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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.

2023

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy - India


A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
PART TEST - 2
Sec: C4 IPL JEE MAINS_2022_MODEL Date : 11.01.2023
Time: 3Hrs Max.Marks : 300M
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Physics: Sect ion- I Contains Q.No 1 to 20 MCQs type Quest ion (+ 4, – 1) )

Sect ion- II Contains Q.No 21 to 30 Numer ical type Quest ions (Any 5 to be answered) (+ 4, –1) )

Chemistry : Sect ion- I Contains Q.No 31 to 50 MCQs type Quest ion (+ 4, – 1) )


Sect ion- II Contains Q.No 51 to 60 Numer ical type Quest ions (Any 5 to be answered) (+ 4, –1) )

Mathematics : Sect ion- I Contains Q.No 61 to 80 MCQs type Quest ion (+ 4, – 1) )


Sect ion- II Contains Q.No 81 to 90 Numer ical type Quest ions (Any 5 to be answered) (+ 4, –1) )

SYLLABUS
Physics : LIGHT ( VII, VIII )(NCERT)
LIGHT X NCERT (REFLECTION BY PLANE & SPHERICAL MIRROR)
Chemistry : 1) Atoms and molecules - IX NCERT
2) Acids, Bases and Salts - X NCERT
3) Metals & Non-metals - VIII & X NCERT
Mathematics : Mensuration (VIII) & Heron's formula
Surface Areas & Volumes (IX)
PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and
(4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for
correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. The image formed on retina help us to perceive the object without change in its shape, size and
colour
A) image will be converted into electric signals with the help of rods and cones [ ]
B) optical nerve carry this information in the form of electric signals to the brain
C) brain will visualize the object using these electric signals clearly
D) all of these
2. If a plane mirror is rotated by an angle θ in anticlock wise direction then for the given incident ray,
the reflected ray will be turned by an angle [ ]
A) θ in clock wise direction B) 2 θ in clock wise direction
C) θ in anticlock wise direction D) 2 θ in anticlock wise direction

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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023
3. The size of the pupil becomes ________ when you see in dim light [ ]
A) large B) small C) shut D) thin
4. The angle of incidence of a ray if the reflected ray is at an angle of 90° to the incident ray is
A) zero B) 90° C) 45° D) 30° [ ]
5. A U-shaped wire is placed before a concave mirror having radius of curvature 20 cm as shown in
figure the total length of the image is [ ]

10 cm
30 cm

10 cm

A) 30 cm B) 10 cm C) 6.9 cm D) 8.7 cm
6. A mirror changes the direction of light falls on it. This property is called _____ of light.[ ]
A) Changing B) Bending C) Spreading D) Reflection
7. The type of lens used as a magnifying glass [ ]
A) concave lens B) convex lens
C) concave-convex lens D) convex - concave lens
8. A spherical mirror whose inner hollow surface is the reflecting surface is a : [ ]
A) convex mirror B) concave mirror C) plane convex D) plane concave
9. When light ray is reflected [ ]
A) Frequency will change B) Velocity will decrease
C) Wave length will increase D) Intensity will decrease
10. The image produced by a concave mirror is one quarter the size of object. If the object is moved 5
cm closer to the mirror, the image will only be half the size of the object. The focal length of mirror
is : [ ]
A) f = 5.0 cm B) f = 2.5 cm C) f = 7.5 cm D) f = 10 cm
11. Parallel rays, from a distant building, incident
on the concave mirror, form its distinct image
on a screen as shown. A student was asked to
find its focal length with the help of this
experiment. Correct measure will be : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 cm [ ]
A) 5.4 cm B) 2.7 cm C) 10.8 cm D) 6.4 cm
12. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real image of an object placed at 10 cm infront
of it. where is the image located ? [ ]
A) 10 cm behind the mirror B) 10 cm infront of the mirror
C) 30 cm behind the mirror D) 30 cm infront of the mirror
13. A 1 cm object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length 7.5
cm. Its distance from the mirror if the image formed is 0.6 cm in size is [ ]
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 20 cm D) 5 cm
14. Which of the following is not a selfluminous object ? [ ]
A) sun B) moon C) candle D) bulb

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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023

15. The function of lens in human eye is [ ]


A) to form the real and enlarged image of the objects on the retina
B) to form the virtual image of the objects on the retina
C) to form sharp real image of the objects on the retina
D) none of these
16. Under which of the following conditions of objective distance a concave mirror of focal length 40
cm can form a virtual image larger than the actual object? [ ]
A) – 30 cm B) – 80 cm C) – 40 cm D) – 60 cm
17. Two plane mirrors are separated by a 1200 as shown in figure. If the ray strikes mirror M1 at 650
the angle θ with which the light ray leave mirror M2 is [ ]
A) 500 V
M2
θ
B) 550

65 0
V
C) 650 1200
M1
D) 700
18. Two plane mirrors are kept at right angles and a beam of light is made incident on mirror’1’ as
shown. If a third mirror is now placed at an angle 90° to the second mirror (mirror 2) what will be
the angle of reflection of the reflected ray from mirror ‘3’ [ ]
A) 30°
Mirror '1'

Mirror '3'
B) 45° 30°
C) 60°
D) The reflected ray from mirror ‘2’
will be parallel to the surface of mirror ‘3’ Mirror '2'
19. When an object is placed at a distance of 25cm from a mirror, the magnification is m1 , The object
m1
is moved 15cm away with respect to the earlier position, magnification becomes m2. If m = 4,
2

the focal length of the mirror is [ ]


A) 10 cm B) 30 cm C) 15 cm D) 20 cm
20. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles [ ]
A) in less than one
B) is more than one
C) is equal to one
D) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it
SECTION – II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more
than 5 questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered. The Answer should be
within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Ex-
ample i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11). Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in
all other cases.
21. The number of images formed by the combination of two plane mirrors, when θ = 45° in
assymmetrical arrangement is _________.

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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023
22. A beam of light converges towards a point O, behind a convex mirror of focal length 20cm. The
magnification of image if the point O is 10cm behind the mirrors is _________.
23. A person’s eye level is 1.5 m. He stands infront of a 0.3 m long plane mirror which is 0.8 m above
the ground. The length of the image he sees of himself is _________cm.
24. The angle of deviation produced by the mirror twice that of angle of reflection then the angle of
incidence is _________ degrees.
25. An object of size 2 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The
distance of the object from the mirror equals the radius of curvature. The size of the image will be
_________ cm.
26. The number of letters in the English alphabets have the image formed in a plane mirror appear
exactly like the letter itself is __________.
27. A point object is placed midway between two plane mirrors a distance apart. The plane mirrors
form an infinite number of images due to multiple reflections. The distance between nth order
images formed in the two mirrors is ____________na.
28. In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance 5cm from the focus and it’s image
is formed at a distance 20 cm from focus. The focal length of the mirror is __________cm.
29. An optician holds a test card 100 cm behind a patient. The patient then looks in the plane mirror
which is 100 cm away. The distance away from the patient’s eyes is the image of the test card is
_________m.
30. A plane mirror is inclined at 30° to the bench. A ray of light is directed so that it hits the mirror at
an angle of 20° to the surface of the mirror. Then the angle of reflection is _________ degrees.

Mirror
70°
20°
30°
Bench

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and
(4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for
correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
31. The atoms of which the following pair of elements are most likely to exist in free state [ ]
A) Hydrogen and Helium B) Argon and Carbon
C) Neon and Nitrogen D) Helium and Neon
32. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules [ ]
A) 1g CH4 B) 1g CO2 C) 1g of H2 D) 1g of N2
33. Consider the following statements [ ]
I) Metal X displace Y from its salt solution but not hydrogen from water or dilute acid.
II) Metals Z and A both release hydrogen with dilute acids.
III) Metal Z releases hydrogen with nitric acid but metal A does not.
IV) Metal A is not able to displacemetal Z from its salt solution
On the basis of above observations, the decreasing order of reactivity of these metals is
A) Z > A > X > Y B) A > Z > X > Y C) Z > A > Y > X D) A > Z > Y > X
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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023

34. Sahil prepared four solutions in four different beakers and labelled them as I, II, III and IV. He
noted down the colour in each case. Then he inserted a zinc rod in each solution and left them
undisturbed for about one and half hour. He observed the colour of each solution again.

Zn rod Zn rod
Zn rod Zn rod

Solution of Solution of
Solution of copper Solution of
aluminium ferrous zinc
sulphate sulphate
sulphate sulphate
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

In case of which solution, he will observe the colour change ? [ ]


A) I and IV B) II and IV C) II and III D) I and III
35. Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature ? [ ]
I) Cu II) Au III) Pt IV) Al
A) I and II B) II and III C) II, III and IV D) III and IV
36. Electronic configurations of some elements are given below [ ]
X : 2, 8, 4 Y : 2, 8, 1 Z : 2, 1
P:2 Q:1 R : 2, 8, 2
Which of these are included in the category of metallic elements ?
A) Y, Z and Q B) P and R C) Y, Z and R D) X, Y and Z
37. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by
electrolytic refining ? [ ]
1) Au 2) Cu 3) Na 4) K
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4
38. Which one of the following property is generally not exhibited by ionic compounds ? [ ]
A) solubility in water B) elelctrical conductivity in solid state
C) high melting and boling points D) electrical conductivity in molten state
39. Which of the following metals are extracted by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides?[ ]
A) Na and Hg B) Hg and Mg C) Na and Mg D) Cu and Fe
40. Which of the following metals can be obtained from Haematite ore? [ ]
A) Copper B) Sodium C) Zinc D) Iron
41. On adding Zinc granules to freshly prepared Ferrous sulphate solution, a student observes that
A) a dull brown coating is formed [ ]

B) a red coating is formed


FeSO4(aq)
C) a greyish coating is formed
Zinc
D) no coating is formed

42. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength ? [ ]
A) Water < Acetic acid < Hydro Chloric acid B) Water < HydroChloric acid < Acetic acid
C) Acetic acid < water < Hydrochloric acid D) HydroChloric acid < Water < Acetic acid

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43. When an aqueous solution of Sodium Chloride is electrolysed, the product formed are [ ]
A) Hydrogen, Oxygen and Chlorine B) Hydrogen, Oxygen and Sodium Hydroxide
C) Hydrogen, Chlorine and Sodium Hydroxide D) Water, Hydrogen and Oxygen
44. On adding a few drops of universal indicator to three unknown colourless solutions (P), (Q) and
(R) taken separately in three test tubes shown in the following diagrams, a student observed the
changes in colour as green in (P), red in (Q) and violet in (R) [ ]
The decreasing order of PH of the solutions taken is
A) P > Q > R

B) R > P > Q

C) Q > P > R

D) R > Q > P (P) (Q) (R)


green red violet
45. Constituent of baking powder are [ ]
A) Sodium Carbonate and Tartaric Acid
B) Sodium hydrogen Carbonate and Carboxylic acid
C) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate and Tartaric acid
D) None of these
46. The diagram shows apparatus used to investigate the conductivity of different solutions. Which
substance in aqueous solution of concentration, 1mol/dm3 would cause
Bulb
the bulb to give the brightest light?
Switch
A) Ethanoic acid [ ]
Beaker
B) Ethanol
Nail
C) Hydrochloric acid
Solution
D) Sulphuric acid
Rubber cork
47. The correct increasing orderof pH of given salts is [ ]
A) Blue vitriol < common salt < baking soda < washing soda
B) Blue vitrol < common salt < washing soda < backing soda
C) Washing soda < baking soda < common salt < blue vitriol
D) None of these

16 g of 16g of
48. Oxygen Ozone

Bulb X Bulb Y

The relation between number of atoms in the bulb X and Y is [ ]


A) X > Y B) X < Y C) X = Y D) X ≠ Y
49. The balancing of chemical equation is based on [ ]
A) avogadro’s law B) law of conservation of mass
C) law of constant proportions D) law of multiple proportion
50. Formula unit mass is used for the mass of the following compound [ ]
A) CaO B) H2S C) CCl4 D) CH4
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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023
SECTION – II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more
than 5 questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered. The Answer should be
within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Ex-
ample i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11). Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in
all other cases.
51. The atomic number of an element Y is 17. The number of electrons in its ion Y– will be_______
52. The PH of pure water is ___________.
53. The number of molecules of water of crystallisation present in washing soda crystals is_________
54. The atomic mass of carbon is___________amu.
55. In SO2, the mass of sulphur in combination with 3.0 g of oxygen is__________gm.
56. Identify the total number compounds from the given compounds, cation and anion having differ-
ent magnitude of charge___________
CaCl2 , Ca(NO3)2, Al2 (SO4)3, CaCO3, (NH4)2SO4 , HNO3, H2SO4, H2CO3
57. The total number of basic salt solutions from the following examples________
CH3COONa, Na2CO3, K2CO3, Na3PO4 MgCO3, NH4Cl, (NH4)2 SO4
58. The chemical composition of Gypsum is CaSO4 × H2O, Then what is the value of x is ______.
59. The number of Amphoteric oxides present from the following oxides,
Na2O, MgO, Al2O3, SO2,CO2______.
60. The molar mass of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is__________gm

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and
(4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct. Marking scheme: +4 for
correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
61. If the length of a rectangle is 8 cm and each of its diagonals measure 10 cm, then the breadth of the
rectangle is [ ]
A) 5 cm B) 6 cm C) 7 cm D) 9 cm
62. The area of a trapezium is 384 cm2, its parallel sides are in the ratio 5 : 3 and the distance between
them is 12 cm. The longer of the parallel sides is [ ]
A) 24 cm B) 40 cm C) 32 cm D) 36 cm
63. Amount of space occupied by a three dimensional object is called its [ ]
A) area B) TSA C) volume D) LSA
64. 1 litre = ____________ cm3 [ ]
A) 1000 B) 100 C) 10 D) 10,000

7
65. The curved surface area of cylinder whose radius cm and height 7 cm is [ ]
2
A) 154 cm2 B) 308 cm2 C) 77 cm2 D) 147 cm2

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66. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 8, then the ratio of their edges is [ ]
A) 9 : 4 B) 3: 2 C) 8 : 27 D) 3 : 2
67. If each side of a rhombus is 15 cm and length of one of its diagonal is 24 cm, then area of rhombus
is
A) 432 cm2 B) 216 cm2 C) 180 cm2 D) 144 cm2 [ ]
68. The semi perimeter of a triangle having the length of its sides as 20cm, 15cm and 9cm is
A) 44 cm B) 21 cm C) 22 cm D) none [ ]

69. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 16 3 cm2, then the perimeter of the triangle is [ ]
A) 48 cm B) 24 cm C) 12 cm D) 306 cm
70. The sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 9 cm and 14 cm. Its area is [ ]
A) 12 5 cm 2 B) 12 3 cm 2 C) 24 5 cm 2 D) 63 cm2
71. The sides of a triangle are 50 cm, 78 cm and 112 cm. The smallest altitude is [ ]
A) 20 cm B) 30 cm C) 40 cm D) 50 cm
72. If an isosceles triangle has perimeter 30 cm and each of the equal sides is 12 cm, then area of the
triangle is [ ]
A) 3 10 cm 2 B) 9 15 cm 2 C) 5 20 cm 2 D) 4 5 cm 2
73. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD measures 34 cm and 20 cm and the diagonal AC
measures 42 cm. Then the area of the parallelogram is 34 cm
[ ]
2 A B
A) 336 cm
42
B) 684 cm2 cm
C) 672 cm2 20 cm
2
D) 668 cm D C
74. The circumference of the base of 9m high wooden solid cone is 44m. The slant height of the cone
is
A) 120 m B) 130 m C) 150 m D) 6 5 m [ ]
75. The base radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 3 : 2 the ratio
of their volume is [ ]
A) 2 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 1 : 3 D) 2 : 1
76. The capacity of a tank of dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 2.5 cm is [ ]
A) 120 m3 B) 120 ml C) 120 l D) 120 mm 3

77. If length is l, breadth is b and height is h then TSA of the cuboidal vessel which is open at the top
is
A) 2(lb + bh + hl) B) 2h(l + b) [ ]
C) lb + bh + hl D) lb + 2bh + 2hl
78. A cylinder and a cone have the same base and same height. The ratio of their volume (in the same
order) is [ ]
A) 3 : 1 B) 4 : 3 C) 1 : 3 D) 3 : 4
79. The length of the longest pole that can be put in a room of dimensions (10m × 10m × 5m) is
A) 15m B) 16m C) 10m D) 12m [ ]
80. How many spherical lead shots, each of radius 1 cm can be made from a sphere of radius 4 cm ?
A) 64 B) 62 C) 58 D) 68 [ ]

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Sri Chaitanya Educational Institutions, India C4 IPL_ JEE - MAINS 11.01.2023
SECTION – II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more
than 5 questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered. The Answer should be
within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Ex-
ample i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11). Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in
all other cases.
81. If the total surface area of a sphere is 5544 cm2, then the diameter of the sphere is _________ (in
cm)
82. The area of a triangle is 48 cm2. Its base is 12 cm then the length of its corresponding altitude
is _____ (in cm)
83. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 and the diameter of its base is 14 m. The depth of the
tank is ___________
84. If the diagonal of a square is 9 2 cm, then the side of a square is _____________ (in cm)
85. If each side of an equilateral triangle is tripled, then the percentage increase in the area of the
triangle is ___________
86. The volume of a cuboid is 440 cm3, the area of its base is 88cm2 then its height is _______(in cm).
87. Two cubes each of edge 6 cm are joined to form a cuboid. Then T.S.A of the cuboid is _________
(in cm2)
88. A semi-circular sheet of paper of diameter 28 cm is bent into an open cup. Then the slant height of
the cone is _________ (in cm)
89. If the TSA of a cone of radius 2 cm and slant height 5 cm is k.π cm2, then k is __________
90. The perimeter of one face of cube is 20 cm then its volume is _______ (in cm3)

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