NMAT Sample Papers (Compilation)

Ultimate NMAT Prep
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Table of Contents
TABLE OF CONTENTS ...........................................................................1
HOW TO GET HIGH NMAT SCORE WITHOUT REVIEW CENTER:

A DEFINITIVE GUIDE. ............................................................................3
S TICK TO YOUR OWN LEARNING STYLE . .................................................4

S TRENGTHEN YOUR WEAKNESSES . .........................................................4
K NOW THE COVERAGE OF THE EXAM . .....................................................5
T AKE SIMULATED , TIME - PRESSURED PRACTICE TESTS ........................7
M ANAGE YOUR TIME WISELY . ...................................................................9
A DDITIONAL NMAT T IPS . ....................................................................... 10
PART I: MENTAL ABILITY................................................................... 11
VERBAL .................................................................................................... 12
INDUCTIVE REASONING ..................................................................... 26
QUANTITATIVE ...................................................................................... 40
PERCEPTUAL ACUITY .......................................................................... 54
PART II: ACADEMIC PROFICIENCY ................................................. 78
1
BIOLOGY .................................................................................................. 79
PHYSICS................................................................................................... 94
SOCIAL SCIENCE ................................................................................ 114
CHEMISTRY .......................................................................................... 128
VERBAL ANSWER KEY ...................................................................... 146
INDUCTIVE REASONING ANSWER KEY ........................................ 153
QUANTITATIVE ANSWER KEY......................................................... 155
PERCEPTUAL ACUITY ANSWER KEY ............................................ 156
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY .................................................................... 160
PHYSICS ANSWER KEY ..................................................................... 162
SOCIAL SCIENCE ANSWER KEY ..................................................... 164
CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY .............................................................. 166
2
1
How to Get High NMAT Score
Without Review Center: A
Definitive Guide.
To qualify for the best medical schools in the Philippines, it’s not
enough that you have Latin honors or stellar GPA.
Your NMAT ranking or score is equally important.
The NMAT or National Medical Admission Test is a prerequisite for

entering a Doctor of Medicine program in the Philippines. While
other lesser known schools don’t put much weight on your NMAT
performance, top schools like UP, UST, and UERM have cutoff
scores of 90+, 85, and 75, respectively.
NMAT, therefore, should never be taken for granted because how

you perform in the exam can literally define your future as a
medical student.
In this guide, we’ve carefully curated all the best NMAT tips and
tricks to ensure you can ace the exam even without enrolling in a
review center.
3
Stick to your own learning style.
At this point, you must have a clear idea already of what makes you
tick as a student. In other words, you already know what reviewing
or studying techniques work best for you.
Everyone is different. Some learn more by reviewing alone while

others absorb more information by joining group studies. Others
extract more from audio-visual learning materials while others thrive
by reading books.
As the saying goes, if it isn’t broke don’t fix it. Stick to your own
style and make every minute of your review count.
Strengthen your weaknesses.
Reviewing for NMAT is like preparing for UPCAT or civil service

exam: You don’t have all the time in the world so might as well
review strategically.
In the case of NMAT, you only have 2 months at best (if you’re
taking the March/April schedule) to dedicate for the review. So how
can you make the most out of it? By focusing on your weakest
areas.
Take a diagnostic exam. Either use the practice test provided to

you by CEM or find free/paid NMAT reviewer online. The result of
this initial practice exam will give you an idea about the nature of
NMAT and which subject areas you need to spend more time on.
4
When I took the NMAT years ago, I knew right off the bat that I
suck at Math and Physics. The diagnostic exam I took only
confirmed it.
By knowing your weaknesses from the get-go, you will be able to

dedicate more time brushing up on the concepts you’ve
(intentionally) forgotten and in so doing improve your final NMAT
score/rank.
Also, don’t forget that NMAT scoring is based on percentile

ranking which means your grade isn’t equivalent to the number of
questions you got right but on the number of examinees who
scored lower than you.
Since most students hate subjects that have anything to do with

numbers, you can outperform them and possibly get a 90+ ranking
by doing well in these areas (more on this in the next section).
Know the coverage of the exam.
Assuming that you already know your weaknesses based on the

results of the diagnostic test, it’s time to dust off your old high
school or college notes and start reviewing.
However, you can’t start the review unless you know what to review
in the first place. Know the coverage of the NMAT and use it as a
guide on what topics to prioritize.
5
NMAT is composed of two parts.
The first part is the Aptitude Test which measures the

examinee’s mental ability in answering questions from four
6
different categories: Verbal, Inductive Reasoning, Quantitative, and
Perceptual Acuity.
Part I is the trickiest of the two. It relies on your aptitude more than
your stocked knowledge. Most examinees fail to prepare well for
this part since they didn’t study most of it in high school or college
unlike the subjects included in Part II.
The only way to get a high score in Part I is to practice answering

as many questions as you can. Since most examinees focus on
Part II, it will give you a great advantage if you outscore them in
Part I.
NMAT, after all, is based on percentile ranking, not on your raw

scores.
The second part, on the other hand, is the Special Areas

test which includes questions from four subject areas believed to
be the most critical in preparing students for medical education:
Biology, Physics, Chemistry, and Social Science.
When reviewing for Part II, prioritize breadth over depth. Instead of
delving into advanced concepts in each subject, review the basics
usually included in your high school or college syllabus.
Remember, you should make each second of your limited time to

review count by covering as many subjects as possible. You won’t
be able to do that if you waste time gaining “in-depth” knowledge
about a single topic.
Take simulated, time-pressured practice

tests.
7
Studies show that you retain more information through repeated
testing than from repeated studying. This phenomenon is known as
the testing effect and is hinged upon the universal truth that people
learn more through application and trial-and-error.
To get your best NMAT score, practice taking exams similar to the
content and length of the actual NMAT. You may use the free
practice test sent to your e-mail upon registration or the mock exam
included in this e-book.
The key here is to answer as many questions as possible to benefit

from the testing effect.
Each mistake is an opportunity to improve your weaknesses

and brush up on concepts you might have forgotten.
For example, if you got a wrong answer to a Physics question, you

can compare your answer to other choices to see why you made a
mistake. This is also a great reminder of why you should keep a
note of the common Math and science formulas.
NMAT is a time-pressured exam so aside from understanding the

test content, you also have to mimic the actual test conditions. To
do this, try answering the practice tests under time pressure: 3
hours for Part I and 2 1/2 hours for Part II.
If you answer 75% of the questions correctly, you’re in good

standing. A score lower than 75% means you need more
preparation to improve your base knowledge as well as analytical
and application skills.
Practice tests should only be used as a guide in improving your

test-taking skills. The questions will not likely appear in the actual
NMAT so don’t waste your time memorizing them.
8
In addition to improving your stored knowledge, the use of practice
tests in your review also builds up your test-taking “muscles,”
enabling you to make intelligent guesses even in items you don’t
know anything about.
Manage your time wisely.
As a whole, NMAT is relatively easier compared to UPCAT.
However, time is every examinee’s greatest enemy. The first part

alone consists of confusing and complex questions that can easily
consume a huge chunk of your time if you’re not careful.
If the proctor allows it, wear an analog wristwatch (digital watches

aren’t allowed) so you’ll be aware how much time is left and
whether you’re already falling behind.
Never waste more than 3 minutes in a single item.
Depending on which strategy you’re most comfortable with, you can

tackle either the easiest or the hardest questions first.
READ: How to Answer Multiple Choice Questions Like a Pro
Alternatively, you can classify each question based on its level of

difficulty:
• Easy – items that you already know the answers to at one

glance. Answer them right away.
• Medium – questions that require calculations and a little
more thinking. Mark these questions and only go back to
them once you’re done with the easier questions.
9
• Hard – test items that are too difficult to waste your time on.
Make educated guesses and move on.
Additional NMAT Tips.

• Sleep well before the day of the exam. Lack of sleep severely
derails one’s concentration.
• If possible, visit the testing location a few days before the
exam to familiarize yourself with the area, its traffic condition,
and the specific room where you’re assigned. If the room is air-
conditioned, for example, it won’t harm if you bring a jacket just
in case.
• Don’t forget to bring the required documents on the test date:
NMAT Identification Form, Examination Permit, Valid School
ID/Government-issued ID/Valid Passport, and photocopy of
Transcript of Records (for college graduates only).
• Bring enough pencils (No. 2 or HB) and erasers. Examinees
are also advised to bring a long transparent plastic envelope
where they can put their personal valuables and other allowed
items.
• Arrive at the test site early, preferably a few minutes before
7:00 AM. All examinees must be inside their testing rooms as
early as 7:15 AM.
• Eat a healthy breakfast. The first part of the exam is 3 hours
long so you should never go there with a grumbling stomach
unless you want to ruin your concentration.
• Bring a packed lunch because the 1-hour lunch break is not
enough to eat at nearby restaurants wherein the lines are
expectedly long. You can also bring candies so you’ll have an
extra supply of glucose for your brain while taking the exam.
Avoid foods that are crunchy or have strong odors.
10
Part I: Mental Ability
11
2
Verbal
Word Analogies
Directions: The questions that follow have two pairs of words.

Analyze the first pairing and figure out how they’re related to each
other. The second pair is related to each other in the same way as
the first pair. Choose the missing word from the given choices.
1. FOLLOW : CHASE :: NUDGE :
A. THRUST
B. PURSUE
C. CATCH
D. PRECEDE
2. MARATHON : RACE :: HIBERNATION :
A. WINTER
B. BEAR
C. DREAM
D. SLEEP
12
3. MEDICINE : ILLNESS :: LAW :
A. ANARCHY
B. THIRST
C. DISCIPLINE
D. SENSITIVITY
4. SCRUFF : NECK :: STERN :
A. LECTURE
B. DIRTY
C. BOAT
D. WARNING
5. PRINCIPLE : DOCTRINE :: LIVING :
A. WILL
B. DEAD
C. LIKELIHOOD
D. LIVELIHOOD
6. PALTRY : SIGNIFICANCE :: BANAL :
A. DISCUSSION
B. LANDSCAPE
C. WEALTH
D. ORIGINALITY
7. CHATTER : TALK :: FLUTTER :
A. DANCE
B. WOBBLE
C. SING
13
D. FLAP
8. CONJUGATE : PAIR :: PARTITION :
A. DIVIDE
B. CONSECRATE
C. PARADE
D. SQUELCH
9. CHAGRIN : CRITICISM :: SAG :
A. CRINGE
B. PRESSURE
C. NAG
D. REDRESS
10. EXTORT : OBTAIN :: PLAGIARIZE :
A. STEAL
B. BORROW
C. IGNITE
D. APPEAL
11. PALLID : COLOR :: TACTLESS :
A. HUE
B. TASTELESS
C. VERVE
D. DIPLOMATIC
12. VAUNT : BOAST :: SKEWER :
14
A. FLAUNT
B. CRITICIZE
C. PREPARE
D. AVOID
13. DOG : KENNEL :: BIRD :
A. FLY
B. FEATHER
C. AERIE
D. EAGLE
14. SODDEN : MOIST :: MAUDLIN :
A. SENTIMENTAL
B. DISPASSIONATE
C. REALISTIC
D. BOLD
15. PRIDE : LION :: SHOAL :
A. TEACHER
B. STUDENT
C. SELF-RESPECT
D. FISH
16. HILT : SWORD :: NEEDLE :
A. TEASE
B. COMPASS
C. DAGGER
D. KILT
15
17. MAVEN : EXPERTISE :: SUPPLICANT :
A. ARROGANCE
B. WISDOM
C. GRACE
D. HUMILITY
18. DEFER: POSTPONE :: PROFFER
A. CAUSE
B. TENDER
C. AVOID
D. INFER
19. GALL : VEX :: HEX :
A. FIX
B. JINX
C. INDEX
D. VIXEN
20. MERCENARY : WAGES :: DILETTANTE :
A. ENJOYMENT
B. RIFLE
C. STRIFE
D. MARKET
16
Reading Comprehension.
Directions: This section contains passages from various sources.

It will test your ability to understand what you read. Choose the
correct answer to each questions asked after each passage.
For questions 21 - 27:
In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial

exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail
around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king
of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political
intrigue at court and lost the king's favor. After he was dismissed
from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future
Emperor Charles V of Spain.
A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World
west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of
that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies
fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set
sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these
ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a
water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining
four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South
America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50
degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All
Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.
One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so

fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the
Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian now
known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521
after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea,
many of Magellan's men died of starvation and disease.
17
Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the
Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17
sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano
survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove
once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the
edge.
21. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the _______ now
called the International Date Line.
A. imaginary circle passing through the poles

B. imaginary line parallel to the equator
C. area
D. land mass
22. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ________.
A. Greenwich
B. The equator
C. Spain
D. Portugal
23. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern

______.
A. coast
B. inland
C. body of land with water on three sides
D. border
18
24. One of Magellan's ships explored the _________ of South
America for a passage across the continent.
A. coastline
B. mountain range
C. physical features
D. islands
25. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and
Portugal according to their location on one side or the other of
an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich
that extends in a _________ direction.
A. north and south

B. crosswise
C. easterly
D. south east
26. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he

became involved in a political ________.
A. entanglement
B. discussion
C. negotiation
D. problem
19
27. The 16th century was an age of great ______ exploration.
A. cosmic
B. land
C. mental
D. common man
For questions 28 – 33:
A soccer field is the setting in the untitled poem below, which

was written by Ellen Bryant Voigt.
Muscular and fleet, he moves without thinking
among the shifting jerseys on the field.
In his wake the paler one,
through wave after wave of the enemy line,
presses the white ball forward: winded and earnest,
he has willed his body to this pitch
until the body is inside his mind
as the mind arranges pieces on the board—now
he cuts a wide angle and passes the ball
though he knows his friend will never give it back.
Ahead of him, always ahead of him:
20
this is the pattern
already set in their early victories,
one at the prow, one at the wheel.
Poem from Two Trees by Ellen Bryant Voigt. Copyright © 1992 by

Ellen Bryant Voigt.
28. In line 1, the word “fleet” most nearly means
A tall.
B swift.
C strong.
D awkward.
29. In line 3, the phrase “In his wake” means that “the paler one” is
A. by his side.
B calling to him.
C. close behind him.
D. making a final effort.
30. What is being described in lines 3–5 ?
A. A soccer team trying to beat a much better team

B. A soccer player maneuvering the ball past opponents
C. Two friends competing in drills during soccer practice
D. A soccer player imagining what an opponent will do
31. The player described in lines 5–7 is apparently
A. pushing himself to the limit.

B. playing carelessly, without thinking.
21
C. slowing down the action to figure out what to do.
D. too tired to be able to keep the ball under control.
32. Based on details in the poem, which of the following can be

concluded about the soccer players?
A. They are engaged in an unfriendly rivalry.

B. They are accustomed to playing together.
C. They are trying to work out a new formation.
D. They are not very involved in the game.
33. One of the poem’s main themes is
A. the lack of team spirit exhibited by some players.

B. the idea that competitive sports turn friends into enemies.
C. the envy some players feel for the high-scoring players.
D. the unselfishness required to be a good team player.
The entire year of 1989 marked the grand return of the restored
steam locomotive to northern Vermont; but people especially loved
attending the Steam Train festival during autumn best. During that
festival, when the train arrived into the station, the 150 ticketed
passengers were transported back in time and treated to the sound
of a strong welcoming whistle and the blast of heat from the boiler
(if you were standing close enough on the platform) which was very
welcome in the crisp cool air. A thrilling tour awaited them. Once
everyone boarded the train; the opened windows in the passenger
cars afforded passengers an exquisite fragrance of fall leaves and
a coal burning steam engine would delight your nostrils in a way
that no diesel engine could. If the passengers were not excited
enough at this point, they certainly were when they experienced the
power of the train reaching its leisurely cruising speed of 40 mph
22
and time seemed to slow down. Of note were the six passenger
cars that were restored to exhibit the craftsmanship of 1918. Even
the seats displayed the time honored and historically accurate
period details of the early twentieth century. If the fortunate riders
could manage to take their eyes away from this wonder of
engineering and craftsmanship; the breathtakingly beautiful natural
view of 30 miles of Vermont’s fall foliage was theirs to behold, just a
glance away out the window. At the furthest destination, an apple
orchard awaited guests who disembarked. Here they could
purchase the very apples that they hand-picked from the trees. It is
no wonder that this steam train tour sold out quicker during the
autumn than at any other time of the year. The only downside was
that it was only a 3-hour round-trip excursion.
34. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. People enjoy smelling leaves.

B. Why especially people loved to ride this steam train in the fall.
C. Coal pollutes the environment.
D. This steam train tour would be better if it were shorter.
35. Which word best defines the function of the passage?
A. interrogative
B. exclamatory
C. descriptive
D. defaming
36. It can be implied by the passage that:
A. after 1989 people got tired of riding the steam train.

B. the apples were less expensive when you handpicked them.
C. the author recommends taking this ride in the Fall.
D. 3 hours on the steam train tour was too long.
23
In a director’s effort to produce movies on time and under budget,

the quality of said movie is sometimes is lacking. Imagine watching
a movie 10 times or more with a specific purpose. That purpose is
not to memorize the lines or to relive the dazzling special effects.
Instead, the goal is to find movie mistakes. This is exactly what Jon
Sandys began doing in 1996 after watching the Steven Spielberg
film entitled Jurassic Park and James Cameron’s movie called True
Lies while still in grammar school in England. He noticed several
glaring errors in both. When he pointed them out to other people he
found that the subject was of interest to many. People found it
fascinating that even with the best of editors, mistakes make it to
the final movie. Sandys eventually authored books and made
regular appearances on a television show’s segment that
highlighted these movie mistakes. Currently, Sandys focuses
primarily on the following types of cinema errors: ones that reveal
the movie making process, audio problems, continuity problems,
visible crew members, visible equipment, factual errors, plot holes,
and character mistakes. He has built this interest into a profitable
and very popular internet website. A good example of a movie
mistake in Jurassic Park is evident when the T-rex does not leave
or make any footprints in the soft mud during his attack on a car. Be
observant the next time you watch a movie, perhaps you might spot
a mistake!
37. Which of the following describe the Author’s view?
A. Film makers are not professionals.

B. Rushing to meet production deadlines can produce movie errors
that you can find.
C. Editors need to return to film maker’s college to learn new
techniques.
D. It is better to just enjoy a movie the way it is presented.
24
38. It can be inferred from the passage, Jon Sandys acknowledged
that most movies are not perfect and
A. found ways to turn his interest in those mistakes into a career.

B. made satirical short movies to ridicule the directors.
C. tried to improve movies.
D. was bitter about the mistakes.
39. According to the passage Steven Spielberg:
A. has made some of the best action movies of all time.

B. fired his editors to improve his films.
C. made some errors in his film Jurassic Park.
D. consulted with James Cameron to make perfect movies
40. Which of the following is not considered a movie mistake?
A. When an actor’s lips do not move when he is heard speaking a

line.
B. If a microphone is seen above an actor’s head in a movie set in
1776.
C. During one scene, the hair style of a character mysteriously
goes from combed to uncombed repeatedly.
D. A boring plotline.
25
3
Inductive Reasoning
Figure Series.
Directions: In each question, you will be given a series of figures

with a logical sequence. Determine the pattern and choose from the
given choices the one that best matches the missing/next figure in
the series.
1.
26
2.
3.
27
4.
5.
28
6.
7.
29
8.
9.
30
10.
Figure Grouping.
Directions: Each question features a set of figures. Analyze them

and determine what makes them related to each other. The one
that is different from/not related with all the other figures is the
correct answer.
11.
31
12.
13.
14.
32
15.
16.
17.
18.
33
19.
20.
34
Number and Letter Series.
Directions: Each number or letter series in the following questions

has a pattern. Based on this pattern, choose from the choices the
numbers or letters you think should come next in the series.
21. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

A. JAK
B. HAL
C. HAK
D. JAI
22. JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

A. OEP
B. NEO
C. MEN
D. PFQ
23. BCB, DED, FGF, HIH, ___

A. JKJ
B. HJH
C. IJI
D. JHJ
35
24. 3, 11, 19, 27
A. 33
B. 35
C. 37
D. 39
25. 3, 6, 11, 18
A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
26. 516, 497, 478, 459
A. 436
B. 440
C. 438
D. 452
27. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____

A. UAV
B. UAT
C. TAS
D. TAT
36
28. 4, 9, 13, 22, 35
A. 57
B. 70
C. 63
D. 75
29. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41
A. 43
B. 47
C. 51
D. 53
30. DKY FJW HIU JHS
A. KGR
B. LFQ
C. KFR
D. LGQ
31. BXJ ETL HPN KLP
A. NHR
B. MHQ
C. MIP
D. NIR
32. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255
A. 513
B. 511
C. 517
37
D. 523
33. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43
A. 49
B. 51
C. 52
D. 53
34. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU
A. XVZ
B. ZYA
C. YXW
D. VWX
35. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L
A. Y170
B. X17M
C. X170
D. X160
36. OTE PUF QVG RWH
A. SYJ
B. TXI
C. SXJ
D. SXI
38
37. BD GI LN QS
A. TV
B. VW
C. WX
D. VX
38. 126 64 34 20 14
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
39. 25 34 30 39 35
A. 45
B. 44
C. 46
D. 50
40. 198 194 185 169
A. 154
B. 165
C. 144
D. 134
39
Quantitative
4
Fundamental Operation.
Directions: This test will measure your skills in solving basic

mathematical operations. Choose the best answer from the given
choices.
1. 2.75 + .003 + .158 =
A. 4.36
B. 2.911
C. 0.436
D. 2.938
2. (3x – 2) (4x + 1) =
A. 12x2 – 8x – 2
B. 12x2 + 5x – 2
C. x2 – 5x – 2
D. 12x2 - 5x – 2
3. 7/20 =
A. 0.035
40
B. 0.858
C. 0.35
D. 3.5
4. Solve the equations:

3x + 4y = 11
x – 2y = - 3
A. x = 1 y = 2
B. x = - 1 y = 3/4
C. x = 2 y = - 3
D. x = 1 y = - 2
5. 3 (8 – 3) + √49
A. 28
B. 36
C. 22
D. 40
1 1
6. (2 ) (3 ) =
4 3
15
A.
2
30
B.
12
C. 6
27
D.
40
1 4
7. 2 + ( )2 - 9
3
35
A.
9
41
4
B. -1 9
17
C.
9
2
D. 1
3
8. (.3)2 + (.03)2 =
A. .099
B. .9900
C..0909
D. .9090
9. 3[(7 - 5) 2 + (20 - 19) 2] + 14
A. 3
B. 57
C. 29
D. 1
10. 4[3 + 7(92)]
A. 2280
B. 15, 888
C. 69, 696
D. 17, 424
11. [2 ÷ (4 - 2) + 82] - [2 - (-1)]2
A. 62
B. 68
C. 60
D. 56
42
Problem Solving.
Directions: This section contains word problems which you should

solve by applying basic math concepts. Choose the best answer
from the given choices.
12. A soccer team played 160 games and won 65 percent of them.
How many games did it win?
A. 94
B. 104
C. 114
D. 124
13. A repaving crew is putting a new surface on 79 kilometers of

road. They have completed 28 kilometers. If they repave 3.4
kilometers per day in the next several days, how many more days
will it take them to finish?
A. 15
B. 32.5
C. 14.5
D. 23
14. The Williams family wants to cover one wall in their living room
with 1-foot square mirror tiles. The wall measures 8 feet by 10 feet.
How many mirror tiles will they need to cover the wall?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 18
D. 80
43
15. The perimeter of a square is 20. Which of the following
represents the area?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
16. The main road in Belleville is 7 3/10 miles long. So far, 2 3/4
miles have been repaved. How many miles have not been
repaved?
A. 4 11/20
B. 5 11/20
C. 4 1/6
D. 5 1/6
17. A box in a college bookstore contains books, and each book in

the box is a history book, an English book or a science book. If one-
third of these books are history books and one-sixth are English
books, what fraction of the books are science books?
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. ¾
18. Which of the following is the smallest?
]A. 11/15
B. 4/5
C. 21/25
D. 5/6
44
19. Kenji has 8 apple trees that each produces about 20 bushels of
apples, and 12 apple trees that each produces about 25 bushels. In
total, about how many bushels of apples do his trees produce?
A. 45
B. 900
C. 460
D. 300
20. At a certain convention, the ratio of men to women was 3 to 8. If

there were 352 people there, how many were men?
A. 32
B. 96
C. 132
D. 220
21. The measures of two angles of a triangle are 35° and 45°. What
is the measure of the third angle of the triangle?
A. 95°
B. 100°
C. 105°
D. 110°
22. Last year, about 2,400 people participated in a local Fourth of

July parade. This year, about 3,200 people participated. What was
the approximate percent increase in participation?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 33%
45
23. A person travels to work at an average speed of 40 mph, and
returns home at 60 mph. Which of the following, in mph, is the
average speed for the entire trip?
A. 45
B. 46
C. 48
D. 52
24. Erica bought 3 ½ yards of fabric. If she uses 2/3 of the fabric to
make a curtain, how much will she have left?
A. 1/6 yd.
B. 1/3 yd.
C. 1 1/6 yd.
D. 2 1/3 yd.
46
Data Interpretation.
Directions: Each question features a set of data followed by

questions related to that data. Choose the correct answer from the
given choices.
25. About how many more jazz records were sold in April than in
February?
A. 750
B. 1,850
C. 2,950
D. 950
26. Two percent of the jazz records sold in April were from a new
label. About how many records were from the new label?
47
A. 80
B. 800
C. 40
D. 400
27. March sales accounted for 1/7 of the total number of jazz
records sold all year. About how many jazz records were sold all
year?
A. 7,400
B. 10,500
C. 950
D. 220
28. Which month showed the largest total decrease in imports over
the previous month?
A. March
B. April
48
C. May
29. What percentage of rice was imported in April?
A. 17%
B. 19%
C. 21%
30. What was the total cost of wheat imports in the 5 month period?
A. 27,500
B. 25,000
C. 22,000
For questions 31 -35:
49
31. In which of the following years was the difference between the
income and the expenditure the maximum?
A. 1988
B. 1991
C. 1986
D. 1987
32 The income in 1987 was equal to the expenditure in which of the

following years?
A. 1985 only
B. 1990 only
C. 1985, 1989 and 1991
D. 1988 and 1989
33. What was the approximate percentage drop in expenditure from

1988 to 1989?
A. 35
B. 25
C. 75
D. 40
34. What was the percentage increase in income from 1987 to

1988?
A. 175
B. 75
C. 60
D. 125
50
35. In how many of the given years was the expenditure more than
the income?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
51
36. What is the ratio of distribution of proteins in the muscles to the
distribution of proteins in bones?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 18:1
D. 1:18
37. What percent to the total weight of the human body is

equivalent of the weight of the skin in the human body?
A. 0.016
B. 1.6
C. 0.16
D. Insufficient information
38. To show the distribution of proteins and other dry elements in

the human body, the arc of the circle should subtend at the center
at an angle of
A. 126 °
B. 54 °
C. 108 °
D. 252 °
39. What will be the quantity of water in the body of a person

weighing 50 kg?
A. 35 kg
B. 120 kg
C. 71.42 kg
D. 20 kg
52
40. What part of the human body is made of neither bones nor
skin?
2
A.
5
11
B.
15
1
C.
40
3
D.
80
53
Perceptual Acuity
5
Hidden Figure.
Directions: In each question, there’s a simple figure at the left and

four or more complicated drawings at the right. Your task is to
identify the complicated drawing where the simple figure is hidden.
It may appear in a different position but it must have the same size
and shape as the simple figure.
1.
54
2.
3.
4.
55
5.
6.
7.
8.
56
9.
10.
11.
12.
57
Mirror Image.
Directions: For each question, there is a figure followed by four or

five choices. Select from the given choices the one you believe is
the mirror image of the given figure.
13.
58
14.
15.
59
16.
17.
60
18.
19.
61
20.
21.
62
22.
23.
24.
63
25.
Identical Information.
Directions: Each question contains a sentence, a biographical

entry, or a combination of a name and address. The choices that
follow are all similar with the given information although written in
slightly different ways. Choose the best answer that matches the
given information in terms of punctuation, spelling, and word
sequence.
26. Ina Moran

P.O. Box 929 4189 Nunc Road
Lebanon KY 69409
(389) 737-2852
A. Ina Moran
P.O Box 929 4189 Nunc Road
Lebanon KY 69409
(389) 737-2852
B. Ina Moran
Lebanon KY 69409
(389) 737-2852
64
C. Ina Moran
Lebanon KY 69509
(389) 737-2852
D. Ina Moran
Lebanon KY 69409
(388) 737-2852
27. Oro, Plata, Mata is a 1982 Filipino film directed by Peque

Gallaga, from a screenplay written by José Javier Reyes. The film
is considered to be Gallaga's most significant contribution to the
Philippine cinema. Set in the Philippine province of Negros during
World War II, it tells the story of how two haciendero families cope
with the changes brought about by the war.
A. Oro, Plata, Mata is a 1982 Filipino film directed by Peque

B. Oro, Plata, Mata is a 1982 Filipino film directed by Peque

Gallaga, from a screenplay written by José Javier Reyes, The film
C. Oro, Plata, Mata is a 1983 Filipino film directed by Peque

65
D. Oro, Plata, Mata is a 1982 Filipino film directed by Peque

is considered to be Gallagas most significant contribution to the
28. Fredrickson, B. L. (2000, March 7). Cultivating positive

emotions to optimize health and well-being. Prevention &
Treatment, 3, Article 0001a. Retrieved from
http://journals.apa.org/prevention/volume3/pre0030001a.html
A. Fredrickson, B. L. (2000, March 7). Cultivating positive emotions

to optimize health and well-being. Prevention & Treatment, 4,
Article 0001a. Retrieved from
B. Frederickson, B. L. (2000, March 7). Cultivating positive

emotions to optimize health and well-being. Prevention &
Treatment, 3, Article 0001a. Retrieved from
C. Fredrickson, B. L. (2000, March 7). Cultivating positive emotions

Article 0001a. Retrieved from
D. Fredrickson, B. L. (2000, March 7). Cultivating positive emotions

Article 0001a. Retrieved by
66
29. Allied Banking Corporation (Allied Bank)
Chairman: Domingo T. Chua
President: Anthony Q. Chua
Business Address: Allied Bank Center, 6754 Ayala Ave., Makati
City 1200
Telephone No/s: 816-3311 to 50
Fax No: 810-1705
E-mail Address: info@alliedbank.com.ph
Website: http://www.alliedbank.com.ph
A. Allied Banking Corporation (Allied Bank)

City 1200
Fax No: 810-1725
B. Allied Banking Corporation (Allied Bank)

Chairman: Domingo B. Chua
City 1200
Fax No: 810-1705
C. Allied Banking Corporation (Allied Bank)

67
Business Adress: Allied Bank Center, 6754 Ayala Ave., Makati City
1200
Fax No: 810-1705
D. Allied Banking Corporation (Allied Bank)

City 1200
Fax No: 810-1705
30. username@uwex.edu
username@ces.uwex.edu
username@ics.uwex.edu
username@ecc.uwex.edu
username@vilas.uwex.edu
username@wgnhs.uwex.edu
username@wpr.uwex.edu
A. username@uwex.edu
username@eccc.uwex.edu
B. username@uwex.edu
username@ces.uwexedu
68
C. username@uwex.edu
D. username@uwex.edu
username@wgsss.uwex.edu
31. Consul: Christian HUE

Adresse: 16/F Pacific Star Building
Sen. Gil Puyat Ave. cor. Makati Ave.
Makati City, Philippines
Téléphone: (632) 857 69 00
Fax: (632) 857 69 51
Site Web: www.ambafrance-ph.org
Email: admin-francais.manille-amba@diplomatie.gouv.fr
A. Consul: Christian HUE

Makati City Philippines
Téléphone: (632) 857 69 00
69
Fax: (632) 857 69 51
B. Consul: Christian HUE

Adresse: 16/F Pasific Star Building
Téléphone: (632) 857 69 00
Fax: (632) 857 69 51
C. Consul: Christian HUE

Makati City, Phillipines
Téléphone: (632) 857 69 00
Fax: (632) 857 69 51
D. Consul: Christian HUE

Téléphone: (632) 857 69 00
Fax: (632) 857 69 51
70
32. Malunggay, known as horse-radish tree or Ben oil tree in
English and whose scientific name is Moringa oleifera is indeed a
very useful plant. It is rich in nutrients; it helps clean turbid water
because it acts as a flocculant that is able to precipitate suspended
particles; it is a source of oil; and it has some medicinal properties.
A. Malunggay, known as horse-radish tree or Ben oil tree in English

and whose scientific names is Moringa oleifera is indeed a very
useful plant. It is rich in nutrients; it helps clean turbid water
B. Malunggay, known as horse-radish tree or Ben oil tree in English

and whose scientific name is Moringa oleifera is indeed a very
useful plant. It is rich in nutrients it helps clean turbid water because
it acts as a flocculant that is able to precipitate suspended particles;
it is a source of oil; and it has some medicinal properties.
C. Malunggay, known as horse-radish tree or Ben oil tree in English

because it acts as a floculant that is able to precipitate suspended
D. Malunggay, known as horse-radish tree or Ben oil tree in English

33. A. C. Arpaci-Dusseau, D. E. Culler, and A. M. Mainwaring,

"Scheduling with Implicit Information in Distributed Systems," In
Proceedings of the SIGMETRICS'98/PERFORMANCE'98 Joint
International Conference on Measurement and Modeling of
Computer Systems, pp. 233-43, Madison, Wisconsin, June 1998.
71
A. A. C. Arpaci Dusseau, D. E. Culler, and A. M. Mainwaring,
B. A. C. Arpaci-Dusseau, D. E. Culler, and A. M. Mainwaring,

Computer Systems, pp. 233-43, Madison Wisconsin, June 1998.
C. A. C. Arpaci-Dusseau, D. E. Culler, and A. M. Mainwaring,

D. A. C. Arpaci-Dusseu, D. E. Culler, and A. M. Mainwaring,

34. For minor aches and pains, take 2 tablets of Regular Strength
Tylenol (dose 325 mg each tablet) every 4 to 6 hours as needed
(q4 to q6 PRN). Do not exceed more than 10 tablets in 24 hours,
and if the pain persists for more than a day or two, see a physician.
A. For minor aches and pains, take 2 tablets of Regular Strength

72
B. For minor aches and pains, take 2 tablets of Regular Strength
C. For minor aches and pains, take 2 tablets of Regular Strength

D. For minor aches and pains, take 2 tablets of Regular Strength

35. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation, Citystate Centre, 709

Shaw Boulevard 1603 Pasig City | Call Center (+632) 441-7442
A. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation, Citystate Centre, 709

Shaw Bolevard 1603 Pasig City | Call Center (+632) 441-7442
B. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation, Citystate Centre, 709

C. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation, City state Centre, 709

D. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation, Citystate Centre, 709

73
36. University of the Philippines Manila Taft Avenue, Manila
Philippines 1000. Tel: (02) 554-8400. PHIC Accredited Hospital
Provider ISO 9001:2008 Certified.
A. University of the Philippines Manila Taft Avenue, Manila

B. University of the Philippines Manila Taft Avenue, Manila

Philippines 1000. Tel: (02) 554-8400. PHIC Acredited Hospital
C. University of the Philippines Manila Taft Avenue Manila

D. University of the Philippines Manila Taft Avenue, Manila

37. Age and Ageing, Volume 35, Issue 4, 1 July 2006, Pages 350–
364, https://doi.org/10.1093/ageing/afl005. Published: 28 April
2006.
A. Age and Aging, Volume 35, Issue 4, 1 July 2006, Pages 350–
2006.
B. Age and Ageing, Volume 35, Issue 4, 1 July 2006, Pages 350–
2006.
C. Age and Ageing, Volume 35, Issue 4, 1 July 2006, Pages 360–
2006.
74
D. Age and Ageing, Volume 35, Issue 4 1 July 2006, Pages 350–
2006.
38. 30 mg tablets: Blue-green, apple-shaped biconvex tablets

debossed '101' on one side and 'ACX 30' on the other side.
A. 30 mg tablets: Blue-green, apple-shaped biconcave tablets

B. 30 mg tablets: Blue-green, apple-shaped biconvex tablets

debossed '101' on one side and 'ACX 3 on the other side.
C. 30 mg tablets: Blue-green, apple-shaped biconvex tablets

debosed '101' on one side and 'ACX 30' on the other side.
D. 30 mg tablets: Blue-green, apple-shaped biconvex tablets

39. Side Effects

Dizziness, headache, stomach upset, nausea, vomiting, loss of
appetite, diarrhea, constipation, or metallic taste in your mouth may
occur. If any of these effects last or get worse, tell your doctor or
pharmacist promptly.
A. Side Effects
B. Side Effects
75
appetite, diarhea, constipation, or metallic taste in your mouth may
C. Side Efects
D. Side Effects
Dizziness, headache, stomach upset, nausea, vomiting loss of
40. Philippine Children's Medical Center

Quezon Ave., Quezon City
Trunk line : 588 9900
A. Philippine Children's Medical Center

Quezon Ave, Quezon City
B. Philippine Children's Medical Center

C. Philippine Childrens Medical Center

D. Philippine Children's Medical Center

76
77
Part II: Academic Proficiency
78
6
Biology
Directions: Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct
answer.
1. Each amino acid in a protein is specified by
A. several genes.
B. a promoter.
C. an mRNA molecule.
D. a codon.
2. Organisms that obtain their energy from light can be termed:
A. autotrophic.
B. holotrophic.
C. chemotrophic.
D. heterotrophic.
E. heliotrophic.
79
3. What causes cancer in cells?
A. damage to genes
B. chemical damage to cell membranes
C. UV damage to transport proteins
D. All of these cause cancer in cells.
4. Fermentation
A. produces pyruvic acid as an end product.

B. yields less energy per mole of glucose than aerobic respiration.
C. occurs only in the presence of oxygen.
D. prevents glycolysis from occurring.
E. converts ethanol to glucose.
5. In drosophila (fruit flies), eye color is sex-linked and red eye color
is dominant to white eye color. Which of the following are not
possible in a cross between a red-eyed male and a heterozygous
female?
A. Red-eyed male.
B. White-eyed male.
C. Carrier female.
D. Homozygous white-eyed female.
6. In respiration, oxygen
A. combines with lactic acid to form pyruvic acid.

B. acts as a cofactor for glycolytic enzymes.
C. yields energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the
respiratory chain.
D. acts as an acceptor for electrons (and protons), forming water.
E. combines directly with carbon, forming carbon dioxide.
80
7. Carbon is an integral part of an ecosystem. It is cycled
throughout the ecosystem as it is used and then reused. It is
necessary for all life to exist. Carbon is used by plants in the
process of:
A. respiration
B. photosynthesis
C. transpiration
D. decomposition
8. An enzyme is added to an aqueous solution of ATP, DNA,

albumen, fat and glycogen; the reaction mixture is incubated for 10
minutes. If an analysis of the mixture reveals the presence of all of
the above compounds plus glucose, it can be concluded that the
enzyme hydrolyzed some of the:
A. albumen.
B. fat.
C. glycogen.
D. ATP.
E. DNA.
9. The step of mitosis in which chromosomes line up along the

equatorial plane of the cell is called:
A. Prophase.
B. Metaphase.
C. Anaphase.
D. Telophase.
81
10. What cellular organelles would you expect to be absent from
fungi?
A. Mitochondria.
B. Lysosomes.
C. Ribosomes.
D. Golgi bodies.
E. Chloroplasts.
11. Which of the following represents the action of insulin?
A. increases blood glucose levels by the hydrolysis of glycogen

B. increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucagon
production
C. decreases blood glucose levels by forming glycogen
D. increases blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake of
glucose
12. Intracellular organelles that participate in metabolic oxidation

involving hydrogen peroxide are called:
A. centrioles.
B. endoplasmic granules.
C. peroxisomes.
D. lysosomes.
E. macro bodies.
13. An extra finger in humans is rare but is due to a dominant gene.

When one parent is normal and the other parent has an extra finger
but is heterozygous for the trait, what is the probability that the first
child will be normal?
A. 0%.
B. 25%.
82
C. 50%.
D. 75%.
14. Starch, cellulose and glycogen are all
A. proteins.
B. linked internally by hydrogen bonds.
C. water soluble.
D. polymers of glucose.
E. nucleic acids.
15. At some stage of development, all chordates have
A. a pharynx, a vertebral column, and a notochord.

B. pharyngeal pouches, a notochord, and a dorsal tubular nerve
cord.
C. pharyngeal pouches, a notochord, and a ventral nerve cord.
D. pharyngeal pouches, vertebral column, and a dorsal tubular
nerve cord.
E. a pharynx and an ectodermally derived, solid nerve cord.
16. Petroleum products, which contain carbon, are burned, and the
carbon escapes into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. But how
does it get into the petroleum in the first place?
A. refineries
B. plant respiration
C. decomposing plankton
D. photosynthesis in plants
17. In anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells one mole of glucose is

oxidized to:
83
A. six moles of carbon dioxide.
B. two moles of acetic acid.
C. two moles of lactic acid.
D. two moles of acetyl CoA.
E. two moles of carbon dioxide and six moles of water.
18. An ecosystem thrives with biotic and abiotic component parts.

An example of an abiotic part of an ecosystem is:
A. micro-bacteria
B. fungus
C. minerals
D. decaying plants
19. A segment of DNA with the sequence GGCATTAGG would be

transcribed into a messenger RNA segment with the sequence:
A. CCGUAAUCC.
B. AATGCCGTT.
C. CCGTAATCC.
D. AAUGCCGUU.
E. CCGTUUTGG.
20. Down syndrome in humans is due to:
A. three copies of chromosome 21.

B. monosomy.
C. two Y chromosomes.
D. three X chromosomes.
84
21. The movement of water soluble molecules through cell
membranes, from higher to lower concentrations, by attachment to
a carrier protein, describes:
A. diffusions.
B. osmosis.
C. pinocytosis.
D. active transport.
E. facilitated diffusion.
22. Organisms that have the characteristics of radial symmetry,

water vascular system, a spiny skin, and are found exclusively in a
marine habitat would be in which pylum?
A. Annelida
B. Chordata
C. Cnidaria
D. Porifera
E. Echinodermata
23. Over time, the same bones in different vertebrates were put to
different uses. This falls under the category of:
A. missing links.
B. vestigial structures.
C. analogous structures.
D. homologous structures.
24. As far as their products are concerned, all biosynthetic

reactions in living cells result in:
A. a more ordered state, therefore a decrease in entropy.

B. a more ordered state, therefore an increase in entropy.
C. energy released in the form of ATP.
85
D. energy made available for motion.
E. a more ordered state with no entropy change.
25. To determine an organism's niche, all of the following must be

determined, EXCEPT:
A. how it is classified
B. what it eats
C. where it lives
D. what relationships it has with other organisms
26. Another very important cycle is the Water Cycle. All living things
need water to live. This cycle has four main processes. The two
processes that return water to the earth are:
A. evaporation and condensation

B. condensation and precipitation
C. transpiration and condensation
D. evaporation and transpiration
27. Which of the following is the smallest organelle in the cell?
A. Golgi body
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondrion
D. Ribosome
E. Chloroplast
28. Eggs and sperm are genetically very similar, but structurally
very different. Why is this so?
86
A. Both contain a haploid chromosome number, but eggs must
provide nutrients for early development, while sperm must be able
to move efficiently.
B. Both contain a diploid chromosome number, but eggs must
provide nutrients for early development, while sperm must be able
to move efficiently.
C. Both contain maternal chromosomes, but only sperm can control
which chromosomes are passed on.
D. Both contain a haploid chromosome number, but only eggs can
control which chromosomes are passed on.
29. For a given diameter of an axon, one factor which increases the
velocity of a nerve impulse is:
A. the length of the axon.

B. the ploidy of the nucleus.
C. the density of mitochondria along the axon.
D. maximal stimulation of the neuron.
E. the presence of a myelin sheath.
30. How is a biochemical pathway regulated?
A. The product of one reaction becomes the substrate for the next.
B. The end product replaces the initial substrate in the pathway.
C. The end product inhibits the first enzyme in the pathway by
binding to an allosteric site.
D. All of these are correct.
31. Which of the following chiefly stimulates action of the

respiratory center?
A. Carbon dioxide in the blood.

B. Relaxin.
C. Lack of oxygen in the blood.
87
D. Inflation of the alveolus.
E. Vagus nerve.
32. Replicate copies of each chromosome are called

_____________ and are joined at the
_________________
A. homologues/centromere
B. sister chromatids/kinetochore
C. sister chromatids/centromere
D. homologues/kinetochore
33. The term motor unit refers to
A. an entire muscle.
B. a single muscle fiber.
C. all the muscle fibers innervated by one nerve fiber.
D. all the motor nerves in one muscle.
E. all the sliding filaments of actin and myosin in one muscle fiber.
34. During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
A. prophase I
B. anaphase I
C. prophase II
D. telophase II
35. An example of convergent evolution is
A. Australian marsupials and placental mammals.

B. the flippers in fish, penguins, and dolphins.
C. the wings in birds, bats, and insects.
D. all of these.
88
36. The human heart beat is initiated within the
A. sinus venosus.
B. Hensen's node.
C. conus arteriosus.
D. atrio-ventricular node.
E. sino-atrial node.
37. Food chains and food webs are models in science which
visually show us the different relationships within an ecosystem.
The primary difference between the food chain and the food web is:
A. a food chain shows how energy is stored

B. a food web shows how energy is used
C. a food web is a complex system of food chains
D. a food chain is a combination of different food webs
38. The testicles of male mammals are suspended in the scrotum

because:
A. the optimum temperature for sperm production is less than the

normal core body temperature of the organism.
B. the optimum temperature for sperm production is higher than the
normal core body temperature of the organism.
C. there is not enough room in the pelvic area for the testicles to be
housed internally.
D. it is easier for the body to expel sperm during ejaculation.
39. In the nephron of the kidney, filtration occurs between
A. Bowman's capsule and Henle's loop.

89
B. the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule.
C. the proximal tubule and Henle's loop.
D. Henle's loop and the vasa recta.
E. the peritubular network and the convoluted tubules.
40. The cytoplasm of an animal cell is divided by means of:
A. A cleavage furrow.
B. A cell plate.
C. A cell membrane formed within the cytoplasm.
D. Mitosis.
41. Sexual and asexual reproduction usually differ in
A. the ability of the new offspring to reproduce.

B. the rate at which mutations occur.
C. the amount of genotypic variation between parent and offspring.
D. the viability of offspring.
E. whether or not natural selection can occur.
42. The clean-up crew are the decomposers. Decomposers and

scavengers get rid of the garbage and waste in an ecosystem.
Decomposers differ from scavengers because they
A. only eat dead organisms

B. do not eat dead organisms
C. break down larger organisms
D. only feed on dead plants and animals
43. If we could monitor the amount of total gonadotropin activity in

pregnant women, we would expect
90
A. high levels of FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate endometrial
thickening.
B. high levels of circulating FSH and LH to stimulate implantation of
the embryo.
C. high levels of hCG in the uterus to stimulate endometrial
thickening.
D. high levels of circulating hCG to stimulate estrogen and
progesterone synthesis.
44. In watermelons, the unlinked genes for green color (G) and for
short length (S) are dominant over alleles for striped color (g) and
long length (s). Predict the phenotypes and their ratios for the cross
Ggss x ggSs.
A. All green short.

B. 1:2:1 green short: stripped long: striped short.
C. All striped long.
D. 1:1:1:1 green short: striped short: green long: striped long.
E. 1:1 green short: striped long
45. Long radishes crossed with round radishes result in all oval
radishes. This type of inheritance is:
A. Multiple alleles.
B. Complete dominance.
C. Co-dominance.
D. Incomplete dominance.
46. Assuming no linkage, how many different kinds of gametes can

be produced by an organism with the genotype AaBbcc?
A. 32
B. 16
C. 8
91
D. 6
E. 4
47. Which blood type would not be possible for children of a type
AB mother and a type A father?
A. O.
B. A.
C. B.
D. AB.
48. Under the five-kingdom classification, members of the kingdom

Monera are generally separated from the members of all the other
kingdoms by having
A. heterotrophic nutrition versus autotrophic nutrition.

B. unicellular organization versus multicellular organization.
C. microscopic size versus macroscopic size.
D. prokaryotic cells versus eukaryotic cells.
E. parasite-host relationship versus predator-prey relationship.
49. The process in which water, in the water cycle, goes through a
phase change, from a gas to a liquid, is called.
A. evaporation
B. transpiration
C. condensation
D. precipitation
50. Of the following, which group of invertebrates is apparently

most closely related to primitive vertebrates?
A. Annelida
92
B. Mollusca
C. Cnidaria
D. Arthropoda
E. Echinodermata
93
7
Physics
answer.
1. An object moves along the x-axis with a constant acceleration of

6 m/s² and an initial velocity of –24 m/s. It is located at x = 6 m when
t = 0 s. What is its position when its velocity is zero?
A. 6 m
B. –42 m
C. –90 m
D. –96 m
2. Which of the following is the primary goal of scientific inquiry?
A. finding technological solutions to human problems

B. discovering the fundamental principles that govern nature
C. developing mathematical techniques for solving problems
D. investigating fundamental principles that transcend the material
world
94
3. Which of the following experiments led most directly to the
quantum theory of light?
A. Michelson's and Morley's effort to detect the luminiferous ether

B. Röntgen's discovery of the emission of X-rays from a vacuum tube
C. Planck's analysis of the spectrum emitted by a blackbody
D. Hertz's detection of electromagnetic radiation
4. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. At what pitch must a 170-
cm-tall person sing to produce a sound wave with a wavelength
equal to the person's height?
A. 24.5 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 255 Hz
D. 578 Hz
5. A car on a highway has an initial speed of 23 m/s. The car

accelerates at a constant rate for 10 s to a final speed of 29 m/s.
How far does the car travel during this time interval?
A. 230 m
B. 260 m
C. 275 m
D. 290 m
6. An organ pipe is closed at one end. As the temperature of the gas

inside the pipe increases, which of the following will also increase?
A. the wavelength of the fundamental frequency

B. the ratio of the harmonics produced in the pipe
C. the speed of the waves produced in the pipe
D. the number of overtones produced in the pipe
95
7. The following diagram shows the response of 2 kilograms of a gas
at 140°C. Heat is released at a rate of 6 kilojoules per minute.
The melting point of this substance is
A. 0°C
B. 60°C
C. 80°C
D. 140°C
8. A beam of parallel rays is reflected from a smooth plane surface.

After reflection the rays will be
A. converging
B. diverging
C. parallel
D. diffused
96
9. An elementary particle moving at 0.99c with respect to the
laboratory frame has a half-life of 16 μs in the laboratory frame. What
is the half-life of the particle in its own frame of reference?
A. 0.50 μs
B. 2.3 μs
C. 4.0 μs
D. 15 μs
10. The acceleration toward the center of an object moving with

constant speed around a given circle
A. is proportional to its velocity

B. is proportional to the square of its speed
C. is proportional to the square root of its speed
D. is inversely proportional to its velocity
11. According to Maxwell's equations, a time-dependent magnetic

field will be produced under which of the following circumstances?
A. The total magnetic flux through a surface is equal to zero.

B. A field exists that is the gradient of a scalar function.
C. An electric field varies with time.
D. The electric flux through surface is zero.
12. The angular speed of a star spinning about its axis increases as
the star begins to contract to a smaller radius. Which of the following
quantities associated with the star must decrease as this occurs?
A. moment of inertia
B. angular momentum
C. rotational kinetic energy
D. net external torque
97
13. Which of the following is one of Einstein's postulates of special
relativity?
A. Events that are simultaneous for one observer are not

simultaneous for another observer in motion relative to the first.
B. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to the frequency of
the light.
C. The momentum of an object approaches infinity as its speed
approaches that of light.
D. The speed of light in a vacuum has the same value in all inertial
reference frames.
14. A piece of string, fixed at both ends, is struck to produce a wave

in the string. Given that μ is the string's linear mass density and T is
its tension, which of the following combinations of values will produce
the greatest wave speed?
A. μ = 0.1 kg/m, T = 0.1 N

B. μ = 0.1 kg/m, T = 1.0 N
C. μ = 1.0 kg/m, T = 0.1 N
D. μ = 1.0 kg/m, T = 1.0 N
98
15. Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
A 36 V battery is in series with a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in

the diagram above. The plate separation is 0.20 m. The plates are
large, so that the electric field is approximately constant between
them. What is the magnitude and direction of the field?
A. 7.2 N/C to the left

B. 7.2 N/C to the right
C. 180 N/C to the left
D. 180 N/C to the right
16. Boyle’s law describes the behavior of a gas when
A. its pressure is kept constant

B. its volume is kept constant
C. its density is kept constant
D. its mass is kept constant
99
17. A positive charge is moving with constant speed at right angles
to a uniform magnetic field. If the speed of the charge were doubled,
the force exerted on the particle by the magnetic field would be
A. unaffected
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. halved
18. Light passes through two parallel slits and falls on a screen. The
pattern produced is due to interference and
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. polarization
D. diffraction
19. Which of the following statements is (are) correct about the

photoelectric effect?
I. The number of electrons emitted is independent of the intensity of

the incident light.
II. The stopping potential decreases with increased frequency.
III. In a graph of maximum kinetic energy versus incident frequency,
all metals have different threshold frequencies, but all have the same
slope.
IV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is
independent of the intensity of the incident light.
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
100
The diagram above represents a Ferris wheel rotating at a constant

speed. Which of the following vectors represents the acceleration of
a person on the wheel at point Y?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21. When a beam of light goes from a rarer to a denser medium such
as glass and has an angle of incidence equal to zero, which of the
following properties of the beam of light does (do) NOT change?
I. Amplitude
101
II. Speed
III. Wavelength
IV. Direction
A. I, II, and III only

B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only
22. A circular loop of wire is connected in series with a voltage source

V and a resistor R. The strength of the magnetic field in the middle
of the loop is directly proportional to:
A. VR.
B. V/R
C. V2R
D. V2/R
23. A man standing in an elevator is taken up by the elevator at

constant speed. Which of the following is (are) true of the push that
the man exerts on the floor of the elevator?
I. It is equal to his weight.

II. It is equal to less than his weight.
III. It is equal to more than his weight.
IV. It is dependent on the value of the constant speed.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
24. Which of the following particles, all moving with the same
velocity, will have the longest de Broglie wavelength?
102
A. An electron
B. A proton
C. A neutron
D. An alpha particle
25. Use the diagram below to answer the question the follows.
The diagram above shows an electric field of 10 N/C that is constant

in magnitude and direction. What is the electrostatic potential
between points A and B?
A. 3 V
B. 4 V
C. 5 V
D. 7 V
26. The resultant of a 3-newton and a 4-newton force that act on an

object in opposite directions to each other is, in newtons,
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
103
27. A converging lens produces a real image at a distance of 20 cm
for an object located 40 cm in front of the lens. What is the focal
length of the lens?
A. 0.50 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 13 cm
D. 20 cm
28. It is certain that a rod is electrically charged if it
A. repels a pith ball

B. attracts a pith ball
C. attracts the N-pole of a compass needle
D. repels the N-pole of a compass needle
29. If the velocity of light in a medium depends on its frequency, the

medium is said to be
A. coherent
B. refractive
C. dispersive
D. diffractive
104
The length of each of the ropes on a playground swing is 2.00 m.

What is the maximum speed attainable on the swing if the maximum
value of θ is 45.0°?
A. 1.41 m/s
B. 2.00 m/s
C. 3.39 m/s
D. 8.85 m/s
31. Students in a physics class are learning how to solder electronic

components onto a printed circuit board. In addition to working in a
well-ventilated area, the students should also wear:
A. leather gloves
B. safety glasses
C. rubber shoes
105
D. an antistatic wrist strap
32. The time of one vibration of a simple pendulum may be

decreased by:
A. increasing the length of the pendulum

B. decreasing the length of the pendulum
C. using a heavier bob
D. using a lighter bob
What is the current through the battery?
A. 0.3 A
B. 1.2 A
C. 1.5 A
D. 2.4 A
34. A horizontal pipe has a diameter of 10.0 cm. Fluid flows in the
pipe at 0.500 m/s. The pipe is attached to a smaller pipe that has a
diameter of 4.00 cm. What is the speed of the fluid in the smaller
pipe?
106
A. 0.200 m/s
B. 1.25 m/s
C. 3.13 m/s
D. 12.5 m/s
35. On a dry winter day, a person walks across a carpet, reaches to

touch a doorknob, and observes a spark about 3 mm long. Given
that the dielectric breakdown of air is approximately 3 MV/m, which
of the following is best estimate for the potential difference between
the person's hand and the doorknob?
A. 90 V
B. 900 V
C. 9,000 V
D. 9,000,000 V
36. The following five lengths of thin wire, all of which have the same
diameter and length, are connected in a circuit to a battery. Which
length of wire generates the greatest power?
A. 3 m of nichrome wire
B. 3 m of copper wire
C. 3 m of lead wire
D. 3 m of steel wire
37. If the intensity of monochromatic light is increased while incident

on a pair of narrow slits in a diffraction experiment, the spacing
between maxima in the pattern will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. increase or decrease depending on frequency
107
38. A point source of light is placed at the principal focus of a convex
lens. Which of the following will be true of the refracted light?
I. It will diverge.
II. It will be parallel to the principal axis.
III. It will seem to come from a point 1.2 of the radius of curvature
from the lens.
IV. It will converge.

B. I and III only
C. II only
D. IV only
39. Electrical appliances are usually grounded in order to
A. maintain a balanced charge distribution

B. prevent a buildup of heat
C. run properly using household electricity
D. prevent a buildup of static charges
40. As shown in the diagram below, two weights, one of 10 newtons

and the other of 6 newtons, are tied to the ends of a flexible string.
The string is placed over a pulley that is attached to the ceiling.
Frictional losses and the weight of the pulley may be neglected as
the weights and the string are allowed to move.
108
At the instant shown in the diagram, the potential energy of the 10-
newton object with respect to the floor is, in joules,
A. 0
B. 2
C. 20
D. 50
41. Which of the following is an action-reaction pair for a space

station containing astronauts in orbit about the earth?
A. the weight of the space station and the centripetal force on the
space station
B. the weight of the astronauts and the centripetal force on the space
station
109
C. the weight of the space station and the gravitational force of the
space station on the earth
D. the weight of the astronauts and the gravitational force of the
space station on the astronauts
42. How many meters will a 2.00-kilogram ball starting from rest fall
freely in 1.00 second?
A. 4.90
B. 2.00
C. 9.81
D. 19.6
43. An object that is black
A. absorbs black light

B. reflects black light
C. absorbs all light
D. reflects all light
44. Of the following, the particle whose mass is closest to that of the
neutron is the
A. meson
B. deuteron
C. neutrino
D. proton
45. Several students in a physics class are planning to design a wind

power system that can generate enough electricity to perform
hydrolysis of water in a 500 mL beaker. According to the engineering
design process, which of the following should the students do first?
110
A. make an expanded sketch of the major parts of the system
B. build a small, working prototype of the system
C. define the problem that needs to be solved
D. brainstorm several alternative designs for the system
46. An object with a constant mass rests on a smooth and perfectly

horizontal table. If a horizontal force F is applied, acceleration a
results. If F is doubled without changing the direction, what will be
the effect(s) on the acceleration?
I. The acceleration will remain the same.

II. The acceleration will be doubled
III. The acceleration will decrease.
IV. The acceleration will increase but not double.

B. II only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only
The diagram above shows a string of length 0.30 m oscillating in its

first harmonic. What is the wavelength when the string is oscillating
in its third harmonic?
A. 0.10 m
B. 0.20 m
111
C. 0.45 m
D. 0.90 m
48. A wire coil of radius 2.0 cm with 10 turns is in a magnetic field of

2.0 T. The field is perpendicular to the plane of each turn of the coil.
The coil is wired in series with a resistor of 5.0 Ω. The field drops at
a constant rate to 0.0 T in 10 ms. What is the current through the
resistor?
A. 0.50 A
B. 2.5 A
C. 8.0 A
D. 13 A
49. The rate of heat production of a wire immersed in ice water and
carrying an electric current is proportional to
A. the current
B. the reciprocal of the current
C. the reciprocal of the square of the current
D. the square of the current
50. A lens is used to produce a sharp image on a screen. When the

right half of the lens is covered with an opaque material, how will the
image be affected?
I. The right half of the image will disappear.

II. The left half of the image will disappear.
III. The image size will become approximately half of the original size.
IV . The image brightness will become approximately half of the
original brightness.

B. I and III only
112
C. II and IV only
D. IV only
113
8
Social Science

answer.
1. After having your picture taken with a flash camera, you “see”
circles of light. This experience is most likely related to
A. the sensory register

B. encoding
C. neural spikes
D. attention
2. Emily, age 8, is able to grasp her own social position as well as

that of the people around her. She begins to consider several tasks
and relationships simultaneously. According to George Herbert
Mead's theory, Emily is at the ________ stage.
A. play
B. game
C. imitative
D. preparatory
114
3. Bill has been identified as a very charismatic individual. He can
often persuade classmates to follow him and participate in the
things he feels should be accomplished at school. Some have
called him a natural leader. According to Gardner’s theory of
multiple intelligences, Bill has
A. intrapersonal strengths
B. interpersonal strengths
C. political strengths
D. social strengths
4. Developmental theorists generally agree that development
A. is sequential
B. is completely unique to each individual
C. is sporadic
D. tends to be unpredictable
5. In Max Weber’s stratification typology, which class consists of

skilled, semiskilled, and unskilled workers?
A. The working class

B. The middle class
C. The divisional class
D. The lower-middle class
6. When cognitive theorists speak of “storage”, they are generally

referring to
A. assimilating
B. accommodating
C. encoding into memory
D. creating subfiles
115
7. The process by which some characteristics of a profession are
eliminated is
A. autonomy
B. specialized training
C. occupational recognition
D. de-professionalization
8. Which of the following are always members of a person’s family

of orientation?
A. Spouse(s)
B. Son(s) and daughter(s)
C. Parent(s)
D. Aunt(s) and uncle(s)
9. Which of the following factors is NOT a contributor to the global

feminization of poverty?
A. Poor women worldwide do not have access to commercial credit.

B. Poor women continue to be trained in low wage jobs.
C. The income gap between men and women continues to grow in
low–income nations as well as in some developing nations.
D. High-income nations are importing poor women to their countries
to provide them better paying jobs and marketable training.
10. The system by which groups of people are ranked in a society

on the basis of power and economic wealth is known as
A. status
B. hypergamy
C. social mobility
116
D. stratification
11. What do sociologists term a group that is advantaged and has

superior resources and rights within a society?
A. Majority
B. Minority
C. Superior
D. Powerful
12. The culturally and socially constructed differences between

females and males found in the meanings, beliefs, and practices
associated with “femininity” and “masculinity” are known as
A. gender
B. sex
C. primary sexual identifiers
D. secondary sexual identifiers
13. All of the following are shared by members of the same ethnic
groups, EXCEPT
A. unique cultural traits

B. a feeling of ethnocentrism
C. a common educational level
D. territoriality
14. The subfield of sociology that examines population size,

composition, and distribution is
A. social ecology
B. social psychology
C. social dynamics
117
D. demography
15. Under which of the following conditions can inhibition or

interference occur?
A. When the old and new learning concepts are very similar
B. When the old and new learning concepts are the exact opposite
C. When the old and new learning concepts are very dissimilar
D. When the new and old learning concepts are taught at the same
time
16. “Proper” attitudes toward education, socially approved dress

and manners, knowledge about books, art, music, and other forms
of high and popular culture are all examples of
A. cultural mystique
B. the proper social grace
C. accumulated social wisdom
D. cultural capital
17. Private ownership of the means of production, from which

personal profits can be derived through market competition and
without government intervention, is characteristic of
A. capitalism
B. socialism
C. imperialism
D. mercantilism
18. The means through which power is acquired and exercised by

some people and groups is
A. government
118
B. the economy
C. politics
D. the military
19. The type of social arrangement in which people are able to gain
higher positions based on their intellectual and educational
credentials rather than through the influence of personal contacts is
A. a tracking orientation
B. a credentialist orientation
C. a meritocracy
D. an educational bureaucracy
20. George is on a date with Pat. He tries to behave in a way that

will make Pat like him and want to go out again. George is
engaging in
A. face-work
B. instrumental deception
C. ambassador socialization
D. impression management
21. According to urban sociologists, a city is
A. a metropolitan region
B. a relatively dense and permanent settlement of people
C. a census category
D. a suburban or rural area
22. Tangible objects that are necessary or desired are referred to

as
A. products
119
B. materials
C. goods
D. assets
23. A group of people who live in a specified geographic area are

referred to as
A. nomads
B. clients
C. a sample
D. a population
24. Any physical or social attribute or sign that so devalues a

person’s social identity that it disqualifies that person from full social
acceptance is a
A. norm
B. value
C. status
D. stigma
25. Traditions, beliefs, language, and philosophies are all examples

of
A. material culture
B. cultural universals
C. cultural values
D. nonmaterial culture
26. An advantage of group therapy over individual therapy is that

group therapy
A. requires less commitment from the client

120
B. achieves results more quickly
C. produces a significantly higher recovery rate
D. enables clients to realize that their problems are not unique
27. A family unit that is composed of relatives in addition to parents

and children who live in the same household is
A. a disjointed kinship
B. an extended family
C. a nuclear family
D. a conjugal family
28. At birth, male and female infants are distinguished by the

genitalia used in the reproductive process, which are referred to as
A. gonads and fallopian tubes

B. primary sex characteristics
C. secondary sex characteristics
D. biological tendencies
29. A negative attitude based on faulty generalizations about

members of selected racial, ethnic, or other groups is referred to as
A. redlining
B. discrimination
C. prejudice
D. racism
30. Sam, an American, assumes that the American culture and way
of life are the norm and superior to all others. This is an example of
A. culture shock
B. stereotyping
121
C. ethnocentrism
D. endogamy
31. What is Charles Horton Cooley’s term for the way in which a
person’s sense of self is derived from the perceptions of others?
A. Development of personality
B. The “looking-glass” self
C. The “I” and the “me”
D. The human psyche
32. According to sociologist C. Wright Mills, the ability to see the

relationship between individual experiences and the larger society
is referred to as
A. the conflict perspective

B. symbolic interaction
C. reality perception
D. the sociological imagination
33. According to Max Weber, individual power depends on a

person’s position within
A. primary groups
B. bureaucracies
C. family structures
D. kinship networks
34. Karl Marx’s term for government, schools, churches, and all
other social institutions that produce and disseminate ideas that
perpetuate the existing system of exploitation is society’s
A. substructure
122
B. superstructure
C. ecostructure
D. basic structure
35. Which of the following categories of people has the highest net
worth overall?
A. Divorced persons
B. Separated persons
C. Single persons
D. Married persons
36. Richard can give you a step by step account of the game last
Friday. He can describe the various plays and the players’
reactions. Richard has a good
A. episodic memory
B. procedural memory
C. semantic memory
D. athletic memory
37. Movements seeking to bring about a total change in society are

referred to as
A. revolutionary
B. reform
C. religious
D. alternative
38. According to Karl Marx, which of the following statements about

capitalists is NOT true?
A. They own the means of production.

123
B. They control the means of production.
C. They exploit the workers.
D. They are vulnerable to displacement by machines or cheap
labor.
39. The statement “The greater the degree of social harm, the more
the offender should be punished” reflects the principle of
A. retribution
B. social protection
C. rehabilitation
D. deterrence
40. The hierarchical arrangement of large social groups based on

their control over basic resources is
A. social distinction
B. invidious distinctiveness
C. social stratification
D. social layering
41. The area of the brain stem that is important in controlling

breathing is the
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. cerebellum
C. limbic system
D. medulla
42. The subfield of sociology that examines social relationships and

political and economic structures in the city is
A. urban planning
124
B. zoning
C. urban sociology
D. urban psychology
43. Which of the following system produces, circulates, and

regulates levels of hormones in the body?
A. Circulatory System
B. Endocrine System
C. Limbic System
D. Sympathetic Nervous System
44. According to Robert Merton’s strain theory, what occurs when

people accept society’s goals but adopt disapproved means for
achieving them?
A. Conformity
B. Innovation
C. Rebellion
D. Ritualism
45. Belief in a single supreme being or God who is responsible for

significant events such as the creation of the world is
A. transcendent idealism
B. monotheism
C. polytheism
D. unit theism
46. The process by which a person mentally assumes the role of

another person in order to understand the world from that person’s
point of view is referred to as
125
A. generalized others
B. role-taking
C. significant others
D. self-concept
47. Who are the working poor?
A. People who live from just above to just below the poverty line
B. Seldom-employed individuals who are caught in long-term
deprivation because of low education, low employability, low
income, and low self-esteem
C. Skilled and semi-skilled machine operators who work in factories
and elsewhere
D. Those who live on the margins of society, are frequently
homeless, and have little hope for the future
48. A continuous concentration of two or more cities and their

suburbs that have grown until they form an interconnected urban
area is a
A. megalopolis
B. central metropolitan area
C. census district
D. suburban complex
49. The study of the causes and distribution of health, disease, and
impairment throughout a population is
A. social epidemiology
B. social welfare
C. social engineering
D. social biology
126
50. A person with obsessive-compulsive disorder is best described
as an individual who experiences
A. memory loss
B. intense mood swings
C. persistent anxiety-provoking thoughts
D. physical symptoms with no known cause
127
9
Chemistry

answer.
1. Which of these is an example of a chemical change?
A. Methane is burned in air.

B. Solid gold is melted to make jewelry.
C. A bar of copper is stretched into a long copper wire.
D. Iron is coated with bronze to prevent rusting
2. Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?
A. protons and neutrons

B. neutrons and electrons
C. protons and electrons
D. protons
3. What is the approximate mass of 1.50 moles of ammonia (NH3)?
A. 10.0 grams
B. 15.0 grams
128
C. 17.0 grams
D. 25.5 grams
4. One of the most important properties of mixtures is that they
A. are very reactive and unstable

B. may have different proportions of their components
C. have fixed proportions of their components
D. can be separated only by chemical means
5. What is the percent composition by mass of sulfur in ammonium

sulfate, (NH4)2SO4?
A. 6.7%
B. 24%
C. 28%
D. 32%
6. Which of these is a base?
A. LiOH
B. BaCl2
C. Kl
D. KNO3
129
7. The compound shown below is a
A. triglyceride
B. trinucleotide
C. tripeptide
D. trisaccharide
E. triterpene
8. Which one of the following is a strong acid?
A. HNO3
B. CaSO4
C. NH3
D. NaOH
9. Which of the following terms used as a measure of the average

kinetic energy of the particles in a sample?
A. temperature
B. chemical energy
C. volume
D. pressure
130
10. Which characteristic of an exothermic reaction differs from that
of an endothermic reaction?
A. An exothermic reaction absorbs heat as the reaction progresses.

B. The activation energy is higher in an exothermic reaction.
C. An exothermic reaction releases heat as the reaction
progresses.
D. The products in exothermic reactions have more potential
energy than the reactants.
11. Chlorine atom is in an excited state. When an electron in this

atom jumps from the fourth to the third shell, energy is
A. absorbed
B. converted to electricity
C. released
D. disappeared
12. Which element has the highest electronegativity?
A. nitrogen
B. iodine
C. fluorine
D. selenium
13. If the formula for potassium chlorate is KClO3 and the formula
for magnesium fluoride is MgF2, then what is the formula for
magnesium chlorate?
A. MgClO3
B. Mg2ClO3
C. Mg(ClO3)2
D. Mg2(ClO3)3
131
14. Which part of an atom is most directly involved in chemical
bonding?
A. nucleus
B. electron
C. proton
D. neutron
15. The graph below shows the solubilities of four compounds.
132
A supersaturated solution at 50 degrees Celsius contains 41 g of
solute in 100 g of water. Which compound does the supersaturated
solution contain?
A. Potassium Iodide
B. Potassium Nitrate
C. Sodium Nitrate
D. Sodium Chloride
16. The electron configuration of a neutral atom of calcium is

shown.
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
How many valence electrons are in the atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 20
For questions 17 and 18, consider the following reaction:
4 Al (s) + 3 O2 (g) ⇒ 2 Al2O3 (s)
17. The reaction can be classified as which one of the following

types?
A. precipitation
B. decomposition
C. synthesis
D. double displacement
18. How many moles of Al2O3 can be produced from the reaction of
10.0 g of Al and 19.0 g of O2?
133
A. 0.581 mol
B. 0.371 mol
C. 0.185 mol
D. 0.396 mol
19. Isotopes of an element have different numbers of
A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. positrons
20. Which of the following equations represents sublimation?
A. CH4(l)→CH4(g)
B. CH3OH(g)→CH3OH(l)
C. Hg(l)→Hg(s)
D. CO2(s)→CO2(g)
21. For elements in the left-most column of the periodic table,

properties that have increasing values as the atomic number
increases include which of the following?
I. Ionization energy (potential)

II. Atomic radius
III. Atomic mass
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
134
22. A student conducting a titration by adding 12.0 mL of
NaOH(aq), of unknown concentration to 16.0 mL of 0.15 M HCl(aq).
What is the molar concentration of the NaOH(aq)?
A. 2.0 M
B. 2.4 M
C. 0.2 M
D. 0.15 M
23. The reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water yields
A. HNO3 only
B. HNO2 only
C. HNO3 and NO
D. NH3 and H2O2
E. NH3 and O2
24. Which of these is an example of a homogenous mixture?
A. a bowl of noodle soup

B. a container of water and sand.
C. a glass of salt water.
D. a bottle of oil and vinegar.
25. The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.27 years. Approximately how

much of a 199 g sample will remain after 20 years?
A. 10.0 g
B. 12.5 g
C. 40.0 g
D. 50.0 g
135
26. In which of the following reactions is water considered to be
acting as an acid?
27. A 2135 cm3 sample of dry air has a pressure of 98.4 kPa at 127
degrees Celsius. What is the volume of the sample if the
temperature is increased to 206 degrees Celsius when the
pressure is kept constant?
A. 1320 cm3
B. 1780 cm3
C. 2560 cm3
D. 3460 cm3
28. Which of these represents a release of energy?
A. H2O(l) →H2O(g)
B. H2O(s) → H2O(l)
C. H2O(g) → H2O(l)
D. H2O(s) → H2O(g)
136
29. During the production of aspirin, 2.6 g of aspirin can be formed
from 2.0 g of salicylic acid. What is the percent yield if only 1.7 g of
aspirin is produced?
A. 35%
B. 65%
C. 77%
D. 85%
30. Analysis by mass of a certain compound shows that it contains

14 percent hydrogen and 86 percent carbon. Which of the following
is the most informative statement that can properly be made about
the compound on the basis of these data?
A. It is a hydrocarbon.
B. Its empirical formula is CH2
C. Its molecular formula is C2H4 .
D. Its molar mass is 28 g/mol.
E. It contains a triple bond.
31. Which characteristic is more similar in liquids and solids as

compared to gases?
A. the masses of particles.
B. the distance between particles.
C. the degree to which particles are organized.
J. the strength of chemical bonds within particles.
32. The reaction shown below represents the oxidation of ammonia

(NH3).
4NH3(aq) + 5O2(g) --> 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
How many grams of water (H2O) will be formed when 34 grams of

ammonia reacts with an excess of oxygen (O2)?
137
A. 51 grams
B. 54 grams
C. 64 grams
D. 110 grams
33. Which of these describes how gallium forms a 3+ ion?
A. The gallium loses 3 electrons.

B. The gallium loses 3 protons.
C. The gallium gains 3 electrons.
D. The gallium gains 3 protons.
34. In which two compounds does nitrogen have the same

oxidation number?
35. A student fills a flask with 5.0 moles of nitrogen gas and then
seals the flask. Which change will happen when the student warms
the flask?
A. The temperature of the nitrogen gas will decrease.

B. The pressure inside the flask will increase.
C. The volume inside the flask will decrease.
D. The molar mass of the nitrogen gas will increase.
138
36. How many atoms are in 3.50 moles of calcium (Ca)?
A. 4.00 x 101
B. 1.40 x 102
C. 6.02 x 1023
D. 2.10 x 1024
37. Which of the following is the IUPAC name for this compound?
A. 4-methyl-l-hexene
B. 4-ethyl-l-pentene
C. 2-ethyl-4-pentene
D. sec-butyl propylene
E. 3-methyl-5-hexene
38. The equation below represents an incomplete chemical

reaction.
Al + Cl2 →?
What is the product of the chemical reaction?

139
A. Al2Cl3
B. AlCl
C. AlCl2
D. AlCl3
39. Which information about a solution is required to calculate its

molarity?
A. number of moles of solute and atomic mass of solute

B. number of moles of solvent and atomic mass of solute
C. number of particles of solvent and the volume of solvent
D. number of moles of solute and number of liters of solution.
40. Of the following carboxylic acids, which is the most acidic?
140
41. Which one of the following processes is accompanied by a
decrease in entropy?
A. Sublimation of carbon dioxide.

B. Evaporation of water.
C. Freezing of water.
D. Shuffling a deck of cards.
E. Heating a balloon filled with a gas.
42. Which of the following is the pH of a solution obtained by mixing

50.0 mL of 0.100 M HA and 50.0 mL of 0.100 M NaOH?
I. Neutral if HA is a strong acid

II. Basic if HA is a weak acid
III. Neutral if HA is a weak acid
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
43. The combustion of propane, C3H8(g), proceeds according to the

equation below:
C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l)
How many grams of water will be formed in the complete

combustion of 44.0 grams of propane?
A. 4.50 g
B. 18.0 g
C. 44.0 g
D. 72.0 g
E. 176 g
141
44. Which of the following is NOT accompanied by an increase in
the entropy of the system?
A. Discharging a battery
B. Boiling water at atmospheric pressure
C. Very slow mixing of hot and cold water in a well-insulated
container
D. Very slow expansion of a gas into an evacuated flask
E. Rapid expansion of a gas and recompression to its original
temperature, pressure, and volume
45. A student sets up an experiment to investigate the effect of

temperature on the volume of 50 grams of gas inside a balloon.
Which statement correctly describes the design of the experiment?
A. The temperature is an experimental control, and the volume is

the independent variable.
B. The volume is an experimental control, and the temperature is
the dependent variable.
C. The mass of the gas is an experimental control, and the
temperature is the independent variable.
D. The temperature is an experimental control, and the mass of the
gas is the dependent variable.
46. The equation below represents the breakdown of potassium

chlorate (KClO3).
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
What volume of oxygen gas (O2) does 20.0 grams of potassium

chlorate (KClO3) produce at STP based on the equation shown?
A. 5.48 liters
B. 7.80 liters
142
C. 67.3 liters
D. 72.9 liters
47. Two measuring tools are shown.
What is the most appropriate tool for measuring 30.0 mL of a

sodium chloride solution?
A. the beaker because it is more stable and the liquid is less likely
to spill.
B. the beaker because it is calibrated to hold large amounts of
liquid
C. the graduated cylinder because it is calibrated to measure the
liquid more precisely.
D. the graduated cylinder because it will be nearly filled with liquid.
143
48. Which of the following compounds produces H2 gas when
added to water?
A. LiH
B. CH4
C. NH3
D. PH3
E. H2S
49. Which of the following is aromatic?
144
50. An engine cylinder contains 250 mL of gas at a pressure of 1.0
atm. As the engine runs, it compresses the cylinder, reducing the
volume of the gas to 25 mL. What is the new pressure of the gas at
this volume?
A. 0.10 atm
B. 10.0 atm
C. 25 atm
D. 250 atm
145
10
Verbal Answer Key
1. A.
To follow is less intense than to chase, and to nudge is less intense

than to thrust.
2. D.
A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of

sleep. The answer is not choice a or b because even though a bear
and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the
analogy. (Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not
synonymous.
3. A.
This is a classic function/purpose bridge—the purpose of

MEDICINE is to prevent or cure ILLNESS in the same way that the
purpose of LAW is to prevent or cure ANARCHY in the society.
146
4. C.
Scruff is the back of the neck, and stern is the back of a boat.
5. D.
A principle is another word for a doctrine, and a living is another

word for livelihood.
6. D.
Something PALTRY lacks SIGNIFICANCE. Does something

BANAL lack ORIGINALITY? Well, if something is BANAL it is
predictable, so yes. That pair has the same relation as the stem
pair.
7. D.
To chatter is to talk rapidly, and to flutter is to flap rapidly.
8. A.
To conjugate means to pair, and to partition means to divide.
9. B.
Chagrin can be the result of criticism, and sag is the result of

pressure
147
10. B.
When you EXTORT something, you obtain it by force or threats. To

EXTORT is to OBTAIN dishonestly. Plagiarism is borrowing
material from another writer without giving him or her
acknowledgment. That would fit the description of borrowing
dishonestly.
11. D.
Pallid means lacking in color, and tactless means lacking

diplomacy.
12. B.
To vaunt means to boast, and to skewer means to criticize.
13. C.
A kennel houses dogs, and an aerie houses birds
14. A.
Something SODDEN is very wet, so it is, by definition, extremely

MOIST. This is a bridge of DEGREE. Similarly, something
MAUDLIN is, by definition, extremely SENTIMENTAL.
15. D.
A group of lions is called a pride. A group of fish swim in a shoal.

Teacher (choice a) and student (choice b) refer to another meaning
of the word school. The answer is not (choice c) because self-
148
respect has no obvious relationship to this particular meaning of
school.
16. B.
A hilt is part of a sword, and a needle is part of the compass.
17. D.
By definition, a MAVEN, meaning expert, has expertise. Likewise, a

SUPPLICANT, or humble beggar, by definition has HUMILITY.
18. B.
To defer is a synonym of to postpone, and to proffer is a synonym

of to tender.
19. B.
To gall is to vex, and to hex is to jinx.
20. A.
A mercenary performs a task for wages, and a dilettante does for

enjoyment.
21. A.
Meridians are imaginary geographical circles intersecting the poles.

Imaginary lines parallel to the equator (B) are latitudes. The
149
International Date Line is a specific meridian, not an area (C). It is
not a land mass (D) as it crosses both water and land.
22. B.
The passage was found near 50 degrees S latitude. Latitudes are

measured horizontally, in relation to the equator or central
imaginary line, equidistant between the North and South Poles.
Longitudes are measured vertically. Greenwich (A), the location of
zero degrees longitude, adopted as the global standard, is both
incorrect and never named in the passage. Spain (C) and Portugal
(D) are also incorrect.
23. C.
A peninsula is a piece of land connected to the mainland by an

isthmus and projecting into the ocean such that it is surrounded on
three sides by water. A peninsula is not a coast (A); it is not found
inland (B); and it is not a border (D).
24. C.
Topography means the physical features of a land mass. It does

not mean coastline (A), mountain range (B), or islands (D).
25. A.
Longitudes are imaginary geographical lines running north and

south. Latitudes run east and west. The other choices do not equal
either latitude or longitude in direction.
150
26. A.
"Quagmire" means literally a bog or marsh, and figuratively an

involved situation difficult to escape; entanglement is a synonym,
more specifically similar than the other choices.
27. B.
"Terrestrial" means land. No choice here offers a synonym for

"marine," e.g. nautical/naval/water/seagoing, and no other choices
match either marine or terrestrial.
28. B.
29. C.
30. B.
31. A.
32. B.
33. D.
34. B.
35. C.
36. C.
37. B.
38. A.
39. C.
151
40. D.
152
11
Inductive Reasoning Answer
Key
1. D. 13. B. 25. D.
2. E. 14. D. 26. D.
3. A. 15. C. 27. A.
4. A. 16. E. 28. A.
5. D. 17. B. 29. A.
6. D. 18. C. 30. D.
7. A. 19. C. 31. A.
8. A. 20. B. 32. B.
9. D. 21. A. 33. D.
10. C. 22. B. 34. C.
11. B. 23. A. 35. C.
12. D. 24. B. 36. D.
153
37. D. 40. C.
39. B.
38. A.
154
Quantitative Answer Key
12
1. B. 15. D. 29. C.
2. D. 16. A. 30. A.
3. C. 17. B. 31. B.
4. A. 18. A. 32. C.
5. C. 19. C. 33. B.
6. A. 20. B. 34. B.
7. D. 21. B. 35. D.
8. C. 22. D. 36. B.
9. C. 23. C. 37. B.
10. A. 24. C. 38. C.
11. D. 25. A. 39. A.
12. B. 26. C. 40. B.

27. B.
13. A.
14. D. 28. B.
155
13
Perceptual Acuity Answer Key
1. A.
2. B.
156
3. A.
4. C.
5. B.
6. E.
157
7. E.
8. D.
9. A.
10. A.
158
11. B.
12. C.
13. C. 32. D.
23. E.
14. B. 33. C.
24. A.
15. C. 34. B.
25. B.
16. C. 35. D.
26. B.
17. D. 36. A.
27. A.
18. B. 37. B.
28.C.
19. C. 38. D.
29. D.
20. C. 39. A.
30. C.
21. A. 40. B.
31. D.
22. C.
159
14
Biology Answer Key
1. D 14. D 27. D
2. A. 15. B 28. A
3. A 16. C 29. E
4. B. 17. C 30. C
5. D 18. C 31. A
6. D 19. A 32. C
7. B 20. A 33. C
8. C 21. E 34. A
9. B 22. E 35. D
10. E 23. D 36. E
11. C 24. A 37. C
12. C. 25. A 38. A
13. C 26. B 39. B

160
40. A 44. D 48. D
41. C 45. D 49. C
42. B 46. E 50. E
43. D 47. A
161
Physics Answer Key
15
1. B 15. D 29. C
2. B 16. D 30. C
3. C 17. C 31. B
4. B 18. D 32. B
5. B 19. D 33. C
6. C 20. A 34. C
7. B 21. D 35. C
8. C 22. B 36. B
9. B 23. A 37. C
10. B 24. A 38. C
11. C 25. A 39. D
12. A 26. B 40. D
13. D 27. C 41. C
14. B 28. A 42. A
162
43. C 48. A
46. B
44. D 49. D
47. B
45. C 50. D
163
16
Social Science Answer Key
1. A 14. D 27. B
2. B 15. A 28. B
3. B 16. D 29. C
4. A 17. A 30. C
5. A 18. C 31. B
6. C 19. C 32. D
7. D 20. D 33. B
8. C 21. B 34. B
9. D 22. C 35. D
10. D 23. D 36. A
11. A 24. D 37. A
12. A 25. D 38. D
13. C 26. D 39. A
164
40. C 47. A
44. B
41. D 48. A
45. B
42. C 49. A
46. B
43. B 50. C
165
Chemistry Answer Key
17
1. A. 15. D.
29. B.
2. A. 16. A.
30. B.
3. D. 17. C.
31. B.
4. B. 18. C.
32. B.
5. B. 19. B.
33. A.
6. A. 20. D.
34. B.
7. E. 21. D.
35. B.
8. A. 22. C.
36. D.
9. A. 23. C.
37. A.
10. C. 24. C.
38. D.
11. C. 25. B.
39. D.
12. C. 26. D.
40. D.
13. C. 27. C.
41. C.
14. B. 28. C.
166
42. D. 45. C. 48. A.
43. D. 46. A. 49. E.
44. E. 47. C. 50. B.
167
GENERAL DIRECTIONS
Part I of the National Medical Admission Test consists of four subtests. Each
subtest contains multiple-choice items.
For each item, select your answer from the options given. On your answer
sheet, shade the circle marked with the letter of your chosen answer. For
example, if your answer to an item is option C, then completely shade the circle
marked C as shown below. Make sure your mark on the circle is dark. Your
mark is not dark enough if the letter inside the circle can still be read. Avoid
incorrect shading of circles as they may not be recognized as an answer.
Make sure you are marking the answer columns corresponding to the item
number you are on. Mark only one answer for each item. If you want to change
your answer, erase the first answer completely. Incomplete erasures will be
interpreted as another answer thereby producing “multiple answers.” Items with
multiple answers are automatically considered wrong.
Do not write anything on this test booklet. Use the paper provided for your
scratch work.
Follow carefully the specific directions for each subtest or section. When you
finish a subtest, proceed to the next until you have completed the entire test.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
PRACTICE SET
3
TEST A. VERBAL
6. VERTEBRAE : SPINE :: LINKS :

Section 1. Analogies
(A) cuff (C) union
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section (B) golf (D) chain
consists of a series of words. The first
word is related to the second in the same 7. DARKEN : LIGHT :: SUPPRESS :
way as the third word is related to a
fourth one which is missing. Select this (A) crime (C) freedom
missing word from the given choices. (B) slavery (D) justice
Example: 8. CONCERT : INTERMISSION :: TRIAL :
MAN : WOMAN :: BOY : (A) summation (C) interrogation

(B) defense (D) recess
(A) child (C) baby
(B) friend (D) girl 9. APPLAUSE : PRAISE :: CURTSY :
In this example, the correct answer is D, (A) exit (C) obedience

girl, because it is the only word that is (B) servility (D) respect
related to BOY in the same way as
MAN : WOMAN. 10. PATRIOT : LOYAL :: SCHOLAR :
There are other relationships involved in (A) skeptic (C) intelligent

the items aside from that illustrated (B) studious (D) erudite
above.
11. HAMMER : POUND :: SPEAR :
1. WEIGHT : KILOGRAM :: VOLUME : (A) throw (C) kill

(B) pierce (D) hunt
(A) liter (C) intensity
(B) carat (D) quantity 12. TIMEPIECE : SUNDIAL :: MEDIA :
2. TITRATE : CHEMIST :: INSTALL : (A) journalist (C) newscaster

(B) television (D) communication
(A) electrician (C) office
(B) equipment (D) appointee 13. MUSIC : BEAT :: BALLET :
3. PRAISE : ODE :: LAMENT : (A) pirouette (C) performance

(B) shoes (D) harmony
(A) epic (C) tale
(B) elegy (D) romance 14. WATER : THIRST :: SALVE :
4. BLOWTORCH : WELD :: DRILL : (A) ointment (C) scar

(B) wound (D) cure
(A) fasten (C) rivet
(B) screw (D) bore 15. BARREL : GUN :: DIAL :
5. HERO : ADULATION :: SAINT : (A) clock (C) number

(B) channel (D) hand
(A) asceticism (C) humility
(B) reverence (D) celibacy
PRACTICE SET
PS_NMAT_P1_0814 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 
4
16. INDEMNITY : DAMAGE :: BOND :

Section 2. Reading Comprehension
(A) levy (C) surety
(B) fine (D) reparation DIRECTIONS: This section contains
several selections. Read each selection
17. MEETING : AGENDA :: TRAVEL : carefully, then choose the correct answer
to each of the questions asked after the
(A) passport (C) schedule selection.
(B) destination (D) itinerary
18. CHIEFTAIN : TRIBE :: VICEROY : Selection 1
(A) church (C) embassy "Thou canst not stir a flower without
(B) colony (D) consulate troubling of a star," stated the mystical poet
Francis Thompson. He exaggerated the links
19. RECESS : INQUIRY :: REPRIEVE : in the fabric of life, but his was, nonetheless,
a true insight into the fact that there do exist
(A) sentence (C) obligation ecological relationships between living things
(B) trial (D) guilt here on earth and the movements of the
heavenly bodies. Not only are earthly
20. WINE : FERMENTATION :: LIQUOR : organisms affected by light and warmth from
the distant moon and sun, but many animals
(A) brewing (C) distillation have also been shown to possess
(B) frothing (D) pasteurization mechanisms which accurately measure the
sun's position and react to the rhythm of the
tides, the phases of the moon, and the
motion of our planet.
Twice each day, at dusk and at dawn,

there is a shift in the activity of the
population that inhabits a community,
amounting to almost a complete turnover of
the species. Some kinds of plants and
animals are stimulated to activity by light;
other kinds retreat from it. The varying
amounts of light and darkness act as triggers
upon the physiology of numerous kinds of
animals and plants, signaling them to many
activities.
Many forms of life display fairly definite

tendencies towards daytime or nighttime
activity and many animals can alter their
pattern in response to changing needs. In
regions where game is hunted persistently,
the hunted animals tend to become
nocturnal, whereas the same species is
diurnal in areas where man has not made
deep inroads. Man, as an animal, also
apparently possesses a number of built-in
rhythms, and his body chemistry has been
shown to operate in a rhythmic pattern.
PRACTICE SET
5
21. The statement "Thou canst not stir a having less faith in God. Dying young
flower without troubling of a star" seems to assure salvation. The poems are
means that indeed deeply religious; many of them are
prayers. Gitanjali's parents are Sikhs, and
(A) one should not disturb things in she attended a Catholic school, but she
nature always said her religion was love.
(B) there exists a relationship between
living things and the universe Curiously, some of the poems speak of
(C) plants should be treated carefully the poet in the third person, as though
(D) some life-forms are largely Gitanjali was looking at herself objectively.
unaffected by the heavenly bodies She writes "Illness too is/A gift of God/And
Gitanjali accepts it/With grace and in good
22. Based on the selection, which of the stride." Perhaps, the strain had become too
following statements is correct? strong even for the brave young poet.
Gitanjali means "song-offering," and the
(A) Most forms of life have biological whole volume is an offering of songs to God
rhythms which are permanent and about what it means to die so young.
unchanging.
(B) Reactions to the seasonal cycle are 23. The main purpose of the author in
uniform in different communities. writing the selection is to show
(C) Of all the creatures in nature, man
alone is independent of its (A) the similarities between Dickinson's
revolving cycles. and Gitanjali's poems
(D) Many animals can alter their (B) Gitanjali's prowess in writing poems
diurnal or nocturnal patterns in (C) Gitanjali's sentiments towards death
response to changing needs and as expressed in her poems
environment. (D) Gitanjali's fears and frustrations
Selection 2 24. Which of the following statements is

NOT true of Gitanjali and Dickinson?
Gitanjali (1961-1977), terminally ill of
cancer at 16, wrote one hundred eleven (A) Both wrote about nature and God.
(111) poems in English, most of them about (B) Both of their works contain
death. Not wishing to alarm her mother, grammatical lapses.
she kept her poems. It was only several (C) Both likened death to an honored
months after her death that her mother, guest.
Khushi Badruddin, discovered that her (D) Both died at an early age.
daughter was India's Emily Dickinson.
25. The third paragraph implies that
The comparison with the American poet Gitanjali was
is inevitable, since both women wrote
secretly about death, nature, and God. (A) losing faith in God
Gitanjali likens death to an "honoured (B) afraid of death
guest," as Dickinson does in "Because I (C) afraid of life
Could Not Stop for Death." Gitanjali's (D) not sure of herself
grammatical lapses, in fact, recall those of
Dickinson's. But the similarities stop there,
because Gitanjali was actually facing death.
Although love of life sometimes

overpowers her, Gitanjali repeatedly
welcomes death "with open arms." This is
not mere resignation. The poet feels that
with more time on earth, she may end up
PRACTICE SET
6
Selection 3 presumptions and have modern man asking,

"If there is no noise, how do I know I am
Television, radio, and stereo can be really here?"
vehicles for great drama, beautiful music, or
even redeeming words. But who can claim Solitude and silence are the crucibles of
that for the vast majority of people, these serious thought. To flee them is to flee the
devices are anything other than agents of conditions necessary for the self-examination
noise? They are not listened to; they are only that makes life worth living. It is to flee as
heard. well the peace that comes only from the
orientation of one's life to the ultimate
Modern man begins his day with radio realities – realities that can intrude only
noise to wake him up, he has a car radio or when one is still and quiet and open to them.
CD player to carry him to his work, continues
with pipe-in music in the elevator and "on I am often told that people turn on the
hold" on the office telephone, relaxes by the radio and television because they are lonely.
videoke at the bar, and concludes his day Noise is used as a tonic for loneliness. It is
with television chatter. Those who cannot an acoustic drug. But loneliness is a longing
sleep in the silence that descends when the for something which should not be drowned
TV is shut off resort to machines that in noise. If one quietly searches for
produce "white noise." loneliness, one can begin to ask why one is
lonely and for what. Loneliness lets us know
Silence has become a vacuum which that we really have nothing adequate for our
modern man abhors. It is no longer normal deepest longing – not in our friends, not in
or good in itself. It is understood only as our family, nor in our worldly goods or
absence of noise. Before noise (B.N.), there pleasures.
were sounds distinguishable from noise,
because sounds came out of silence. Silence In what then or in whom are we to find
was the background for sounds. the object of our deepest desire? This is
perhaps the most important question that
City dwellers, awash in constant noise, can be asked, and it can be answered only in
become nervous in the country because the SILENCE.
sounds of the country – from the crickets,
birds, and animals – are made against the 26. What conclusion can be deduced from
background of silence. There is also less talk the second paragraph?
in the country because to interrupt the
silence, one must have something to say. (A) Man is a lover of noise-producing
machines.
In the city, words are part of the general (B) Man depends on sounds to keep
noise – one can say anything in order not to him functioning.
stop talking – and silence is always (C) Man likes inventions because these
interpreted as awkwardness. There seems to are signs of progress.
be a fear that if the noise stops, the city will (D) Man finds complete relaxation only
collapse in silence. when surrounded by noise.
Before the days of widespread TV, the 27. As used in the selection, what does
Swiss thinker, Max Picard, offered the notion "conundrum" mean?
that people play the radio to make sure that
they are still there. This proposition neatly (A) Belief
reverses the old conundrum: If a tree falls in (B) Proposition
a forest, does it make a sound if there is no (C) Riddle
one there to hear it? This question presumes (D) Saying
man exists and asks if sound exists without
man's hearing it. The modern form of this
question, à la Picard, would reverse these
PRACTICE SET
7
28. What are the effects of solitude and usually remember nothing very valuable
silence on serious thoughts? except, perhaps, religion and national unity,
is equivalent to saying of a not very model
(A) They intensify self-examination. mother that she has given her child nothing
(B) They purify the process of thought. except life. For in the profoundest possible
(C) They heighten loneliness and sense, Spain did give birth to us—as a
isolation. nation, as a historical people.
(D) They develop introspection.
The poetry of Housman, "Oh, why did I
29. Silence is the background for sounds. awake? When shall I sleep again?"
This statement means that sounds – expresses a resentment that underlies
much of our present vengefulness towards
(A) are carefully listened to when there the Spanish. It should also help to explain
is noise the sluggishness of which we have been
(B) are heard more distinctly when accused, and which, along with the equally
there is silence famous "fatalism" of ours, may be no more
(C) are easily produced when there is than our blood's memories of the communal
silence tribe-house, where custom and taboo lay
(D) cannot exist without silence heavy upon life, predetermining all action, all
speech even; within whose rigid circle
30. The author believes that – everything being preordained,
preestablished – men moved as in a trance,
(A) there can never be silence without having to exercise their will, and
(B) man abhors and tends to avoid therefore, without creating history. The
solitude dreaminess thick in our nature, our
(C) noise in itself produces silence incapacity for decisive thought or action may,
(D) questions are better-answered in if analyzed, be found to derive from our
silence failure so far to break loose completely from
primeval carryovers, from those submerged
Selection 4 longings for the tight, fixed web of tribal
obedience.
When we talk today of the need for some
symbol to fuse us into a great people, we The prime work of Christianity for us has
seem to forget that all over the country, there been this awakening of the self, this release
lies this wealth of a "usable past" – of and expansion of the consciousness, a work
symbols that have grown through and undoubtedly still in progress, we being not
through the soil of the land and the marrow yet fully awake nor perfectly conscious;
of its people. But the past can become immature Christians at best; Catholics but
"usable" only if we are willing to enter into its not catholic; enclosed within the Faith as
spirit and to carry there a reasonably within a sect; having still to realize that to
hospitable mind. As long as we regard it with open oneself to this "one of the great,
hatred, contempt, and indignation, it will conjoint, and so to term it – necessary
remain hateful and closed to us. products of the human mind . . . rich in the
world's experience," is to let in "a great tide of
And as long as we remain estranged from that experience and to make, as it were, with
it, we will remain a garish and uncouth and a single step, a great experience of one's own,
upstart people, without graces because and with great consequent, increase to one's
without background. Towards our Spanish sense of color, variety, and relief, in the
past, especially, it is time we become more spectacle of men and things."
friendly; bitterness but inhibits us.
To accuse the Spanish, over and over

again, of having brought us all sorts of
things, mostly evil, among which we can
PRACTICE SET
8
31. The selection suggests that our lives can The practice of Tantra does not mean the
have more meaning if we end of rational thought. It means the
integration of thought based on symbols into
(A) become more religious larger spectrums of awareness.
(B) profess colonial influence
(C) accept our past with openness The development of Buddhism in India
(D) study our pre-Spanish customs shows that a profound and penetrating
intellectual quest into the ultimate nature of
32. The writer obviously thinks well of reality can culminate in, or at least, set the
stage for, a quantum leap beyond rationality.
(A) our pre-Spanish culture In fact, on an individual level, this is one of
(B) our Spanish heritage the roads to enlightenment. Tibetan
(C) the piety of the Filipino Buddhism calls it the Path without Form or
(D) the Filipino character the Practice of the Mind. The Path without
Form is prescribed for the people of
33. Our defects as a people are mostly intellectual temperament. The science of
due to physics is following a similar path.
(A) attitudes and superstitions from The development of physics in the

our pre-Spanish past twentieth century has already transformed
(B) ideas taught us by the Spaniards the consciousness of those involved with it.
(C) our bitterness against Spain The study of complementarity, the
(D) our refusal to face reality uncertainty principle, the quantum field
theory, and the Copenhagen interpretation of
Selection 5 quantum mechanics produce insights into
the nature of reality very similar to those
Buddhism is both a philosophy and a produced by the study of Eastern philosophy.
practice. Buddhist philosophy is rich and The profound physicists of this century have
profound. Buddhist practice is called Tantra, increasingly become aware that they are
a Sanskrit word meaning "to weave." confronting the ineffable.
Buddhist philosophy reached its ultimate Max Planck, the father of quantum
development in the second century A.D. No mechanics, wrote "Science . . . means
one has been able to improve much on it unresting endeavor and continually
since then. The distinction between progressing development toward an aim
Buddhist philosophy and Tantra is well which the poetic intuition may apprehend,
defined. Buddhist philosophy can be but which the intellect can never fully grasp."
intellectualized, Tantra cannot. Buddhist
philosophy is a function of the rational mind, We are approaching "the end of science."
Tantra transcends rationality. "The end of science" does not mean the end of
"unresting endeavor and continually
The most profound thinkers of the Indian progressing development" of more and more
civilization discovered that words and comprehensive and useful physical theories.
concepts can take them only so far. Beyond "The end of science" means the coming of
that point came the actual doing of a Western civilization, in its own time and in its
practice, the experience of which was own way, into the higher dimensions of
ineffable. This did not prevent them from human experience.
progressively refining the practice into an
extremely effective and sophisticated set of
techniques, but it did prevent them from
being able to describe the experience which
the techniques produce.
PRACTICE SET
9
34. Science is seen as an "unresting 38. The phrase "Tantra transcends

endeavor" because rationality" means that
(A) man is never content with his (A) the experience of truth is subject to
technological gains reason
(B) nature is blind (B) practice is equal to theory
(C) scientists are too intelligent to stop (C) insights gained cannot be put down
searching in words
(D) man will always seek the truth (D) symbolic thought becomes part of
about himself and nature greater realms of awareness
35. As used in the selection, the term 39. In the second paragraph, the word
"ineffable" means "transcends" most closely means
(A) delightful (A) elevates

(B) confusing (B) exceeds
(C) inexpressible (C) ascends
(D) sacred (D) escapes
36. The author suggests that a true scientific 40. Which of the following statements show
pursuit would involve that physics is following a path similar to
Tibetan Buddhism?
(A) a personal confrontation with a
supreme force (A) Recent trends in the science require
(B) an intellectual openness a jump beyond existing theories.
(C) a denial of the validity of present (B) Physicists are actually philosophers.
formulas (C) Physics is Tibetan in origin.
(D) the wholehearted support of the (D) Physical hypotheses coincide with
entire scientific community Buddhist doctrine.
37. In referring to "the end of science," the

author means that
(A) science will no longer be needed

today
(B) an entirely new study shall emerge
to replace physics
(C) science can no longer be separate
from man's search for truth beyond
the physical
(D) man is approaching the age of
extrasensory development
PRACTICE SET
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TEST B. INDUCTIVE REASONING
Section 1. Figure Series
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following items, the series of figures at the left shows a
continuously changing pattern. Discover this pattern of change. From the five figures at the
right, choose the one which should come next in the series.
Example:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
In the example, the three diagrams at the left show a line increasing progressively in such a
way as to approach a closed figure. If another line is added, the resulting form would look
exactly like figure C at the right. Thus, the correct answer is C.
There are other principles involved in the items aside from that illustrated in the example.
PRACTICE SET
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Section 2. Figure Grouping
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of five figures, four of which are similar in
some respect. Choose the figure that is different from the other four.
Example:
In the example, the correct answer is figure C, because the arrows are all pointing downward,
whereas the arrows in each of the other figures are all pointing upward.
There are other principles involved in the items aside from that illustrated in the example.
PRACTICE SET
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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 
PRACTICE SET
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24. WU PR MK FH
Section 3. Number and Letter Series
(A) DB (D) AC
DIRECTIONS: In the following items, (B) BD (E) DA
discover the principle involved in the (C) CA
series. Select from the five choices the
number or letter that should come next in 25. 31 17 34 22 44 34 68
the series.
(A) 58 (D) 272
Examples: (B) 136 (E) 60
(C) 544
1. 2 4 6 8 10
26. A E H J N
(A) 1 (D) 14
(B) 12 (E) 13 (A) P (D) Q
(C) 16 (B) R (E) S
(C) O
2. A C E G I
27. BYE GYJ LYO QYT
(A) J (D) H
(B) L (E) M (A) VYZ (D) VVW
(C) K (B) VYY (E) VYX
(C) WYY
In example 1, the correct answer is B,
because 2 is added to a number to obtain 28. 10 11 16 18 23 26
the next number. In example 2, the
correct answer is C, because the given (A) 27 (D) 29
succession of letters has intervals of two. (B) 32 (E) 31
(C) 30
There are other principles involved in the
items aside from those illustrated in the 29. C M E Q G U I
examples.
(A) K (D) W
(B) M (E) X
21. 13 9 15 7 17 5 (C) Y
(A) 17 (D) 18 30. 22 11 26 16 31 22 37

(B) 19 (E) 21
(C) 15 (A) 29 (D) 52
(B) 30 (E) 28
22. 3 2 4 3 9 8 (C) 33
(A) 22 (D) 64 31. CD MN FG RS IJ

(B) 17 (E) 24
(C) 7 (A) XW (D) MN
(B) LM (E) WX
23. X T W R U P R (C) VW
(A) L (D) M
(B) N (E) O
(C) P
PRACTICE SET
16
32. 26 16 21 12 18 10 17 37. CD VU HI QP MN
(A) 11 (D) 10 (A) KL (D) SR

(B) 24 (E) 25 (B) RS (E) LK
(C) 8 (C) KJ
33. ABC FAG KLA AOP TAU 38. 11 8 18 13 22 15
(A) WXA (D) AXY (A) 3 (D) 4

(B) AXW (E) XYA (B) 7 (E) 22
(C) WAX (C) 23
34. 9 18 16 32 30 39. ETC HRJ OPM RNT
(A) 28 (D) 36 (A) XLV (D) WLY

(B) 60 (E) 90 (B) YLW (E) YMW
(C) 32 (C) VMX
35. FIG CFD KNL HKI PSQ 40. 18 9 27 24 12 36
(A) UXV (D) MPN (A) 72 (D) 18

(B) LOM (E) MQO (B) 33 (E) 108
(C) TWU (C) 39
36. 8 12 15 21 24 32
(A) 35 (D) 40
(B) 42 (E) 36
(C) 39
PRACTICE SET
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TEST C. QUANTITATIVE
7. (x + y )3 + (x – y )3 =
Section 1. Fundamental Operations
DIRECTIONS: In the following items,

(
(A) 2x x 2 + 3y 2 ) (C) (
2y y 2 + 3x )
select the correct answer from the (B) 2x 2 (x + 3y ) (D) 2y 2 (y + 3x )
given choices.
2x
Example: x+
x – 2
8. =
6 х 2 ÷ 4 = 4
1+
x2 – 4
(A) 3 (C) 6
(B) 4 (D) 8 (A) x2 + 4 (C) x + 4
(B) x2 + 2 (D) x + 2
The correct answer is A.
9.
( 25-1 ) + ( 25-2 ) =
1. 96 ÷ 8 ÷ 4 = ( 6250 )( 25-2 )
(A) 2 (C) 4 1
(B) 3 (D) 12 (A) 26 (C)
5
2. 5,845 + 24,768 – 9,651 – 7,325 = 25

(B) (D) 0
26
(A) 13,637 (C) 20,962
(B) 13,647 (D) 23,288
3. 515 + 309 – 423 – 716 + 400 =

10. 3 n + 2 + ( 3 n+3 – 3 n +1 ) =
1 3
(A) 75 (C) 185 (A) (C)
n +1 8
(B) 85 (D) 715 3
4. 2(x – y ) + 3 + (x + 3y ) – 2(x + 1) = 1 1
(B) n+2
(D)
3 3
(A) x – y + 1 (C) y + 1
(B) x + y + 1 (D) x + 1
9 11. 2 – 2(3 – x ) + x =
6
5. 1 + + 2 =
x x (A) –4 + 2x (C) 3x – 4
(A) (x + 3 )2 (C) (x 2
+ 9) x 2 (B) 3 + 2x (D) –4 – x
x2 + 9 (x + 3)2
(B) (D)
x2 x2
6. (4 3 )(5 3 ) =
(A) 20 3 (C) 60
(B) 27 (D) 180
PRACTICE SET
18
16. Mrs. Santos can finish 4 place mats for

Section 2. Problem Solving every 3 that her daughter finishes. If
Mrs. Santos finishes 16 place mats in one
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem and week, how many place mats in all can
select the correct answer from the given mother and daughter finish together in
choices. 4 weeks?
Example: (A) 112 (C) 92

(B) 102 (D) 64
If a man drives p kilometers in
x hours, then his average rate per In items 17 and 18, refer to the following
hour is information:
p In a list of numbers, the first is 2, the second

(A) (C) px
x is 7, and each subsequent number is the sum
of all the preceding numbers.
x px
(B) (D) 17. What is the fifth number in the list?
p 60
(A) 18 (C) 36
(B) 22 (D) 72
12. What is the perimeter of a regular 18. If the 100th number in the list is x, what
hexagon if the length of one side is equal is the 103rd number in the list?
to x?
(A) x + 3 (C) 3x
(A) 5x (C) 7x (B) x + 8 (D) 8x
(B) 6x (D) 8x
13. One box measures 7 meters by 15 meters 19. The sum of two numbers is 19. If 5 times
by 8 meters. Another box measures the smaller number is 3 less than twice
8 meters by 9 meters by 10 meters. By the larger number, what are the
how many cubic meters is the volume of numbers?
one box greater than the other?
(A) 12 and 7 (C) 14 and 5
(B) 13 and 6 (D) 15 and 4
(A) 37 m 3 (C) 120 m 3
(B) 57 m 3 (D) 840 m 3 20. If out of the top 1,000 corporations in the
Philippines, 45% were established before
14. A patient needs to take a certain tablet January 1, 1980 and 25% were
for 7 days. If he has to take one tablet established before January 1, 1970, how
every 3 hours, how many tablets does he many of these corporations were
need? established between January 1, 1970 and
January 1, 1980?
(A) 21 (C) 49
(B) 28 (D) 56 (A) 180 (C) 300
(B) 200 (D) 380
15. The jeepney fare for the first 4 kilometers
is p9.50 and for each additional
kilometer, 25¢ is added. How much is
the fare for a 17-kilometer distance?
(A) p13.00 (C) p13.25

(B) p12.75 (D) p11.75
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2 Net Income Tax Due

21. From a 6 х 5 in cardboard are cut a
2
2 х 4 in rectangle, a 9 in 2 square, and Over p50,000 but p250 + 3% of
a circle with a radius of 1 in. What is the not over p100,000 excess over p50,000
area of the remaining cardboard?
Over p100,000 but p1,750 + 7% of
(A) (18 – π) in
2 2
(C) (18 – 2π) in not over p200,000 excess over p100,000
(B) (13 – π) in
2
(D) (13 – 2π) in
2 Over p200,000 but p8,750 + 11% of
not over p400,000 excess over p200,000
{1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89, 144, 233}

24. Miss Lea Mijares paid a tax of p14,250.
22. In the number series above, what is the Based on the table shown above, how
probability of getting an even number? much was her net income?
1 1 (A) p329,545.40 (C) p210,317.50

(A) (C)
3 2 (B) p250,000.00 (D) p205,500.00
5 2
(B) (D)
12 3
2
23. Each month, John spends of his
5
1 1
income for food, for clothing, for
10 4
1
housing, for utilities, and deposits
20
the remainder in his savings account.
If he saves p4,500 a month, how much is
his monthly income?
(A) p45,000 (C) p20,000

(B) p22,500 (D) p18,000
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Section 3. Data Interpretation
DIRECTIONS: In this section, some sets of data are given. Each set is followed by questions
regarding the data. Select the correct answer from the options given.
The table below gives the distribution of Science majors in a university.
Area Number of Students

Mathematics 200
Physics 130
Biology/Zoology/Botany 560
Chemistry 180
Geology/Meteorology/Oceanography 80
25. Approximately what percent of the 27. If the ratio of the students in Biology,
Science majors are Chemistry majors? Zoology, and Botany is 4 : 3 : 1, how
many are Zoology majors?
(A) 10% (C) 18%
(B) 16% (D) 20% (A) 80 (C) 210
(B) 187 (D) 280
26. Which area(s) has(have) 10% less
students than Mathematics? 28. The number of Mathematics and
Geology/Meteorology/Oceanography
(A) Physics majors combined is equal to what part
(B) Chemistry of the Biology/Zoology/Botany majors?
(C) Geology/Meteorology/Oceanography
(D) Physics and Geology/Meteorology/ 1 1
Oceanography combined (A) (C)
4 2
1 2
(B) (D)
3 3
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Registered Aliens by Nationality

1981 – 1985
Number of Registered Aliens

Nationality
1981 1982 1983 1984 1985
Chinese 39,233 24,826 24,509 23,796 2,466

American 7,823 5,203 5,144 4,916 2,831
Spanish 369 232 250 219 44
Hindu 832 649 738 657 781
British 1,421 685 522 432 384
German 264 100 75 60 228
Belgian 98 63 49 52 14
Mixed Nationality 1,960 1,095 1,096 1,495 3,543
Total 52,000 32,853 32,383 31,627 10,291
29. From 1981 to 1984, approximately how 32. How many percent of the registered
many percent of the total registered Germans in 1981 is 50% of the same
aliens were Chinese? group in 1983?
(A) 24% (C) 75% (A) 7.1% (C) 28.0%

(B) 69% (D) 80% (B) 14.2% (D) 56.8%
30. In 1982, the number of registered aliens 33. The difference in the total number of
decreased. Which nationality registered registered aliens in 1982 and that in
the lowest decrease? 1985 was approximately
(A) Belgian (C) Hindu (A) less than one third

(B) German (D) Chinese (B) one third
(C) one half
31. In which period was the percentage of (D) two thirds
decrease of British registrants the
lowest? 34. Which nationalities showed consistently
decreasing number of registrants from
(A) 1981 – 1982 1981 to 1985?
(B) 1982 – 1983
(C) 1983 – 1984 I. Chinese
(D) 1984 – 1985 II. American
III. Spanish
IV. British
V. Belgian
(A) I and II only

(B) I, III, and V only
(C) I, II, and IV only
(D) I, II, III, IV, and V
PRACTICE SET
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The table below shows the participation of youth in the formal school system based on a survey.
In School Out of School

Age Range Level Total
(Participating) (Nonparticipating)
Nursery/
I. 0 – 6 263,188 10,087,443 10,350,631
Kindergarten
II. 7 – 12 Elementary 7,383,351 288,609 7,671,960
III. 13 – 16 Secondary 4,297,132 589,269 4,886,401
IV. 17 – 24 Postsecondary 1,588,719 7,252,343 8,841,062
Total 13,532,390 18,217,664 31,750,054
35. If the four age groups were arranged 37. Based on the given data, which of the
according to decreasing rate of following conclusions can be made?
participation in their respective school
levels, the order would be (A) The rate of participation in the
formal school system is generally
(A) I, II, III, IV lower than the rate of
(B) II, III, IV, I nonparticipation.
(C) I, IV, III, II (B) The major cause for
(D) II, IV, III, I nonparticipation in formal
schooling at the postsecondary
36. What proportion of the total youth level is poverty.
population comprises those who are (C) The rate of participation in each
NOT attending school? age group is lower than the rate of
nonparticipation.
(A) 82.03% (D) There is a low rate of attendance in
(B) 74.28% the 0 – 6 age group because most
(C) 57.38% of these children are not yet of
(D) 42.62% school age.
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Pie Chart of the Workforce in a Manufacturing Firm
38. If there are 200 employees in the firm, 40. Ten percent of the Production people are
how many are in the Production females. If there are 400 employees in
Department? the firm, how many females are in the
Production Department?
(A) 47 (C) 105
(B) 95 (D) 421 (A) 19 (C) 150
(B) 40 (D) 171
39. How many employees are there in the
General Services Department if there
are 200 employees in the Marketing and
Management Departments?
(A) 800 (C) 50

(B) 60 (D) 15
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TEST D. PERCEPTUAL ACUITY
Section 1. Hidden Figure
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section is made up of a simple figure at the left and five
complicated drawings at the right. Select the complicated drawing that contains the simple
figure. The hidden figure may appear in a different position, but it must have the same shape
and size as the simple figure.
Example:
In the example, the correct answer is D, because it contains the simple figure at the left.
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Section 2. Mirror Image
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a figure followed by five options. Select
from the options the mirror image of the given figure.
Example:
In the example, the correct answer is C.
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27. Indications: In the prophylaxis and

Section 3. Identical Information treatment of Vitamin B-complex
deficiencies.
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section
consists of a name and an address, a (A) Indications: In the prophylaxis and
bibliographical entry, or a sentence. From threatment of Vitamin B-complex
the options that follow, select the one which deficiencies.
exactly matches the given information in
word sequence, spelling, and punctuation. (B) Indications: In the prophylaxis and
treatment of Vitamin B-complex
Example: dificiencies.
Rx Laboratories, (C) Indications: In the prophylaxis and

275-D West Ave., treatment of Vitamin B-complex
Lansing, Turkey deficiencies.
(A) Rx Laboratories, 275-D (D) Indications: In the prophylaxis and

West Ave., Lansin, Turkey treatment of Vitamin D-complex
deficiencies.
(B) Rx Laboratories, 275-D
West Ave., Lansing, Turkey (E) Indications: In the prophylaxis and
treatment of Vitamin B-complex
(C) Rx Laboratory, 275-D deficiensies.
West Ave., Lansing, Turkey
28. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
(D) Rx Laboratories, 3rd Edition, Prentice-Hall
2750 West Ave., Lansing, Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
Turkey
(A) Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
(E) Rx Laboratories, 275 D 3rd Edition, Prentice-Hall
West Ave., Lansing, Turkey Englewood Cliffs, N.Y., 1963.
In the example, the correct answer is B, (B) Clarke, R.P., Heredity,

because the name and address in option B 3rd Edition, Prentice-Hall
are exactly the same as the one given Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
although the way it is written is different.
(C) Clark, R.P., Heredity,
3rd Edition, Prentice-Hall
26. Dosage: 3 – 4 caps daily in divided Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
doses after meals
(D) Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
(A) Dosage: 3 – 4 cups daily in divided 3rd Edition, Prentice-Hale
doses after meals Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
(B) Dosage: 3 – 4 caps daily in divided (E) Clarke, P.R., Heredity,

dozes after meals 3rd Edition, Prentice-Hall
Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
(C) Dosage: 3 – 4 caps daily in divided
doses after meals
(D) Dosage: 3 – 4 caps daily in divided

doses after meal
(E) Dosage: 2 – 4 caps daily in divided
PRACTICE SET
doses after meals

31
29. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, 31. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
is necessary for production of anxiety in psychophysiological
prothrombin in the liver. reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
Psychiat., 81:227-232.
(A) Vitamin K, the antihemorhagic
vitamin, is necessary for production (A) Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
of prothrombin in the liver. anxiety in psychophysiological
reaction. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
(B) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic Psychiat., 81:227-232.
vitamin, is necessary for production
of prothrombon in the liver. (B) Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
anxiety in physiopsychological
(C) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
vitamin, is necessary for Psychiat., 81:227-232.
production of prothrombin on the
liver. (C) Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
anxiety in psychophysiological
(D) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic reactions. A.W.A. Arch. Neurol.
vitamin, is necessary for production Psychiat., 81:227-232.
of prothrombin in the liver.
(D) Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
(E) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic anxiety in psychophysiological
vitamin is necessary for production reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol.
of prothrombin in the liver. Psychiat., 81:227-232.
30. Yucuanseh Drug, Inc. (E) Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of
284 Dasmariñas Street anxiety in psychophysiological
P.O. Box 1761 reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neuro.
Manila, Philippines Psychiat., 81:227-232.
(A) Yucuanseh Drug, Inc. 32. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating

284 Dasmariñas St. phthalic anhydride in the presence of
P.O. Box 1761 sulfuric acid.
Manila, Philippines
(A) Phenolphthalein is obtained by
(B) Yucuanseh Drug, Inc. heating pthalic anhydride in the
284 Dasmariñas Street presence of sulfuric acid.
P.O. Box 1671
Manila, Philippines (B) Phenolphthalein is obtained by
heating phthalic anhydride in the
(C) Yucuanseh Drug, Inc. absence of sulfuric acid.
284 Dasmariñas Street
P.O. Box 1761 (C) Phenophthalein is obtained by
Manila, Phillipines heating phthalic anhydride in the
presence of sulfuric acid.
(D) Yucuanseh Drug, Inc.
284 Dasmariñas Street (D) Phenolphthalein is obtained by
P.O. Box 1761 heating phthalic anhydride in the
Maynila, Philippines presence of sulfurus acid.
(E) Yucuanseh Drug, Inc. (E) Phenolphthalein is obtained by

284 Dasmariñas Street heating phthalic anhydride in the
P.O. Box 1761 presence of sulfuric acid.
Manila, Philippines
PRACTICE SET
32
33. Books on China Rare & O/P. Also 35. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogue from Scotland, is the largest and most
Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., London famous of the Hebrides.
SW 18.
(A) Skye, 13 miles off the northeast
(A) Books on China Rare & O/P. Also coast of Scotland, is the largest and
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogoe most famous of the Hebrides.
from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville
St., London SW 18. (B) Skye, 13 miles off the northwest
coast of Scotland is the largest and
(B) Books on China Rare & O/P. Also most famous of the Hebrides.
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogue
from Oxus Books, 121 Astonvilla (C) Skye, 13 miles of the northwest
St., London SW 18. coast of Scotland, is the largest and
most famous of the Hebrides.
(C) Books on China Rare & O/P. Also
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogue (D) Skye, 13 miles off the northwest
from Onus Books, 121 Astonville coast of Scotland, is the largest and
St., London SW 18. most famous of the Hebriles.
(D) Books on China Rare & O/P. Also (E) Skye, 13 miles off the northwest
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogue coast of Scotland, is the largest and
from Oxus Book, 121 Astonville most famous of the Hebrides.
St., London SW 18.
36. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be
(E) Books on China Rare & O/P. Also prepared by the action of water upon
Japan & SE Asia. Latest catalogue P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville
St., London SW 18. (A) Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be
prepared by the action of water
34. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are upon P4O6, P3Cl, PBr3, or PI3.
essential to abort epidemic infantile
diarrhea. (B) Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be
(A) Isolation and antimicrobial therapy upon P6O4, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
are essential to abort epidemic
infantile diarhea. (C) Phosphorous acid, HPO3, can be
(B) Isolation and antimicrobial therapy upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
infantile diarrhea. (D) Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be
(C) Isolation and antimicorbial therapy upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
infantile diarrhea. (E) Phosphouros acid, H3PO3, can be
(D) Isolation and antimicrobial therapy upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
are esential to abort epidemic
infantile diarrhea.
(E) Isolation and antimicrobial therapy

were essential to abort epidemic
infantile diarrhea.
PRACTICE SET
33
37. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic 39. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu,
acid, an important source of energy in Northern Suburb, Beijing, China
all aerobic cells.
(A) Beijing Medical College: Sue Huan
(A) The end product of glycolyses is Lu, Northern Suburb, Beijing,
pyruvic acid, an important source China
of energy in all aerobic cells.
(B) Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan
(B) The end product of glycolysis is Lee, Northern Suburb, Beijing,
of energy in all airobic cells.
(C) Biejing Medical College: Xue Huan
(C) The end product of glycolysis is Lu, Northern Suburb, Beijing,
pryuvic acid, an important source China
(D) Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan
(D) The end product of glycolysis is Lu, Northern Suburd, Beijing,
(E) Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan
(E) The end products of glycolysis is Lu, Northern Suburb, Beijing,
40. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn,
38. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store scars, leprosy, and vitiligo.
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C. (A) Depigmentation is a feature of old
burn, scars, leprosy and vitiligo.
(A) Ku Chai Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3 (B) Depigmentation is a feature of old
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C. burns, scars, leprosy, and vitiligo.
(B) Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store (C) Dipegmentation is a feature of old
Cubao Branch No. 3 burn, scars, leprosy, and vitiligo.
2396 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
(D) Depigmentation is a feature of old
(C) Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store burn, scars, leprosy, and vitiligo.
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd, Q.C. (E) Depigmentation is a feature of old
burn, scars, leprosy, and witiligo.
(D) Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 8
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
(E) Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store

Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C
STOP!
WAIT FOR FURTHER
INSTRUCTIONS.
PRACTICE SET
PS_NMAT_P1_0814
Copyright © 2014 by the Center for Educational Measurement, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
Commercial or for-profit redistribution of this document in part or in whole is prohibited except
with the written permission of CEM. This document may be reproduced in part or in whole for
personal or educational use without permission, provided that:
• Due diligence is exercised in ensuring the accuracy of the document reproduced;
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• The reproduction is not represented as an official version of the document reproduced,
nor as having been made in affiliation with, or with the endorsement of, CEM.
GENERAL DIRECTIONS
Part II of the National Medical Admission Test consists of four subtests. Each
subtest contains multiple-choice items.
For each item, select your answer from the options given. On your answer
sheet, shade the circle marked with the letter of your chosen answer. For
example, if your answer to an item is option C, then completely shade the circle
marked C as shown below. Make sure your mark on the circle is dark. Your
mark is not dark enough if the letter inside the circle can still be read. Avoid
incorrect shading of circles as they may not be recognized as an answer.
Make sure you are marking the answer columns corresponding to the item
number you are on. Mark only one answer for each item. If you want to change
your answer, erase the first answer completely. Incomplete erasures will be
interpreted as another answer thereby producing “multiple answers.” Items with
multiple answers are automatically considered wrong.
Do not write anything on this test booklet. Use the paper provided for your
scratch work.
When you finish a subtest, proceed to the next until you have completed the
entire test.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
PRACTICE SET
3
TEST A. BIOLOGY
1. Chromosomes become most distinct 7. Which of the following results in the

during cell complete oxidation of a substrate to
ATP + CO2 + H2O?
(A) reproduction
(B) respiration (A) Glycolysis
(C) metabolism (B) Fermentation
(D) transpiration (C) Aerobic respiration
(D) Anaerobic respiration
2. In which pair of organelles are light and
chemical energies transformed? 8. Enzymes are important to the life of
cells because they
(A) Centriole and ribosome
(B) Chloroplast and lysosome (A) speed up chemical reactions in
(C) Chloroplast and mitochondrion the cells
(D) Golgi apparatus and microtubule (B) increase the amount of products of
chemical reaction
3. Which of the following is the function of (C) provide the energy necessary for
the nuclear membrane? reactions to occur
(D) provide the substance for the
(A) It controls the activities of the cell. reactions in the cells
(B) It encloses the cytoplasm.
(C) It surrounds the nucleus. 9. Plant cells will not break when placed in
(D) It supplies energy for the cell. a container with plenty of water due to
the presence of
4. The chemical responsible for most
synaptic transmission in neurons is the (A) a membrane that regulates the flow
of water
(A) adrenaline (B) the cell wall that supports the
(B) choline membrane when it is turgid
(C) noradrenaline (C) the cytoplasm that can absorb
(D) acetylcholine much water
(D) organelles that expel excess water
5. Which stages of cellular division have
exactly opposite characteristics? 10. Which of the following is true about
catalyzed reactions in cells?
(A) Prophase and telophase
(B) Prophase and anaphase (A) The catalyst itself becomes involved
(C) Metaphase and telophase in the reaction.
(D) Metaphase and anaphase (B) The catalytic efficiency of enzymatic
reactions is extremely high.
6. The continued synthesis of protein (C) The catalytic efficiency of enzymatic
requires the continued synthesis of its reactions is moderately low.
corresponding (D) Enzymes cause uniform reaction.
(A) tRNA
(B) nRNA
(C) mRNA
(D) nucleic acid
PRACTICE SET
4
11. Which activity does NOT require cellular 16. What is the correct sequence of the
energy? different stages in blood clotting?
(A) Synthesis of hormones I. Fibrinogen thrombin fibrin

(B) Contraction of muscles
II. Prothrombin thromboplastin thrombin
(C) Coordination of electrochemical ++
impulses Ca
(D) Diffusion of sodium chloride III. Fibrin + erythrocytes form a
through blood plasma hardened clot
IV. Platelets rupture
12. Which feature is present in eukaryotic
cells but NOT in prokaryotic cells? (A) I, II, IV, III
(B) II, I, IV, III
(A) Chromosome (C) IV, II, I, III
(B) Cytoplasmic membrane (D) IV, I, II, III
(C) Nuclear membrane
(D) Nucleolus 17. Which of the following is most likely to
occur when a cell is placed in a
13. Growth of lateral buds apparently hypertonic solution?
involves a balance of which three
hormones? (A) Hemolysis
(B) Plasmolysis
(A) Auxin, cytokinin, and gibberellin (C) An increase in turgor pressure
(B) Cytokinin, gibberellin, and ethylene inside the cell
(C) Gibberellin, ethylene, and auxin (D) A decrease in solute concentration
(D) Auxin, cytokinin, and ethylene inside the cell
14. Which of the following are present in 18. The function of manufacturing is
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? common in which of the following
groups of organelles?
(A) Lipid-protein cell walls
(B) Cytoplasmic and nuclear regions (A) Microtubules, mitochondria, and
(C) Distinct nuclear envelopes Golgi apparatus
(D) Circular chromosomes of DNA (B) Chloroplasts, lysosomes, and
endoplasmic reticula
15. Which of the following correctly (C) Golgi apparatus, cell membrane,
describes the Na+ and K+ ions across and chloroplasts
the cell membrane? (D) Ribosomes and chloroplasts
(A) The concentration of Na+ ions 19. Fatty acids are broken down initially by
outside the cell is high and the a process known as
concentration of K+ ions outside (A) glycolysis
the cell is low. (B) transamination
(B) The concentration of Na+ ions (C) beta-oxidation
outside the cell is low and the (D) pentose phosphate pathway
concentration of K+ ions inside the
cell is low.
(C) Inside the cell, the concentrations
of Na+ and K+ ions are both high.
(D) Outside the cell, the concentrations

of Na+ and K+ ions are both high.
PRACTICE SET
5
20. Which of the following cellular 25. The growth reaction of plants to gravity
structures is related to protein is called
synthesis?
(A) thigmotropism
(A) Lysosome (B) thermotropism
(B) Nucleolus (C) heliotropism
(C) Mitochondrion (D) geotropism
(D) Golgi apparatus
26. The function of mucus secreted by the
21. The carbon dioxide produced by living lining of the alimentary canal is to
organisms comes from the
(A) help digest fats into fatty acids and
(A) inhaled oxygen which reacted with glycerol
carbon in their bodies (B) help increase the amount of juices
(B) foodstuffs ingested by the secreted by the digestive glands
organisms (C) protect the lining from being acted
(C) water which reacted with carbon in upon by the digestive juices
their bodies (D) prevent bacteria from reaching the
(D) glucose in their bodies blood vessels
22. In pulmonary circulation in mammals, 27. Which of the following is the organism
the veins carry Archips rosana most closely related to?
(A) oxygenated blood away from the (A) Rosana pinuta

heart (B) Archips fervidiana
(B) oxygenated blood toward the heart (C) Pinuta archips
(C) deoxygenated blood away from the (D) Fervidiana rosana
heart
(D) deoxygenated blood toward the 28. When inhaled, which substance can
heart form a more stable compound with
hemoglobin, thereby causing adverse
23. Which portion of the brain establishes reactions in an individual?
regularity of respiration?
(A) Ether
(A) Medulla (B) Nicotine
(B) Cerebrum (C) Carbon dioxide
(C) Inferior pons (D) Carbon monoxide
(D) Superior pons
24. In the initial digestive process in man,

all of the following occur in the mouth
EXCEPT
(A) secretion of enzymes

(B) primary carbohydrates digestion
(C) fats and protein digestion
(D) conversion of food into smaller
pieces
PRACTICE SET
6
In items 29 and 30, refer to the following 33. Transcapillary flow in tissue spaces
setups: occurs when the
(A) plasma osmotic pressure exceeds

the blood pressure
(B) blood pressure exceeds the plasma
osmotic pressure
(C) osmotic pressure of the tissue
fluids exceeds that of the plasma
(D) hydrostatic pressure of the tissue
fluids exceeds that of the plasma
34. Short-day plants, like chrysanthemum

and poinsettia, bloom naturally in the
seasons when the days are short but
can also be made to bloom in summer.
Which two conditions make it possible
for these plants to bloom in summer?
29. Which setup shows phototropism?
I. They are kept in light-controlled
(A) I (C) III greenhouses.
(B) II (D) IV II. They are allowed to exceed their
critical day length.
30. To find out if photosynthesis takes III. Their night length is much above
place, which setup is appropriate to the critical value.
use? IV. They are exposed to flashes of light
at night.
(A) I (C) III
(B) II (D) IV (A) I and II (C) I and III
(B) II and IV (D) III and IV
35. Which of the following can be observed

31. Which of the following blood vessels if there is a lack of parathyroid hormone
carries blood with the highest (PTH)?
concentration of oxygen?
(A) A decrease in calcium
(A) Renal vein concentration and an increase in
(B) Pulmonary vein phosphate concentration in the
(C) Pulmonary artery blood
(D) Hepatic portal vein (B) An increase in calcium
concentration and a decrease in
32. If lanolin paste with IAA is applied to phosphate concentration in the
one side of the stem of a coleus plant, blood
which of the following would be (C) An increase in both calcium and
observed in the plant? phosphate concentrations in the
blood
(A) It will bend toward the side with the (D) A decrease in both calcium and
paste. phosphate concentrations in the
(B) It will bend toward the side without blood
the paste.
(C) It will branch on the side with the
paste.
(D) It will branch on the side without
the paste.
PRACTICE SET
7
36. All of the following are features of plants 39. Our atmosphere is 78% nitrogen. In
adapted to dry, desert conditions spite of this abundance, nitrogen is a
EXCEPT limiting factor in plant growth. This is
primarily due to the fact that
(A) reduced leaf surface area
(B) extensive root system (A) plants cannot absorb nitrogen
(C) large number of stomata on the leaf directly
surface (B) nitrogen is present only in the
(D) pores sunken into the leaf surface atmosphere above the soil
(C) nitrogen does not dissolve in water
37. In which two periods of the human life (D) soil organisms compete with plants
cycle do the greatest physical changes for nitrogen
take place?
40. The various communities existing at
(A) Early childhood and adolescence different points in time from the pioneer
(B) Late childhood and old age community to the climax community is
(C) Before birth and adolescence known as
(D) Early childhood and adulthood
(A) succession (C) microsere
(B) seral stages (D) biomes
41. Which of the following explains why

green plants do not grow in oceans at
depths greater than 80 meters?
(A) The ocean is too cold at this depth.

(B) Insufficient sunlight penetrates
beyond this depth.
(C) The ocean currents are too strong
below 80 meters.
(D) There is insufficient mineral
content in waters below this depth.
38. The curve shown above represents data 42. If all green plants on earth suddenly
obtained from a group of animals died, which gas would most likely
receiving a single daily dose of a drug P. decline in quantity?
A portion of this group was given the
dose at day 1 and the response was (A) Oxygen (C) Water vapor
noted. The same number of animals (B) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
was given the dose at day 2, and so on,
up to day 10. Based on the curve, it 43. Which biome has the highest annual
can be deduced that the single dose of P rainfall?
used was
(A) Tundra (C) Desert
(A) completely eliminated from the (B) Taiga (D) Rainforest
body in less than 24 hours
(B) just enough to elicit the highest 44. Which of the following is the ocean
possible response zone that is exposed during low tide
(C) more than enough to elicit the and covered during high tide?
highest possible response
(D) less than enough to elicit the (A) Abyssal (C) Neritic
highest possible response (B) Littoral (D) Pelagic
PRACTICE SET
8
45. In any season, competition for light is 47. The members of a given species are
most intense among the plants of a rarely, if ever, uniformly distributed
throughout their range. Instead, they
(A) tropical rainforest are collected into smaller groups called
(B) tropical deciduous forest populations. Which of the following
(C) coniferous forest best explains this phenomenon?
(D) woodland
(A) Members of a species cannot
46. Which of the following graphs accurately tolerate overcrowding.
illustrates the change in the biomass of (B) The physical factors in the
anaerobic organisms in an aquatic environment upon which they
system that changes from oligotrophic depend are themselves not
to eutrophic? uniformly distributed.
(C) The environment can support more
organisms if they are grouped into
populations.
(D) Organisms interfere with their
(A) habitats.
48. Fast rate of population growth and

widespread malnutrition are common in
India and the Philippines. This proves
that
(A) malnutrition is an effect of fast

population growth
(B) (B) extreme poverty among people
results in malnutrition
(C) malnutrition is a characteristic of
developing countries
(D) when population increases, food
supply decreases
49. An organized collection of interacting

species is known as
(C)
(A) a community
(B) an ecology
(C) a kingdom
(D) a phylum
50. In an area of 50 hectares, the tamaraw

population was 40. Two months later in
the same area, the population was
(D) halved. Which of the following is
LEAST likely to account for the rapid
change in population size?
(A) The tamaraws stopped breeding.

(B) Predators became more numerous.
(C) Emigration had occurred.
(D) A new disease-causing organism
was brought into the community.
PRACTICE SET
9
TEST B. PHYSICS
1. A man finds that he can walk 1 km in 5. A 10-pound object is suspended by a

20 min, 3 km in 1 hr, 6 km in 2 hr, and string from an overhead support.
9 km in 3 hr. These indicate that the A horizontal force of 5.8 pounds is
distance he travels is applied on the object. The measure of
the angle which the string makes with
(A) inversely proportional to the time the horizontal is
(B) inversely proportional to the square
of the time (A) 30° (C) 60°
(C) directly proportional to the time (B) 45° (D) 90°
(D) directly proportional to the square
of the time 6. A force of 60 newtons is used to
raise a 240-newton load using a
2. What are the factors that determine the system of pulleys. The load covered a
speed of a satellite which moves in a distance of 1 m for every 5 m of rope
stable orbit around a planet? pulled through the system. The system
(G represents the universal gravitational has an efficiency of
constant.)
(A) 12% (C) 60%
(A) Mass of the planet and G (B) 48% (D) 80%
(B) Mass of the satellite and G
(C) Mass of the satellite, mass of the
planet, and G
(D) Orbital radius of the satellite, mass
of the planet, and G
7. Blocks C and D, weighing

4,000 newtons and 2,000 newtons,
respectively, rest on a horizontal
beam AB, as shown above. If the
reaction produced at B is twice as great
as the reaction produced at A, how far
from A will the weight of Block C
3. The device shown above is a
act?
(A) galvanometer
(A) 2 m (C) 3.5 m
(B) generator
(B) 3 m (D) 4.0 m
(C) transformer
(D) rectifier
4. A pingpong ball and a golf ball are

dropped in a vacuum chamber from the
same height and at the same time.
When they have fallen halfway, they
have the same
(A) potential energy

(B) kinetic energy
(C) acceleration
PRACTICE SET
(D) velocity

10
8. A body thrown vertically up into the air

possesses kinetic energy at the
beginning of its flight, but as it rises, it
loses kinetic energy and acquires
potential energy with respect to the level
from which it started. Which of the
following is NOT likely to happen?
(A) When it reaches the highest point,

the kinetic energy has been wholly
changed to potential energy.
(B) As it falls, its potential energy is 10. Based on the graph shown above, the
again transformed to kinetic acceleration of the moving body is
energy.
(C) The potential energy is maximum (A) 10 m/s2 (C) 4 m/s2
at the highest point of its flight. (B) 5 m/s2 (D) 0 m/s2
(D) The kinetic energy is minimum at
the lowest point of its flight. 11. How much heat is required to warm
10 grams of ice from –10°C to 0°C?
(Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g • C° )
(A) 75 cal (C) 25 cal

(B) 50 cal (D) 10 cal
12. Body X is in contact with Body Y which

is hotter than Body X. Which of the
following statements are true?
I. Body X gains heat and Body Y

loses heat.
II. The temperature of Body X
decreases and the temperature of
9. Bernoulli's principle states that
Body Y increases.
A1V1 = A2V2. Blood flows from
III. The temperatures of Body X and
Artery A1, whose cross-sectional area is
Body Y will eventually be equal.
50 µ2, at a velocity of 5 mm/s to its
more peripheral branches, A2, A3, A4,
(A) I and II only
and A5. If the total cross-sectional area
(B) I and III only
of the branches is 250 µ2 and each
(C) II and III only
branch has exactly the same diameter
(D) I, II, and III
as the other, what is the velocity of
blood in the branches?
13. How many calories of heat is given off
when 200 grams of water is cooled from
(A) 0.5 mm/s (C) 10.0 mm/s
100°C to 20°C?
(B) 1.0 mm/s (D) 25.0 mm/s
(A) 2,000 cal (C) 16,000 cal
(B) 4,000 cal (D) 20,000 cal
PRACTICE SET
11
14. A 1,200-watt heater is used for raising 18. The amount of heat required to raise the
the temperature of 1 liter of water to temperature of 10 grams of water at
boiling point. How long will it take for 10°C to 50°C is
the water to boil if the initial
temperature of water is 20°C? (A) 100 cal (C) 500 cal
(1 cal = 4.19 joules) (B) 400 cal (D) 600 cal
(A) 28 s (C) 279 s 19. The immediate source of water which

(B) 70 s (D) 349 s forms dew on grass on a summer
morning is the
15. If the absolute temperature of a gas is
quadrupled and its pressure is halved, (A) air
then the volume will (B) soil
(C) grass
(A) increase four times (D) cloud
(B) increase eight times
(C) decrease four times
(D) decrease eight times Thermal
Specific Heat
Substance Conductivity
16. A glass flask which is partly filled with ( cal/g • C° )
( W / m • C° )
water is heated over a Bunsen flame.
As soon as the water begins to boil, the Water 1.000 .6
flask is removed from the flame and Aluminum 0.215 238
tightly stoppered immediately. Boiling Copper 0.0924 397
stops. When cold water is poured on Iron 0.107 79.5
the surface of the flask, which of the
following will happen to the water inside
20. The table shown above gives the specific
the flask?
heat and the thermal conductivity of
some substances. Which substance
(A) It will begin to boil again since the
requires a greater amount of heat to
contraction of the flask reduces the
raise the temperature of its unit mass
pressure inside.
by one degree?
(B) It will begin to boil again since the
condensation of the steam reduces
(A) Water
the pressure inside.
(B) Iron
(C) It will not boil since the
(C) Aluminum
temperature is less than 100°C.
(D) Copper
(D) It will not boil since the contraction
of the flask increases the pressure
inside.
17. A Carnot refrigerator takes heat from

water at 0°C and rejects heat to a
room at 27°C. If 50 kg of water at 0°C
is converted to ice at 0°C, how much
energy must be supplied to the
refrigerator?
–4
(A) 4.60 х 10 kWh
–4
(B) 3.90 х 10 kWh
–5
(C) 4.00 х 10 kWh
–5
(D) 2.62 х 10 kWh
PRACTICE SET
12
21. A metal cube is heated over a Bunsen 25. A capacitor acquires 0.002 coulomb
flame and then dropped into an when 50 volts is applied.
insulated beaker containing water. The Its capacitance is
masses of the water, the beaker, and
the cube, the initial and final (A) 0.4 microfarad
temperatures of the water, and the (B) 4.0 microfarads
specific heat capacities of the water and (C) 40.0 microfarads
the beaker are known. Without further (D) 400.0 microfarads
measurements, which of the following
can be calculated? 26. The power rating of an electric motor
which draws a current of 5 amperes
(A) The density of the cube from a 240-volt line is
(B) The specific heat capacity of the
cube (A) 12.0 kW (C) 48.0 W
(C) The thermal conductivity of the (B) 1.2 kW (D) 4.8 W
cube
(D) The specific latent heat of the cube 27. Electroplating results in a better quality
product by applying a relatively
22. In hydroelectric plants, electric energy is
generated by (A) strong current for a shorter time
(B) strong current for a longer time
(A) making the water evaporate (C) moderate current for a shorter time
(B) distilling the water (D) moderate current for a longer time
(C) changing the water chemically
(D) making use of the power of a 28. Which of the following is true when the
waterfall magnetic flux through a coil at 50 turns
is reduced from 0.5 weber to 0 weber in
23. A label of an electric stove reads 0.2 second?
"1,200 watts, 110 volts." How much
current will the appliance draw when it (A) The induced emf in the coil is
is used? 120 volts.
(B) The induced emf in the coil is
(A) (1,200) (110) amp 125 volts.
(C) The emf is 220 volts.
(B) ( 1,200 ) (110 ) amp (D) The emf is 225 volts.
1,200
(C) amp
110
1,200
(D) amp
110
29. The equivalent resistance of the circuit

shown above is
4
24. The ammeter in the circuit above should (A) Ω (C) 3 Ω
5
read (B) 2 Ω (D) 5 Ω
(A) 0.5 amp (C) 10 amp

(B) 2.0 amp (D) 200 amp
PRACTICE SET
13
30. What happens when a dielectric 34. Which of the following factors is
material is placed in an electric field? responsible for transmitting waves?
(A) The material becomes a conductor. (A) Amplitude

(B) The material becomes polarized. (B) Wavelength
(C) The material undergoes (C) Energy
electrolysis. (D) Mass
(D) The material remains electrically
inert. 35. How many images will be formed if a
boy stands in front of two mirrors
standing at a 45° angle to each other?
(A) 2 (C) 8
(B) 7 (D) Infinite
36. Which of the following will result if the

number of lines in a diffraction grating
of a given width is increased?
(A) The wavelengths that can be

31. In the diagram shown above, the focal diffracted will be shorter.
length of the lens is F. No image will be (B) The wavelengths that can be
projected on the screen if a candle is diffracted will be longer.
placed (C) The spectrum produced will be
narrower.
(A) at 2F (D) The spectrum produced will be
(B) at 3F broader.
(C) beyond 4F
(D) between F and the lens 37. A 10-meter object is placed at a distance
of 175 meters in front of a lens whose
32. A lemon is colored yellow because focal length is 50 meters. Which of the
following describes the image formed?
(A) it absorbs only yellow light
(B) it reflects only yellow light (A) It is 4 meters long and inverted.
(C) only yellow light can pass through (B) It is 4 meters long and erect.
a yellow lemon (C) It is 25 meters long and inverted.
(D) only yellow light actually hits the (D) It is 25 meters long and erect.
lemon
33. Which of the following explains the

appearance of a rainbow in the sky after
a rainstorm?
(A) The white clouds are actually

prisms composed of different
colors. 38. Compared to the wavelengths of visible
(B) Sunlight reflected by the ground light, the wavelengths of the radiation in
separates into different colors in A and B shown above are
the sky.
(C) Raindrops act as prisms that (A) shorter
separate sunlight into its (B) longer
components. (C) just as long
(D) None of these (D) not measurable
PRACTICE SET
14
39. When waves are refracted, which 44. An electron is traveling at 1% the speed
property changes? of light. What is its kinetic energy in
8
joules? (Speed of light = 3 х 10 m/s)
(A) Frequency
(B) Period –18
(A) 4.000 х 10 J
(C) Speed –18
(D) Amplitude (B) 4.098 х 10 J
10
(C) 4.098 х 10 J
40. A certain solar cooker is made of a big 18
(D) 4.000 х 10 J
concave mirror. To get the greatest
amount of reflected sunlight, where
45. Which of the following is an implication
should the food be placed?
of the formula E = mc2?
(A) At the focus of the mirror
(A) Energy can be created from nothing.
(B) At the center of curvature of the
(B) Matter can be created from nothing.
mirror
(C) Relatively large amounts of matter
(C) Between the focus and the center of
can be changed into relatively small
curvature of the mirror
amounts of energy.
(D) Above the center of curvature of the
(D) Relatively large amounts of energy
mirror
can be obtained from relatively
small amounts of matter.
41. An alpha particle is the same as
2 3
(A) H (C) He
1 2
3 4
(B) H (D) He
1 2
42. When a large atom such as U235 splits

into two smaller atoms, then the
combined mass of the products
resulting from the splitting will be
(A) one-half of the original mass

(B) the same as the original mass
(C) one-half more than the original 46. A beam of electrons is directed between
mass two charged plates, as indicated in the
(D) two times more than the original diagram above. In which direction will
mass the beam curve when it gets between
the plates?
13
43. The atomic reaction where 6
B
(A) A (C) C
13 (B) B (D) D
becomes 7
C results in the release of
47. Which of the following statements

(A) a neutron
regarding isotopes is NOT true?
(B) an alpha particle
(C) a beta particle
(A) Radioactive isotopes can be
(D) a gamma particle
produced in the laboratory.
(B) Radioactive isotopes decay by the
emission of particles from the
nucleus.
(C) All isotopes are radioactive.
(D) There is a wide variety of decay
rates for radioactive isotopes.
PRACTICE SET
15
140 94
48. Which of the following statements is 235
92 U + 01n → 54 Xe + 38 Sr + (?)01n + energy
NOT true of protons and electrons?
50. In a U235 fission, represented by the
(A) Protons and electrons have equal equation above, Xe140 and Sr94 nuclei
masses. are produced and energy is released.
(B) All protons have the same charge. How many n is(are) given off in
(C) Protons and electrons have charges the process?
equal in magnitude although
opposite in sign. (A) 1 (C) 3
(D) The positive charge in an atomic (B) 2 (D) 4
nucleus is due to the protons it
contains.
49. The radiation from a sample of

Krypton-85 decreases to one-third of
the original intensity Io in a period of
18 years. What would be the intensity
after 18 more years?
1
(A) Io (C) Io
6
1 1
(B) Io (D) Io
3 9
PRACTICE SET
PS_NMAT_P2_0814
16
TEST C. SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. Which of the following defines sociology? 4. Which of the following situations

indicate an open-class society?
(A) A study that is concerned with
discovering and organizing facts, I. A member of the minority group
principles, and methods becomes the president of a big
(B) A study of human groups, their business enterprise.
customs and institutions, and their II. An outcast was put to death for
development at all times and places trying to approach a member of the
(C) A study that deals with the ruling class.
production, distribution, and III. A son inherits the lowly job of his
consumption of wealth by human father in spite of his superior talent
groups and interest in another
(D) A study of human behavior, mental occupational field.
processes, and personality IV. A boy from the elite group marries
the girl he loves from the
2. People can best show enculturation working class.
when they learn to
(A) I and III only
(A) be refined (B) I and IV only
(B) act as people (C) I, II, and III only
(C) love one another (D) II, III, and IV only
(D) talk, act, and think in
acceptable ways 5. Which of the following examples of
social norms are folkways?
3. Proverbs often provide useful insights
into a people's I. Going to the cemetery to visit the
dead on All Saints' Day
(A) value system II. Performing one's duties as head of
(B) political processes the family
(C) legal processes III. Showing compassion for
(D) value origins unfortunates in society
IV. Santacruzan in May
(A) I and IV only

(B) I, II, and III only
(C) II, III, and IV only
(D) I, II, III, and IV
6. Which of the following refer to patterns

of beliefs that serve to guide, control,
and regulate conduct?
(A) Values
(B) Norms
(C) Mores
(D) Folkways
PRACTICE SET
17
7. Any human action which is considered 12. Which instance supports the notion that
sufficiently out of the ordinary so as to culture is learned?
be regarded as unique or
unprecedented is a(an) (A) A vegetarian had to eat pork
because there was nothing else
(A) deviant act to eat.
(B) diffusion (B) A Visayan girl became fluent in
(C) innovation Tagalog after a few years stay
(D) invention in Manila.
(C) A modern Chinese woman no
8. The authority fostering belief in the longer followed the practice of
competence of the individuals binding her feet because of its
discharging statutory obligation is impracticality.
(D) A child whose parents were very
(A) charismatic authority strict grew up to be shy and
(B) traditional authority withdrawn.
(C) legal authority
(D) functional authority 13. Which of the following can be said of
both comic books and da Vinci's art?
9. Changes in culture are said to be
endogenous when they (A) They both illustrate some facets of
man's culture.
(A) come from within the culture (B) They show the contrast "cultured
(B) come from outside of one's culture vs. uncultured."
(C) do not affect the culture (C) They emphasize the absence
(D) drastically destabilize culture of culture.
(D) They are concerned with each
10. Which of the following is considered the one's quality.
most valid criticism of Marxist's model
of society? 14. When faced with a tragic situation,
women are allowed to express their grief
(A) Polarization of society into two freely while men are expected to be
conflicting groups quiet and stoic. This illustrates a
(B) Emphasis on class dictatorship
(C) Overemphasis on the importance of (A) norm
economic class to explain (B) value
historical trends (C) mores
(D) The forces that reduce the (D) folkway
polarization of classes
15. Ethnic minorities, adolescent gangs,
11. All of the following are examples of a religious groups, and exclusive clubs for
sanction EXCEPT the elite are examples of groups usually
present in complex societies. They
(A) slapping the palms of a bad boy exhibit their own peculiar or unique
(B) sentencing a murderer to death behavior which is tolerated by the
(C) confessing a crime to authorities greater society as long as they do not
(D) getting a failing mark for cheating endanger societal values. These groups
in exams fall under a category called
(A) institution
(B) kinship
(C) subculture
(D) community
PRACTICE SET
18
16. According to Pepinsky, which of the 20. Which of the following conditions is true
following is the most effective form of under the fascist system?
social control among Chinese
communists? (A) Labor unions are independent and
are not under state influence.
(A) Group manipulation of guilt (B) Private ownership of business by
and shame individuals is permitted.
(B) Surveillance system (C) Business is owned by the
(C) Party directives government but leased to
(D) Written laws private individuals.
(D) The government owns and runs
17. Which of the following is NOT a all businesses.
characteristic of bureaucracy?
21. Since the process of social interaction
(A) Specialization conditions an individual to accept his
(B) Chain of command social class, then its effect on social
(C) Informality and autonomy classes is
(D) Merit appointment and job tenure
(A) modifying
18. The primary function of religion in (B) preserving
human societies is to (C) replacing
(D) reordering
(A) establish an orderly relationship
between man and his surroundings 22. The caste system generally differs from
(B) help people understand the the class system because the former is
existence of both good and evil
(C) allay man's fears and anxieties over (A) more complex
unexplainable phenomena (B) less rigid
(D) provide a way for man to be able to (C) more rigid
communicate with God (D) less ranked
19. Which of the following is NOT true of the 23. Archaeologists have found evidence to
relationship among members of large show the widespread use of local pottery
secondary groups? wares throughout the Philippines during
the later part of the New Stone Age.
(A) Primary relations tend to persist in This would imply that prehistoric
the form of intimate cliques. Filipinos must have
(B) There is emphasis on the efficiency
by which people accomplish (A) already discarded their use of
their jobs. stone tools
(C) It is unlikely that every member is (B) developed new ways of
aware of every other member. preparing food
(D) The goal is to provide for the (C) discovered clay deposits
personal needs of the members. throughout the country
(D) had enough food and water
receptacles for their needs
PRACTICE SET
19
24. Which of the following is true of 27. If one could influence the bending of a
stereotypes? metal rod by merely thinking about it,
this would be an example of
(A) They usually give an accurate
account of the personal behavior of (A) clairvoyance
members of a group. (B) psychokinesis
(B) Knowledge of stereotypes leads to (C) precognition
more effective responses. (D) telepathy
(C) They are always based on
empirical research. 28. When a person under stress slips back
(D) Many people interact initially with to an earlier psychosexual level, the
the stereotype rather than with the mechanism involved is
true person.
(A) fixation
25. Which of the following descriptions (B) identification
refer(s) to discovery? (C) repression
(D) regression
(A) Combining known elements to
produce something new 29. A child was presented a very detailed
(B) Spread of cultural elements from picture for a short time. When the
one individual or group to another picture was removed, the child was able
(C) Initial awareness of existing but to describe the picture to the least
unobserved elements of nature detail. This illustrates the phenomenon
(D) All of these called
(A) illusion
(B) hallucination
(C) auditory imagery
(D) eidetic imagery
30. Mark is a young man who tends to

withdraw from others. He has flight of
ideas and often shows inappropriate
affect. He claims to hear voices calling
him "Jesus – The Savior." Most
probably, Mark is exhibiting
symptoms of
26. Which of the following is the best
statement that can be derived from the (A) affective disorder
illustration shown above? (B) generalized anxiety
(C) panic reaction
(A) The language we use for things can (D) schizophrenia
also influence the way we think
about it. 31. What is the synaptic transmitter
(B) Signs are used to represent a responsible for inhibiting the sensation
situation and to influence action. of pain?
(C) It is important to study the
meaning of language. (A) Dopamine
(D) It is necessary to identify the (B) Epinephrine
problem in order to arrive at (C) Enkephalin
a solution. (D) Thorazine
PRACTICE SET
20
32. The minimum intensity that a stimulus 37. In which areas do man's impulses most
must achieve before it can be perceived frequently conflict with the moral
is known as standards of society?
(A) minima I. Sex

(B) subliminal II. Aggression
(C) percept III. Independence
(D) threshold IV. Self-assertion
33. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive (A) I and II only

growth, an adult who makes decisions (B) III and IV only
based on what fortune-tellers tell him is (C) I and III only
functioning at the (D) II and IV only
(A) operational level 38. After a musical concert, a man

(B) sensorimotor level complained that he heard little of the
(C) preoperational level music due to the frequent shuffling and
(D) formal operational level throat-clearing in the audience. His
companion, however, expressed his
34. Under relaxed circumstances, most satisfaction over the concert. This
people remember uncompleted tasks difference in experience is related to
better than they do completed tasks.
This is known as the (A) subliminal threshold
(B) sensory adaptation
(A) von Restorff effect (C) selective attention
(B) Zeigarnik effect (D) just-noticeable difference
(C) Greenspoon effect
(D) Muller-Lyer illusion 39. According to Roger's Self Theory, all
individuals have an innate tendency to
35. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt
principle of perceptual organization? (A) repress sexual urges
(B) be aggressive and punish people
(A) Proximity (C) move in the direction of positive
(B) Continuation change
(C) Differentiation (D) examine others' mental experiences
(D) Closure and activities
36. Which parent is most likely to produce a 40. A child is conditioned to fear a furry
competent and self-reliant child? black cat. Soon, she becomes fearful of
any black object. This response is an
(A) A loving, permissive parent who example of
makes no demands on the child
(B) A loving parent who is firm and (A) negative transfer
consistent (B) spontaneous recovery
(C) A parent who provides a lot of (C) operant conditioning
educational toys but does not mind (D) stimulus generalization
if the house is disorganized
(D) A parent who lays down the house
rules and trusts that the child will
follow them
PRACTICE SET
21
41. According to the behaviorists, phobias 45. The view that psychopathology is the
are learned through result of inadequate resolution of
certain development stages rather than
(A) desensitization learned ways of behaving separates
(B) modeling
(C) classical conditioning (A) gestalt therapy from reality therapy
(D) operant conditioning (B) psychoanalysis from behavior
therapy
42. Which factor may prevent diffusion of (C) client-centered therapy from
responsibility from occurring? psychoanalysis
(D) rational-emotive therapy from
(A) An ambiguous situation behavior therapy
(B) The presence of many people
(C) The presence of someone who
initiates helping
(D) The occurrence of an emergency in Phase
Group
a public place I II III
Test for
43. Which of the following are problems in A Task 1 Task 2
Task 1
experimental research in psychology?
Test for
B Task 1 Task 2
Task 2
I. Demand characteristics
Test for
II. The Hawthorne effect C Task 1 –
Task 1
III. The halo effect
Test for
IV. Random assignment D – Task 2
Task 2
(A) I and IV only
46. In an experiment, subjects were
(B) II and III only
randomly assigned to four groups and
(C) I, II, and III only
were asked to memorize a set or two
sets of unrelated verbal materials. Then
each group was tested for retention of
44. Which of the following best illustrates
the task(s). The table above shows the
heuristic availability?
participation of each group. Which of
the following will most probably
(A) To determine whether someone is
be observed?
an accountant, I compare his traits
to the average accountant.
(A) Retention of Task 1 will be higher
(B) To determine whether someone is
for Group A than for Group C.
trustworthy, I try to recall
(B) Retention of Task 2 will be higher
instances of such behavior.
for Group B than for Group D.
(C) To determine my impression of
(C) Retention of Task 1 will be lower for
someone, I combine the available
Group A than for Group C.
bits of information to find
(D) Retention of Task 2 will be equal
an average.
for both groups B and D.
(D) To determine whether someone is
trustworthy, I engage in decoding.
47. All of the following will increase the
ability of a stimulus to capture attention
EXCEPT
(A) contrast
(B) habituation
(C) intensity
(D) repetition
PRACTICE SET
22
48. Learning may be more difficult for deaf 50. When Rita fights with her older brother,
children because she starts off rationally but ends up in
tears, stamping her foot, or throwing
(A) the hearing area in the brain is objects in all directions. The defense
connected to the comprehension mechanism displayed in this situation is
area
(B) they cannot imitate information (A) suppression
immediately (B) repression
(C) they learn a private language which (C) regression
affects real language (D) projection
(D) they have to learn with a reduced
level of feedback
49. In which of the following instances is

projection displayed?
(A) Letty channels her angry feelings

into her bowling.
(B) Norie is extra sweet to her sister
even though deep inside, she
resents the latter's popularity.
(C) Romy justifies his cheating on
exams by claiming that everyone
else does it.
(D) Greg convinces himself that the girl
who jilted him is not really so
desirable.
PRACTICE SET
PS_NMAT_P2_0814
23
TEST D. CHEMISTRY
1. A substance that increases the rate of a 6. A volume of 1.1 liters of O2 was collected
chemical reaction without being used inside a balloon at 295 K and 13.6 psi.
up in the process is called The next day, the surrounding
conditions were observed to be 32°C
(A) electrolyte (C) oxidant and 0.98 atm. What is the volume of
(B) catalyst (D) indicator the gas inside the balloon?
(1 atm = 14.7 psi)
2. If X is an element belonging to group
IIIA of the Periodic Table, the formula of (A) 0.107 liter (C) 10.7 liters
its oxide would be (B) 1.070 liters (D) 107.0 liters
(A) X2O (C) X2O3 7. Which of the following solutions has a

(B) X2O4 (D) XO2 molarity different from the rest?
3. Which of the following elements is the (A) 6 N H3PO4

most electronegative? (B) 4 N Ca(OH)2
(C) 8 N HC2H3O2
(A) N (C) F (D) 2 N NH4OH
(B) C (D) O
4. Which of the following is NOT true of

Group II elements, Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Element Electronegativity
and Ra? K 0.8
Cl 3.0
(A) Be is the most active metal H 2.1
among them. O 3.5
(B) Ra has the lowest ionization C 2.5
potential. N 3.0
(C) Ca is bigger than Mg.
(D) They have relatively low 8. Based on the table shown above, in
electronegativities. which of the following compounds is
the bonding ionic?
5. The solubility of KClO3 at 60°C is 25 g
per 100 g of water. If at 60°C, 15 g of (A) KCl (C) CH4
the salt is dissolved in 50 g of water, (B) NH3 (D) H2O
then the solution must be
9. Which of the following act as sources of
(A) unsaturated energy in times of prolonged hunger and
(B) saturated insulate the body against loss of heat?
(C) supersaturated
(D) diluted and unsaturated (A) Carbohydrates
(B) Minerals
(C) Proteins
(D) Fats
PRACTICE SET
24
10. A 100-mL solution contains 4 grams of 15. Oxides of nonmetals with water form
NaOH. If 50 mL of water is added to acids while oxides of metals with water
this solution, which of the following will form bases. Which of the following will
remain unchanged? be acidic in water?
(A) Molarity of the solution (A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Number of moles of NaOH (B) Calcium oxide
(C) Percent by weight of NaOH (C) Barium oxide
(D) Normality of the solution (D) Magnesium oxide
11. In NaCl, the bond between Na and Cl is

Weight of A Weight of B
(A) hydrogen (C) covalent Sample
(g) (g)
(B) metallic (D) ionic
T 7 12.5
12. What is the normality of an acid V 28 25.0
solution if 50 mL of the solution W 25 14.0
requires 48.61 mL of 0.1879 N alkali for R 14 37.5
neutralization? S 14 25.0
(A) 0.4000 N (C) 0.1827 N 16. Five samples containing elements A and
(B) 0.2678 N (D) 0.1274 N B are analyzed. Four of the samples are
pure compounds, the other is a mixture.
Results of the analysis are given in the
table shown above. Which two samples
Mass Volume are of the same compound?
Substance
(g) (mL)
K 10 20 (A) T and V (C) W and R
L 20 10 (B) T and W (D) T and S
M 5 1
N 20 5 17. Fifty-four grams of a certain metal at
98°C was placed in 80 mL of water at
13. Based on the table shown above, which 297 K. Assuming no heat is lost to the
substance will float in water? surroundings, what is the temperature
of the water and the metal? (Specific
(A) K (C) M heat of the metal = 0.085 cal/g • C° )
(B) L (D) N
(A) 280°C (C) 28°C
14. An element has three naturally (B) 35°C (D) 25°C
occurring isotopes of masses 23.9924,
24.9938, and 25.9898. These have 18. What is the molecular weight of an
abundances of 78.6%, 10.1%, and unknown gas if 200 mL of this gas
11.3%, respectively. What is the diffuses through an apparatus in
average atomic mass of this element? 180 seconds while 250 mL of NO2 under
the same conditions diffuses through
(A) 28.6 (C) 24.3 the same apparatus in 170 seconds?
(B) 25.2 (D) 22.4
(A) 8.97 g/mole
(B) 60.88 g/mole
(C) 80.52 g/mole
(D) 805.20 g/mole
PRACTICE SET
25
19. Gas A and Gas B contain the same 23. The combination of equivalent amounts
number of molecules and are at the of acids and bases is called
same temperature. The external
pressure on Gas A is twice that of (A) precipitation
Gas B. When compared to Gas B, the (B) neutralization
volume of Gas A is (C) hydrolysis
(D) ionization
(A) twice that of Gas B
(B) one-half that of Gas B 24. In a neutralization reaction, the number
(C) four times that of Gas B of milliequivalents of the acid and the
(D) same as that of Gas B base must be equal at the end point.
If 20 mL of 0.15 N NaOH is used with
20. In every chemical reaction of 0.2 N HCl, how many mL of the HCl
Substance A, the sum of the weights of will be needed?
the products formed is greater than the
initial weight of A which undergoes a (A) 10 mL (C) 20 mL
reaction. Substance X, in turn, (B) 15 mL (D) 25 mL
undergoes a chemical reaction in which
the combined weight of the products is 25. If every mole of methane produces
exactly equal to the initial weight of X 192 kilocalories of heat, how many
which reacted. What kind of substances kilocalories of heat will be produced by
are A and X? 160 grams of methane?
(Atomic weights: H = 1, C = 12)
(A) A is a mixture and X is a pure
compound. (A) 1,920 kcal (C) 192 kcal
(B) A is a pure compound while X is a (B) 840 kcal (D) 84 kcal
mixture.
(C) Both A and X are mixtures. 26. Which of the following is the effect of
(D) Both A and X are pure compounds. adding a nonvolatile solute to a solvent?
21. Compounds are made up of (A) Higher boiling and freezing points
(B) Lower boiling and freezing points
(A) atoms of the same element (C) Lower boiling point and higher
(B) atoms of at least two different freezing point
elements (D) Higher boiling point and lower
(C) molecules of the same element freezing point
(D) molecules of at least two different
elements 27. How many grams of water must be
added to 200 mL of NaOH solution in
22. Which of the following is the electron order to have a solution with a specific
+1
configuration of Cl ? gravity of 1.157, 13.55%? (Specific
(Atomic number of Cl = 17) gravity of NaOH = 1.32, 28.83%)
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 (A) 492.85 g (C) 285.48 g
(B) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2 3p6 (B) 294.95 g (D) 258.45 g
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
(D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
PRACTICE SET
26
28. If 40 mL of 0.100 M KMnO4 (acidified) is Subs- Soluble in Combus- Melting

diluted with 160 mL of water, then the tance Water Ethanol tible Point
normality of the resulting solution
K No Yes Yes 10°C
will be
L Yes No No 300°C
(A) 0.0200 N (C) 0.1000 N M No Yes No 50°C
(B) 0.0250 N (D) 0.1250 N N No No Yes 300°C
29. A certain endothermic reaction occurs 33. Based on the data shown above, which
with a decrease in entropy. Therefore, substance is most likely an organic
the reaction is compound?
(A) spontaneous at high temperatures (A) K (C) M
only (B) L (D) N
(B) spontaneous at low temperatures
only 34. An analysis of a compound shows that
(C) spontaneous at all temperatures it contains 78.2% B and 21.8% H and
(D) nonspontaneous at all has a molecular weight of 27.6. What is
temperatures the molecular formula of the
compound?
30. Under which condition will the change (Atomic weights: H = 1, B = 10.8)
in internal energy of a system be equal
to the change in enthalpy of the system? (A) BH3 (C) B3H9
(B) B2H6 (D) B2H5
(A) The system evolves heat at constant
pressure.
(B) The system absorbs heat while
expanding to a vacuum. 2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g)  4CO2(g) + 2H2(g)
(C) The system absorbs heat at
constant temperature and 35. In the reaction shown above, 3 moles of
pressure. C2H2 is reacted with 8 moles of O2.
(D) The system evolves heat while its Which of the following is the limiting
volume decreases against an reagent in the reaction?
opposing pressure of 1 atm.
(A) C2H2 (C) O2
31. A carcinogenic air pollutant from (B) CO2 (D) H2O
automotive sources and cigarette
smoke is 36. A component of curing salts which is
used to preserve meat, acts as a color
(A) aflatoxin (C) urethane fixative, and has mutagenic effect is
(B) ammonia (D) benzopyrene
(A) NaCl (C) KCl
32. How many grams of NaOH is dissolved (B) NaCO3 (D) NaNO2
in 200 mL of a 1 M solution? (Atomic
weights: Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
(A) 1 g (C) 40 g
(B) 8 g (D) 200 g
PRACTICE SET
27
39. Nitration of phenol with dilute HNO3

yields o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol.
Which of the following explains this
result?
(A) Benzene is ortho and para

directing.
(B) Phenolic group is ortho and para
directing.
(C) Nitric acid is ortho and para
37. The diagram above shows the relative directing.
values for the enthalpies involved in the (D) Nitric acid is meta directing.
reaction A + B → C + D . Based on the
diagram, which of the following is true?
H 2O
R ― Mg ― Br + CO2
(A) The activation energy required for
the reverse reaction is lower than 40. The equation above shows the reaction
that for the forward reaction. between a Grignard reagent and carbon
(B) A catalyst for the reaction is dioxide. What compound will result
impossible. from this reaction?
(C) The reaction is endothermic.
(D) The reaction is exothermic. (A) R – CH2OH (C) R – COOH
(B) R – CHO (D) R – COOR
Acid/Base Ki 41. What compound results from the

reduction of a nitro compound?
–10
I. HCN 4.0 х 10
II. HNO2 4.5 х 10
–4 (A) Imine (C) Enamine
–5 (B) Imide (D) Amine
III. C6H5COOH 6.0 х 10
–10
IV. C6H5NH3OH 4.6 х 10
38. The table above shows the values of

ionization constant, Ki, for some acids
and bases measured at 25°C. If 1 M
H3C
solutions of the acids and bases given 42. What configuration is exhibited by
above are prepared and the the structural formula of 2-butene
corresponding conductance values are shown above?
measured, which of the following gives
the correct arrangement of the acids (A) cis configuration
and bases in the order of decreasing (B) trans configuration
conductivity? (C) Gauche configuration
(D) Eclipsed configuration
(A) III > II > IV > I
(B) IV >I > III > II
(C) II > III > IV > I
(D) I > IV > III > II
PRACTICE SET
28
43. Which of the following technical grade 46. Which of the following is an acid?
laboratory solvents are most likely to
contain an appreciable amount of water (A) C2H5OH (C) CH3CH2COOH
due to hydrogen bonding? (B) CH3OCH3 (D) CH3COCH3
I. Diethyl ether 47. An example of a carbohydrate is

II. Hexane
III. Acetone (A) CHOOH (C) C5H5OH
IV. Methanol (B) (C6H10O5)x (D) CH4
(A) II and III only 48. Which of the following compounds has a
(B) I, II, and IV only bond formed by overlap of sp-sp
3
(C) I, III, and IV only hybrid orbitals?

(A) CH3 – C ≡ C – H
44. Which of the following descriptions is
(B) H – C ≡ C ≡ H
true about the structure of a compound
with a molecular formula C6H10? (C) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(D) CH2 ═ CH ═ CH ═ CH2
(A) It has a ring and a double bond.
(B) It has two rings and a double bond. C12H26 C6H12 + C6H14
(C) It has a double bond and a triple
bond. 49. Which of the following processes is
(D) It has a ring and a triple bond. represented by the reaction shown
above?
45. A liquid, C6H12O2, was hydrolyzed with
water and acid to give an acid A and an (A) Substitution
alcohol B. Oxidation of B with chromic (B) Synthesis
acid produced A. The formula of the (C) Cracking
original compound is (D) Polymerization
O 50. Which of the following compounds has

║ the largest dipole moment?
(A) CH3CH2 ― C ― O ― CH2CH2CH3
(A) CCl4
O
║ (B) O═C═O
(B) CH3C ― OCH2(CH2)2CH3 (C) trans ClCH ═ CHCl
(D) cis ClCH ═ CHCl
O
║
(C) CH3CH2CH2C ― O ― CH2CH3
(D) CH3CH2CH2 ― O ― CH2CH2CH3
STOP!
WAIT FOR FURTHER
INSTRUCTIONS.
PRACTICE SET
PS_NMAT_P2_0814
Copyright © 2014 by the Center for Educational Measurement, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
Commercial or for-profit redistribution of this document in part or in whole is prohibited except
with the written permission of CEM. This document may be reproduced in part or in whole for
personal or educational use without permission, provided that:
• Due diligence is exercised in ensuring the accuracy of the document reproduced;
• CEM is identified as the source; and
• The reproduction is not represented as an official version of the document reproduced,
nor as having been made in affiliation with, or with the endorsement of, CEM.
Inductive Reasoning
Free Sample Test 1
Solutions Booklet
Difficulty Rating: Difficult
Instructions
This inductive reasoning test comprises 22 questions. You will have 25 minutes in which to
correctly answer as many as you can.
In each question you will be presented with a logical sequence of five figures. You will need to
determine which of the possible answers best matches the next figure in the sequence, or
replaces a missing figure in the sequence.
You will have to work quickly and accurately to perform well in this test. It is recommended to
keep working until the time limit is up.
Try to find a time and place where you will not be interrupted during the test. When you are
ready, turn over the page.
AssessmentDay
Practice Aptitude Tests
Question 1
The correct answer is C
First Rule: Each step, the shaded square moves 3 squares clockwise round the edge of the
figure.
Second Rule: Each step, the cross-hatching moves 1 square anticlockwise round the edge
of the figure, disappearing behind the shading when the two coincide.
Third Rule: The circle (which starts behind the shaded square in figure 1) moves 1 square
left to right, starting again at the left of the figure when it drops down a row.
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prior written permission from AssessmentDay.
Question 2
The correct answer is B
First Rule: The shape in the centre comprises 1 fewer straight line every time.
Second Rule: The shape in the top left alternates between being a triangle and being a square.
Third Rule: There is a cross when both shapes have the same number of sides, and a tick when they
have different numbers of sides.

Question 3
The correct answer is A
First Rule: The number of circles that are grouped together increases by one every time,
with the final group containing all the circles that do not fit into a whole group.
Second Rule: One circle is removed every time.
Third Rule: Half of the circles are shaded and half are unshaded. When there is an odd
number of circles, the ‘extra’ circle is shaded.

Question 4
The correct answer is E
First Rule: The triangle with a dot in one corner alternates between mirrored in a diagonal
from the top left of the figure to the bottom right and mirrored in a diagonal from the top right
of the figure to the bottom left.
Second Rule: The rectangle alternates between being mirrored vertically and mirrored
horizontally.
Third Rule: The rectangle also increases in width by a uniform amount every time, in a
direction that is away from the closest edge of the figure.
Fourth Rule: The circle alternates between being present and absent.

Question 5
The correct answer is D
First Rule: The door moves to the right, centre, left then centre, always in line with the
window immediately above it, and then the pattern repeats.
Second Rule: First only upper storey windows are leaded, then only the lower storey
windows are leaded, then all windows are leaded. This pattern then repeats.
Third Rule: Starting at the bottom right window, the figure visits each window in turn in an
anticlockwise direction.

Question 6
First Rule: Every time, the small triangle nearest the bottom right corner is split into two
equal triangles of the same proportions.
Second Rule: The two, newly created, smallest triangles are always unshaded. The rest
alternate between being shaded and unshaded in each image.
Third Rule: The stick figure moves up the hypotenuse of the largest triangle by an equal
amount every time.
Fourth Rule: The arms on the stick figure alternate between sloping upwards and sloping
downwards.

Question 7
First Rule: The shading of the small triangles moves 3 triangles anti-clockwise each time.
Second Rule: The cross-hatching on the kite shapes near the corners of the figure, which is
always in the direction of the nearest corner, moves clockwise, alternating between moving
one shape and moving two.
Third Rule: The centre shapes alternates between having downward sloping cross-hatching
and having upward sloping cross-hatching.
Fourth Rule: The circle moves two small triangles clockwise every time, and is unseen
when the triangle is shaded.

Question 8
First Rule: The direction of the arrow rotates by 30o each time.
Second Rule: Following it in the direction of the arrow, the wavy line alternates between
crossing in front of the straight line first and crossing behind it first.
Third Rule: The horizontal line passes behind the wavy line but crosses in front of the
straight line.

Question 9
First Rule: The matchstick giraffe visits the corners in the order top left, top right, bottom left,
bottom right. The sequence then repeats.
Second Rule: The matchstick giraffe faces right when it is at the top and left when it is at the
bottom.
Third Rule: The giraffe’s neck alternates between being up and down.

Question 10
The correct answer is B
First Rule: The downward sloping cross-hatching follows the sequence top left circle, bottom
right circle, bottom left circle, top right circle. This sequence then repeats.
Second Rule: The upward sloping cross-hatching follows the sequence top right circle,
bottom left circle, bottom right circle. This sequence then repeats.
Third Rule: The arrow points to where the small circle will be in the next figure.

Question 11
First Rule: The level of the liquid in the container rises by a consistent amount every time.
Second Rule: The liquid alternates between being light and dark.
Third Rule: The container has a spout to the right, then no spout, then to the left, then to
both left and right. This sequence then repeats.

Question 12
The correct answer is B.
Rule 1: The number of lines increases by one each time, alternating between adding a
horizontal line, then a vertical.
Rule 2: The circle in the top left corner alternates between shaded and clear.
Rule 3: There is a star in the top right corner twice running, then none twice running,
repeated etc.
Rule 4: The number of squares filled in between the crossing lines corresponds to the
number of spots bottom right.

Question 13
The correct answer is C.
Rule 1: The number of stars in the top right predicts how many horizontal lines will be in the
next box.
Rule 2: The circle alternates with a triangle.
Rule 3: The number of circles or triangles is the sum of the number of circles and triangles in
the previous two boxes, with the black shading obscuring some shapes.
Rule 4: The number of shapes with hatched shading increases by 1 each turn.

Question 14
The correct answer is C.
Rule 1: The face changes in sequence from smiley to ambivalent to frowning.
Rule 2: The weather symbol alternates between sun and cloud.
Rule 3: The weather symbol is clear for two items then shaded for two items, then clear for
two items.
Rule 4: The shapes move one corner anticlockwise each turn.

Question 15
The correct answer is D
First Rule: The scales are tipped fully to the left, then straight, then tipped fully to the right,
then straight. This sequence then repeats.
Second Rule: Squares weigh more than triangles and circles, which weigh the same as each
other.
Third Rule: The support for the scales alternates between having downward cross-hatching
and having upwards cross-hatching.

Question 16
First Rule: The cross-hatching alternates between being applied to the circle below the
shaded one (wrapping round to the top when no circle is available below) and removed from
the circle that has had the cross-hatching for two consecutive figures.
Second Rule: The middle circle alternates between being half-way between the other circles
in size and being bigger than both of them.
Third Rule: The cross hatching slopes upwards for two figures then downwards for two
figures. This sequence then repeats.
Fourth Rule: The top circle moves to the right, then the centre, then the left, then the
centre. This sequence then repeats.

Question 17
First Rule: Two bricks are added each time, starting from the centre and working outwards.
Each row is completed before the next is started, and addition of two half bricks counts as
adding one whole brick.
Second Rule: Bricks on the bottom left to top right diagonal have upward sloping cross-
hatching.
Third Rule: The circle alternates between being on whole bricks that are central, and whole
bricks that are on the far right.

Question 18
Rule 1: The shapes move one corner anticlockwise each time.
Rule 2: The shapes alternate between circle and squares
Rule 3: The hatching changes between hatched and unhatched every other graphic in the
sequence. I.e. off, off, on, on, off, off ... and so on.

Question 19
Rule 1: The shapes grow small, medium, then large, then start again.
Rule 2: The shapes alternate between circle and square
Rule 3: The shading in the shapes increases from empty, to hatched, to full shading.

Question 20
Rule 1: The position of the shapes in the current item is determined by the direction the
triangle is pointing in the previous item. There is no rule to determine the direction of the
arrow in the current item, only its position.
Rule 2: The shape inside the triangle changes in the repeating sequence circle, square, star.
Rule 3: The shading in the shapes alternates between the shape in the middle and the
triangle.

Question 21
Rule 1: The nose changes in sequence from hook to oval to none.
Rule 2: The eyes look towards the flower.
Rule 3: The number of hairs corresponds to the number of freckles.

Question 22
First Rule: The shading type furthest from the flagpole on one figure becomes the shading
closest to the flagpole on the next figure, and every other form of shading moves one band
to the right.
Second Rule: The flag alternates between the wave going down first and the wave going up
first.
Third Rule: The flag’s position on the pole is at half-mast, then fully raised, then half-mast,
then fully lowered. This cycle then repeats.
Fourth Rule: The finial (or ball) atop the flag pole is present for one figure then absent for
two figures. This sequence then repeats. Or similarly, the finial is present when the shaded
section of the flag is adjacent to the pole.

- End of free inductive reasoning test 2 –
For more go to www.assessmentay.co.uk
-- End of Test --

Inductive Reasoning
Free Sample Test 2
Solutions Booklet
Instructions
This inductive reasoning test comprises 15 questions and you will have 12 minutes in
which to correctly answer as many as you can.
In each question you will be presented with a logical sequence of five figures. You will
need to determine which of the possible answers best matches the missing figure in the
sequence.
You will have to work quickly and accurately to perform well in this test. If you don't know
the answer to a question, leave it and come back to it if you have time.
You can submit your test at any time. If the time limit is up before you click submit the
test will automatically be submitted with the answers you have selected. It is
recommended to keep working until the time limit is up.
Try to find a time and place where you will not be interrupted during the test. The test
will start on the next page.
AssessmentDay
Practice Aptitude Tests
Q1 What replaces the question mark?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The total number of edges on the large shapes increases by one each time.
Rule 2: The large shapes alternate between unshaded and shaded.
Rule 3: The large shapes’ locations are determined by the small shaded squares.
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way or use its contents commercially. Document last updated 05-07-2013
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The line rotates 45˚ counterclockwise each time.

Rule 2: The line alternates between being in the foreground and in the background.
Rule 3: The shapes alternate between 3D and 2D.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: Both arrows move one place to the right each time.
Rule 2: The top arrow rotates 90° clockwise each time.
Rule 3: The bottom arrow rotates 90° counterclockwise each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The segments of the shield move one place counter clockwise each time.
Rule 2: The total number of circles increases by one each time.
Rule 3: The lines in the lined segments rotate 45˚ counter clockwise each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The left hand symbol rotates 90˚ clockwise each time.
Rule 2: The centre and right hand symbols rotate 90˚ counter clockwise each time.
Rule 3: The shaded symbol moves one place to the right each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The arch rotates 90˚ counter clockwise each time.

Rule 2: The line inside the circle rotates 45˚ counter clockwise each time.
Rule 3: The shaded segment of the arch moves out one place each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The arrow rotates 45˚ clockwise each time.

Rule 2: The arrow alternates between shaded and unshaded.
Rule 3: The total number of edges on the large shape increases by one each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The lines around the edges alternate between horizontal/vertical and diagonal.
Rule 2: Four new squares are added each time.
Rule 3: The squares alternate between shaded and unshaded.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The arrows move one place counterclockwise around the box each time.
Rule 2: The direction of the arrows indicate where the next shape moves to.
Rule 3: The number of arrows indicates the total number of sides on the next shape.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The symbol rotates 45˚ clockwise each time.

Rule 2: The circle moves one place to the right each time, with regard to the initial
orientation of the symbol.
Rule 3: The thick line moves one place to the right each time, with regard to the initial
orientation of the symbol.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The unshaded notch moves one place counterclockwise around the square each
time.
Rule 2: The shaded notches move clockwise one place, then two places, then three places
and so on.
Rule 3: The line in the square rotates 45˚ clockwise each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The final shape is the first shape of the next box.
Rule 2: The total number of sides on the shapes in each box is equal to ten.
Rule 3: The shape with the highest number of edges is shaded.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The small circle moves one place counter clockwise around the box each time.
Rule 2: The circle alternates between shaded and unshaded.
Rule 3: The symbol in the centre is always comprised of three lines.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The circle in the foreground moves one place clockwise each time.
Rule 2: The broken line moves one place counter clockwise each time.
Rule 3: All of the straight lines rotate 45˚ clockwise each time.

AssessmentDay
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
Rule 1: The number of circles in each box is equal to the total number of circles in the
previous two boxes.
Rule 2: The total number of shaded boxes increases by one each time.
Rule 3: The lines on the other circles alternate between horizontal and vertical.
-- End of Test --

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Ultimate NMAT Prep

TABLE OF CONTENTS ...........................................................................1

HOW TO GET HIGH NMAT SCORE WITHOUT REVIEW CENTER:

S TICK TO YOUR OWN LEARNING STYLE . .................................................4

PART I: MENTAL ABILITY................................................................... 11

INDUCTIVE REASONING ..................................................................... 26

PERCEPTUAL ACUITY .......................................................................... 54

PART II: ACADEMIC PROFICIENCY ................................................. 78

SOCIAL SCIENCE ................................................................................ 114

CHEMISTRY .......................................................................................... 128

VERBAL ANSWER KEY ...................................................................... 146

INDUCTIVE REASONING ANSWER KEY ........................................ 153

QUANTITATIVE ANSWER KEY......................................................... 155

PERCEPTUAL ACUITY ANSWER KEY ............................................ 156

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY .................................................................... 160

PHYSICS ANSWER KEY ..................................................................... 162

SOCIAL SCIENCE ANSWER KEY ..................................................... 164

CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY .............................................................. 166

Your NMAT ranking or score is equally important.

The NMAT or National Medical Admission Test is a prerequisite for

NMAT, therefore, should never be taken for granted because how

Everyone is different. Some learn more by reviewing alone while

Strengthen your weaknesses.

Reviewing for NMAT is like preparing for UPCAT or civil service

Take a diagnostic exam. Either use the practice test provided to

By knowing your weaknesses from the get-go, you will be able to

Also, don’t forget that NMAT scoring is based on percentile

Since most students hate subjects that have anything to do with

Know the coverage of the exam.

Assuming that you already know your weaknesses based on the

The first part is the Aptitude Test which measures the

The only way to get a high score in Part I is to practice answering

NMAT, after all, is based on percentile ranking, not on your raw

The second part, on the other hand, is the Special Areas

Remember, you should make each second of your limited time to

Take simulated, time-pressured practice

The key here is to answer as many questions as possible to benefit

Each mistake is an opportunity to improve your weaknesses

For example, if you got a wrong answer to a Physics question, you

NMAT is a time-pressured exam so aside from understanding the

If you answer 75% of the questions correctly, you’re in good

Practice tests should only be used as a guide in improving your

Manage your time wisely.

As a whole, NMAT is relatively easier compared to UPCAT.

However, time is every examinee’s greatest enemy. The first part

If the proctor allows it, wear an analog wristwatch (digital watches

Never waste more than 3 minutes in a single item.

Depending on which strategy you’re most comfortable with, you can

READ: How to Answer Multiple Choice Questions Like a Pro

Alternatively, you can classify each question based on its level of

• Easy – items that you already know the answers to at one

Additional NMAT Tips.

Directions: The questions that follow have two pairs of words.

1. FOLLOW : CHASE :: NUDGE :

2. MARATHON : RACE :: HIBERNATION :

4. SCRUFF : NECK :: STERN :

5. PRINCIPLE : DOCTRINE :: LIVING :

6. PALTRY : SIGNIFICANCE :: BANAL :

7. CHATTER : TALK :: FLUTTER :

8. CONJUGATE : PAIR :: PARTITION :

9. CHAGRIN : CRITICISM :: SAG :

10. EXTORT : OBTAIN :: PLAGIARIZE :

11. PALLID : COLOR :: TACTLESS :

12. VAUNT : BOAST :: SKEWER :