APPLIED CHEMISTRY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

UNIT-I

WATER TECHNOLOGY

1. The maximum desirable limit Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) of lead in the drinking
water is
(a) 0.05 mg/L
(b) 0.09mg/L
(c) 0.1mg/L
(d) 1.0mg/L

Answer : A

2. Zeolite softening process removes

(a) Only temporary hardness of water
(b) Only permanent hardness of water
(c) Both temporary and permanent hardness of water
(d) The dissolved gases in permanent hard water

Answer : C

3. Conventional tertiary treatment is

(a) Chemical coagulation and flocculation
(b) Filtration
(c) Sedimentation
(d) None of these

Answer :A

4. The maximum desirable limit (BIS) of total hardness (as CaCO3) in drinking water is
(a) 600 PPM
(b) 300 PPM
(c) 500 PPM
(d) 1000PPM

Answer :B

5. The Chemical oxygen demand (COD) measures the

(a) Amount of oxygen required for growth of microorganisms in water
(b) Amount of oxygen that would be removed from the water in order to oxidize
pollution
 (c) Amount of oxygen required to oxidize the calcium present in waste water
(d) None of the above

Answer : B

6. Zeolite used in zeolite softening process for the treatment of hard water gets exhausted
after certain time of usage but can be regenerated by flushing it with
(a) 10% Calcium chloride solution
(b) 10% Magnesium sulfate solution
(c) 10% Magnesium chloride solution
(d) 10% Sodium chloride solution

Answer :D

7. The chemical equivalent of MgSO4 salt is

(a) 60
(b) 47.5
(c) 82
(d) 68

Answer :A

8. 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per _____________ parts of water.

(a) 10,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 70,000

Answer : D

9. EDTA method is also called as_________

(a) Complexometric titration
(b) Complex titration
(c) Complement titration
(d) Complexion titration

Answer : A

10. 0.5g of CaCO3 was dissolved in dilute HCl and diluted to 500 ml with distilled water ,50
ml of this solution required 48 ml of EDTA solution for titration.50ml of hard water
sample required 15 ml of EDTA solution for titration.50 ml of same water sample on
boiling and filtering requires 10 ml of EDTA solution . Calculate temporary, permanent
and total hardness in ppm.
(a) Temporary = 104.17 ppm, Permanent = 208.33 ppm, Total hardness = 312.50 ppm
(b) Temporary = 208.33 ppm, Permanent = 112.50 ppm, Total hardness = 104.17 ppm
(c) Temporary = 152.17 ppm, Permanent = 208.33 ppm, Total hardness = 360.50 ppm
(d) Temporary = 102.17 ppm, Permanent = 210.33 ppm, Total hardness = 312.50 ppm

Answer : A
11. To remove the temporary hardness from 5L of H2O 5.6 mg of lime is required. Calculate
the degree of hardness due to Ca (HCO3)2 present in water.
(a) 150ppm
(b) 200ppm
(c) 180ppm
(d) 140ppm

Answer :B

12. The full form of BOD is

(a) Biodegradable oxygen demand
(b) Biological oxygen demand
(c) Biochemical oxygen demand
(d) Bandwidth on demand

Answer : B

13. Caustic embrittlement is due to the

(a) NaOH
(b) Na2CO3
(c) Mg(OH)2
(d) H2SO4

Answer :A

14. The purification of brackish water by reverse osmosis is also called

(a) Super-Filtration
(b) Supra-Filtration
(c) hypo-Filtration
(d) Filtration

Answer : A

15. The process of allowing water to stand and undisturbed in big tank for settling of the
suspended particles due to force of gravity.
(a) Coagulation
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Conditioning
(d) Screening
Answer :B

16. The soft water contains the hardness of about ____________

(a) 0-45ppm
(b) 0-55ppm
(c) 0-65ppm
(d) 0-75ppm

Answer :D

17. The PH value of the drinking water is about _________

(a) 6.5-8.5
(b) 5.5-6.5
(c) 4.5-5.5
(d) 3.5-4.5

Answer :A

18. Which one of the following is NOT a property of water?

(a) It clings to glass by capillary action
(b) It is a good solvent
(c) It has a density of 1 g/cm3
(d) It boils at 80 ºC

Answer :D

19. In a water treatment plant, water is treated before being sent to homes.
Which one of the following is the correct order of treatment in these plants?
(a) Screening ➞ Settling ➞ Filtration ➞ Chlorination ➞ Fluoridation
(b) Settling ➞ Screening ➞ Filtration ➞ Fluoridation ➞ Chlorination
(c) Filtration ➞ Screening ➞ Settling ➞ Chlorination ➞ Fluoridation
(d) Screening ➞ Filtration ➞ Settling ➞ Fluoridation ➞ Chlorination

Answer : A

20. When water is treated at a water treatment plant, some chlorine is added to the water.
Why?
(a) To remove solids from the water
(b) To kill any bacteria in the water
(c) Chlorine is good for our teeth
(d) It causes solids in the water to settle to the bottom

Answer :B
 UNIT-II

ELECTROCHEMISTRY AND CORROSION

1. In which equation is the metal reduced?

(a) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
(b) [Cr2O7]2–+ 2[OH]– → 2[CrO4]2– + H2O
(c) CuCO3 + 2HCl → CuCl2 + CO2 + H2O
(d) 2[MnO4]– + 5[C2O4]2– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

Answer :D

2. E1,E2 and E3 are the emf values of the three galvanic cells respectively.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Which one of the following is true? [Karnataka CET 2010]

Answer : B

3. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows:

2 4 −1
Al2 O3 → Al +O2 , ∆G=+966 kJ mol .The potential difference needed for electrolytic
3 3
reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at least [AIEEE 2010]
(a) 2.5V
(b) 5.0V
(c) 4.5V
(d) 3.0V

Answer :A

4. The electrochemical cell Zn∣ZnSO4(0.01M)∥CuSO4(1.0M)∣Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell

is E1 when the concentration ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0M and that of CuSO4 changed to
0.01M the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between
RT
E1 and E2? (Given, =0.059)[NEET 2017]
F
(a) E1 = E2
(b) E1¿ E2
(c) E1¿E2
(d) E2 =0≠ E1

Answer :C
5. In Daniel cell direction of electron flow is
(a) Toward cathode
(b) Toward anode
(c) Toward zinc electrode
(d) From copper to zinc electrode

Answer :A

6. A pH meter is an example of
(a) An electrolytic cell
(b) An ion selective electrode
(c) A fuel cell
(d) A reference electrode

Answer :B

7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Copper can be purified using an electrolytic cell
(b) In Daniel cell, a difference in electrical potentials of the two half-cells results in a
flow of electrons between the half-cells.
(c) In a galvanic cell, the passage of a current through an electrolyte drives a redox
reaction.
(d) An external power supply is needed in an electrolytic cell.

Answer :C

Statement for linked answer questions 8 and 9.

The molar conductance at infinite dilution of sodium acetate, sodium sulfate and sulfuric
acid solutions are 91.0×10−4 , 259.8×10−4 and 859.3×10−4 Sm2 mol-1 respectively.
[GATE 2013]

8. The molar conductance at infinite dilution (in Sm2 mol-1) of acetic acid is
(a) 1028×10−4
(b) 820.4 ×10−4
(c) 690.5×10−4
(d) 390.8×10−4

Answer : D

9. If the molar conductance of an acetic acid solution is 15.2 ×10−4 Sm2 mol-1, then the
percentage (%) dissociation of acetic acid in the solution will be
(a) 3.89
(b) 2.20
(c) 1.85
 (d) 1.48

Answer : A

E ° Cu =0.34 V
10. Given the standard reduction potentials, +2
and E ° Ag +¿
=0.80 V ¿ ,the standard free
Cu Ag
+¿ +2
energy change (ΔG°) for the reaction Cu (s ) +2 Ag(aq) → Cu (aq) +2 Ag(s) ¿ in kJ mol-1
(rounded off to one decimal place; F=96500 C mol-1), is [GATE 2019]
(a) -89.8 to -87.8
(b) -76.4 to -75.4
(c) 89.8 to 87.8
(d) 76.4 to 75.4

Answer : A

11. Dry corrosion is also called as

(a) Chemical corrosion
(b) Electrochemical corrosion
(c) Wet corrosion
(d) Oxidation corrosion

Answer : A

12. Volatile oxidation corrosion product of a metal is

(a) Fe2O3
(b) MoO3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) FeO

Answer :B
13. As compare to iron, aluminum has
(a) Higher tendency to oxidize
(b) Less tendency to oxidize
(c) Equal tendency to oxidize
(d) None of above
Answer :A

14. Passivity is due to

(a) Higher EMF
(b) Lower EMF
(c) Oxide film
(d) All

Answer :C
15. Process of corrosion is enhanced by
 (a) Air & Moisture
(b) Electrolytes in water
(c) Metallic impurities
(d) All of above

Answer :D
16. Which of the following metals could provide cathodic protection to Fe?
(a) Al & Cu
(b) Al & Zn
(c) Zn & Cu
(d) Al & Ni

Answer : B

17. Which of the following gases accelerates rusting of iron?

(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) All of above
Answer :D

18. How many rust will be formed when 100kg of iron have completely rusted away?
(a) 100 kg
(b) 190 kg
(c) 250 kg
(d) 320 kg

Answer :B

19. Metals does not exist in nature in the form of

(a) Nitrates
(b) Sulphates
(c) Carbonates
(d) Oxides

Answer :A

20. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

(a) Replacement of corroded equipment is time-consuming
(b) Corrosion causes contamination of product
(c) Corrosion increases the electrical conductivity of metals
(d) Corrosion causes leakage of toxic liquid or gases
 Answer :C
UNIT V
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Lubricating oil
a. Minimizes wear in moving parts
b. Helps in keeping the parts cool
c. Washes away and carries away dirt
d. All of the above
Ans : d

2. Viscosity index (VI) is a measure for the change of viscosity with change in
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Volume
d. All of the above
Ans :a

3. Viscosity index can be defined as

a. (L-U/L-H) x100
b. (L+U/L-H) x100
c. (L-H/L-U) x100
d. (L-U/L+H) x100
Ans : a
4. Identify the odd type of lubricant from the following
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Semi solid
d. Gaseous
Ans: d
5. Minimum separating distance in hydrodynamic lubricant is
a. 10 Å
b. 100 Å
c. 10000 Å
d. 1000 Å
Ans: d

6. What type of lubrication is used in delicate machines like watches, sewing machines
etc.,
a. Fluid film lubrication
b. Extreme lubrication
c. boundary lubrication
d. Thin film lubrication
 Ans: a
7. Important extreme pressure additive lubricants contain functional group from the
following
a. Chlorides
b. Sulphides
c. Phosphides
d. All the above
Ans: d
8. Special additives added to mineral oils are known as
a. Mineral additives
b. Extreme pressure additives
c. Lubricating additives
d. Special additives
Ans: b
9. Co-efficient of friction for boundary lubricant is
a. 0.5 to 15
b. 0.005 to 0.05
c. 0.5 to 0.15
d. 0.05 to 0.15
Ans : d
10. Co-efficient of friction in fluid film or hydrodynamnic lubrication is
a. 0.03 to 0.3
b. 0.01 to 0.03
c. 0.001 to 0.03
d. None of the above
Ans : c
11. Graphite is -------------- lubricant
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Semi solid
d. None of the above
Ans: c
12. Identify liquid lubricant from the following
a. Graphite
b. Lubricating oil
c. Molybdenum disulphide
d. Soapstone
Ans: b
13. Animal and vegetable oils possess
a. Good oiliness
b. Poor oiliness
c. Optimum oiliness
d. None of above
Ans: a
14. Graphite consists of ________ structure.
a. Multitude layered
b. Trigonal
c. Orthorhombic
d. Spiral
Ans: a
15. When graphite is dispersed in water, it is called,
a. Oil dug
b. Aqua dug
c. Graphia-water
d. None of above
Ans : b
16. Low viscosity and high viscosity standard oils are
a. Petroleum oil & Gulf oil
b. Blended oil & Mineral oil
c. Gulf oil &Pennylsylvanian oil
d. Petroleum oil & Blended oil
Ans : c

17. Composite materials are classified based on:

a. Type of matrix
b. Size-and-shape of reinforcement
c. Both
d. None
Ans : c

18. Usually softer constituent of a composite is

a. Matrix
b. Reinforcement
c. Both are of equal strength
d. Can’t define
Ans : a

19. Usually stronger constituent of a composite is

a. Matrix
b. Reinforcement
c. Both are of equal strength
 d. None of the above
Ans : b
20. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced composites depend on
a. Properties of constituents
b. Interface strength
c. Fiber length, orientation and volume fraction
d. All of the above
Ans : d
21. CFRP are applied in
a. Aircraft
b. Automobile
c. Turbine engine
d. None of the above
Ans : a
22. AFRP composite finds it major application in
a. Turbine engine
b. Bullet-proof vests
c. Cutting tools
d. Deep sea mining
Ans : a

23. Which of the following does not combine with fiber to give composites?
a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Non-metals
d) Polymers

Answer: c

24. Which of the following is not a property of matrix materials which are modified by
adding particulate fillers?
a) Improved performance at elevated temperature
b) Decrease in surface hardness
c) Modification in electrical conductivity
d) Improved abrasion resistance

Answer: b

25. What is the aspect ratio?

a) Length to diameter ratio
b) Length to depth ratio
c) Depth to length ratio
d) Diameter to length ratio
 Answer: a

26. Which of the following type of composite is not classified under the category of number
of layers?
a) Unidirectional fibre reinforced
b) Laminar
c) Sandwich panels
d) Glass-fibre reinforced

Answer: d

27. The matrix phase controls the environmental resistance of the composites.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

28. When fibers are used as a dispersed phase for the reinforcement of matrices, the
resultant composites are known as ____________
a) Glass-fiber reinforced
b) Carbon-fiber reinforced
c) Wood-fiber reinforced
d) Unidirectional-fiber reinforced

Answer: a

29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of glass-fiber reinforced composites?

a) Low density
b) Low impact resistance
c) High tensile strength
d) Excellent chemical and corrosion resistance

Answer: b

30. Which of the following is an application of glass-fiber reinforced composites?

a) Adhesives
b) Conveyor belts
c) Design of ships
d) Automotive parts

Answer: d

31. Last constituent to fail in fiber reinforced composites

(a)Matrix
(b) Fiber
(c) Both fails at same time
 (d) Can’t define

Answer .a

32. Al-alloys for engine/automobile parts are reinforced to increase their

a. Strength
b. Wear resistance
c. Elastic modulus
d. Density

Answer .b

33. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced composites depend on

a. Properties of constituents
b. Interface strength
c. Fiber length, orientation, and volume fraction
d. All the above

Answer .d

34. Longitudinal strength of fiber reinforced composite is mainly influenced by

a. Fiber strength
b. Fiber orientation
c. Fiber volume fraction
d. Fiber length

Answer .a

35. The following material can be used for filling in sandwich structures
a. Polymers
b. Cement
c. Wood
d. All

Answer .d