PHARMACOLOGY

Basic & Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung 8th Edition)

1. This measure relates the dose of the drug required to produce a desired effect to
that which produces an undesired effect. (p. 8)
A. therapeutic index*** B. Idiosyncratic effect C. Tolerance D. Potency

2. This is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following
administration by any route:(p. 41)
A. Absorption B. First Pass Effect C. Bioavailability*** D. Bioequivalence

3. In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the
target disease to determine its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 D. phase 4

4. In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the
target disease to determine its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 D. phase 4

5. This is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase and is useful in the

treatment of partial seizures and WEST syndrome: (p. 404)
A. vigabatrin **** C. lamotrigine
B. tiagabine D. gabapentin

6. Action of Insulin in the liver: (p. 717)

A, increase storage of glucose as glycogen**
B. increase glycogenolysis
C.Increase ketogenesis
D.increase gluconeogenesis

7. Most common adverse effect of insulin: (p. 721)

A. hypoglycemia C. lipodystrophy
B. allergy D. bleeding

8. Effect of digitalis in the AV node during arrythmias: (p. 207)

A. prolonged PR interval B. AV blockade C. bradycardia D. prolonged QT
interval

9. Immediate metabolic precursor of dopamine that penetrates the blood-brain

barrier: (p.464)
A. carbidopa B. levodopa C. selegiline D. ropinorole

10. The following are true of phenoxybenzamine: (p. 141)

A. causes reversible blockade of alpha receptors
B. blocks catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction
C. significantly reduces blood pressure in supine individuals
D. stimulates histamine (H1) acetylcholine and serotonin receptors

11. Antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong effective refractory period by prolonging action
potential duration: (p. 239)
A. Bepridil B. Bretylium C. Esmolol D. Lidocaine

12. Antiarrhytmic of choice for suppression of recurrences of ventricular tachycardia

& fibrillation after termination of the arrhythmia by cardioversion: (p. 240)
A. Adenosine B. Esmolol C. Lidocaine
D. Procainamide

13. The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics is: (p. 441)
A. circumoral numbness C. nystagmus
B. metabolic acidosis D. tonic-clonic convulsions

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14.Lithium’s most common side effect/s (p. 491)
A.polyuria and subclinical hypothyrodism*** C.polyuria and polydipsia
B.polydipsia and subclinical hypothyroidism D. Polyuria and polyphagia

15.Most important unwanted effect of anti-psychotics secondary to relative

choline deficiency.(p. 488)
A. Akathisia C. Tardive dyskinesia****
B. Parkinsonian syndrome D. Perioral rabbit syndrome

16.Blocks norepinephrine & serotonin reuptake pumps-the “the off switches” of

amine transmission (p. 503)
A. MAO inhibitors B. tricyclics*** C. SSRI D. heterocyclics

17. Drug interaction of older MAO inhibitor with tyramine ingested in food:(p.
505)
A. depression B. Hypertensive reactions*** C. hypotension
D. mania

18. The following are sites of the major classes of anti-hypertensive drugs,
except:(p.158 )
A. Sympathetic nerve terminals
B. ß-receptors of juxtaglomerular cells that release rennin
C. Hypothalamus
D. Vasomotor center

19. The following statements regarding selection of anti-hypertensive drugs are

correct, except: (p. 179)
A. ACE inhibitors are particularly useful in diabetic patients with evidence
of renal disease.
B. White race responds better to diuretics and calcium channel blockers
than to ß-blockers and ACE inhibitors.
C. Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers are useful in patients who
have angina.
D. Diuretics or ACE inhibitors are useful who also have CHF

20. The following are the determinants of vascular tone, except:(p. 182)
a.Increasing cGMP
b.Increasing cAMP in the vascular cells
c.Decreasing intracellular calcium
d.Stabilizing or preventing depolarization of the vascular smooth muscle
cell membrane

21. The following are the pharmacodynamics of nitroglycerine, except: (p. 184-
185)
A. Smooth muscle relaxation
B. Decreased ventricular preload
C. Responsible for a decrease in platelet aggregation
D. Increased cardiac output

22. The following are the pharmacodynamics of NSAIDs, except: (p. 598-599)
A. Mediated chiefly through inhibition of biosynthesis of prostaglandins
B. All NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation
C. All NSAIDs are anagesic, anti-inflammatory and antipyretic
D. They are all gastric irritants as well

23. The following are disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs, except: (p. 608)
a. Methotrexate
b. Cyclosporins
c. Corticosteroids
d. Azathioprine

2
24. This agent inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala
terminus of nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide. It inhibits the
transglycosylase, preventing further elongation of peptidoglycan and cross-
linking. ( p. 768 )
A. Cycloserine B. Vancomycin C. Teicoplanin
D. Bacitracin

25. This agent is a potent inhibitor of microbial protein synthesis. It binds

reversibly to the 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits peptidyl
transferase step of protein synthesis. This agent is active against rickettsiae
but not chlamydiae: ( p. 774)
A. Chloramphenicol B. Chlortetracycline C. Amikacin D. Penicillins

26. These agents readily bound to calcium deposited in newly formed bone or
teeth in young children. When drug is given during pregnancy, it can be
deposited in the fetal teeth, leading to fluorescence, discoloration, and
enamel dysplasia: ( p. 778 )
A. Azithromycin B. Linezolid C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminoglycosides

27. This drug is split by intestinal microflora to yiels sulfapyridine and 5

aminosalicylate and is widely used in ulcerative colitis, enteritis and other
inflammatory bowel diseases. (p. 794-795)
A. Sulfadoxine B. Sulfamethoxazole C. Sulfasalazine
D. Sulfadiazine

28. Blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnanolone and causes reduction in

the synthesis of all hormonally active steroids; used in pts. with breast Ca
(page 674)
A. metyrapone B. trilostane C. aminoglutethimide D. spirinolactone

29. A glucocoorticoid antagonist that is an antifungal imidazole derivative, that is

potent and rather nonselective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid
synthesis: (page 674)
A. aminogluthetimide B. ketoconazole C. trilostane D. mitotane

30. The most widely used mineralocorticoid, with both mineralocorticoid and
glucocorticoid activity: (page 672)
A. aldosterone B. deoxycortisone C. fludrocortisone D. cortisone

31. Act as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in the pituitary, to treat

infertility in women by stimulating ovulation: (page 699)
A. tamoxifen B. clomiphene C. danazol D. mifepristone

32. An antiandrogen that prevents synthesis of dihydrotestosterone by inhibiting

the activity of 5-α reductase: (page 705)
A. spirinolactone B. cyproterone C. finasteride D. flutamide

33. Effects of progesterone: (page 690)

A. increase basal insulin levels C. promotes breast development
B. promotes blood coaguability D. affects protein metabolism

34. Mazzoti reaction, as an adverse effect is seen with the use of this agent,
characterized as eosinophilia, rashes due to the release of foreign particles
from the dying microfilariae: : (page 908)
A. niclosamide B. diethylcarbamazine C. piperazine D. chloroquine

35. A depolarizing muscular blocking agent used as an alternative to

mebendazole in the treatment of ascariasis and enterobiasis: (page 917)
A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine

36. Kills dormant liver forms in malaria: (page 889)

A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine

3
37. The drug that could accelerate antithrombin activity resulting to blockade of
the coagulation cascade at the at the thrombin level, thus preventing the
formation of a clot is: (p. 567)
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin – ans
C. Coumarin
D. Plasmin

38. This is an antiplatelet drug whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of

thromboxane synthesis, thus consequently, prevention of platelet aggregation
& thrombus formation: (p. 574)
A. Clopidogel
B. Ticlopidine
C. Aspirin – ans
D. Dipyridamole

39. Among the thioamide antithyroid drug, which one is preferred for pregnant
women because it crosses the placental barrier less readily thus will not affect
the fetus?( p. 651)
A. Methimazole
B. Carbimazole
C. Propylthiouracil – ans
D. Ipodate

40.Which beta blocker is most widely used to control the symptom of

hyperthyroidism? (p. 653)
A. Propranolol – ans
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. Guanithidine

41. Drugs that competitively inhibit CYP enzymes cause

a. Decrease in concentration of the object drug
b. Increase in concentration of object drug
c. Decrease efficacy of object drug
d. Irreversible inactivation of the enzyme

42. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is explained by:

a. Substitution for GABA
b. Direct activation of GABA receptors
c. Increase duration of GABA – gated chloride channel opening
d. Increase frequency of GABA – gated chloride channel opening

43. The use of benzodiazepines in the chronic treatment of seizures is limited

because of their
a. high toxicity effects c. tolerance
b. slow absorption d. low therapeutic index

44. Which should be observed to minimize adverse effects of sedative hypnotics?

a. Always give a very low dose.
b. Doses should be given at daytime.
c. Combine two drugs with different toxicities
d. Efficacy of therapy is based on patient’s subjective response

45. A 50 y/o male coca cola executive was using fluoxetine for depression but
decided to stop taking the drug for it affects his sexual performance and even
said “he is getting older”. He is also a tobacco user. What is the next best drug
to use?
a. Bupropion c. citalopram
b. Sertraline d venlafaxine

4
46. A fly catching movement of the tongue commonly observed as a drawback of all
typical antipsychotics is called
a. “lead pipe” rigidity c. tardive dyskinesia
b. “rabbit “ syndrome d. akathisia

47. The most hepatotoxic general inhalational anesthetic

a. Nitrous oxide c. isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane d. halothane

48. A 55 – year old female has post-menopausal osteoporosis. Which is not a

recommended drug?
a. Estrogen c. Biphosphonate
b. Calcium d. Calcitonin

49. Corticosteroid with most potent anti-inflammatory activity:

a. Prednisone c. Betamethasone
b. Dexamethasone d. Cortisone

50. Drug of choice (DOC) for endometriosis in young women

a. danazol c. mifepristone
b. leuprolide d. misoprostol

51. The effect of diethylstilbestrol intake taken during pregnancy on female infants:
a. vaginal adenocarcinoma c. cervical polyp
b. endometrial carcinoma d. breast fibroadenoma

52. The most common adverse effect of clomiphene is

a. hot flushes c. constipation
b. hair loss d. headache

53. A 65 – year old married man was found to have greatly enlarged prostate. Which
one of the following drug is MOST likely to suppress prostatic growth without
affecting libido?
a. Spironolactone c. Ketoconazole
b. Finasteride d. Flutamide

54. Testosterone therapy may be indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction in
which of the following situation?
a. Aged patient c. Alcoholism
b. Hypogonadism d. Depression

55. Major mechanism of action of aspirin as NSAID is

a. Reversible COX inhibitor c. Irreversible PG biosynthesis
inhibition
b. Chemotaxis inhibition d. Down – regulation of IL-1

56. Which of the following is the drug of choice for inducing labor
a. Oxytocin c. Methyl ergonovine
b. Misoprostol d. Dinoprostone

57. The primary consideration in all clinical trials is to

a. Determine the safety of the drug
b. Determine the efficacy of the drug
c. Ensure that there is no risk to the subject
d. Provide for the welfare of the subject

5
58. According to the Philippine National Drug Formulary (PNDF), complementary
drugs are:
A. those drugs italicized in the guide
B. drugs that satisfy the health care needs of majority of population
C. drugs with special pharmacological properties
D. not to be used as an alternative to core drugs

Ans. C.
Philippine National Drug Formulary, 2000 edition, p. 109.
Essential Drugs Concept

59. Which of the following is considered a regulated drug?

A. pseudoephedrine C. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
B. meperidine D. cocaine

Ans. A.
Dangerous Drug Board Info – Republic Act 6425
Dangerous Drugs

60. Differences in the rate of acetylation of isoniazid among groups of individuals

exemplifies.
A. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacogenetics
B. posology D. biochemorphology

Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 2 and 5.
Pharmacogenetics

61. Absorption of most orally administered drugs occurs in the small intestine. This
may be enhanced by:
A. taking agents that accelerate gastric emptying time
B. the presence of food
C. stimulation of hepatic microsomal CYP3A4 enzymes
D. increasing intestinal motility
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 41, 42, 53, and 56.
Pharmacokinetics

62. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are categorized as to which type?

A. G protein coupled C. kinase-linked
B. ion channel-linked D. nuclear

Ans. B
Katzung, 9th edition pp. 18-23
Pharmacodynamics

63. If a drug has a high distribution volume, it indicates:

A. it is highly bound to plasma proteins
B. the drug is highly retained in the vascular compartment
C. the plasma drug concentration will increase
D. there is extensive tissue uptake

Ans. D.
Katzung, pp. 35 and 47.
Pharmacokinetics

6
64. The index of safety of a drug decreases as the median toxic dose :
A. decreases and the median effective dose increases
B. increases and the median effective dose decreases
C. and the median effective dose decrease
D. and the median effective dose increase

Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 30.
Pharmacodynamics

65. What is the major second messenger of beta receptor activation that participates in
signal transduction?
A. inositol triphosphates C. calcium
B. cAMP D. adenylyl cyclase

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 25-27.
Pharmacodynamics

66. In what condition are the drugs phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine useful?
A. pheochromocytoma C. essential hypertension
B. migraine attacks D. benign prostatic hyperplasia

Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 144-146.
Adrenergic Receptor Blockers

67. Acetylcholine acts by:

A. increasing adenylyl cyclase activity
B. decreasing cGMP concentrations
C. activating the IP3, diacylglycerol pathway
D. all of the above

Ans. C
Katzung, 9th edition, p.97
Cholinergic Agonists

68. Which of the following antihypertensive agents has the best documented evidence
for prophylaxis against migraine attacks?
A. pindolol C. clonidine
B. propranolol D. prazosin

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 148 and 156
Adrenoceptor Antagonists

69. Which is a direct effect of nitrates when given in the usual doses for the
management of angina?
A. increased preload C. increased cardiac contractility
B. increased afterload D. smooth muscle relaxation

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 190.
Vasodilators / CVS Drugs

7
70. A college friend consults you regarding the suitability of the therapy his doctor
has prescribed for severe hypertension. He complains of postural and exercise
hypotension ("dizziness"), some diarrhea, and problems with ejaculation during
sex. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend
has described?
A. propranolol C. hydralazine
B. guanethidine D. captopril

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 166.
Antihypertensive / CVS Drugs

71. The most important pharmacologic action of digitalis in the treatment of heart
failure is its ability to:
A. reduce venous pressure C. produce diuresis in edematous patients
B. increase heart rate D. increase myocardial contractile force

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 205.
Cardiac Glycosides / CVS Drugs

72. Side effects of oxytocin use in a woman in labor includes the following,
EXCEPT:
A. increase in BP C. fetal death
B. uterine rupture D. diuresis

Ans. D.
Katzung 9th edition, p. 621
Hormones and Pituitary glands / Drugs used for Endocrine Disorders

73. An antithyroid drug which may be given to reduce the vascularity of the thyroid
gland prior to thyroidectomy:
A. RAI C. methimazole
B. PTU D. Lugol's iodine

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 633
Thyroid & Antithyroid Drugs / Drugs used for Endocrine Disorders

74. Drugs that decrease bone resorption include the following, EXCEPT:
A. calcitonin C. alendronate
B. estrogen D. fluoride

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 719
Agents that affects bone mineral homeostasis

75. Which drug is used as an antiretroviral agent?

A. oseltamivir C. indinavir
B. famciclovir D. ribavirin

Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 820
Anti-viral Agents

76. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by the binding of a beta lactam
antimicrobial with penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)?

8
 A. beta-lactamase C. peptidyl tranferase
B. transpeptidase D. acetylase

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 734-735 and 764.
Beta-lactams / Antimicrobials

77. A poor farm helper from Palawan was diagnosed to have falciparum malaria by
blood smear. The safe, cost-effective, and readily available agent to prescribe if
this farmer has an allergy to sulfonamides is:
A. Fansidar C. chloroquine
B. quinine D. mefloquine

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 869
Anti-malarial Drugs / Antiprotozoals

78. Radical cure for malaria is achieved by giving:

A. chloroquine C. mefloquine
B. quinine D. primaquine
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p.871
Anti-malarial Drug

79. There is a sudden increase of atypical pneumonia secondary to Mycoplasma,

Chlamydia, and Rickettsia in the Pneumonia Ward of a tertiary hospital. Majority
of patients were treated with doxycycline. All of the following ADRs are to be
watched out for in these patients EXCEPT:
A. photosensitivity C. superinfection
B. fetal bone defects D. renal failure

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 758
Tetracyclines / Antimicrobials

80. Which of the following agents may predispose to the development of

pseudomembranous colitis?
A. erythromycin C. vancomycin
B. metronidazole D. clidamycin

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 761
Antimicrobials

81. A patient with persistent chronic cough and fever had no response to adequate
doses of oral penicillin. The PE showed normal chest findings. Further PE
showed bullous myringitis. A chest Xray showed infiltrates in the right lower
lobe. Which of the following antimicrobials would be effective?
A. parenteral penicillin G C. vancomycin
B. chlarithromycin D. gentamicin

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 760
Macrolides / Antimicrobials

9
82. A 4 year old boy that has diarrhea and malnutrition was noted to have a mixed
parasitic infection of Ascaris, Capillaria philippinensis, and Trichiuris trichiura.
The single agent that could be effective for this patient is:
A. pyrantel pamoate C. diethylcarbamazine
B. mebendazole D. niclosamide

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 889-895. Harrison, 15th edtition, p. 1249.
Anti-helmintic Drugs

83. Activated charcoal may be used to treat poisoning due to the following EXCEPT:
A. primaquine C. propoxyphene
B. aspirin D. iron overdose

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 989
Management of Poisoned Patient

84. This herbal plant endorsed by the DOH is useful for the relief of muscle pain:
A. Yerba Buena C. Tsaang gubat
B. Akapulko D. Sambong

Ans. A.
DOH Manuals.
Herbal Medicines

85. On regular follow-up for tuberculosis, you noticed that the visual acuity of Vilma
worsened from 20/20 to 20/50 in both eyes after only three weeks of HRPE. Your
approach in management would be to discontinue:
A. all of the 4 drugs and reintroduce one drug at a time
B. ethambutol and refer to an ophthalmologist
C. pyrazinamide and refer to an ophthalmologist
D. ethambutol, reintroduce it after 1 week, and refer to an ophthalmologist

Ans. .
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 786.
Anti-tuberculosis Drugs

86. Phenytoin is administered intravenously for acute management of seizure, but

when given at a rapid rated can cause
A. generalized seizure C. cardiac arrhythmia
B. gingival hyperplasia D. gastrointestinal disturbances

Answer C.
Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 530.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs

87. Which anticonvulsant is safe in pregnancy?

A. hydantoin C. valproic acid
B. trimethadione D. none of the above

Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 398.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs

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88. Which of the following is a common mechanism of action shared by all NSAIDs?
A. inhibition of arachidonate release from the plasma membrane by ihibiting
phospholipase
B. Inhibition of histamine release by inhibiting mast cell degranulation
C. Inhibition of the production of prostaglandin and thromboxane from
arachidonic acid through inhibition of prostaglandin H synthesis
D. Inhibition of the the formation of leukotrienes by inhibiting lipoxygenase

Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 263, 306, 577, and 581
Agents which controls prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs

89. The primary reason why aspirin has been displaced by NSAIDs as first choice
drug of pediatric rheumatologists is because:
A. poor inflammatory effect and gastric irritation
B. poor inflammatory effect and Reye’s syndrome
C. lack of liquid preparation and high toxicity effect
D. need for frequent administration and association with Reye’s syndrome

Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 579-581. Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 698.
Agents which control prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs

90. The intravenous anesthetic producing the so-called "dissociative anesthesia" is:
A. fentanyl C. ketamine
B. thiopental D. propofol

Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 413-414. Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition,
pp. 346-347.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs

91. Your patient requests you to give her a sedative-hypnotic that not will not only
calm her down or put her to sleep but will make her forget the whole operating
room experience as well. To facilitate this request your drug regimen should
include:
A. midazolam C. phenobarbital
B. succinylcholine D. etomidate

Answer: A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 413-415.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs

B 92. The process by which the amount of drug in the body is reduced after
administration but before entering the systemic circulation is called
A. Excretion
B. First-pass Effect
C. Metabolism
D. First-order elimination
MPL: 0.33
Page 43

C 93. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly
with the antagonist and not at all, or only incidentally, with the receptor?
A. Pharmacologic antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Chemical antagonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
MPL: 0.33
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B 94. A child has swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant whose
primary ingredient is a potent, selective  adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs
of alpha activation that may occur in this patient include
A. Bronchodilation
B. Cardioacceleration (tachycardia)
C. Vasodilation
D. Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
MPL: 0.33
Page 127

A 95. Ms. Green has severe hypertension and is to receive minoxidil. Minoxidil is a
powerful arteriolar vasodilator that does not act on autonomic receptors. When
used in severe hypertension, its effects would probably include
A. Tachycardia and increased cardiac contractility
B. Tachycardia and decreased cardiac output
C. Decreased mean arterial pressure and decreased cardiac contractility
D. Decreased mean arterial pressure and increased salt and water
excretion by the kidney
MPL: 0.25
Page 170

B 96. Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to
be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. The effects of botulinum
toxin are likely to include
A. Bronchospasm
B. Cycloplegia
C. Diarrhea
D. Skeletal muscle spasms
MPL: 1.0
Page 89

D 97. Parathion has which one of the following characteristics?

A. It is less toxic to humans than malathion

B. It is more persistent in the environment than DDT
C. It is poorly absorbed through skin and lungs
D. Its toxicity, if treated early, may be partly reversed by pralidoxime
MPL: 0.5
Page 1029
B 98. Ms. Brown has had myasthenia gravis for several years. She reports to the
emergency department complaining of rapid onset of weakness of her hands,
diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. She may be suffering from a change in
response to her myasthenia therapy, ie, a cholinergic or a myasthenic crisis.
The best drug for distinguishing between myasthenic crisis (insufficient therapy)
and cholinergic crisis (excessive therapy) is
A. Atropine
B. Edrophonium
C. Physostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
MPL: 0.25
Page 103

D 99. A 30-year-old man has been treated with several autonomic drugs for 4 weeks.
He is now admitted to the emergency department showing signs of drug toxicity.
Which of the following signs would distinguish between an overdose of a
ganglion blocker versus a muscarinic blocker?
A. Blurred vision
B. Dry mouth, constipation
C. Physostigmine
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.33
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B 100. Dilation of vessels in muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive
inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart are all actions of
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Metaproterenol
MPL: 0.5
Page 130

A 101. Adverse effects that limit the use of adrenoceptor blockers include
Heart failure exacerbation from -blockers
A. Impaired blood sugar response with -blockers
B. Increased intraocular pressure with -blockers
C. Sleep disturbances from -blocking drugs
MPL: 0.5
Page 145

C 102. Which of the following binds covalently to the site specified?

A. Atenolol -  receptor
B. Carvedilol – cardiac  receptors
C. Phenoxybenzamine- receptor
D. Pindolol -  receptors
MPL: 1.0
Page 141

B 103 Which one of the following is characteristics of enalapril treatment in patients

with essential hypertension?
A. Competitively blocks angiotensin II at its receptor
B. Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood
C. Decreases renin concentration in the blood
D. Increases sodium and decreases potassium in the blood
MPL: 0.5
Page 173

A 104 A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough.
He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different
antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is
A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.5
Page 172

B 105. Verapamil is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Increased PR interval
D. Pretibial edema
MPL: 0.2
Page 172

A 106. The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the
following?
A. Block of exercise-induced tachycardia
B. Decreased end-diastolic ventricular volume
C. Dilation of constricted coronary vessels
D. Increased cardiac force
MPL: 0.5
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B 107. A patient is admitted to the emergency department following a drug
overdose. He is noted to have a severe tachycardia. He has been receiving therapy
for hypertension and angina. A drug that often causes tachycardia is
A. Diltiazem
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.33
Page 185

B 108. Drugs that have been found to be useful in one or more types of heart failure
include all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors
B. Alpha-adrenoceptors agonist
C. Beta-adrenoceptors antagonists
D. ACE inhibitors
MPL: 1.0
Page 127

D 109. The mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with

A. A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

B. An increase in ATP synthesis
C. A modification of the acting molecule
D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels
MPL: 0.33
Page 205

B 110. A patient with long-standing diabetic renal disease and hyperkalemia and
recent-onset heart failure requires a diuretic. Which of the following agents
would be LEAST harmful in a patient with severe hyperkalemia? (pp.256)
A. Amiloride
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Triamterene
MPL: 1.0
Page 256

B 111. Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of

cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in
inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by
A. Cyclooxygenase -1
B. Cyclooxygenase-2
C. Lipoxygenase
D. Phospholipase A2
MPL: 0.5
Page 312

B 112. Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity?

A. Administration of captopril
B. Adminstration of quinidine
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
MPL: 0.33
Page 230

A 113. Successful therapy of heart failure with digoxin will result in which one of
the following?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased afterload
C. Increased aldosterone
D. Increased renin secretion
MPL: 1.0
Page 206

14
 D 114. When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, lidocaine typically
A. increases action potential duration
B. Increases contractility
C. Increases PR interval
D. Reduces abnormal automaticity
MPL: 0.25
Page 235

D 115. Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide (NO)?

A. Arrhythmia
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Constipation
D. Pulmonary vasodilation
MPL: 1.0
Page 329

C 116. One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have
in common is
A. Increased gastric acid secretion
B. Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
C. Tachycardia
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.25
Page 1023

B 117. Nedocromil has as its major action

A. Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes
B. Block of mediator release from mast cells
C. Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils
D. Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi
MPL: 0.5
Page 337

C 118 You are on your way to take an examination and you suddenly get an attack of
diarrhea. If you stop at a nearby drugstore for an over-the-counter opioid with
antidiarrheal action, you will be asking for
A. Codeine
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Loperamide
D. Diphenoxylate
MPL: 1.0
Page 527

C 119. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin is brought about by

A. Aminocaproic acid
B. Heparin
C. Reteplase
D. Warfarin
MPL: 0.2
Page 572

D 120. Which of the following pairs of a drug effect and mechanism of action is
accurate?
A. Allopurinol action in gout: inhibits reuptake of uric acid from renal tubular
fluid
B. Etanercept antirheumatic action: inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, the
enzyme in lymphocytes that is required for pyrimidine synthesis
C. Hydroxychloroquine antirheumatic action: a cytotoxic drug that kills rapidly
dividing lymphocytes
D. Indomethacin closure of patent ductus arteriosus: blocks prostaglandin E
production in the ductus arteriosis of the newborn
MPL: 0.4
Page 605

15
B 121. A 52-year-old woman presented with intense pain, warmth, and redness in the
first toe on her left foot. Examination of fluid withdrawn from the inflamed joint
revealed crystals of uric acid. In the treatment of this woman’s acute attack of
gout, the advantage of using indomethacin instead of colchicines is that
indomethacin is
A. Less likely to cause acute renal failure
B. Less likely to cause severe diarrhea
C. Less likely to precipitate sudden gastrointestinal bleeding
D. More likely to prevent another acute attack
MPL: 0.6
Page 605

A 122. A 27-year-old woman with amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea was

treated with a drug that successfully restored ovulation and menstruation.
Before being given the drug, the woman was carefully questioned about
previous mental health problems, which she did not have. She was advised
to take the drug orally. The drug used to treat this patient was probably
A. Bromocriptine
B. Desmopressin
C. Leuprolide
D. Human gonadotropin hormone
MPL: 0.5
Page 468

D 123. Methimazole reduces serum concentration of T3 primarily by

A. Accelerating the peripheral metabolism of T3

B. Inhibiting the proteolysis of thyroid-binding globulin
C. Inhibiting the secretion of TSH
D. Preventing the addition of iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
MPL: 0.6
Page 651

C 124. Pharmacologic effects of exogenous glucocorticoids include

A. Increased muscle mass

B. Hypoglycemia
C. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis
D. Improved wound healing
MPL: 0.33
Page 665

D 125. Toxic effects of long-term administration of a glucocorticoid include

A. A “lupus-like” syndrome
B. Adrenal gland neoplasm
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Osteoporosis
MPL: 0.33
Page 670

D 126. For patients who have been on long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid and
who now wish to discontinue the drug, gradual tapering of the glucocorticoid
is needed to allow recovery of
A. Depressed release of insulin from pancreatic B cells
B. Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow
C. Normal osteoblast function
D. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal system
MPL: 0.6
Page 671

B 127. The estrogen that is used in most combined hormonal contraceptives is

A. Clomiphene
B. Ethinyl estradiol
C. DES
D. Norgestrel
MPL: 1.0
Page 682

16
B 128. The most likely complication of insulin therapy in this patient is

A. Dilutional hyponatremia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Pancreatitis
D. Severe hypertension
MPL: 1.0
Page 721

C 129. A 54-year-old obese patient with type 2 diabetes and a history of alcoholism
probably should not receive metformin because it can increase the risk of
A. A disulfiram-like reaction
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hypoglycemia
MPL: 0.5
Page 728

B 130. Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to cause hypoglycemia when used
as monotherapy in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?
A. Acarbose
B. Glyburide
C. Miglitol
D. Rosiglitazone
MPL: 0.4
Page 726

D 131. A patient needs antibiotic treatement for native valve, culture-positive infective
entericoccal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic
reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be
treatment with
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Aztreonam
C. Meropenem
D. Vancomycin
MPL: 0.4
Page 768

C 132. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracyclines involves

A. Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit

B. Inhibition of translocase activity
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases
MPL: 0.33
Page 776

D 133. In patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to

respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to
be effective is
A. Clarithromycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Minocycline
D. Linezolid
MPL: 1.0
Page 782

D 134. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur with sulfonamides?

A. Neurologic effects, including headache, dizziness, and lethargy

B. Hematuria
C. Fanconi’s aminoaciduria syndrome
D. Skin reactions
MPL: 0.2
Page 793

17
 C 135. On her release from hospital, the patient is advised not to rely solely on oral
contraceptives to avoid pregnancy because they may be less effective while
she is being maintained on antimycobacterial drugs. The agent most likely to
interfere with the action of oral contraceptives is
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide
MPL: 1.0
Page 806

C 136. Chemical interactions between this drug and cell membrane components
can result in the formation of pores lined by hydrophilic groups present in the
drug molecule
A. Caspofungin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole
MPL: 0.25
Page 1049

D 137. Which of the following statements about fluconazole is most accurate?

A. it is highly effective in treatment of aspergillosis

B. It does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
C. Its oral bioavailability is less than that of ketoconazole
D. It inhibits demethylation of lanosterol
MP[L: 0.25
Page 819

D 138. Which of the following drugs binds to a viral envelope protein preventing the
conformational changes required for the fusion of viral and cellular membranes?
A. Abacavir
B. Adenavir
C. Oseltamivir
D. Enfuvirtide
MPL: 0.33
Page 820
No Question Ans Ref page4
139. Which of the following is NOT an expected effect of C 97
muscarinic agonists instilled into the conjunctival sac?
a. Contraction of the smooth muscle of the iris
sphincter
b. Contraction of the ciliary muscle
c. Mydriasis
d. Improves aqueous humor outflow in the canal of
Schlemm.
140. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, salivation, D 105
sweating, cutaneous vasodilation and bronchial constriction
are caused by an overdose of:
a. Ipratropium
b. Pirenzepine
c. Benztropine
d. Pilocarpine
141. In normal individuals and more so in patients with airway A 113
disease, the administration of this agent causes cause some
bronchodilation and reduction in secretion.
a. Atropine
b. Metacholine
c. Carbachol
d. Bethanechol

18
142. This agent relieves motion sickness and is as effective as B 114
any more recently introduced agent but causes significant
sedation and dry mouth.
a. Oxybutinin
b. Scopolamine
c. Tolterodine
d. Darifenacin
143. AL, 25y.o. male patient is brought to the emergency room D 137
suffering from bronchospasm, mucous membrane
congestion, angioedema, and severe hypotension. The
appropriate drug is:
a. Phenylephrine
b. Ephedrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Epinephrine
144. BM, 50 yo female is asthmatic and hypertensive. The C 156
following class of drugs should be avoided as maintenance
treatment for her hypertension.
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Beta-blockers
d. Diuretics
145. Which of the following CNS neurotransmitters has only an A 341
inhibitory mechanism of action?
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Glutamate
d. 5-Hydroxttryptamine
146. Which among the following sedative-hypnotic drugs has D 352
the longest elimination half-life and is ingested as a prodrug
that is hydrolyzed to its active form in the stomach?
a. Alprazolam
b. Lorazepam
c. Oxazepam
d. Clorazepate
147. This drug is a novel hypnotic drug prescribed for patients A 350
who have difficulty in falling asleep. In polysomnography
studies of patients with chronic insomnia, this drug
reportedly reduced the latency to persistent sleep with no
rebound insomnia or withdrawal symptoms.
a. Remelteon
b. Buspirone
c. Diazempam
d. Triazolam
147. EJ, 35 yo executive often awakens early in the sleep cycle C 358
and could hardly go to sleep again. He may probably
benefit from which of the following drugs?
a. Flurazepam
b. Clorazepate
c. Zolpidem
d. None of the above

19
148. GM, 30 yo female experiences visual scotomas followed A 268
after around 30 minutes by a severe throbbing right-sided
headache that would last 4 – 8 hours if untreated. Which
group of drugs isalmost exclusively used for this condition?
a. Triptans
b. Propranolol
c. Topiramate
d. Valproate
149. This drug is effective in reducing pain of mild to moderate C 577
intensity through its effects on inflammation and because it
probably inhibits pain stimuli at a subcortical site.
a. Paracetamol
b. Tramadol
c. Aspirin
d. All of the above
150. IT, 60 yo male suffers from excruciatingly painful C 583
inflammation of the big toe after binge eating. The
following agents may be helpful except?
a. Indomethacin
b. Colchicine
c. Tolmetin
d. None of the above
151. YH, 62 yo female is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. C 583 –584
Her physician strongly believes that this condition causes
significant systemic effects which shorten life in addition to
the joint disease that reduces mobility and quality of life.
He decides to give her metothrexate, the disease-modifying
antirheumatic drug (DMARD) of choice for her condition.
The most common adverse effects of this drug is:
a. hepatotoxicity
b. hypersensitivity lung reaction
c. nausea and mucosal ulcers
d. pseudolymphomatous reactions
152. This antihypertensive drug is approximately equipotent to D 169
propranolol in inhibition stimulation of 1-adrenoceptors
but 50- to 100-fold less potent than propranolol in blocking
2-adrenoceptors.
a. Nadolol,
b. Carteolol
c. Pindolol
d. Metoprolol
153. This antihypertensive agent illustrates how one person’s C 173
toxicity may be another person’s therapy in that it causes
hirsutism, which is bothersome in women but a topical
formulation is used to stimulate hair growth, which is
beneficial for many men.
a. Diltiazem
b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidil
d. Methyldopa

20
154. This antihypertensive drug may cause severe hypotension A 177
in hypovolemic patients, acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia,
dry cough sometime accompanied by wheezing, and
angioedema.
a. Captopril
b. Methyldopa
c. Reserpine
d. Sodium nitroprusside
155. MF, 45 yo female with evidence of chronic kidney disease C 178
was also diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the
following drugs may be helpful for both of her conditions>
a. Metoprolol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Captopril
d. Nifedipine
156. GG, 68 yo female teacher has chronic heart failure with left D 206
ventricular dysfunction but no edema. The first drug to be
used for her are
a. - blockers
b. Diuretics
c. Calcium blockers
d. ACE inhibitors
157. Chloroquine is effective in the treatment of nonfalciparum A 849
and sensitive falciparum malaria but it causes which of the
following common side effects?
a. pruritus
b. hemolysis
c. alopecia
d. hypotension
158. The common adverse effects of Quinine in treating B 851
falciparum malaria include the following, except
a. tinnitus
b. hemoglobinuria
c. flushing
d. visual disturbances
159. TT, 7yo male public elementary school student develops C 868
mixed soil-transmitted helminthic infections. Which of the
following drugs is appropriate?
a. Pyrantel pamoate
b. Praziquantel
c. Mebendazole
d. Metronidazole
160. This group of antimicrobials kills bacterial cells interfering B 726
with the transpeptidation reaction of bacterial cell wall
synthesis
a. Tetracyclines
b. -lactam antibiotics
c. Macrolides
d. All of the above

161. The following penicillins are resistant to Staphylococcal B 732

beta lactamases, except
a. Methicicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Nafcillin
d. Cloxacillin

21
162. Which of the following drugs is more stable to bacterial - C 733 – 734
lactamases?
a. Penicillin G
b. Amoxicillin
c. Cephalexin
d. None of the above

163. The class of cephalosporins with expanded gram-negative C 737

coverage with some agents being able to cross the blood-
brain barrier, but with 2 agents effective vs. P aeruginosa.
a. First generation
b. Second generation
c. Third generation
d. Fourth generation
164. ME, 33 yo male develops pneumonia and was given D 749
penicillin but develops allergy. He was given an alternative
drug which had to be discontinued because of
gastrointestinal intolerance due to direct stimulation of gut
motility. This drug is most probably.
a. Cefalexin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
c. Minocycline
d. Erythromycin
165. This agent participates in conversion of diatary folate to A 532
tetrahydrofolate and isomerization of methylmalonyl-CoA
to succinyl CoA and is effective in the treatment of
megaloblastic anemia.
a. Vitamin B12
b. Iron
c. Erythropoietin
d. None of these
166. BV, 45 year old female suffers from chronic kidney disease C 537
due to diabetic nephropathy leading to recurring anemia.
Which of the following agents is most useful for this
patient?
a. Iron
b. Folate
c. Erythropoietin
d. Interleukin

167. TU, 3 yo male has manifest slowing down of bodily B 628

functions leading to striking retaration of growth and
development leading to very slow growth and some degree
of mental retardation. The most satisfactory preparation for
replacement therapy in this case is.
a. Liothyronine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Methimazole
d. Propylthiouracil

22
168. GF, 25 yo female manifests with warm moist skin, D 630
sweating, heat intolerance, periorbital edema, retraction of
upper lid with wide stare, exopthalmos an diplopia. The
management of this condition involves the following,
except:
a. Methimazole
b. Thyroidectomy
c. 131 Iodine
d. None of the above
169. This agent is a prohormone that serves as a precursor to a B 710
number of biologically active metabolites, including
calcitriol.
a. Calcimimetics
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
d. None of these
170. Which of the following is an inscription and translation of a B Generics
violative prescription based on the Generics Act of 1988? Act of
a. Paracetamol 500mg tabs ----------------#20 1988
b. Amoxil 500 mg caps ---------------------#21
c. Ponstan (Mefenamic Acid) 500 mg ---#12
d. B an C are violative prescriptions

Basic and Clinical Pharmacology by: Bertram G. Katzung, 10th edition, 2007

_____ 171. All of the following factors can affect the rate and extent of drug absorption EXCEPT
A. lipophilicity C. protein binding
B. intestinal motility D. presence of P glycoprotein transporter

ANS C p.41

_____ 172. Which of the following factors is TRUE regarding drug distribution?
A. All drugs distribute to the same degree in all tissues.
B. The binding of drugs to tissues has no relationship to the distribution of drug in the
body.
C. In general, a drug with a higher degree of plasma protein binding will have a lower Vd.
D. In general, lipophilic drugs distribute to a lesser extent than hydrophilic drugs

ANS C p. 34

_____ 173. The amount of a drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged
form is:
A. Bioavailability C. Cmax
B. Clearance D. half-life

ANS A p. 40

_____ 174. A laboratory experiment is being conducted in which an animal is injected with a non-
competitive antagonist to the histamine receptor. Which of the following best describes this
drug?
A. The drug binds to the histamine receptor and partially activates it.
B. The drug binds to the histamine receptor but does not activate it.
C. The drug binds to the receptor, but not where histamine binds and prevents the
receptor from being activated.
D. The drug irreversibly binds to the histamine receptor and renders it ineffective.

ANS C p. 16

23
_____ 175. The rate and extent of absorption of a drug is decreased by:
A. inhibition of P-glycoprotein transporter
B. addition of carbon-nitrogen bond ( quaternary amine )
C. inhibition of gut wall metabolism
D. low ionization constant

ANS B p. 41

_____ 176. At low doses, dobutamine receptor selectivity and activity will primarily result to:
A. bronchodilation C. uterine contraction
B. dilatation of renal bladder vessels D. increase in cardiac
contractility
ANS D p.133

_____ 177. Antiarrythmic with the most marked K-blocking effect

A. lidocaine C. quinidine
B. amiodarone D. verapamil

ANS B pp 228

_____ 178. Blocks the final common pathway of platelet aggregation:

A. ticlopidine C. abciximab
B. clopidogrel D. ASA

_____ 179. Drug interaction seen with concomitant spironolactone and ACE inhibitor use
A. ACE inhibitors may decrease renal perfusion decreasing the action of spironolactone
in the collecting tubules
B. Additive afterloader effect
C. Enhanced hyperkalemia*
D. Enhanced vasodilating effect of ACE inhibitors because of inhibition of metabolism by
spironolactone

ANS C p. 177

_____ 180. The following anti-hypertensive drug should be used with caution in patients on
potassium-sparing diuretics
A. losartan* C. hydrochlorthiazide
B. verapamil D. methyldopa

ANS A p. 177

_____ 181. Accumulation of bradykinin due to ACE inhibition is responsible for these adverse
effects EXCEPT one:
A. cough C. angioedema
B. hypotension D. hyperkalemia

ANS D p. 177

_____ 182. The absence of reflex tachycardia with the use of ACE inhibitors is due to
A. downward resetting of the baroreceptor
B. mild decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
C. enhanced sympathetic activity
D. inhibition of RAA system

ANS A p. 176

24
_____ 183. This adverse effect of nitrates can be prevented by providing nitrate-free interval
between administration
A. dependence C. tolerance
B. hypotension D. tachycardia

ANS D p. 186

_____ 184. Which of the following drug combinations will give the best hemodynamic effects of
decreasing filling pressure and increasing cardiac output in CHF patients?
A. furosemide and dopamine C. captopril and digoxin
B. digoxin and verapamil D. furosemide and digoxin

ANS A p. 208

_____ 185. The drug of choice for converting paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus
rhythm
A. propranolol C. quinidine
B. adenosine D. flecainide

ANS B p. 231

_____ 186. This class I antiarrhythmic drug has marked negative inotropic action and therefore
should not be used in patient with heart failure
A. quinidine C. disopyramide
B. procainamide D. lidocaine

ANS D p.225

_____ 187. The risk of Torsades des pointes is highest with the use of
A. sotalol C. bretylium
B. flecainide D. amiodarone

ANS D p. 223

_____ 188. Drug-induced lupus is an adverse effect of

A. procainamide C. disopyramide
B. amiodarone D. amiloride

_____ 189. A 60 year old male has dilated cardiomyopathy and is on digoxin. He complains of
nausea and vomiting and you think he has digitalis toxicity. Which of the following drugs he
is taking most likely enhanced this?
A. Furosemide* C. spironolactone
B. Carvedilol D. captopril

ANS A p. 204

_____ 190. The positive inotropic action of cardiac glycosides is associated with
A. an increase in ATP synthesis
B. a modification in actin molecule
C. decreased outward flow of calcium*
D. a decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

ANS C p. 199-202

25
_____ 191. A patient in CHF has developed oliguria because of low cardiac output. To improve
renal perfusion, dopamine must be given at this dose in ug/kg/min
A. 2* C. 15
B. 10 D. 20

ANS A p. 133

_____ 192. A.M. a 55 year old known hypertensive was found to have heart block on ECG. Which
of the drugs below should not be given?
A. Spironolactone C. captopril
B. Verapamil* D. prazosin

ANS A p. 175; 230

_____ 193. Rapid intravenous administration of this drug may cause respiratory depression:
A. phenytoin C. phenobarbital
B. lamotrigine D. carbamazepine

ANS C p.359

_____ 194. This drug increases free phenytoin levels due to protein binding displacement.
A. Cimetidine C. chloramphenicol
B. salicylates D. isoniazid

ANS B p.377

_____ 195. Which of the following antidepressants will produce a life-threatening syndrome of
hyperthermia, muscle rigidity and myoclonus when administered with MAO?
A. Fluoxetine C. imipramine
B. trazodone D. clomipramine

ANS A p. 486

_____ 196. Ideally, baseline liver function tests are done prior to giving this anticonvulsant
A. topiramate C. valproic acid
B. levetiracetam D. gabapentin

ANS C p. 387

_____ 197. Elimination of this anticonvulsant is enhanced significantly by alkalinization of the

urine
A. Phenobarbital C. valproic acid
B. Carbamazepine D. phenytoin

ANS A p.380

_____ 198. Orthostatic hypotension is most common with which of the following antipsychotic
agents:
A. Perphenazine C. chlorpromazine
B. Haloperidol D. olanzapine

ANS C p.461

26
_____ 199. Carbamazepine exerts its antiepileptic effect through
A. inhibition of low threshold transient Ca++ current
B. inhibition of neurotransmission by NMDA and non-NMDA receptors
C. reduction of Na+ current
D. enhancement of post-synaptic GABA receptor current
ANS C p. 378

_____ 200. Based on the mechanism of action, the following antimicrobial is NOT selectively
toxic:
A. piperacillin C. amphotericin B
B. cotrimoxazole D. gentamicin

ANS B p. 763

_____ 201. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against both aerobes and anaerobes?
A. metronidazole C. aztreonam
B. gentamicin D. chloramphenicol

ANS D p. 752

_____ 202. This antibiotic is frequently associated with 8th nerve damage in the offspring if given
to pregnant women, thus classified under pregnancy risk category D
A. Clarithromycin C. ciprofloxacin
B. Tetracycline D. streptomycin
ANS D p. 759

_____ 203. Maculopapular rash with this antibiotic is non-immunologic in nature and does not
preclude the use of chemically related antibiotics in the future
A. Erythromycin C. amoxicillin
B. Cefalexin D. cotrimoxazole
ANS C p. 733

_____ 204. A 15 year old college student came in because of headache, fever, chills and
photophobia. Thick and thin smears showed P. vivax. The oral drug of choice to rid the
blood of plasmodia is
A. Quinine C. mefloquine
B. Primaquine D. chloroquine
ANS D p.846

_____ 205. Mebendazole is effective against the following parasites EXCEPT

A. capillaria philippinensis C. necator americanus
B. ascaris lumbricoides D. trichuris trichiuria

ANS A p. 872

_____ 206. The following antiviral agents DOES NOT require activation by phosphorylation and it
directly inhibits DNA and RNA polymerases as well as HIV reverse transcriptase
A. penciclovir C. cidofovir
B. acyclovir D. foscarnet

ANS D p. 797

_____ 207. The following adverse reaction to isoniazid is age-related

A. SLE like syndrome C. neuropathy
B. Hemolysis D. hepatitis

ANS D p. 773

27
_____ 208. A 50 year old male receiving anti-TB treatment develops mono-articular arthritis.
Which of the following could have caused it?
A. pyrazinamide and ethambutol C. ethambutol + streptomycin
B. rifampicin + pyrazinamide D. ethambutol + INH

ANS A pp. 774-775

_____ 209. Of the following, the mechanism of actions of this antifungal does not involve
inhibition of cell membrane synthesis
A. Terbinafine C. flucytosine
B. Fluconazole D. griseofulvin

ANS C p. 784

_____ 210. Aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of breast cancer

A. Tamoxifen C. anastrazole
B. Danazol D. leuprolide

ANS C p. 673

_____ 211. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the direct genomic
pharmacodynamic action of glucocorticoids (GC)?
A. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and into nucleus where it binds to glucocorticoid
response element (GRE) and act as transcription factor, upregulating gene
transcription
B. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and bind to steroid receptors leading to release of heat
shock proteins and dimerization of steroid – receptor complexes which translocate into
nucleus and bind to GRE, inducing or inhibiting gene transcription
C. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm, binding to steroid receptors, the steroid-receptor
complexes then bind to transcription factor inhibiting synthesis of pro-inflammatory
cytokines
D. GCs activate cell membrane enzymes leading to formation 2nd messenger
ANS B p. 639

_____ 212. The main mechanism of action is to lower post meal glycemic excursion:
A. metformin C. acarbose
B. glipizide D. nateglinide

ANS C p. 700

_____ 213. This drug is an estrogen agonist in the bone but an estrogen antagonist in breast
tissue:
A. raloxifene C. tamoxifen
B. alendronate D. calcitonin
ANS A p. 672

_____ 214. This is essential for the antithyroid activity of thioamides:

A. phenyl group C. thiocarbamide group
B. methyl group at 3’ D. iodide substituent at 3’
ANS C p.625

_____ 215. The main mechanism for its effectiveness in diabetics is the release of endogenous
insulin
A. sulfonylurea C. biguanide
B. thiazolidinedione D. alpha glucosidase inhibitor
ANS A p. 694

28
_____ 216. The main action as anti-diabetic agent is to stimulate the nuclear receptors that
regulate the transcription of genes encoding proteins involved in protein and carbohydrate
metabolism
A. insulin C. sulfonylurea
B. thiazolidinedione D. biguanide

ANS A p. 686

_____ 217. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the least mineralocorticoid effect and is
best for decreasing cerebral edema associated with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Prednisone C. dexamethasone
B. Hydrocortisone D. prednisolone

ANS C p. 641-644

_____ 218. Organophosphate toxicity results from its ability to

A. interrupt heme synthesis
B. inhibit acetycholinesterase
C. compete with brain pyridoxal phosphate
D. react with sulfhydryl groups binding to protein and other enzymes

ANS B p 968

219. A class of proteins that functions as drug receptors that mediate the
actions of endogenous chemical signals such as neurotransmitters
and hormones:
A. enzymes
B. regulatory proteins
C. structural proteins
D. transport proteins

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 11

220. Receptor/s coupled to G protein that modulate the production of

intracellular second messengers include/s
A. muscarinic receptor
B. alpha adrenergic receptor
C. leukotriene receptor
D. all of the above

Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 22

221. The neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine acts by:

A. Depolarizing muscle endplate receptors
B. Repolarizing muscle endplate receptors
C. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
D. Blocking the access of acetylcholine at the myoneural junction

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 437

29
222. Therapeutic benefit/s of 2 receptor agonists include:
A. antihypertensive
B. antiglaucoma
C. antidiarrheal
D. all of the above

Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, pp. 130 - 131

223. Non-benzodiazepine that has affinity for the Benzodiazepine receptors:

A. Zolpidem
B. Midazolam
C. Alprazolam
D. All of the above

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 360

224. Sedative-Hypnotic with low solubility and penetrate the brain slowly
includes:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Flumazenil
C. Trimethadione
D. Valproic acid

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 354

225. The following drugs/substance of abuse are CNS stimulants, EXCEPT:

A. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB)
B. Cocaine
C. Amphetamine
D. Methylenedioxy-Methamphetamine (MDMA, Ecstasy)

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 520

226. Characteristic physiologic sign of Cannabis intoxication includes:

A. increased pulse rate
B. pale conjunctivae
C. miotic pupil
D. high blood pressure

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 526

30
227. Which among these intravenous general anesthetics produces a
dissociative type of anesthesia?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Midazolam

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 415

228. Painless digital vasospasm is a dose-related complication of long term

treatment with:
A. Levodopa
B. Bromocriptine
C. Selegiline
D. Tolcapone

Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 453

229. The peripheral metabolism to Levodopa can be prevented if it is given

concomitantly with:
A. Carbidopa
B. Amantadine
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition,
p. 449, p. 454

230. An overdose of this opioid causes mydriasis instead of the

characteristic miosis of opioid toxicity:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Morphine

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 511

231. Which of these group of tissues would be the first to take up

appreciable amounts of inhalational anesthetics?
A. Fat
B. Muscle
C. Vessel-rich
D. Vessel-poor

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 405

31
232. A narcotic-addicted patient is given this drug as a “substitute” to be
able to control the withdrawal symptoms:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Disulfiram

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.510,
p. 520

233. The duration of action of the intravenous barbiturate anesthetic

thiopental is largely determined by:
A. Spontaneous degradation
B. Hepatic extraction
C. Renal clearance
D. Redistribution

Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 412

234. This drug inhibits binding of leukotriene D4 to its receptor on target

tissues
A. Montelukast
B. Zilenton
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Omalizumab

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
330

235. The mechanism of action of corticosteroids in the treatment of

bronchial asthma includes
A. directly relax airway smooth muscle
B. enhance bronchial reactivity
C. inhibit airway mucosal inflammation
D. prevent release of chemotactic agents

Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 328

236. A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that irreversibly acetylates

and blocks platelet cycloocygenase is
A. Naproxen
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 577

32
 237. Corticosteroids must be used with great caution in patients with
A. osteoporosis
B. varicella
C. peptic ulcer
D. all of the above

Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 652

238. The most common adverse effect of Aspirin is

A. gastric upset and ulcers
B. renal toxicity
C. asthma
D. hepatotoxicity

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 581

239. A uricosuric drug that decreases body pool of urate in patients with
tophaceous gout is
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Meloxicam

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 598

240. Sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodal tissue are affected markedly by

A. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
C. Nifedipine
D. Amlodipine

Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 196

241. The beneficial effect of Captopril in patients with heart failure is

attributed to:
A. reduction in afterload
B. increased preload
C. increased myocardial contractility
D. all of the above

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
209

33
242. Beta blockers with membrane-stabilizing action, useful as anti-
arrhythmics include:
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Acebutolol
D. All of the above

Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 151

243. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs act by blocking sodium

channel?
A. Lidocaine
B. Verapamil
C. Sotalol
D. Adenosine

Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
226

244. Antibiotic/s shown to be effective when applied topically in the

treatment of acne vulgaris include/s:
A. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Metronidazole
D. All of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 1017

245. This organophosphate compound is thought to have a

cholinesterase inhibitory action which temporarily paralyzes the adult
Schistosoma haematobium worms.
A. Metrifonate
B. Niclosamide
C. Mebendazole
D. Pyrantel pamoate
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
891

246. Which of these drugs selectively inhibits microtubule synthesis and

glucose uptake in nematodes?
A. Piperazine
B. Mebendazole
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Diethylcarbamazine citrate

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
891

34
247. For onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis, this drug is the first choice
because it causes fewer systemic and ocular reactions:
A. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
B. Metrifonate
C. Ivermectin
D. Bithionol

Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
890

248. Most of the serious adverse effects of Penicllins are due to:
A. Blood dyscrasias
B. Hypersensitivity reactions
C. CNS reactions
D. Hepatic impariment

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
741

249. The following anti-TB drugs are potentially hepatotoxic, EXCEPT:

A. RIfampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin

Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 784-786

250. This Anti-TB is relatively contraindicated in young children whose

visual acuity and red-green color assessment can not be adequately
assessed:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethmabutol
D. Pyrazinamide

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 785

251. This antibacterial is available as a nasal ointment useful in the

elimination of nasal carriage of Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Neomycin
B. Muprocin
C. Polymycin B sulfate
D. Bacitracin

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 1016

35
252. A drug that is used almost solely as an alternative treatment for
gonorrhea in patients whose gonococci are resistant to other drugs is:
A. Ofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Spectinomycin

Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
771

253. Excessive anticoagulant effect results in bleeding from Warfarin

can be reversed by:
A. discontinuance of the drug
B. administration of Vitamin K
C. administration of fresh frozen plasma
D. all of the above

Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
552

254. The amount of elemental iron per 325 mg tablet of hydrated ferrous
sulfate is ___ mg:
A. 36
B. 65
C. 80
D. 106

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
531

255. The preparation of choice for thyroid replacement and suppression

therapy is:
A. Liothyronine
B. Levothyroxine
C. Dessicated thyroid
D. Thyrogloculin

Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
630

256. The combination of estrogens and progestins exert their

contraceptive effect largely through
A. inhibition of pituitary function
B. production of a mucoid cervical secretion
C. alteration in the motility of the uterine tubes
D. enhancement of the rupture of the ovarian follicle
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 673

36
 257. The most dangerous complication of Thioamides is:
A. lupus-like reaction
B. hepatitis
C. agranulocytosis
D. exfoliative dermatitis

Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
633

258. The major use of this drug is in the treatment of endometriosis

A. Nifepristone
B. Danazol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphine

Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
680

259. The best treatment option for an obese patient with NIDDM with
associated insulin resistance syndrome is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Metformin
C. Repaglimide
D. Acarbose

Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.
708

260. Treatment Regimen III as indicated in the National Tuberculosis

Control Program consists of:
A. 2 HRZES
B. 2HRZ / 4HR
C. 2HRZE / 4HR
D. 2HRZES / 1 HREZ / 5HRE

Application
Answer: B
Reference: National TB Control Program, Treatment Regimens

261.The study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug is

known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Phamacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacology Ans. B p. 5

37
262. First – pass effect is more likely to occur with this route of administration :
A.Oral
B.Buccal
C.Sublingual
D.Rectal Ans. A p. 43
263. Inert binding sites bind a drug without initiating events leading to a drug
effect. They are located in:
A.True receptors
B.Spare receptors
C.Plasma proteins
D.Ttissue proteins Ans. C
p. 5

264. Drug A at a dose of 100 mg. produces the same effect as drug B at a dose
of 1000 mg. One of the following statements is correct regarding the two
drugs:
A. Drug A has a greater efficacy than Drug B
B. Drug B has a greater efficacy than Drug A
C. Drug A is more potent than Drug B
D. Drug B is more potent than Drug A Ans. C p.28
265. Drugs with very high volume of distribution:
A. are completely retained within the vascular compartment
B. have higher concentrations in extravascular tissue
C. are homogeneously distributed in blood
D. have minimum possible volume of distribution Ans.B p.34

266. Bioavailability of a drug is 100% following this route of administration:

A. subcutaneous
B. intramuscular
C. transdermal
D. intravenous Ans. D p.41

267. Drug biotransformation may result in formation of:

A. inactive metabolites
B. reactive intermediates that are toxic to various organs
C. an active substance from a prodrug
D. all of the above Ans. D p. 55-56

268. Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX inhibitors in

that selective COX-2 inhibitors have no:
A. analgesic-antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects
B. gastrointestinal side effects
C. effects on platelet aggregation
D. renal toxicities Ans. B p. 582

269. Pharmacologic effects of alcohol include stimulation of the:

A. central nervous system
B. heart
C. smooth muscles of the blood vessels
D. secretion of gastric acid Ans. D p. 368

270. One of the following general anesthetics with their respective blood:gas
partition coefficients is most soluble in blood:
A.Nitrous oxide 0.47
B. Enflurane 1.40
C. Halothane 2.30
D. Methoxyflurane 12.0 Ans. D p. 403

38
271. Reserpine blocks this step in adrenergic transmission:
A. synthesis of the transmitter
B. incorporation of norepinephrine into the vesicle
C. release of the neurotransmitter
D. reuptake into presynaptic neuron Ans. B p. 169

272. A 24 year old male was brought to the emergency room after having
allegedly drank poison. He had constricted pupils, was noted to have
salivation and sweating, wheezing, vomiting and diarrhea: The poison must
have been:
A. atropine
B. organophosphate
C. opiate
D. ephedrine Ans. B p. 101

273. Therapeutic applications of atropine include/s:

A. peptic ulcer
B. bradycardia caused by myocardial infarction
C. urinary retention
D. constipation Ans. B p. 115

274. Mechanism of action of pralidoxime:

A. competitive antagonism
B. noncompetitive antagonism
C. physiologic antagonism
D. regeneration of the enzyme Ans. D p. 117

275. Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine has more effects on:

A. alpha 1 receptors
B. alpha 2 receptors
C. beta 1 receptors
D. beta 2 receptors Ans. D p. 133

276. Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and disopyramide are useful in the
treatment of:
A. congestive heart failure C. status asthmaticus
B. thyrotoxicosis D. arrhythmia
Ans. D. pp. 227-229
277. A 65-year old male was admitted at the intensive care unit disoriented
with a blood pressure of 220/120. Which of the following drugs will be most
appropriate:
A. Sodium nitroprusside C. Methyldopa
B. Clonidine D. Aldactone
Ans. A p. 175
278. Propranolol and other beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist have the
following effect/s on the heart that makes them useful as antiarryhthmic
agents:
A. Depress automaticity C. Reduce heart rate
B. Prolong A-V conduction D. All of the above
Ans. D. p. 232
279. All of the following are true of sodium nitroprusside EXCEPT:
A. The gold standard for use in hypertensive crisis
B. Mechanism of vasodilating effects similar to nitrates
C. Sensitive to light
D. Metabolite is pharmacologically inert
Ans. D. p.175

39
280. In patients with congestive heart failure, the use of angiotensin converting
enzyme inhibitors will increase
A. peripheral resistance C. salt and water excretion
B. preload D. sympathetic activity
Ans. C p. 209

281. One of the following antianginal agents is contraindicated in patients with

vasospastic angina:
A. Propranolol C. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Ans. A. p. 198

282. Methyldopa as antihyperatensive agent exerts its effect by conversion to

alpha-methylnorepinephrine which stimulates centrally this receptor:
A. alpha-1 C. alpha-2
B. Beta-1 D. Beta-2
Ans. C. p. 166
283. Aminopenicillins, Carboxypenicillins and Ureidopenicillins compared to
Penicillin G:
A. Are not effective for oral adminsitration
B. Have lesser tendency to cause hypersensitivity reaction
C. Have greater activity against gram-negative bacteria
D. Are resistant to B-lactamse
Ans. C. p. 741
284. Clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin in order to:
A. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea
B. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction
C. Increase the bioavailability by increasing absorption
D. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal tract
Ans. B. p. 741

285. The most common side effect of erythromycin is:

A. Gastroinetstinal upset
B. “red neck” syndrome
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Nephrotoxicity Ans. A p. 759
286. Bacterial synergism is produced by the following drug combination:
A. Tetracycline and penicillin G
B. Cephalexin and gentamycin
C. Tetracycline and chloramphenicol
D. Tetracycline and streptomycin Ans. B p. 846

287. This antimicrobial drug may provoke acute gouty arthritis:

A. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol
C. INH
D. PAS Ans. A p. 786

288. This agent is proven effects for influenza A:

A. Riboxinin
B. Acyclovir
C. Zidoxcedine
D. Amantadine Ans. D p. 824

40
289. This agent apparently acts as a GABA agonist at the neuromuscular
junction and causes flaccid paralysis of the nematode:
A. Mebendazole
B. Piperazine
C. Bephenrium
D. Pyrantel Ans. B p. 861

290. This antimicrobial agent is also effective for amebic abscesses that fail
initial therapy with metronoidazole:
A. Chloroquine
B. Amodiaquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine Ans. A p. 867

291. Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include all, EXCEPT:

A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Neuromuscular blockade
D. Ototoxicity Ans. B p. 767

292. The most common use of estrogen in therpeutics is:

A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
B. Chemotherapy in prostatic malignancy
C. Replacement therapy in menopause
D. Component of contraceptice pills Ans. D

293. This is a partial agonist inhibitor of estradiol at the estrogen receptor and
used in the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer:
A. Donazol
B. Diathylstilbesterol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Mefepristone Ans. C p. 679

294. Clomiphone enhanced pregnancy by:

A. Preparing the uterus for implantation
B. Inhibiting estradiol’s negative feedback
C. Increasing sperm motility
D. Inhibiting ovulation Ans. B p. 681
295. The most common side effect of insulin is:
A. Lipid deposition
B. Renal dystrophy
C. Insulin allergy
D. Hypoglycemia Ans. D p. 703

296. Actions of Vit. D include:

A. Antagonism oof parathyroid hormone
B. Promote absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine
C. Hasten calcium excretion in the kidney
D. Promotes water excretion Ans. B p. 718

41