Block 4; GROSS b.

Dartos muscle
c. Membranous layer of superficial
ANTERIOR ABDOMEN WALL AND fascia
HERNIA d. Fatty layer of superficial fascia
e. External oblique muscle
1. During an operation of inguinal
Ans : E
hernia, a surgeon showed to his
6. Membranous layer of superficial
assistant that it is an indirect inguinal
fascia attached to deep fascia of thigh:
hernia. This hernia develops due to
a. Above the inguinal ligament
persistent pathway that is formed
b. Lateral to inguinal ligament
during descend of
c. Medial to inguinal ligament
a. Ovaries
d. Below the inguinal ligament
b. Kidney
e. Over the inguinal ligament
c. Adrenals
Ans : D
d. Testes
e. Urinary bladder
Ans :D
7. Regarding colles fascia choose the best
2. Posterior wall of rectus sheath below
option:
the level of anterior superior iliac
a. Continuation of superficial fatty
spine is formed by:
layer
a. Internal oblique
b. Formed by dartos muscle
b. External oblique
c. Posteriorly it fuses with the parineal
c. Pyramidalis muscle
body
d. Fascia transvesrsalis
d. Layer of deep fascia
e. Transversus abdominus
e. Present in the anterior abdominal
Ans :D
wall
3. In the scrotum layer of smooth muscle
Ans : C
is formed by:
8. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by
a. Fatty layer of superficial fascia
the:
b. Membranous layer of superficial
a. Defect in the aponeurosis of internal
fascia
oblique muscle
c. Colles fascia
b. Defect in the aponeurosis of external
d. Deef fascia of anterior abdominal
oblique muscle
wall
c. Defect in the aponeurosis of rectus
e. Fascia transversalis
abdominis muscle
Ans : A
d. Defect in the aponeurosis of
4. Inguinal ligament is formed by wich
transversus muscle
muscle of anterior abdominal wall:
e. Defect in the aponeurosis of
a. Internal oblique muscle
pyramidalis muscle
b. Transversus muscle
Ans : B
c. Pyramidalis muscle
9. Superficial inguinal ring lies:
d. External oblique muscle
a. Above and lateral to pubic tubercle
e. Rectus abdominis muscle
b. Below and medial to pubic tubercle
Ans : D
c. Below and lateral pubic tubercle
5. External spermatic fascia is formed
d. Above and medial to inguinal
by:
ligament
a. Colles fascia

1
 e. Above and medial to pubic tubercle 15. Structure lies in the rectus sheath
Ans :E except:
10. Pectineal ligament is a continuation of a. Superior and inferior epigastric
lacunar ligament attached to the vessel
periosteum of which bone? b. Lower six thorasic nerves
a. Ilium c. Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal
b. Ischium nerve
c. Pubis d. Lymph vessels
d. Sacrum e. Rectus abdominis and pyramidalis
e. Coccyx muscle
Ans : C Ans : C
11. Structure which formed the medial 16. Above the costal margin anterior wall
margin of femoral ring : of rectus sheath is formed by:
a. Lacunar ligament a. External oblique
b. Pactineal ligament b. Internal oblique
c. Inguinal ligament c. Transversus abdominis
d. Pubic tuberclle d. All of above
e. Pubic crest e. None of above
Ans : A Ans : A
12. Cremasteric fascia is formed by: 17. Middle part of rectus abdominis
a. External oblique muscle muscle is enclosed by the aponeurosis
b. Transversus muscle of which muscle:
c. Internal oblique muscle a. External oblique
d. Pyramidalis muscle b. Internal oblique
e. Rectus abdominis muscle c. Transversus
Ans : C d. Pyramidalis
13. Conjoint tendon is formed by which e. All of above
muscles: Ans : B
a. External oblique and internal oblique 18. At the level of arcuate line which
b. Internal oblique and transversus structure entered the rectus sheath
c. Internal oblique and rectus a. Superior epigastric vessels
abdominis b. Lumber arteries
d. Rectus abdominis and external c. Inferior epigastric artery
oblique d. Deep circumflex iliac artery
e. Pyramadalis and linea alba e. Superficial external pudendal artery
Ans :B Ans : C
19. Ilioinguinal nerve is blocked by
inserting needle and infiltrating
anesthetic solution to:
14. Pyramidalis if present lies in front of: a. 2.5cm above to inguinal ligament
a. Transversus abdominis b. 2.5cm below the inguinal ligament
b. External oblique c. 2.5cm above the anterior superior
c. Internal oblique iliac spine
d. Rectus obdominis d. 2.5cm below the anterior superior
e. Linea alba iliac spine
Ans : D e. 2.5cm lateral to pubic tubercle

2
 Ans : D
20. Superior epigastric artery is a branch
of:
a. Abdominal aorta
b. Internal thorasic artery
c. Thorasic aorta
d. Lateral thorasic artery
e. External iliac artery
Ans :
21. Deep circumflex artery is a branch of:
a. Superior epigastric artery
b. Inferior epigastric artery
c. Internal thorasic artery
d. External iliac artery
e. Internal iliac artery
Ans : D
22. Caput medusae is a sign in a diseased
person when:
a. Superior vena cava is obstructed
b. Inferior vena cava is obstructed
c. Portal vein is obstructed
d. Paraumblical veins are obstructed
e. Lateral thorasic vein is obstructed
Ans : C
23. Superficial veins of anterior
abdominal wall drains inferiorly into
the:
a. Femoral vein
b. External iliac vein
c. Internal iliac vein
d. Axillary vein
e. Paraumblical vein
Ans : A
24. Lymph of anterior abdominal wall
above the level of umbilicus drains
into:
a. Posterior axillary lymph nodes
b. Anterior axillary lymph nodes
c. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
d. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
e. Lateral axillary lymph nodes
Ans : B
25. Which nerve passes through the
superficial inguinal rings?
a. Subcostal nerve
b. Ilio hypogastric nerve
c. Ilio inguinal nerve
d. 11th thoracic nerve
e. 10th thoracic nerve
Ans : C
26. Which fascia becomes the dartos
muscle in scrotum?
a. Scarpa
b. Camper
c. Lumbar
d. Lata
e. Deep
Ans : B
27. Regarding the spermatic cord;
a. It contains seminal vesicle
b. It contains testicular vein
c. It contains pampiniform plexus
d. It is surrounded by four layers of
fascia
e. It lies below the inguinal ligament
Ans : C
28. A medical student was asked to
palpate the margin of superficial
inguinal ring of a male patient. After
passing the finger in the ring, he felt a
bony protuberance deep and lateral to
spermatic cord which he identified as
a. Pectin pubis
b. Pubic symphysis
c. Pubic tubercle
d. Iliopubic eminence
e. Iliopectineal line
Ans : C
29. Following an emergency
appendicectomy, patient complaints of
having numbness of skin of pubic
region. The most likely nerve that had
injured is
a. Genitofemoral
b. Iliohypogastric
c. Sub costal
d. 10th thoracic nerve
e. 9th thoracic nerve
Ans : A
POSTERIOR ABDOMEN WALL,
KIDNEY AND URETERS
3
30. In adult, the vertebral level at which GIT
the inferior venacava usually formed
is: 35. The innermost layer of the GI tract is:
a. L1 a. Mucosa
b. L2 b. Sub mucosa
c. L3 c. Muscularis externa
d. L4 d. Serosa
e. L5 e. Lamina propria
Ans : E 36. Esophageal cardiac glands lie in
a. Mucosa
RENAL b. Submucosa
31. Anterior relations of right kidney
c. Muscularis
includes:
d. Lamina propria
a. Right lobe of liver
b. illeum e. Serosa
c. Ascending colon 37. In number circumvallate papillae are
d. 4th part of duodenum a. 3-9
e. Right supra renal glands b. 4-10
Ans :D c. 8-12
32. During the removal of a patient’s d. 6-12
kidney, you would observe which of e. 5
the following structure as being most 38. Which of the following is composed of
anterior within renal sinus? smooth muscle?
a. Renal arteries a. Upper esophagus
b. Renal vein b. Heart
c. Major calyx
c. Tongue
d. Minor calyx
d. Biceps muscle
e. Renal pelvis
Ans : B e. Walls of the visceral organs
33. The left supra renal vein normally 39. The lymphatic capillary within a villus
drains into: of the small intestine is called;
a. IVC a. Lacteal
b. Left gonadal vein b. Crypts of Lieberkuhm
c. Left renal vein c. Plicae circulares
d. Inferior mesenteric vein d. Striated border
e. Superior mesenteric vein e. Villi
Ans : C 40. The structure that covers the visible
34. Which major structure crosses the portion of a tooth is;
ureter in male as it approaches the a. Pulp cavity
uretero-vesical junction:
b. Dentine
a. Vas deferens
b. Testicular artery c. Dental pulp
c. Seminal vesicle d. Cementum
d. Internal iliac artery e. Enamel
e. Ovarian artery
Ans: A

4
41. The collection of lymphatic nodules e. Transitional epithelium
known as peyer’s patches are located 47. A histologic slide of a transverse
in; section through the duodenum shows
a. Esophagus large cells with large euchromatic
b. Stomach nuclei and prominent nucleoli
c. Small intestine between two layers of smooth muscle.
d. Larg intestine The large cells are:
e. Rectum a. Enteroendocrine cells that
42. Megacolon is a congenital condition secrete regulatory peptides
due to absence of Meissner’s Plexus, b. Paneth cells that secrete
which is located in? bactericidal enzymes
a. Mucosa c. Primordial cells that migrate
b. Sub mucosa into the epithelium to form
c. Muscularis externa stem cells
d. Serosa d. Neurons of the myenteric
e. Adventitia plexus that innervate the
43. In which part of muscular layer muscularis externa
ofGIT, skeletal muscles are present? e. Lymphocytes that have
a. Esophagus undergone blastic
b. Stomach transformation
c. Small intestine 48. Fundic glands lie in which one of the
d. Large intestine following layers:
e. Rectum a. Mucosa
44. What structure is in the center of the b. Submucosa
hepatic lobule? c. Muscularis mucosae
a. Hepatic artery d. Adventitia
b. Portal triad e. Serosa
c. Central vein 49. Brunner glands arev present in which
d. Portal vein one of the following structure?
e. Sinusoids a. Appendix
45. The space between the liver sinusoids b. Duodenum
and the hepatocytes is called; c. Ileum
a. Space of Disse d. Jejunum
b. Space of Mall e. Stomach
c. Vacuole 50. Brush border of jejunum is formed by
d. Lacuna :
e. Ampulla a. Microvilli
46. What cell type makes up the mucosa b. Villi
of the gallbladder? c. Crypts
a. Simple squamous epithelium d. Plica circulares
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium e. Cilia
c. Simple columnar epithelium 51. Goblet cells are most numerous in :
d. Stratified sqamous epithelium a. Duodenum

5
 b. Jejunum b. Parotid gland
c. Ileum c. Pancreas
d. Stomach d. Sublingual gland
e. Rectum e. Submandibular gland
52. Lysozymes are abundant in which one 57. Regarding histological structure of
of the following cells? stomach ;
a. Enterocytes a. Contains crypts of liberkhun
b. Goblet cells b. Enterocytes are most
c. Entero-endocrine cells numerous
d. Paneth cells c. Microfold cells are present
e. M-cells d. Muscularis mucosae is not
53. On examination of biopsy specimen of present
appendix, the pathologist findings e. Parietal cells produce HCL
revealed : 58. Mesothelium is found in:
a. Thickened inner circular a. Adventitia
layer b. Lamina propria
b. Thickened submucosa c. Mucosa
c. Abundunt lymphoid d. Serosa
follicles e. Submucosa
d. Thickened serosa 59. Excretory ducts of salivary glands are
e. Fibrosed lamina propria lined by:
54. Regarding tongue papilla; a. Endothelium
a. Circumvallete papillae are b. Simple columnar epithelium
smallest in size c. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Circumvallete papillae are d. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
present on tip e. Simple squamous epithelium
c. Fungiform papillae are most 60. Theinner most layer of GIT is
numerous a. Mucosa
d. Papillae are covered by b. Submucosa
simple squamous epithelium c. Muscularis externa
e. Taste buds are present on d. Serosa
filiform and curcumvallate e. Lamina propria
papilla 61. Modification of muscularis externa in
55. In GIT Globlet cells are large intestine are
predominantly found in : a. Crypts of leiberkhun
a. Colon b. Plicae circularis
b. Duodenum c. Striated border
c. Jejenum d. Teniae coli
d. Illeum e. Microvilli
e. Stomach 62. Regading histological structure of
56. Mucus acini are predominantly found parotid
in : a. It is cevered by a very thin
a. Duodenum connective tissue capsule

6
 b. It is purely mucus gland
c. Intercalated ducts are
prominent in histological
section
d. It is a mixed variety of
salivary glands
e. No adipose tissue is present
in gland
63. Zymogen granules are present in
which cell types
a. Mucous cells
b. Cells of intercalated ducts
c. Serous cells
d. Cells of striated ducts
e. Myoepithelial cells
64. Salivary glands and pancreas have.
a. Simple tubular glands
b. Simple branched glands
c. Simple alveolar glands
d. Compound tabuloalveolar
glands
e. Compound alveolar glands
65. In liver, the ducts that are present
along lateral domains of adjacent
hepatocytes are
a. Bile ductlules
b. Canals of hering
c. Bile canaliculi
d. Interalobular bile duct
e. Right and left hepatic ducts
66. Which cell is a hepatic macrophage?
a. Kupffer cells
b. Histiocytes
c. Duct cells
d. Microglica
e. Langerhan cells
67. Regarding histological structure of
esophagus mark one cerrect
statement:
a. Esophageal glands are serous
in nature
b. It is lined by stratified
squamous keratinized
epithelium
c. Cardiac glands are present in
submucosa
d. It has both skeletal and
smooth muscle in its middle
third
e. Middle and distal third are
covered by serosa
68. Taenia coli present in large intestine
are:
a. Discrete muscular bands
b. Mucosal glands
c. Submucosal glands
d. Compact lymphoid tissue
e. Crypts of leiburkuhn
69. Thick mucosa densely packed with
tubular glands is characteristic of
which structure?
a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Appendix
70. The ducts of von ebner glands open in
which one of the following structure?
a. Filiform papillae
b. Submucosa
c. On the dorsum of the tongue
d. Circumvillate papillae
e. On the ventral surface of the
tongue
71. The hepatic lobule can also be defined
as a region of hepatic tissue that is
served by a single:
a. Portal vein
b. Central vein
c. Bile duct
d. Hepatic duct
e. Sinusoid
72. What fluid flows within hepatic
sinusoids?
7
 a. Bile
b. Lymph
c. Venous blood from intestine
and spleen
d. Arterial blood from hepatic
artery
e. Mixed arterial and venous
blood
73. Although the gall bladder lining
superficially resembles the mucosa of
the small intestine, the gall bladder
lacks:
a. An epithelial linning
b. Columnar cells
c. Microvilli
d. Lamina propria
e. Submucosa
74. A 2 year MBBS student indentified
nd
the slide of lipby recognizing the
vermillion border by
a. Stratified squamous
keratinized epithelium
b. Presence of hair follicle
c. Absence of hair follicle
d. Mucus salivary glands
e. Skeletal muscle
75. Which layer contains Auerbach’s
plexus?
a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Lamina propria
76. Stomach is lined by which one of the
following epithelium:
a. Stratified cuboidal
b. Simple columnar
c. Simple cuboidal
d. Simple squamous
e. Stratified squamous
nonkeratinized
77. The outermost layer of the GI tract is:
a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Lamina propria
78. Modifications of the muscularis
externa found in large intestine are :
a. Teniae coli
b. Crypts of lieberkuhm
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi
79. Payers patches are found in :
a. Duodenum
b. Illeum
c. Jejunum
d. Rectum
e. Stomach
80. The characteristics of small intestine
include
a. Peyer’s patches are prominnt
in duodenum
b. Bruner’s glands are a feature
of ileum
c. Jejunal villi are the smallest
in the intestinal villi
d. The muscularis externa
contains circular and oblique
layers
e. The duodenum contains
bruner’s glands
81. In the gastrointestinal system the
submucosa contais numerous glands
in
a. Appendix
b. Duodenum
c. Colon
d. Stomach
e. Jejunum
82. During routine cholycystectomy , a
growth is found in a 56 years old male
patient. On microscopic examination
of the biopsy taken, the pathologist
confirms that the growth is not of
8
 intestinal origin. This inference is
made on the basis of presence of
which of the following cells.
a. Enterocytes
b. Goblet cells
c. Parietal cells
d. Enteroendocrinre cells
e. Stem cells
83. Fundic glands contain which one of
the following cells:
a. Absorptiv cells
b. Chief
c. Enterocytes
d. Goblet
e. Paneth
84. The finding revealed on examination
of a biopsy specimen of appendix
under light microscopy are :
a. Thick inner circular layer
b. Thick submucosa
c. Abdundant lymphoid follicles
d. Thick serosa
e. Absent lamina propria
85. In a histology slide mucus gland are
seen in submucosa the slide is of
a. Jejunum
b. Ileum
c. Duodenum
d. Colon
e. Stomach
86. Which of the following layer is absent
in gallbladder
a. Mucosa
b. Lamina propria
c. Submucosa
d. Muscularisexterna
e. Serosa
87. The muscle which protrudes the
tongue is;
a. Hyoglossus
b. Genioglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Styloglossus
e. Geniohyoid
88. The muscle which protrudes the
tongue and its tip towards the
opposite side is;
a. Hyoglossus
b. Genioglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Styloglossus
e. Geniohyoid
89. Which type of papillae on the tongue
is the most abundant?
a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above
Ans : A
90. A patient came with a complain of
deviation of tongue to one side on
protrusion. Which muscle is affected?
a. Palatoglossus
b. Genioglossus
c. Styloglossus
d. Hyoglossus
e. Geniohyoid
91. A patient presented in OPD with loss
of sensation of anterior two thirds of
tongue. He gave history of extraction
of impacted upper third molar.The
nerve most likely to be injured is:
a. Chorda tympani
b. Facial
c. Glassopharyngeal
d. Vagus
e. Lingual
92. 34 year old male presented to a
surgeon with swelling on tip of tongue.
On examination which lymph node
group will be palpable
a. Preauricular lymph nodes
b. Deep cervical chain
c. Submandibular lymph nodes
9
 d. Submental lymph nodes
e. Juglodigastric lymph nodes
93. When a patient is asked to protrude
his tongue, it tests the competence of
the innervation to the muscles of
tongue. A deviation of the protruded
tongue to the right indicates damage
to
a. Right hypoglossal nerve
b. Left hypoglossal nerve
c. Right lingual nerve
d. Left lingual nerve
e. Right glossopharyngeal nerve
94. Sensory innervation to posterior 1/3rd
of the tongue carried out by which
nerve
a. Hypoglossal
b. Auriculotemporal
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Vagus
e. Chonda tympanic
95. Loss of taste sensations of anterior
part of tongue is due to damage to:
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
e. Vagus nerve
SALIVARY GLANDS
96. While removing the submandibular
gland the surgeon should be careful
not to damage
a. Facial artery
b. Facial nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Superior alveolar nerve
e. Zygomatico temporal nerve
97. A patient presents with dry mouth or
xerostomia. Examination reveals
decreased salivary production from
parotid gland. Where does the duct of
parotid gland open
a. Sublingual papilla
b. Sublingual fold
c. Opposite lingual incisors
d. Opposite maxillary second molar
e. Opposite Mandibular second molar
98. The nerve that divides in parotid
gland is:
a. Zygomatic
b. Facial
c. Temporal
d. Maxillary
e. Mandibular
99. 23 years old female came to doctor
with complain of swelling on postero
lateral surface of angle of madible,
doctor diagnosed it to be the swelling
of parotid gland. Which of the
following is the posteromedial relation
of parotid gland
a. Carotid sheath
b. Digastric muscle
c. Facial nerve
d. Submandibular lymph nodes
e. Vagus nerve
100. A patient presents with swelling
below body of mandible. It is greatest
during and after a meal but decreases
in size in between the meals. What is
your most likely diagnosis.
a. Calculus in submandibular duct
b. Calculus in sublingual duct
c. Calculus in parotid duct
d. Tumor of parotid duct
e. Tumor of glands of palate
101. The nerve supply of the parotid
fascia is
a. ophthalmic
b. infraorbital
c. infratrochlear
d. auriculotemporal
e. facial
PHARYNX
102. A 10 year old girl presents with
severe sore throat. Physical
examination reveals a brightly
erythematous patch in the upper
posterior pharynx. Which of the
following cranial nerves would most
10
 likely carry the pain sensation 107. Regarding pancreas;
associated with this lesion? a. Main pancreatic duct opens in third
a. III part of duodenum
b. V b. Uncinate process is projection from
c. VII tail of pancreas
d. IX c. The splenic artery does not supply
e. XI any part of pancreas
PALATE d. CBD runs anterior to the head of
pancreas
103. Which muscle elevates the soft e. Its anterior border gives attachment
plate during swallowing; to transverse mesocolon
a. Tensor valt palatine Ans :
b. Palatoglossus 108. Gall bladder is found in its fossa
c. Palatopharyngeus between which two anatomical lobes
d. Levator veli palative of liver?
e. Salpingopharyngeus a. Quadrate and left lobes
104. Patient complaints of change in b. Quadrate and caudate lobes
voice. On examination, the soft palate c. Right and quadrate lobes
is sagging down and immobile, d. Caudate and right lobes
damage to which nerve explains the e. Caudate and left lobes
symptoms? Ans : C
a. Chorda tympani 109. In esophageal varices, dilatation of
b. Glossopharyngeal anastomosis occurs between which of
c. Hypoglossal the following pairs of veins?
d. Vagus a. Superior + inferior rectal veins
e. Lingual b. Paraumbilical + intercostal veins
INTESTINES c. Right gastric + hemiazygous veins
d. Left gastric + azygous veins
105. The second part of the duodenum: e. Left gastric + hemiazygous veins
a. Is developed entirely from the Ans : D
midgut. 110. During cholecystectomy, a surgeon
b. Has an opening for the accessory paces his index finger into epiploic
pancreatic duct. foramen. Which of the following
c. Is supplied only by branches of the structures would be inferior to his
celiac artery. fingers?
d. Lies anterior to the left renal vessels. a. Caudate lobe of liver
e. Completely covered with b. First part of duodenum
peritoneum. c. IVC
Ans : B d. Portal vein
106. The lymphatic capillary within a e. Hepatic artery
villus of the small intestine is called; 111. A patient experiencing pain at
a. Lacteal Mcburney’s point is likely to have a
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn disorder of which organ?
c. Plicaecirculares a. Appendix
d. Striated border b. Ascending colon
e. Villi c. Ileum
Ans : A

11
 d. Stomach
e. Sigmoid colon
Ans : A
112. A tortuous artery passing to the
left along the superior border of
pancreas. This is likely to be which of
the following.
a. Left renal artery
b. Inferior mesenteric artery
c. Splenic artery
d. Left gastro omental artery
e. Left colic artery
Ans : C
113. Gastric contents exiting a posterior
perforation of the stomach wall, will
accumulate in which of the following?
a. Left paracolic gutter
b. Left paravertebral gutter
c. Right paravertebral gutter
d. Omental bursa
e. Hepatorenal recess
Ans : D
114. A middle aged women developed
obstruction of ileum; the ileal coils
need to be resected. The artery which
needs to be ligated in this case would
be;
a. Superior mesenteric
b. Inferior mesenteric
c. Pudendal
d. Celiac
e. Aorta
Ans : A
115. The drainage of pancreatic juice is
by;
a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
Ans : C
116. Artery of foregut is
a. Celiac trunk
b. Superior pancreaticodudenal
c. Superior mesenteric
d. Inferior mesenteric
e. Left gastric
117. Rebound tenderness is the sign of:
a. Acute cholecystitis
b. Acute appendicitis
c. Duodenal ulcer
d. Chronic appendicitis
e. Gastritis
Ans : B
118. A 47 year old woman was operated
on for treatment of chronic gastric
ulcer. During surgery it was found out
that posterior wall of stomach was
stuck down tto the posterior
abdominal wall. The surgeon had to
proceed with great care to avoid
damaging structures lying on
posterior abdominal wall. Which one
of the following structure was not
involved in disease process
a. Right kidney
b. Pancreas
c. Splenic artery
d. Left kidney
e. Left suprarenal gland
Ans : A
119. A surgeon accidentally gave a nick
to the right margin of
hepatoduodenal ligament, which is
derivative of;
a. Lesser omentum
b. Greater omentum
c. Dorsal mesentery
d. Omental bursa
e. Lesser sac
Ans :
120. Pain of the acute cholecystitis
would refer to:
a. Right hypocondrium
b. Epigastrium
c. Right lumbar region
d. Tip of right shoulder
e. Right iliac fossa
Ans : D
121. Tail of pancreas extends into:
a. Lesser omentum
b. Lieno renal ligament
c. Gastrosplenic ligament
12
 d. Greater omentum
e. Ligamentum teres RECTUM
Ans : B 83. Rectum is sensitive to:
80. The superior rectal artery is a a. Pain
continuation of: b. Temperature
a. Superior mesenteric artery c. Touch
b. Inferior mesenteric artery d. Pressure
c. Internal iliac artery e. Stretch
d. Left colic artery Ans: E
e. External iliac artery 84. Which one of the following group of
Ans : B lymph nodes is not involved in
lymphatic drainage of rectum?
a. Para rectal nodes
b. Inguinal nodes
c. Inferior mesenteric nodes
d. Internal iliac nodes
e. Nodes along rectal artery
Ans: B
ISCHIORECTAL FOSSA ANAL CANAL
85. The characteristics of external
81. An adolescent presents with an hemorrhoids include
infection within the ischiorectal fossa. a. They are sensitive to stretch
Which of the following structures is most b. There is absence of pain
likely injured? c. They are covered by skin
a. Vestibular bulb d. They contain tributaries of
b. Seminal vesicle superficial rectal vein
c. Greater vestibular gland e. They are supplied by hypo gastric
d. Obturator nerve plexus.
e. Internal pudendal artery Ans: C
Ans: E 86. External hemorrhoids are
81. Regarding pudendal canal: characterized by
a. Lies at lateral wall of ischiorectal a. Sensitive to stretch
fossa b. Absence of pain
b. It lies at medial site of ischial c. Covered by skin
tuberosity d. Contain tributaries of superficial
c. Contains fats only rectal vein
d. Lies at the floor of fossa e. Supplied by hypo gastric plexus.
e. Lies at medial wall of fossa Ans: C
Ans: A 87. Nerve innervating the external anal
82. Pudendal nerve is the branch of: sphincter is:
a. Brachial plexus a. Ilio inguinal
b. Lumbar plexus b. Inferior rectal
c. Sacral plexus c. Genitofemoral
d. Cervical plexus d. Branch from inferior hypogastric
e. Coccygeal plexus plexus
Ans: C e. Celiac plexus

13
 Ans: e. Broad ligament
Ans: A
92. Structure passing through sacral
Hiatus is:
a. Spinal meninges
BLOCK 5; REPRO AND ENDO b. Spinal cord
c. 4th Sacral nerve
ENDO
d. Posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
THYROID GLAND e. Filum terminale
Ans: E
88. After an operation of thyroid gland
for its malignancy. The patient 93. Which one of the following is the
developed hoarseness of voice. Which content of deep perineal pouch in
nerve is most likely to be affected: male?
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve a. Bulbourethral gland
b. Internal laryngeal nerve b. Perineal body
c. External laryngeal nerve c. Superior transverse Perineal muscle
d. Superior laryngeal nerve d. Root of the penis
e. Inferior laryngeal nerve e. Perineal nerve
Perineum Ans: A
89. The muscle that primarily forms the 94. When kicked from front, common site
pelvic diaphragm is of rupture of urethra is:
a. Piriformis a. Penile urethra
b. Obturator internus b. Membranous urethra
c. Obturator externus c. Bulb of urethra
d. Levator ani d. Prostatic urethra
e. Psoas major e. Near its termination
Ans: D Ans: C
90. A 42-year-old woman who had six
children, develops a weakness of the
urogenital diaphragm with dribbling 95. Which one of the following lumbar
of urine. Paralysis of which of the spinal nerve contributes to sacral
following muscles would cause such a plexus:
symptom? a. Lumbar 3
a. Sphincter urethrae b. Lumbar 5
b. Coccygeus c. Lumbar 1
a. Superficial transverses perinei d. Lumbar 2
b. Levator ani e. Lumbar 4
c. Obturator internus
Ans: A Ans: B

91. Most important support for female
pelvic viscera is provided by
a. Levator ani
b. Coccygeous
c. Sacrotuberous ligament
d. Sacrospinous ligament
96. Median sacral crest on the dorsal
surface of the sacrum is formed by:
a. Fusion of articular processes
b. Fusion of transverse processes
c. Fusion of Spinous processes
d. Fusion of laminae

14
 e. Fusion of pedicles
Ans: C
REPRODUCTION
97. Simple cuboidal epithelium on the
surface of ovary is derived from
epithelium of
a. Coelom
b. Gonadal ridge
c. Urogenital sinus
d. Cloaca
e. Mesonephros
98. Regarding the uterine epithelium
a. It contain goblet cells
b. Ciliated cells are present
c. Myometrium has two layers
d. Spiral arteries supply
endometrium
e. Cells don’t show cyclical
changes
99. In females which stage of follicle is
arrested in prophase?
a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Mature follicle
e. Graffian follicle
100. When examining a histological
sectio of a normal ovary, a student
notices an oocyte surrounded by
several layers of follicular cells. A
small antrum is present. Which of the
following is the correct term for this
entire structure?
a. Corpus luteum
b. Graffian follicle
c. Primary follicle
d. Primodial follicle
e. Secondary follicle
101. Regarding histological structure of
ovary:
a. It is lined by simple
squamous epithelium
b. Cumulus oophorus is found
in primary follicle
c. Primordial follicles are found
in medulla
d. Secondary follicle is mature
follicle
e. Theca interna secretes
hormones
102. Characteristic feature of inactive
mammary gland is
a. Sac like appearance of acini
b. Proliferating intralobular
ducts
c. Increased amount of
interlobular connective tissue
d. Secretions in acni
e. Decreased amount of
interlobular of ovary
connective tissue
103. Regarding histological structure
mark one correct statement
a. It is covered by simple
squamous epithelium
b. Primordial follicle is
surrounded by multiple layers
of epithelial cells
c. Medulla of ovary contains
large number of follicles
d. Ruptured follicle transforms
into corpusluteum
e. Graffian follicle is also called
secondary follicle
104. Regarsing structure of uterus
mark one correct statement
a. Secretory cells are ciliated
b. Lining epithelium is stratified
columnar
15
 c. Uterine glands are present in
myometrium
d. Endometrium is thikest zone
e. Perimetrium is composed of
serosa and adventitia
105. Lining epithelium of fallopian tube
is
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal
c. Simple columnar
d. Pseudostratified ciliated
columnar
e. Stratified squamous
106. Stereocilia are present in
a. Seminal vesicles
b. Vas deferens
c. Uterine tube
d. Trachea
e. Gall bladder
107. Regarding histological structure of
testis mark one cerrect statement:
a. Seminiferous tubulesare
straight in form
b. Seminiferous epithelium is
arranged in a single layer
c. Leydig cells form part of
seminifrous epithelium
d. Sertoli cells are found in
interstitial tissue
e. Testosterone is produced by
leydig cells
108. Blood testis barrier is contributed
by which one of the following cells?
a. Lcydig
b. Interstitial
c. Spermatogonia
d. Sertoli
e. Sustentacular
109. Regarding histological structure of
testes mark one correct statement:
a. Spermatogenic cells are
supported by leydig cells
b. Seminiferous tubules are
straight in the form
c. Spermatogenic cells are
arranged in single layer
d. Blood testes barrier is formed
by leydig cells
e. Sustantacular cells from part
of seminiferous epithelium
110. Regarding structure of ductus
deferens marks one correct statement
a. Folded mucosa
b. Lined by stratified columnar
epithelium
c. Muscularis mucosae present
d. Thin muscularis externa
e. Wide lumen
111. Which one of the following is NOT
considered part of the male genital
duct system?
a. Rete testis
b. Ductus epididymus
c. Ductus deferens
d. Seminal vesicles
e. Tubuli recti
112. The cells that take part in
formation of blood tistis barrier are
a. Type A spermatogonia
b. Type B spermatogonia
c. Primary spermatocytes
d. Secondary spermatocytes
e. Sertoli cells
113. Which major structure crosses the
ureter in male as it approaches the
uretero-vesical junction:
a. Vas deferens
b. Testicular artery
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Internal iliac artery
16
 e. Ovarian artery
Ans: A
114. In a patient with testicular cancer,
metastasis (spread) would occur first
in the following lymph nodes
a. Internal iliac nodes
b. External iliac nodes
c. Superficial inguinal nodes
d. Aortic lymph nodes
e. Inferior mesenteric nodes
Ans: D
115. A 20 gauge spinal needle is placed
through the vagina to assess whether
there is blood in peritoneal cavity.
Which of the following is the most
dependent part of peritoneum?
a. Perianal space
b. Vesicouterine pouch
c. Recto uterine pouch
d. Superficial perineal pouch
e. Deep perineal pouch
Ans: C
116. A surgeon has to remove the
uterus of a patient, during ligation of
uterine arteries he should be careful
to avoid damage to
a. Internal iliac vessels
b. Ureters
c. Round ligament of ovary
d. Inferior epigastric artery
e. Ovarian artery
Ans: B
117. An elderly man with benign
enlargement of his prostate
experiences difficulty in urination,
urinary frequency, and urgency.
Which of the following lobes of the
prostate gland is commonly involved
in benign hypertrophy that obstructs
the prostatic urethra?
a. Anterior lobe
b. Middle lobe
c. Right lateral lobe
d. Left lateral lobe
e. Posterior lobe
Ans: B
118. A surgeon has to remove the
uterus of a patient, during ligation of
uterine arteries he should be careful
to avoid damage to
a. Internal iliac vessels
b. Ureters
c. Round ligament of ovary
d. Inferior epigastric artery
e. Ovarian artery
Ans: B
119. Testicular/ ovarian artery arises
from
a. Thoracic aorta at T12
b. Abdominal aorta at L1
c. Abdominal aorta at L2
d. Common iliac artery at L3
e. Internal Iliac artery at L5
Ans: B
120. In males the ejaculatory duct
opens into:
a. Prostatic urethra
b. Navicular fossa
c. Membranous urethra
d. Penile urethra
e. Bladder
121. Which fascia becomes the dartos
muscle in scrotum?
a. Scarpa
b. Camper
c. Lumbar
d. Lata
e. Deep
122. Regarding the spermatic cord;
a. It contains seminal vesicle
b. It contains testicular vein
c. It contains pampiniform plexus
d. It is surrounded by four layers of
fascia
e. It lies below the inguin
123. Most important support for female
pelvic viscera is provided by
a. Levator ani
b. Coccygeous
c. Sacrotuberous ligament
17
 d. Sacrospinous ligament 130. Junctional part of frontal and
e. Broad ligament parietal bones is called:
124. Structure passing through sacral a. Inion
Hiatus is: b. Nasion
a. Spinal meninges c. Vertex
b. Spinal cord d. Bregma
c. 4th Sacral nerve e. Lambda
d. Posterior sacrococcygeal ligament 131. The foramen rotundum transmits
e. Filum terminale a. Mandibular nerve
125. Median sacral crest on the dorsal b. Vestibulocochlear nerve
surface of the sacrum is formed by: c. Maxillary Nerve
a. Fusion of articular processes d. Facial nerve
b. Fusion of transverse processes e. Accessory nerve
c. Fusion of Spinous processes 132. The vagus nerve leaves the skull
d. Fusion of laminae through:
e. Fusion of pedicles a. Jugular foramen
b. Carotid canal
c. Hypoglossal canal
SKULL AND CERVICAL VERTEBRAE d. Foramen ovale
e. Foramen spinosum
126. Crista galli is a part of
133. Pterion is a bony land mark
a. Ethmoid bone
formed by union of bones that are
b. Palatine bone
a. Zygomatic, frontal, temporal,
c. Zygomatic bone
sphenoid
d. Frontal bone
b. Parietal, temporal, frontal
e. Sphenoid bone
and sphenoid
127. The vagus nerve leaves the skull
c. Temporal, parietal,
through:
zygomatic, parietal
a. Jugular foramen
d. Frontal , occipital, zygomatic,
b. Carotid canal
parietal
c. Hypoglossal canal
e. Occipital, mastoid,
d. Foramen ovale
frontal,zygomatic
e. Foramen spinosum
134. Rupture of foramen ovale results
128. Foramen ovale is located in:
in damage to
a. Frontal
a. Carotid artery
b. Ethmoid
b. Maxillary nerve
c. Maxilla
c. Mandibular nerve
d. Sphenoid
d. Facial nerve
e. Temporal
e. Middle meningeal artery
135. Stylomastoid foramen transmits
129. In hanging, death is due to
a. Vestibulocochlear nerve
fracture of:
b. Glossopharangeal nerve
a. Base of skull
c. Vagus nerve
b. Body of atlas
d. Facial nerve
c. Odontoid process of axis
e. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Pedicle of axis
136. Nasion is the junction of:
e. Pedicles of atlas

18
 a. Frontal and lacrimal bone
b. Frontal and Nasal bone
c. Nasal and lacrimal bone
d. Maxillary and nasal bone
e. Maxillary and lacrimal bone
137. Sphenoid bone has:
a. A body and 3 prosesses
b. A body and 2 procrsses
c. Two processes only
d. Three processes only
e. A bosfy and a processes
138. Occipital condyle articulates with:
a. First cervical vertebra
b. Second cervical vertebra
c. Temporal bone
d. Sphenoid bone
e. Parietal bone
139. Trauma to which of the following
structures could result in leakage of
cerebrospinal fluid in nasal cavity
a. Foramen spinosum
b. Incisive foramen
c. Foramen magnum
d. Foramen ovale
e. Cribriform plate of
ethmoid bone
140. During a football match, goal
keeper was hit on his head. After
sometime on the field he developed
drowsiness. He was taken to
emergency where he was diagnosed as
a case of intra cranial haemorrhage.
The site of removal of this clot is:
a. Pterion
b. Asterion
c. Glabella
d. Supra meatal triangle
e. Posterolateral fontanella
141. A man suffers fracture of skull at
the site of the Pterion, which vessel is
likely to be damaged:
a. Anterior cervical artery
b. Accessory meningeal artery
c. Superficial temporal artery
d. Middle meningeal artery
e. Superficial ophthalmic artery
142. Foramen ovale is located in which
bone?
a. Frontal
b. Ethmoid
c. Maxilla
d. Sphenoid
e. Temporal
143. An artery most likely to be
ruptured in case of a batsman hit by
hard ball over his pterion is:
a. Supraorbital
b. Supratrochlear
c. Accessory meningeal
d. Maxillary
e. Middle meningeal
144. The foramen ovale that lies
posterolateral to the foramen
rotundum transmits
a. Maxillary nerve
b. Occulomotor nerve
c. Mandibular nerve
d. Middle meningeal artery
e. Carotid artery
129. The type of joints between bones in
the base of skull are
a. primary cartilaginous
b. secondary cartilaginous
c. synovial
d. fibrous
e. sutures
130. The boney supraorbital margin of the
norma frontalis is formed entirely by
the:
a. frontal bone
b. zygomatic bone
c. maxilla bone
d. ethmoid bone
e. lacrimal bone
131. The midline ridge or a distinct process
on the occipital bone in norma
occipitalis, which can become
19
 particularly well developed in the of same side. Which structure is likely
male, is known as to be damaged:
a. Inion a. Inferior alveolar nerve
b. Nasion b. Lingual nerve
c. Pterion c. Facial nerve
d. Internal occipital protuberance d. Maxillary nerve
e. external occipital protuberance e. Mandibular Nerve
132. The middle part ofmiddle cranial 137. Parasympathetic fibers to otic
fossa is occupied mainly by the; ganglion arise from
a. base of the sphenoid bone
a. Occulomotor nerve
b. petrous processes of temporal bones
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. occipital bone
c. Facial nerve
d. parietal bone
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
e. zygomatic bone.
e. Vagus nerve
BLOCK 6
138. A CT scan of a 17 year old female
FACE shows a tumor compressing
133. Pulsation felt at the antero inferior
mandibular branch of trigeminal
angle of masseter muscle are from the nerve. Which of the following muscles
a. Facial artery may be paralyzed
b. Superficial temporal artery a. Omohyoid
c. Maxillary artery b. Buccinator
d. Posterior auricular artery c. Stylohyoid
e. Transverse facial artery d. Mylohyoid
134. A middle aged lady got ramus of
e. Sternocleidomastoid
139. Otic ganglion supply
mandible fractured. On examination;
it was found that there is loss of parasympathetic fibers to one of the
sensation in lower teeth and lower lip. following gland
Which nerve is involved? a. Parotid
a. Infra orbital nerve b. Pancreas
b. Buccal nerve c. Sublingual
c. Accessory nerve d. Submandibular
d. Ansa cervicalis e. Thyroid
140. Nerve to Medial Pterygoid supplies:
e. Inferior alveolar nerve
135. Pulsation felt at the antero- inferior
a. Levator veli palatini
angle of masseter muscle are from b. Palatoglossus
a. Facial artery c. Palatopharyngeus
b. Superficial temporal artery d. Stylopharyngeus
c. Maxillary artery e. Tensor veli palatini
d. Posterior auricular artery
e. Transverse facial artery
141. Following
is a content of
infratemporal fossa;
136. A patient was given nerve block for a. Masseter
extraction of mandibular last molar. It b. Medial pterygoid
resulted in drooping of angle of mouth c. Facial nerve
d. Buccinators

20
 e. Maxillary artery
142. Infection from nasal cavity can travel
to pterygopalatine fossa through
a. Sphenopalatine foramen
b. Nasopalatine foramen
c. Lesser palatine canal
d. Greater palatine canal
e. Inferior meatus of nose.
143. A girl has a boil in danger area of
face, this infection can spread to
cavernous sinus through
a. Superior ophthalmic vein
b. Inferior ophthalmic vein
c. Deep facial vein
d. Retromandibular vein
e. Deep auricular vein
CRANIAL NERVES
144. A patient has deep pain in head in
head between orbit and upper jaw;
which nerve is involved
a. Maxillary nerve
b. Ophthalmic nerve
c. Mandibular nerve
d. Axillary nerve
e. Facial nerve
145. Sensory innervation to posterior 1/3rd
of the tongue carried out by which
nerve
a. Hypoglossal
b. Auriculotemporal
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Vagus
e. Chonda tympanic
146. An absent corneal reflex indicates
problem with which two cranial
nerves?
a. V, VII
b. VI, X
c. III, VII
d. III, IV
e. V, VIII
147. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia
reports sharp pain in upper lip and
nose, which branch of trigeminal
nerve is affected?
a. Ophthalamic
b. Maxillary
c. Mandibular
d. Lacrimal
e. Corneal
148. A 5o year female presented with
drooping of lower eyelid and sagging
of angle of mouth of the right side.
Investigations revealed a tumor in
parotid gland of the right side. Which
of the following diseases is the woman
suffering from;
a. Bell’s palsy
b. Hemangioma
c. Hemiplegia
d. Trigeminal neuralgia
e. Cluster headaches
149. The number of cervical
sympathetic ganglia are
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
e. Six
150. Loss of taste sensations of anterior
part of tongue is due to damage to:
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
e. Vagus nerve
151. The number of para sympathetic
ganglia in head region are
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
152. Patient complaints of change in
voice. On examination, the soft palate
is sagging down and immobile,
damage to which nerve explains the
symptoms?
a. Chorda tympani
b. Glossopharyngeal

21
 c. Hypoglossal d. Thyrocervical trunk
d. Vagus e. Common carotid artery
e. Lingual 159. Internal jugular vein is
153. Gag reflex occurs due to one of the continuation of
following nerve: a. Cavernous sinus
a. Trochlear nerve b. Sigmoid sinus
b. Facial nerve c. Superior sagittal sinus
c. Lingual nerve d. Posterior auricular vein
d. Trigeminal nerve e. Retromandibular vein
e. Vagus nerve 160. Root value of ansa cervicalis is
154. Patient complaints of change in a. C1 + C2
voice. On examination, the soft palate b. C1+ C2+ C3
is sagging down and immobile, c. C2 + C3+C4
damage to which nerve explains the d. C3 + C4+C$
symptoms? e. C4+C$+C6
a. Chorda tympani 161. Posterior Triangle is subdivided
b. Glossopharyngeal by which one of the following muscle:
c. Hypoglossal a. Posterior belly of digastric
d. Vagus b. Inferior belly of omohyoid
e. Lingual c. Superior belly of omohyoid
d. Sternothyroid
NECK e. Thyrohyoid
155. An angiogram of 45 years old man 162. As the posterior belly of digastric
shows an occlusion of thyro-cervical muscle is derived from 2nd pharyngeal
trunk. This obstruction could produce arch, it is innervated by branch of
a marked decrease in blood flow in following cranial nerve.
which of following arteries? a. V
a. Superior thoracic artery b. VII
b. Transverse cervical artery c. IX
c. Ascending cervical artery d. X
d. Deep cervical artery e. XI
e. Inferior thyroid artery 163. A patient came to OPD with
157. A 17 year old boy receives an shrugging of right shoulder and face
injury to phrenic nerve by a knife turned to left side. He was diagnosed
wound in neck. The damaged nerve as having torticollis. The nerve
leads to paralysis of; involved is
a. Digastric a. Lingual
b. Diaphragm b. Accessory
c. omohyoid c. Hypoglossal
d. Sternothyroid d. Glossopharyngeal
e. Thyrohyoid e. Vagus
158. Superficial temporal artery is a 164. The layer of cervical fascia
terminal branch of forming sheath of parotid gland is
a. Subclavian artery a. Investing layer
b. External carotid artery b. Pre tracheal layer
c. Brachiocephalic trunk c. Pre-vertebral layer

22
 d. Bucoopharyngeal layer
e. Platysma
165. Parasympathetic fibers to the otic
ganglion arise from
a. Occulomotor nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
e. Vagus nerve
166. The thyroid gland moves along
with the esophagus during swallowing
because of its enclosure within which
layer of deep cervical fascia?
a. Pre vertebral
b. Pre tracheal
c. Carotid sheath
d. Axillary sheath
e. Buccopharyngeal
168. The occipital triangle that
constitutes the upper and larger part
of the posterior triangle, is inferiorly
limited by the;
a. Omohyoid
b. Splenius capitis
c. Levator scapulae
d. Scaleni medius
e. Semispinalis capitis
169. a 45 year old male has been
stabbed on the back of neck in
occipital triangle, he is unable to lift
his shoulder, most likely nerve
damage is
a. Nerve to serratus anterior
b. Nerve to subclavius
c. Accessory nerve
d. Suprascapular nerve
e. Axillary nerve
170. 72 year old male has undergone an
esophagectomy due to carcinoma of
esophagus. A central venous line is
passed through internal jugular vein
for parentral nutrition. Internal
jugular vein drains into which vein
a. Subclavian vein
b. External jugular vein
c. Anterior jugular vein
d. Brachiocephalic vein
e. Retromandibular vein
171. 3 month old male child has a lump
in neck. Examination of the tissue
from the mass shows it to be thymus.
Which of the following structure has
same embryonic origin as that of
thymus
a. Lingual tonsil
b. Submandibular gland
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Thyroid gland
e. Sublingual gland
172. A patient comes with complain of
dyspnea when he lies down. On
examination you find a swelling in
front of neck. The most likely
diagnosis is
a. Thyroid nodule
b. Retrosternal goiter
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. Myxedema
e. Thyroid carcinoma
173. 43 years old male was brought to
emergency department. He was
unconcious, and on examination was
pulseless. Doctor then checked his
pulse in the neck region. Pulse of
which of the following artery in neck
region can be palpated
a. Common carotid artery
b. Internal carotid artery
c. External carotid artery
d. Superior thyroid artery
e. Inferior thyroid artery
174. Spinal root of Accessory nerve
supplies:
a. Splenius capitus
b. Semispinalis capitus
c. Levator scapulae
d. Sternocleidomastoid
e. Scalenus medius
175. Artery that lies deep to
submandibular gland is:
a. Lingual
23
 b. Maxillary
c. Superior thyroid
d. Inferior thyroid
e. Facial
176. Subclavian artery is divided into
three parts by:
a. Scalenus anterior
b. Scalenus medius
c. Scalenus posterior
d. Splenius capitus
e. Omohyoid
177. Muscle that forms part of
superficial cervical fascia is :
a. Scalenus anterior
b. Scalenus medius
c. Scalenus posterior
d. Platysma
e. Omohyoid
178. Carotid sheath contains:
a. External carotid artery
b. External jugular vein
c. Superficial cervical lymph
nodes
d. Hypoglossal nerve
e. Vagus nerve
179. Roof of posterior triangle is
formed by:
a. Axillary sheath
b. Carotid sheath
c. Deep cervical fascia
d. Pretracheal fascia
e. Prevertebral fascia
180. Artery lying in supraclavicular
triangle is:
a. Superior thyroid
b. Superficial cervical
c. Posterior auricular
d. Suprascapular
e. Occipital
181. Common carotid divides into
terminal branches at:
a. Upper border of thyroid
cartilage
b. Lower border of thyroid
cartilage
c. Body of hyoid bone
d. Upper border of cricoid
cartilage
e. Lower border of cricoid
cartilage
182. Retromandibular vein is formed
by union of superficial temporal vein
with:
a. External jugular
b. Facial
c. posterior auricular
d. internal jugular
e. maxillary
183. The fibers that relay in pterygo-
palatine ganglion arise from
a. 3rd nerve
b. 5th nerve
c. 7th nerve
d. 9th nerve
e. 10th nerve
184. An angiogram of 45 years old man
shows an occlusion of costocervical
trunk. This obstruction could produce
a marked decrease in blood flow in
which of following arteries?
a. Superior thoracic artery
b. Transverse cervical artery
c. Ascending cervical artery
d. Deep cervical artery
e. Inferior thyroid artery
S
185. Superficial temporal artery is a
terminal branch of
a. Subclavian artery
b. External carotid artery
c. Brachiocephalic trunk
d. Thyrocervical trunk
e. Common carotid artery
186. Superior deep cervical nodes lie in:
a. Digastric triangle
b. Supraclavicular triangle
c. Carotid triangle
d. Submandibular triangle
e. Occipital triangle
187. The painless swelling that lies
along the anterior border of
24
 sternocleidomastoid is due to presence
of
a. Thyroglossal duct
b. Parathyroid
c. cervical lymphadenitis
d. Cervical sinus.
e. Pharyngeal tonsil
TMJ
188. A person is facing difficulty in
protruding the jaw, the function of
which muscle is impaired?
a. The anterior belly of digastric
b. The medial pterygoid
c. The lateral pterygoid
d. The masseter
e. The temporalis
189. Which of the following structures
lies at the level of C6
a. Carina
b. Middle cervical ganglion
c. Superior Cervical ganglion
d. Inferior Cervical ganglion
e. Stellate ganglion
190. A middle aged lady had fracture of
ramus of mandible, on examination; it
was found that there is loss of
sensation in lower teeth and lower lip.
Which nerve is involved?
a. Infra orbital nerve
b. Buccal nerve
c. Accessory nerve
d. Anscervicalis
e. Inferior alveolar nerve
SCALP
191. An artery most likely to be
ruptured in case of a batsman hit
by hard ball over his pterion is:
a. Supraorbital
b. Supratrochlear
c. Accessory meningeal
d. Maxillary
e. Middle meningeal
192. The layer of the scalp containing
arteries, veins and nerves is
a. Epidermis
b. Aponeuratic layer
c. Loose aerolar layer
d. Connective tissue layer
e. Pericranium
193. Veins directly connecting veins of
scalp to the dural sinuses are
a. Emissary veins
b. Cerebral veins
c. Diploic veins
d. Sub arachnoid veins
e. Valved veins
194. During a football match, goal
keeper was hit on his head. After
sometime on the field he developed
drowsiness. He was taken to
emergency where he was diagnosed
as a case of intra cranial
haemorrhage. The site of removal
of this clot is:
a. Pterion
b. Asterion
c. Glabella
d. Supra meatal triangle
e. Posterolateral fontanella
195. A sharp instrument passing
through the superior orbital fissure
would most likelysevere which of
the following structures?
a. Abducent nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Mandibular nerve
d. Maxillary nerve
e. Optic nerve
196. A man suffers fracture of skull at
the site of the Pterion, which vessel
is likely to be damaged:
a. Anterior cervical artery
b. Accessory meningeal artery
c. Superficial temporal artery
d. Middle meningeal artery
e. Superficial ophthalmic artery
25

NOSE
197. A patient suffering from sinusitis
is diagnosed with blocked frontal
sinus. Frontal sinus opens in which
part of lateral wall of nose:
a. Inferior meatus
b. Superior meatus
c. Sphenoethmoidal recess
d. Hiatus semilunaris
e. Infundibulum
198. A boy came to OPD with recurrent
episodes of nose bleeding. The duty
doctor examined the Little‘s area.
This area located in which part of
nose;
a. Roof
b. Floor
c. Lateral wall
d. Septum
e. Turbinate
199. Trauma to which of the following
structures could result in leakage of
cerebro spinal fluid in to nasal
cavity
a. Foraneve spinosum
b. Inglar formen
c. Foramen magnum
d. Foramen orale
e. Cribrlfocm plate of ellimoid
bone
200. 48 years old lady, hypertensive
presented in emergency with
profuse nasal bleeding (epistaxis),
the vessels involve:
a. Sphenopalatine
b. Facial & nasal
c. Sphenopalatine & facial
d. Nasal & sphenopalatine
e. Inferior labial
201. The nasolacrimal duct drains into
a. Superior meatus of nose
b. Inferior meatus of nose
c. Nasolacrimal sac
d. Middle meatus of nose
e. Sphenoethmoidal recess
EAR
202. A patient presents with inability to
stand straight and there is loss of
balance, the structure affected is;
a. Cochlea
b. Ossicles of ear
c. Oval window
d. Vestibular apparatus
e. Promontory
203. After a bout of upper respiratory
infection, a patient complaints of
pain of left ear. On examination a
discharge was coming out of left
ear. Which of the following
structure is most likely to be
damaged?
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Auditory tube
c. Malleus
d. Stapedius
e. Tensor tympanic muscle
204. Tympanic antrum communicates
anteriorly with
a. Tegmen tympani
b. Sigmoid sinus
c. Epitympanic recess
d. Suprameatal triangle
e. Deep cervical lymph nodes
205. The lesion of which nerve can lead
to hyperacousis
a. Vestibulocochlear
b. Trigeminal
c. Facial
d. Vagus
e. Glossopharyngeal
206. A patient presented with
imbalance of body following
infection of ear. Along which wall
of middle ear the infection has
progressively spread?
26
 a. Lateral wall
b. Medial wall
c. Anterior wall
d. Posterior wall
e. Superior wall
207. Which nerve supplies the medial
side of tympanic membrane:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Auriculotemporal nerve
c. Auricular branch of vagus
nerve
d. Lesser occipital nerve
e. Facial nerve
EYE
208. A 45 years old man had his eye
ball rotated medially after a road
accident, which eye muscle is
paralyzed?
a. The medial rectus
b. The inferior rectus
c. The superior rectus
d. The lateral rectus
e. The superior oblique
209. Abducent nerve supplies:
a. Superior rectus
b. Inferior rectus
c. Medial rectus
d. Lateral rectus
e. Inferior oblique muscle
210. Superior orbital fissure transmits:
a. Olfactory nerve
b. Optic nerve
c. Occulomotor nerve
d. Maxillary nerve
e. Facial nerve
211. The infra orbital nerve is a branch
of:
a. Ophthalmic branch of 5th
nerve
b. Maxillary branch of 5th
nerve
c. Mandibular branch of 5th
nerve
d. Facial nerve
e. Optic nerve
212. A 20 years old female came to
ophthalmologist for eye checkup.
Doctor asked her to first look
medially and then down. The
competency of which muscle is he
checking
a. Superior rectus
b. Inferior rectus
c. Medial rectus
d. Superior oblique
e. Inferior oblique
213. A patient presented with problem
in focusing of distant objects
moving towards him. The difficulty
in focusing is due to loss of
convergence resulting from which
of the following muscle being
damaged.
a. Lateral rectus
b. Medial rectus
c. Superior rectus
d. Inferior rectus
e. Superior oblique
214. Permanent dilatation of pupil is
due to damage of which nerve:
a. Facial
b. Hypoglossal
c. Maxillary
d. Occulomotor
e. Optic
215. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused
by lesion in:
a. Lateral geniculate body
b. Optic tract
c. Optic nerve
d. Optic chiasma
e. Optic radiation
216. A patient of myasthenia gravis
presents with drooping of eyelids,
the muscle affected is
a. Oblicularis oculi
b. Levator palpabrae
superioris
c. Superior rectus
d. Inferior rectus
e. Superior oblique
27
217. The cell bodies of parasympathetic
axons supplying the lacrimal gland
are in
a. Otic ganglion
b. Pterygopalatine ganglion
c. submandibular ganglion
d. Ciliary ganglion
e. Superior cervical ganglion
218. Preganglionic secretomotor fibers
to the lacrimal gland relay in
a. Sub-mandibular ganglion
b. Pterygopalatine ganglion
c. Otic ganglion
d. Geniculate ganglion
e. Trigeminal ganglion
219. The orbicularis oculi is innervated
by
a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
e. Facial nerve
220. Which part of eye is avascular
a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Cornea
d. Retina
e. Sclera
221. After having a road side accident,
a 52 years old man presents with
inability to look downwards and
outwards. Damage to which nerve
results in this condition:
a. Optic Nerve
b. Occulomotor nerve
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Ophthalmic nerve
e. Abducent nerve
222. When a patient is asked to
protrude his tongue, it tests the
competence of the innervation to
the muscles of tongue. A deviation
of the protruded tongue to the right
indicates damage to
a. Right hypoglossal nerve
b. Left hypoglossal nerve
c. Right lingual nerve
d. Left lingual nerve
e. Right glossopharyngeal nerve
223. A patient with an injury to the
lateral aspect of skull may have
suffered intra cranial hemorrhage.
He sustained a brief loss of
consciousness followed by coma.
This presentation is seen in
a. Epidural hematomas
b. Increased pressure of
ventricles
c. Intra parenchymal
hemorrhage
d. Sub arachnoid hematoma
e. Sub dural hematoma
224. The type of hematoma resulting
from a case of accident with
fracture over pterion is;
a. Extradural
b. Subdural
c. Intracranial
d. Extracranial
e. Subarachnoid
NEUROSCIENCES
CRANIAL NERVES
225. Which of the following nerves has
a parasympathetic component?
a. Optic
b. Trochlear
c. Facial
d. Accessory
e. Hypoglossal
226. Facial colliculus overlies the
nucleus of:
a. Abducent nerve
b. Occulomotor nerve
c. Olfactory nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
28
 e. Vagus nerve 233. The cranial nerve emerging from
227. The pure motor cranial nerve is: posterior aspect of midbrain is:
a. Optic a. Trigeminal
b. Trigeminal b. Vagus
c. Trochlear c. Vestibulocochlear
d. Olfactory d. Trochlear
e. Facial e. Occulomotor
228. Which one of the following cranial 234. Which one of the following is
nerve emerges from anterior associated with parasympathetic
surface of midbrain : part of autonomic system:
a. Trigeminal
b. Vagus a. Splanchnic nerves
c. Vestibular b. Suprarenal medulla
d. Trochlear c. Pelvic splanchnic nerves*
e. Occulomotor d. White rami
229. The cranial nerve composed e. Paravertebral ganglia
entirely of afferent fibers is
a. Oculomotor 235. The cranial nerve emerging at
b. Trochlear pons medial to middle cerebellar
c. hypoglossal peduncle is
d. Accessory a. Abducent
e. Vestibulocochlear b. Facial
c. Trigeminal
230. The cranial nerve emerging d. Hypoglossal
between pons and medulla is: e. Occulomotor
a. Trigeminal 238. The motor nucleus of trigeminal
b. Vagus nerve lies in
c. Vestibulocochlear a. Spinal cord
d. Trochlear b. Medulla
e. Occulomotor c. Pons
231. The cranial nerve emerging d. Midbrain
between olive and inferior e. Diencephlon
cerebellar peduncle is: 239. The inability to protrude tongue is
a. Trigeminal due to damage to
b. Vagus a. Vagal triangle
c. Vestibulocochlear b. Hypoglossal triangle
d. Trochlear c. Third ventricle
e. Occulomotor d. Thalamus
232. Which of the following nerves has e. Hypothalamus
a parasympathetic component? 240. The cranial nerve that resemble a
a. Optic neuronal tract is
b. Trochlear a. 1
c. Occulomotor b. 2
d. Accessory c. 3
e. Hypoglossal d. 4
e. 5

29
241. The cranial nerve that has d. Retina
multiple nerve roots instead of e. Spinal cord
single cord is 247. The neuronal cell bodies in spinal
a. 1 cord are mainly located in
b. 2 a. Central canal
c. 3 b. Central grey matter
d. 4 c. White matter
e. 5 d. Dorsal column
e. Anterior commissure
242. The example of parasympathetic 248. Regarding the structural
ganglia in body is; organization of the CNS:
a. paravertebral a. White matter consists of nerve
b. prevertebral cell bodies
c. celiac b. Grey matter consists of nerve cell
d. otic fibers
e. hypogastric c. Dendrites take impulse away
243. The parasympathetic outflow in from cell body
the spinal cord occurs at levels: d. Axons bring the impulse towards
a. S1-2 the cell body
b. S3–5 e. Neuroglia are the supporting
c. S1–3 cells
d. S2–4 249. Which of the following ganglia is
e. L1-2 related to the sympathetic system:
244. The general visceral motor nuclei a. Otic
that form part of parasympathetic b. Ciliary
portion of the autonomic nervous c. Pterygopalatine
d. Paravertebral
system is;
e. Submandibular
a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus BRAIN.
b. Nucleus ambiguous 250. A lesion resulting in expressive
c. Mesencephalic nucleus (motor) aphasia would most likely
d. Mammillary body be found in
e. Spinal nucleus a. Temporal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
245. The sympathetic outflow in the c. Parietal lobe
spinal cord is at the level of: d. Occipital lobe
a. T1-12 e. Prefrontal lobe
b. T1–L2 251. The largest bundle of commissural
c. L1–3 fiber in brain is:
d. L1-S2 a. Anterior commissure
e. S1-2 b. Posterior commissure
c. Habenular commissure
246. The bipolar neurons are found in: d. Corpus callosum
a. Central nervous system e. Fornix
b. Autonomic ganglia 252. Fornix is composed of nerve fibers
c. Spinal ganglia that constitute efferent system of:

30
 a. Hypothalmus a. Flaccid paralysis
b. Hippocampus b. Rapid muscle atrophy
c. Thalamus c. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
d. Basal ganglia
d. Positive Babinski sign
e. Corpus striatum
253. Internal capsule is an example of: e. Intention tremors
a. Projection fibers
258. A 15 year old girl presented with
b. Long association fibers
loss of initiative and inappropriate
c. Short association fibers
social behavior. The lesion is most
d. Commissural fibers
likely in;
e. Stria medullaris
254. Lesions of an area in one
a. Middle frontal gyrus
hemisphere that result in paralysis
b. Calcarine sulcus
of the contralateral extremities,
c. Precentral gyrus
with the finer and more skilled
d. Post central gyrus
movements affected most is;
e. Middle temporal gyru Parietal lobe
a. Primary somesthetic area
b. Primary motor area
259. Bilateral damage of which
c. Secondary motor area.
structure result in the inability to
d. Secondary somesthetic area
form long term memories?
e. Somesthetic association area
255. After a road side accident there
a. Limbic system
was hematoma in the region of
b. Amygdala
lateral sulcus. The area most likely
c. Corpus callosum
to be affected is
d. Hypothalamus
a. Primary somesthetic area
e. Ventral tegmental area
b. Primary motor area
260. The following form the limbic
c. Secondary motor area.
d. Secondary somesthetic area system
e. Primary auditory area
a. The cingulate gyrus & the precentral
256. The blood supply of visual area is gyrus
through; b. The cingulate & hippocampal
gyrus
a. Anterior cerebral artery c. The cingulate and post central gyrus
b. Middle cerebral artery d. The cingulate and superior frontal
c. Posterior cerebral artery gyrus
d. Superior cerebellar artery e. The superior frontal ,and
e. Medullary artery parahippocampal gyrus

257. A patient after a cerebrovascular 261. All taste fibers pass to:
accident was diagnosed as having
a. Inferior salivatory nucleus
upper motor neuron lesion because
b. Superior salivatory nucleus
of the presence of;
c. Hypothalamus
d. Nucleus ambiguus
31
e. Nucleus of Tractus Solitarius
262. After a road side accident a man
was brought to emergency with
signs of neuronal damage. O/E
there was ptosis, constricted pupil
and anhydrosis. The diagosis was;
a. Horner syndrome
b. Medial medullary syndrome
c. Lateral medullary syndrome
d. Pontine hemorrhage
e. Budchiari syndrome
263. A 17 year old male is admitted
with a gun sot wound to his left
temporal cortex. There was damage
to the secondary visual area of the
cerebral cortex associated with
a. Impaired recognition of visual
forms
b. Impaired comprehension of speech
c. Impaired vocalization
d. Dyslexia
e. Loss of short memory
264. A 3 year old boy was brought to
neurology OPD by his parents with
the complaint of unusual large head
with prominent veins. CT scan
revealed communicating
hydrocephalus. The ventricular
system communicates with the
subarachnoid space at the:
a. Telachoroidea
b. Arachnoid granulations
c. Dural sinus
d. Roof of the 4th ventricle*
e. Terminal ventricle
265. A 4-½-year-old boy was taken to a
neurologist because his mother
noticed that the child walked with
an unsteady gait and often fell
backward. He had tendency to be
unsteady on standing up as well.
The investigations revealed
medulloblastoma of vermis.The
major afferent input to the
flocculonodular lobe is from the:
a. Nucleus dorsalis
b. Red nucleus
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Midbrain reticular formation
266. Fibers of striae medullaris thalami
cross the midline in which one of
the following commissures?
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Habenular *
d. Commissure of fornix
e. Corpus callosum
267. During nervous examination, the
physician asked the patient to stand
with his toes and heels together and
to close his eyes. The patient
immediately started to sway and
fall. He was also unable to detect
any vibration when a vibrating
tuning fork was placed on the
medial malleolus of either leg.
Which one of the following tracts is
involved?
a. Lateral spinothalmic tract
b. Faciculus Gracilis*
c. Anterior Spinocerebellar
d. Posterior Spinocerebellar
e. Cuneocerebellar
32
 a. Superior colliculus
268. A 72 year old hypertensive b. Lateral geniculate body
businessman was brought to RH c. Superior brachium
emergency as he was unable to
d. Pretectal nucleus*
move his right arm and leg.
Although able to comprehend, he e. Visual cortex
was unable to talk. This inability is
271. A young man presented in OPD
due to involvement of which one of
the following areas of cerebral with ipsilateral ophthalmoplegia
cortex? and contralateral paralysis of the
lower part of face, tongue, arm and
a. Broca’s * leg. The eyeball is deviated laterally
b. Wernicke’s because of the paralysis of the
c. Primary auditory medial rectus muscle; there is
d. Secondary auditory
drooping of the upper lid, pupil is
e. Motor
dilated and fixed to light and
269. An 8-year-old boy with a severe accommodation. The condition is;
earache on the right side was taken
to a pediatrician. On examination, a. Weber syndrome
the boy was found to have severe b. Benedikt Syndrome
right-sided otitis media with acute c. Medial Medullary Syndrome
mastoiditis. While he was being d. Budd Chiari syndrome
examined, he vomited. His body e. Pontine hemorrhage
temperature was slightly elevated.
The MRI showed a small, well- 272. The red nucleus is a rounded mass
defined, right cerebral abscess of gray matter situated between the
which in this patient was most cerebral aqueduct and the
likely located in: substantia nigra in;
a. Frontal lobe
b. Thalamus a. Midbrain
c. Occipital lobe b. Pons
d. Temporal lobe c. Medulla
e. Parietal lobe d. Spinal cord
e. Thalamus
BRAIN STEM & RETICULAR
FORMATION
273. The parasympathetic innervation
270. During an eye examination for controlling the parotid salivary
Army selection, the doctor was not gland passing through
able to elicit pupillary light reflex in glossopharyngeal nerve, arises from
a 17 year old boy after throwing the:
light in his right eye. Which one of a. Superior salivatory nucleus
the following structures is most b. Inferior salivatory nucleus.
likely damaged in this case? c. Nucleus of tractus solitarius
d. Nucleus ambiguos

33
 e. Facial nerve nucleus c. Level of olive
274. The posterior surface of pons d. Level of facial colliculus
contains: e. Level of forth ventricle
a. Medial eminence
b. Lateral eminence 280. In the groove between the pyramid
c. Stria medullaris and olive, the nerve emerges is,
d. Vagal triangle
e. Hypoglossal triangle a. Abducent
275. The cranial nerve emerging b. Facial
between olive and inferior c. vestibulocochlear nerves
cerebellar peduncle is d. hypoglossal
a. Abducent e. vagus
b. facial
c. vestibulocochlear 281. The inferior cerebellar peduncles
d. Glossopharyngeal contain
e. Hypoglossal
276. A 65 year old man was admitted to a. Cerebrocerebellar fibers
emergency after a road traffic b. cortico-olivary fibers.
accident. On examination it was c. Cerebroreticullar fibers
found that he had bilateral pinpoint d. corticoreticular fibers
pupils. Most likely site of e. posterior spinocerebellar fibers
haemorrhage is: 282. The only nerve, that leave its
a. Upper half of medulla nucleus and pass posteriorly
b. Lower half of medulla around the central gray matter is;
c. Tectum a. Olfactory
d. Tegmentum b. Optic
e. Pons c. Oculomotor
277. Facial colliculus overlies the d. Trochlear
nucleus of: e. Trigeminal
a. Abducent nerve 283. The most common effect of
b. Occulomotor nerve damage to the reticular formation
c. Olfactory nerve is,
d. Trigeminal nerve a. persistent unconsciousness
e. Vagus nerve b. Loss of movement
278. Axons forming the internal c. Sensory loss
arcuate fibers synapse in d. Loss of visual reflexes
a. medial lemniscus e. Loss of sphincter control
b. dorsal horn of spinal cord 284. An old man died in the hospital
c. thalamus with a cerebral tumor. He had
d. cerebral cortex always been intellectually very
e. nucleus gracilis bright but for the past 6 months, he
279. The most inferior level of section had difficulty in recalling where he
of medulla is had placed things, such as his pipe.
He also had difficulty in recalling
a. Level of Decussation of Lemnisci recent news events, and just before
b. Level of Decussation of Pyramids he died, he could not remember

34
 that his brother had visited him the e. The central canal does not
day before. Which part of the brain communicate with the fourth
was being affected by the ventricle of the brain.
expanding tumor. 288. A doctor asked the patient to
a. Reticular system recognize a familiar object by
b. Limbic system placing it in his hands with eyes
c. Thalamus closed. The doctor is checking the
d. Hypothalamus integrity of which of the following
e. Cortex pathways?
a. Spinotectal tract
SPINAL CORD b. Dorsal column
285. Spinal cord ends below at the level c. Posterior spinocerebellar tract
of: d. Spino olivary tract
a. Upper border of L1 e. Spinothalamic tract
b. Lower border of L2 289. In injury to brain stem and spinal
c. Upper border of L3 cord contra lateral loss of sense of
d. Lower border of L1 pain and temperature will be due to
e. Lower border of L3 damage of:
Ans : B a. Pyramidal tract
b. Anterior spino cerebellar
c. Posterior spino cerebellar
286. The group of neurons situated at the d. Lateral spino thalamic
apex of the posterior gray column e. Posterior white column
throughout the length of the spinal cord is 290. The spinal cord ends at which
a. Nucleus proprius vertebral level in adults?
b. Nucleus dorsalis a. L1- lower border
c. Substantia gelatinosa b. L2- lower border
d. Clarke's column c. L3- lower border
e. Gray commissure d. L3- upper border
e. L1- upper border
291. Regarding spinal cord
287. The following statements concern a. It is covered by pia mater
the spinal cord: b. Anterior grey horn contains
a. The spinal cord has a cervical motor neurons
enlargement for the brachial plexus c. The central canal is present in the
b. The spinal cord possesses spinal anterior horn
nerves that are attached to the cord d. Lateral horns of grey matter is in
by anterior and posterior rami. lumbar regions
c. In the adult, the spinal cord usually e. It has an inner core of white
ends inferiorly at the lower border of matter and an outer core of grey
the fourth lumbar vertebra. matter
d. The ligamentum denticulatum 292. Typical spinal nerve is a:
anchors the spinal cord to the a. Sympathetic nerve
pedicles of the vertebra along each b. Parasympathetic nerve
side. c. Mixed nerve
d. Motor nerve

35
 e. Sensory nerve
293. The cell body of first order neuron
of ascending pathway of spinal cord
is located in
a. Posterior root ganglion
b. Posterior grey column
c. Lateral grey column
d. Anterior grey column
e. Thalamus
294. Which one of the following tracts
is present in posterior white column
of spinal cord:
a. Fasiculus cuneatus
b. Tecto spinal
c. Cortico spinal
d. Vestibule spinal
e. Spinocerebellar
295. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
carries following sensation
a. Crude touch
b. Pain and thermal
c. Discriminative Touch
d. Vibratory Sense
e. Conscious Muscle Joint
296. The Babinski sign is positive in
neonates due to absence of
myelination of one of the following
tract i.e,:
a. corticospinal
b. rubrospinal
c. tectospinal
d. olivospinal
e. cerebellospinal
297. Transverse pontocerebellar fibres
are part of
a. Reticulospinal tract
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Vestibulospinal tract
e. Tectospinal tract
298. In adults the spinal cord ends at
which level:
a. Lower border of L1
b. Upper Border of L3
c. Lower border of L4
d. Lower border of L2
e. Lower border of L3
299. In injury to spinal cord contra
lateral loss of sense of touch and two
point discrimination will be due to
damage of:
a. Pyramidal tract
b. Anterior spino cerebellar
c. Posterior spino cerebellar
d. Lateral spino thalamic
e. Posterior white column
300. In spinal cord, the tract carrying
sensation of position is
a. Anterior spinothalamic
b. Posterior spinocerebellar
c. Lateral spinothalamic
d. Spinotectal
e. Spinoreticular
301. The group of neurons situated at
the apex of the posterior gray
column throughout the length of the
spinal cord is
a. Nucleus proprius
b. Nucleus dorsalis
c. Substantia gelatinosa
d. Clarke's column
e. Gray commissure
302. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
carries following sensation
a. Crude touch
b. Pain and thermal
c. Discriminative Touch
d. Vibratory Sense
e. Conscious Muscle Joint
303. After a road side traffic accident
the individual became unconscious.
Afterwards it was noticed that he
does not know about the position
and movements of the ipsilateral
limbs below the level of the lesion.
With his eyes closed, he was unable
to tell where the limb or part of the
limb is in space. The damaged tract
was
a. Anterior spinothalamic
b. Fasciculus Gracilis
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 c. Rubrospinal
d. Spinotectal
e. Spinoreticular
304. The Babinski sign in which great
toe becomes dorsally flexed, and the
other toes fan outward in response to
scratching the skin along the lateral
aspect of the sole of the foot. is
present during the adult life because
of damage to one of the following
tract i.e,:
a. corticospinal
b. rubrospinal
c. tectospinal
d. olivospinal
e. cerebellospinal
MENINGES & SINUSES & BBB
305. CT scan of 3 year old boy revealed
communicating hydrocephalus. The
CSF drains from ventricles to the
subarachnoid space at the:
a. Telachoroidea
b. Arachnoid granulations
c. Dural sinus
d. Roof of 4th ventricle
e. Terminal ventricle
306. Which one of the following
structures runs through the
cavernous sinus
a. Trochlear nerve
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Occulomotor nerve
d. Ophthalmic nerve
e. Maxillary nerve
307. The structure that runs through
the lateral wall of cavernous sinus
is:
a. Abducent nerve
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Occulomotor nerve
d. Ophthalmic nerve
e. Vagus nerve
308. Occipital sinus is located in which
one of the folds of dura matter:
a. Falx cerebri
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. Diaphragma sellae
e. Tentorial notch
309. The sickle-shaped fold of dura
mater that lies in the midline
between the two cerebral
hemispheres is
a. tentorium cerebelli.
b. falx cerebelli
c. diaphragma sellae
d. falx cerebri
e. sella turcica
310. Extra-dural hemorrhage results
from injury to
a. Middle meningeal artery
b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Superior cerebral veins
d. Dural venous sinuses
e. Emissary veins
311. The sinus that occupies the line of
junction of falx cerebri with the
tentorium cerebelli is
a. Superior sagittal
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus.
d. Straight sinus
e. Petrosal sinus
BASAL GANGLIA AND
DIENCEPHLON
312. A 45-year-old man was suffering
from tremors and difficulty in
walking. O/E he had slow & resting
tremors and rigidity appearing as
series of jerks. The diagnosis was
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome
b. Thalamic syndrome
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Frontal lobe syndrome
37
 e. Pontine hemorrhage d. Pulvinar
313. Which of the following thalamic e. Cuneus
nuclei has a motor function?
VENTRICLES & BLOOD
a. Lateral dorsal nucleus SUPPLY
b. Media dorsal nucleus
c. Ventral lateral nucleus 318. Regarding third ventricle:
d. Ventral posterior nucleus a. Posterior wall is formed by pineal
recess.
e. Lateral posterior nucleus
b. Communicates directly with lateral
ventricles.
314. The following statement is true
c. Tela choroidea projects from the
regarding the diencephalon floor.
d. Lying in the floor of is optic nerve
a. Inferior surface is formed by the
e. Wall is not lined with ependyma
thalamus 319. Regarding the lateral ventricle; it
b. The lateral surface is bounded by is connected with 3rd ventricle via
external capsule a. The cerebral aqueduct
c. The superior surface is concealed by b. foreman Magendie
the fornix c. foramen Luscka
d. Diencephalon is divided into d. Foramen Monro
e. Foramen cecum
asymmetrical halves.
e. It can be divided into three major 320. The foreman Magendie is an
parts. aperture in the
a. roof of the third ventricle
315. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in b. roof of the forth ventricle
substantia nigra can result in c. floor of the third ventricle
d. floor of the forth ventricle
a. Huntington disease e. body of the lateral ventricle
b. Parkinson ‘s chorea 321. Choroid plexus in 4th ventricle is
c. Sydenham chorea supplied by a choroidal branch from
d. Ballism a. Anterior cerebral artery
e. Hemiballism b. Internal carotid artery
c. Middle cerebral artery
316. The lateral surface of the caudate d. Posterior cerebral artery
nucleus is directly related to e. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
a. internal capsule
b. lentiform nucleus
c. external capsule 322. A50 year old hypertensive man
d. claustrum complaints of numbness and
e. insula weakness in his left leg and foot.
317. The posterior end of thalamus is Occlusion of which of the following
expanded to form the vessels may be reason for this
a. Tectum
b. Brachium a. Anterior choroidal artery
c. Subthalamus

38
 b. Anterior cerebral artery 326. A 40-year-old woman sustained
c. Internal carotid artery severe head injuries in road traffic
d. Middle cerebral artery accident. Following a slow but
e. Posterior cerebral artery uneventful recovery, she was
323. The terminal branch of basilar discharged from the hospital. Six
artery is months later, the patient started to
a. The anterior cerebral artery complain of frequency of 336. 336.
b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery micturition and passage of very large
c. The posterior cerebral artery quantities of pale urine. She always
d. The posterior inferior cerebellar seemed to be thirsty. She was 336.
artery 336.diagnosed as having diabetes
e. The superior cerebellar artery insipidus. Which one of the following
324. A 20-year-old boy suffered head structures is damaged leading to
injury while racing on his above symptoms:
motorbike. CT scan showed a long
crescent shaped hyper dense rim of a. Thalamus
blood indicating subdural b. Hypothalamus*
hematoma. Subdural hematoma c. Epithalamus
results from tearing of: d. Subthalamus
e. Metathalamus
a. Superior cerebral veins*
b. Superficial middle cerebral 327. The segments of the spinal cord
veins particularly liable to ischemic
c. Middle meningeal artery necrosis is;
d. Lenticulosrtriate artery b. second cervical
e. Deep middle cerebral veins c. fourth thoracic
d. tenth thoracic
325. A 55 year old man was admitted to e. twelfth thoracic
the hospital with the sudden onset of f. first lumbar
severe dizziness (vertigo) and
vomiting. The patient also showed 328. The posterior communicating
drooping of the right upper eyelid artery is a small vessel that
and constricted right pupil. When originates from
asked to protrude his tongue
out ,the tip of the tongue pointed to a. external carotid artery
the right side. Such symptoms are a b. internal carotid artery
clue to blockage of which one of the c. anterior cerebral
following artery? d. posterior cerebral
e. middle cerebral
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar
b. Anterior spinal 329. The hemorrhage, that generally is
c. Basilar due to rupture of an atheromatous
d. Posterior inferior cerebellar* artery and most common in
e. Superior cerebellar patients with hypertension, is

a. epidural

39
 b. subdural e. Urinary bladder
c. subarachnoid 334. Renal pyramid and its
d. cerebral associated cortex is referred as :
e. cerebellar a. Nephron
b. Medulla
330. The “face area” of the precentral c. Medullary ray
gyrus is supplied by;
d. Renal column
e. Renal lobe
a. anterior communicating
b. Internal carotid 335. Juxta glomerular cells are
c. anterior cerebral artery part of
d. middle cerebral artery a. Distal convulated tubule
e. posterior cerebral artery b. Proximal convulated tubule
c. Afferent arteriole
331. The vertebral artery, a branch of d. Efferent arteriole
the first part of the subclavian e. Mesangium
artery, ascends in the neck by
336. A student identified dome
passing through the foramina in
the transverse processes of; shaped cells , star shaped lumen
a. upper two cervical vertebrae and a thick muscularis externa
b. upper three cervical vertebrae on light microscopy. The slide is
of which on of the following
c. upper four cervical vertebrae structure?
a. Kidney
d. upper five cervical vertebrae b. Major calyx
c. Minor calyx
e. upper six cervical vertebrae d. Ureter
e. Urinary bladder
Urogenetal 337. The central structure of a
332. Artery present at renal lobule is formed by:
corticomedullary junction of kidney is a. Cortical column
: b. Interlobular artery
a. Arcuate artery c. Renal hilum
b. Interlobular artery d. Arcuate artery
c. Interlobar artery e. Medullary ray
d. Renal artery
Endocrine system
e. Segmental artery
333. Transitional epithelium is found 338. n inactive state thyroid follicles
in : are lined by which one of the following
epithelium?
a. Distal convulated tubule
b. Gall bladder a. High columnar
c. Proximal convulated tubule b. Cuboidal
d. Rectum c. Squamous

40
 d. Stratified squamous a. Principal cell
e. Stratified cuboidal b. Oxyphil cell
339. Thyrotropin increases the : c. Parafollicular cells
a. Colloid formation d. Follicular cells
b. Height of the follicular e. Chromaffin cells
epithelium 345. Characteristic feature of
c. Number of follicular cells parathyroid gland is:
d. Number of mitochondria a. Parietal cells
e. Thyroglobulin in follicles b. Parafollicular cells
340. Histological section of c. Pyramidal cell
parathyroid gland from a 20 year d. Myoepithelial cells
old male will show clusters of e. Oxyphil cells
which one of the following cells? 346. Acidophil cells in anterior
a. Follicular pituitary include:
b. C a. Corticotrophs
c. Oxyphil b. Gonadotrophs
d. Oxyntic c. Thyrotrophs
e. Principal d. Somatotrophs
341. A student while examining e. Colid forlic
a slide observes colloid filled 347. Pars distalis ofpituitary
follices. Most likely structure is gland is a component of :
a. Adrenal gland a. Adenohypophysis
b. Parathyroid gland b. Hypophyseal cavity
c. Pitutary gland c. Neurohypophysis
d. Pineal gland d. Posterior pituitary
e. Thyroid gland e. Infundibulum
342. Which of the following cell 348. TSH (Thyrotropin)
types commonly has prominent increases the :
lipid droplets in the cytoplasm? a. Colloid formation
a. Cells of the adrenal medulla b. Height of the follicular
b. Theca lutein cells epithelium
c. Parathyroid chief cells c. Number of follicular cells
d. Sertoli cells d. Number of mitochondria
e. Thyroid parafollicular cells e. Thyroglobulin in follicles
343. Which of the following cells 349. Chief cells viewed under
can be classified as an acidophil? light microscopy helps in
a. Gonadotropic cells identifying slide of which one of
b. Corticotropic cells the following gland?
c. Thyrotropic cells a. Adrenal
d. Mammotropic cells b. Mammary
e. Pituicytes c. Parathyroid
344. Adrenal medulla contains d. Testis
which ane of the following cells e. Thyroid

41
 350. A medical student observed 354. The other name for lung
a slide under light microscope macrophage is;
showing a structure having islet a. Kupffer cell
cells. These celss are a feature of b. Histiocyte
a. Liver c. Dust cell
b. Exocrine pancreas d. Langerhan cell
c. Endocrine pancreas e. Microglia
d. Thyroid 355. Regarding histological
e. Parathyroid structure of respiratory system
351. Hypothalamic releasing mark one correct statement:
hormones are trasported from the a. Bronchi have elastic cartilage
hypothalamus to the anterior b. Terminal bronchioles are
pituitary by way of : lined by simple squamous
a. General bloodstream epithelium
b. Portal system of blood c. Respiratory bronchiole have
vessels small pieces of hyaline
c. Direct contract between the cartilage
two organs d. Alveolar ducts originate from
d. Nervous tract terminal bronchioles
e. Infundibulum e. Clara cells are present in
352. A second year medial mucosa of bronchioles
student could not recognize a slide 356. The clara cells are present
of anterior pituitary . which point in
she has to look for identification ? a. Extra pulmonary bronchi
a. Cluster of cells with secretory b. Intra pulmonary bronchi
granules c. Respiratory bronchioles
b. Cystic structure d. Terminals bronchioles
c. Abundant vessels e. Alveolar sacs
d. Presence of herring bodies
CNS
e. Melanin granules in
357. The hall mark of a
endocrine cells
neuronal cell is
353. Characteristic feature of a. Mitochondria
parathyroid gland is: b. Golgi apparatus
a. C-cells c. Ribosomes
b. Parafollicular cells d. Nissel granules
c. Spongiocytes e. Lysosomes
d. Myoepithelial cells 358. Ependymal cells line the:
e. Oxyphil cells a. Tracts
b. Ventricles
c. Ganglia
Respiratory d. Nerves
e. Neurons

42
 359. The bipolar neurons are
found in:
a. Central nervous system
b. Autonomic ganglia
c. Spinal ganglia
d. Retina
e. Spinal cord
360. The neuronal cell bodies in
spinal cord bare mainly located in
a. Central canal
b. Central grey matter
c. White matter
d. Dorsal column
e. Anterior commissure
361. The neurons of the nervous
system develop from
a. Ectoderm
b. Epidermis
c. Mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Neuroectoderm
Senses
362. Receptor cell within organ
of corti is
a. Cells of hensen
b. Hair cells
c. Inner border cells
d. Outer phalangeal cells
e. Inner phalangeal cells

43