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RBI Previous Year Paper


16 August 2018
Grade B Memory Based (English)
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200 Questions

Que. 1 NPCI, an umbrella organisation is an initiative of?


1. NITI Aayog
2. World Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. Finance Ministry
5. Reserve Bank of India
Correct Option - 5

Que. 2 Vidyadhar Bhattacharya was the chief architect of which city?


1. Hyderabad
2. Udaipur
3. Lucknow
4. Jaipur
5. Bareilly
Correct Option - 4

Que. 3 Jallikatu is the traditional game of which state?


1. Karnataka
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Kerala
5. Maharashtra
Correct Option - 3

Que. 4 Which bank has won the Enterprise mobility award at the International Enterprise Award?
1. SBI
2. ICICI
3. PNB
4. BOI
5. HDFC
Correct Option - 2

Que. 5 Which country made a record for launching maximum satellites in one go?
1. India
2. China
3. USA
4. Russia
5. France
Correct Option - 3

Que. 6 Where was the first nuclear bomb dropped?

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1. Nagasaki
2. Paris
3. Beijing
4. Vienna
5. Hiroshima
Correct Option - 5

Que. 7 How will an increase in repo rate affect the economy?


1. The interest rates on loans offered to customers rise
2. The interest rates on loans offered to customers fall
3. Customer’s purchasing power increases
4. Inflation increases
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 1

Que. 8 The headquarters of AIIB is located in __________.


1. Tokyo
2. Beijing
3. Singapore
4. Malaysia
5. Philippines
Correct Option - 2

Que. 9 The Financial Literacy Week is launched by?


1. NITI Aayog
2. Finance Ministry
3. RBI
4. Education Ministry
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 10 Which country hosted the World Environment Day (5th June) in the year 2018?
1. China
2. USA
3. Britain
4. India
5. Switzerland
Correct Option - 4

Que. 11 What is the full form of CVV?


1. Credit Verification Value
2. Card Voter Verification
3. Control Voter Value
4. Control Vehicular Value

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5. Card Verification Value


Correct Option - 5

Que. 12 The full form of SCOTUS is __________?


1. Supreme Court of the United Sanctions
2. State Court of the United States
3. Systematic Concessions of the United States
4. Supreme Court of the United States of America
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 13 Which was the last country to join BRICS?


1. India
2. China
3. Russia
4. Brazil
5. South Africa
Correct Option - 5

Que. 14 Who all are the authors of the book “Hit Refresh”?
1. Atul Gawande and Greg Shaw
2. Satya Nadella and Paul Kalanithi
3. Greg Shaw, Jill Tracie Nichols, and Satya Nadella
4. C.J. Lyons and Jill Tracie Nichols
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 15 Where is the Salar Jung Museum located?


1. Chennai
2. Hyderabad
3. Mumbai
4. Bhopal
5. Agra
Correct Option - 2

Que. 16 When is the UN MSME Day celebrated?


1. 27 June
2. 18 May
3. 19 August
4. 17 June
5. 5 January
Correct Option - 1

Que. 17 Where is the headquarters of Arab League located?

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1. Cairo, Egypt
2. New York, USA
3. Paris, France
4. Vienna, Austria
5. Washington DC, USA
Correct Option - 1

Que. 18 The name of “Kirana Gharana”, is derived from which of the following towns?
1. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
2. Shamli District, Uttar Pradesh
3. Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
4. Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
5. Kolhapur, Maharashtra
Correct Option - 2

Que. 19 Who among the following is known as the ‘Metro Man of India’?
1. S Padmanabhan
2. E. Sreedharan
3. S Jaishankar
4. Gagan Mittal
5. Asita Singh Parmar
Correct Option - 2

Que. 20 The United Nations Refugee Agency has described Rohingyas among the “Most vulnerable group
of the forcibly displaced”. They are Muslims actually belonging to which among the following
countries?
1. Myanmar
2. Maldives
3. Bangladesh
4. Indonesia
5. Cambodia
Correct Option - 1

Que. 21 Which among the following is also known as the Ayushman Bharat Scheme of the government to
be launched in September 2018?
1. National Health Mission
2. National Urban Health Mission
3. National Rural Health Mission
4. National Health Protection Mission
5. National Health Insurance Scheme
Correct Option - 4

Que. 22 The National Biopharma Mission has been launched to accelerate the development of
biopharmaceuticals industry in India by which ministry of the government?
1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

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2. Ministry of Finance
3. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
4. Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers
5. Ministry of Science and Technology
Correct Option - 5

Que. 23 India has recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries for Rs. 40000 crores
to procure S-400 anti-aircraft missile defence system for the Indian Air Force?
1. Israel
2. USA
3. France
4. Russia
5. Germany
Correct Option - 4

Que. 24 The Indian Army recently received the ultra-light M777 from the USA. What is ultra-light M777?
1. Anti-missile defence system
2. Howitzers
3. Fighter jets
4. Scorpene class stealth fighter jet
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 25 Who among the following has authored the book ‘Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra’?
1. Vikram Seth
2. Amish Tripathi
3. Anshul Parmar
4. Ruskin Bond
5. Chetna Dalwani
Correct Option - 4

Que. 26 According to the third bi-monthly monetary policy review by the Reserve Bank of India, the
inflation in India in 2019-20 can rise up to a level of -
1. 4 per cent
2. 5 per cent
3. 6 per cent
4. 7 per cent
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 27 Shenzhen Stock Exchange is situated in which among the following countries?
1. Japan
2. South Korea
3. China
4. Sri Lanka

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5. None of the above


Correct Option - 3

Que. 28 Which among the following has been nominated as the first ever heritage city of India by the
UNESCO?
1. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
2. Gandhinagar, Gujarat
3. Kolkata, West Bengal
4. Malda, West Bengal
5. Darjeeling, West Bengal
Correct Option - 1

Que. 29 According to Swachh Sarveskshan Survey 2017, which among the following has been declared as
the cleanest city of India?
1. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
2. Indore, Madhya Pradesh
3. Surat, Gujarat
4. Gandhinagar, Gujarat
5. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
Correct Option - 2

Que. 30 The high-level committee which submitted its report to the government regarding the stressed
assets management in banks in the country was headed by whom among the following?
1. YS Deveshwar
2. Usha Anantsubramaniam
3. Sunil Mehta
4. Ashok Dewanji
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 31 Which among the following countries has recently imposed heavy tariffs on steel and aluminium
imports from India?
1. China
2. Japan
3. Russia
4. USA
5. Great Britain
Correct Option - 4

Que. 32 India has signed Open Sky agreement with which among the following countries recently in
September 2017?
1. Australia
2. Japan
3. China
4. Taiwan

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5. South Africa
Correct Option - 2

Que. 33 Who among the following is the first woman in the world to climb the Mount Everest twice?
1. Santosh Yadav
2. Lakshmi Thapa
3. Bhushi Thapa
4. Lekhsmi Nair
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 1

Que. 34 The headquarters of the International Criminal Police Organization are situated in –
1. Paris, France
2. Lyon, France
3. Geneva, Switzerland
4. Berne, Switzerland
5. New York, USA
Correct Option - 2

Que. 35 According to the Dun and Bradstreet Awards 2018, which among the following was adjudged as
the best private sector bank for the year 2017?
1. ICICI Bank
2. HDFC Bank
3. Axis Bank
4. IndusInd Bank
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 36 The present Statutory Liquidity Ratio rate is -


1. 18.5%
2. 21%
3. 22.5%
4. 18%
5. 25%
Correct Option - 1

Que. 37 The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons has been honored with the 2017 Nobel
Peace Prize in the year 2017. The headquarters of ICAN are
1. Berne, Switzerland
2. Geneva, Switzerland
3. Paris, France
4. London, UK
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

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Que. 38 Hima Das is the first-ever brand ambassador of which of the following state?
1. Bengal
2. Assam
3. Tripura
4. Gujarat
5. Uttar Pradesh
Correct Option - 2

Que. 39 Who is heading the committee set up by RBI to make a Public Credit Registry?
1. Y.M. Deosthalee
2. Pradeep Kumar
3. Janaki Ballabh
4. MBN Rao
5. S Raman
Correct Option - 1

Que. 40 Which Bank aims to provide financial and digital literacy to farmers in Rajasthan and Haryana?
1. Punjab National Bank
2. Yes Bank
3. Axis Bank
4. HDFC Bank
5. State Bank of India
Correct Option - 2

Que. 41 What is the name of the engine developed and used by ISRO?
1. CE-20 Cryogenic Rocket Engine
2. Rocketdyne F-1
3. Rocketdyne J-2
4. RL 10
5. RS-68
Correct Option - 1

Que. 42 Which Indian IT company has a book based upon it known as “Bangalore Tigers”?
1. Infosys
2. Tata Consultancy Services
3. IGATE
4. Wipro
5. Mphasis
Correct Option - 4

Que. 43 Recently passed Kishori Amonkar is related to which of the following fields?
1. Classical dancer
2. Songwriter
3. Classical vocalist

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4. Music editor
5. Musician
Correct Option - 3

Que. 44 Which of the following portals has been launched by Small Industries Development Bank of India?
1. Udyami Mitra Portal
2. E-samvad portal
3. Allied and Healthcare Professionals Database Portal
4. High-Risk Pregnancy Portal
5. Management system information portal
Correct Option - 1

Que. 45 What is the full form of RISE?


1. Research Initiative for Scientific Enhancement
2. Resources for Indispensable Schools and Educators
3. Redefining Investment Strategy Education
4. Revitalize Iowa’s Sound Economy
5. Revitalizing of Infrastructure and Systems in Education
Correct Option - 5

Que. 46 Which of the following is recently included in the World Heritage Site?
1. Seven Mountain Temple
2. Great Barrier Reef
3. Machu Picchu
4. Agra Fort
5. Red Fort Complex
Correct Option - 1

Que. 47 With which country India signed an open sky agreement?


1. China
2. Japan
3. Pakistan
4. Indonesia
5. Iraq
Correct Option - 2

Que. 48 Where is the Headquarter of the Arab League located?


1. Cairo
2. Jakarta
3. Karachi
4. Istanbul
5. Tehran
Correct Option - 1

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Que. 49 On which company DGCA is set to conduct an audit?


1. Jet Airways
2. Spice Jet
3. Vistara
4. Indigo
5. Air India
Correct Option - 1

Que. 50 With which sports is Sai Parneeth associated?


1. Badminton
2. Hockey
3. Cricket
4. Tennis
5. Wrestling
Correct Option - 1

Que. 51 With which sports is Manav Thakkar associated to?


1. Badminton
2. Table tennis
3. Hockey
4. Cricket
5. Wrestling
Correct Option - 2

Que. 52 With which sports is Hima Das associated?


1. Gymnastics
2. Sprint
3. Table Tennis
4. Hockey
5. Wrestling
Correct Option - 2

Que. 53 What is the speed of the SAFFIR Hurricane?


1. 156 mph
2. 200 mph
3. 145 mph
4. 178 mph
5. 186 mph
Correct Option - 1

Que. 54 Who is the first woman to reach the peak of Mount Everest twice in a week?
1. Arunima Sinha
2. Junko Tabei
3. Killian Jornet

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4. Yuichiro Miura
5. Anshu Jamsenpa
Correct Option - 5

Que. 55 Which of the following famous Sarod maestro passed away ?


1. Buddhadev Das Gupta
2. Ali Akbar Khan
3. Sharan Rani Backliwal
4. Jatin Bhattacharya
5. Bahadur Khan
Correct Option - 1

Que. 56 Where is the Kunchikal Waterfall located?


1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Goa
5. Meghalaya
Correct Option - 3

Que. 57 When was the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Launched?


1. 2015
2. 2016
3. 2018
4. 2014
5. 2013
Correct Option - 1

Que. 58 What is the highest Repo Rate ever sanctioned in India?


1. 4.00%
2. 5.25%
3. 6.00%
4. 10.25%
5. 14.50%
Correct Option - 5

Que. 59 When is India and Pakistan “Peace Mission” being conducted?


1. 22-29 June 2018
2. 15-22 July 2018
3. 15-22 July 2019
4. 22-29 August 2018
5. 22-29 August 2019
Correct Option - 4

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Que. 60 What are the colours of the official mascot for the Tokyo Olympics 2020?
1. White and, Red
2. Black and Red
3. White, Blue and Pink
4. Black, Green and Orange
5. Blue and Red
Correct Option - 3

Que. 61 How many Indians were awarded with the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2018?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 0
Correct Option - 2

Que. 62 Who was the winner of the FIFA Golden Glove in 2018?
1. Maneuel Neuer
2. Luka Modric
3. Danijel Subasic
4. Hugo Lloris
5. Thibaut Courtois
Correct Option - 5

Que. 63 Which country will host the 2022 Commonwealth Games?


1. South Africa
2. England
3. Australia
4. India
5. Germany
Correct Option - 2

Que. 64 The note of which denomination will have the motif of the famous site of ‘Rani Ka Vaav'.
1. Rs. 1
2. Rs. 10
3. Rs. 100
4. Rs. 200
5. Rs. 500
Correct Option - 3

Que. 65 Who won the 2017 AIFF player of the year award?
1. Subrata Pal
2. Bhaichung Bhutia
3. Jeje Lalpekhlua

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4. Sunil Chhetri
5. Anas Edathodika
Correct Option - 4

Que. 66 In which country was the 2018 Badminton Asia Junior Championship held?
1. Indonesia
2. China
3. Thailand
4. Sri Lanka
5. Japan
Correct Option - 1

Que. 67 Which city is the capital of Zambia?


1. Dakar
2. Abuja
3. Lusaka
4. Nairobi
5. Rabat
Correct Option - 3

Que. 68 In which city was the 2018 UNICEF International Children’s Film Festival held?
1. Mumbai
2. Pune
3. Hyderabad
4. Kolkata
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 69 What does S stand for in the abbreviation BIMSTEC?


1. Strategic
2. Structural
3. Sectoral
4. Social
5. Symbolic
Correct Option - 3

Que. 70 Who won the Dada Saheb Phalke Excellence Award 2018 for best actor in the male category?
1. Ranveer Singh
2. Hrithik Roshan
3. Shahrukh Khan
4. Ranbir Kapoor
5. Shahid Kapoor
Correct Option - 5

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Que. 71 The Hirakud Dam is built across which river?


1. Saraswati
2. Mahanadi
3. Godavari
4. Kaveri
5. Brahmaputra
Correct Option - 2

Que. 72 What does the letter T stand for in CTS in a new cheque system?
1. Transaction
2. Target
3. Tertiary
4. Truncation
5. Teller
Correct Option - 4

Que. 73 When was the Banking Regulations Act (Section 22) passed?
1. 1947
2. 1948
3. 1949
4. 1950
5. 1951
Correct Option - 3

Que. 74 What is the full form of UPI?


1. Unified Processing Invention
2. Ultra Payment Interface
3. Use Payments Instantly
4. Unified Payments Interface
5. User Processing Interface
Correct Option - 4

Que. 75 What was the previously allowed percentage of FDI for single-brand retail in a company before the
amendment in January 2018?
1. 25%
2. 33%
3. 49%
4. 67%
5. 74%
Correct Option - 3

Que. 76 In which state is the Kaziranga National Park located?


1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Assam

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4. Sikkim
5. Rajasthan
Correct Option - 3

Que. 77 Which of these languages does not use the Devanagari script?
1. Bhojpuri
2. Kannada
3. Maithili
4. Marathi
5. Awadhi
Correct Option - 2

Que. 78 Advance Pricing Agreements is a term used in which of the following?


1. International Treaty
2. Union Budget
3. GST implement
4. Taxation
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 79 Nitish Kumar has released 3 books based on Mahatma Gandhi's ________ movement.
1. Champaran Satyagraha
2. Kheda Satyagraha
3. Ahmedabad Satyagraha
4. Rowlatt Satyagraha
5. Civil Disobedience
Correct Option - 1

Que. 80 Which statement is not correct about revenue receipts of Government?


1. Revenue collected from disinvestment PSUs is a part of Revenue Receipts.
2. Revenue consists of proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the Union government.
3. Government earns revenues from taxes on sales of goods is part of Revenue receipts.
4. Income from sources other than taxes is called non-tax revenue receipts of Government.
5. None of these.
Correct Option - 1

Que. 81 Directions: Study the following information to answer these questions.


Eight people viz, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing North. Each one of
them like different colours viz. Green, Blue, Orange, Purple, Red, Yellow, White and Black but not
necessarily in the same order.
The person who likes Blue sits to the immediate left of D. Neither A nor E is an immediate neighbor of G.
The person who likes Black sits second to the right of G. G sits third to the right of the person who likes Red.
A and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither A nor E either likes Red or likes Black. H sits third
to the right of the person who likes Green. Neither A nor E likes Green. H’s does not like Black. Only two
people sit between E and the person who likes White. Only one person sits between G and B. C likes Purple.
E likes Yellow whereas A likes Orange. Person who likes Red is sitting at extreme left.

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‘H’ is related to ‘White’ in a certain way based on the above arrangement. ‘B’ is related to ‘Red’ following
the same pattern. ‘______’ is related to ‘Yellow’ following the same pattern.
1. F
2. G
3. A
4. D
5. C
Correct Option - 3

Que. 82 Which of the following is true regarding D?


1. Only two people sit to the left of D.
2. E and B are immediate neighbours of D.
3. D likes Red.
4. D is sitting second to the right of the person who likes White.
5. None is true.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 83 How many people sit between D and the person who likes Purple?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
Correct Option - 3

Que. 84 Who amongst the following sits exactly between G and B?


1. D
2. The person who likes Purple.
3. The person who likes Green.
4. The person who likes Black.
5. A
Correct Option - 2

Que. 85 Which of the following colour does H like?


1. Purple
2. Yellow
3. White
4. Blue
5. Orange
Correct Option - 4

Que. 86 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Arun, Bobby, Chris, Dolly, Esha, Faru, Ganga and Harry are sitting around a square table such that
four of them sit at each corner and remaining four at the center of each edge of the table. The ones who are
sitting at the corners face towards the center while the rest face away from the center.

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The persons sitting at the center of edges have different choice of colors among Black, Green, Maroon and
Blue while the persons sitting at the corners have a liking for different drinks Coke, Pepsi, Sprite and Fruity.
Dolly likes Pepsi and is not an immediate neighbor of Bobby who likes Black color and sits to the immediate
left of the one who like Sprite. Chris sits to fourth to the left of the one who likes Fruity. One who likes Coke
is not an immediate neighbor of Bobby. Arun and Esha are facing away from each other (in same line of
sight) and Esha doesn’t like Maroon or Green. Ganga sits third to the left of Faru who likes a drink but not
Sprite. The one who likes Green or Maroon, doesn’t sit between Dolly and Faru.

What is the position of Faru with respect to Esha?


1. Second to the left
2. Immediate right
3. Third to left
4. Third to right
5. Immediate left
Correct Option - 5

Que. 87 If Ganga and Bobby exchange their positions then, who will be to the immediate right of Bobby?
1. Faru
2. Arun
3. Dolly
4. Chris
5. Esha
Correct Option - 4

Que. 88 Who among the following like colors?


I. Esha
II. Chris
III. Harry
1. Only III
2. Both I and II
3. Only I
4. Both II and III
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 89 Who among the following likes Green?


1. Ganga
2. Arun
3. Esha
4. Bobby
5. Either 1 or 2
Correct Option - 5

Que. 90 Who among the following is odd one out?


1. Arun
2. Harry

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3. Ganga
4. Bobby
5. Esha
Correct Option - 2

Que. 91 Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below.
Eight boxes - A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same
order. Each box contains different items Book, Pen, Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener, Novel, Screw Driver and
Ribbon but not necessarily in the same order. H box contains Screw Driver and is kept at the bottom of the
stack. Only three boxes are kept between D & G. Box G is placed above Box D. The Ribbon box is
kept immediately above G. Only one box is kept between the Ribbon box & A. E is the Ribbon box. The
Eraser box is kept immediately above E. Only three boxes are kept between the Eraser box and the Book box.
The Pen Box is immediately above the Novel Box. G is not the Pen Box. F is kept immediately below the
Sharpener box. Only one box is kept between B & the Sharpener Box.
What is kept in Box A?
1. Screw Driver
2. Novel
3. Sharpener
4. Eraser
5. Book
Correct Option - 3

Que. 92 Which box is placed at third position from the bottom?


1. A
2. Pen
3. Eraser
4. Ribbon
5. C
Correct Option - 2

Que. 93 What is kept in Box F?


1. Ribbon
2. Novel
3. Pencil
4. Eraser
5. Book
Correct Option - 5

Que. 94 Which box is placed at third position from the top?


1. Ribbon
2. Novel
3. Pencil
4. Eraser
5. Book
Correct Option - 3

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Que. 95 Eraser belong to which box?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Correct Option - 3

Que. 96 Direction: study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven employees Raman, Priya, Sunny, Pooja, Sneha, Riya and Parul are going to attend the
seminar on 1 February 2017 andlives on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same
order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1 and the topmost floor of the building is numbered
7. Each of them works in a different company viz TCS, Infosys, Infotech, HCL, Softech, Microsoft and
Wipro. Each of the person’s birth years is different i.e. 1982, 1986, 1972, 1989, 1991, 1998 and 1978, but not
necessarily in the same order.
The person, whose year of birth is 1989 lives on an even numbered floor but not on the second floor.Only
three persons live between Raman and the one who works in Softech and their age of difference is 8
years. Pooja lives on the even numbered floor but not below the floor on which Parul lives, whose year of
birth is 1989. Only three persons live between Sunny and the one who works in Infosys.Sunny lives below
the floor on which Sneha lives, who is youngest of all of them.Sunny works in Infotech.The one who works
in HCL was born in 1989. Priya lives on the lowermost floor and works in TCS.Riya works in Wipro but
does not born in 1991.The difference of age between the person who works in HCL and sunny is 17 years.
The one who work in Microsoft, does not born in 1986.

Who among the following lives on the topmost floor?


1. The one whose birth of year is 1986.
2. The one whose birth of year is 1989.
3. The one whose birth of year is 1972.
4. The one whose birth of year is 1978.
5. The one whose birth of year is 1998.
Correct Option - 5

Que. 97 How many persons live between the person whose birth of year is 1998 and 1972?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Two
4. One
5. Five
Correct Option - 1

Que. 98 Which of the following statement is true?


1. Sunny‘s year of birth is 1986.
2. Parul lives on the odd numbered floor.
3. Riya works in Wipro.
4. Priya lives on the topmost floor.
5. Three persons live between Parul and Priya.
Correct Option - 3

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Que. 99 Whose birth of year is 1982?


1. Pooja
2. Riya
3. Parul
4. Sunny
5. Raman
Correct Option - 2

Que. 100 Who among the following lives on the second floor?
1. Pooja
2. Riya
3. Parul
4. Sunny
5. Raman
Correct Option - 5

Que. 101 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Ten friends namely Anurag, Sahil, Vipin, Rohit, Mayank, Dheeraj, Jalaj, Puneet, Deepak and
Prateek have birthdays in different months viz. January, February, April, May and June but not necessarily in
the same order. Their birthday is on two different dates – 12 and 23. So in each month there are two
birthdays. 
Vipin’s birthday is on 12th May. Two people have birthdays between Vipin and Mayank. Rohit’s birthday is
on 12th of February. Anurag’s birthday is on 12th April and exactly between the birthdays of Mayank and
Deepak. Prateek and Puneet have birthdays in same month but not in April. There is one birthday between
the birthdays of Dheeraj and Puneet. Dheeraj’s birthday is before Puneet’s. Sahil’s birthday is in January.
Birthdays of Dheeraj and Sahil are not in the same month. Jalaj and Anurag have birthdays on same date.
Jalaj’s birthday is before Anurag’s, also their birthday is not in consecutive months.
How many birthdays are there in between the birthdays of Dheeraj and Mayank?
1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Six
5. Three
Correct Option - 5

Que. 102 Who has birthday in April?


1. Sahil
2. Prateek
3. Puneet
4. Anurag
5. None of the given options is true.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 103 Jalaj’s birthday is on?


1. 12 May
2. 23 Feb

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3. 12 Jan
4. 23 May
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 104 Which of the following combination of Month-Person-Date is correct as per the given
arrangement?
1. June – Prateek – 23
2. April – Deepak – 12
3. February – Rohit – 12
4. May – Vipin – 23
5. January – Sahil – 12
Correct Option - 3

Que. 105 Which of the following pair has birthday on 23rd of a month?
1. Sahil, Prateek 
2. Jalaj, Anurag
3. Rohit, Mayank
4. Sahil, Deepak
5. Mayank, Vipin
Correct Option - 4

Que. 106 Directions: Study the information and answer the given questions:
There are eight people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z, they are all born in different years, i.e.1947,
1953, 1958, 1967, 1974, 1982, 1994 and 2002 but not necessarily in the same order. But the date and month
of birth of all these persons are same. The calculation is done with respect to the present year 2017 and
assuming the months and dates to be the same. The difference between the age of S and U is a perfect cube.
V’s age is a multiple of 5 but V is not the oldest person. The difference of age between V and S is equal to
the age of V. Age of X is equal to the difference between the age of V and Y. T is second youngest among all
of them. The difference of age between T and Z is a perfect square.

What is the age of Z?


1. 64 year
2. 59 year
3. 43 year
4. 23 year
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Que. 107 U was born in which of the following year?


1. 1953
2. 1974
3. 1994
4. 1958
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

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Que. 108 Who among the following is the oldest?


1. Z
2. U
3. V
4. W
5. S
Correct Option - 5

Que. 109 How many persons are younger than U?


1. Four
2. More than four
3. Three
4. One 
5. Two
Correct Option - 3

Que. 110 What is the age of W?


1. 64
2. 23
3. 43
4. 70
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 111 Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A person starts from place A and goes up to place J through B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in the same
order as mentioned. From A he travels 8 km towards North to reach B, then he takes a right turn and travels 7
km to reach C, from C he travels 12 km towards the South to reach D, then he turned left and travelled for 13
km to reach E, then he again turned left and travelled for 6 km to reach F. From F he travelled 10 km towards
West to reach G, then he took a left turn and travelled 16 km to reach H, then he took a left turn, travelled 16
km to reach I, then again turned left and travelled 8 km to reach J.

How much less is BG than AJ?


1. 16 km
2. 15.6 km
3. 15.02 km
4. 16.8 km
5. 14.9 km
Correct Option - 3

Que. 112 How far is J from C and what is its direction?


1. 23.6 km North-west
2. 23 km South-east
3. 23.6 km South-east
4. 23 km North-west

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5. 23.1 km North-west
Correct Option - 3

Que. 113 How far is F and D?


1. 14 km
2. 14.31 km
3. 15 km
4. 13 km
5. 15.13 km
Correct Option - 2

Que. 114 H is in which direction from F?


1. South-west
2. South-east
3. South
4. North-east
5. North-west
Correct Option - 1

Que. 115 How far and in what direction is A with respect to J?


1. 26.68 km, North-west
2. 26 km, North-west
3. 26.68 km, South-east
4. 26 km, South-west
5. 26 km, South-east
Correct Option - 1

Que. 116 Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There are ten members P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y and Z in a family. There are three generations of
the family. There are also three married couples in the family. There are equal number of males and females.
There are two brothers and two sisters. R is the daughter in law of V. P is mother of T. S is mother of P. P has
only one son. Both S and X has only two children. R is the mother of Q. Y is the son in law of V. Q is the
sister of W. W is the granddaughter of S. P and Y are married couples.

If W is married to U then how U is related to X?


1. Granddaughter
2. Son-in-law
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Grandson
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2

Que. 117 If Y is the only child of his parents, then how Z is related with P?
1. Paternal Grandfather
2. Maternal Grandfather

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3. Paternal Uncle
4. Maternal Uncle
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 118 Find the odd one out.


1. V
2. X
3. P
4. T
5. Y
Correct Option - 3

Que. 119 How V is related to T?


1. Uncle
2. Grandson
3. Grandfather
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined
Correct Option - 3

Que. 120 Which among the following couples are correctly matched?
1. PX
2. RX
3. QW
4. SV
5. ​Both 2 and 4
Correct Option - 5

Que. 121 Directions: In each of the given questions some statements are followed by two conclusion I and
II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance
with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
statements disregarding the commonly known facts. Give answer:
Statements:
All birds are cows.
No dog is a bird.
Some birds are sparrow.
Conclusions:
I. All dogs are sparrow is a possibility.
II. Some cows are not dog is necessarily true.
1. Only conclusion I follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Either I or II follows.
4. Neither I nor II follows.
5. Both conclusions I and II follow.

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Correct Option - 5

Que. 122 Direction: In each of the following questions two statements are given and these are followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some principals are HODs.
All HODs are professors.
Conclusion:
I. Some principals are professors.
II. No professor is principal.
1. Only I follows.
2. Only II follows.
3. Either I or II follows.
4. Neither I nor II follows.
5. Both I and II follow.
Correct Option - 1

Que. 123 Directions: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All Rivers are Mountains.
Some Rivers are Lakes.
Conclusions:
I. Some Mountains are Lakes.
II. Some Lakes are not Mountains.
1. Only I follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Only II follows
4. Both I and II follow
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 124 Directions: Each question consists of two or three or four statements followed by two
conclusions numbers I and II. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.
Statements:
All Reds are greens    
All Greens are yellows                       
Some grey are reds
Conclusions:
I. All greens are grey is definitely true
II. All yellows are reds is possibility

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1. Only conclusion I follows


2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows 
5. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow 
Correct Option - 2

Que. 125 Directions: Each question consists of two or three or four statements followed by two
conclusions numbers I and II. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.

Statements:
All clothe are hairs     
All Childs are mans                
No man is clothe
Conclusions:
I. All mans are hair is a possibility
II. Some Childs are clothe is a possibility
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows 
5. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow 
Correct Option - 1

Que. 126 Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Passage: Paytm on Tuesday became the third entity after Airtel and India Post to launch the Payment Bank
in India. The bank claims to be India’s first bank with zero charges on online transactions, no minimum
balance requirement and free virtual debit card. For saving accounts, the payment bank will offer annual
interest of 4 per cent and will also be setting up KYC centers across India to help customers get KYC done.
KYC is a mandatory eligibility requirement for a Payments Bank account.
Assumptions:
I. In the first phase, the company will roll out the limited version of the banking app for its employees and
associates.
II. Paytm Payments Bank is offering savings and current accounts with a debit card and the ability to make
fast and easy payments.
1. Only Assumption I is implicit.
2. Only assumption II is implicit.
3. Either assumption I or II is implicit.
4. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
5. Both the assumptions I and II are implicit
Correct Option - 4

Que. 127 The benefit of the scheme can be availed on a cashless basis in over 4,000 network hospitals in
India. Insurance companies like Synergy Insurance Broking, ICICI Lombard General Insurance

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Company Ltd., and the New India Assurance Company Ltd., are part of this initiative.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to yield significant information about the scheme that
would help evaluate the given observation?
1. A study of the insurance history in India.
2. A study of the scheme rules and regulations.
3. A study regarding the hospital offering cashless solutions.
4. A study about the best insurance companies in India.
5. A study about the companies involved in the initiative.
Correct Option - 2

Que. 128 Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: That bail is the norm in jail, the exception is a principle that is limited in its application to the
affluent, the powerful and the influential.
Assumptions:
I. Bail is an expensive proposition in India.
II. The poor languish in jails despite being innocent as they don’t have the necessary monetary backup.
1. Only assumption I is implicit.
2. Only assumption II is implicit.
3. Either assumption I or II is implicit.
4. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.
5. Both the assumptions I and II are implicit
Correct Option - 2

Que. 129 In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those, which are both important
and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those, which are of minor importance and also may
not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. The question below
is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’
argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statement-
Should the oil companies be allowed to fix the price of petroleum products based on market conditions?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to make the oil companies commercially viable.
II. No. This will put additional burden on the retail prices of essential commodities causing hardship to the
masses.
1. Only argument I is strong
2. Only argument II is strong
3. Either argument I or II is strong
4. Neither argument I nor II is strong
5. Both arguments I and II are strong
Correct Option - 2

Que. 130 In the following question, a statement has been given which is given is followed by three
courses of action numbered I, II, III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision
to be taken for improvement, follow up, or further action in regard of the problem, policy etc. On the
basis of the information provided. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then

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decide which of the given /suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Select your
answer from amongst the given alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4), (5).
Statement: A further increase in the pollution level of the city, due to industrial wastes and automobiles, will
produce a grave environmental problem for city dwellers.
Courses of Action:
I. All factories of the city should be shut immediately.
II. Automobiles in the city should not be allowed to ply for more than 4 hours in a day.
III. Government should restrict permitting new licences to the factories and automobiles.
1. Only III follows
2. All follow
3. Only II follows
4. None follows
5. Only I follows
Correct Option - 1

Que. 131 In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and
II. You have to assume everything given in the statement to be true and then decide which of
the given/ suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Statement:
One of the problems of the public food- processing industry is the irregular supply of raw material to other
industries also.
Courses of Action:

I.  The government should deregulate the supply of raw material for the food processing industry.
II. The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of raw material. The
producers of raw material are not getting a reasonable price

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follow
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Either I or II follows
Correct Option - 2

Que. 132 Directions: In the question below a statement is given followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement to be true, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically
follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement:
Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some cases of conjunctivitis, but this
year it seems to be a major epidemic witnessed after nearly four years.
Courses of Action:
I.  Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check this epidemic.
II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during winter season.
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows

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5. Either I or II follows
Correct Option - 4

Que. 133 Each of the following question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data give in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and choose the most appropriate answer.
How many person standing between Kamal and Luvkush in a straight line of 15 persons (Note: all are
standing in a straight line facing north)
I) Shiv stands eleventh from the right end of the line. Luvkush stands exactly at the center of the line. There
are as many persons to the right of Kamal as there are to the left of Shiv.
II) Ram stands fourth from the left end of the line. Shiv sits to the immediate right of Ram.. Only two person
stand between Luvkush and Shiv, who is left of Luvkush. Only two person Stand between Kamal and Shiv.
1. The data either the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
2. The data even in the both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
4. The data I the both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question
5. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer question while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question.
Correct Option - 1

Que. 134 Direction: Question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide
whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statement and mark the appreciate answer.
How many people are standing in a straight line (Note: all are facing north)?
I. U stand third from the left end of the line. U is an immediately neighbor of P and W. Only one person
stands between stands between W and T. Only two people stand to the right of W.
II. S stand at extreme left and of the line. T stand to the extreme right end of the line. Only one person stand
between S and U. Only one person stand between T and W. 
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
5. If the data in both the statements I and II tighter are n3ecessary to answer the question.
Correct Option - 1

Que. 135 In the following question, a question followed by three statements is given. You have to choose a
statement that answers the question.
If E > G > D; D ≠ Y = K ≠ U, then what is the relation between D and U?
Statement:
(i) D > U
(ii) D < U
(iii) D = U
1. Statement (i) and statement (iii) are sufficient to answer the question.
2. Statement (ii) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

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3. Either in statement (i) alone or in statement (ii) alone or in statement (iii) alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
4. Both the statement (i) and statement (ii) are sufficient to answer the question.
5. Neither of the statement (i), statement (ii) and statement (iii) is sufficient to answer the question.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 136 Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Are all the five friend viz. Liza, Amit, Amar, Aalam and Kushal who are seated around a circular table,
facing the center?
I. Liza sits second to left of Amit. Amit faces the center. Amar sits second to right of Liza.
II. Aalam sits third to the left of Kushal. Kushal faces the center. Amit sits to the immediate left of Aalam but
Kushal is not an immediate neighbor of Amit.
1. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. Data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. Data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct Option - 3

Que. 137 Directions: The question below consists of a question and three Statements I, II and III given and
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question.
How is ‘go’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Now or never again’ is written as ‘tom ka na sa’ in that code language.
II. ‘You come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka ta sa’, in that code language.
III. ‘Again go now or never’ is written as ‘na ho ka sa tom’ in that code language.
1. I and III
2. II and III
3. I and II
4. All are required to answer the question
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 138 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BACKGROUND each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward
directions)
1. One
2. Three
3. Two
4. More than Three
5. ​Zero
Correct Option - 1

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Que. 139 If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fourth and the sixth
of the word WONDER and the second letter of the word LAND, which of the following will be
the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such
word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.
1. A
2. R
3. W
4. X
5. Y
Correct Option - 5

Que. 140 Directions: The question below consists of two statements numbered I and II are given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and given answer.
What is the code for ‘school’ in the code language?
I. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘come to school’ is written as ‘ka de ra’.
1. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. Data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer question.
4. Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 141 In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector and three
phrases each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B, and C, and in the second
column, the phrases are D, E, and F. You have to make a meaningful sentence using the
connectors in the starting and from the phrases of both the columns. There are five options,
four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases with the connectors can be
joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options
given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'None of these' as your answer.
Column(1): Column (2):
Although  Much of
(A) Rohan studies a lot he isn't  (D) a businessman
(B) I got a better price for the car, I'm not (E) a place to raise a kid.
(C) It had a certain funky charm, it wasn't (F) a scholar
1. A-D
2. A-E and C-D
3. C-E and A-F
4. B-F
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 142 In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector and three phrases
each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B, and C, and in the second column, the phrases
are D, E, and F. You have to make a meaningful sentence using the connectors in the starting and from

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the phrases of both the columns. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which
the phrases with the connectors can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'None of these'
as your answer.       
Column (1)          Column (2)
On the one hand             but on the other hand
(A) Saurabh likes cooking.       (D) she loves studying.
(B) Manjari is a scholar        (E) she is leading the life of an unmarried woman.
(C) Kritika is married (F) he hates devoting time to it.
1. A-D
2. C-E
3. A-F and C-E
4. C-F and B-E
5. A-F, B-D and C-E
Correct Option - 3

Que. 143 In the following question, two columns are given containing a connector and three phrases
each. In the first column, the phrases are A, B, and C, and in the second column, the phrases
are D, E, and F. You have to make a meaningful sentence using the connectors in the starting and from
the phrases of both the columns. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which
the phrases with the connectors can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select 'None of these'
as your answer.
Column (1)           Column (2)
Because of the fact that             Much of
(D) his increments in office are higher
(A) He is good at studies 
than others.  
(B) Maya is always late      (E) his food bill consists of non-vegetarian
  stuff. 
(C) Rohit is a non-
(F) his marks are really poor.
vegetarian
1. A-D
2. C-E
3. A-D and C-F
4. C-F and B-E
5. A-F, B-D and C-E
Correct Option - 2

Que. 144 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used in the beginning
(to start the sentence) to form a single sentence, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the statement.
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) on Saturday arrested one of the suspected shooters in the 2013
murder of rationalist and anti-superstition activist Narendra Dabholkar. 
i. According to headlines
ii. There’s a buzz that
iii. According to a whistleblower
1. Only i

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2. Only ii
3. All except iii
4. All I, ii and iii
5. All except ii
Correct Option - 1

Que. 145 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used in the beginning
(to start the sentence) to form a single sentence, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the statement.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose's grandnephew CK Bose has said the country and most of their
family members won't accept his ashes, preserved at a temple in Japan, without DNA testing.
i. According to headlines
ii. Freedom Fighter
iii. Eminent arsonist
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. All except iii
4. All I, ii and iii
5. All except ii
Correct Option - 3

Que. 146 In the given question, a passage with seven blanks is given and the options for the blanks are
jumbled. You are required to fill the correct word in the blanks 
The past year has been marked by some major reforms. The___(A)____ (encountered) Goods and Services
Tax (GST) was launched in July 2017. With a policy change of such scale, scope, and complexity, the
transition unsurprisingly___(B)___ (large) challenges of policy, law, and information technology systems,
which especially affected the informal sector. Expeditious responses followed to rationalize and reduce rates
and compliance burdens. 
At the same time, ____(C)____ (advanced) action was taken to grasp the nettle of the Twin Balance Sheet
(TBS) challenge, arguably the festering, binding___(D)___ (especially) on Indian growth prospects. On the 4
R’s of the TBS—recognition, resolution, recapitalization, and reforms—recognition was___(E)___
(decisive) further, while major measures were taken to address two other R’s. The new Indian Bankruptcy
Code (IBC) has provided a resolution framework that will help corporates clean up their balance sheets and
reduce their debts. And in another critical move, the government announced
a___(F)___(transformational) recapitalization package (about 1.2 percent of GDP) to strengthen the balance
sheets of the public sector banks (PSBs). As these twin reforms take hold, firms should finally be able to
resume spending and banks to lend___(G)___ (constraint) to the critical, but-currently-stressed sectors of
infrastructure and manufacturing.  

Which of the following fits the blank (A)?


1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. F
Correct Option - 5

Que. 147 Which of the following fits the blank (B)?


1. A

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2. C
3. D
4. E
5. G
Correct Option - 1

Que. 148 Which of the following fits the blank (E)?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. G
Correct Option - 3

Que. 149 Which of the following fits the blank (D)?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. F
5. G
Correct Option - 5

Que. 150 Which of the following would complete the given sentence from the paragraph?
Expeditious responses followed to rationalize and reduce rates and________compliance burdens.
1. Advanced
2. Level
3. Specify
4. Simplify
5. All of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 151 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions following it.
Certain words have been highlighted for your attention.
Foreign exchange market is described as an OTC (Over the counter) market as there is no
physical place where the participants meet to execute their deals. It is more of an informal
arrangement among the banks and brokers operating in a financing centre purchasing and selling
currencies, connected to each other by telecommunications like telex, telephone and a satellite
communication network, SWIFT. The term 'foreign exchange market' is used to refer to the
segment of the market, where the dealings take place among the banks. The retail segment refers
to the dealings that take place between banks and their customers. It is situated in a large number
of places. They can be considered not as foreign exchange markets, but as the counters of such
markets. The leading foreign exchange market in India is Mumbai. Calcutta, Chennai and Delhi are
other centres accounting for the bulk of the exchange dealings in India. The policy of the Reserve
Bank has been to decentralise exchanges operations and develop broader-based exchange
markets. As a result of the efforts of the Reserve Bank, Cochin, Bangalore, Ahmadabad and Goa
have emerged as the new centres of the foreign exchange market.
The Foreign Exchange market is the largest financial market with a daily turnover of over USD 2
trillion. Foreign exchange markets were primarily developed to facilitate settlement of debts arising

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out of international trade. But these markets have developed on their own so much so that a
turnover of about 3 days in the foreign exchange market is equivalent to the magnitude of world
trade in goods and services. The largest foreign exchange market is in London followed by New
York, Tokyo, Zurich and Frankfurt.
The business in foreign exchange markets in India has shown a steady increase as a consequence
of the increase in the volume of foreign trade of the country, improvement in the communications
systems and greater access to the international exchange markets. Still, the volume of transactions
in these markets amounting to about USD 2 billion per day does not compete favourably with any
well developed foreign exchange market of international repute. The reasons are not far to seek.
The rupee is not an internationally traded currency and is not in great demand. Much of the
external trade of the country is designated in leading currencies of the world, viz., US dollar, pound
sterling, Euro, Japanese yen and Swiss franc. Incidentally, these are the currencies that are traded
actively in the foreign exchange market in India.

What is the central theme of the given passage?


1. Foreign exchange markets
2. Financial markets
3. World economic trade
4. The international value of the Indian rupee
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 1

Que. 152 Which of the following words is closest in meaning to 'magnitude' as used in the passage?
1. Seize
2. Measure
3. Enormity
4. Meek
5. Smalless
Correct Option - 3

Que. 153 Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to 'facilitate' as used in the passage?
1. Ease
2. Impede
3. Make possible
4. Simplify
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 154 Which of the following statements is not true according to the given passage?
1. The foreign exchange market is the largest financial market.
2. The term 'foreign exchange market' is used to refer to the segment of the market, where the
dealings take place among the banks.
3. The rupee is not an internationally traded currency.
4. Foreign exchange markets are physical markets. 
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4

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Que. 155 Which places have have emerged as the new centres of the foreign exchange market?
1. Delhi and Mumbai
2. Chennai and Mumbai
3. Cochin, Bangalore, Ahmadabad and Goa
4. Kolkata and Delhi
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 156 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may contain an error. Find out which
part of the sentence does not have an error and click the option corresponding to it. If you
think all the parts contain an error, mark option 5, i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
Shooter Apurvi Chandela and Ravi Kumar (A)/ opened Indias medal tally at the (B)/ 2018 Asian Games by
winning bronze on the (C)/ final of the 10m Air Rifle mixed team event. (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 157 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may contain an error. Find out which
part of the sentence does not have an error and click the option corresponding to it. If you
think all the parts contain an error, mark option 5, i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
Volkswagen CEO Herbert Diess was told (A)/ with the existence of cheating software (B)/ in cars two
months before regulators exposing the multi-billion (C)/ dollar exhausting emission scandal, German
magazine Der Spiegel reported. (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 158 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may contain an error. Find out which
part of the sentence does not have an error and click the option corresponding to it. If you
think all the parts contain an error, mark option 5, i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
A Apple store in Amsterdam was evacuated and temporarily (A)/ closed after a iPad's battery exploded on
Sunday. (B)/ Apple employees at the store secure the iPad and (C)/ punctured the battery in a container of
sand after it exploded.  (D) 
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 159

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In the following question, some parts of the sentence may contain an error. Find out which part of the
sentence does not have an error and click the option corresponding to it. If you think all the parts
contain an error, mark option 5, i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
West Bengal TMC MP Derek O'Brien has (A)/ tweeted to clarify that the textbook mistakenly showing actor
Farhan Akhtar a (B)/ former athlete Milkha Singh is not publicised by the (C)/ state government and not used
in government-running schools.  (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 160 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may contain an error. Find out which
part of the sentence does not have an error and click the option corresponding to it. If you
think all the parts contain an error, mark option 5, i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
Nineteen-year-old shooter Lakshay (A)/ finished second in the man's trap event (B)/ on Monday too win
India's second silver (C)/ medal at shooting at the 2018 Asian Games. (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1

Que. 161 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions following it. Certain words
have been highlighted for your attention.
Cloud computing is the use of data centre servers and software networks to dynamically allocate resources
and run applications for remote end users. Typically divided into three categories (private, public, and hybrid)
cloud deployments have grown rapidly in recent years, promising cost savings and greater flexibility over
traditional private data centres.
Virtualisation is key for cloud computing. By allowing physical servers to run one or more virtual machines
on demand, cloud architectures offer rapid scaling and efficient allocation of server resources on the fly.
Private cloud refers to cloud infrastructure dedicated to a single company and accessed by a private network
connection, operating on servers managed either internally or by a third-party provider. For many
organisations in highly regulated industries, private clouds remain the solution of choice. Cloud infrastructure
platforms such as OpenStack offer a framework for private cloud deployment and management, and a bevy
of vendors have begun releasing supported versions of the open source platform.
The public cloud ___________ (A) Amazon Web Services, which sell server resources (rather than dedicated
physical servers) accessed over a public network such as the Internet.
Hybrid cloud (sometimes called 'cloud bursting') is the combination of multiple clouds. For example, a
company could use public cloud services to handle temporary bursts of activity that exceed private cloud
capacity. Some companies also use private clouds for certain sensitive business units while hosting less
critical applications on the public cloud.

What is the central theme of the given passage?


1. Cloud computing
2. Hybrid Cloud
3. Private Cloud Computing

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4. Technology
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 1

Que. 162 What is the synonym of 'bevy' as used in the given passage?
1. Lark
2. Treasure
3. Group
4. Activity
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 163 What is the antonym of 'rapid' as used in the given passage?
1. Quick
2. Slow
3. Fast
4. Far
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 164 What is a 'Hybrid cloud'?


1. Private cloud
2. Different combinations of private clouds
3. Combination of multiple clouds
4. Public cloud
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 165 Which of the following appropriately fils blank A?


1. Referred to facilities such as
2. Refers to services such as
3. Refers to
4. Means
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2

Que. 166 A set of 4 sentences (A, B, C and D in the same order) have been given in the above question
followed by five option choices. From the option choice provided look for the option choice
that acts as the fifth sentence (conclusion) for the statements mentioned.
A. The United Kingdom has confirmed the presence of fugitive diamond merchant Nirav Modi, main
accused in the ₹ 13,578-crore Punjab National Bank fraud case, in its territory.
B. Soon after his location was communicated by the U.K. authorities, the CBI moved an application seeking
his extradition.
C. The request is being sent through the Home and External Affairs Ministries.
D. Modi left the country in the first week of January, just days before the CBI registered a case against him.

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1. His maternal uncle and co-accused fugitive Mehul Choksi has taken refuge in Antigua. 
2. He was later spotted in several countries, but he kept evading detection until the U.K. authorities
determined his current location.
3. Choksi had applied for its citizenship in 2017 and got it in November 2017.
4. Not long after his area was imparted by the U.K. specialists, the CBI moved an application looking
for his removal.
5. We have also sent a copy of the Interpol Red Notice issued against [Nirav] Modi, seeking his
immediate detention and intimation
Correct Option - 2

Que. 167 A set of 4 sentences (A, B, C and D in the same order) have been given in the above question
followed by five option choices. From the option choice provided look for the option choice
that acts as the fifth sentence (conclusion) for the statements mentioned.
A. Prime Minister Narendra Modi in a letter to his new Pakistani counterpart Imran Khan has called for
bilateral engagement, sources confirmed on Monday.
B. In the first official communication with the new administration in Islamabad, the Indian leader has called
for building on good neighbourly ties for security and prosperity in the region.
C. The Indian response came soon after the newly appointed Pakistani Foreign Minister Shah Mehmood
Qureshi said that Mr. Modi has indicated at dialogue in his letter. However, the official said that India has not
called for dialogue so far.
D. Prime Minister wrote of constructive approach or engagement for the benefit of the people, by which he
meant Pakistan should create conducive atmosphere.
1. We cannot turn our cheek. Yes we have outstanding issues. 
2. Kashmir is a reality; it is an issue that both our nations acknowledge. 
3. India and Pakistan have to move forward keeping realities before them.
4. Mr. Qureshi indicated that Pakistan will stay focused on full implementation of the China Pakistan
Economic Corridor that he described as a game changer.
5. The Prime Minister’s call for engagement comes in the backdrop of recent Indian insistence that
Delhi will hold talks only if Pakistan acts against terror suspects and outfits.
Correct Option - 5

Que. 168 A set of 4 sentences (A, B, C and D in the same order) have been given in the above question
followed by five option choices. From the option choice provided look for the option choice
that acts as the fifth sentence (conclusion) for the statements mentioned.
A. The government has detained many for overstaying in Bengaluru, but they say it is just prejudice.
B. Anger swells up within 28-year-old John, a B.Sc. (Nursing) a student from Nigeria. “I have started writing
letters to the Nigerian government to expel all Indians staying there, legally and illegally. The government
needs to know how Indians treat us here”, he says.
C. In the past month, at least 117 foreigners (businessmen, students, employees in private companies),
particularly those from Africa, have been detained by enforcement authorities.
D. At least 90% of them are from the Nigerian community, said a police official.
1. At the heart of it is Bengaluru, where scores of colleges go the extra mile to attract students from
abroad, particularly from Africa.
2. Of these, six were arrested for possession of narcotics. Over 720 gm of cocaine, LSD and marijuana
were seized.
3. Just two women agreed to be deported, the rest have decided to challenge their detention in court.
4. Others from the Nigerian community talk about being stereotyped as criminals, drug peddlers and
scammers. FRRO officials deny that Africans or Nigerians are targeted. 
5. All of them await an uncertain future, after they were found to have overstayed in the city.

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Correct Option - 5

Que. 169 A set of 4 sentences (A, B, C and D in the same order) have been given in the above question
followed by five option choices. From the option choice provided look for the option choice
that acts as the fifth sentence (conclusion) for the statements mentioned.
A. Britain’s first taste of tea was belated — the Chinese had been drinking it for 2,000 years.  
B. The English diarist, Samuel Pepys, mentions tea in his diary entry from September 25, 1600.
C. “Tcha”, wrote Pepys, the excellent and by all Physicians approved, China drink, was sold in England from
1635, for prices as high as £6 to £10 per pound of the herb (£600 to £1,000, today).
D. In 1662, when King Charles II married the Portuguese princess, Catherine of Braganza, her dowry
constituted a chest of tea, and the island of Bombay for an annual lease of £10, equivalent then to the cost of
a pound of tea in England.
1. Catherine, who was used to drinking tea in the Portuguese court, had her first sip of the beverage in
England in May 1662 — the month of her wedding — at Portsmouth.
2. Still, British tea cultivators were extremely anxious to have Chinese tea and techniques brought to
India.
3. A decade later, in 1843, Robert Fortune, a Scottish horticulturalist, independently travelled to China
to study its tea plantations. 
4. His travels were funded by the Royal Horticultural Society that was eager to extract plant samples
and botanical intelligence from China in the wake of the Treaty of Nanking, signed in 1842, that
ended the First Opium War.
5. In the autumn of 1848, Fortune entered China on a great espionage mission, accompanied by his
servant Wang, whom he refers to in his account simply as ‘coolie’. 
Correct Option - 1

Que. 170 A set of 4 sentences (A, B, C and D in the same order) have been given in the above question
followed by five option choices. From the option choice provided look for the option choice
that acts as the fifth sentence (conclusion) for the statements mentioned.
A. A couple of weeks ago, senior staff members of the Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments
(HR&CE) Department threatened to go on long leave, claiming they were fed up with ‘action’ taken against
their colleagues.
B. They objected to the ‘bullying’ and ‘arm-twisting’ they were being subjected to, and claimed they were
‘being made to give confessions implicating co-workers’.
C. The department’s workforce, comprising around 1,000 persons, including 11 regional joint
commissioners, 28 assistant commissioners and 300-odd executive officers.
D. All of them have been shaken to the core by the arrest of senior colleagues on what they claim are
‘impossible allegations’ of misappropriation of gold collected for the making of utsava murthis (icons used in
processions) and collusion with idol thieves.
1. Many are of the view that the Idol Wing is overstepping its brief. 
2. The HR&CE Department is demanding a fair probe into cases of missing idols. 
3. The hunt for missing idols and figurines from temples spanning several continents has, over the last
few months, turned into a bitter clash between two arms of the government – the Idol Wing of the
Crime Branch CID and the HR&CE Department.
4. All that we want is a proper probe into the thefts of ancient idols. Issues pertaining to the making of
recent idols would be looked into and action taken if need be”, R. Jaya.
5. The Srirangam utsava idol actually requires four people to carry it.
Correct Option - 2

Que. 171 When the market price per kg of rice and wheat be in the ratio 3 ∶ 2. The monthly expenses of a
family towards rice and wheat are in the ratio 5 ∶ 6. If the market price of rice and wheat becomes

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in the ratio of 4 ∶ 3, what will be the ratio of expenses toward them? (the amount of rice and wheat consumed
remains unchanged) 
1. 23 ∶ 27
2. 20 ∶ 26
3. 22 ∶ 27
4. 20 ∶ 27
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

Que. 172 The speed of two boats in still water is 26 km/hr and 28 km/hr respectively. Fast boat is running
from A to B downstream and other one is in opposite direction. Find out how much time will they
take to meet each other if the speed of current is 2 km/hr and the distance between A and B is 80 Km. 
1. 1.48 hours
2. 1.23 hours
3. 1.36 hours
4. 2.4  hours
5. 4.2 hours
Correct Option - 1

Que. 173 What is the ratio of the amounts of Rs. 40000 after 9 years and Rs. 44000 after 7 years at an
interest of 10% per annum compounded annually? 
1. 9∶7
2. 10 ∶ 11
3. 11 ∶ 10
4. 121 ∶ 100
5. 100 ∶ 121
Correct Option - 3

Que. 174 If the cost price of 2 copies of a book is equal to the Marked price of one copy of the same book
and the cost price of 3 copies of the same book is equal to the selling price of 2 copies of the same
book, which of the following statements is correct?
1. Marked price of 4 copies of the book is equal to selling price of 3 copies of the same book
2. Discount of 20% is offered on the Marked price of the book
3. Marked price of 3 copies of the book is equal to the selling price of 4 copies of the same book
4. Discount of 33.33% is offered on the Marked price of the book
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3

Que. 175 A and B get a work to be done for Rs. 30960. A and B can finish the work in 18 days and 24 days
respectively. But they need help to finish the work in 8 days so they called C. Find C’s salary?
1. Rs. 6820
2. Rs. 6860
3. Rs. 6840
4. Rs. 6880
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4

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Que. 176 A plot is in shape of rectangle need to be fenced at boundary and harvesting the crop inside the
area. Harvesting cost of wheat is Rs. 25 per m2 and for rice is Rs. 30 per m2. For fencing, cost per
meter is Rs. 15. If the ratio of the area of plant wheat and rice is 3 ∶ 5, and the width and the diagonal are 28
m and 53 m respectively. Total costing is Rs. _______
1. 36273.6
2. 37627.5
3. 38972.4
4. 32794.4
5. 38123.5
Correct Option - 2

Que. 177 Directions : Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
There are three popular institutes in a city, namely, A, B and C. The number of students studying
in institute A is 20 less than the average number of students studying in institutes B and C, while the number
of students studying in institute C is 1320, out of which 970 are males. The male-to-female ratio of institutes
A and B is 13 ∶ 3 and 11 ∶ 21 respectively.
For higher studies in abroad, 45% of the students of the three institutes applied for scholarships in various
programs, 60% of which were males. 6/17 of the total students that applied were from the institute C, and the
number of students applied for scholarship from institute A were 30 less than the number of students
applying from institute C.
The number of students applying for scholarship from institute B were 12 less than 80% of the students
applying from institute A. Out of the total number of students that applied for scholarship, only 30% got the
scholarship to study abroad, with a male-to-female ratio of 9 ∶ 8. Out of the selected students, 50% of the
girls were selected in the Economics stream, while 25% of the remaining girls were selected in the Science
stream. On the other hand, 2/9 of the boys were selected in the Economics stream and 2/3 of the boys were
selected in the Science stream.

The number of boys that were selected for scholarship in streams other than Economics and Science is what
percentage of the average number of boys selected for scholarship in Economics and Science streams?
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 45%
5. 50%
Correct Option - 3

Que. 178 If 1/3 of the girls selected in streams other than Economics and Science were selected in English
stream, then in what ratio were the girl selected for scholarship in Economics, Science, English
and other streams respectively?
1. 4 ∶ 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 1
2. 2∶1∶1∶2
3. 2∶1∶2∶1
4. 4∶2∶1∶2
5. 4∶1∶1∶2
Correct Option - 5

Que. 179

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If 420 students from institute B applied for scholarship, how many total girls from the three
institutes got the scholarship to study abroad?
1. 201
2. 216
3. 227
4. 238
5. 243
Correct Option - 2

Que. 180 If the number of students studying in institute B is 36 more than 70% of the students studying in
institute C, then the number of males that applied for the scholarship is what percentage of the
total number of students of the three institutes?
1. 21%
2. 23%
3. 25%
4. 27%
5. 29%
Correct Option - 4

Que. 181 If the number of females in the three institutes is in the ratio 3 ∶ 9 ∶ 5 respectively, then what is the
male-to-female ratio of all the three institutes?
1. 7∶2
2. 9∶4
3. 11 ∶ 5
4. 13 ∶ 7
5. 15 ∶ 9
Correct Option - 4

Que. 182 Directions: A famous bakery in a city manufactures cakes, pastries, biscuits and cookies. The
given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the total orders received by the bakery on
different days of a week. The following table gives the number of orders of cakes/pastries and
biscuits/cookies received by the bakery on different days of the same week. Study the pie-chart and table and
answer the questions that follow.

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Bakery Days of the week


Total
products Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday Sunday
Cakes/Pastries - 42 - 40 36 - - -
Biscuits/Cookies 35 - 45 - - 63 - 443

If the ratio of the orders of cakes/pastries to the orders of biscuits /cookies on Wednesday, Thursday, Friday
and Saturday is 3 ∶ 5, 5 ∶ 9, 1 ∶ 2 and 11 ∶ 9 respectively, then what is the ratio of the orders of cakes/pastries
to the orders of biscuits /cookies on all the four days together?
1. 2 ∶ 3
2. 3∶4
3. 5∶7
4. 7∶9
5. 9 ∶ 10
Correct Option - 3

Que. 183 The orders of biscuits/cookies received by the bakery on Tuesday, Thursday and Sunday is 6.75%,
9% and 12.75% respectively of the total orders received by the bakery in the whole week, while
the orders of biscuits/cookies received on Monday and Wednesday together is 10% of the total orders
received by the bakery.Then the orders of biscuits/cookies received on Friday is what percentage of the total
orders received by the bakery in the whole week?
1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 7%
4. 8%
5. 9%
Correct Option - 5

Que. 184

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The number of orders of cakes/pastries received on Friday is 1/3 of the total orders received on Friday. If the
number of orders of cakes/pastries received on Friday is 6/17 of the orders of cakes/pastries received on
Sunday, then find the ratio of the orders of cakes/pastries and biscuits/cookies received on Sunday?
1. 1 ∶ 1
2. 1∶2
3. 2∶3
4. 4∶3
5. 5∶4
Correct Option - 1

Que. 185 If an average of 30 orders of cakes/pastries were received on Monday and Wednesday, then how
many orders of cakes/pastries were received by the bakery on Saturday?
1. 72
2. 75
3. 77
4. 78
5. 80
Correct Option - 3

Que. 186 If the orders of cakes/pastries received on Tuesday and Sunday is together 18% of the total orders
received in the whole week and the orders of cakes/pastries received on Thursday and Friday is
together 9.5% of the total orders received in the whole week, then the orders of biscuits/cookies received on
Tuesday, Thursday, Friday and Sunday is together what part of the total orders received by the bakery in the
whole week?
1. 1/3
2. 2/5
3. 3/8
4. 4/9
5. 5/12
Correct Option - 3

Que. 187 Direction: The following table gives the student data of a college. There are a total of six
departments in the college, namely, A, B, C, D, E and F, each comprising of three batches.The
total number of students belonging to each department and the corresponding boy-girl ratio of each
department is given in the table, but some of the information is missing. Study the table and answer the
questions that follow.
Departments No. of students Boy ∶ Girl
A 324 -
B 308 -
C - 35 ∶ 39
D - -
E 216 5∶4
F 296 -

If the difference between the number of boys and girls in the department F is 4 more than 5/6 of the
difference between the number of boys and girls in the department E, then find the boy-girl ratio in
department F.

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1. 25 ∶ 19
2. 20 ∶ 17
3. 18 ∶ 13
4. 15 ∶ 11
5. 12 ∶ 5
Correct Option - 2

Que. 188 The number of students in department D is 40% more than the average number of students in
departments A & E. If the number of girls in department D is 9 more than 150% of the girls in
department E, then the number of boys in department D is how much more than 185% of the boys in
department E?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
Correct Option - 2

Que. 189 The average number of students in the departments B and C is 302. If the number of boys in
department B is 25% more than that in department C, then find the total number of girls in
departments B and C?
1. 258
2. 263
3. 276
4. 289
5. 294
Correct Option - 4

Que. 190 In department A, the number of students in the three batches are in the ratio 17 ∶ 18 ∶ 19. If the
number of boys in the three batches are in the ratio 18 ∶ 19 ∶ 19 respectively, and the number of
girls are in the ratio 16 ∶ 17 ∶ 19 respectively, then what is the boy-girl ratio in the whole department A?
1. 19 ∶ 18
2. 17 ∶ 16
3. 16 ∶ 15
4. 14 ∶ 13
5. 12 ∶ 11
Correct Option - 4

Que. 191 The total number of girls in the college is 89 more than 75% of the total number of boys in the
college. If the total number of students in the college is 30 less than 6 times the number of
students belonging to department B, what is the difference between the total number of boys and girls in the
college?
1. 119
2. 134
3. 158
4. 171

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5. 197
Correct Option - 3

Que. 192 What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following
question?
434.68 ÷ 7.5 – 39.99% of 129.87 = ?
1. 6
2. 7
3. 5
4. 16
5. 15
Correct Option - 1

Que. 193 What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following
question?
130.11% of 110.04 – 220.24% of 129.88 + 24.88% of ? = 44.07% of 224.98 + 145.1% of 20.02
1. 1074
2. 1078
3. 1080
4. 1005
5. 1085
Correct Option - 5

Que. 194 What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following
question?
858.231 ÷ 39.345 × 74.154 – 1499.98 + 31.798 = (2)? × 9.879
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 7
Correct Option - 3

Que. 195 What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following
question?
31.992 × 28.196/6.932 + 677.993 – 320.898 = ? × 4.889
1. 88
2. 82
3. 89
4. 97
5. 78
Correct Option - 4

Que. 196 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
? = 8.97 – 4.05 + 9.02 ÷ 2.99 × 4.04 + (1.56)2

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1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 45
5. 40
Correct Option - 2

Que. 197 The following question has two statements. Study the question and the statements and decide
which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.
The selling price of a watch is Rs. 3600. Calculate the marked price of watch on the day of New Year.
I) The retailer declared discount of 20% on the marked price of the watch.
II) On the occasion of New Year, he offers an extra 25% off as final discount after initial discount. 
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Either I or II
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 3

Que. 198 The following question has two statements. Study the question and the statements and decide
which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.
A committee of 5 people is to be formed with 2 female and 3 male trainers. The “talent pool” from where
trainers are to be shortlisted has total ‘x’ female and ‘y’ male trainers. The probability of choosing the
committee is given as 3/5. What is the total number of trainers in the “talent pool”?
I) The number of ways in which 2 trainers can be chosen from the “talent pool” is 15.
II) The number of ways 2 female trainers can be chosen from ‘x’ female trainers is 3.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Either I or II
5. Neither I nor II
Correct Option - 4

Que. 199 The question given below consists of a statement and /or a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is/are
sufficient to answer the given question.
What is the speed of the train whose length is 420 metres?
I. The train crosses another train of 600 metres length running in opposite direction in 20 seconds
II. The train travelling crosses another train running in the same direction at the speed of (50/3) m/sec in 60
seconds
1. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer thequestion
asked
2. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer thequestion
asked
3. BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, butNEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient
4. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked

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5. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, andadditional
data are needed
Correct Option - 3

Que. 200 Directions: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to
determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the
question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
In how many days will Raju alone complete the work?
I. Aman alone can do the work in 20 days. Raju is 10% more efficient than Aman and Naina.
II. Aman and Raju together can finish the work in 8 2

11
 days, Raju and Naina in 7 days and, Naina and
1

Aman can do the same work in 6 days.


2

1. If the data given in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data given in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
4. If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data given in both the statements I and II are necessary to answer the question. 
Correct Option - 2

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