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Total Marks : 200

CSAT-3 (Subject)
( INSTA Prelims Test Series 2021 )

1. In a certain code, ELEPHANT is written as TNPEAHLE, the CROCODILE will be written as ?

A. RCCOOIDEL
B. ELCOOIDRC
C. ELCIOODRC
D. ELCOIODRC

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Type – Simple Arrangement (Swap Coding) Positions of T and E and L and N are swapped.

Also, positions of second E and P and H and A are swapped.

Therefore, for CROCODILE the code after swapping in the same pattern is ELOCIDRC.

2. Each of two women and three men is to occupy one chair out of eight chairs, each of which numbered from 1 to
8. First, women are to occupy any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then the three men would occupy
any, three chairs out of the remaining six chairs. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this
can be done?

A. 40
B. 132
C. 1440
D. 3660

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

2 Women can occupy 2 chairs out of the first four chairs in 4P2 ways.

3 men can be arranged in the remaining 6 chairs in 6P3 ways.

Hence, total no. of ways = 4P2 × 6P3 = 1440

3. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 min and pipe B can empty it in 15 min. If both the pipes are opened in an empty tank, the time
taken to make it full is

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A. 20 min
B. 25 min
C. 30 min
D. None of these

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Part filled by pipe A in 1 min = 1/10

Part empty by pipe B in 1 min = 1/15

Total tank filled in minutes =

1/10 - 1/15 = 1/30

Hence, the tank will be filled in 30 min.

4. In a chess competition involving some boys and girls of a school, every student had to play exactly one game
with every other student. It was found that in 45 games both the players were girls and in 190 games both were
boys. The number of games in which one player was a boy and the other was a girl is

A. 200
B. 216
C. 235
D. 256

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let number of girls = x

The number of boys = y

45 games in which both the players were girls

xC2 = 45

x! / 2!(x-2)! = x(x-1) = 90

Therefore, x = 10.

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190 games, where both the players were boys.

yC2 = 190 = y(y – 1) = 380

y = 20

Hence the total number of games in which one player was a boy and the other was a girl = 10
× 20 = 200

5. There are 6 tasks and 6 people. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2; task 2 must be
assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the
assignment be done?

A. 144
B. 180
C. 192
D. 360

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Task 1 can not be assigned to either person 1 or 2 i.e. there are 4 options.

Task 2 can be assigned to 3 or 4.

So, there are only 2 options for task 2.

So required no. of ways =

2 options for task 2

3 options for task 1

4 options for task 3

3 options for task 4

2 options for task 5

1 option for task 6.

Total ways = 2 × 3 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 144

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6. Directions (Q 6-10):
Read statements carefully and answer the following questions :
(i) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil.
(ii) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(iii) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(iv) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(v) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju.
Q. How is Rajinder related to Raju?

A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Brother-in-law
D. Cousin

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Raju is the son of Surinder who is the brother of Rajinder.

So, Rajinder is uncle of Raju.

7. Read statements carefully and answer the following questions :


(i) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil.
(ii) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(iii) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(iv) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(v) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju
Q. How is Rajinder related to Ashok?

A. Brother-in-law
B. Father-in-law
C. Cousin

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D. Maternal Uncle

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Ashok is the son of Seeta whose brother is Rajinder.

So, Rajinder is the maternal uncle of Ashok.

8. Read statements carefully and answer the following questions :


(i) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil.
(ii) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(iii) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(iv) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(v) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju.
Q. How is Rakesh related to Surinder?

A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Brother-in-law
D. Maternal uncle

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Rakesh is the brother of Geeta and Rajinder’s brother is Surinder who is the husband of Geeta.

9. Read statements carefully and answer the following questions :


(i) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil.
(ii) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(iii) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(iv) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(v) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju.
Q. How is Rakesh related to Rita?

A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Uncle
D. Maternal uncle

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Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Rita is the daughter of Geeta whose brother is Rakesh.

10. Read statements carefully and answer the following questions :


(i) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil.
(ii) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(iii) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(iv) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(v) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju.
Q. Sunil and Rakesh are related as

A. Brothers
B. Cousins
C. Uncle and Cousin
D. Brother-in-law

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Sunil’s wife – Seeta

Seeta is sister of Surinder.

Surinder is the wife of Geeta.

Geeta is sister of Rakesh.

11. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak
Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages
only and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24

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Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let a = Speaks one language

Let b = Speaks two language

Let c = Speaks three language

then

a + 2b + 3c = 6 +15 +6

a + 4 + 3 = 27

a = 20

Total number of persons in the group

= 20 + 2 + 1 = 23.

12. ‘X’ is twice as old as ‘Y’ 3 years ago, when ‘X’ was as old as ‘Y’ today. If the difference between their ages as
present is 3 years, how old is ‘X’ at present?

A. 18 years
B. 12 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let present age of X = x years

Present age of Y = (x – 3) years

3 years ago, age of X = (x – 3) years

Age of Y = (x – 6) years

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According to the question,

x – 3 = 2(x – 6)

x – 3 = 2x – 12

12 – 3 = 2x – x

x = 9 years

13. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% in the test and
all questions carry equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test?

A. 36
B. 30
C. 25
D. 20

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let total no. of questions be x.

Now, Right questions = 12 = 60% of x.

0.6x = 12

x = 20

14. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with
a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for
the whole journey is

A. 18 km/hr
B. 24 km/hr
C. 30 km/hr
D. 36 km/hr

Correct Answer : A

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Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let total distance = x km.

Average speed = total distance / total time

t = x/v

x1 = x/3 , x2 = x/3, x3 = x/3

x/(t1 + t2 + t3) = x / (x1/v1 + x2/v2 + x3/v3)

= (3 * 60)/10= 18 km/hr.

15. In an examination, 52% candidates failed in English and 42% failed in Mathematics. If 17% candidates failed
in both English and Mathematics, what percentage of candidates passed in both the subjects?

A. 18%
B. 21%
C. 23%
D. 25%

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total number of candidates = 100%

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Percentage of candidates passed in both the subjects

= {100 – (25 + 17 + 35)} % = 23%

16. In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-
wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. The number of cars parked is

A. 35
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let number of cars be x

Let number of scooters / motorbikes = y

Total number of parked vehicles = x + y

According to question

4x + 2y = 2 (x + y) + 100

4x + 2y = 2 x + 2y + 100

2x = 100

x = 50

Hence, Number of cars parked is 50.

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17. Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be based on the passage
only
Passage 1—
In high-income economies, a national minimum wage policy does raise incomes of low-wage workers, given
better enforcement and governance standards. It also increases demand, with the propensity to consume higher
at lower income levels. The Indian Constitution defines a ‘living wage’, and we have the Minimum Wages Act,
1948. But compliance has been weak, as abundant underemployed farm labour depresses wages.
Q. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. Low wages, constrains aggregate demand and hurt welfare of workers
2. High wages can lead to unemployment since firms would be unable to pay more wages

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Assumption is an argument or imaginary claim that can be surely based on the claims given in
the passage.

The passage informs us various positive consequences of having minimum wages i.e. wages
that are fair and adequate,

1. It will increase income of workers—so low wages means welfare of workers is hit
2. High wage means high consumption and so high demand—so low wage affects demand

Statement 1 is therefore correct

There is no mentioning of link between high wages and unemployment. While it is a normal
perception, it is not given in the passage, hence it cannot be assumed. 2 is wrong.

This is not a premise based on the passage.

Hence, 1 only or A is the answer.

18. Passage 2—
Though related, political, public and private morality are not identical. While in one’s personal life, in our
dealings with those with whom we have close daily encounters such as our family, friends or ‘servants’, we
can’t help but be partial, and while in the larger political domain, where we face people with different religio-
philosophical sensibilities, we can’t entirely escape some degree of partiality to our own world view, this
domain requires the impartial or just use of power for the good of all.
Q. Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?

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A. Impartiality is the defining future of political life


B. Secularism should essential in politics of all nations regardless of politician’s personal
beliefs
C. Political ethics is grounded in private ethics and vice-versa
D. Politician’s morality for private and professional life has to be distinct

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Statement C is wrong because the passage clarifies us that private and political morality are
distinct. While they are related there is no mention of mutual dependency,

Statement B is very narrow since the passage is not only aboùt religion it involves every walk
of life in political domain. So it is wrong choice.

Statement A is again narrow because the passage is not just about political life. It even
discusses the private life. Hence it is not the most important one.

Statement D is the most important choice since it gives the summary of whole passage. The
passage tells that

1. While we can show different kinds of morals and preferences to people in personal
relations it is not possible in political life
2. Hence for instance while we can be partial in private life we cant do the same in
political life. So a politician should have different morals for private and political
life. Thus D is the best choice.

Hence D is the answer.

19. Passage 3—
It is unfortunate that in the past 25 years of liberalisation, some people have painted the image that
environment and development go against each other. They are hampering crucial development by protesting
against issues, such as infrastructure development, in border areas. They still think that the country should
carry its tanks and weapons on donkeys. But such people are few. Yet their demands are genuine, they are
struggling because of wrong planning and policies that stopped the fruits of development reaching them. There
is always a smooth way out if one sticks to rules.
Q. Which of the following most significant inference that can be made from the above passage?

A. Whatever conflicts have emerged in the past 25 years are due to wrong remedies
B. Protests against development projects are caused by misconception about development
C. Liberalisation does not mean getting freedom from something it is to make the
development process smooth
D. In post-liberalisation period, environmental impact assessment rules were not strictly
complied with

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Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage argues that,

1. Environment and development are not opposite


2. Poor policies caused non-reaching of benefits of development to poor who are affected
by environmental degradation
3. By taking the developments to them we can ensure even after doing liberal economic
activity environment and growth are not against each other.

B is not the best choice because passage clarifies protests are done due to wrong remedies for
those affected by development projects

C is wrong since it is beyond the context of the passage

D is not the best choice because it a sweeping generalisation of passage content. Passage tells
remedies are not right, it does not tell EIA rules are per se not complied with.

A is best choice, because we know from passage wrong planning and remedies as main reason.

Thus A is the answer

20. Passage 4—
If the world manages to keep climate risks under check, the global GDP can grow marginally to 2.5 per cent,
from a decade-low of 2.3 per cent in 2019. But if the world fails to address them, GDP growth is projected to
be down to around 1.8 per cent. A slowdown in global economic growth would have a serious impact on global
and national efforts required to meet sustainable development goals. Climate risks could inflict severe and
long-lasting damage on development prospects. They also threaten to encourage a further rise in inward-
looking policies, at a point when global cooperation is paramount.
Q. On the basis of above assumptions following assumptions have been made:
1. USA should reverse its withdrawal from Paris Pact
2. A strategic approach for increased access to clean energy is need of the hour
3. Antarctic ice sheet meltdown is a fatal climate risk

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?


A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 3 only

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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The passage has one main information: The climate risk if not managed will bring down the
economic growth. Hence we can assume, all logical ways of managing climate risk.

1. There is no specific detail about USA or Paris pact. Hence it is not assumable
2. Thus an approach to increasing access for clean energy is assumable
3. There is no mention of Antarctic ice sheet so it not assumable.

Thus 2 alone is correct.

21. Passage 4—
If the world manages to keep climate risks under check, the global GDP can grow marginally to 2.5 per cent,
from a decade-low of 2.3 per cent in 2019. But if the world fails to address them, GDP growth is projected to
be down to around 1.8 per cent. A slowdown in global economic growth would have a serious impact on global
and national efforts required to meet sustainable development goals. Climate risks could inflict severe and
long-lasting damage on development prospects. They also threaten to encourage a further rise in inward-
looking policies, at a point when global cooperation is paramount.
Q. Which of the following statements are correct in light of the above passage?
1. Economic health is correlative to sustainability of climate
2. While high GDP growth can occur even without green growth approaches it will badly intensify
climate risk

Select the answer using the code given below:


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage informs,

1. With statistics that GDP growth rate will be low if climate risk is not handled
2. Handling climate risk needs green growth approach
3. Thus high growth and green growth are two sides of same coin unlike common
perception
4. Hence,
Economic health that is GDP growth and climate sustainability are related
Without green growth high growth is not feasible

Hence 1 only is true.

A is the answer.

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22. Passage 5—
Urban commons are the common property resources like lakes, ponds, forests, beaches, etc. in city. Yet,
across cities the commons seem to be the most dispensable of spaces. Forests like Mumbai’s Aarey are
threatened for infrastructure projects, wetlands in Thiruvananthapuram acquired for technoparks and trees in
South Delhi felled to build apartments. Commons represent those rare spaces in increasingly segregated cities
where the rich and the poor can still meet, children of all classes play together and collaborations for
conservation can occur. However, smart city plans is evicting people who depend on them most. Beach sides,
river fronts, lakes and parks become gated spaces, accessible only to those who can pay, and available only for
recreational use, often coupled with “entertainment” in the form of flashing lights, loud music and food courts
that evict wildlife.
Q. The author seems to argue that,

A. Fraternity in society needs protection of urban commons


B. Urban commons are almost ignored in city planning
C. Coastal ecology is most hit due to urban commons destruction
D. None of the above are stressed by the author

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

C is wrong because urban commons is not just about coasts nor there is a information that
coasts are more in in comparison with other elements.

A is not best choice because it is far fetched statement. Urban commons guarantee
interaction of rich and poor but it is an exaggeration to claim its role in social fraternity. So it
is correct but not best choice.

B is correct since,

1. Policies of Delhi or Mumbai


2. Smart city plan

All have affected urban commons badly clarifying how they were ignored.

Hence B is the answer.

23. Passage 5—
Urban commons are the common property resources like lakes, ponds, forests, beaches, etc. in city. Yet, across cities
the commons seem to be the most dispensable of spaces. Forests like Mumbai’s Aarey are threatened for
infrastructure projects, wetlands in Thiruvananthapuram acquired for technoparks and trees in South Delhi felled to
build apartments. Commons represent those rare spaces in increasingly segregated cities where the rich and the poor
can still meet, children of all classes play together and collaborations for conservation can occur. However, smart city
plans is evicting people who depend on them most. Beach sides, river fronts, lakes and parks become gated spaces,
accessible only to those who can pay, and available only for recreational use, often coupled with “entertainment” in
the form of flashing lights, loud music and food courts that evict wildlife.
Q. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:

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1. Like poor, rich and middle class will also suffer with de-commonising of commons
2. Destruction of commons not just have ecological consequences, it creates even social concerns

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The passage tells two things:

1. These resources are commons, they are needed for all


2. Also rich and poor relations is affected when urban commons are lost

So, both are correct:

1. All classes are affected so 1 is correct


2. They impact ecology and also have impact on social relations

So, both are correct.

24. Passage 6—
We are still in a dark tunnel. Many economists believe that we can find our way out of economic slowdown,
even at this stage, if the government took the fiscal measures necessary to arrest the slide, boost
demand/consumption, and, consequently, revive production and jobs. The key is expenditure — government
and private consumption expenditure. It does not matter how much is spent under which head as long the
money is found and spent.
Q. On the basis of above assumptions following assumptions have been made:
1. Central government bring petrol into GST tax net to make it cheaper
2. Cash should be put in hands of consumers to increase consumption
3. Use of food stocks to put food in hands of the poor families is essential
4. Funds should be allocated for recapitalising banks
5. Wage-based employment for doing massive public works can be started

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?


A. 1, 2, 3 & 4
B. 1, 2, 3 & 5
C. 1, 2, 4 & 5
D. 2, 3, 4 & 5

Correct Answer : D

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Answer Justification :

We know that assumption should be based on facts in the passage. It should be assumable.

1. There is no mention of GST or central government role so it is wrong


2. Since consumption has to be increased as per jobs all the measures in 2 3 4 and 5 are
assumable and they are just logical statement not specific factual statements

Thus D is the best choice.

We should not choose a statement that is factual as long as the fact is not mentioned in the
passage.

25. Passage 7—
Humankind always wanted to promote ‘good’ and avoid ‘evil’. To talk about the good is to talk about something
real that exists in the object itself, independent of the perception of it. There is such a thing as an eternal realm
of forms or ideas, and that the greatest of the ideas and the essence of being was goodness, or ‘The good’. The
good can be defined as a perfect and eternal idea, or blueprint. The good is the right relation between all that
exists, and this exists in the mind of the divine, or some heavenly realm.
Q. The author seems to argue that,

A. Good is conformity with divineness of almighty


B. Good is the real objects we see around us
C. Good is harmony among everything in universe
D. Good is perfection, so it is beyond reach of many

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The passage is complex and it needs to be handled carefully.

D is wrong. While it talks about perfection passage does not talk about it being beyond reach
of many

B is wrong. Good is not the object but the idea or form within it.

Good is not about almighty since it is not mentioned in the passage. Even if divine is
considered almighty it is not a best choice than C.

Good is about right relation between all that exists so it is harmony among everything in
universe.

So C is answer.

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26. Passage 8—
While women are not forbidden to drive in India, it is rare to see women in the commercial driving sector
outside of all-female private taxi services. Putting a woman in the driver’s seat is not just about equal access to
livelihoods, but it is also about changing mindsets. Livelihood options for resource-poor women tend to be
traditional in nature, such as sewing and embroidery.
Q. The author seems to argue,

A. For legal reforms that can remove barriers to women in non-traditional jobs
B. Against traditional jobs for their lack of more vacancies and jobs offers they provide
C. For encouragement of non-traditional jobs to alleviate gender stereotypes
D. Against traditional jobs for women among poor since they don’t pay equal wages

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The passage tells that,

1. Driving is a profession which can change mindset about women


2. It is given that such women jobs are rare as the traditional options are other jobs

A is wrong because there is no legal barrier to women in driving etc.

B is wrong because there is no mention of lack of vacancies in traditional jobs.

D is wrong since there is no mention of equal wages issues in the passage. Hence, D is also
wrong.

Hence C is correct. Passage tells there is a possibility of changing mind-set if women are
placed in non-traditional jobs.

Hence, C is correct answer.

27. A man pointing to a photograph says, “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal grandmother.”
How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has no other sister?

A. Cousin
B. Sister-in-law
C. Mother
D. Mother-in-law

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

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Explanation:

Clearly, the lady is the grandmother of man’s sister’s son i.e., the mother of the mother of
man’s sister’s son

i.e.the mother of man’s sister.

So, the lady is the man's mother.

28. A vessel is filled with liquid, 4 parts of which are water and 7 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be
drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

A. 14/33
B. 33/14
C. 3/14
D. 1/11

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Suppose the vessel initially contains 11 Liter of liquid.

Let x Liter of this liquid be replaced with water.

Quantity of water in new mixture = (4 - 4x/11 + x)L

Quantity of syrup in new mixture = (7 - 7x/11) L

4 - 4x/11 + x = 7- 7x/11

14x/11 = 3

x = 33/14

So, part of the mixture replaced =

(33/14 * 1/11) = 3/14

29. In a cricket match, the number of runs scored by any team is equal to power of the number of batsmen playing
in the team. Six batsmen played in team A and eleven batsmen played in team B. If team A won by 95 runs,
then find the runs scored by team A.

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A. 216
B. 220
C. 210
D. 230

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the power of the terms be x and y.

6^x – 11^y = 95

Put x = 3, y = 2 (By trial and error)

216 – 121 = 95

Hence satisfied.

Score of team A = 6^3 = 216

30. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it is 60. When he counted the legs of the
animals he found it was 200. If the zoo had either peacocks or tigers, how many tigers were there in the zoo?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 20
D. 40

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the number of tigers be x and the number of peacocks be y, then:

x + y = 60

4x + 2y = 200

So, x = 40 and y = 20

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31. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that the product of the numbers of items
received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this
distribution be done?

A. 21
B. 24
C. 27
D. 33

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Suppose three people have been given a, b and c number of items.

Then, a × b × c = 30

Now, There can be 5 cases :

Case I : When one of them is given 30 items and rest two 1 item each.

So, the number of ways for (30 × 1 × 1) = 3! / 2! = 3

(As two of them have same number of items)

Case II : Similarly, number of ways for (10 × 3 × 1) = 3! = 6

Case III : Number of ways for (15 × 2 × 1) = 3! = 6

Case IV : Number of ways for (6 × 5 × 1) = 3! = 6

Case V : Number of ways for (5 × 3 × 2) = 3! = 6

Here, either of these 5 cases are possible.

Hence, total number of ways = 3 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 27

32. In how many different ways can four books A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order
such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?

A. 9
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18

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Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let us take books A and B as one i.e., they are always

continuous.

Now, number of books = 4 – 2 + 1 = 3

These three books can be arranged in 3! ways and also

A and B can be arranged in 2 ways among themselves.

So, the number of ways when books A and B are always continuous = 2 × 3!

Total number of ways of arrangement of A, B, C and D = 4!

Hence, number of ways when A and B are never continuous

= Total number of ways – number of ways when A and B always continuous

= 4! – 2 × 3! = 12

33. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B and
taller than A. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/her?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

We have: E < A < B, A < D < B.

Since C is the tallest

We have: E < A < D < B < C.

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Clearly, D lies in the middle.

34. Soldier : Regiment :: ?

A. Wheels : Bearings
B. Coil : Motor
C. Book : Printer
D. Nitrogen : Gas

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Soldiers form part of a Regiment as coils form a part of the motor. This is part and whole
relationship.

35. Child A is less intelligent than child B. The child C is less intelligent than the child D. Child B is less
intelligent than child C and child A is more intelligent than child E.

Which child is the most intelligent?


A. A
B. B
C. D
D. E

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

We have a sequence:

A < B, C < D, B < C and E < A.

So, the sequence becomes:

E < A < B < C < D.

Clearly, child D is the most intelligent.

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36. X and Y start moving towards each other from two places 200 m apart. After walking 60 m, Y turns left and
goes 20 m, then he turns right and goes 40 m. He then turns right again and comes back to the road on which
he had started walking. If A and B walk with the same speed, what is the distance between them now?

A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 40 m
D. 50 m

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Clearly Y moves 60 m from Q upto A, then 20 m upto B, 40 m upto C and then upto D.

So, AD – BC = 40 m.

QD = (60 + 40)m = 100 m.

Since X and Y travel with the same speed, A will travel the same speed along the horizontal as
B travels at the same time. i.e. (60 + 20 + 40 + 20) = 140 m.

So, X travels 140 m upto A.

Distance between X and Y = AD – (100 – 60)m = 40 m.

37. Two cars A and B start simultaneously from a certain place at the speed of 30 km/h and 45 km/hr,
respectively. The car B reaches the destination 2 h earlier than A. What is the distance between the starting
point and destination?

A. 90 km
B. 180 km
C. 270 km
D. 360 km

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Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the distance between starting and their destination be x km.

t2 – t1 = 2h

x/30 - x/45 = 2

((3x - 2x) / 90) = 2

x/90 = 2

x = 180 km.

38. A milkman bought 15 kg of milk and mixed 3 kg of water in it. If the price per kg of the mixture becomes
Rs.22, what is the cost price of the milk per kg?

A. Rs.28.00
B. Rs.26.40
C. Rs.24.00
D. Rs.22.00

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the cost price of milk x per kg.

Price of 15kg of milk = 15x.

Now, mix 3kg of water, therefore quantity of mixture

= (15 + 3) kg = 18 kg

So, price of mixture is Rs.22 per kg

According to the question.

15x = 22 × 18

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x = 22 * 18/15 = 26.40

39. A boy has enough money to buy 20 exercise books. If each book cost 25 paise less, he could buy two more
books and still have 70 paise left. How much money had he originally?

A. 45
B. 48
C. 50
D. 52

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the original price of each book = Rs. x

20 x = 22(x – 0.25) + 0.70

2x = 4.8

x = Rs.2.40

He had 20 × 2.40 = Rs.48

40. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West
Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice, and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice. Which country
has lost the most number of times?

A. India
B. Australia
C. New Zealand
D. West Indies

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Australia was defeated twice by the West Indies.

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India was defeated twice by the West Indies.

West Indies was defeated twice by Australia.

New Zealand was defeated twice by India and twice by West Indies i.e. 4 times in all.

41. Passage:
In fact, one of the major factors that depress the price of agricultural land is the ban on purchase of
agricultural land by people other than farmers. This does not allow the higher prices that buyers other than
traditional farmers could have paid for the land. Lands used as orchards, farm land near tourist locations,
scenic land, lands suitable for farming and habitation by middle and upper middle classes, farm lands with
easy access to central places and areas with much potential for gentlemen farming or corporate farming are so
affected. It also leads to much under investment in land for farming and for dual use of land.
Q. Which of the following best describes the crux of this passage?

A. Land-based restrictions is cause of poverty among farmers


B. Land is not put to its best social use
C. Land-sale norms need immediate change
D. Land is seen with conservative mentality by policy makers

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Crux is the most important and summating point in the passage.

There is no mention of information that land sale restrictions are main cause or even a cause
of poverty. While it can be an assumption, it cannot be the crux of the passage.

So, A is wrong,

C is a corollary or assumption not the crux in the passage. Hence, C is wrong.

D is considerable but not the best choice since B is more evident, obvious and much stressed
by author.

B is correct because the land sale restrictions meant that they cannot be used for various
social uses like tourism, corporate farming, etc.

Hence B is the answer.

42. Passage :
There is nothing universal or eternal about our rights. Universal, eternal and natural are useful as rhetoric. We use those terms to suggest that rights
should be universal and eternal. But to imply that they are ‘innate’ is to weaken our claims to them by severing our rights from the ceaseless struggle
needed to preserve them. Indeed, human rights are a recent creation. For example, until the mid- 18th century, almost no one opposed slavery as
such.
Q. What is the most significant and logical corollary of made by this passage?

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A. Rights are eternal if we protect them eternally


B. Rights are born with us and die with us
C. Rights are not naturally available
D. Rights are available only among civilised lot

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Corollary is a proposition made from an already existing proof.

The passage is about rights not being a natural commodity rather a commodity we achieve by
struggling. They are not innate so they are not universal and eternal,

1. Hence A is against the passage


2. B is against the passage since it informs us rights are not innate
3. C is correct, they are not naturally available
4. D is beyond the context of the passage, there is no mention of civilisation here.

Hence, C is the answer.

43. Passage :
For a long time, it was an uncontested truth that “in all nations, people tend to convert socioeconomic
resources into participation”. However, recent findings have revealed that it is exactly the highly educated and
well-off citizens in post-industrial democracies who are participating less and less in politics today, as
compared to their predecessors. It is in the light of these findings that individualism becomes not only a
culturally intriguing phenomenon but a politically explosive one.
Q. The most crucial message conveyed by the passage is:

A. Socio-economic well-being may weaken with less political participation


B. Self-reliance of rich is a double-edged sword
C. Individualism is responsible for erosion some civic virtues
D. Elitism is the cause of individualism and political indifference

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The passage tells that,

1. In industrial countries well educated and wealthy have shown poor participation
2. This is a problem of fatal level for politics—here civic politics (citizen participation), so
individualism affects some civic virtues.

So, C is the answer.

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A is absurd and so wrong,

B is beyond the context of this passage and so wrong,

D is wrong, here richness is claimed as a reason, all rich don’t show elitism and it is a different
social dimension.

Hence, C is the answer.

44. Passage :
Intelligence enabled by data patterns, rather than algorithms, has been the single biggest leap forward in AI in
recent years. To understand a related concern, we need to know how this training works. Much like children,
intelligent machines learn by examples. You don’t describe a cat in minute detail to a child. You simply point
to one. Over time, children—and machines fed with cat photos—understand the essence of “catness".
Recognizing a cat is uncontroversial. On the one hand, human judges can’t compete with the caseload and
research capabilities of AI, nor apply laws and precedents with the same unerring consistency. On the other
hand, it will do us well to remember that AI-powered “robo-judges" will function only as well as the data they
ingest, much like pointing out the correct animal to a child.
Q. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Accuracy is not guaranteed in AI decisions
2. AI cannot be as productive as humans
3. Data fed to machines is a potential peril in AI technologies

Select the valid assumptions:


A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 & 3 only Join us at Telegram
Search → Upsc 4 EveryOne
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

The passage informs us that:

1. AI works based on data it is fed with


2. AI can overcompete men in some ways
3. AI cannot do what human can do in some ways

If data goes wrong, accuracy is not a guarantee, hence 1 is correct.

AI can be productive as humans in some ways so 2 is wrong

3 is correct as the main crux of passage is problems the way AI is trained with possibly wrong
data.

Hence 1 & 3 are correct,


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D is the answer.

45. Passage :
Intelligence enabled by data patterns, rather than algorithms, has been the single biggest leap forward in AI in
recent years. To understand a related concern, we need to know how this training works. Much like children,
intelligent machines learn by examples. You don’t describe a cat in minute detail to a child. You simply point
to one. Over time, children—and machines fed with cat photos—understand the essence of “catness".
Recognizing a cat is uncontroversial. On the one hand, human judges can’t compete with the caseload and
research capabilities of AI, nor apply laws and precedents with the same unerring consistency. On the other
hand, it will do us well to remember that AI-powered “robo-judges" will function only as well as the data they
ingest, much like pointing out the correct animal to a child.
Q. Which of the following is incorrect in light of the above passage?
1. AI can perpetuate the biases existing among humans
2. AI cannot replace the need for human skills in some areas

Code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
1. AI can perpetuate the biases in humans if data fed is biased, so 1 is correct
2. AI cannot replace humans since humans are needed in many ways yet

Hence 1 and 2 are correct.

C is the answer.

46. Passage :
Nanomedicine has the potential to revolutionize the way we detect and treat damage to the human body.
Although nanomedicines have demonstrated therapeutic advantages, their translation has not progressed as
rapidly as the plethora of positive preclinical results would have suggested. The experimental development of
nanomedicines is continually progressing at a fast pace, however significant challenges still exist in promoting
these platforms into clinically feasible therapies. Key issues related to the clinical development of
nanoparticulate nanomedicines include biological challenges, biocompatibility and safety, large scale
manufacturing, government regulations, intellectual property (IP), and overall cost-effectiveness in comparison
to current therapies.
Q. Which of the following is the most crucial, scientific and logical corollary that can be made from the above
passage?

A. Communication and collaboration between experts involved in all stage of nano-


pharmaceutical development can go a long way

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B. The sector suffers due to want of smart approaches to determine short-term and long-
term health risk which are needed for clinical trials completion
C. Bureaucratic nature of the regulation of clinical trials can be attributed to the sorry-state
of nano-therapy development
D. Nano-technology is a risky venture in comparison with conventional therapies hence
there is a socio-political and cultural inertia towards it.

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

As per the passage, the discoveries of nano medicines are not getting translated into
practically usable therapies because of various challenges in multiple stages of the medicine
research, development and approval.

Hence it is appropriate to argue that collaboration and communication between personalities


and experts from these stages would make the process smooth and ensure the discovery
becomes an usable technology. Hence A is correct.

There is no mention of social resistance to it hence D is wrong.

While government regulation is given as a problem, it was not said that bureaucratic nature is
the problem. Hence C is wrong.

While risk is considered in the passage it is not the main corollary because A talks about the
most important argument in the passage.

47. Passage :
When you think of discipline, does it conjure images of toil and labour as you strive towards impossible goals
that you can’t wait to kick to the curb? Well, discipline doesn’t need to be about deprivation. It can become
your best friend, helping you to live your very best life. Discipline shouldn’t mean ditching fun altogether. It
just means saying yes to the fun things at the right time. There is nothing better than treating yourself after you
have done something to earn it.
Q. Which of the following is best implied by the passage?

A. Discipline is a dirty word


B. We need to view discipline with positivity
C. Discipline needs a sacrifice and little austerity
D. A self-rewarding system encourages discipline

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage gives a straightforward implication that we need not look at discipline with

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negative connotation always.

Discipline therefore should not be a dirty word, hence A is wrong

C is wrong because there is no negative connotation in author’s eye about discipline

D is relevant but not the best implication because B gives best implication.

Thus, B is the answer because,

1. The passage tells discipline is not deprivation


2. It can be made a friend, etc.

It needs to be looked positively.

48. Passage :
An amendment bill seeks to remove immunity provided to whistle-blowers from prosecution under the Official
Secrets Act (OSA) for disclosures made under the Whistle-blower protection law. Offences under the OSA are
punishable by imprisonment of up to 14 years. Threat of such stringent penalties would deter even genuine
whistle-blowers.
Q. The implication made by the passage is,

A. If the amendments moved to whistle-blower protection law is passed, there will be no


one left to protect
B. As long as official secret is a part of entrenched bureaucratic culture, we cannot have a
friendly environment for whistle-blowers
C. Mechanisms meant to protect whistle-blowers should be kept beyond purview of
amendments
D. There is a need to differentiate genuine whistle-blowers from fake ones

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

In the passage it is given that WPA is amended and an important immunity is removed which
will deprive even genuine WBs from protection. Hence, the purpose of law is defeated, if
amendment is passed.

So, A is correct,

B is absurd, the concern is not existence of culture of official secrets but lacking immunity
from OSA law

C is beyond the context of this passage,

D is also absurd because the author does not focus on good and bad WBs at all.

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Hence, A is the answer.

49. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight and thus gains 20%. For a
kilogram he uses a weight of

A. 700 g
B. 750 g
C. 800 g
D. 850 g

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let SP = CP = x

Gain percentage = x × 20/100 = x/5

Gain weight = x /5 × 1000 = 200 g

Uses weight = 1000 – 200 = 800 g

50. A man wears socks of two colours - black and brown. He has altogether 20 black socks and 20 brown socks in
a drawer. Supposing he has to take out the socks in the dark, how many must he take out to be sure that he has
at least one matching pair ?

A. 3
B. 20
C. 39
D. None of these

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Since there are socks of only two colours, so two out of any three socks must always be of the
same colour.

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51. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a member loses a game
he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum number of matches that must be played to
determine the winner ?

A. 15
B. 29
C. 61
D. None of these

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Clearly, every member except one (i.e. the winner) must lose one game to decide the winner.
Thus, the minimum number of matches to be played = 30 – 1 = 29.

52. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal length into 10
pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes ?

A. 32 rolls
B. 54 rolls
C. 108 rolls
D. 120 rolls

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Number of cuts made to cut a roll into 10 pieces = 9.

Therefore required number of rolls = (45 × 24)/9 = 120.

53. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that
order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is
the integer assigned to N?

A. 7
B. 5

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C. 4
D. 6

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

6 4 9

LMNOPQRST

Difference between P & T is 5 i.e., T = 5 + 4 = 9

Difference between N & T is 3 i.e., N = 9 – 3 = 6

So, integer assigned to N = 6

54. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20 feet before
he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8.00 a.m., at what will he
first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?

A. 4 p.m
B. 5 p.m.
C. 6 p.m.
D. 8 p.m.

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Monkey ascend in 1 hour = ( 30 – 20 ) = 10 feet.

So, the monkey ascends 90 feet in 9 hours i.e., 5 p.m.

Clearly, in the next 1 hour i.e., till 6 p.m.

The monkey ascends the remaining 30 feet to touch the flag.

55. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers there is
one captain. The number of captains in the group is ?

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A. 70
B. 75
C. 80
D. 85

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Generally we may commit the mistake of dividing 1200/15.

But out of 16 persons there is one captain.

So, it will be 1200/16 = 75

56. If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterations in the sleeves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body,
how many alterations will be required for 60 shirts?

A. 88
B. 123
C. 133
D. 143

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Number of alterations required in 1 shirt

= (2/3 + 3/4 + 4/5)

= 133/60

Number of alterations required in 60 shirts

(133/60*60) = 133

57. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is

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A. 732
B. 990
C. 1098
D. 1305

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total number of digits

= (No. of digits in 1- digit page nos. + No. of digits in 2-digit page nos. + No. of digits in 3-
digit page nos.)

= (1 × 9 + 2 × 90 + 3 × 267)

= (9 + 180 + 801) = 990.

58. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds. How many times
will they toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start ?

A. 7 times
B. 8 times
C. 9 times
D. 11 times

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

L.C.M. of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 is 420.

So, the bells will toll together after every 420 seconds i.e. 7 minutes.

Now, 7 × 8 = 56 and 7 × 9 = 63.

Thus, in 1-hour (or 60 minutes), the bells will toll together 8 times, excluding the one at the
start.

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59. Passage :
If someone treats another merely as a means, the person acts wrongly, that is, does something morally
impermissible. Some accounts of treating others merely as means seem not to yield the conclusion that if a
person treats another in this way, then he acts wrongly. On one “rough definition”, we use another merely as a
means if we both use the other and regard him as a mere instrument or tool.
Q. Which the following can be considered immoral in light of the above passage?
1. While using someone if we harm their well-being
2. When we ignore moral claims of the people we use as means
3. When we use someone as means with consent and non-exploitative manner.

Code:
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 3 only

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

The passage raises a question that using others may mean use them as means but it raises a
question will all such use be wrong?

It gives two-test for it:

1. Using them
2. Using just as an instrument

In this way we can decide morality of such use.

1 and 2 clearly shows violation of a person’s sanctity and using them as pure instrument.

But in case of 3 the sanctity of the person is upheld, not used as a tool

Hence, 3 is correct

And D is the answer.

60. Passage :
Between 1989 and 1992 Yugoslavia broke into seven pieces. Europeans who lecture the world on democracy and liberalism can’t stay
united as one “European Union” despite the common Christian cultural mono-track. In major democracies like the US, Canada, UK,
Germany, France, and Australia arrival of people from across the world has brought wider range of diversity over the decades. And they
had been traditionally lecturing rest of the world on the virtues of freedom, liberty and tolerance. But now the heavy pressure of Muslim
refugees from the poverty and terror ridden Africa and Gulf is now creating wrinkles on their foreheads. Now these ‘developed’ countries
are discovering entirely new challenges of heterogeneity and multi-cultural social setup despite the usual romantic ideals of ‘liberalism’
and ‘secularism.’ Many people foolishly think that “secularism” unites people of different “faiths” in a ‘secular’ State. In fact, the ideals of
secularism and multicultural democracy can’t survive the onslaught of religious exclusivity and fanaticism.
Q. Which of the following assumption can be made on the basis of above passage?

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1. Secularism cannot unite people


2. Developed countries have not enforced secularism effectively
3. It is wise to permit State intervention in religion

Code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Secularism has not been able to prevent separatism in many nations, hence 1 is correct.

Secularism was given promotion earlier by developed countries now they are wary of it.
However, rather than effective enforcement, negative consequences or limitations of
secularism are only discussed here. Hence, 2 is wrong.

While secularism is criticised, the permission for state intervention is not the subject matter in
this passage. Hence, 3 is wrong.

Therefore 1 only is correct.

A is the answer.

61. Passage :
Between 1989 and 1992 Yugoslavia broke into seven pieces. Europeans who lecture the world on democracy
and liberalism can’t stay united as one “European Union” despite the common Christian cultural mono-track.
In major democracies like the US, Canada, UK, Germany, France, and Australia arrival of people from across
the world has brought wider range of diversity over the decades. And they had been traditionally lecturing rest
of the world on the virtues of freedom, liberty and tolerance. But now the heavy pressure of Muslim refugees
from the poverty and terror ridden Africa and Gulf is now creating wrinkles on their foreheads. Now these
‘developed’ countries are discovering entirely new challenges of heterogeneity and multi-cultural social setup
despite the usual romantic ideals of ‘liberalism’ and ‘secularism.’ Many people foolishly think that
“secularism” unites people of different “faiths” in a ‘secular’ State. In fact, the ideals of secularism and
multicultural democracy can’t survive the onslaught of religious exclusivity and fanaticism.
Q. The author suggests that,
1. The idea of unity in diversity has a lot to teach the world
2. Rich countries have good record of preventing ethnic ghettoization

Select the correct answer:


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2

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D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Since diversity is supressed in secularism, by separating religion from State, there is much to
learn from concept of unity in diversity, also, the coming of new religions to western world
once again underscores need for UiD in these countries.

Hence, 1 is correct.

Rich countries have not shown any record of preventing ghettisation nor they are confident
about preventing them in light of entry Muslim refugees.

Hence, 2 is wrong.

Therefore, 1 only is correct and 2 is wrong.

A is the answer.

62. Passage :
We often hear statements such as “knowledge is power” and “an investment in knowledge always pays the best
interest”, but, in reality, we cannot conclude that all contribution bestowed by knowledge is automatically
beneficial for the betterment of the populace as a whole. Although, it is true that the lack of knowledge within
a person can act as a deterrence throughout his existence, keeping him from reaching his potential greatness in
life, its acquisition without the possession of upright human principles can arguably do more harm than good.
Q. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is/are the most rational and practical
implication/implications?
1. Human values are essential part of any purposeful education
2. Two pillars of human existence are, values and knowledge
3. Without values intellectual people can do rather monumentally ill-advised things

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

The passage argues that,

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1. For survival and achieving success humans need knowledge


2. But knowledge alone will do more harm than good—therefore statement 2 and 3 are
correct
3. Knowledge should be coupled with principles—hence statement 1 is correct
4. Investment in education will not give automatic common good—thus statement 1 is
correct.

Hence, all the statements are correct and D is the correct answer.

63. Passage :
We often hear statements such as “knowledge is power” and “an investment in knowledge always pays the best
interest”, but, in reality, we cannot conclude that all contribution bestowed by knowledge is automatically
beneficial for the betterment of the populace as a whole. Although, it is true that the lack of knowledge within
a person can act as a deterrence throughout his existence, keeping him from reaching his potential greatness in
life, its acquisition without the possession of upright human principles can arguably do more harm than good.
Q. The author seems to suggest that,

A. Knowledge without justice is not wisdom, it is cunningness


B. Human agency is rooted in value education
C. Common good needs knowledge and ethics, individual good needs knowledge only
D. Humans are ignorant of role played by ethics in making them better race

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Since, knowledge without ethics will harm the society, it may become cunningness rather than
being wisdom. Hence, A is correct.

Human agency is rooted in education, not necessarily value education. Hence, B is wrong.

Common good needs both value and education, however, the author does not argue that
individual good is guaranteed by education alone, hence C is wrong.

It is not the argument of author that, humans are not upholding principles because they are
ignorant of it. Hence, D is also wrong,

Therefore, A is the answer.

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Total Marks : 200
CSAT-3 (Subject)
( INSTA Prelims Test Series 2021 )

64. Passage :
India’s guidelines for watershed development programmes have been revised three times since their
introduction in 1986. They aim to make investments in watershed management have a long-lasting impact on
crop production and rural livelihoods in rainfed cropping areas. They are reviewed periodically, but only to
accommodate cost escalations and revise targets. The current guidelines were introduced in November 2000.
These new guidelines have increased investment levels and promote programmes to benefit landless people;
but they do not guarantee that the new programme-based top-down approaches will be successful. India’s large
investments in rural development have not produced a matching transformation on the ground. Yet, some
initiatives have achieved success—they have improved their socio-economic conditions in a relatively short
time by linking improved in situ moisture conservation with economic activities that build up social capital.
Q. Which of the following inferences can be made from the above passage?
1. Lack of community ownership left the investments in watersheds unyielding
2. Recharging of aquifers is not a prime concern of the present policy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

nill

65. Passage :
India’s guidelines for watershed development programmes have been revised three times since their
introduction in 1986. They aim to make investments in watershed management have a long-lasting impact on
crop production and rural livelihoods in rainfed cropping areas. They are reviewed periodically, but only to
accommodate cost escalations and revise targets. The current guidelines were introduced in November 2000.
These new guidelines have increased investment levels and promote programmes to benefit landless people;
but they do not guarantee that the new programme-based top-down approaches will be successful. India’s large
investments in rural development have not produced a matching transformation on the ground. Yet, some
initiatives have achieved success—they have improved their socio-economic conditions in a relatively short
time by linking improved in situ moisture conservation with economic activities that build up social capital.
Q. The passage seems to imply that,
1. Knee-jerk reactions to water stress characterise the water policy paradigm in India
2. Watershed development is a viable model for the economic development of poverty-stricken
rural areas

Select correct answer using the code given below:


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

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CSAT-3 (Subject)
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Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage does not imply that the government has shown knee-jerk reaction which means
not being proactive but being reactive. It only says the policy design is top down.

Hence, 1 is wrong.

It is proven from some success stories as per the passage that, moisture conservation will lead
to economic developmemt and as said in beginning of the passage there is a link with rural
development.

Hence, 2 is correct,

Thus B is the answer.

66. (66-70) Study the following table carefully to answer the given questions.
Following table is the number of Students appeared and qualified for an exam from different states.

Q. The number of appeared candidates from state MP increased by 70% from 2005 to 2006 then what is the
number of Qualified students in 2006 in the same state ?

A. 380
B. 460
C. 366
D. 420

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

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CSAT-3 (Subject)
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Explanation :

Appeared candidates from MP in 2006


= 430*170/100 = 430+301 = 731
Qualified = 731*50/100 = 365.5 = 366

67. Following table is the number of Students appeared and qualified for an exam from different states.

Q. The no of students qualified from Assam in 2007 is 246, then what is the ratio of Qualified students and not
Qualified students in the same year in Assam ?

A. 59:41
B. 41:59
C. 59:46
D. 42:55

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
41% = 246
100% = 600
246:354 = 41 : 59

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CSAT-3 (Subject)
( INSTA Prelims Test Series 2021 )

68. Following table is the number of Students appeared and qualified for an exam from different states.

Q. If the total number of students Qualified in 2008 in all the states together is 712, then the no of students
Qualified in state UPis what % of the total no of students appeared in the State UP(round off to the whole
number) ?

A. 64%
B. 56%
C. 50%
D. 48%

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
560*x% + 530*48% + 564*34% = 712
560*x/100 + 254+192 = 712
560*x/100 = 266
X = 266*100/560 = 47.5%

69. Following table is the number of Students appeared and qualified for an exam from different states.

Q. Find the average number of students qualified from the state UP in all the years together ?

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A. 410
B. 278
C. 340
D. 360

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
Avg =[400*68% + 670*62% + 520*76% + 266 + 630*56%]/5
= 272+415+395+266+353/5
= 1701/5 = 340.2 = 340

70. Following table is the number of Students appeared and qualified for an exam from different states.

Q. What is the difference between the number of students Qualified in 2009 and 2007 in all the states together
?

A. 52
B. 69
C. 43
D. 37

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
2007 : 395+292+246 = 933
2009 : 353 + 250 + 382 = 985

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CSAT-3 (Subject)
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Diff = 985 – 933 =52

71. Directions (71-75):


Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

In a College there are 1200 students who have visited 5 different cities Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and
Jodhpur.
Forty five percent of the total students are boys.
Thirty percent of the total girls visited Mumbai.
Two-fifths of the total girls visited Delhi.
Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls who visited Delhi.
Two-thirds of the remaining girls visited Kolkata.
Total no of students who visited Mumbai is 300.
Twenty percent of the total boys visited Delhi.
Forty percent of the total boys visited Jodhpur.
Equal no of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.
Q. What is the total number of girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata together ?

A. 432
B. 524
C. 486
D. 506

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total number of students = 1200

Total number of students who visited Mumbai = 300.

Total number of boys = 45% of total students = 45/100 x 1200 = 540

Total number of girls =1200 – 540 = 660

Girls

Girls who visited Mumbai = 30% of 660 = 198

Girls who visited Delhi =2/5 of total girls = 2/5 x 660 = 264

Total number of girls who visited Jodhpur = 264/2 = 132

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Remaining girls = 660 - (264+132+198) = 66

Number of girls who visited Kolkata = ⅔ x 66 = 44

Number of girls who visited Varanasi = 660 - (198+264+132+44) = 22

Boys

Total number of boys = 540

Total number of students who visited Mumbai = 300

Boys who visited Mumbai = 300 - 198 = 102

Boys who visited Delhi = 20% of 540 = 108

Boys who visited Jodhpur = 40% of 540 = 216

Remaining Boys = 540 - (102+108+216)= 114

Boys who visited Varanasi and Kolkata = 114/2 = 57

Girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata together

= 264+198+44 =506

72. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

In a College there are 1200 students who have visited 5 different cities Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and Jodhpur.
Forty five percent of the total students are boys.
Thirty percent of the total girls visited Mumbai.
Two-fifths of the total girls visited Delhi.
Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls who visited Delhi.
Two-thirds of the remaining girls visited Kolkata.
Total no of students who visited Mumbai is 300.
Twenty percent of the total boys visited Delhi.
Forty percent of the total boys visited Jodhpur.
Equal no of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.
Q. What is the average number of boys who visited Jodhpur, Varanasi and Mumbai ?

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A. 187
B. 125
C. 321
D. 245

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation :

Avg number of boys who visited Jodhpur, Varanasi and Mumbai

= (216+57+102)/3 = 125

73. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

In a College there are 1200 students who have visited 5 different cities Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and
Jodhpur.
Forty five percent of the total students are boys.
Thirty percent of the total girls visited Mumbai.
Two-fifths of the total girls visited Delhi.
Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls who visited Delhi.
Two-thirds of the remaining girls visited Kolkata.
Total no of students who visited Mumbai is 300.
Twenty percent of the total boys visited Delhi.
Forty percent of the total boys visited Jodhpur.
Equal no of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.
Q. Total no of boys who visited Kolkata is what percentage of the total no of girls ?

A. 8.7%
B. 37.8%
C. 26.9%
D. 12.6%

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
Total number of girls = 660

Boys who visited Kolkata = 57


% = (57*100)/660 = 8.63% = 8.7%

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CSAT-3 (Subject)
( INSTA Prelims Test Series 2021 )

74. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

In a College there are 1200 students who have visited 5 different cities Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and
Jodhpur.
Forty five percent of the total students are boys.
Thirty percent of the total girls visited Mumbai.
Two-fifths of the total girls visited Delhi.
Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls who visited Delhi.
Two-thirds of the remaining girls visited Kolkata.
Total no of students who visited Mumbai is 300.
Twenty percent of the total boys visited Delhi.
Forty percent of the total boys visited Jodhpur.
Equal no of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.
Q. What is the ratio between the total no of girls students to the total no of boys students?

A. 13:5
B. 9:7
C. 11:9
D. 9:11

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation :
G = 660
B = 540
660:540 = 66:54 = 11:9

75. Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

In a College there are 1200 students who have visited 5 different cities Delhi, Kolkata, Varanasi, Mumbai and
Jodhpur.
Forty five percent of the total students are boys.
Thirty percent of the total girls visited Mumbai.
Two-fifths of the total girls visited Delhi.
Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls who visited Delhi.
Two-thirds of the remaining girls visited Kolkata.
Total no of students who visited Mumbai is 300.
Twenty percent of the total boys visited Delhi.
Forty percent of the total boys visited Jodhpur.
Equal no of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.
Q. What is the difference between the total no of boys students visited Delhi, Varanasi to the total no of girls
students visited Kolkata and Jodhpur ?

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A. 78
B. 56
C. 34
D. 11

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:
Delhi+Varanasi = 108+57 = 165
Kolkata+Jodhpur = 44+132 = 176
Difference = 176-165 =11

76. Passage:
Love is nothing more than deep caring in action. It is the selfless promotion of the growth of the other. This
leads us to a sense of oneness with life. Operating from the space beyond the mind, (i.e., anchored in one’s
Essence) creates an all-round positivity. This has implications on public administrators work. Everything of
value to human life begins to spontaneously manifest in the life of the administrator and also the people whom
his or her work touches. As people start loving service, corruption and other addictions begin to spontaneously
drop off. One does not need to legislate for ethical behaviour, or police the people in the department.
Q. Which of the following is crux of the passage?

A. Public administration needs to be spiritualised


B. Love is the only code of conduct we need
C. Good governance needs officials to operate from their real-self
D. The roots of corruption are in minds of the officers

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

As per the passage acting as a real self can ensure us becoming people loving service for
others, so that will unleash good governance. hence, C is correct.

B is not the crux since the passage is not for all of us, only for officials

A is not the crux because it is absurd

D is not the crux because it just gives a minor or secondary argument not the main argument.

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77. Passage
The state of the economic slowdown is worrying not because of the disturbing statistics. These are mere
manifestations of a deeper underlying malaise that plagues the nation’s economy today. The functioning of any
economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and
institutions. Mutual trust and self-confidence are the bedrock of such social transactions among people that
foster economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. Many
industrialists, bankers, start-ups have halted their new investments owing to fear of government mistrust about
them and consequent government actions that could turn their investments into losses. Sadly, this self-inflicted
economic wound comes at a time when there is a unique and opportune moment in the global economy for
India to capitalise. The slowing down of China’s economy and exports has opened up a large export
opportunity for India to fill.
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. A ‘good-vs.-evil governance’ doctrine cannot be a recipe for healthy economic growth
2. Citizen’s lack of confidence in government can prolong slowdown
3. Pessimism among the entrepreneurs is beyond repair
4. It is very important for businessmen, capital providers and workers to feel confident and
exuberant rather than being fearful and nervous
5. Government should withdraw from the moral policing of economy and liberalise the economy

Select correct answer using the code given below:


A. 1, 2 & 4
B. 1, 3 & 5
C. 3 & 4
D. 2, 4 & 5

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage informs us that,

1. There is lack of trust on various economic agent in eyes of government

2. Government actions is feared to bring them losses and so they stopped economic
activities

3. This caused slowdown in economy

Hence it is reasonable to consider that:

1. Moral prisms may harm economic health—1 is correct

2. Since fear is the basic cause behind slowdown, their confidence and hopefulness is
needed the most—4 is correct

3. If mistrust prolongs, slowdown will also prolong—2 is correct

However,

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1. No focus on need for liberalising economy is given—hence 5 is wrong

2. While it is said that entrepreneurs are pessimistic now, it is not said that it cannot be
repaired—hence 3 is wrong

Therefore, 1, 2 & 4 are correct.

A is the answer.

78. Passage
The state of the economic slowdown is worrying not because of the disturbing statistics. These are mere
manifestations of a deeper underlying malaise that plagues the nation’s economy today. The functioning of any
economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and
institutions. Mutual trust and self-confidence are the bedrock of such social transactions among people that
foster economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. Many
industrialists, bankers, start-ups have halted their new investments owing to fear of government mistrust about
them and consequent government actions that could turn their investments into losses. Sadly, this self-inflicted
economic wound comes at a time when there is a unique and opportune moment in the global economy for
India to capitalise. The slowing down of China’s economy and exports has opened up a large export
opportunity for India to fill.
Q. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. India should aim to garner much of the export opportunity
2. It is a great time to attempt creating new jobs of millions of our youth

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

1. A LARGE opportunity is available now hence we need to garner much of it

2. Since, wise opportunity can create million jobs for us, it is indeed a great time for job
creation

Thus, both are correct assumptions.

Hence C is the answer.

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79. Passage
Being overconfident can lead to losing money from poor investing decisions, losing the trust of people who
rely on you, or wasting time on an idea that'll never work. The problem is the less you know about something,
the more likely it is that you won't realize your skill level until you've made a mistake or faced an obstacle. we
tend to be unaware of our skill level, and end up misjudging how our competence relates to the task at hand.
The skills we need to produce a right answer are exactly the skills we need to recognize what a right answer is.
Q. The rational implication/implications that can be made from the above passage is/are:
1. Overconfidence may prevent us from improving ourselves
2. Overconfidence may leave use unprepared to handle life disasters

Code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

As per the passage, due to overconfidence,

1. We don’t know we lack right skills


2. We don’t realise it until we do mistakes

So,

1. Without knowing our skills are imperfect we cant understand and improve ourselves
2. Since we don’t know our skills are not right we may not be able to handle the disasters
that comes up, in fact, we realise we lack skill only after disaster happened.

Thus, both 1 and 2 are correct.

Hence, C is the answer.

80. Passage
There are many factors that limit our awareness of environmental issues. To the millions of poor people, the
problems of daily existence are more important than environmental degradation. The more prosperous are
afraid that, in the name of environment, their comforts may be taken away. In any case, most of us do not pay
the real costs of exploiting nature. There is also false anti-environment propaganda by vested interests like the
large corporations, for whom constant growth is vital. At the political level, parties would not take unpopular
measures for conserving the environment. To make matters worse, indicators like Gross Domestic Product
give us a misleading picture of what is desirable.
Q. The message conveyed by the author is that,

A. Most of us pay the cost for degrading environment

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B. We are missing the large picture while exploiting nature


C. Ignorance of environmental issues is caused by illiteracy
D. Economic growth and green growth should go hand-in-hand

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :
1. We all exploit environment for short term gains—poor rich parties all do it for short-term
gains
2. A is wrong since we don’t pay cost for degrading environment, if we pay it we would
have changed ourselves
3. C is absurd statement
4. D is wrong because the concern of author is lack of awareness not the need for
sustainable growth.

Hence B is answer.

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