10/06/2022 @® CODE-B Aakash An Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-t 10008, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test -2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Topics covered Physics: Laws of motion, Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion. Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter: Gases and Liquids, ‘Thermodynamics. Botany = Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants. Zoology = Structural organization in Animals: Animal Tissues and Animal Morphology. Instructions ()) There are two sections in each subject, .6. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ji) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ili) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle, (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fll the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet, PHYSICS Choose the correct answer SECTION -A ay nf 2) nf2 1. A body of mass 5 kg is pulled by a force 5 3 F=(-4i+3}) N- from rest on a smooth ®) nz w a horizontal plane. The time at which it will attain a 5 5 speed of 4 mis is 3. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg kept on (3s @4s smooth horizontal surface and connected by a light rope are being pulled by 13 N and 24 N (3) 5s (4) 3.258 force as shown in the figure. The tension in the 2, If the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass string connecting the block is. Mand radius R n axis ing through it and radius about a axis passing through its Bega teN eigh> 24N 2 centre of mass is EMR’, then its radius of Ginath gyration about an axis which is parallel to given (1) 4N (2) 17.5N axis and at a distance 2R from the centre will be (3) 11N (4) Zero (ay©) CLICK HERE TO JOIN CHANNELTest-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 4, Two biliard balls each of mass 0.06 kg moving in ‘opposite directions with speed 5 ms“ collide and rebound with same speed. The impulse imparted to each ball due to the other are (1) 0.6 kg ms (2) 0.6 kg ms" each, in same directions. each, in opposite directions (3) 0.6 kg ms each, in transverse directions (4) 1.2 kg ms“ on one and zero on other A disc of radius R is rolling without slipping on a floor as_shown in the figure. If velocity of its centre of mass is vs, then velocity of point P at fo Ry the instant shown is | OP =] Lorn) (1) 2v0 vov3 2 2 von 2 (3) (4) V3v, A cylinder of mass M and radius R is in pure rolling with angular velocity @ over a horizontal plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about the point of contact of the sphere is y 1 o .. (1) 2Mee (2) 2MR% 3 3MR2e (9) Sto @ “6 A ball of mass m is thrown horizontally with speed vp as shown in the figure. The ball strikes the block of mass 2m and sticks to it, The maximum compression of the spring connected to the block will be Yo ik mo @) vl «) vet ‘Smooth ) vol 8) vo 10. " 12 If the kinetic energy of a body increases by 125%, the percentage increase in its momentum, (1) 50% (2) 62.5% (3) 250% (4) 200% Figure shows a small body at the top of a fixed and smooth hemispherical bowl of radius R. If the body starts slipping from the highest point then the horizontal displacement of the body before leaving the contact with the bowl is sie oe (2) VBR ASR VSR @ = @ ‘m; and mp are masses of two blocks placed one above the other as shown in the figure. There is no friction between the lower block and ground, ‘The lower block is being pushed by a constant horizontal force F, There is sufficient friction between the blocks so that they do not slip over each other. Work done by friction on upper block ifthe arrangement moves through distance $ is M.) Rough Foal | eos 2) ers @ mm FS Atorce =(ai+3] +6%)N is acting on a body at a point i =(2-6]—12h)m. The value of a, for which angular momentum about origin is conserved is (yo @1 @)-1 2 ‘A machine gun fres a bullet of mass 0 g with a velocity of 500 ms’. The man holding it can exert a maximum force of 150 Non the gun to keep it stationary. The maximum number of bullets that he can fire per second is as @7 @2 «9 having position vector (2)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code) 13. 14. 16. 16. 17. 18. AA block of mass 60 kg is altached to a spring balance, attached to the roof of a truck, The truck begins its motion on a horizontal road with its acceleration increasing slowly to a constant value. The reading of spring balance will be (1) 60 kgf (2) Less than 60 kgf (3) More than 60 kgf (4) Zero A disc of radius R is first rotated with an angular velocity aay and then carefully placed on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the surface and disc is y. The time after which aise starts pure rolling will be Hop 9 o 2g @) 2uR 2aR oR 2aoR 4) oR oS ® Sg lt A=2+3] and B=2]+3k, then scalar component of 8 along A is me a} 6 oF 4) Power P (in watt) given to a particle, changes with time t (in s) as P= + f+ 1. The change in kinetic energy from t= Oto t= 1 sis 1 6 ay (115 (3) 6d @ Bs 3 A particle of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r such that its centripetal acceleration a varies with time t as a = Kt?, where Kis constant. ‘The work done on the particle in first t seconds is. (1) 2mkre (2) mkre mkt?r mkt @) Sp @) a Aforce F = 3x2] moves a particle from (0, 0) to (2,4), Work done by the force is (1) 560 (2) 38d (3) 72d (4) Data insufficient 19. 20. 24 22, 23, Moment of inertia of an annular disc of mass M having inner and outer radius r and R respectively about an axis passing through centre ‘of mass and perpendicular to the plane of the discs 1 2p? 4 2p (1) SM(R* =r?) (2) 5M(R*-r?) (3) M(R?+ P) (4) MRP) AA block of mass 2 kg is moving with inital velocity 10 m/s enters on a rough horizontal surface. An extra force of 20 N Is opposing the motion and trying to stop the block, The time after which the block will stop momentarily is (g = 10 m/s”) 10 mis <— 2kg [> 20N Gites (1) 1s (2) 05s (3) 0675 (4) 0.338 Two identical balls A and B are released from the Positions shown in the figure. They collide ‘elastically on horizontal portion MN. The ratio of the respective heights attained by A and B after collision will be (neglect friction everywhere) A a i ()t:4 (2) 2:5 (3) 2:1 (4) 4:13 If a spherical hollow ball rolls on a table without slipping, then the fraction of its total kinetic, ‘energy associated with rotation is (1) (2) @) (4) Water falls from a height of 50 m at the rate of 20 kgJs to operate a turbine. The losses due to fictional forces are 20% of energy incident on the turbine. The power generated by the turbine is (g=10ms*) (1) 10Kw (3) 8kW (2) 12kW (4) 9 kW (@)Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 24. 25. 26. a7. Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood from (1) Conservation of energy only (2) Newton's first law of motion only (3) Newton’s second law of motion only (4) Newton's second and third law of motion A triangular frame Is made by combining three rods each of mass M and length L. Moment of inertia of the triangular frame about an axis through one side of the frame is (see figure) uu i Mi 3M OD a 2M2 me (3) 3 4) > Two uniform rods of mass m and 2m each of length L are placed along X and Y axis as shown in figure. Coordinates of the centre of mass of the combination is Ys mL eX 2m, L (2) (4) (£ la (b (3 ‘A block rests on a rough inclined plane making fan angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coofficient of static fiction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If frictional force on the block is 30 N, then the mass of the block is (g= 10 mis”) (1) 6kg (2) 4kg (3) 2kg (4) 8g 28. 29, 30. at 32, A uniform thin rod of length and mass m is hinged at one end O and released from horizontal Position as shown in figure, The angular velocity of the rod about the hinge point, when rod becomes vertical is — ——— ° 9 g ye @) Va (3) f @) ea If speed and density of a liquid coming out of a cylindrical pipe is increased to three times, then the force required to hold the pipe becomes (1) 3 times (2) 9times (3) 27 times (4) 6 times ‘Two blocks of masses 2m and 3m are connected through a string which passes over a pulley (disc) ‘of mass m and radius R as shown in figure. If system is released from rest and string does not slip on the pulley, then angular acceleration of the pulley is Ba] ar 2 2, wy 7 @ OF @ ae Inertia of a body is the measure of (1) Velocity of body (2) Acceleration of body (3) Force on body (4) Mass of body Select correct statement regarding friction (1) Static (2) Maximum value of static friction is called limiting friction force friction is a self adjust (3) Kinetic friction is always less than static, friction (4) Both (1) and (2) (4)Final Test Si 33, for NEET-2022 ‘The force F acting on a particle of mass 2 kg is indicated by the force-time graph as shown in figure. The change in momentum of the particle ‘over the time interval from 1 s to 5 sis oO 3 (1) 9Ns (2) 85Ns (3) 8Ns. (4) 75Ns A block of mass m is revolving in a smooth groove on a smooth horizontal plane with constant speed v. If the radius of the circular path is R, then net contact force on the block is 8 as) 34. (1) (2) mg v2 R 4) mg () mg +E 35. Shyam (40 kg) and hs father (80 kg) are standing at two opposite ends of a plank (20 kg), 4 m in length Kept at the surface of a still water body. If they both move towards each other to mest exactly at the contre of plank. Find cistanco moved by plank, 2 4 1) 2m 2) Am 5 Qs @ tm SECTION-B 36, A ladder of length ¢= 6 mand mass m = 10 kgis placed against a smooth vertical wall, but ground is rough with coefficient of friction = 0.5. The angle 6 with the horizontal at which ladder can be in equilibrium is n=05 (1) 30° (2) 50° (3) 60° (4) Both (2) and (3) 37. 38. 39. 40, 44 Test-2 (Code) ‘The force acting on a particle moving along x-axis varies with position on x-axis is as shown in figure. The partici is in stable equilibrium at 4F => lo aa (1) x= (2) x= x2 (3) x=0 (4) Both (1) and (2) A force F=-K(yi+x]) (where k is constant) acts on a particle moving in the xy plane. Starting from origin, the particle is taken along juaxis to the point (0, a). The work done by agent applying the foree on the particle is (1) Rue+ 7) (2) Zero (2) by (4) be ball is moving with a speed of 9 mis strikes an identical stationary bal obliquely f the colision is elastic and the colliding ball makes an angle of 30° with the original line, then the angle made by the second ball with original ine is (1) 0° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 60° ‘A man is standing at the centre of a freely rotating platform with his hands parallel to the surface of platform. The kinetic energy of the system is k. Man now orients his hands parallel to his body so that moment of inerlia of the system is halved. The kinetic energy of the system is now k (1) 2k @s k 3) & (4) 4k @ > 4) The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation (0) = 4 - 3 + 2t The torque on the wheel becomes zero at (6)Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 42. 43, 44. 45. A tennis ball bounces down a flight of stairs, striking each step in turn and rebounding to the height as shown in figure. If the height of each step is d, then coefficient of restitution is, a 1 Qe (4) 1 1 4 A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R= 4 m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 400 kg m?, Itis initially at rest. A 60 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 mis relative to ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution will be (1) 1.6588 (2) 2.35% 8) 3.75 (4) 4.25% A bob is whirled in a vertical circular motion of radius R using a string as shown in figure. Choose the correct statement (3) 7 (1) Net work done by gravity is always zero in half cycle (2) Net work done by tension is alvays zero in half cycle (3) Net work done by both gravity and tension is always zero in half cycle (4) Net work done by both gravity and tension is always non zero in full cycle Mass per unit length of a uniform cross-sectional rod of length L is given by yu = kx, where k is a constant and x is distance from one end of the rod. The distance of the centre of mass of rod from this endis L Os 2 @% ) 46. 47. 48, 49. 50, A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is released from height h on an inclined plane. If solid sphere is rolling without slipping on the inclined then angular velocity of sphere when it reaches the bottom of inclined plane is (1) 29h 2) 4 oan R 5 1 [fan 1 dg O Ro ORT ‘The ratio of accelerations a1 and a2 of block of mass m as shown in figure (i) and (ji) are «fl : fi 3mg 0 wy (yas4 (2) 6:1 @) 1:3 (4) 1:6 Astone of mass 2 kg is tied to one end of a string of length 0.5 m. It is whirled in a vertical circle. If velocity of stone at the top of circle is 5 mvs, the tension in the string at the bottom of the circle is (g=10ms*) (1) 125N (2) 164N (3) 200N (4) 228N A small mass M is suspended by a string from the ceiling of a car. As the car accelerates at a rate ‘a’, the string make an angle @ with the vertical. Then tension in the string will be (1) Mgcoso (2) Masino (3) Maya? +g* (a) Mya’ AA bioyciist skidding, comes to stop in § m. During this process, the friction force on bicycle due to the road is 100 N and is directly opposite to the motion. The workdone by the cycle on the road is (1) - 500 (2) +5005 (3) - 5000 J (4) Zero (6)51 52, 53, 54, 56. 56. 87. 58, 59, for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-8) SECTION-A ‘The species having maximum bond angle is, (1) CH (2) NHs (3) H20 (4) Hes Which of the following processes is always an exothermic process? (1) Acid-base neutralisation (2) Combustion (3) Formation of a compound (4) Atomisation Cp and Cy for a gas respectively are 0.125 cal/g and 0.075 cal/g. Which one of the following gas has these values? (1) He (2) Ar (3) O (4) CH Which of the following gas will have highest critical temperature? (1) O (2) He (3) NHe (4) Ne Ratio of lone pair electrons to bond pair electrons fon central atom of I; ion is (ast 1:2 (3) 3:2 (4) 34 The ratio of density of COz and N:O gases at same conditions is aaa @) 1:3 (3) 2:4 (4) 3:2 ‘Amount of heat released when 0.1 mol of HNOs is neutralised by 0.1 mol of KOH in water is (1) 57-1kd (2) 13.7 kd (3) 5.71 kd (4) 1.37 ks The number of x bonds present in CHs(CN)2 and CA(CN)e respectively are (1) 2,4 (2) 4,4 8) 4.6 (4) 6,6 If 2 mole of an ideal gas expanded isothermally at 300 K from 5 litre volume to 50 litre volume then maximum work done in this process will be (1) -11.49ks (2) #11.49 ks (3) 4.99 (4) 4.99 kd 60. 61 62, 63, 64, 65. 66, 67. ‘The pair containing electron deficient species is (1) NFa, BFs (2) CCl, Ss (3) SF4, AlCl (4) BFs, AICls A gas at 25°C expanded isothermally from initial pressure of 0.5 MPa to a final pressure of 0.1 MPa, Select the correct option in the following (1) aH 4 AE>0,AT=0,w=- (2) AH>0, AE <0,AT+0,w=+q (3) AH=0, AE =0, AT=0,w=-q (4) AH =0, AE =0,AT+0,w=0 Px pr bond{s) is/are present in (1) NHs (2) No; (3) PCls (4) Poy The total number of antibonding electron pair(s) in Nz as per molecular orbital theory is Oa (22 (3) 3 (4) 4 van der Waals constant ‘a’ is least for (1) Hela), (2) COAg) (3) Cov) (4) NHs(Q) ‘What is the bond order of N-O bond in NO5 ion? (1) 1.25 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.50 (4) 1.75 In which of the following processes, entropy will increase? (1) Denaturation of protein (2) Polymerization process (3) Crystallisation process (4) Condensation of steam Statement I: Energy of resonance hybrid is always more than the energy of any single canonical structure. ‘Statement Il: The Canonical forms have no real existence. In the light of above statements choose the correct option among the following, (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (2) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (3) Both statement 1 incorrect and. statement II are (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct @”Test-2 (Code-B) 68. 69, 70. n 72. 73, 74, 7. 76. Work done in the chemical process CaCOx(s) —+ CaO(s) + CO2{9), for one mole of CaCOs at 27°C is (1) -30R (2) -300 (3) -600 (4) -300R, Correct order of stability of the given species is (1) Nj >Ny > NZ (2) No >N>N5 (3) Np >N3>Nj (4) Np >Np>N, Hydrogen gas diffuses 3/3 times to that of a hydrocarbon (C;Hz.-2), under identical conditions, of temperature and pressure, the value of n is. (2 (2) 3 3) 4 (4) 5 ‘Among the following, the most viscous liquid is (1) Methanol (2) Glycerol (3) Acetic acid (4) Ethanal 0.1 M HCI (V = 200 mi) and 0.2 M NaOH (V = 100 mi) are mixed together. Temperature of solution increases in above process is (Specific heat of HO = 4.2 Jig K, density of solution = 1 g/ml) (1) ogre @erc (3) SC (4) 18°C The density of gas is found to be 1.41 gil at 700 mm Hg pressure and 350 K temperature. Gas can be (1) co (2) co. (3) SOz (4) CHe What percentage of the air wll be escaped out if {an open vessel is heated from 300 K to 500 K? (1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 50% (4) 70% Maximum number of atoms present in a plane in CHe = C = CHais (7 Qa (3) 6 @s In the formation of O2 from the O3, the last electron is removed from which one of the following orbitals? (1) ot Bo 2) x Aa 77. 78, 79. 80, 81 82, 83, 84, 85. Final Test Series for NEET-2022 For the reaction CHa(g) + 202(g) -» CO2(g) + 2H20(1) Enthalpy change (AHf) is (Given, AH, of CH, (g), CO,(g) andH,0(!) are respectively —x, ~y and —z kJ mol“) (1) x+y #2zkJ mol" (2) x—y—2z kJ mot (3) y—x+2zkJ mol (4) y+2—xkd mol Statement I: Viscosity of liquids decreases as temperature increases. Statement Il: Glass is extremely viscous liquid In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct (2) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect (8) Both statement | incorrect (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct Salt having maximum latice energy among the following is (1) uF (2) tic (3) LiBr (4) Lil The pressure exerted by a mixture of 8 g of methane and 8 g of helium gas present in closed container having volume 4.1 L at 27°C will be (1) 9atm (2) 15 atm (@) 12atm (4) 18 atm Consider the process : A-»B > C >. ASwo is 10 JK, ASS 0 is #20 JK", ASo.0 is +25 JK" then ASaso is and statement II are (1) SUK (2) SK (3) 45K" (4) 155K" Maximum bond length among the following is of (1) O-H (2) N-O (@) c-c (4) C-N Ratio of most probable speed of O; and SO, at 27°C temperature will be 1) Jas4 (2) 2:4 (3) 421 (4) 424 If the densities of methane and oxygen are in the ratio 1: 2, then the ratio of rate of diffusion of O» to CHs will be (1) 1:2 (2) 421.414 (3) 2:4 (4) 1.41424 Correct relation of root mean square speed (Um), most probable speed (Uns) and average speed (Um) of a given gas at a particular temperature is (1) Urns > Yay > Ump (2) Ump > Uav > Urs (3) Uae > Urns > Ump (4) Yay > Ump > Us (8)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-8) 86, a7. 88. 89, 90. 1 SECTION -B Pressure of 1g of gas A at 27°C is 2 atm, Pressure becomes 3 atm when 2 g of another gas B is introduced in the same flask. The relation between molecular masses of A(Ma) and B(Me) wil be (1) Ma= 4M, (2) Mo = 4Ma My My 3) My -= (4) My = The enthalpy of vaporisation for 1 g of water from the following data is () Hdg)+ 3 OG) HeO(9) AH =-67.8 kcal mor (9 Heo Lo) -+Hog; a= 589% rot (1) 10.5 kcal (2) 0.58 kcal Gfistal Goren Caner flog Somers abut Knee ten fares 2 Parles of a gas move ina posble teeters n sag in b. Cason gs aloes re prety se ©. At any pricdr tne, fret pres in the os have sre spa ana ene sae ince oon ‘The correct statements are (1) aandconly (2) band c only (3) aandb only (4) a,bande In van der Waals gas equation, which term denotes the total volume occupied by the molecules? an? = (2) (v—nb) (3) nb (poe v Dipole-dipole interaction energy _ between stationary polar molecules is proportional to (is distance between polar molecules) mt OF es Intensive property among the following is, (1) Entropy (2) Enthalpy (3) Density (4) Internal energy 92, 93, 94, 95, 96. 97, 98. Dipole moment is usually expressed in Debye Units (D). The conversion factor is (1) 1D = 3.33564 « 10° Cm (2) 1D = 6.53364 x 10? Cm (3) 1D = 6.53554 « 10° C m (4) 1D = 3.33564 « 109° Gm Molecule which does not exist is (1) Ge (2) Be (3) Hes (4) He ‘Among the given species, how many are linear in shape? COs, HoCh, CoH, BFs, C2Ho, SOz ys 6 @) 4 (4) 3 Statement I: Isoelectronic molecules and ions have identical bond orders. ‘Statement Il: B2 is paramagnetic is nature. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct (3) Both statement I and statement 1 incorrect are (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct Dimension of surface tension in SI unit is (1) kg ms? (2) kgs (3) kgs? (4) kg mes: 1g of benzene is burt at 25°C and liberates, 2.5 kd heat. Heat of combustion of benzene at 25°Cis (1) 25 kJ mol" (2) 195 kJ mol (3) 150 kJ mol (4) 75 kJ mol Which of the following has its standard enthalpy of formation zero at 298 K? (1) Bria) (2) He(l) (3) Cidamens (4) lesen ()Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 99. Statement I: For ideal gas Z = 1, at all temperatures and pressures. Statement II: At high pressure, all real gases have Z>1 In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (2) Both statement | and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct 100. Match column | with column I Column-t Column-i (Species) (Hybridisation) ali o | SG Wi) | sore ¢. | $0. (i) [ se*a 4. [xeF [ivy [sp (1) ali, BOW), e(D, ay (2) ativ), b(i), o(ii), ail) 8) ai, iv), of), i) (4) afi, Biv), i), i) SECTION -A 101. The homosporous vascular cryptogams (1) Show the events precursor to the seed habit (2) Produce same types of spores (8) Are aquatic ferns only (4) Show haplontic life-cycle pattem 102. Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with (1) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria (2) Water absorbing basidiomycetes (3) Chemosynthetic heterotrophic bacteria (4) Chemoautotrophic archaebacteria 103. All of the following multiply by fragmentation, except (1) Fungi (2) Filamentous algae (3) Protonema of moss (4) Unicellular algae 104, PEN is formed after fertilization in (1) Cycas, Ginkgo, Pinus (2) Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Pinus (3) Sunflower, Wolffa, Eucalyptus (4) Ginkgo, Wolff, Cycas 105. Identify the mismatched pair. (1) Volvox — Non-motile female gamete Unicellular alga Floridean starch Biflagellate zoospore (2) Chlamydomonas (3) Fucus - (4) Sargassum — 108. How many feature(s) is/are common between bryophytes and pteridophytes? a, True leaves b. Diploid sporophyte c. Jacketed sex organs 4d. Motile male gametes . Haplo-ciplontic life-cycle (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) One 107. How many among the following are members of Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae respectively? Dictyota, Gelidium, Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, ‘Sargassum, Ectocarpus, Porphyra (1) 5,2 (2) 3,4 (3) 4,2 (4) 4,3 108. Identify the statements as True (T) or False (F) wert. Ulothrix. ‘A. Itshows haplo-diplontic life cycle pattern. 8. Has rigid cell wall made up of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of carrageen, C. Most common spores produced are the zoospores, D. Dominant pigments are chlorophyll-a and chiorophyl-. (1) A-T,B-F,C-T,0-T (2) A-F,B-F,C-T,D-T (@) A-F,B-T,C-F,D-F (4) A-F,B-T,C-1,0-F (10)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-8) 109. 110. 1 112 113. On the basis of the following features, identify the algae from the given options. + Inner cellulosic cell wall is covered outside by algin. + Pear-shaped gameles bear two attached flagella, laterally (1) Chara (2) Porphyra (3) Spirogyra (4) Laminaria A_and Bare unicellular algae rich in protein and used as food supplements by space travellers. Select the correct option for A and B. (1) A- Chlamydomonas, B - Ulva (2) A- Chlorella, 8 - Spirulina (3) A Chlorella, 8 - Porphyra (4) A Dictyota, B - Laminaria In liverworts, gemmae are (1) Non-green, multicellular vegetative structures (2) Green, unicellular asexual buds (3) Non-green, unicellular vegetative buds (4) Green, multicellular asexual buds Consider the following statements w.r.t mosses and select the right choice. ‘The sporophyte is less elaborate than that of liverworts. Zygote develops structure, c. Sex organs are produced at the apex of the leafy shoots. d. Leafy stage is developed from secondary protonema. (1) a,b & care correct (2) Only ais incorrect (8) candd are correct (4) Only dis correct Which of the following features is not correct for pteridophytes? (1) Main plant body is differentiated into stem, leaves and roots into green filamentous (2) Vascular tissue has xylem and phloem (3) These plants may be homosporous or heterosporous (4) They always retain megaspores permanently within the megasporangia 114. 116. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. Majority of the red algae are marine and reach the maximum depth in sea water where no other type of photosynthetic organism grow. Red colour of these algae is due to the abundance of, (1) Chlorophyll a (2) Chlorophyll b (3) Fucoxanthin (4) Phycoerythrin Which among the following alga has stored food very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure? & a Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum, Lycopodium and Pieris belong to how many classes of pteridophytes? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Pyrenoids in green algae contain (1) Protein and starch (2) Cellulose and fatty acids (3) Cellulose and starch (4) Glucose and glycogen Roots arise from parts of plant other than the radicle in (1) Mustard (2) Monstera 3) Carrot (4) Tumip Root hairs arise from epidermal calls located in (1) Region of elongation (2) Region of meristematic activity (3) Region of maturation (4) Root cap Adventitious roots of __A get swollen and slore food. (A) is (1) Carrot 8) Potato (2) Sweet potato (4) Zaminkand (11)Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 124 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. Match the following columns and select the 128. Select the correct match. correct answer ()]cius [=[Leaves moditied into Column! Column-i thos (@) | Maize stem | () | Respiratory roots @]Pea_|—| Leaves modified into () | Rhizophora | (i) | Supporting roots tendris coming out of (8) | Cactus [=] Stem modified into lower nodes of spine sem (4)| Onion |—|'Stem modified to store © | Wheat Gi) | Prop roots food (@ [Banyan tree | (i) [Roots originate | | 129. How many of the following plants have flowers from base of which can be divided into two similar halves only stem in one particular vertical plane? (1) alii), b(i), efiv), d(iii) (2) ativ), b(i), efi), aii) (3) a(ii), bill), efi), d(iv) (4) afiv), B(i), efill), di) ‘xllary buds develop into stem tendrils in all of following plants except (1) Cucumber (3) Watermelon Potiolos of which plant expand and become green to synthesize food? (1) Euphorbia (2) Australian acacia (3) Venus fly trap (4) Opuntia Lateral branches originate from the basal underground portion of main stem, grow horizontaly beneath the soil and come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots in (2) Pumpkin (4) Bougainvillea (1) Pistia (2) Eichhomia (3) Pineapple (4) Grass Leaves originate from _P__and are arranged in _Q_ order. Here P and Q are respectively (1) Shoot apical meristem, acropetal (2) Floral meristem, acropetal (3) Root apical meristem, basipetal (4) Shoot apical meristem, basipetal In neem, leaflets are present on a common axis called (1) Receptacle (3) Petiole The leatlets of (2) Rachis (4) Pedicel (P)_is attached at a common point i. tip of petiole. Here (P) is (2) Silk cotton (4) Calotropis (1) China rose (3) Guava 130. 131 132 Pea, Cassia, Canna, Mustard, Datura Gulmohar, Bean, Chl (2 2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 Based on the position of floral whorls w.r. ovary on thalamus, which flower shows the given condition? @ (1) Guava (2) Plum (3) Rose (4) China rose Which of the following flower has sepals or petals in a whorl which just touch one another at margin without overlapping? (1) Gulmohur (2) China rose (3) Cassia (4) Calotropis Find the incorrect match. (1) [China rose] - | Monoadelphous stamens (2) | Pea = | Diadetphous stamens (3) | Citrus = | Polyadelphous stamens (4) | Brinjal — | Epiphylious stamens, (12)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code) 133. 134. 136. 136. 137. 138, In coconut fruit, mesocarp is (1) Edible and fleshy (2) Stony and hard (3) Fibrous and inedible (4) Hard and edible (A) The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by aleurone layer in monocot seed. (8) Monocot embryo consists of one large shiold shaped cotyledon called scutellum. Select the correct option. (1) Only statement (A) is correct (2) Only statement (B) is correct (3) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect Floral formula of Trifolium is. 1) %FK sO roreQouiGs 2) ok Gq (3) BOF Poa Age 4) oF KC An, SECTION -B Select the correct statement from the following, (1) Zygotic meiosis does not occur in Volvox (2) Fucus does not show the same life-cycle pattern as most of the algae show (3) In both bryophytes and pteridophytes, the dominant phase is diploid sporophyte (4) All vascular plants are seed bearing plants How many of the following are associated with members of red algae? Floridean starch, Archegonium, Motile male gamete, Oogamous reproduction, Complex post fertilisation development (1) Three (3) Five Members of liverworts (a) Have true leaves (b) Have free living sporophyte (c) Have roots (d) Have sporophyte differentiated into foot, seta and capsule (1) (d) only (3) (c) & (d) (2) Four (4) Two (2) (a) & (b) only (4) (a), (0) & (c) 139. 140. 141 142 143. 144. 145. 146. The number of cells in the egg apparatus of ‘embryo sac in angiosperms is (1) Two (2) Five (3) Three (4) Four Allium and Colchicum are the related genera of family (1) Anacardiaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Liliaceae (4) Poaceae Which of the following structures can be shed from the sporophyte during the life cycle of a gymnosperm? (1) Pollen, ovule (2) Microspore, Megaspore (3) Male gametophyte, seed (4) Ovule, megaspore How many of given characters are true for dicotyledons? (a) Tetramerous flowers (©) Parallel venation (6) Trimerous flowers (a) Two cotyledonous seed (e) Triple fusion a2 23 4 Ol Leaf base bears two lateral leaf like structures called (1) Pulvinus (2) Stipules (3) Bracts (4) Bracteoles Parallel venation is a characteristic feature of (1) Bean (2) Wheat (3) Gram (4) Pea A bud is present in all of following types of leaves given below except (1) Axil of petiole in monocot leat (2) Axi of petiole in compound leat (3) Axil of leaflets of compound leat (4) Axl of petiole in dicot leat ____ Is a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the fruit. (1) Testa (2) Tegmen (3) Hitum (4) Micropyle (13)Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 147 148. 151 152 153. 154. 165. Bicarpellary, obliquely placed, syncarpous gynoecium with swollen placenta is a characteristic feature of (1) Aloe (2) Petunia (3) Brassica (4) Gram Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to formation of false septum in (1) Primrose (2) Dianthus (8) Argemone (4) China rose 149. Axile placentation in ovary is found in all plants except (1) China rose (2) Tomato (3) Lemon (4) Pea 150. in Cymose inflorescence, (1) Main axis continues to grow indefinitely (2) Main axis terminates into a flower (3) Flowers are bome laterally in an acropetal succession (4) Young flowers are present at apex and old flowers at the base SECTION -A Ligaments connect (1) Humerus to biceps: (2) Tibia to femur (3) Biceps to triceps (4) Triceps to humerus Is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body. ‘A’ is type of Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue (8) Muscular tissue (4) Neural tissue Which type of simple epithelial tissue is made of thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries? (1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal (3) Columnar (4) Ciliated columnar facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules. Choose the option which fils the blank correctly. (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions. (3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes Select the mouth parts in cockroach that are Paired. (1) Maxilla, mandible (2) Labium, labrum (3) Hypopharynx, labrum (4) Maxilla, labium 186. The wings of cockroach used in fight are (1) Mesothoracic wings (2) Metathoracic wings (3) Tegmina (4) Evytra 187, Brood pouch in a female cockroach is formed by (1) 7® stemum only (2) 7*, 8°, and 9" sternum (3) 9, 12", 11% sternum (4) 14% and 12 sternum only 158. Select the incorrect statement w.rt. Periplaneta (1) The hindgut is broader than the midgut. (2) The crop of cockroach is used for storing food. (3) A ring of blind tubules called hepatic caecae is present at the junction of foregut and midgut (4) Blood vascular system of cockroach is of closed type with a continuous bidirectional flow. 159, Find out the correct statement w.rt. respiration in Periplaneta americana (1) The opening of the spiracies is regulated by sphincters. (2) Consists of trachea that open through spiracles present on ventral side of body. (3) Its inspiration is an active process. (4) Malpighian tubules are attached to the alimentary canal at the junction of foregut and hindgut 160. A set of connective tissues among the following (1) Ligaments, cartilages, skeletal muscles (2) Areolar tissue, smooth muscles, adipose tissue (3) Spongy bones, blood, calcified cartilage (4) Dense irregular connective tissue, urothelium, lymph (14)for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-8) 161. Find the incorrect match w.r-t cockroaches. (1) Hepatic caecae (2) Ganglia connected with nerve cord (3) Oothecae Six to eight Nine Female produces Nine to ten (4) Ejaculatory ducts — Two in number 162. A group of similar cells along with intercellular substances performing a specific function, is known as (1) Organ system (2) Organ (3) Tissue (4) Body 163. Choose the odd one w.rt. location of compound epithelium. (1) Lining of stomach (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity (3) Pharynx (4) Dry surface of skin 164. Select the odd one wart. location of non-striated muscles. (1) Wall of blood vessels (2) Wall of heart (3) Wall of stomach (4) Wall of intestine 165. All of the following are connective tissues except (1) Areolar tissue (2) Blood (3) Bone (4) Myocardium 168. In cockroaches, each Malpighian tubule is lined by cells Select the correct option to fill n the blank, (1) Glandular and non-ciliated (2) Glandular and ciliated (8) Non-glandular and ciliated (4) Non-glandular and non-ciliated 167. In cockroach, which type of mouth parts has grinding and incising region? (1) Labrum, (2) Mandible (3) Labium (4) Maxilla 168. Select the correct statement for the muscles present in abdominal wall. (1) Myofibrils do not show distinct alternate light and dark bands (2) They do not get fatigued (3) Voluntary in nature (4) Presence of a central nucleus 169. 170. 1m 172 173, 174, Read the following statements. {a) Ground substance is solid and pliable. (0) Present in between bones of vertebral column. Identify the tissue on the basis of given characteristics and choose the correct option. a) om Select the odd one wr, secretions of glands which is released through ducts. (1) Ear wax. (2) Oil (3) Hormone (4) Milk, ‘The type of muscle which does not have any kind of cell junctions is, (1) Smooth muscles (2) Skeletal muscles (3) Involuntary muscles (4) Cardiac muscles. Which of the following is true for the function of epithelial lining of the initial bronchioles? (1) To provide mainly protection against chemical stresses (2) To form a diffusion boundary (3) To move particles or mucus in a specific direction (4) To secrete and absorb substances Adipose tissue is similar to areolar tissue in all of the following, except (1) Type of connective tissue cells (2) Presence of matrix (3) Type and arrangement of fibres (4) Storage of fat as main function ‘There are four types of tissues in animals namely, epithelial, connective, muscular and neural. How many of the given tissues are present in heart? (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four (15)Test-2 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 175. 176. 477 178. 179. 180. Choose the correct match among the following wart, cockroach, (1) Anal style — Responsible for sexual dimorphism, present in females (2) Spermatheca - Single, present in 6” segment (3) Titilator and = Constitute the right psoudopenis phallomere in males (4) Phallic gland = - Part of reproductive system in male Bone differs from cartilage in having (1) Lacunae (2) Lametiae (3) Chondrocytes (4) Collagen fibres Complete the analogy. Blood vessels : Squamous epithelium : : PCT of nephrons (1) Columnar epithelium (2) Ciliated epithelium (3) Compound epithelium (4) Cuboidal epithelium Which set of features is true for the muscles involved in the churning movement of food in alimentary canal? (1) Tapering ends, striated, involuntary (2) Non-striated, cylindrical, voluntary (3) Uninucleated, fusiform, central nucleus (4) Involuntary, non-striated, multinucleated Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement A: Maxillary palps and anal cerci are sensory organs of cockroaches. Statement B: During an injury, neurons are least likely to be replaced by new cells. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct, (4) Only statement B is correct, Choose the correctly matched pair. (1) [Tendon — ]Dense irregular connective tissue (2) [Main pancreatic |= [Glandular duct epithelium (3) [Inner lining of — | Ciliated epithelium salivary ducts (4) [Blood — | Fluid connective tissue 181 182 183. 184, 185. Match column | with column Il and select the correct option. Column! Column a. | Unipolar neurons | (i) | Retina of eye b. | Bipolar neurons | (il) | Dorsal root ganglion of spinal nerve c. | Pseudounipotar | (ii) | Cerebral cortex neurons d. | Multipolar () | Early embryos neurons a ob cd ow oO w@ Gi) aw oO wi wi ao ww ww Gi) 40 Gi) Gy Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth (1) Oesophagus > Pharynx > Gizzard -> Crop > Midgut —>tleum —> Colon + Rectum Pharynx -> esophagus > Gizzard > Proventriculus -» Midgut -» Colon > Rectum 2) > lleum (3) Pharynx > Oesophagus — Crop > Gizzard > Mesenteron — lleum > Colon > Rectum (4) Pharynx —» Crop > Oesophagus -> Gizzard —+ Mesenteron — Ileum > Rectum — Colon In male cockroach, sperms are stored and are glued together in the form of bundles called ‘B’ which are discharged during copulation. Identify 'B’ and select the correct option (1) Oothecae (3) Spermathecae (2) Phallomeres (4) Spermatophores. The nitrogenous waste in cockroach in rainy season is (1) Ammonia (2) Uric acid (3) Urea (4) Guanine Which of the following connective tissue lacks cells that secrete fibres of structural proteins? (1) Alveolartissue (2) Blood (3) Adipose (4) Tendon (16)for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-8) 186. 187 188. 189. SECTION -B Select the edd one w.rt. Rana tigrina, (1) RBCs are nucleated (2) Circulatory system closed type with complete double circulation (3) Body divisible into head and trunk (4) Tongue is bilobed at the tip Read the following statements: Epithelial cells rest on a non-cellular layer Il. Single unit smooth muscle fibres possesses coll junctions. II Brush bordered columnar epithelium of intestine helps in absorption of food. IV. Saliva is an exocrine secretion Solect the option with all correct statements. (1) Hand tt only (2) |, Hand Il only (3) Hand iv only (4) 111 tl and tv The correct sot of calls, their characters and locations is [celts Characters |Locations (1) [Adipocytes |Diapedesis | Matrix of supportive connective tissue (2) [Fibroblasts |ingest fibres | White fibrous andcell connective debris tissue (3) [Mast cells |Secrete — [Areolar histamine tissue (4) JOsteoclasts [Bone Cartilage and forming | cartilaginous bones Structure which increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine w.rt. earthworm, is called as (1) Intestinal caecum (2) Intestinal lumen (3) Typhlosole (4) Lymph glands 190. 191 192 193, 194. Read the following statements w.rt cockroaches, Statement A: Supra-Oesophageal ganglion supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes. Statement B: Mosaic vision has more sensitivity but less resolution. Choose the correct option (1) Statement Ais correct (2) Statement B is incorrect (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect Choose the odd one wr. type of cartilage (1) Tracheal rings (2) Nasal septum (3) Costa cartilage (4) Eustachian tube AAI of the following are the correct characteristic feature of lining of alveoli, except (1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries (2) Cells are compactly packed with intercellular matrix (3) The cells are ciliated (4) The nuclet of cells are flat and often lie at the centre of cells Select the incorrect option w.rt, cockroach. (1) Heart consists of 13 funnel-shaped contractile chambers. (2) The stage in the development of cockroach between two mouts is called nymph. (8) They can transmit a variety of bacterial diseases by contaminating food material. (4) Diumal and omnivorous Assertion (A): When one cell of cardiac muscle receives a signal to contract, its neighbour cells are also stimulated to contract. Reason (R): There is presence of ‘communicating junctions (intercalated diss) at some fusion points between muscle fibres. In light of above statements, choose the correct option, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, (R) is false (4) (A)is false, (R) is true ite (17)Test-2 (Code-B) 195. 196. 197. 198. The cells which are mesodermal in origin are (1) Microgiial cells (2) Astrocytes 3) Oligodendrocytes (4) Neurons The junctions present in the myometrium of Uterus for its contraction is (1) Tight junctions: (2) Adhering junctions (3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes A single Schwann cell can myelinate how many axon(s)? (1) 28 (21 (@) 1000 (4) 100 Which of the following is incorrect w.rt, bone when itis putin HCI? (1) It contains only the organic matter (2) Bone gets decalcified (3) It does not have bone marrow (4) Living structures are present 199. 200, a Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Match the following columns w.rt. cockroach and select the correct option. Column! Column it a.|Proventriculus | (i) | Thread-lke, unsegmented b.| Gastric (ii) ] Grinding of food caecae articles c.[Anal cerci | (i) | Secrete gastric juice d.[Anal style | (iv) [ Jointed, filamentous ab ocd mdi) @ (ii) (iv) (2) ) i) Gill) (iv) (3) (i) il) iv) (4) (i) div) li) Read the given statements wrt. Periplaneta. ‘A. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood. B. The last nymphal stage do not have forewings and hindwings. C. Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule, about 8 mm long. D, Head is connected with thorax by a short extension of mesothorax known as neck, How many of the above statements are incorrect? (1) Four (3) One (2) Three (4) Two (18)