions that follow strictly on the basis of the given passage: Passage 4 the opposition’ pigeons, ‘Sharad Pawar’s recent “zamindar” dig at the Congress expectedly set a cat amongst n who were chanting a mantra of unity against the BJP. The reactions that the old Maratha warhorse’s statement ‘Tiggered can be divided into two categories, On the one hand is the secular camp, some of whose members are perennially wary about every move and Statement of the Maratha strongman, for ri ‘ majoriarian state and the best alternative to achieve that ’s opinion regarding the second group of ing to Pawar? “possiple-—-bout the “secular camp” mentioned in the éxtract warad Pawar. Maratha political parties. sup (3rd paragraph) and the never the presence of a good tion might be subjected 4) All ve. ivections for questions 143-147: Answer the questions that follow strictly on the basi ofthe given Passage: country was a Jesuit Missionary in 1579, He Was followed by merchants who ority was, Cor Later it was ‘electorates. They would inject a t ‘a civil war. We know how those anticipations are getting, Reforms and then the 1935 Act, the Cripps' proposals and now the Cabinet Plan. The latest Statement of His 0 ae seer Plasing eftone section against another is unworthy ofa great people. Its much too clever to be permanent and, ‘Would embitter the relations of this country and Great Britain, It is essential for the British to understand that i an act is done it must be done with the utmost grace. a [A speech by Dr. S Radhakrishnan in the Constituent Assembly, 11th of December 1946) 143. What is the primary purpose of the passage?145. Which of the following highlights the intention of the British behind communal electorates? ‘8) To meet the needs of the diverse Indian demography +b) To satisfy their imperial needs of staying in power ‘s) To ensure that they do not disturb communal harmony in India 4d) To ensure that they do not betray the trust of the Indians 146. Which of the following validates Lord Palmerston’s statement? 48) The British had no fixed doctrine of ruling colonies. ') The British only took action when mandated by pressing needs. ¢) Both a and b 4) The Britishers always believed in the principle of being in symbiotic relationships. 147. The author was most likely disagree with which of the following: 44) The Morley Minto reforms and communal electorates preceded the Montford reforms ) There were no protests against the British before the cretion of the Indian National Congress in 1885 ° Taig sh were at eas in part responsible for the present status of communal disharmony in 4) His majesty's stance had a possibility of aggravating Indo- happened last year during © 10a grinding halt thanks to a nationwide, L Some sheep are hen