LN Nurture Test 16-10-2022 QP

Test Pattern
(1015CMD301522014) *1015CMD301522014*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2022- 2023) 16-10-2022
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB
This Booklet contains 36 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

English / 16102022 Page 1/36
ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : ROTATIONAL MOTION, WHOLE THERMAL PHYSICS (EXP. THERMOMETRY THERMAL
EXPANSION, KTG), [BACK UNIT] :- LAW OF MOTION & FRICTION
SECTION - A 4. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the
Attempt All 35 questions extension in the spring, for which the block
remains at rest is (g = 10 m/s2)
1. For a body of mass 2kg v-t graph is shown in
figure.
The average retarding force acting on the body (1) 20 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
is
5. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively
(1) –24N (2) 12N
are connected by a massless spring as shown in
(3) –12N (4) 24N figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg
2. An impulse is supplied to a moving object with mass. At the instant when the 10 kg mass has
a force at an angle of 120° with the velocity an acceleration of 12 m s–2, then acceleration
vector. What is the angle between the impulse of the 20 kg mass is:
and the change in momentum?
(1) 0° (2) 30°
(3) 60° (4) 120°
(1) 2 m s–2 (2) 4 m s–2
3. 5 discs each of mass m are placed one above
(3) 10 m s–2 (4) 20 m s– 2
the other. The force on the first from the
bottom because of the remaining on the top is :- 6.

(1) mg
In the situation shown in figure net contact
(2) 2mg force between block and the ground is :-
(3) 3mg (1) 25 N (2) 50 N
(4) 4mg – –
(3) 50√3 N (4) 25√5 N
NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

Page 2/36 Space for Rough Work English / 16102022
ALLEN
7. In the arrangement shown in fig. The frictional 10. Two blocks A and B are released from the top
force on 2 kg block is : ––
of a rough inclined plane so that A slides along
the plane and B falls down freely. Which will
have higher velocity on reaching the ground :-
(1) A
(2) B
–
(3) Both will reach the ground with same
(1) 10 N (2) 5√3
velocity
(3) Zero (4) 5 N (4) It depends on the coefficient of friction
8. Block A is placed on a smooth horizontal 11. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis
surface. Another block B is placed in contact
through its centre and perpendicular to it is
with A as shown in figure. The coefficient of
1
friction between A and B is 0.5. The minimum M L 2 (where, M is the mass and L is the
12
acceleration of block A so that block B does lenght of the rod). The rod bent in the middle,
not fall
so that two halves make an angle of 60°. Now,
the MI about the same axis is :-
(1) ML2/18 (2) ML 2

(1) 10 m/s2 12
(3) ML2/20 (4) ML28√–3
(2) 20 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s2 12. A square lamina is as shown in figure. The
moment of inertia of the lamina about the three
(4) 5 m/s2
axes shown in figure are I1, I2 and I3
respectively. Select the correct alternative :-

9.
In the arrangement coefficient of friction
1
between the two blocks is μ = . The force of
2
friction acting between the two blocks is :-
(1) 8 N (2) 6 N (1) I2 = I3 > I1 (2) I1 > I2 > I3
(3) 10 N (4) 12 N (3) I2 = I3 < I1 (4) I1 < I2 < I3
English / 16102022 Space for Rough Work Page 3/36
ALLEN
13. A force F ⃗ = 3^i + 2^j − 4k^ acts at the 16. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible
point (1, – 1, 2). Find its torque about point string of length ℓ is suspended from a vertical
support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle
(2, – 1, 3)-
with an angular speed ω rad/s about the
−− −−
(1) √57 (2) √56 vertical. About the point of suspension :
−− −−
(3) √13 (4) √10 (1) Angular momentum changes in direction
14. but not in magnitude
A wheel of radius 10cm. can rotate freely about
(2) Angular momentum changes both in
its centre as shown in fig. a string is wrapped
direction and magnitude
over its rim and is pulled by a force of 5.0N. It
(3) Angular momentum is conserved
is found that the torque produces an angular
(4) Angular momentum changes in magnitude
acceleration 2.0 rad/s2 in the wheel. What will but not in direction
be the moment of inertia of the wheel :- 17. A mass m is moving at speed v perpendicular
to a rod of length d and mass M = 6 m which
pivots around a frictionless axle running
through its centre. It strikes and sticks to the
end of the rod. The moment of inertia of the rod
about its centre is Md2/12. Then the angular
(1) 0.25 kg-m2 (2) 1.35 kg-m2
speed of the system just after the collision is :-
(3) 2.54 kg-m2 (4) 3.25 kg-m2
15. Two small balls A and B, each of mass m, are
attached rigidly to the ends of a light rod of
length d. The structure rotates about the
perpendicular bisector of the rod at an angular
speed ω then the angular momentum of the (1) 2v
system about the axis of rotation is :- 3d
(2) 2v
(1) 3 mωd2/4
d
(2) mωd2/2 (3) v
d
(3) mωd2/4
(4) 3v
(4) 4 mωd2/5 2d

ALLEN
18. A rod of mass 4 kg and length 2 m is hinged 21. Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and a
about its one end and another end is free to
rotate in vertical plane. If the rod is released solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane
from horizontal find its angular velocity when without slipping. They start from rest. Which
it makes angle 60° from horizontal.
the body will reach the ground with maximum
velocity ?
(1) Ring
−−−−−−−−− −−−−
(1) – (2) – (2) Solid cylindor
15 × √ 3 3√3
√ √
2 2
(3) Solid sphere
(3) −−−−−−−
−
−
− (4) 2 –
√ 7
× √ 27 √3 (4) All will have same velocity
7
19. A ring of mass M is kept on a horizontal rough 22. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth
surface. A force F is applied tangentially at its horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0.
rim as shown. The coefficient of friction The mass is attached to a string which passes
between the ring and the surface is μ. Then
through a smooth hole in the plane as shown.
(1) Friction will act in the forward direction

(2) Friction will act in the backward direction
The tension in the string is increased gradually
(3) Frictional force will not act R0
and finally m moves in a circle of radius .
(4) Frictional force will be μMg 2
The final value of the kinetic energy is:-
20. A coin of mass 4.8 kg and radius one meter is
(1) 1 2
rolling on a horizontal surface without sliding mv
4 0
with angular velocity 600 rev/min. What is the
(2) 2mv20
total kinetic energy of the coin.
(3) 1 2
(1) 360 J (2) 1440 π J 2 mv
2 0
(3) 4000 π2 J (4) 600 π2 J (4) mv20

ALLEN
23. Which of these statements are incorrect :-
25. Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water
I. Moment of force is a vector quantity.
contained in calorimeter of water equivalent
II. Angular momentum may not be parallel to 0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the
angular velocity.
calorimeter rises to 80°C. The mass of steam
III. Angular momentum of a particle moving in condensed in kilogram is :-
a straight line with constant velocity is always (1) 0.13 (2) 0.065 (3) 0.260 (4) 0.135
constant with respect to fixed point.
IV. Moment of inertia of a body remains same 26. A piece of metal of mass 5kg and temperature
irrespective of position of axis of rotation. (–50ºC) is dropped in 20 kg water at 52ºC
temperature. In thermal equilibrium
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV temperature of water decreases by 2ºC, then
24. Three rods A, B, and C of thermal specific heat of metal is :
conductivities K, 2K and 4K, cross-sectional (1) 0.02 Cal/gºC
areas A, 2A and 2A and lengths 2 ℓ , ℓ and ℓ
(2) 0.04 Cal/gºC
respectively are connected as shown in the
figure. If the ends of the rods are maintained at (3) 0.08 Cal/gºC
temperatures 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C (4) 0.10 Cal/gºC
respectively, then the temperature θ of the 27. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat of
junction is :- solid wax = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) and heats it till it
boils. The graph between temperature and time
is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per
minute and boiling point are respectively
(1) 50°C
(2) 300 (1) 500 cal, 200°C
°C
13
(2) 1000 cal, 200°C
(3) 250
°C (3) 1500 cal, 200°C
13
(4) 20°C (4) 4500 cal, 200°C
ALLEN
28. A wall is made of two layers of thickness 1 cm 31. A diatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic
and 4 cm and thermal conductivities K and 3K change according to the P-V diagram shown in
respectively. If temperature difference for the the figure. The heat given the gas in AB :
wall is 50ºC then temperature difference for the
thin layer will be :
(1) 120 o
C
7
(2) 150 o
C
7 (1) 2.5 P0V0 (2) 1.4 P0V0
(3) 180 o
C (3) 3.9 P0V0 (4) 1.1 P0V0
7
(4) None 32. In the following P-V diagram two adiabatics
cut two isothermals at temperatures T1 and T2
29. Figure shows three different arrangements of Va
materials 1, 2 and 3 to form a wall. Thermal (fig.). The value of will be
Vd
conductivities are k1 > k2 > k3. The left side of
the wall is 20°C higher than the right side.
Temperature difference ΔT across the material
1 has following relation in three cases :
(1) Vb (2) Vc (3) Vd

(4) VbVc
Vc Vb Va
(1) ΔTa >ΔTb >ΔTc 33. 'n' moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process
A → B as shown in the figure. The maximum
(2) ΔTa =ΔTb = ΔTc
temperature of the gas during the process will be :-
(3) ΔTa = ΔTb > ΔTc
(4) ΔTa =ΔTb< ΔTc
30. A body takes 4 minutes to cool from 100°C to

70°C. To cool from 70°C to 40°C it will take
(room temperature is 15°C)
(1) 9 P 0 V0 (2) 9 P 0 V0
(1) 7 minutes (2) 6 minutes nR 4nR
(3) 3 P 0 V0 (4) 9 P 0 V0
(3) 5 minutes (4) 4 minutes
2nR 2nR
ALLEN
3/2
34. Certain perfect gas is found obey PV = const. SECTION - B
during adiabatic process. If such a gas at initial This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
temperature T is adiabatically compressed to can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
half the initial volume, in final temperature will these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
be more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(1) √
–
2T (2) 2T questions will be considered for marking.
(3) 2√–2 T (4) 4T 36.
35. P-T diagram is shown below then choose the

corresponding V-T diagram
Two masses m and M are attached with strings

as shown. For the system to be in equilibrium,
(1) we have
(1) 2M
tan θ = 1 +
m
(2) 2m
tan θ = 1 +
M
(2) (3) M
tan θ = 1 +
2m
(4) m
tan θ = 1 +
2M
37. In the given figure, pulleys and strings are
(3) massless. For equilibrium of the system, the
value of α is -
(4)
(1) 60° (2) 30° (3) 90° (4) 120°

ALLEN
38. In the system shown in the figure, the 40. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
inclined plane of inclination θ with the
acceleration of the 1 kg mass and the tension in horizontal. The inclined plane is accelerated
the string connecting between A and B is : horizontally so that the block does not slide
down. What is the vertical force exerted by the
inclined plane on the block?
(1) mg sin θ (2) mg cos θ
(3) mg (4) None of these
41. A ring starts rotating with constant angular
acceleration of 2π rad/s2 about a fixed axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through
(1) g 8g its center. Find the total no. of turns completed
4
downwards,
7 by it at end of 8 secs.
(2) g g
upwards, 7 (1) 64 (2) 32
4
(3) g 6g (3) 16 (4) 48
7
downwards,
7
g
42. From a circular disc of mass M and radius R, a
(4) upwards, g part of 60° is removed. The M.I. of the
2
remaining portion of disc about an axis passing
39. Find out the acceleration & tension force in the through the center and perpendicular to plane
string:
of disc is :-

(1) 5
MR 2
6
(2) 5
(1) 5 m/s2, 32N MR 2
3
(2) 6 m/s2, 36N (3) 5
MR 2
12
(3) 6 m/s2, 48N
(4) 5
2 MR 2
(4) 5 m/s , 36N 24

ALLEN
43. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string 45. A ring is rolling on a rough horizontal surface
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of without slipping with a linear speed v. The
mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip ratio of speeds of points B and A is :-
on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the
mass fall on release?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
– –
(3) √ 2:1 (4) 1 : √2
46. Two bodies of equal masses are heated up at a

uniform rate under identical conditions. The
(1) 5g
6 change in temperature in two cases are shown
(2) g in figure. Given that specific heat for body I
(3) 2g and body II is C1 and C2 respectively and latent
3 heat is L1 and L2 respectively. Then value of
(4) g
C1 L
2 and 1 is
C2 L2
44. A small object of uniform density rolls up a
curved surface with an initial velocity v. It
3v2
reaches up to a maximum height of with
4g
respect to the initial position. The object is
(1) 1 2
,
3 3
(2) 1 4
(1) ring ,
3 3
(2) solid sphere (3) 4 1
,
3 3
(3) hollow sphere 2 1
(4) ,
(4) disc 3 3
ALLEN
47. Water in a lake starts freezing at some time 49. The distribution of relative intensity I(λ) of
when the outside temperature –θ°C. The time blackbody radiation from a solid body versus
taken in freezing of initial x thickness of lake is the wavelength λ is shown in the figure. If the
Wien displacement law constant is 2.9 × 10–3
2 hrs. Then how much extra time it will take to
mK, what is the approximate temperature of the
freeze extra 2x thickness? object?
(1) 4 hrs
(2) 9 hrs
(3) 16 hrs
(4) 18 hrs
48. A wall consists of alternating blocks with (1) 50 K
length ‘d’ and coefficient of thermal (2) 250 K
conductivity k1 and k2. The cross sectional area (3) 1450 K
of the blocks are the same. The equivalent (4) 6250 K
coefficient of thermal conductivity of the wall 50. In acyclic process shown on the P – V diagram
between left and right is :- the magnitude of the work done is :
(1) K1 + K2 2
(1) P2 − P1
π( )
(2) K 1 + K 2)
( 2
2 2
(2) V2 − V1
(3) K1 K2 π( )
2
K1 + K2
(3) π
(4) 2 K1 K2 (P 2 − P 1 ) (V2 − V1 )
4
K1 + K2
(4) π (P 2 P 2 − P 1 V1 )

ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : THERMODYNAMICS, REDOX REACTION, REAL GAS, CLASSIFICATION, COMMON AND
DERIVED NAMING, IUPAC NOMENCLATURE, [BACK UNIT] :- PERIODIC TABLE
SECTION-A 56. The IUPAC symbol for the element with

Attempt All 35 questions atomic number 119 would be :
51. Which property decreases from left to right (1) Unh (2) Uun (3) Une (4) Uue
across the period and increases from top to 57. The element with atomic number Z = 115 will
bottom ?
be placed in:-
(i) Atomic radius (ii) Zeff
(1) 7th period, IA group
(iii) Ionisation energy (iv) Metallic character
(2) 8th period, IVA group
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) 7th period, VA group
(3) (i) only (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) 6th period, VB group
52. Incorrect order of radius is :-
58. Match the following :
(1) H– > Li+ > Be+2 Oxide Nature
(2) Ni > Cu > Zn (a) CO (i) Basic
(3) Br– > S–2 > Cl– > F– (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(4) P–3 > S–2 > K+ (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
53. Atomic numbers of few elements are given (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
below, which of the pairs belongs to s - block :
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(1) 7, 14 (2) 3, 11 (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) 8, 15 (4) 9, 17 (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
54. Correct order of electronegativity is
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(1) Cl < S (2) S > O 59. Energy required for loss of electron from Ar
(3) O < Cl (4) Cl > Br and K+ are :-
55. Which of the following has the lowest (1) 4562, 2081 KJ/mole
electron affinity : (2) 2081, 4562 KJ/mole
(1) O (2) S (3) 2081, 2081 KJ/mole
(3) F (4) Cl (4) 4562,4562 KJ/mole
ALLEN
60. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct 63. If ΔHfº (C2H4) and ΔHfº (C2H6) are x1 and x2
answer using the codes given below– kcal mol–1 respectively, then heat of
hydrogenation of C2H4 is :
List-I(Ion) List-II(Radius(in pm)
(1) x1 + x2 (2) x1 – x2
(i) Li+ (a) 216
(3) x2 – x1 (4) x1 + 2x2
(ii) Na+ (b) 195
64. For which reaction, ΔS will be maximum?
–
(iii) Br (c) 60 (1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
–
(iv) I (d) 95 (2) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → N2O4(g)
Codes : (3) S(s) + 3 O (g) → SO (g)
2 3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2
(4) C(s)+ 1 O (g) → CO(g)
(1) a b d c 2
2
(2) b c a d 65. If Sº for H2, Cl2 and HCl are 0.13, 0.22 and
(3) c d b a 0.19 kJK–1mol–1 respectively. The total
change in standard entropy for the reaction
(4) d c b a H2 (g)+ Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is :
61. Which of the following is an endothermic (1) 30 JK–1mol–1 (2) 40 JK–1mol–1
reaction :-
(3) 60 JK–1mol–1 (4) 20 JK–1mol–1
(1) 2H2(g) + O2(g) —→ 2H2O(ℓ)
66. The Gibbs free energy change of a reaction
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) —→ 2NO(g)
at 27°C is –26 kCal. and its entropy change
(3) NaOH(aq.) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq.) + H2O(ℓ)
is –60 cal/k. ΔH for the reaction is :–
(4) C2H5OH(ℓ) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g)+ 3H2O(ℓ)
(1) –44 kCal (2) –18 kCal
62. If heat of formation of C3H8, CO2 and H2O are
(3) 34 kCal (4) –24 kCal
–38.2, –94.1 and –48.2 kcal/mol respectively.
Then calculate heat of combustion of propane :- 67. Calculate the temperature at which
–1 –1
(1) –423.3 kcal ΔG = – 5.2 kJ mol ΔH = 145.6 kJ mol and
–1
(2) +423.3 kcal ΔS = 216 Jk mol–1 for a chemical reaction -
(3) –436.9 kcal (1) 698°C (2) 425°C
(4) +436.9 kcal (3) 650 K (4) 650°C

ALLEN
68. The sum of the oxidation states of all the 75. What is the hybridization of carbon atoms
carbon atoms present in the compound numbered 1 and 2 respectively in the following
C6H5CHO is : structure ?
(1) –4 (2) 3
(3) +5 (4) – 4/7
(1) sp3, sp2 (2) sp2, sp2
69. In Br3O8, the oxidation state of middle bromine
is :- (3) sp2, sp (4) sp, sp
(1) +6 (2) +2 (3) +4 (4) +5 76. Unsaturated secondary alcohol is :-
70. O. No of O in OF2 & O2F2 is : (2)
(1)
(1) + 2, + 1 (2) +1 & +2
(3) +1 & –2 (4) –2 & –1 (4)
(3)
71. Consider the following reaction :
xMnO 4 + yC 2 O 42 + zH → xMn2+ + 2yCO2
− − +
z 77. Derived name of CH2=CH–CH2–OH ?

+ H2O
2 (1) Allyl alcohol (2) Prop-2-en-1-ol

The values of x, y and z in the reaction are
respectively :- (3) Allyl carbinol (4) Vinyl carbinol
(1) 5,2 and 16 (2) 2,5 and 8 78. Which of following is correct structure of
isooctane ?
(3) 2, 5 and 16 (4) 5,2 and 8
72. The oxidation number of oxygen in potassium (1)
superoxide KO2, is:-
(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) –1/2 (4) –1/4 (2)
73. Oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2 ]+ is :
(1) +2 (2) 0 (3) +3 (4) +1
74. Molecular formula C5H10O can represent :- (3)
(1) An alcohol
(2) An aldehyde
(3) An ketone (4)
(4) An aldehyde and an ketone both
ALLEN
79. Molecular formula of third member of Alkene
homologous series :- 84. The IUPAC name of is :-
(1) C3H6 (2) C4H10
(3) C4H6 (4) C4H8 (1) 2-bromo-3-methyl but-3-ene
80. Ter.butyl amine is : (2) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
(1) (2) (3) 2-bromo-3-methyl pent-3-ene
(4) 4-bromo-2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene
(4)
(3) 85. Which of the following statements is/are true
about a homologous series :-
81. Number of 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° C present in (1) Different homologous series may have
compound are respectively same general formula
(2) Alkane homologous series have CnH2n
general formula
(3) Homologues have same physical but
(1) 7, 4, 5 and 1 (2) 7, 3, 4 and 1 different chemical properties
(3) 7, 3, 5 and 1 (4) 7, 4, 4 and 1 (4) All of them
82. IUPAC name for the following compound SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
:-
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(1) 2-Bromobutanal (2) α-Bromobutanal these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(3) 3-Bromobutanal (4) β-Bromobutanal
questions will be considered for marking.
86. A sudden large jump between the values of
83. IUPAC name of is :-
2nd and 3rd IP of an element would be
associated with the electronic configuration –
(1) 2-Vinylbutanoic acid (1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 2s1
(2) 2-Ethenylethanoic acid (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5
(3) 2-Ethylbut-3-enoic acid (3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2
(4) 2-Ethylbutanoic acid (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2
ALLEN
87. Which of the following does not show 91. By using following thermo chemical equations
amphoteric behaviour? calculate standard formation enthalpy of N2O5 (g) :-
(1) Zn(OH)2 N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO (g); ΔH = + 180.0 kJ
(2) Cl2O7 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g); ΔH° = –114.0 kJ
(3) Al2O3 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g); ΔH° = –102.6 kJ

(4) Pb(OH)2 (1) –36.6 kJ/mol
88. Consider the following changes–
(2) +14.7 kJ/mol
A→A++e–:E1 and A+→A+2+e–:E2
(3) +36.6 kJ/mol
The energy required to pull out the two (4) –14.7 kJ/mol
electrons are E1 and E2 respectively. The 92. Given that C + O2 → CO2, ΔH° = – x kJ
correct relationship between two energies 2CO + O2 → 2CO2, ΔH° = – y kJ
The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide

would be- will be
(1) E1<E2 (1) y − 2x
kJ
(2) E1=E2 2
(2) (2x – y) kJ
(3) E1>E2
(3) (y – 2x) kJ
(4) E1≥E2
(4) 2x − y
89. Which of the following order is Incorrect : kJ
2
(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Acidic 93. Which of the following reaction is expected
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI Acidic never to be spontaneous :–
(3) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH basic (1) 2O3(g)→ 3O2(g)
ΔH = –ve, ΔS = +ve
(4) SiO2 > P2O5 > SO3 > Cl2O7 Acidic
(2) Mg(s) + H2(g)→ MgH2(s)
90. Atomic radius of Ga is lesser than that of ΔH = –ve, ΔS = –ve

(1) B (3) Br2(ℓ) → Br2(g)
(2) C ΔH = +ve, ΔS = +ve
(3) N (4) 2Ag(s) + 3N2(g) → 2AgN3(s)
ΔH = +ve, ΔS = –ve
(4) Al
ALLEN
94. Calculate the enthalpy change (ΔH) for the 97. How many carbon present in principal C-chain
following reaction
of following compound is :-
2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Given average bond energies of various bonds
(1) Two
i.e. C – H, C ≡ C, O = O, C = O, O – H as 414,
810, 499, 724 and 460 KJ/mole respectively (2) Three
(3) Four
(1) –1861 KJ
(4) Five
(2) –18.61 KJ
98. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 is :-
(3) –186.1 KJ
(1) 2,2–Dimethyl butane
(4) –1861 J
(2) 2,3–Dimethyl butane
95. X, Y & Z for redox reaction
xC r 3+
+ yBrO −
+ ZOH −
→ CrO 42
−
+ Br −
+ H 2O (3) 2,4–Dimethyl butane
(1) 1 , 2, 3 (4) 1–Methyl pentane
(2) 2, 3, 10 99. The IUPAC name of given compound is :-
(3) 2, 1, 3
(4) 2, 2, 3
96. Which of the following is not a correct match :
(1) Methyl tertiarybutyl acetylene
(1) ⇒ Neopentyl (2) t–Butyl propyne
(3) 4,4–Dimethyl–2–pentyne
(4) 1,3,3,3–Tetramethyl ethyne
(2) 100. Which is incorrect IUPAC name :-

⇒ Neobutyl
(1) 3–Pentyne
(2) 3–Methyl–2–butanone
(3) ⇒ Propargyl (3) 2–Ethyl–3–methyl–1–butene
(4) CH2=CH–CH2– ⇒ Allyl (4) 3–Ethyl-2-methyl pentane
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-I
Topic : CLASSIFICATION UPTO MOLLUSCA, [BACK UNIT] :- NERVOUS SYSTEM, SENSORY
ORGANS
SECTION-A 104. Statement-I : Most of the roundworms show
Attempt All 35 questions sexual dimorphism.
101. When only a single plane passing through the Statement-II : Male Ascaris is longer than
central axis of body and divides the animal into
female Ascaris.
two identical halves.
It is called as _____. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

(1) Asymmetry (2) Radial symmetry incorrect
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Biradial symmetry (2) Both Statement I and II are correct
102. Usually sessile organisms that can gather (3) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
food from all sides exhibit (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Cephalisation correct
(2) Radial symmetry 105. Find the correct labellings A, B and C in the
(3) Cellular level of organisation given diagram
(4) Both (1) and (2)

103. Statement-I : Any plane passing through the
central axis of the body divides the organism into
two identical halves, it is called Radial symmetry
Statement-II : Coelenterates, ctenophores and

Echinoderms have this kind of body plan.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
& the Statement-II is a correct explanation
(1) A - Mesoglea
(2) A - Mesoderm
of the Statement-I.
B - Endoderm
B - Ectoderm
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true C - Ectoderm C - Endoderm

but the Statement-II is not a correct
explanation of the Statement-I. (3) A - Mesoglea
(4) A - Mesoderm
(3) Statement-I is true but the Statement-II is false B - Ectoderm

B - Endoderm
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false C - Endoderm C - Ectoderm

ALLEN
106. Loose cell aggregation are exhibited by : 110. Protozoans are believed to be primitive
(1) Chordata (2) Hemichordata relatives of animals because :-
(1) They are heterotrophs and live as predator
(3) Porifera (4) Coelenterata or parasites.
107. Which group of phyla has open type of
(2) They are found in fresh water as well as in
circulatory system :- marine environments
(1) Annelida & Arthropoda
(3) Pellicle makes their body flexible
(2) Annelida & Mollusca
(4) They can reproduce asexually and sexually
(3) Mollusca & Arthropoda 111. Consider the following characteristic of
(4) Annelida & Chordata protozoan :-
108. Which of the following group is protostome– (A) Most protozoans are heterotroph and live as
predator or parasite.
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca (B) These are primitive unicellular animals.
(2) Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata (C) They are believed to recent relative of animals.
(3) Annelida, Mollusca, Chordata (D) Trypanosoma, a ciliated protozoan causes

sleeping sickness.
(4) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata Which of the above features are correct for
109. Match column I with column II and choose the protozoan :-
correct answer: (1) A and B (2) B and D
Column I Column II (3) A and C (4) B and C
Cellular level 112. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one
A. 1. Sponges
of organization of the four options all the items A, B and C are
B. Radial symmetry 2. Coelenterates correctly identified ?
C. Pseudocoelomate 3. Aschelminthes

Answer code :
(1) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 A B C
(2) A = 2, B = 1, C = 3 (1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
(3) A = 3, B = 2, C = 1
(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(4) A = 3, B = 1, C = 2
(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
ALLEN
113. The umbrella shape and free swimming form of 117. A: The organisms of Platyhelminths are usually
coelenterate reproduced by sexual reproduction hermaphrodites.
is B: These organisms possess internal as well as

(1) Polyp (2) Medusa external fertilization.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (1) Both statements A and B are true and the
statement B is the correct explanation of
114. In following diagram this structure belongs to statement A.
phylum :-
(2) Both statements A and B are true but the
statement B is not the correct explanation
of statement A.
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) Both statement A and B are false statements.
118. Flame cell is found in which phylum
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Ctenophora
(3) Annelida (4) Coelentrata
(1) Ctenophora (2) Porifera
119. Statement-I : Animals of arthropoda are most
(3) Coelenterata (4) Platyhelminthes
successful invaders of terrestrial environment.
115. Which of the following group of animals Statement-II : Their body is covered by
reproduces only by sexual means? chitinous exoskeleton and have jointed
(1) Ctenophora appendages.
(2) Cnidaria (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(3) Porifera
(2) Statement I and II are correct but
(4) Protozoa
Statement II is not the correct explanation
116. All animals of which phylum are exclusively of Statement I
marine :-
(3) Statement I and II are correct and
(1) Mollusca Statement II is the correct explanation of
(2) Ctenophora Statement I
(3) Echinodermata (4) Statement I and II are correct and
Statement I is the correct explanation of
(4) Both 2 and 3 Statement II
ALLEN
120. Cockroach belongs to 123. A student was given a specimen to identify on
(1) class Insecta of phylum - Echinodermata the basis of the characteristics given below.
(i) They are metamerically segmented.
(2) class Amphibia of phylum - Reptilia (ii) They have closed circulatory system.
(3) class Insecta of phylum - Arthropoda (iii) They have circular and longitudinal
muscles for locomotion.
(4) class Insecta of phylum - Annelida

Identify the specimen.
121. Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below.
(1) Prawn
Which of the following option shows the
correct name of the animals shown by the (2) Pheretima
figures A, B, C and D ? (3) Wuchereria
(4) Ctenoplana
124. Which of the following animals belong to the
same phylum?
(1) A–Locusta, B–Butterfly, C–scorpion,
(1) Pila, Octopus, Balanoglossus
D–Prawn (2) Pila, Pinctada, Sepia
(2) A–Locusta, B–Prawn, C–Scorpion,
(3) Pila, Asterias, Ophiura
D–Butterfly
(4) Saccoglossus, Loligo, Octopus
(3) A–Locusta, B–Scorpion, C–Prawn,
D–Butterfly 125. How many of the characters given below are

related with the diagram :-
(4) A–Butterfly, B–Scorpion, C–Prawn,
D–Locusta
122. Annelids are triploblastic, bilaterally
symmetrical and eucoelomate animals. Some
specific characteristics of annelids are given
(a) Second largest phylum of animal kingdom.
below. Mark the incorrect one

(b) Tissue level of organisation.
(1) Nephridia as excretory structure (c) Bilateral symmetry.
(2) Parapodia and setae are locomotary structure (d) Body is covered with calcareous shell.
(e) Triploblastic animals.

(3) Red coloured blood with haemoglobin
present in RBCs (1) Only one, b (2) Two b, e
(4) Metameric segmented body (3) Three a, d, e (4) Four a, b, c, e
ALLEN
126. The part of hind brain containing centres which 131. The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
control respiration, cardio-vascular reflexes, concentration of ....... and ...... :-
and gastric secretion is :- (1) K+ and Na+
(1) Medulla (2) Cerebellum (2) K+ and Negatively charged proteins
(3) Pons (4) Hypothalamus (3) Na+ and Cl–
127. An organised network of nervous system which
(4) Both (1) and (3)
provide quick co-ordination through :-
132. Which structure helps a person to maintain
(1) Hormone equilibrium :-
(2) Point to point connection (1) Cochlea (2) Eustachian tube
(3) Cerebro-spinal fluid (3) Semicircular canals (4) Hammer like bone
(4) Hypothalamus 133. Arrangement of ear ossicles, starting from ear
drum is :-
128. Part of the brain which is concerned with
(1) Stapes, malleus, incus
olfaction & regulation of sexual behaviour ?
(2) Malleus, incus, stapes
(1) Thalamus
(3) Incus, stapes, malleus
(2) Pons
(4) Stapes, incus, malleus
(3) Limbic system 134. Pigmented layer in eye is called :-
(4) Reticular formation (1) Cornea (2) Sclerotic
129. All types of speech movements done by (3) Retina (4) All
(1) Prefrontal area (2) Broca's area 135. The given figure represents :-
(3) Wernick's area (4) Motor area
130. The correct sequence of meninges of brain
from inside to out side in human is :-
(1) Duramater- arachnoid- Piamater (1) Sectional view of external auditary meatus.
(2) Arachnoid- Piamater- Duramater (2) Sectional view of semicircular canal.
(3) Piamater- arachnoid- Duramater (3) Sectional view of vestibular apparatus.
(4) Piamater- duramater- Arachnoid (4) Sectional view of cochlea.
ALLEN
SECTION-B 138. Statement-I : Alimentary canal is completely
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate absent in some flatworms.
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of Statement-II : Some flatworms absorb nutrients
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts from host directly through their body surface.
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (1) Both Statement I and II are correct and
questions will be considered for marking. Statement II is the correct explanation of
136. Statement-I : Arthropoda is the largest phylum Statement I
of kingdom Animalia.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Statement-II : Their body is not covered by incorrect
chitinous exoskeleton and have jointed
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
appendages.
correct
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
incorrect
139. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
(2) Statement I and II are correct but
Statement II is not the correct explanation answer:
of Statement I List-I
List-II
(3) Statement I and II are correct and Statement (Animal) (Type of coelom)

II is the correct explanation of Statement I A. Echinodermata i. Coelom absent
(4) Statement I and II are correct and Statement B. Arthropoda ii. Schizocoel
I is the correct explanation of Statement II
Enterocoelous
137. Assertion : Specialization of cells is C. Aschelminthes iii.
coelom
advantageous for the organism.
D. Annelida iv. Pseudo coelom

Reason : It increases the operational efficiency
of an oraganism. v. True coelom
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. A B C D
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the (1) iii i v iv
reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) iii ii v iv
assertion.
(3) iii ii iv v
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false. (4) ii i iii v

ALLEN
140. Mark the correct choice for A, B, C, and D.
142. Some cnidarians such as corals have a skeleton
composed of
(1) Spongin fibres
(2) Silica
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) Any of these
143. (a) Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic
forms
(1) A - Parazoa B - Ctenophora,
C - Aschelminthes D - Schizocoelom (b) Some of them absorb nutrients from the

(2) A - Porifera B - Ctenophora
host directly through their body surface
C - Aschelminthes D - Coelomates
(c) Specialised cells called flame cells help in
(3) A - Porifera B - Coelenterata
C - Aschelminthes D - Coelomates excretion and osmoregulation
(4) A - Porifera B - Eumetazoa

(d) Sexes are separate
C - Hemichordata D - Enterocoelom
141. A: Choanocytes or collar cells line the Which of the above given charater /s is /are not
spongocoel and the canals in poriferans.
related with diagram given below?
B: Poriferans possess spicules or spongin
fibres.
(1) Both statements A and B are true and the
statement B is the correct explanation of
statement A.
(2) Both statements A and B are true but the
statement B is not the correct explanation (1) a
of statement A.
(2) b
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(3) c
(4) Both statement A and B are false
(4) d
statements.
ALLEN
144. Select the incorrect match from the options 147. Association areas responsible for :
given below: (1) Memory
Organisms Characteristic features
(2) Communication
(1) Fasciola Suckers are present.
Body bears eight external (3) Inter sensory association
rows
(4) 1, 2 and 3
(2) Ctenoplana of ciliated comb plates,
which
148. Which part of the human ear plays no role in
help in locomotion. hearing as such but is otherwise very much
Polyps produce medusae
required :-
sexually and medusae form (1) vestibular apparatus
(3) Obelia
the
polyps asexually. (2) ear ossicles
Fertilisation is internal and

(3) Cochlea
development is indirect (4) organ of corti
having
149. Optic nerve leaving the eye ball is consist of
(4) Spongilla a larval stage which is
morphologically distinct axons of -

from
(1) Bipolar cells
the adult.
(2) Photoreceptor cells
145. The body of these animals is circular in cross
section. They may be free living ,aquatic and (3) Ganglion cells
terrestrial. They are bilaterally symmetrical and
(4) Amacrine cells
pseudocoelomate animals. These animals
belong to which phylum of animal kingdom? 150. Which of the following structure of eye is
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes artificially implanted –
(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda (1) Cornea
146. State of complete inexcitability between (2) Lens
polarisation and repolarisation is - (3) Retina
(1) Refractory period (2) Synaptic delay
(4) Cornea & lens both
(3) Resting potential (4) Depolarisation
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II
Topic : CELL BIOLOGY, PLANT DIVERSITY : TAXONOMY, NOMENCLATURE, CLASSIFICATION
SECTION-A 154. Identify the correct match from the following :-
Attempt All 35 questions

151. The cell organelle associated with intracellular
digestion of macromolecules is:
(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Dictyosome
(4) Glyoxysome
152. 70 S ribosomes are not associated with :
(1) The matrix of the mitochondria (1) 1-c-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii, 2-d-iv
(2) Stroma of the chloroplast (2) 4-c-iii, 1-b-i, 3-a-ii, 2-d-iv
(3) The cytoplasm of the prokaryotic cell (3) 2-a-ii, 3-b-i, 1-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(4) The cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cell (4) 4-d-iv, 2-b-ii, 3-a-iii, 1-c-i
153. Match the following columns :-
155. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
Statement A : Cell wall protects cells from

mechanical injury.
Statement B : In human being, cell membrane

of RBC has approximately 40% protein and
52% lipids.
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii (3) Both statements are correct
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i (4) Both statements are incorrect
ALLEN
156. Match the column I with column II and select 159. Read the statements [A] and [B] carefully and
the correct option. choose the correct option.
Column I
Column II
[A] The content of nucleolus is continuous with
(Types of leucoplast) (Examples) the rest of the nucleoplasm
[B] Nucleolus is not a membrane bound

(a) Elaioplast i. Potato
structure
(b) Amyloplast ii. Gram
(1) Both the statements [A] and [B] are
(c) Aleuroplast iii. Castor incorrect
(1) (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – ii (2) (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii (2) Statement [A] is correct and statement [B]
(3) (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – i (4) (a) – i, (b) – iii, (c) – ii is incorrect
(3) Both the statements [A] and [B] are correct
157. The content of the nucleolus is continuous with
and [B] is the correct explanation of [A]
the rest of the ......... as it is a ......... structure :
(4) Statement [A] is incorrect and statement
(1) Nucleoplasm, Double membranous
[B] is correct
(2) Nucleoplasm, Membrane less
160. Nucleoprotein fibers called chromatin net.
(3) Cytoplasm, Membrane less these observed in :-
(4) Cytoplasm, Single membranous (1) Interphase nucleus (2) Metaphase
158. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and (3) Anaphase (4) Late prophase
select the option which includes all the correct ones
161. Match the column-I and column-II :-
only :
(A) The interphase nucleus has highly extended and

elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called chromosome.
(B) The inner membrane of nucleus usually remains

continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum.
(C) The nuclear matrix contains nucleolus.
(D) The nucleoli are spherical structures present in

the nucleoplasm.
(1) Statement A, B and D (1) a=iii, b=iv, c=i, d=ii
(2) Statement A and D (2) d=i, a=iii, b=iv, c=ii
(3) Statement D only (3) d=iv, a=iii, c=ii, b=i
(4) Statement C and D (4) a=i, b=ii, c=iii, d=iv
ALLEN
162. All of the following are significance of meiosis, 167. If a cell does not want to divide it will enter
except into a phase
(1) It produces gametes for sexual reproduction (a) Called quiescent stage
(b) In which it can easily proliferate
(2) It maintains the chromosome number in (c) Where cells remain metabolically active
sexually reproducing organisms
(1) Only (a) is true
(3) It prevents the genetic variability
(2) Only (a) and (c) are true
(4) It provides the chance for the formation of
new combinations of chromosomes (3) Only (b) and (c) are true
163. Double metaphasic plate is formed during (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are true
(1) Metaphase I 168. You have studied mitosis in onion root tip
(2) Metaphase II cells. It has 16 chromosomes in each cell. Can
you tell how many chromosome will the cell
(3) Metaphase of mitosis have at G1-phase, metaphase, anaphase and
(4) Anaphase I after M-phase respectively?
164. In a cell diplotene stage is recognised by
(1) 16, 16, 32, 16
(a) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(2) 16, 32, 32, 16
(b) Appearance of chiasmata
(c) Formation of recombination nodule

(3) 16, 16, 32, 32
(d) Alignation of bivalents on equatorial plate (4) 16, 16, 16, 16
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only 169. Assertion (A) : Cytokinesis in plant cell occur
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) by cell plate formation method.
Reason (R) : Cytokinesis in animal cells occur

165. Centriole get duplicated during
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase by the formation of cell furrow.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(3) G2 phase (4) G0 phase
Reason is a correct explanation of the
166. Which of the given is absent in higher plants Assertion.
during mitosis?
(1) Spindle fibres (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) Metaphasic plate Assertion.
(3) Centromere splitting (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Aster (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
ALLEN
170. Identify figure a and b and choose the correct 172. The following events related to meiosis and
match :-
select the correct option having correct
sequence of events -
(A) Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
(B) Dissolution of synaptonemal
(C) Complex chromosomes are fully

condensed.
(D) Appearence of recombination nodule.

(1) Prophase, Metaphase
(1) A → D → C → B (2) A → D → B → C
(2) Prophase-I, Metaphase-I
(3) C → A → D → B (4) C → A → B → D
(3) Metaphase-I, Metaphase-II
173.
(4) Metaphase-II, Metaphase-I
171. Given below are two statement -
Statement-I :- Although in many cases, the

chromosomes do undergo some dispersion,
they do not reach the extremely extended state
A B C D
of interphase nucleus.
DNA
Longest
Shortest
Division of
Statement-II :- Meiosis decreases the genetic

(1) replication
phase of
phase of
cytoplasm
variability in the population of organism from

phase karyokinesis karyokinesis phase
one generation to the next.
In the light of the above statements, choose the DNA

Shortest
Division of
Longest
correct answer from the options given below - (2) replication

phase of
cytoplasm
phase of
(1) Both statement I and statement II are phase karyokinesis phase karyokinesis
correct Chromosome
Shortest
Division of
Division of
(2) Both statement I & statement II are (3) doubling

phase of
cytoplasm
cytoplasm
incorrect phase karyokinesis phase phase

(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Chromosome
Division of
Longest
Shortest
incorrect
(4) doubling
cytoplasm
phase of
phase of
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is

phase phase karyokinesis karyokinesis
correct
ALLEN
174. If egg (female gamete) of an organism has 177. Identify the incorrect scientific name from the
10 Pg (Pico gram) of DNA and 20 chromatin following given options :-

fibres in its nucleus. How much DNA and (1) Solanum solanum
how many chromatids would a cell of same (2) Mangifera indica Linn
organism has in anaphase-II of meiosis ? (3) Naja naja
(4) Brassica oleracea
(1) 40 Pg DNA and 40 chromatids
178.
78. What is the practical significance of taxonomy?
(2) 20 Pg DNA and 20 chromatids (1) Nomenclature of known organisms
(3) 5 Pg DNA and 10 chromatids (2) Classification of known organisms
(3) Identification of known organisms
(4) 20 Pg DNA and 40 chromatids
(4) Identification of unknown organisms
175. Chemotaxonomy is involved in :-
179. ICBN stands for
(1) Classification of chemicals found in plants (1) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(2) Use of chemical constituents of plants in (2) International Congress of Biological Names
classification (3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(3) Application of chemicals on herbarium sheets (4) Indian Congress of Biological Names
180. Rules for Nomenclature are given by certain
(4) Study of chemical constituents of plants
organization and are universal. Which one of the
176. In which type of classification plants are
following is not a rule for naming an organism :-
classified only on the basis of gross
(1) Biological names can be written in any language
morphological characters.
(2) The first word in a biological name
(1) Artificial classification represents the genus name, and the second
(2) Natural formal calssification is a specific epithet
(3) The names are written in Latin and are italicized
(3) Phylogenetic classification
(4) When written by hand, the names are to be
(4) Empirical classification underlined separately.

ALLEN
181. Why scientific nomenclature are given in Latin 184. Read the statements carefully -
or Greek languages ? (I) The __(A)__ is the main arena of cellular

(1) Latin and Greek languages are popular activities in both plant and animal cells.
languages throughout the world

(II) __(B)__ not only gives shape to the cell
(2) Most of the scientific journals are and protects the cell from mechanical damage
published in Latin or Greek
& infection.
(3) These languages are dead languages (III) __(C)__ is the important site for the
(4) Linnaeus who proposed scientific formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
nomenclature was a Greek scientist Choose the correct option which correctly fills
182. Classification of plants on the basis of one or A, B & C and complete the statement.
two morphological characters is a kind of :-
A B C
(1) Practical classification
(1) SER Cytoplasm Cell wall
(2) Artificial classification
(2) Cytoplasm Cell wall SER
(3) Natural formal classification
(4) Natural phylogenetic classification Golgi
(3) Cytoplasm Cell wall
apparatus
183. Match column I with column II and choose
correct option :-
(4) Mitochondria Cytoplasm SER

185. Read the following statements and choose the
Column-I Column-II
option which is true for them.
Species
Animal
A i Statement-1: In animal cells, division of the

plantarum nomenclature
cytoplasm occurs by formation of cell plate.
Systema
Artificial
B ii Statement-2: During cytokinesis, cell plate

naturae classification
Genera
Plant
formation starts at the periphery and then
C iii moves inward.
plantarum nomenclature
(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii (1) Both statements are correct
(2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C – i (4) Only statement-2 is correct
ALLEN
SECTION-B 188. Statement-I : In a human cell, 2 meter
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of approx DNA is present.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts Statement-II : 2 meter approx long DNA is
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
distributed in all 46 chromosomes of a human
questions will be considered for marking.
cell.
186. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct option :-
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are

(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
correct.
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
189. Which of the following is correct regarding the
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) given figure?
187. The content of nucleolus is continous with the
rest of the nucleoplasm, because :

Number Number of
Number of
(1) It is membrane-bound structure
of centromere kinetochore arms
(2) It is the site of ribosome synthesis (1) 2 1 4
(3) Number of nucleoli depends upon the (2) 1 2 4
NOR (3) 2 2 4
(4) It is not a membrane-bound structure (4) 1 2 2

ALLEN
190. What will be DNA amount in Meiotic II 194. State true (T) or false B for the following
products if DNA is 20 picogram in meiocyte at statements and select the correct option.
G2-stage ? A. Synaptonemal complex dissolves at

(1) 5 Pg (2) 10 Pg pachytene stage.
B. Desynapsis occurs between non homologous

(3) 20 Pg (4) 40 Pg chromosomes.
191. The longest phase of reductional division is C. Diplotene may lasts for months or years in
(1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I oocytes of vertebrates.
A B C
(3) Prophase II (4) Metaphase II
(1) T T F
192. "Crossing over involves exchange of genetic
material between A chromatids of B (2) F T T
chromosomes."
(3) T F T
Complete the above statement by choosing the (4) F F T
correct option. 195. Consider the following statements (A to D)
A B each with one or two blanks.
(1) Sister Homologous (A) __(I)__ is marked by the initiation of

condensation of chromosomal material
(2) Sister Non homologous (B) In oocytes of some vertebrates, __(II)__

(3) Non sister Non homologous can last for months or years.
(C) During anaphase, the __(III)__divide

(4) Non sister Homologous the __(IV)__ start moving towards the two
193. Select incorrectly matched pair. opposite poles.
(D) In animal cells, during the s-phase __(V)__

Synthesis
Histone protein replication begins in the nucleus and __(VI)__
(1) phase of
synthesis duplicates in the cytoplasm.
interphase Which one of the following options gives the

Tubulin protein correct fill ups for the respective blank
(2) Gap 2 phase numbers from (I) to (VI) in the statement ?
synthesis
(1) (I) Prophase, (V) Centriole (VI) DNA
Synapsis of
(3) Pachytene homologous (2) (I) Telophase (V) Centriole (VI) DNA
chromosomes begins (3) (II) Diplotene (IV) Chromatids (VI) Centriole
(4) G0 phase Quiescent stage (4) (I) Prophase (IV) Chromosome (V) Centriole
ALLEN
196. Which of the following statements is correct ? 199. The given figures represent stage of meiosis–I.
(1) Tautonyms are valid names according to identify the stages with key features and select
ICZN
the correct option :-
(2) In tautonyms genus & specific epithet
have same name
(3) Naja naja is a tautonym
(4) All of these
197. Which of the following statements regarding
(i) Crossing over
nomenclature is correct:
(ii) The bivalent chromosome align on the
(1) Generic name always begins with capital
letter whereas specific epithet with equatorial plate
small letter (iii) The homologous chromosomes separate.

(2) Scientific name should be printed in italics (1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii
(3) Scientific name when handwritten should (2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
be separately underlined
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(4) All the above
(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
198. Read the following w.r.t. numerical taxonomy:
(i) It takes the use of computers

200. Assertion : Sister chromatids remain associated
(ii) It is based on all observable characters of at their centeomere in anaphase-I
organisms
Reason : Spindle get attached to the

(iii) Number and codes are assigned to all the
characters, data are then processed
kinetochores.
(iv) Each character is given equal importance
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(v) Hundreds of characters can be considered at
the correct explanation of (A).
the same time
How many of the above statements arc (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
incorrect ?
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (A)
(1) Two (2) One
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) None (4) Four
correct explanation of (A)

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST
FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2022 - 2023)
NURTURE COURSE PHASE : MNB

MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE
P WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
08
17-10-2022 C CHEMICAL BONDING
06-11-2022
TO
05-11-2022
B ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Read carefully the following instructions :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE Pvt. Ltd., “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan), India, 324005
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Test Pattern

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

(1) ML2/18 (2) ML 2

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

(1) Friction will act in the forward direction

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

(1) Vb (2) Vc (3) Vd

(4) ΔTa =ΔTb< ΔTc

30. A body takes 4 minutes to cool from 100°C to

35. P-T diagram is shown below then choose the

Two masses m and M are attached with strings

(1) 60° (2) 30° (3) 90° (4) 120°

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

46. Two bodies of equal masses are heated up at a

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

SECTION-A 56. The IUPAC symbol for the element with

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

z 77. Derived name of CH2=CH–CH2–OH ?

2 (1) Allyl alcohol (2) Prop-2-en-1-ol

(1) Zn(OH)2 N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO (g); ΔH = + 180.0 kJ

(2) Cl2O7 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g); ΔH° = –114.0 kJ

(3) Al2O3 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g); ΔH° = –102.6 kJ

correct relationship between two energies 2CO + O2 → 2CO2, ΔH° = – y kJ

The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide

90. Atomic radius of Ga is lesser than that of ΔH = –ve, ΔS = –ve

(2) C ΔH = +ve, ΔS = +ve

(3) N (4) 2Ag(s) + 3N2(g) → 2AgN3(s)

2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

(1) 1 , 2, 3 (4) 1–Methyl pentane

(2) 2, 3, 10 99. The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(2) 100. Which is incorrect IUPAC name :-

It is called as _____. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

(4) Both (1) and (2)

Statement-II : Coelenterates, ctenophores and

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true C - Ectoderm C - Endoderm

(3) Statement-I is true but the Statement-II is false B - Ectoderm

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false C - Endoderm C - Ectoderm

(3) Annelida, Mollusca, Chordata (D) Trypanosoma, a ciliated protozoan causes

is B: These organisms possess internal as well as

(i) They are metamerically segmented.

(4) class Insecta of phylum - Annelida

D–Butterfly 125. How many of the characters given below are

below. Mark the incorrect one

(1) Nephridia as excretory structure (c) Bilateral symmetry.

(e) Triploblastic animals.

(3) Statement I and II are correct and Statement (Animal) (Type of coelom)

D. Annelida iv. Pseudo coelom

NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNB 1015CMD301522014

(1) A - Parazoa B - Ctenophora,

C - Aschelminthes D - Schizocoelom (b) Some of them absorb nutrients from the

C - Aschelminthes D - Coelomates excretion and osmoregulation

(4) A - Porifera B - Eumetazoa

polyps asexually. (2) ear ossicles

Fertilisation is internal and

morphologically distinct axons of -

Attempt All 35 questions

Statement A : Cell wall protects cells from

Statement B : In human being, cell membrane

or Greek languages ? (I) The (A) is the main arena of cellular

(1) Sister Homologous (A) (I) is marked by the initiation of

(2) Sister Non homologous (B) In oocytes of some vertebrates, (II)

(C) During anaphase, the (III)divide

(D) In animal cells, during the s-phase (V)