PRACTICE TEST 22 ( 30.11.

2022)
PART ONE. LISTENING (20 pts) (around 21 minutes)
Part 1
You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C)
1 You hear a restaurant manager talking about the cooks who work for him.
What does he say about them?
A They dislike cleaning tasks.
B They have a choice of jobs.
C They help to decide the menu.
2 You hear a woman talking about a new book.
What does she particularly like about the book?
A It is educational. B It is well organised. C It is enjoyable.
3 You hear the writer of a television soap opera being interviewed about the programme.
What will happen next in the story?
A Someone will make an important decision.
B Someone will go away unexpectedly.
C Someone will learn the truth at last.
4 You hear pad of a radio interview.
Who is speaking?
A a taxi driver B a porter C a tourist guide
5. You hear a woman talking about how she keeps fit.
Why did she decide to take up line dancing?
A She thought the pace would suit her.
B She had heard about it on television.
C She wanted to try exercising to music.
6. You overhear a conversation in a restaurant.
What does the woman think about the food she has just eaten?
A It was expensive. B It was delicious. C It looked wonderful.
7. You turn on the radio and hear a man talking.
What is he talking about?
A drawing pictures B writing fiction C composing music
8. You overhear a student phoning her parents.
What is her opinion of the place she is living in while at college?
A She is not sure she will have enough room to study.
B She has difficulty in working because of the noise.
C She does not get on well with her room-mates.

Part 2
You will hear an interview with Elizabeth Holmes about her experience working in Africa. For questions 9-18,
complete the sentences.
VOLUNTEERING IN AFRICA
Elizabeth worked for a (9)______________________ before she went to Africa.
Elizabeth first found out about working as a volunteer from a (10)______________________she saw at the dentist’s.
The course in London that Elizabeth attended was called (11)______________________
Elizabeth’s job in Africa was to teach (12)______________________ how to market their goods.
On arrival in Africa, Elizabeth spent (13)______________________ doing a training course with other volunteers.
Elizabeth used a (14)______________________ to travel short distances in Africa.
Elizabeth feels that she got on best with (15)______________________ in the area of Africa where she lived.
Back in England, Elizabeth found that she was disturbed by the (16)______________________ in the city.
At the moment, Elizabeth buys and sells (17)______________________ from Africa.
Nowadays, Elizabeth spends more time on her favourite pastime, which is (18)______________________.

B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Question 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (10 pts)
1. He couldn’t ______ his father that he was telling the truth.
A. admit B. confide C. trust D. convince
2. It was difficult to guess what her ______ to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. In order to buy his house he had to obtain a large ______ from his bank.
A. loan B. finance C. capital D. debt
4. My passport ______ last month, so I will have to get a new one.
A. elapsed B. expired C. ended D. terminated
5. The Department is also deeply ______ in various improvement schemes.
A. connected B. entailed C. involved D. implied
6. His answer was so confused that I could hardly make any ______ of it at all.
A. interpretation B. meaning C. intelligibility D. sense
7. The main attraction of the job was that it offered the ______ to do research.
A. possibility B. proposal C. opportunity D. prospect
8. I wish you’d tell me what I ______ do in this difficult situation.
A. shall B. would C. should D. ought
9. A competitor may submit any number of entries ______ each one is accompanied by a packet top.
A. supposing B. notwithstanding C. assuredly D. provided
10. They always kept on good ______ with their next door neighbours for the children’s sake.
A. friendship B. relation C. will D. terms

Question 2. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (5 pts)
For many young people sport is a popular part of school life and is in one of the school teams and playing in
matches is very important. If someone is in a team it meant a lot of extra practice and often spend a Saturday
or Sunday away from home, as many matches are playing then. It can also involve travelling to other towns to
play against other school teams and their stay on after the match for a meal or a drink. Sometimes parents,
friends or other students will travel with the team to support their own side. When a school team wins a
match it is the whole school which feels pride, not only the players. They can also mean that a school becomes
well-known for being good for certain sports and pupils from that school may end up to play for national and
international teams so that the school has some really famous names association with it!
Question 3. Phrasal verbs. (5 pts)

Complete each sentence with one of the words from the box.

Across against for in into on round to up with

a) I’ll send someone to call ________ the parcel on Thursday.

b) You’ll have to work hard to keep _________ with the rest of the class.
c) Jean didn’t expect to come up _________ such difficulties.
d) It’s not fair. You’re always picking _________ me.
e) Terry sang the first verse and then everyone joined _________.
f) I came _________ one of your novels in a second-hand bookshop.
g) I’m not interested in buying anything. I'm just looking _________.
h) Don’t you think the manager should deal _________ this problem?
i) George came _________ a lot of money when his uncle died.
j) You look very guilty! What have you been getting up _________?

Question 4. Give the correct form the word provided to fill each gap. (5 pts)

1. Living conditions in the slums were very ____________. HEALTH

2. This company’s ____________ include radios and television sets. PRODUCE
3. The church was damaged in the war but it has now been ___________. BUILD
4. The people possess _____________ rights. VIOLATE
5. Don’t be so ____________. The train will be here soon. PATIENCE
6. I ____________ don’t know how she puts up with him. He's so selfish. HONESTY
7. The soldier was given a medal for his ____________. BRAVE
8. Because he is so ____________, it’s difficult to discuss anything with him at the moment. PLEASURE
9. Various _____________ by police officers were brought to light by the enquiry. PRACTICE
10. Look. Water is coming through the ceiling! What's happening     ____________? STAIRS

Question 5: Read the passage below and circle the letter (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage (5pts).
Scott Newman wouldn’t be without his pocket-size TV, which he mainly watches in bed. “I only watch
programmes which last about half an hour, as any longer (1)_______ my eyes. I use the set for general
entertainment though it is also really good for (2)_______ up with current affairs. The main problem with the
set is that it’s not (3)_______ enough even when you use headphones. The (4)_______ is all right as long as
nothing moves in front of the aerial.” Scott admits to being a gadget man, but doesn’t (5)_______ buying the set
since he uses it nearly every day.
Retired engineer Paul Hardcastle, has owned a pocket TV for a (6)_______ of years. “I use it mostly in the
bathroom. I wanted to use it outdoors, but the trouble is that in (7)_______ light you can’t see the picture. I use
rechargeable batteries as (8)_______ ones would cost too much. Paul believes that this sort of TV could be
improved if the (9)_______ was slightly bigger and it didn’t (10)_______ up batteries so quickly: he can only get
half an hour’s viewing before the batteries go flat.
1. A. struggles B. stretches C. stresses D. strains
2. A. coming B. keeping C. going D. holding
3. A. loud B. noisy C. high D. strong
4. A. response B. receiving C. receipt D. reception
5. A. mind B. disapprove C. regret D. disappoint
6. A. number B. total C. sum D. quantity
7. A. shiny B. hard C. bright D. high
8. A. real B. usual C. genuine D. ordinary
9. A. design B. screen C. face D. display
10. A. use B. finish C. end D. take

PART THREE. READING

Question 1. Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each of the questions.
(10 pts)
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The
most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture.
Texture is the term used to describe the composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several
representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size
and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into
three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil
shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small
sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each
of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The
behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are
highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample,
the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens
built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh
size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a
textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate
for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the
fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle
so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving
a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Characteristics of high quality soil
(B) Particles typically found in most soils
(C) How a high clay content affects the texture of soil
(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil
2. The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the first paragraph in order to show
(A) the range of soil samples
(B) the process by which soil is weighed
(C) the requirements for an adequate soil sample
(D) how small soil particles are
3. The phrase “sorted out” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
(A) mixed (B) replaced (C) carried (D) separated
4. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect
(A) the way the soil is extracted (B) the results of squeezing the soil
(C) the need to check more than one handful (D) the difficulty of forming different
shapes
5. The word “dampened” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
(A) damaged (B) stretched (C) moistened (D) examined
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about a soil sample with little or no clay in it?
(A) It is not very heavy. (B) It may not hold its shape when molded.
(C) Its shape is durable (D) Its texture cannot be classified
7. The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to
(A) categories (B) sieves (C) larger particles (D) clay particles
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in
determining soil texture because
(A) using the sieve takes less time (B) the sieve can measure clay
(C) less training is required to use the sieve (D) the sieve allows for a more exact measure
9. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they
(A) stick to the sides of the water container (B) take some time to sink to the bottom
(C) separate into different sizes (D) dissolve quickly
10. The word “fine” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
 (A) tiny (B) many (C) excellent (D) various
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. A

Question 2. Read the text. Complete the text with sentences A–F. There is one sentence you do not need.
(10 pts)
A home of your own?
A home of their own is what most people in the UK aspire to these days. However, more and more of our
older population are finding it difficult to stay in their own homes as the health problems associated with
increased age sometimes make it impossible for them to cope in badly designed houses.
The elderly cannot climb the stairs and if they use wheelchairs, there are often problems getting from one
room to another because of narrow doorways, let alone trying to manoeuvre their chairs up and down
outdoor steps. [1 _______] All too often the help that could allow them to remain in their own homes at the end
of their lives is not available and these people are forced to move into care homes. Here, their needs are
catered for but they often feel isolated and away from familiar surroundings and their friends and family.
In an effort to address this problem the UK government has announced plans that seem, on the surface, to be
fairly dramatic. [2 _______] There will be sixteen such specifications and they include improvements that could
significantly affect life positively for the elderly. Stairs will have to be wide enough to accommodate stair lifts
should the installation of one become necessary. [3 _______] Electrical sockets and switches in walls must be at
a convenient height and all rooms must be large enough for wheelchairs to turn in circles. These are only a
few examples of what architects and builders will have to take into consideration in the future.
[4 _______] The general idea has been welcomed by many care groups but the practicalities are causing
concern in many quarters. Not least among those who are worried about the cost of providing new housing.
[5 _______] Members of the House Builders Association feel that the plans have not been carefully thought
through and that implementing such specifications, although theoretically laudable, is simply not realistic.
It is also felt that people have different housing needs at different stages of their lives and forcing all new
homes to be built with the elderly in mind is not going to be a popular move. Debate on the subject will no
doubt continue for a long time yet!
A They want all new homes built in the UK from 2011 onwards to conform to specifications that will make
them elderly-friendly.
B Safety for children will also be addressed.
C It is feared that conforming to all the specifications will push up the prices and put new homes out of the
reach of first-time buyers.
D Adapting their houses to make life easier for these people is a costly business and most cannot afford the
necessary changes.
E These plans have met with mixed reactions.
F There must be easy access for wheelchairs to the front door and through doorways.

Question 3. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word of your own. (10 pts)
Society does not encourage crying as a form of self (1) _____. The (2) _____ of tears tends to make people feel
uncomfortable and embarrassed. The human race is the only species that sheds emotional (3) _____. What (4)
_____ does crying serve?
It has been suggested that emotional tears play a role in the (5) _____ of stress. Scientists’ studies have
revealed that emotional tears contain a chemical which is one of the body’s (6) _____ pain killers. The chemical
is not found in tears shed as a response to slicing onions. Scientists think that tears may (7) _____ to remove
substances that accumulate in the body under stress. This would explain why many people feel much (8)_____
after crying. As a result of the view that it is not manly to cry, men tend to hold back their tears. This may
explain why men develop more stress-related diseases than women. (9) _____ emotion, be it a feeling of
sadness or happiness, is stressful. Tears are therefore shed as a response to sorrow, anger or joy. It is natural
to cry. Indeed, it may be (10) _____ to hold back tears.

PART FOUR. WRITING

Question 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given. Here is an example (0).
Example:
0 You must do exactly what the manager tells you. CARRY
You must _________________________________________________________________________instruction exactly.
The gap can be filled by the words 'carry out the manager’s’, so you write:
1. Marcella left home very early because she wanted to be sure of catching the train. ORDER
Marcella left home very early ________________________________________________________miss the train.
2. You must show your student card as you enter the library. REQUIRED
You___________________________________________________________student card as you enter the library.
3. On business trips, I prefer driving home to staying in a hotel overnight. RATHER
On business trips, I’d ___________________________________________________________in a hotel overnight.
4. Jack found it difficult to control his skis on the steep slope. UNDER
Jack found it difficult to _________________________________________________________ on the steep slope.
5. Such success has not been achieved by many players in the world of ice hockey. FEW
Only________________________________________________________such success in the world of ice hockey'

Question 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given in BOLD and other words as necessary.
Do not change the form of the given word (10 pts).
1. “No, not me. I didn’t take your calculator, Tom!” said Bill. DENIED
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. It is difficult for me to get the work done by the weekend. DIFFICULTY
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
3. His father would prefer him to find a job. RATHER
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. It’s not your fault. BLAME
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. I want to be left alone. DISTURBED
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
6. You must drive more slowly in town. REDUCE
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
7. You can borrow my bike if you're in a hurry. MIND
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. They are going to demolish the old building soon. PULLED
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. How much does this bag cost? PRICE
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. She failed to persuade her father to buy her a cell phone. SUCCEED
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 3. Paragraph writing. (15 pts)

Write about the following topic:
Some people say that advertising encourages us to buy things that we really do not need. Others say that
advertisements tell us about new products that may improve our lives.
Which viewpoint do you agree with?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 150 words.
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-THE END-