Surgpath Compiled Questions - Docx 1

B
ETA SURGICAL PATHOLOGY

RECALL QUESTIONS
2
021
st
Dr. Michelle Cauan / 1 Semester 2019-2020
PRELIMS
1. Features of desquamative interstitial pneumonia
2. Microscopic characteristic difference of usual interstitial disease from

interstitial disease.
A.?
B. Pigment
C. Yellow brown
D. None of the above
3. Microscopically composed of blastematous spindle cells known as:

A. Carcinosarcoma
B. Pulmonary Blastoma
C. Carcinosarcoma
D. NOTA
4. Calcification in cartilagenous pathway:

- Broncholithiasis
5. Microsopic appearance of poorly differentiated carcinoma

A. Well developed insular pattern
B. Peritheliomatous pattern
C. Both
D. Nota
6. Changes in Eosinophilic Pneumonia:

A. Foamy/honeycombed intraalveolar exudate with lymphoplasmacytic
infiltrate
B. Sudanophilic lipid material in large spaces
C. Charcot Leyden Crystals may be present
D. All of the above
7. True on Primary Chief Cell Hyperplasia, except:
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A. Seen in MEN1 and MEN2B (*2A)
B. Inverse correlation of gland size and mean serum calcium
C. Increased oxyphil or transitional oxyphil cells
D. All of the above.
8. Composed of Langhans Giants Cells, lymphocytes and compact

noncaseating granulomas
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Wegeners granulomatosis
9. Follicular cell with abundant granular acidophilic cytoplasm

A. Hurthle cells
B. Oncocytes
C. Both
D.NOTA (oxyphillic/eosinophilic cell)
10. Characteristics of pneumocystis pneumonia except?

A. foamy or honeycomb
B. epithelioid granuloma
C. calcification
D. NOTA
11. Congenital cysticadenomatoid malformation is lined by what type of

epithelium?
A.cuboidal to ciliated pseudostratified epithelium
B.adenomatoid epithelium
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
12. Most common benign neoplasm of lung:

- Hamartoma
13. 43 yo, fever, malaise, tenderness on palpation of thyroid region.

Microscopically, there is marked inflammation & granulomas with foreign
body giant cells.
- Granulomatous thyroiditis

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14. The characteristic Sanderson Polster is found in which of the ff?
A. Nodular hyperplasia
B. Grave’s disease
C. Dyshormogenetic goiter
D. Nota
15. Which of the following is the most important morphologic substrate of

COPD?
B. Emphysema
16. Most common primary carcinoma of the lung?

- ADENOCARCINOMA
17. Full blown osseous manisfestation of hyperparathyroidism?

A. Recklinghausen dse (or osteitis fibrosa cystica)
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Both
D. Neither
18. Which of the following are important contributions of frozen section in

surgical handling of lung carcinoma?
A. Mapping of lobar (*hilar dapat) and mediastinal lymph node
B. Evaluation of bronchial margin
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
19. Also known as Struma Lymphomatosa:

- HASHIMOTO'S THYROIDITIS
20. Which is a feature of parathyroid carcinoma water clear cell

hyperplasia, except?
21. Boeck's disease also known as:
- Sarcoidosis
22. Fibroblastic plugs/ masson bodies filling the air spaces are hallmark
of:
A. RBILD B. BOOP
C. DIP

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23. Destruction of some elements of the bronchial wall and inflammatory
changes that extend into the surrounding or distal lung panrenchyma.
- Bronchiectasis
24. Pathologic change seen in tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A. Water clear cell hyperplasia
B. Chief cell hyperplasia
C. Adenoma
25. True about Thyroglossal Duct Cyst except

A. Located at the lateral (*midline dapat) side of the neck
B. Lined by pseudostratified ciliated or squamous epithelium
C. Secondary inflammation is common particularly in cases accompanied
by a sinus tract
D. Thyroid tissue can undergo malignant transformation to papillary
carcinoma
26. Microscopic appearance of Graves’ disease

A) lining epithelium is columnar, with basally located normochromatic or
hyperchromatic nuclei
B. stroma contains aggregates of lymphoid tissue with germinal centre
formation
C) All of the above
D) NOTA
27. Juvenile form of Lymphocytic or autoimmune thyroiditis?
28. Hamman-Rich syndrome is synonymous with:

- Acute Interstitial Pneumonia
29. Microscopic appearance of Papillary Carcinoma.
30. Localized conglomerates of necrotizing granulomatous infection due

to mycobacterium tuberculosis presenting as a solitary lung nodules, seen
in adults and tuberculous reinfection?
- Tuberculomas
31. Most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children?

- Graves’ disease

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32. Which of the following parathyroid adenoma variants is associated
with abundant mature adipose tissue?
a. Oxyphilic adenoma b. Chief cell hyperplasia
c. Lipoadenoma d. Lipoma
33. Pleiomorphic malignant evidence with epithelial and glandular

structures
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Large cell carcinoma
C. Large neuroendocrine cell tumor
34. Microscopic appearance of spindle cells, inflammatory cells with

vascular proliferation, fibrosis that may take the form of organizing
pneumonia, hyalinization, myxoid change, fat accumulation with the
formation of xanthoma cells, hemosiderin deposition and proliferation of
non-neoplastic respiratory epithelial cells.
A. Lipoma
B. Angiomyolipoma
C. Angiosarcoma
D. Inflammatory Myofibroblastic Tumor
35. Subtype of sarcomatoid mesothelioma characterized by diffuse

proliferation of atypical histiocyte like malignant mesothelial cells
admixed with numerous lymphocytes and lesser plasma cells
A. Lymphoplasmacytic mesothelioma
B. Lymphohystiocytoid Mesothelioma
51. Genetically determined error in thyroid hormone metabolism

a. Graves goiter
b. Endemic goiter
c. Sporadic goiter
d. Dyshormogenetic goiter
52. The ff statements are TRUE regarding autoimmune thyroiditis,

EXCEPT:
a. both humoral and cellular in nature
b. presence of extensive neutrophilic infiltration associated with

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granuloma formation
c. circulating auto-antibodies exist against thyroglobulin and other
follicular cell antigen
d. none of the above
53. Most common type of thyroid disease.

A. Nodular hyperplasia
B. Adenomatous hyperplasia
C. All of the above
D. None
57. The upper pair of parathyroid gland is derived from which brachial
cleft.
A. 1 st
B. 2 nd
C. 3 rd
D. 4 (lower pair - 3rd)
th
60. Gold standard technique for evaluation of solitary thyroid nodule?

a. Core needle biopsy
b. Incision biopsy
c. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
d. NOTA
61. Other name of achrocordon:

- Fibroepithelial cell
62. Squamous cell CIS:
- Bowens Disease
63. Most frequent form of skin cancer:

- Basal Cell Carcinoma
64. Microscopic feature of BCC, except:

A. Palisading
B. Cleft like retractions
C. All
B. None of the above
65. Not true of cylindroma:

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A. Palms and soles
B. Jigsaw-like
C. All
B. None
66. Other name for cutaneous T-cell:

- Mycosis fungoides
67. Feature is “comma shaped extensions” or tails:

- Syringoma
73. Mutation in melanocytic nevi, except:

a. BRAF mutation
b. T1799A
c. NRAS mutation (and CDKN2A - uncommon)
d. None of the above
71. Second most common in sun-exposed areas

A. BCC
B. SCC
C. Sebaceous adenoma
D. NOTA
74.True of apocrine carcinoma

a. Benign glands (*malignant)
b. Invasive pattern
c. Too scant cytoplasm (*abundant granular cytoplasm)
75.True of sebaceous adenoma, except?

A.Decapitating secretion
B.Centrally located mature cells
C.Mistake as acne
D.Proliferation of sebocytes
76. True of Pilomatrixoma

A. Malignant adnexal tumor

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B. Resembling hair follicle
C. Presence of blue cells, pink cells/shadow cells
D. All of the above
77. Nevus at the basal portion of the epidermis

A. Junctional
B. Compound
C. Intradermal
78. Type of blue nevus showing a pushing border like silhouette of a

dumbbell
A. Cellular blue nevus
B. Epithelioid Blue Nevus
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
79.Other name of hot nevus:

- Active nevus
80. Other name of Hutchinson freckle

A. Nodular melanoma
B. Superficial spreading Melanoma
C. Acral Lentiginous Melanoma
D. Lentigo Maligna Melanoma
81. Most common form of melanoma

A. Lentigo Maligna
B. Superficial spreading melanoma
C. Acral lentiginous melanoma
D. Nodular melanoma
85. 35y/o with light brown lesion on arm. Microscopically nest of nevus
seen in lower epidermis. No fusion between adjacent nevus. No nevus on
superficial or deep dermis.
A) Compound
B) Dysplastic

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C) Halo
D) Junctional
89. Other name of lymphocytoma benigna cutis:

- Cutaneous lymphoid hyperplasia
92. Lesions of the dermis except:

a. Xanthoma
b. Leiomyoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Bowen's disease (preserved basal cells)
93.Adnexal tumor, except:

A.Basal cell carcinoma
B.Cylindroma
C.Eccrine poroma
D.Pilomatrixoma
94.Premalignant lesion
A. Freckles . Pilomatricoma
B
C. Actinic keratosis D. Junctional nevis
97. Also known as Epithelioma cuniculatum

A. condyloma acuminata
B. Verrucous carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
98. Hidradenoma is also

A. Eccrine acrospiroma B. Eccrine poroma
C. Syringoma . Cylindroma
D
99. Most important definitive feature of Cylindroma.
MIDTERMS
1. Reported in the pelvis of a horseshoe kidney associated with staghorn
calculi
- Verrucous carcinoma

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2. True of endocervical polyps except:
A. They are true neoplasm and probably the result of chronic
inflammatory changes
B. Small in size but may reach several centimeters in diameter
C. Microscopically, dilated endocervical glands seen in an edematous,
inflamed and fibrotic stroma
3. Not true of endometriosis of the cervix:

A. Blue or red nodules and may result in abnormal uterine bleeding
B. Glands and stroma are needed for the diagnosis
C. On occasion, the process is composed exclusively of endometrial
stroma (stromal endometriosis) and may be confused with neoplasm.
D. NOTA
4. Major component of Wilms tumor with embryonic tubular/glomerular

structures:
- Epithelial Area
5. C3 glomerulopathy is characterized by the ff except.
6. Best management for women with ASCUS.
7. Causative agent of Verruca vulgaris:

- HPV 1, 2, 6 or 8
8. Also known as Churg strauss syndrome:

- Eosinophilic Granulomatosis
10. Most common lesion in diabetic nephropathy:

- Diffuse GN
11. Also known as Nil lesion:

- Minimal change glomerulopathy
12. Which of the following HPV genotypes is associated with condyloma

acuminatum and considered low-risk HPV genotypes?
- HPV 6 and 11

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13. Thyroidization is a morphological change seen in:
- Chronic Pyelonephritis
14. Presence of calcium within the renal parenchyma:

- Nephrocalcinosis
15. Chronic endometritis is associated with the following except:

A. After pregnancy/ abortion C. PID
B. Submucosal leiomyoma D. NOTA
16. The most common primary glomerular disease:

A. IgA Nephropathy B. Berger Disease
C. Both D. Neither
17. Three major components of Wilms tumor except:
A. Undifferentiated blastema
B. Epithelial tissue
C. Stromal (or mesenchymal) tissue
D. NOTA
18. True of urothelial carcinoma in renal pelvis, EXCEPT:

A. occurs in adults, 7% of all primary renal carcinom
B. have been reported in horse shoe kidneys, incidence may actually be
increased in congenital abnormality
C. Hematuria is not present
D. Smoking is the greatest risk factor
19. Crescentic GN is strongly indicated if cell proliferation is primarily in:

A. Bowman’s space
B. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
C. Glomerulus
20. Most common malignant tumor in female Genital Tract:
A. Invasive Adenocarcinoma B. Invasive SCC
C. Clear Cell Ca D. Endometrioid Ca
21. Most common renal cell carcinoma

A. Clear cell renal cell ca
B. Papillary renal cell ca
C. Tubulocystic renal cell ca

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D. Clear cell papillary renal cell ca
22. AKA Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

a. C3 Glomerulopathy
b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
c. DDD
23. Characterized by occurence of massive proteinuria, hypoproteinemia,

edema and hyperlipidemia:
- Nephrotic syndrome
24. It is the most common renal tumor of newborns and are diagnosed
before 2 years old:
- Congenital mesoblastic nephroma
25)True of clear cell sarcoma except:

A) formerly bone metastasizing renal tumor
B) 4% of renal cell tumor
C) peak 2 y/o
D) none of the above
26. APGN can be characterized with the ff manifestation, EXCEPT?

A. Hematuria B. Proteinuria
C. Hypotension (*hypertension dapat)
D. Acute Renal Insufficiency
27. Type IV collagen disorder

A. Alport's syndrome B. Hereditary Nephritis
C. Both D. Neither
28. Metaplastic changes in hyperplastic endometriosis associated with

leiomyomas and uterine polyp.
A. Mucinous metaplasia
B. Papillary metaplasia
C. Squamous (morular) metaplasia
29. Previously known as Wegener granulomatosis?

- Granulomatosis with polyangitis

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30. Morphological changes in Lead nephropathy except.
A. Cytoplasmic acid-fast inclusions
B. Inclusions consist of lead-protein complex
C. Compact cores surrounded by a loose meshwork of fibrils
D. NOTA
31. Metaplastic changes in cervical epithelium characterized by presence

of large cuboidal and polygonal epithelial cells with dense eosinophilic,
focally vacuolated cytoplasm and varable nuclei in cervical gland atypia.
A. Squamous metaplasia B. Tubal metaplasia
C. Transitional metaplasia
D. Oxyphilic/ eosinophilic metaplasia
32. Pathologic findings of lupus necrosis class V

- Membranous Lupus Nephritis
33. Accumulation of pus in endometrial cavity

- Pyometra
23. Most common form of cystic renal disease in children

- Multicystic renal dysplasia
13. Morphologic changes in patients with scleroderma renal crisis

associates with systemic sclerosis EXCEPT:
A. Interlobular arteries that show intimal “Thinning”
38. Not true about nabothian cyst

A. Developed from blockage of endocervical gland secondary to
inflammation and other changes
B. Gross cystic space filled with mucoid material
C. Cystic dilations lined by flat epithelium
D. NOTA
26. Other name of Wilm's tumor:

- Nephroblastoma
51. Endometrial Carcinoma that is characterized by neoplastic glands

having subnuclear vacuolization resembling that of a normal 17-day
secretory endometrium and accompanied by a late secretory pattern in the

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adjacent noninvolved endometrium.
- Secretory Carcinoma
52. Most common gynelogical malignancy in developed countries:

- Endometrial Carcinoma
53. Secondary endometrial change from gland distortion, atrophy and

ulceration is the result of:
A. subserous leiomyoma
B. Intramural leiomyoma
C. Submucous leiomyoma
54. Microscopically, this tumor is formed by interlacing bundles of smooth

muscle cells separated by a greater or lesser amount of well-vascularized
connective tissue.
A. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
B. Leiomyoma
C. PEComa
D. NOTA
55. Not true of H. mole?

A. Caused by abnormal gametogenesis and fertilization.
B. 85% of cases are 46,XX and 15% are 46,XY.
C. Only contain paternal chromosome thus androgenic in origin.
D. Associated with the presence of embryo
57. Not true of choriocarcinoma:

A. Microscopically, the tumor is composed of cytotrophoblast separated
by streaming masses of syncytiotrophoblast resulting in dimorphic
plexiform pattern
B. Hemorrhage and necrosis are usually present
C. Villi are always present
D. NOTA
58. Not true of partial mole:

A. Triploid (69, XXX and 69, XXY) and a few show trisomy 16
B. Approximately 15%-35% of all cases
C. Placental tissue volume is normal and the grossly vesicular villi is

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mixed with normal-appearing ones
D. NOTA
59. Morphologic feature of typical leiomyoma:

A. Hypercellular, w/ nuclear atypia and pleomorphism mitotically active
(w/ some of the mitoses being atypical) and w/ areas of necrosis
(*leiomyosarcoma)
B. Immunoreactivity for smooth and common muscle actin, desmin,
calponin, h-caldesmon and vimentin (*leiomyosarcoma)
C. AOTA D. NOTA
60. Not true of leiomyoma of uterus?

a. incidence of 4-11%
b. less common in parous and premenopausal
c. shrink after menopause
d. increase levels of androgen receptors (*estrogen)
62. Formerly known as Malignant Mixed Mullerian Tumor:

- Carcinosarcoma
63. Bacterial infection except:
- NOTA
64. It is the end stage of a purulent salpingitis where the pus has been
reabsorbed and replaced by a transudate of plasma.
- Hydrosalpinx
65. Not true of pelvic inflammatory disease.

A. Neisseria gonorrhea and chlamydia account for most cases
B. In tubo ovarian abscess, most common agents recovered are coliform
species.
C. There is often extreme proliferation of the tubal mucosa in
association with granulomatous inflammation (*tuberculosis of
fallopian tube)
66. Expansion of tubal plicae by foamy histiocytes?

a. xanthogranulomatous salpingits
b. Psuedoxanthomatous salpingitis

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c. Both
d. None
67. True of tubal pregnancy EXCEPT:

a. history of infertility increases risk
b. Chorionic villi and extravillous trophoblasts can grow and penetrate
wall
c. Gestational sac made up of tubal tissue with no participation from other
tissues
d. NOTA
68. Small, glistening, round collections of flat to cuboidal cells with the
appearance of urothelium on tubal serosa:
- Walthard cell nests
69. Well deliminated nodular enlargement of the isthmic portion of the

tube.
a. decidual reaction
b. Salphigitis isthmica nodosa
c. Walthard cell Nests
d. endometriosis
70. presence of ectopic tubal epithelium beyond anatomic confines of the

tube lined by epithelium of tubal type cells (secretory, intercalated and
ciliated cells)
- Endosalpingiosis
71. Most common location of STIC:

- Fimbrae
72. Most common carcinoma arising from the fallopian tube:

a. Endometrioid ca
b. Hepatoid ca
c. Clear cell carcinoma
d. High grade serous ca

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73. True hermaphroditism, except:
a. Ovotestes containing both ova and immature seminiferous tubules or
other combinations of ovary and testis
b. Most common karyotypes are 46 XX (60%), 46 XY (12%), and mosaic
(28%)
c. Multiple tumors can occur in these gonads
74.Most common type of male pseudohermaphroditism:

- Testicular feminization
75. Not true of follicular cyst:

A. Formed by distention of developing or atretic follicles usually less
than 2.5cm in diameter.
B. The cyst wall is lined by theca, with or without an inner granulosa
layer.
C. Occasionally, twisting of pedicle resulting to hemorrhagic infarction of
the ovary
D. The cyst fluid may contain estrogen
76. Most common site of endometriosis:

A. Fallopian Tube B. Ovary
C. Cervix D. Round Ligament
77. Amenorrhea and Sterility, Endometrial Hyperplasia and Frank Virilism

A. Inclusion Cyst B. Follicular Cyst
C. PCOS D. Corpus luteun Cyst
78. Following are the epithelial ovarian tumor except?

A. Clear Cell Tumor B. Serous Ca
C. Brenner Tumor D. Yolk Sac Tumor
79. Origin of High Grade serous Carcinoma of the ovary:

A. Endometriosis
B. Fallopian tube
C. Cystadenoma
D. Transitional epithelium

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80. Origin of low grade serous carcinoma of ovary:
A. Endometriosis
B. Fallopian tube
C. Cystadenoma
D. transitional epithelium
81. True of serous tumor except:

A. Borderline serous tumor is differentiated from low grade serous ca.
by invasion
82. Following statement about mucinous tumor except:

A. Mucinous are less common than serous neoplasm and bilaterally less
than 10
B. Most mucinous are benign/borderline
C. Grossly tend to grow larger than serous and partially or completely
cystic with smooth surface
D. NOTA
83. The following statements about endometrioid tumor are true, except:
A. Comprises 10% of all primary ovarian carcinomas
B. Tumor resembles greatly the appearance of ordinary type of
endometrial adenocarcinoma
C. Endometrioid carcinoma as to prognosis is twice as good as serous or
mucinous carcinoma
D. NOTA
84. Not true of ovarian carcinoma:

A. 10% have a component of non-neoplastic luteinized stromal cell
B. May present as a solid mass or cystadenoma
C. Histochemically positive to keratin, EMA, vimentin and PAX 8
D. NOTA
85.Not true of brenner tumor:

A. It constitutes between 1% and 2% of all ovarian neoplasm
B. Average age of presentation at 50
C. Closely resemble fibroma or thecoma except for presence of small cyst
filled with Yellow brown fluid
D. Microscopically they consist of solid and cystic nest of epithelial cell

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resembling squamous epithelium (*transitional epithelium dapat)
86. Most common tumor in children, accounting for 60-70% of all

pediatric tumors at this age group.
A. Germ cell tumor B. Epithelial tumor
C. Sex cord stromal tumor D. None of the above
87. Not true of dysgerminoma:

A. Dysgerminoma is somewhat more common on the right side and is
bilateral in 15% of cases.
B. Microscopically, the tumor cells usually group themselves in well-
defined nests separated by fibrous strands infiltrated by lymphocytes.
C. Dysgerminoma constitutes <1% of all ovarian tumors
88. There are reticular or microcystic areas formed by a loose meshwork

lined by flat or cuboidal cell, round or festooning pseudo papillary
processes with central vessels and solid areas.
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Seminoma
C. Yolk sac tumor
C. Granuloma cell tumor
89. Currently preferred term for the malignant ovarian teratoma usually
seen in children and adolescents and composed of a mixture of embryonal
and adult tissues derived from all three germ layers, regardless of its gross
appearance.
A. Mature teratoma
B. Immature teratoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Mature Cystic Carcinoma
90. Not true of embryonal carcinoma:

A. Serum HCG invariably high, positive pt
B. Composed of solid sheets and nest of large primitive cells
C. Syncytiotrophoblast like cells frequently seen

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91. Not true of Mature cystic teratoma:
a. make up of almost 20% of all ovarian neoplasm.
b. they constitute most common ovarian tumor in childhood
c. all component of mature cystice teratoma should appear
histologically immature (*mature dapat)
d. none of the above
92. Not true of struma ovarii:

- It is the expression of dominant growth of parathyroid tissue in a
teratoma, sometimes in exclusion of other component (*thyroid tissue
dapat)
93. Not true of Adult Granulosa Cell?

- 80% of cases during 1st two decades of life; isosexual prerocity
94. Not true of Thecoma:

- Cut section is color white
95. Not true for sertoli leydig tumors.

A. Consist of cells similar to male sertoli cells and leydig cells.
B. 0.1 % of ovarian tumors.
C. Prognosis is poor
D. NOTA
96. Not true for gonadobastoma:

A. 36% are bilateral
B. Occur in sexually normal individuals (*abnormal dapat – those with
gonadal dysgenesis)
C. U.R.
D. NOTA
97. Type of ovarian neoplam which is bilateral and metastatic in nature;

moderately solid and multinodular. Microscopically diffuse and
infiltration by signet ring cell.
- Krukenberg tumor
98. Not true for for steroid cell tumor

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99. Microscopically characterized by a lobular pattern of growth,
intralobular fibrosis, marked vascularity and presence of dual cell
population.
- Sclerosing stromal tumor
100. Not true of fibroma, except:

a. compose of closely packed spindle stromal cells
b. hyaline globules may be present
c. usually unilateral which occur after puberty
d. Solid, lobulated, firm and uniformly yellow (*white dapat)
FINALS
1. Microscopic appearance of ewing sarcoma, except:
A. Consists of solid sheets of cells divided into irregular nests by
fibrovascular septa
B. Contain large areas of woven bone and numerous multinucleated
giant cells
C. Individual cells are primitive, small, and uniform
D. Cell outlines are indistinct resulting in a synctial appearance
2. True of ganglion cysts except.

A. Develop by myxoid degeneration and cystic softening of connective
tissue of the joint capsule or tendon sheath
B. Ganglia do not communicate with joint cavity
C. Ganglia are lined by synovium
D. NOTA
3. True of aneurysmal bone cyst

A. Grossly, the lesion is granular, brown or may contain yellow color as
well (*non-ossifying fibroma)
B. Microscopically, consist of cellular masses of fibrous fissure arranged
in storiform pattern (*non-ossifying fibroma)
C. Scattered osteoclast and collection of foamy and hemosiderin laden
macrophage are frequent (*non-ossifying fibroma)
D. NOTA
4. Most common breast CA subtype associated with mutation in BRCA 2?

- Her2+ ER+

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5. True of phyllodes tumor, EXCEPT?
A. It is white and gray
B. With stromal hypocellularity (*hypercellularity dapat)
C. It usually occurs in middle-aged to older women
5. Most common breast CA subtype associated with mutation in BRCA 1?

A. Her2 positive B. Er+ Her2 –
C. Er– Her2– D. Er+ Her2+
6. Osteoid osteoma is characterized by the ff. except:

C. Nidus greater than 2cm (*<1.5cm dapat)
7. Most common inflammatory arthropathy.

- rheumatoid arthritis
8. Neoplastic epithelial cell confined to the ductal lobar system:

a. DCIS
9. Microscopic feature of phyllodes tumor except:
10. Second most common cause of carcinoma death in women.

A. Ovarian CA B. Breast CA
C. Endometrial CA D. Cervical CA
11. Architectural pattern of DCIS:
- The acini of the TDLU are filled with proliferation of medium sized
cells which are larger than those of LCIS
12. True about male breast carcinoma except

a. present in elderly male as breast masses
b. with or without nipple abnormalities
c. incidence of papillary ca is higher in women
d. NOTA
13. lesion with pedunculated, broad base

- Osteochondroma
14. Chondroid Sarcoma AKA

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- Myxoid Chondrosarcoma
15. Characterized by formation of nodules in synovial membrane:

- Synovial Chondromatosis
16. Most commonly diagnosed malignant neoplasm in the bone:

- Metastatic Tumor
17. Microinvasive breast carcinoma is defined as:

A. Not exceeding 1cm C. 2 cm
B. 1 mm (*not exceeding 1mm) D. 2 mm
18. Nonproliferative changes in breast except:

A. UDH B. Cyst
C. Apocrine metaplasia D. NOTA
19. It is an architectural pattern of DCIS that shows epithelial

micropapillations projecting to the ductal lumen; these lack connective
tissue support and show a bulbous expansion at the tip
B. Micropapillary pattern
20. Effects of therapy on the tumor and on the normal breast except?
A. Bizarre nuclear changes, formation of giant tumor cells, naked nuclei
and abnormal mitotic figure
B. Extensive tumor necrosis may develop which can become surrounded
by a thick fibrous wall
C. Atypia of the epithelial cells in the terminal ductules associated with
lobular sclerosis and atrophy.
D. NOTA
21. Paget Disease of the nipple is associated with what carcinoma?

- High Grade DCIS, w/ or w/o associated stromal invasion
22. True of therapy for Breast CA except:

a. Endocrine therapy is the standard of care for all patients with ER-
positive breast CA.
b. Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a form of targeted therapy that is effective
for HER-2 positive breast CA
c. All of the above

Page 23 of 31
23. True of echondroma, except:
A. Highly invasive (*non-invasive)
B. Composed of lobules of hyaline
C. Encasement pattern
D. NOTA
24. Composed of admixture of foamy cells, multinucleated giant cells,

cholesterol clefts and fibrosis A. Schwannoma B. Malignant
peripheral
C. Neurofibrosis D. Xanthoma
25. True of giant cell tumor except.
26. Is composed of irregularly shaped trabeculae of woven bone deposited

in a fibrous stroma of variable cellularity. The bone trabeculae may have
"C" and "S" shape or can appear round
- Fibrous Dysplasia
27. Breast carcinoma associated with TP53 mutation

A. HER2 positive
28. Form of UDH characterized by the presence of cystically dilated ducts

containing a bright pink colloid-like material lined by cells that relatively
abundant vacuolated or secretory cytoplasm.
- Cystic Hypersecretory Hyperplasia
29. Sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma except
30. Nipple adenoma

A. benign proliferation of glands embedded in a fibrotic stroma
B. often associated with distortion induced by the dense stroma present
C. AOTA
31. True of hormone receptors except:

a. ER status most powerful predictive marker
b. PR weaker predictor of response to endocrine therapy than ER
c. most carcinoma medullary feature, metaplastic, apocrine carcinoma
are ER positive (*ER negative dapat)

Page 24 of 31
d. NOTA
32. Morphological variations of fibroadenoma, except.

a. Sclerosing adenosis
b. Prominent Myxoid changes
c. Lactational changes
d. Ductal adenoma
33. True of secretory Ca:

a. Grossly well circumscribed fluctuant to palpation formed by gelatinous
mass held together by delicate septa (*mucinous carcinoma)
b. Microscopically classic and described as small clusters of tumorlets
“floating in pool of mucin” (*mucinous carcinoma)
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
34. Morphological Characteristic of tubular Carcinoma Except?
46. Not true of giant cell tumor of tendon sheath.
51. Most common articular/periarticular deposits

A. Calcium Pyrophosphate
B. Monosodium Urate Crystals
C. Both
D. Neither
52. Characterized microscopically by a biphasic pattern in which areas of

cellular cartilage are dispersed among a population of small,
undifferentiated, round to spindled cells, often with staghorn-shaped blood
vessels.
A. Myxoid Chondrosarcoma
B. Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma
C. Clear Cell Chondrosarcoma
D. Dedifferentiated Chondrosarcoma
53. Not true of giant cell tumor of tendon sheath

A)microscopically it is a well circumscribed love mass partially
invested by a dense collagen capsule and nodules are seen outside
B) there are multiple tumor nodules that infiltrated into the surrounding
soft tissue with predominance of bland mononuclear cells,short spindle

Page 25 of 31
cell
C) there is a variable proportion of small and large mononuclear
cells,inflammatory cells,xanthoma cells,hemosiderin,multinucleated gaint
cell
D. NOTA
54. True of sclerosing epithelioid fibrosarcoma, except:

a. a variant of fibrosarcoma that simulates the appearance of infiltrating
carcinoma
b. AKA evans tumor (*Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma)
c. it is composed of small, round to ovoid tumor cells embedded in a dense
hyalinized strauma.
d. the scanty cytoplasm often has a clear appearance and there may be a
single file pattern of growth
55.NOT TRUE of Elastofibroma.
56. Also known as cystic lymphangioma

A. Hibernoma B. Lymphangiomyoma
C. Both D. Neither (*Hygroma)
57. This tumor is composed of smooth muscle and adipose tissue.

A. Leiomyoma B. Lipoma
C. Rhabdomyoma D. Myolipoma
58. Microscopically, very cellular, formed by immature skeletal muscle

fibers and primitive mesenchymal cells
A. Fetal form of rhabdomyoma
B. Genital rhabdomyoma
C. Both
D. Neither
59.) A distinctive lesion originally described as juvenile aponeurotic

fibroma
A. Calcifying aponeurotic fibroma
B. Collagenous fibroma
C. Fibroma of tendon sheath
D. NOTA

Page 26 of 31
60. Also known as desmoplastic fibroblastoma
a. Calcifying aponeurotic fibroma
b. Collagenous fibroma
c. Fibroma of tendon sheath
d. NOTA
61. Referred to as digital fibromyxoma

- superficial acral fibromyxoma
62. Also known as Evans tumor:

- Low grade Fibromyxoid sarcoma
63. Microscopic appearance of low grade fibromyxoid appearance.
64. Most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults:

- Liposarcoma
65. Microscopically characterized by intersecting fascicles of smooth

muscle cells encircling vascular lumina lined by normal endothelial cells:
- Leiomyoma (*specifically vascular leiomyoma/ angioleiomyoma)
66. Microscopically pattern of growth is predominantly fascicular, with

tumor bundles intersecting at RIGHT angles
A. Hemiangioma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Lipoma
D. None (wide angle; Leiomyosarcoma)
67. Microscopically composed of mature adipose tissue without cellular

atypia?
A. Hemiangioma B. Leiomyoma
C. Lipoma D. None
68. Verocay bodies are present in

A. Antoni A B. Antoni B
C. Both D. Neither
69. Dermatofibroma:
A. benign Fibrous Histiocytoma

Page 27 of 31
B. Solitary Fibrous Tumor
C. myxofibrosarcoma
70. pigmented dermatofibrosarcoma protuberance consist of EXCEPT:

A. proliferation of uniform bland spindle cells
B. Characteristic of storiform pattern
C. dendritic cells heavily loaded with melanin
71. True of Myxofibrosarcoma, except...
72. True of schwannoma, except:

a. Neurilemoma
b. Antoni A zone and antoni B zone
c. Fine cytoplasmic granules
d. NOTA
73. True of NEUROFIBROMA, except:

a. Not encapsulated and have a softer consistency
b. Shredded carrot appearance
c. Bizarre hyperchromatic nuclei
d. Gaucher cell-like individual cells (*seen in Granular Cell Tumor)
74. True of perineuroma, except:

A. Malignant
75.True of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, Except?

A. Neurofibrosarcoma
B. The marked hypercellularity and high mitotic activity in the absence of
significant pleomorphism are commonly seen in this type of tumor
C. Plump, almost epithelial cells.
D. NOTA
76. Appearance of Granular Cell Tumor except

A. The cells contain innumerable fine cytoplasmic granules as well as
scattered larger eosinophilic granules
B. The individual cells are large and their cytoplasm is filled with smaller
regular granules
C. All of the above

Page 28 of 31
77. Type I Neurofibromatosis or Von Recklinghausen Disease

A. Perineuroma
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Fibroma
78. True of Angiosarcoma EXCEPT:

A. Hemorrhagic and Invasive
B. Freely anastomosing vascular channels lined by typical endothelial
cells
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
79.True if leiomyosarcoma except:

A. Pattern of growth is predominantly fascicular...
B. Merging of tumor cells with blood vessel walls is an important
diagnostic sign
C. The individual cells have elongated blunted nuclei...
D. None of the above.
81. True of rhamdomyosarcoma variants EXCEPT:

82. True of ewing except:

A. 2nd most common bone sarcoma in children
b. Malignant characteristics by primitive round cell without obvious
differentiation
c. Most contain (11;22) (q24; q12) translocation gene in frame fusion of
ews gene chromosome
d. NOTA
83. Benign cartilage-capped tumor attached to underlying skeleton by a

bony stalk:
A. Osteochondroma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Chondroma
D. NOTA

Page 29 of 31
84. True of osteomyelitis except:
A. Complications are sequestrum and involucrum
B. Mycobacterial osteomyelitis is usually blood borne
C. Brodie abscess formation
D. NOTA
85.The presence of homer wright rosettes indicates a greater degree of

A. PNET
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
86. Herringbone appearance is a microscopic feature of what tumor:

A. Leiomyosarcoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Liposarcoma
87. Most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood

A. Lipoma
B. Neuroma
C. Fibroma
D. None of these
88.This tumor is a local type of tenosynovial giant cell tumor

A. Pigmented villonodullar synovitis
B. Ganglion giant cell tumor
C. Giant cell tumor of tendon synovial sheath
D. Synovial cyst
89. Most commonly diagnosed malignant neoplasms in bone.

- Mestastatic Tumors
90. Two most common extraarticular manifestation of RA:

a. Tenosynovitis
b. Rheumatoid nodules
c. Both
d. Neither.

Page 30 of 31
91. Osteochondroma radiographically appearance:
A. Thin stalk
B. Broad Base
C. Both
D. Neither
92. Echondroma microscopic property except:

A. Composed of lobules of hyaline cartilage often separated by normal
bone or marrow
B. Endochondral blah-blah-blah at the periphery of the lesion
C. Encasement pattern
D. Presence of invasive property
95) Osteopetrosis is also known as:

A. Albers–Schönberg Disease
B. Brittle Bone Disease
C. Both
D. NOTA
1 It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop. ---Confucius.

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ETA SURGICAL PATHOLOGY ​ ​ ​

2. Microscopic characteristic difference of usual interstitial disease from

3. Microscopically composed of blastematous spindle cells known as:

4. Calcification in cartilagenous pathway:

5. Microsopic appearance of poorly differentiated carcinoma

6. Changes in Eosinophilic Pneumonia:

7. True on Primary Chief Cell Hyperplasia, except:

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8. Composed of Langhans Giants Cells, lymphocytes and compact

9. Follicular cell with abundant granular acidophilic cytoplasm

10. Characteristics of pneumocystis pneumonia except?

11. Congenital cysticadenomatoid malformation is lined by what type of

12. Most common benign neoplasm of lung:

13. 43 yo, fever, malaise, tenderness on palpation of thyroid region.

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15. Which of the following is the most important morphologic substrate of

16. Most common primary carcinoma of the lung?

17. Full blown osseous manisfestation of hyperparathyroidism?

18. Which of the following are important contributions of frozen section in

19. Also known as Struma Lymphomatosa:

20. Which is a feature of parathyroid carcinoma water clear cell

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24. Pathologic change seen in tertiary hyperparathyroidism

25. True about Thyroglossal Duct Cyst except

26. Microscopic appearance of Graves’ disease

27. Juvenile form of Lymphocytic or autoimmune thyroiditis?

28. Hamman-Rich syndrome is synonymous with:

29. Microscopic appearance of Papillary Carcinoma.

30. Localized conglomerates of necrotizing granulomatous infection due

31. Most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children?

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33. Pleiomorphic malignant evidence with epithelial and glandular

34. Microscopic appearance of spindle cells, inflammatory cells with

35. Subtype of sarcomatoid mesothelioma characterized by diffuse

51. Genetically determined error in thyroid hormone metabolism

52. The ff statements are TRUE regarding autoimmune thyroiditis,

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53. Most common type of thyroid disease.

60. Gold standard technique for evaluation of solitary thyroid nodule?

61. Other name of achrocordon:

63. Most frequent form of skin cancer:

64. Microscopic feature of BCC, except:

65. Not true of cylindroma:

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66. Other name for cutaneous T-cell:

67. Feature is “comma shaped extensions” or tails:

73. Mutation in melanocytic nevi, except:

71. Second most common in sun-exposed areas

74.True of apocrine carcinoma

75.True of sebaceous adenoma, except?

76. True of Pilomatrixoma

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77. Nevus at the basal portion of the epidermis

78. Type of blue nevus showing a pushing border like silhouette of a

79.Other name of hot nevus:

80. Other name of Hutchinson freckle

81. Most common form of melanoma

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89. Other name of lymphocytoma benigna cutis:

92. Lesions of the dermis except:

93.Adnexal tumor, except:

97. Also known as Epithelioma cuniculatum

ETA SURGICAL PATHOLOGY