Recalls – September 2019

5. What is the hormone that acts as first responders during stress, acting within
seconds
a. Cortisol
b. DHEA
c. Aldosterone
NOTE: These recalls are only keywords and not the exact questions stated d. Catecholamines
in the examination. Some recalls don’t have an answer, it’s up for you to find.
6. Renal integrity
Always remember, DO NOT RELY ON THIS, THESE ARE JUST RECALLS! God a. Creatinine
speed RMT2020! *share this responsibly b. Alpha2 macroglobulin
7. APR except
Clinical chemistry 1. Alpha1 glycoprotein
1. All of the following have increased AFP except: 2. CRP
a. Spina bifida 3. Alpha1 antitrypsin
b. – 4. –
c. – a. 1,2,3
d. Down syndrome b. 1,2
2. All of the following are characteristics of a person with polycystic ovarian c. 2,3
syndrome, except: d. 3,4
a. Hirsutism 8. Marker of pre-eclampsia
b. Obesity a. –
c. Infertility b. –
d. Myxedema c. –
3. Marker of nutritional status d. Albuminuria
a. Adiponectin 9. 13S (Morse type)
b. Cross-linked telopeptide 1. Systematic
c. Cystatin C 2. –
d. Fibronectin 3. Exceeding the mean + 3s
4. Moderate risk of total cholesterol in the age >40 10. Centrifuge for high speed centrifugation
a. 240 a. Fixed angle
b. 260 b. Horizontal
c. Cytocentrifuge
STRATIFIED RISK FACTORS FOR CHD d. NOTA
Age (in years) Moderate Risk (mg/dL) High Risk (mg/dL) 11. Lithium
2-19 >170 >185 a. Antidepressant
20-29 >200 >220 b. CNS depressant
30-39 >220 >240 12. Part of spectrophotometer
40- above >240 >260 a. –
 b. – d. Growth deficiency
c. AAS 24. Inhibits growth hormone production
d. Gas chromatography a. Insulin deficiency
13. Other name of ecstasy – methamphetamine b. Amino acids
14. Formula for osmolality c. Glucose loading
15. Excretory and synthetic function of liver 25. Enzyme functions include (morse type)
a. Transaminases 1- Catabolism
b. Bilirubin 2- Anabolism
c. PT 3- Energy requirement
d. Albumin 26. Found in standard protein electrophoresis (morse type)
16. Which of the following is not a macroenzyme 1- Fibrinogen
a. ACP 2- Transferrin
b. GGT 3- C3
c. G6PD 27. Stains used in visualizing electrophoretic bands (morse type)
d. Alp 1- Amido black
17. Anti-asthmatic 2- Ponceau S
a. Theophylline 3- Fat red
b. Theobromide 4- Sudan black
c. Digoxin 28. Low A/G ratio
18. Increased T3, T4, TSH and FT4 – secondary hyperthyroidism a. Nephrotic syndrome
19. major protein found in LDL – apo B b. Multiple myeloma, nephrotic, cirrhosis
20. yields hydrogen ions – acid c. Cirrhosis
21. circulating T3, what will be level of T4 d. Multiple myeloma and cirrhosis
a. indeterminate 29. Essential in acid-base balance (morse type)
b. same 1- Bicarbonate
c. lower 2- Chloride
d. higher 3- Calcium
22. 3 year old baby, no protein intake for 24 hours. How will it affect thyroxine 4- Potassium
levels? 30. Hypernatremia is greater than:
a. Indeterminate a. 150
b. Nothing b. 142
c. Lower c. 155
d. Higher d. 160
23. Not seen in neonatal primary hypothyroidism 31. Type I DM
a. Mental retardation 1- Usually seen in children
b. Thyroiditis 2- Leads to absolute insulin deficiency
c. Cretinism 3- Prone to ketoacidosis
32. Uric acid assay. Cause turbidity interference, lack of specificity a. Swinging bucket
a. Enzymatic:UV b. Angle head
b. Enzymatic: H2O2 c. Cytocentrifuge
c. Colorimetric endpoint 42. In increased temperatures, what will happen to volume collected?
d. Colorimetric kinetic a. Increased
33. Essential for enzyme activation b. Decreased
a. Activator c. The same
b. Cofactor 43. Hyponatremia is caused by the following but not with increased sodium loss
34. Convert albumin into μmol/L. Given: 6 a. Potassium deficiency
35. Conversion question for glucose b. Severe burns
36. Used to collect and focu light into the specimen c. Renal failure
a. Aperture d. Diuretics
b. Condenser 44. Increased in the morning
c. Eyepiece tube a. –
d. Iris diaphragm b. Iron
37. Which of the following does not measure concentration of solute (morse 45. Shelf life of evacuated tube
type) a. Amount of gas
a. Osmometry b. Stability of additive and vacuum
b. Fluorometry c. Environmental factors
c. Turbidimetry d. Humidity and ambient temperature
d. Nephelometry 46. Treating all body fluids as capable of transmitting disease
38. Effects of using liquid nitrogen, except: a. Infection control
a. Shock b. Safe practice standards
b. Thermal burns c. Standard precautions
c. Fire explosion d. Safety protocol
d. Asphyxiation 47. Burning computers
39. Class A fire extinguisher is composed of? (morse type) a. Pressurized water
I- Pressurized water b. Halon
II- Dry chemical c. Sand
III- Halon d. Dry chemical
IV- Sand 48. Bone resorption
40. Determinant of diagnosis and monitoring therapy a. Cross-linked C-telopeptides
a. Specificity and precision b. Adiponectin
b. Sensitivity and specificity c. Fibronectin
c. Sensitivity and accuracy d. B-trace protein
d. Precision and accuracy 49. Glucose measurement using reducing substance approach can erroneously
41. Most rapid centrifuge elevate glucose value by ____ mg/dl compared to enzymatic method
 a. 5-15 c. Lacks plasma membrane
b. 10-20 d. Sterol –
c. 20-25 6. Oocyst found in warm blooded animals, killed at 70°C
d. 10-15 a. Naegleria fowleri
50. Gauge used for pediatric patients b. Balamuthia mandrillasis
a. 20 c. Toxoplasma gondii
b. 21 d. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. 22 7. Reporting of colony in fungi
d. 19 a. Positive
51. Weeks of gestation to test for down syndrome b. Negative
a. 10-15 c. 1-5
b. 40-42 8. Specimen for quantitative fat stool exam
c. 15-20 a. Two
52. Toxicity of this metal is primarily through reaction with protein sulfhydryl groups b. Two
(MSH), resulting in dysfunction and inactivation c. Three
a. Mercury 9. Attached to hooks
b. Lead a. Strobila
c. Arsenic b. Rostellum
c. Gravid
10. Parasite common in children and unsanitary areas
Microbiology a. Taenia
b. Hymenolepis nana
1. Test to differentiate M. bovis and MTB – niacin
c. D. latum
2. Does not have a vector
d. E. granulosus
a. Encephalitis
11. Chocolate agar
b. Dengue
a. Chocolate
c. Chikungunya
b. Lysis RBC
d. Respiratory syncytial
c. Clotted
3. MRVP reaction of E. coli – MR+ VP-
12. Minimum suit if inside laboratory
4. MOT of head lice
a. Lab gown
A. Sexualy transmitted
b. Gloves
B. Poor hygiene
c. Mask
C. Fomites
13. Chinese liver fluke
D. Direct contact
14. Zinc sulfate specific gravity
5. Unique to spirochete
15. Culture media that does not inhibit gram + yet also grows gram –
a. Motility without flagella
16. Protozoan trophozoite may be destroyed in
b. Lacks cell wall
a. Culture
 b. Viral isolation b. Proteus
c. Concentration c. Klebsiella
d. Direct microscopy d. Acinetobacter
17. Chemical placed in hydatid acid to decontaminate before removal 26. Parasite with 4 suckers
a. Formalin a. –
b. KOH b. –
c. Acetone c. T. saginata
d. India ink 27. When to collect sample for viral testing
18. Culture media for Vibrio a. Lag phase
19. Only found in stool b. Incubation phase
a. S. mansoni c. Acute phase
b. S. intercalatum d. Chronic phase
c. S. japonicum 28. Parasite transmitted through eating fish
d. S. haematobium 29. Ova of helminths is usually seen in stools that are
20. Interpret and H2S with no black formation a. Semi formed
a. Positive b. Formed
b. Negative c. Watery
21. Growth in BAP and CHOC but not in MAC except: 30. Stage of malaria that mosquitoes ingest from humans
a. Staphylococcus a. Gametocyte
b. Erysipelothrix b. Schizont
c. Gardnerella c. Merozoites
d. Lactobacillus 31. Motile at 35°C
22. Additional test for enterobacteria after IMVIC a. E. coli
a. Sodium citrate and sugar b. Klebsiella
b. H2S and motility c. Shigella
c. Oxidase and urease d. Salmonella
d. Indole and --- 32. Cold loving bacteria
23. Parasite found in food that can cause cough and fever, then later mimics a. Mesophiles
tuberculosis b. Thermophile
a. A. lumbricoides c. –
b. – d. Psychrophiles
c. P. westermani 33. What objective is used for initial reading in stool specimens
24. Ground glass appearance in CCFA a. 4x
a. – b. 10x
b. C. difficile c. 40x
25. PAD+ organism d. 100x
a. E. coli 34. Patient admitted to hospital YYY, partially acid fast, branching, catalase +
 a. Nocardia asteroids 9. Synovial string of 6cm (normal or not)
b. Streptomyces 10. Solve for corrected WBC in CSF if the dilution is 1:20
c. Nocardia -- 11. Colorless flat rectangular plates with notch
a. Uric acid
Clinical microscopy b. Calcium phosphate
c. Cholesterol plates
1. What analyte is increased in CEP
12. WBC: 150
a. Uroporphyrin
a. Septic
b. UROS III enzyme
b. Inflammatory
2. Positive color for resorcinol
c. Non-inflammatory
a. –
d. Normal
b. –
13. Oval fat bodies are from
c. Green
a. RTE
d. Orange
b. Lipiduria
3. Gel-like
14. In urine, what other crystal can you see in liver damage aside from bilirubin
a. 4+
15. For acute tubular necrosis
b. –
a. Proteinuria
c. –
b. –
d. 0
c. Dark muddy casts
4. In treating all blood and body fluids as capable of transmitting infectious
d. Dirty brown casts
diseases
16. Negative result for point of care HCG test
a. Infection control
a. Double colored band
b. Safe practice standards
b. No color band on the window
c. Universal precaution
c. Single colored band
d. Safety protocol
d. Homogenous
5. Sperm count
17. Yellow crystal, moderate hard
6. Chain of infection
a. Phosphate
a. Mode of transmission & susceptible host
b. Calcium oxalate
b. Susceptible host & source
c. Uric acid
c. MOT & susceptible host & source
d. Cysteine
d. Source and MOT
18. Least affected – protein
7. False positive reaction of 5-HIAA
19. What does not contribute to amniotic fluid
a. –
a. Fetal urine
b. –
b. Umbilical cord
c. Banana
c. Bone marrow
d. –
d. Lung fluid
8. T in TORCH
20. WBC 3-5, nitrite (-), protein (-). Where is the origin of WBC?
 a. Renal d. 1.038
b. Bladder 28. How many percent is lymphocyte in BAL
c. Non-renal a. 70-80
21. Presence of reddish brown needle like crystals, yellowish squamous epithelial b. 10-15
cells. What crystal is present? Bilirubin 29. How to differentiate exudates from transudates
21.1 What is the patient’s underlying disease? a. RBC count
21.2 How will you confirm the crystal present? b. WBC count
a. Add HCl c. Protein
b. Add chloroform 30. Upon microscopy, you observed WBC cast and epithelial cell cast. How can
c. Add acetic acid you confirm/differentiate?
22. Highly refractile RTE a. Add acetic acid since epithelial cell cast is soluble
a. Oval fat bodies b. –
b. – c. Stain
c. Caudate 31. You cannot process the 2nd tube for CSF. Where will you store it?
23. When to collect sample for BAL a. 4-6°C
a. 12 hours after meal b. 0°C
b. 1 hour after breakfast c. 20°C
c. 1 hour after lunch d. 37°C
d. Fasting state 32. What protein can you observe under microscope
24. Which of the ff. is true regarding sputum? a. None of the above
a. Greenish in color b. Bence-Jones protein
b. Produced by healthy individuals c. Tamm-Horsfall protein
c. 24 hour sample should be collected d. Fibrinogen
d. Produced by bronchial tree 33. Bence-Jones protein coagulates at what temperature
25. D-xylose a. 100°C
a. 12 hours HCl b. 60-80°C
b. 12 hours NaOH c. –
c. 24 hours HCl d. 40-50°C
d. 24 hours NaOH 34. Upon arriving at laboratory, the odor of urine is pungent. What is the cause?
26. Volume of urine required for refractometer a. UTI
a. 1 drop b. PKU
b. 1 uL c. Bacteriuria
c. 1ml 35. Fire Hazard grading
27. 2 mg/dl protein, urinometer result is 1.030. what is the corrected SG? a. 0-4
a. 1.22 36. Deadly chemical hazard
b. 1.030 a. 4
c. 1.032 b. XOX
 c. XXX a. Ovoid
37. Most dangerous chemical hazard grading b. Elongated
A. 4 c. Elliptical
B. XXX d. Spherical
C. – 16. Aplastic anemia (Morse type)
D. ZZZ 1- Empty
38. Parietal cell produces HCl in response to 2- Packed of red cells
a. Pepsin 3- Hypoplastic
b. Gastrin 4- Hyperplastic
c. Amylase 17. Swelling due to leakage of large amounts of blood
d. Trypsin a. Ecchymosis
b. Purpura
Hematology c. Hematoma
d. Bruise
1. Concentration of sodium citrate used in coagulation studies
18. PT, APTT, TCT results if:
2. Substitute for Factor VIII concentrate blood for Factor VIII deficiency
a. Factor VIII deficient =
3. Size of drop of blood in smear – 2-3mm
b. Factor II deficient =
4. Fitzgerald is also known as? HMWK
c. Factor XI deficient =
5. Target INR in patients with pulmonary embolism
19. Substrate for thrombin
6. Angle in push wedge technique in routine smear prep – 30-45°
20. Uniformity in platelet size
7. Angle in push wedge technique if patient has polycythemia vera – lower
a. MPV
angle (since there is increased number of cells)
b. PDW
a. 35
c. RCMI
b. 40
d. RDW
c. 25
21. Small, scanty, invisible cytoplasm
d. 30
a. L3
8. Inclusion body that is consist of DNA fragments – Howell jolly body
b. L1
9. Coagulation factor that is a mineral
c. L2
10. Minutes to wait for settling before charging (in RBC/WBC count)
d. L4
11. Minutes to wait for charging before proceeding to counting
22. Tube was placed in the refrigerator overnight, it was then tested first thing in
12. Part of platelet that holds the cytoskeleton and maintains shape
the morning the following day. What is the result of the ESR
13. Parts of peripheral zone (Morse type)
23. ESR. Increase anticoagulant effect to hematocrit
a. Glycocalyx
24. Precursor of neutrophil
b. Plasma membrane
25. Precursor of orthochromatic normoblast
c. Submembrane area
26. First cell where hemoglobin can be seen
14. Position of hands during handwashing
a. Rubricyte
15. Shape of platelet with pseudopods after it assumes a discoid shape
b. Prorubricyte
27. MPV increase within an hour 2. Chloroacetate
a. 10 3. Butyrate
b. 5 4. acetate
c. 20 36. Maturation time of basophil
d. 15 a. 12
28. Upon reaching the age of 65-75, how much increase in fibrinogen occurs? b. 10
(see Dinglasan) c. 6
a. – 37. Positive predictive value: individual positive with test _______ the disease
b. 10 mg/dL a. Could have
c. – b. Has
d. – c. May have
29. Most likely to have thrombosis (Morse type) d. Will have
a. Young adult 38. What is being produced in the maturation of eosinophil
b. Children a. Lipid bodies
c. Newborn b. Secretory vesicles
d. Infants c. Primary granules
30. Lipemia and icteric sample, how does it affect Hgb and MCV (Morse type) d. Secondary granules
1. Increase 39. New ways of diagnosing leukemia
2. Decrease a. Flow cytometry
3. Inaccurate b. Cytogenetic analysis
4. Imprecise c. Cytochemical staining
a. 1, 3 d. Molecular
b. 2, 4 40. Associated with round, solid staining, dark blue to purple inclusion that is
31. In Drabkin’s method for Hgb determination. Sample is centrifuged and frequently seen in mature erythrocyte but may also be seen in immature
supernatant is used if platelet count is: nucleated cell (Howell Jolly bodies) morse type
a. 600 1. Hemolytic anemia
b. 700 2. Pernicious anemia
c. 800 3. Physical dystrophy of spleen
d. 900 4. Defective or accelerated heme synthesis
32. Chromatin of MK-II – moderately condensed 41. Within how many hours should MPV be read
33. Demarcating membrane system is present in (Morse type) 42. Area in hemocytometer where platelet count is performed 0.04 or 1 mm2
a. MK-I 43. What objective are wbcs counted - 10x
b. MK-II 44. Objective for platelet/rbc count - 40x
c. MK-III 45. Minutes to wait for lysis of RBCs in WBC count – 10 mins
34. Tetraploid DNA is formed and checked for mutations. Duration: 4 hours – G2
35. Stains for granulocyte only (morse type)
1. Esterase
 10. Non-transfusable in blood
a. CMV
b. Malaria
c. Hepatitis
d. TB
11. Blood group with 9 antigens on complement
a. Vel
b. Chido/Rogers
c. Cartwright
d. Dombrock
12. Not part of the test for blood bag
a. CMV & anti-HIV 2
Isbb b. HCV and HIV
1. Discovered cross-immunity c. HIV-2
2. Discovered law of independence d. Malaria and HTLV-1
3. The first antibody to be detected in HIV infected patients – p24 13. Kidd antibody
4. Common blood contaminant a. Anti K, anti k
a. Staphylococci b. Anti-JK1, anti-JK2, anti-JK3
b. Escherichia c. –
c. Yersinia d. Anti-Jka, anti-Jkb
d. Brucella 14. Form of IgA in serum – monomer
5. Dolichos biflorus 15. True about IgE except:
a. B antibody a. Binds to mast cells
b. A2, A2B b. Can fix complement
c. A1, A1B c. Monomer
6. TGA result showing poor response to antibiotics d. Heat stable
a. Normal 16. Most common antibody of Lewis
b. Borderline low a. Leb
c. Extremely low b. Lea
d. Extremely elevated c. LW
7. Antibody diversity – Susumo Tonegawa d. LH
8. Papain proteolytic characteristic results to: 17. pH of skin
a. 2 Fab a. 5.2
b. 1 F(ab)2 and 1 Fc b. 5.6
c. Fab and Fc fragments c. 7.5
d. 2 Fc and 1 Fab d. 6.5
9. Deferrals 18. NK cell – cd16
19. low levels of C3 b. amniocentesis
a. PNH c. cordd blood
b. Glomerulonephritis d. venipuncture
20. CPDA-1 28. Does sample for DAT need anticoagulant?
a. 21 a. No, never
b. – b. Yes, EDTA
c. 35 c. Yes, heparin
d. 40 29. Rh0
21. Double negative and triple negative a. Rh0hr’hr’
a. Immature lymphocyte b. Rh0hr”hr”
b. - c. Rh0rh’rh’
c. Malignant lymphocyte d. Rh0rh”rh”
22. Autologous donation 30. Sensitivity in sera
a. Ab screening and Hgb of 11 g/dl a. Positive in the presence of homologous phenotype
b. – b. Negative in the presence of homologous phenotype
c. 18 years old c. Positive in the absence of homologous phenotype
d. Hgb of 11 g/dl d. Negative in the absence of homologous phenotype
23. Disadvantage in gel technology 31. Tue about A1
a. Cannot detect isoantibodies a. Has A2 antibody
b. Uses special equipments b. Has A and A1 antigen
c. Time consuming c. Less A epitope
24. If an infant has HDFN, what test is not included d. Has A antigen
a. DAT 32. Red cell suspension
b. ABO grouping 33. NADH destroys what?
c. Rho typing a. Protein
d. Reverse ABO grouping b. DNA
25. Lymphocyte with no CD markers for Bcell and T cell 34. D- 0 , C – 0, E – 0, c - +++ , e - +++
a. Thymocyte What is the genotype? How to express the genotype?
b. Macrophage a. dCe/dce
c. NK b. Dce/Dce
26. Proponent of humoral immunity c. Dce/dce
a. NK cell 35. Most susceptible for contamination
b. – a. FWB
c. B lymphocyte b. RBC
d. T lymphocyte c. FFP
27. Detection of D antigen in neonates d. Platelets
a. Apheresis in mother 36. Acute transfusion reactions signs and symptoms appear within ___ hours
 a. 2 d. Should have at least 8 letters
b. 12 2. 5 panel drug test except
c. 6 a. PCP
d. 24 b. Cocaine
37. Glass pipette calibration temperature c. Opiates
a. 20 d. Alcohol
b. 37 3. Most specific stain for fats
c. 22 a. Oil red O
d. 25 b. Sudan red 7B
38. Transfused with fresh plasma after cured with dengue; deferral c. Sudan black
a. 2 years 4. How many percent an examiner should get to pass the board exam? 75%
b. 1 year 5. Sample for cytology except:
c. 6 months a. Body fluids
d. 12 months b. Hair & nail
39. Pooled platelets – 5 days c. Exfoliative cell and organ aspirates
40. Volume of blood that can be collected 6. Head of laboratory
a. 500 a. Medtech cert by DOH
b. 400 b. Physician cert by DOH
c. 450 c. Physician certified by Philippine Society of Pathologists
d. 425 d. Medtech with 15 years experience
41. Minimal weight in pounds in a man who will have double apheresis 7. Subject with 10% bearing in the board exam
a. 120 8. Stain for spirochetes that has silver nitrate
b. 150 a. Fontana Mason
c. 130 b. Levaditi
d. 140 c. Warthin starry
42. Law of inheritance d. Jonas Methanamine silver stain
43. Viral infection with mosquito which is usually associated with bleeding 9. Not part of quality assurance
a. Chikungunya a. Pre-analytical
b. Dengue b. Analytical
44. Solving problems c. Post-analytical
d. Accuracy
Htmle 10. Stain for myelin
a. Luxol fast blue
1. LIS password
b. Hall’s
a. Posted on BB bulletin
c. Esterase
b. Cofidential
11. Does not need temperature control
c. Should be in small caps
a. Embedding center
 b. Water bath d. Mechanical
c. Microtome 20. All of the ff are confidential in patient information except
d. Tissue processor a. Attending physician
12. Fixative for cytopathology b. Favorite food
a. 95% ethanol 21. Man is separated to his spouse. Children are below legal age. No brothers
b. 95% isopropyl alcohol and sisters. To whom do we get consent for autopsy
c. Absolute alcohol a. Either parent
13. Father of cytopathology – Papaniculaou b. Partner of bedridden patient
14. Pathologist will see most of the cells stained with c. Court of appeals
a. Eosin d. Attending physician
b. Hematoxylin 22. Professional subject in BMLS/MSMT
c. Papaniculaou a. Biochemistry
d. H&E b. Anatomy
15. What to do when an HIV specimen is submitted to Histopathology c. Physiology
a. Immerse in fixative immediately d. Clinical Chemistry
b. Wear PPE 23. According to RA 9165, which is considered as dangerous drug
c. Standard precautions a. Sedatives
d. Process it separately b. Hypnotics
16. How to troubleshoot is nucleus is pale c. Steroids
a. Change hematoxylin d. Methamphetamine hydroxide
b. – 24. When is decalcification done
c. – a. Prior embedding
d. Restain b. After dehydration
17. Virulence factor of bacteria is used for c. Before rehydration
a. Adhesion d. Prior tissue processing
b. Destruction 25. What is in between dehydration and infiltration?
c. Immunoevasion a. Clearing
d. Immunosuppressant b. Embedding
18. Joe is a phlebotomist. Patient is unconscious and is in the ICU. 26. Color of basic fuchsin
a. Tell physician and ask for consent 27. Frozen section is stained manually because
b. Tell watcher a. To prevent overstaining
c. Tell nurse b. Results are controllable
d. Do not extract c. Reagents can be adjusted
19. Characteristic of close automated processor d. Manual process is faster
a. Tissue transfer 28. Liquid based cytology
b. Fluid transfer a. Touch impressions
c. “dip&dunk” b. Body fluids