AIBE 1100 - Que & Ans

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[AIBE] ALL India Bar Council 2023 | 1100 Free MCQ Mock Que with Ans PDF
Q - 1 : Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Bailable offence
B. Non-Bailable offence
C. Cognizable offence
D. Non-cognizable offence
Ans : A
Q - 2 : Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the
following places
A. Where cheque is issued
B. In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank
C. Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank
D. From where the notice to pay the amount is issued
Ans : D
Q - 3 : What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’?

A. There must be an allegation in the complaint
B. The allegation must be about the commission of an offence
C. The complaint must be made to the magistrate
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 4 : Which is not a negotiable instrument?

A. Bond
B. Promissory note
C. Bill of Exchange
D. Cheque
Ans : A
Q - 5 : Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Metropolitan Area
B. Assistant Public Procsecutors
C. Special Judicial Magistrate
D. None of these
Ans : C
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Q - 6 : Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.

A. 140
B. 150
C. 147
D. 211
Ans : C
Q - 7 : What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the

court?
A. Summons
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Attachment of property
D. Above all
Ans : D
Q - 8 : Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A. Non-Bailable offence
B. Cognizable offence
C. Non-cognizable offence
D. Both B and C
Ans : B
Q - 9 : What are the kinds of warrant?

A. Bailable warrants
B. Non-Bailable warrants
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 10 : What is the difference between summon and warrant?

A. Issuing of summon is a primary stage. Generally warrants are issued if the
attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons
B. A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a warrant
case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 11 : Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?

A. A summon should have been legally issued against a person.
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B. A warrant should have been legally issued against a person

C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 12 : What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings

under section 107?
A. Formation of opinion by magistrate
B. Existence of sufficient ground for proceeding
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 13 : Public nuisance may be defined as

A. An obstruction, risk or injury to the life
B. A risk or injury to health
C. An obstruction to the comfort or convenience of public at large
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 14 : Section ………… of the code of the criminal procedure deals with the
circumstances when a conditional order for removal of nuisance can be passe
D.
A. 131
B. 133
C. 139
D. 143
Ans : B
Q - 15 : Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information

Report (F.I.R.)?
A. What is convency must be information
B. That information should be related to the commission of an offence on the face of
it.
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 16 : A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of

criminal procedure, 1973.
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A. Wife unable to maintain herself

B. Divorced wife (not remarried)
C. Minor daughter
D. Divorced wife remarried
Ans : D
Q - 17 : Inherent powers under section 482 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973
can be exercised by
A. Judicial Magistrate first class
B. Sessions Judge
C. High Court
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans : C
Q - 18 : Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an

officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the code of criminal
procedure, 1973?
A. Section 149
B. Section 154
C. Section 155
D. Section 200
Ans : B
Q - 19 : How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
Ans : D
Q - 20 : The Supreme Court’s Judge retries at the age of

A. 58 years
B. 70 years
C. 62 years
D. 65 years
Ans : D
Q - 21 : Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by

A. President of India
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B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of the above
Ans : C
Q - 22 : In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year

Plans’?
A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
C. Central Cabinet
D. Parliament
Ans : B
Q - 23 : Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?

A. Finance Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
Ans : B
Q - 24 : In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India?
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1975
D. Never
Ans : D
Q - 25 : The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on

A. June 26, 1945
B. August 15, 1943
C. January 26, 1946
D. December 30, 1941
Ans : A
Q - 26 : How Many members are there in the Security Council?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
Ans : D
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Q - 27 : The Procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in

A. Article 124(4)
B. Article 124 (5)
C. Article 125
D. Airtcle 126
Ans : A
Q - 28 : In International Court of Justice, there are

A. President and 15 other members
B. President, Vice-President and 15 other members
C. President, Vice-President and 14 other members
D. President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : D
Q - 29 : Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between

A. The Prime Minister and the President
B. Legislature and Exceutive
C. Exceutive and Judiciary
D. Centre and States
Ans : D
Q - 30 : A decree may be executed by

A. Tehsildar
B. Collector
C. District Judge
D. Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : D
Q - 31 : Which of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the
‘Mesne Profit’?
A. Section 2(4)
B. Section 2(14)
C. Section 2 (6)
D. Section 2(12)
Ans : D
Q - 32 : Pleading has been defined in

A. Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
B. Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
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C. Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure

D. Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : A
Q - 33 : Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily
under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. Metropolitant Magistrate
C. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
D. 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : D
Q - 34 : Which one of the following suits is not of a civil nature?

A. Suits relating to rights to property
B. Suit for rents
C. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
D. Suits against dismissals from service
Ans : C
Q - 35 : In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be

attached to the extent of –
A. One-fourth
B. One-Third
C. Two-third
D. One-half
Ans : C
Q - 36 : Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of five, how many of them need to
be proved?
A. Five
B. Three
C. One
D. Two
Ans : C
Q - 37 : Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken of as a substitute of –

A. Novation
B. Quasi-contract
C. Consideration
D. Coercion
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Ans : B
Q - 38 : X contracted with a tent house for erecting a shamiana for performing the
marriage of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a curfew was clamped in the area
preventing the celebration of the marriage. The shamiana owner claims the charges
agreed to be paid by X. In the light of the above, which one of the following is
correct?
A. X has to pay the contracted charges
B. X need not pay the agreed charges but only reasonable charges
C. X can require the State to bear the claim for famages
D. X need not pay anything as the celebration of the marriage was impossible on
account of the curfew
Ans : D
Q - 39 : What is/are the characteristic/s of a share?

A. A share is an interest of a shareholder in the company
B. It is a bundle of rights and obligations of shareholder of the company
C. These rights and obligations are regulated by the articles of the company
D. Above all
Ans : D
Q - 40 : Which companies are required to have their own articles and get them
registered along with the memorandum?
A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Private company limited by shares
D. All Above
Ans : D
Q - 41 : In which case, the acts of a company are said to be ultra vires:

A. Acts which do not fall within the main objects of the company
B. Acts which do not fall within the objects incidental or ancillary to the main object
of the company
C. Acts done after the Main objects become impossible
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 42 : The memorandum of a company must contain

A. Name and place clause
B. Object and Liability clause
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C. Capital clause and subscribers’ clause

D. Above all
Ans : D
Q - 43 : What are the main features of memorandum of association?

A. It is a fundamental document or charter of the company
B. It is essential for every company to prepare memorandum for its registration
C. It should be originally frame
D. It cannot be adopte
D. It contains objects of the company
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 44 : What are the necessary steps for registration of a company?

A. Preliminary steps
B. Delivery of documents by the Registrar
C. Scrutiny of documents by the Registrar and obtaining certificate of incorporation
D. Above all
Ans : D
Q - 45 : According to …………., “The memorandum of association of a company is its

charter and defines the limitations of the company established under the Act”.
A. Lord Justice Cairns
B. Lord Justics Bowen
C. Palmer
D. Ramaiya
Ans : A
Q - 46 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of ownership?

A. Government companies
B. Non-government companies
C. Association not for profit or charitable company
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 47 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of control?

A. Holding company
B. Subsidiary company
C. One man company
D. All of the above
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Ans : D
Q - 48 : The companies with limited liability may be

A. Companies limited by shares
B. Companies limited by guarantee
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 49 : For which purpose, the Central Government may appoint inspectors to

investigate and report on the matters relating to the company.
A. For determining the true persons who are or have been financially interested in
the success or failure of the company
B. For determining the true persons who are or have been able to control or
materially influence the policy of the Company
C. For Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 50 : According to ……… “A company is an artificial person created by law, having

separate entity, with a perpetual succession and common seal”.
A. Lord Justice Lindley
B. Prof. Haney
C. Justice Marshall
D. Gower, L.
C.
B.
Ans : B
Q - 51 : What are the merits of a Negotiable instrument ?

A. Unlimited number of endorsements
B. No notice of transfer/endorsement needed
C. A negotiable instrument is valid only when it is for a certain sum of money
D. All of these
Ans : D
Q - 52 : Which of the following is/are negotiable instrument/s?

A. Promissory note
B. Bill of Exchange
C. Cheque
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D. All of these
Ans : D
Q - 53 : What is/are the Essential/s of a promissory note?

A. A promissory note must be in writing
B. There is no prescribed preform for promissory note
C. It must contain an express promise to pay
D. All of these
Ans : D
Q - 54 : ………… can make a promissory note payable to bearer.

A. RBI
B. Central Government
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 55 : The main parties to a bill of exchange are

A. Drawer
B. Drawee
C. Acceptor
D. All of these
Ans : D
Q - 56 : The person who is directed to pay the bill of exchange is called

A. Holder
B. Drawee
C. Payee
D. Acceptor
Ans : B
Q - 57 : The Transfer of property Act, 1882 covers

A. Movable Property
B. Immovable property
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 58 : An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of property Act,

1882 means
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A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-Testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C
Q - 59 : Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favor of a

person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the
Transfer is called
A. Conditional Transfer
B. Transfer by Interest
C. Absolute Transfer
D. Contingent Transfer
Ans : D
Q - 60 : Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

A. Right to a Provident Fund Account
B. Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promises succeed in L.L.
B. examination
C. Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promise marries a particular woman
D. Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
Ans : D
Q - 61 : A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by

A. Oral agreement
B. Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
C. Simple instrument
D. Only by a registered instrument
Ans : D
Q - 62 : Universal donee is
A. Not liable for any debt or liability
B. Donee is personally liable for all debts to liabilities existing at the time of gift
C. Donee is only liable for half of the liabilities
D. Donee is only liable for the one-third of liabilities
Ans : B
Q - 63 : When did the Banking Regulation Act come into effect ?

A. 16th January 1949
B. 16th April 1949
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C. 16th March 1949

D. 16th February 1949
Ans : C
Q - 64 : Lease of immovable property determines

A. By efflux of time. Limited thereby
B. By implied surrender
C. By the happening of such event, where the interest of the leassor in the property,
terminates on the happening of that event
D. When the lessee becomes insolvent
Ans : D
Q - 65 : An instrument as defined under section 3 of the Transfer of property Act,

1882 means:
A. A Negotiable Instrument
B. A Transferable Instrument
C. A Non-testamentary Instrument
D. A will
Ans : C
Q - 66 : In case of “Part performance” what is not necessary with a transferee?

A. Possession
B. Contract for consideration
C. Notice to transferor
D. Readiness on his part
Ans : C
Q - 67 : What is the rank of India in the Foreign Exchange Reserve ?

A. 15th
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 1st
Ans : C
Q - 68 : What may be transferred?

A. Spec Successions
B. A right to sue
C. A right of re-entry to the owner for breach of a subsequent condition
D. A right to future maintenance
Ans : C
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Q - 69 : A mortgage by deposit of debts is called

A. Anomalous mortgage
B. English mortgage
C. Equitable mortgage
D. Usufruct by mortgage
Ans : C
Q - 70 : What kind of transfer may be made orally?

A. Gift of immovable property
B. Transfer of actionable claim
C. Sale of immovable property of value upward Rs.100
D. Surrender of lease
Ans : D
Q - 71 : Whether simple mortgage must always be registered?

A. Yes
B. If value of property is more than Rs. 100
C. Registration not necessary
Ans : A
Q - 72 : What are the essentials of a valid Gift?

A. There must be a donor
B. A donee
C. A proper object of gift and an acceptance by the donee
D. All of these
Ans : D
Q - 73 : In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgages is placed in possession who

has a right to receive the rent and other profits till
A. Mortgage money is paid
B. Contract is rescinded
C. Period of thirty years
D. Period of 99 years
Ans : A
Q - 74 : For applicability of doctrine of List pendants, the property would be

A. Movable
B. Immovable
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C. Both Movable and immovable

D. None of these
Ans : D
Q - 75 : In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be

made without writing?
A. Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
B. Lease for a term of 11 months
C. Exchange
D. Actionable claim
Ans : B
Q - 76 : Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?

A. Yes, by machinery of trust
B. Yes
C. Guardian has got to be appointed first
Ans : A
Q - 77 : Which of the following transfers is valid?

A. An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs. 99
B. An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs. 99
C. An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
D. An oral assignment of debts
Ans : A
Q - 78 : A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be
absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called
A. A right for foreclosure
B. A right for claim
C. A right for redemption
D. A right for sale
Ans : A
Q - 79 : Where immovable property is transferred for consideration by persons

having distinct interest therein, but their interests in the property are of equal value,
the transferor is
A. Entitled to get equal share in the consideration
B. Entitled to get unequal share in the consideration
C. Entitled to get equal share subject to further transfers in future
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Ans : A
Q - 80 : In case of a gift if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is

A. Valid
B. Void
C. Revocable
D. Irrevocable
Ans : B
Q - 81 : Sale is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price

A. Paid
B. Promised
C. Part paid and part promised
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 82 : Under section 3 of the transfer of property Act the following does not
amount to notice
A. Registration where the instrument is compulsorily registrable
B. Registration where the instrument is not compulsorily registrable
C. Possession
D. Notice to agent
Ans : B
Q - 83 : ’A’ gives a lakh of rupees to ‘B’ reserving to himself with B’s assent, the right
to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of lakh. The gift
A. Is wholly void
B. Is invalid
C. Holds goods as to Rs. 90,000
D. In onerous
Ans : C
Q - 84 : What kind of property is transferable?

A. Right to re-entry
B. Public office
C. Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
D. Pension
Ans : C
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Q - 85 : ‘A’ has let his house at a rent of Rs. 100 Payable on the last date of each
month. ‘A’ sells house to ‘B’ on the 15th of June. On 30th June what will be
apportionment?
A. ‘A’ will get Rs. 100
B. ‘B’ will get Rs. 100
C. Rs. 50 to ‘A’ and Rs. 50 to ‘B’
D. The tenant will be exempted from payment of rent of this month
Ans : C
Q - 86 : In absence of contract or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of

immovable property shall be deemed to be
A. Month to month
B. Bimonthly
C. Year to year
D. Bi-annual
Ans : C
Q - 87 : Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context to ‘transfer

of property?
A. It means an act by which a living person conveys property
B. He conveys property in present or in future
C. He conveys property to one or more other living person
D. He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living person
Ans : D
Q - 88 : How many types of mortgages are there in section 58 of Transfer of Property

Act?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Ans : C
Q - 89 : A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part

of either lessor or lessee, by
A. One month
B. Six month’s
C. Three month’s
D. Sixty days’ notice expiring with the end of a year of tenancy
Ans : B
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Q - 90 : What is not required in “Gift”?

A. Doner and donee
B. Consideration
C. Moveable or immovable property
D. Transfer and acceptance
Ans : B
Q - 91 : “Immovable Property” does not include timber

A. True
B. False
C. Till it is rooted in the earth
D. Only the branches of timber does not include in immovable property
Ans : A
Q - 92 : “Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession”.

A. Wrong
B. Right can accrue only after payment of full consideration
C. Right
D. Delivery of possession is not necessary
Ans : C
Q - 93 : “Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may

be made orally”.
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D
Q - 94 : Where writing is not expressly required by law a transfer of property may be

made orally
A. False
B. Transfer can only be made by writing
C. With the consent of parties oral transfer can be done
D. True
Ans : D
Q - 95 : Who is not a citizen by domicile?

A. Those who are born in the territory of India
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B. Those whose either mother or father was born in the territory of India
C. Those who have been ordinarily residing in the territory of India after of
Constitution of India, due to his work in India.
D. Who has been ordinarly resident in the territory of India for not less than 5 years
immediately preceding commencement of Constitution of India
Ans : C
Q - 96 : Under article 227 of the Constitution who has superintendence over all the
courts and tribunals located in the territory to which it exercises jurisdiction?
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court
Ans : D
Q - 97 : Which is the latest case wherein Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court
has reviewed the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368 of the
Constitution?
A. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
B. Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Rajnarayan
C. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
D. Keshavanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Ans : C
Q - 98 : Which cannot be transferred?

A. Mere right to sue on the basis of agreement to sell
B. Right to receive arrears of rent
C. Right to recover detrital amount
D. Right to receive provident funds by will
Ans : A
Q - 99 : For part performance of the contract which is not an essential ingredient?

A. Contract to transfer immovable property
B. Contract is in writing and signed by transferor or on his behalf
C. Transferee is in possession of the property
D. Transferee has paid full consideration
Ans : D
Q - 100 : Legal validity of Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and FI Act 1993 was upheld
by 3 judge bench of Honourable Supreme Court in _________ .
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A. UOI v. Delhi High court bar Association

B. Horizon Flora India Lt
D. V. Asset Reconstruction Co. India Ltd
C. Baleshwar Dayal Jaiswal v. Bank of India
D. Vijay Laghu Udyog v. Punjab National Bank
Ans : A
Q - 101 : The tenancy y of an immovable property is monthly. In order to terminate

the lease of it, a notice of which period shall be given –
A. One month
B. Two month
C. Six month
D. Fifteen days
Ans : D
Q - 102 : Interpleader suit is a suit –

A. Between two advocates
B. Between Union Govt. Pleader and State Govt. Pleader
C. Instituted by a person who has no interest in the subject matter
D. Instituted by a person who has interest in the subject matter
Ans : C
Q - 103 : Where the plaint is not filed in duplicate, the plaint may be –
A. Returned by the Court
B. Rejected by the Court
C. Dismissed by the Court
D. Admitted by the Court
Ans : B
Q - 104 : Where the plaint is not filed in duplicate, the plaint may be –
A. Returned by the Court
B. Rejected by the Court
C. Dismissed by the Court
D. Admitted by the Court
Ans : B
Q - 105 : In a suit against the State Government, who may sign the plaint on behalf
of the Government ?
A. Governor of the State
B. Chief Minister of the State
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C. Chief Secretary of the State

D. A person who by a general or special order appointed in this behalf by the
Government
Ans : C
Q - 106 : The Court shall not grant temporary injection where –

A. Any property, in dispute, in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or
alienated by any party
B. Where plaintiff can be compensated by money
C. That the defendant threatened to remove or dispose of the property with a view
to defrauding his creditors
Ans : B
Q - 107 : The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a
contract that they shall, when the person is accomplished, be returned or otherwise
dispose of according to the direction of the person delivering them, is a contract of –
A. Guarantee
B. Bailment
C. Indemnity
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 108 : Which contract is void an initio?

A. A contracts to let her daughter on hire to B for concubinage
B. While entering into contract to sell a cow, A disclosed B that the cow gives five
litres milk in a day whereas it gives four litres in a day
C. At the time of contract to selling a car, is 20 km per litre whereas its mileage is 18
km per litre
D. At the time of contract, A told B that the area of his house is 1400 sq. feet but on
measurement the area of the house is found 1398 sq. feet
Ans : A
Q - 109 : A person is dispossessed of an immovable property without due course of

law. When can he bring a suit for recovery of possession under Section 6 of the Act
period ?
A. One year
B. Two year
C. Six months
D. Nine months
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Ans : C
Q - 110 : In which case, the court can grant an injuction?

A. To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding
B. To restrain any person from insitituting a criminal matter
C. To restrain any person from dispossession by force
D. To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
Ans : C
Q - 111 : The provisions of Section 5 of the Act (Extension of prescribed period) are
not applicable to –
A. Appeals
B. Revisions
C. Suits
D. Applications
Ans : C
Q - 112 : The period of limitation of a suit for recovery of arrears of rent from the
due date shall be –
A. One Year
B. Two Years
C. Three Years
D. Five years
Ans : C
Q - 113 : Right to life and Liberty is ensured under –

A. Article 21 of the Constitution India
B. Article 36
C. Article 268
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 114 : How many times has the preamble to the Constitution of India been
amended?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. Four
Ans : A
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Q - 115 : Article 360 to the Constitution of India deals with the provisions as to –
A. Financial Emergency
B. National Emergency
C. Presidential rule in any state
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 116 : The idea of Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity as laid
down in the preamble to the Constitution of India have been borrowed from –
A. French Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. English Constitution
D. Constitution of South Africa
Ans : A
Q - 117 : The Governor of a state is empowered to grant pardons et

C. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases under?
A. Article 261
B. Article 161
C. Article 361
D. Article 368
Ans : B
Q - 118 : A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court
under –
A. Article 20
B. Article 226
C. Article 32
D. Article 22
Ans : B
Q - 119 : Preamble of the Constitution declares India as –

A. A socialist Democratic Republic
B. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
C. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 120 : If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is trouble

exclusively by the court of session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.
24
C. postponing the issue of process against the accused –

A. Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
B. May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
C. Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his withness and examine them on
Oath.
D. Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session.
Ans : C
Q - 121 : ………………… of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Murder’

A. Section 299
B. Section 300
C. Section 301
D. Section 302
Ans : B
Q - 122 : A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an –
A. Unmarried woman
B. Married woman except his wife
C. Any women accept his wife
D. Unmarried Woman without her consent
Ans : B
Q - 123 : Copies made from or compared with the original is –

A. Primary evidence
B. Secondary evidence
C. Inadmissible evidence
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 124 : The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay –

A. Dying declaration
B. Res gestate
C. Medical Expert’s opinion
D. Confession
Ans : C
Q - 125 : The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is –

A. Discretionary
B. Mandatory
C. Statutory
25
D. Obligatory
Ans : C
Q - 126 : Find out the correct statement Specific Relief can be granted –
A. For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
B. For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights
C. Only for enforcing penal law
D. For enforcing civil rights and the penal law
Ans : A
Q - 127 : Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions.

A. Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
B. Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the
Court
C. Regulated by the code of civil procedure
D. Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit
Ans : D
Q - 128 : Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically reforced as per the
provision of Section 14 of the Act?
A. Execution of a formal deed of partnership
B. Contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on
land
C. Contract which is determinable in its nature
D. Contract to execute a mortage or furnish any other security for repayment of any
loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once
Ans : C
Q - 129 : An application for amendment of pleading is filed under –

A. Order 6 Rule 17
B. Order 6 rule 5
C. Order 38 rule 5
D. Order 21 rule 1
Ans : A
Q - 130 : Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International
Convenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate food
26
(C) Right to self-determination

(D) Right to privacy Select the Answer using the code given below :
A. 1and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Ans : C
Q - 131 : Which two of the following rights do not find place in the International
covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
1. Right to leave any country including his own and to return to his country.
2. Protection against torture and other forms of cruel and inhumane or degrading
treatment or punishment.
3. Right to move the International Court of justice.
4. Right to be a member of the UN. Select the Answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 132 : Which one of the following statements does not occur in Article 1 of the
Univeral Declaration of Human Rights?
A. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights
B. They are endowed with reason and conscience
C. They should always live together peacefully
D. They should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood
Ans : C
Q - 133 : Consider the following statements:

1. Jurisdiction of the International Court of justice in voluntary and obligatory.
2. Jurisdiction of the International Court of justice can be imposed on Member
Nations of the UN.
3. General Assembly and Security Council may refer a matter toe International Court
of justice advice.
27
4. International Court of justice is court of appeal from Supreme court of Member

Nations. Which of the two from the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Ans : A
Q - 134 : Which one of the following is not included in the UN Charter as an objective
of the United Nations?
A. To protect the sovereignty of the member states
B. To avoid war as a means for settlements of International disputes
C. Development of human personality
D. To ensure respect for international obligations arising from treaties and other
forms of International Law.
Ans : C
Q - 135 : Consider the following statements : The Economic and Social Council of the
U.N. :
1. may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on
subjects falling within its competence.
2. may call international conference on matters falling within its competence.
3. may appoint the members of Human Rights Committee.
4. may make recommendations for promoting respect for and observance of human
rights and fundamental freedom. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4
Ans : D
Q - 136 : Which one of the following statements is correct? De facto recognition of a

foreign government :
A. is as conclusively binding, while it lasts, as de jure recognition
B. is conclusive
C. is always equal to de jure recognition
D. has no legal effects
Ans : A
28
Q - 137 : What is an act of recognition to new territorial titles or territorial changes

brought out by use of force or any other act of doubtful character depriving the
rightful claimant thereto, commonly called?
A. Estrada Doctrine
B. Stimpsons Doctrine
C. Calvo Doctrine
D. Drago Doctrine
Ans : B
Q - 138 : Arrange the following sources of International Law in the preferential

sequence in which they are applied by International Court of justice while deciding
such disputes as are submitted to it?
1. General international convention.
2. General principles of law recognised by civilized nations
3. International customs 4. Judicial decisions of International tribunals Select the
Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 4,3,2,1
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 4,2,3,1
Ans : C
Q - 139 : "Universal respect for, and observance of Human Rights and Fundamental
Freedoms for all without distinction as to race, sex language of religion". Which one
of the following documents contains the above?
A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. UN Charter
C. European Covenant on Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms
D. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Ans : A
Q - 140 : Which one of the following is not a source of International Law?

A. Constitution of sovereign states
B. Treaties
C. International conventions
D. International customs and practices
Ans : A
29
Q - 141 : Which of the following is an element of Ihering theory of possession?

A. Overemphasis on the element of animus
B. Equal emphasis on the elements of animus and corpus
C. Owner like appearance in relation to a thing
D. Immediate physical power to exclude any foreign agency.
Ans : C
Q - 142 : Ownership without possession can be termed as which one of the

following?
A. No ownership
B. Quasi ownership
C. Incomplete ownership
D. No-corporeal ownership
Ans : D
Q - 143 : Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to
Savigny's theory of Volksgeist?
A. Law cannot be universal or general in character
B. Law is found and not made
C. Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people
D. Law is an instrument of social change and Social reform
Ans : D
Q - 144 : Who among the following propounded the theory of possession which lays
stress not on animus, but on de facto control?
A. Salmond
B. Pollock
C. Holmes
D. jhering
Ans : B
Q - 145 : 'A' borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from 'B' , which he did not repay for a
period of three years. Now which one of the following rights does 'B' have against 'A'
?
A. Perfect rights
B. Imperfect rights
C. Proprietary rights
Ans : B
30
Q - 146 : What do Rights in re-aliena mean?

A. Rights in the things of others
B. Rights in one's own things
C. Rights relating to property
D. Rights to receive damages
Ans : A
Q - 147 : Match List-l with List-ll and select the Answer from the codes given below
the List : List - I List - II A supreme Legislation
B.Executive Legislation
C.Debated Legislation
D.Conditional Legislation
1. Law based on discretion of the authority
2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature
3.Law enacted by the legislation
4.Ordinance issued by the resident/ Governer Law made by judges while the case
Codes :
A. A B C D 3 4 2 1
B. 2 1 5 4
C. 3 1 2 4
D. 2 4 5 1
Ans : A
Q - 148 : Who among the following divided the sources of law into formal sources
and material sources?
A. Allen
B. Keeton
C. Salmond
D. Gray
Ans : C
Q - 149 : Why is the expiatory theory of punishment obsolete now?

A. It does not empower the State to impose punish
B. It is incapable to reform the wrong doer
C. It is based on moral doctrines
D. It enlarges the limits of jurisprudence
Ans : C
31
Q - 150 : Eugen Ehrlich is a well Known jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence.

Which one of the following statements may not be attributed to the theory
propounded by him?
A. Law is derived from social facts
B. Law depends on social compulsion
C. Three is a 'living law' underlying the formal rule of the legal system
D. State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law
Ans : D
Q - 151 : Balancing of social interests and the doctrines of social engineering is the
greatest contribution to sociological school. This is attributed to whom?
A. Duguit
B. Roscoe Pound
C. Savigny
D. jhering.
Ans : B
Q - 152 : Which of the following factors are responsible for the resurgence in favour
of natural law thinking in the twentieth century?
1. The decline in social and economic stability in the twentieth century
2. The expansion in government activity
3. Growth of weapons of destruction and policies of genocide
4. Growing inclination of people towards religion
Select the Answer using the codes given below:
A. 2,3 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Ans : C
Q - 153 : Match List-l (jurists) with List-ll (View About Law/jurisprudence) and select
the Answer using the codes given below the Lists: List -I (Jurists) List -II (View About
Law/ Jurisprudence)
A. Bentham
B. Austin
32
C. Kelsen
D.Hart
1. Concept of Law
2.Pure theory of law
3.Limits of Jurisprudence defined
4. Province of jurisprudence determined
5.Concept of living lawa Codes :
A. 1 2 5 3
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 1 4 2 3
D. 3 2 5 1
Ans : B
Q - 154 : There is a clear cut division between the spheres of the legislature and the
judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which one of the
following propounds this doctrine?
A. Analytical jurisprudence
B. Historical jurisprudence
C. Sociological jurisprudence
D. Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans : A
Q - 155 : It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man's progress must
be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify?
1. Speculation about law
2. Scientific investigation of legal problems
3. Increasing awareness of the fruits of interdisciplinary co-operation
4. Relationship between law, economy and society Select the Answer using the
codes given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 156 : In India, which one of the following is the real guiding factor for the State to
33
meet social needs and for the establishment of new social order?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Preamble of the Constitution
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Distribution of Powers
Ans : C
Q - 157 : The Supreme court has interpreted the 'power of judicial review' as a basic
feature of the Constitution. However, there is a Schedule to the Constitution, in
which if a statute is specified, it cannot be
Q - ed in a court of law on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. Which one

of the following is that Schedule?
A. Tenth Schedule
B. Eleventh Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
Ans : C
Q - 158 : The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India :
1. Equality of status and opportunity
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
3. Justice-social, economic and political
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual 5. Unity and integrity of the Nation
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the
Preamble?
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,1,2,5,4
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Ans : B
Q - 159 : Which of the following sections of citizens should be excluded from the
benefits of reservations according to the principles of 'Creamy Layer' as propounded
by the Supreme Court in Mandal Commission judgment?
1. Advanced sections among the other Backward Classes
2. Advanced sections among the Schedule Castes
34
3. Advanced sections among the Schedule Tribes

4. Advanced sections among the economically backward classes Select the Answer
using the codes given below :
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 160 : Match List-l (Case) with List-ll (Subject Dealt with) and select the Answer
from the codes given below the Lists: List - I (Case) List - II (Subject Dealth With) 1.
L.Chandra Kumar Vs.Union Of india
B. T.M.
A. Pal Foundation Vs.State of Kerala
C. Randhir Singh Vs.Union Of India
D. S.Jagannath Vs.Union of India
1. Equal pay for equal work
2.Prawn Culture and Coastal Zone Regulations
3.Judicial Review
4. Rights of Minority Educational Institutions
5.Uniform civil code Codes :
A. A B C D 1 4 5 2
B. 3 2 1 4
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 1 2 5 4
Ans : C
Q - 161 : Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the
citizens and alliens?
A. The right to equality of opportunity in public employment
B. The right to six freedoms
C. Cultural and educational rights
D. The right to equality
Ans : D
Q - 162 : In which case has Supreme Court of India held that there is no reason to
compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
35
A. Salem Advocate Bar Association. Tamil Nadu Vs. Union of India

B. Onkar Lal Bijoy Vs. Union of India
C. Murli S. Deora Vs. Union of India
D. Ramakrishnan Vs. State of Kerala
Ans : C
Q - 163 : Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
A. Organization of Village Panchayats.
B. Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens.
C. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.
D. Participation of workers in management of industries.
Ans : B
Q - 164 : Which one of the following statements is correct? Right to free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years is :
A. a fundamental right enforceable in a court of law
B. a fundamental duty
C. a directive Principle of State Policy
D. a fundamental right which, however can be enforced only if the State makes an
enabling legislation
Ans : A
Q - 165 : For which of the following can special provisions be made under Article 15
of the Constitution of India? 1. Women and children 2. Scheduled Tribes 3.
Economically backward classes 4. Socially backward classes Select the Answer using
the codes given below:
A. 1,2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans : A
Q - 166 : Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other then
the district judges?
A. Union Public Service Commission
B. State Public Service Commission
C. Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the High
Court and State Public Service Commission
D. Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to
such state
36
Ans : C
Q - 167 : Which one of the following statements is correct? On receipt of a

Constitutional Amendment Bill after its passing by each House of the Parliament, the
President :
A. shall give his assent
B. may give his assent
C. may withhold his assent
D. may return the Bill for reconsi deration
Ans : A
Q - 168 : Through which provisions, does the Constitution of India explicitly prohibit
racial discrimination in India?
A. Articles 14 and 17
B. Articles 17 and 23
C. Articles 15 and 16
D. Articles 17 only
Ans : C
Q - 169 : Consider the following Judgements of the Supreme Court which dealt with
the appointment and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts: 1.
S.P.Gupta Vs. Union of India 2. Sankal Chand Seth Vs. Union of India 3. In re Special
Reference No. 1 of 1998 4. Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association Vs.
Union of India Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which
the above judgements were delivered?
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,1,3,4
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 1,2,4,3
Ans : C
Q - 170 : Consider the following statements : The High Court has jurisdiction to : 1.
punish for its contempt 2. tender advice on the legal
Q - referred to it by the Governor of the State 3. tender advice on a legal
Q - referred to it by the Governor of the State 4. issue certain writs for enforcement
of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes Which of the statements given above
are correct?
A. 1 and 4
37
B. 1 and 2
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2,3 and 4
Ans : A
Q - 171 : Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by
the Governor of that State and approved by the President
B. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State if requested by
the Chief Minister of that State
C. Union Public Service Commission cannot serve the needs of a State
D. Union Public Service Commission may serve the needs of a State simply on
request of Governor. Approval of the President is not necessary
Ans : A
Q - 172 : The Amendment in Article 31 (c) which gave precedence to all Directive
Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights was declared ultra virus and void,
in which one of the following cases?
A. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
B. N.K Rai Vs. Union of India
C. Wamam Rao Vs.Union of India
D. Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing Company Vs. Bharat Cocking Coal Lt
D.
Ans : A
Q - 173 : In which one of the following cases.did the Supreme Court rule that the
principal of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of
compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights ?
A. State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati
B. Kasturi Lal Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
C. Murli S. Deora Vs. Union of India
D. Nilabati Behera Vs. State of Orissa
Ans : D
Q - 174 : The first Amendment to the Constitution made in 1951, made changes in
relation to which of the following provisions? 1. Special provisions for advancement
of socially and educationally backward classes 2. Validation of certain Acts and
Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule 3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to
certain Directive Principles 4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates
Select the Answer using the codes given below :
38
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,3 and 4
Ans : A
Q - 175 : Which one of the following statements is correct? When the President
issues a proclamation of Emergency :
A. all the fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
B. only Article 19 is automatically suspended The enforcement of all other
Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President
C. only Article 19 is automatically suspende
D. The enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 can
suspended by an order of the President
D. Article 19 can be suspende
D. Other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
Ans : C
Q - 176 : In which List-| is the subject of preventive Detention enumerated ?

A. The Union List
B. The Concurrent List
C. The State List
Ans : B
Q - 177 : Which of the following are the matter covered under List-1 of Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. Foreign loans 2. Atomic energy 3. Insurance
4 Public health Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2,3 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 178 : Consider the following statements : The executive power of the Union
extends to giving of direction to a State in respect of : 1. construction and
maintenance of means of communication of national or military importance 2.
maintenance of law and order in that State 3. protection of railways within the State
4. protection of secular character of the country Which of the statements given
above are correct ?
39
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans : C
Q - 179 : Match List-| (Case) with List-|| (Subject) and select the Answer using the
codes given below the Lists : List - I (Case) List -II (Subject)
A. State of Rajasthan Vs.G.Vjawla
B. K.T. Moopil Nair Vs.State Of Kerala
C. Gujarati University Vs.State of kerala
D. M.Karunanidhi Vs. Union of India 1. Harmonious construction 2. Colourable
Legislation 3. Repugnancy 4. Pith and Substance 5. Incidental Powers Codes :
A. A B C D 1 3 5 2
B. 4 2 1 3
C. 1 2 5 3
D. 4 3 1 2
Ans : B
Q - 180 : A manufacturer of ginger beer had sold to a retailer, bottles of ginger beer
in opaque bottles.The retailer sold one such bottle to 'A' who gave to his girl friend
which contained the decomposed remains of a dead snail. The lady alleged of that
she became seriously ill on consuming a portion of the contents from the said bottle.
Which one of the following conclusions is correct as to the liability in law of torts?
A. The manufacturer of the ginger beer shall be liable for negligence
B. The manufacturer is not liable at all
C. The retailer will liable to the lady as he sold the bottle
D. The lady is not entitled to damages due to her contributory negligence
Ans : A
Q - 181 : Match List-| (Rules/Maxims) with List-|| (Cases) and Select the Answer
from the codes given below the Lists : List-I (Rules/Maxims) List -II (Cases)
A. Neighbour Principle
B. Last Opportunity Rule
C.Res ipsa Loquitur
D. Doctrine Identification 1. Davies Vs. Mann 2. Byrne Vs.Boadle 3.Mathews
Vs.London Street Tramways Co. 4. Donoghue Vs. Stevenson 5. Ashby Vs.White Codes
:
A. A B C D 3 2 5 4
B. 4 1 2 3
40
C. 4 2 5 3
D. 3 1 2 4
Ans : B
Q - 182 : In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India give a
ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the fundamental Rights?
A. State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati
B. Shyam Sunder Vs. State of Rajasthan
C. Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram jain Vs. State of U.P.
D. People Union for Democratic Rights Vs. State Bihar.
Ans : D
Q - 183 : Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

A. The principles of master's liability for the acts of a servant is based on the doctrine
is respondent superior
B. The rule of master's liability for the acts of the servant is based on the maxim qui
facit per alium facit per se
C. Master's liability for the torts of his servant is absolute and it is immaterial
whether the tort was committed in the course of his employment or not
D. The rule of master's liability for the act of the servant is based on the capacity to
pay, in most of the cases, servant is not financially in good position to pay the
damages
Ans : C
Q - 184 : Where does vicarious liability generally arise from?

A. A contract of service
B. A contract for service
C. A contract of service as well as a contract for service
D. a wrongful act of the master
Ans : A
Q - 185 : An army truck driven by an army driver while going to leave army jawans on
the station for enabling them to catch their home town, hit a pedestrian and killed
him due to rash and negligent driving. Which one of the following is correct?
A. In this case vicarious liability is to be imposed on the Government of India.
B. In this case vicarious liability would be claimed under the defence of sovereign
functions of the State.
C. In this case no liability will be imposed under the defence of inevitable accident
D. In this case both Government of India and the drive personally would be liable
Ans : A
41
Q - 186 : C, a stranger blocked the water pipes of a wash-basin and opened the tap.
The wash-basin was otherwise in the control of the defendant
B. The overflowing water damaged the plaintiff goods. Thereupon the plaintiff filed a
suit for damages against the defendant
B.
C.was not made a party. In the aforesaid suit which one of the following conclusions
is correct?
A. The defendant was liable for damages to the plaintiff to the basis of rule of strict
liability
B. The defendant was not liable for damages
C. The stranger C will have to pay damages
D. The plaintiff's suit will be decreed in his favour
Ans : D
Q - 187 : Due to the collapse of the clock-tower situated opposite the townhall in
main bazaar of a city,a number of person die
D. The clock-tower belonged to the Municipal Corporation of the city and was
exclusively under its control. It was 60 years old but the normal life of the structure
of the building which had fallen could be 40 to 45 years having regard to the kind of
material use
D. Mrs.X whose husband died due to the collapse of the clock-tower filed the suit for
damages against the Municipal Corporation. Which one of the following maxims is
applicable in the aforesaid case?
A. Damnum sine injuria
B. Injuria sine damno
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Volenti not fit injuric
Ans : C
Q - 188 : The defendants by digging a coalpit in the land intercepted the water which
affected the plaintiffs well at a distance of about one mile. The plaintiff brought a
suit for a damages against the defendants. Which one of the following maxims is
applicable in the aforesaid case?
A. Damnum sine injuria
B. Injuria sine damno
C. Res ips loquitur
D. Volenti non fit injuria
Ans : A
42
Q - 189 : Who gave the 'Pigeon-hole' theory in definding tort?

A. Austin
B. Heuston
C. Salmond
D. Winfield
Ans : C
Q - 190 : A Magistrate in making a report to the superior casts an imputation on the

character of a person Z in goods faith and for public goo
D. Which of the following defence is most appropriate?
A. justification
B. Fair comment
C. Absolute privilege
D. Qualified privilege
Ans : D
Q - 191 : In India and action of slander may be maintained without proof of special
damage in some cases. Identify in which of the following cases proof of damage is
necessary ?
A. Imputation of crime
B. Vulgar abusive language
C. Imputation of contagious disease
D. Imputation of lack of chastity to a woman
Ans : B
Q - 192 : When does the tort of condpiracy exist?

A. Two or more persons agree to commit and unlawful act
B. Two or more persons agree to commit some recognised tort
C. Two or more persons caused harm to the plaintiff
D. Two or more persons committed a concerted action to injure the plaintiff.
Ans : D
Q - 193 : During the scarcity of potatoes.long queues were made outside the
defendant's shop who having a licence to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only
1 kg of potatoes per ration car
D.The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the
neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance
against the defendant. Which one of the following decisions will be correct in this
suit?
A. The defendant is liable for nuisance
43
B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance

C. The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in their favour
D. The defendant is liable to pay damages to the plaintiffs
Ans : B
Q - 194 : A theft had been committed in the defendant's house. He informed the
police that he suspected the plaintiff for the same. Therefore the plaintiff was
arrested by the police. A complaint was filed by the defendant but the plaintiff was
subsequently discharged by the magistrate as the final report showed that there was
no evidence connecting the plaintiff with the theft. The plaintiff filed a suit for
damages on the ground of malicious prosecution. In the above case, which one of
the following decisions is correct?
A. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the defendant
B. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from the police
C. The plaintiff is entitled to claim damages from both
D. The plaintiff is not entitled to claim damages for malicious prosecution at all
Ans : D
Q - 195 : The branch of a tree growing on the defendant's land hung on the highway
at a height of about 30 feet above the groun
D. In fine weather, the branch suddenly broke and fell upon the plaintiff's vehicle
which was passing along the highway. For the damage to the vehicle, the plaintiff
sues the defendant on the ground of nuisance. Which one of the following
conclusions is correct in this suit ?
A. The defendant was liable for nuisance
B. The defendant was not liable for nuisance
C. The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability
D. The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour
Ans : B
Q - 196 : The defendant had filed a complaint to the Magistrate against the plaintiff.
The complaint was dismisse
D. The defendant moved the Sessions judge in appeal. He got himself examined in
Sessions trial although he knew the charge was false and he was acting without
reasonable and probable cause. His complaint was dismissed by the Session Judge.
Thereupon the plaintiff filed a suit for malicious prosecution against the defendant.
In the aforesaid case, which one of the following conclusion in correct ?
A. The defendant is liable for malicious prosecution
B. The defendant is not liable for malicious prosecution
C. The defendant is not liable to pay damages to the plaintiff
44
D. The plaintiff suit must be dismissed

Ans : A
Q - 197 : Which of the following is an element of strict liability in tort?

A. Duty to take care
B. Fault
C. Breach of duty
D. No-fault
Ans : D
Q - 198 : Section 300 of the IPC speaks of situations in which if a murder is

committed, then it is treated as 'culpable homicide not amounting to murder.'
Which one of the following situations is not covered under S.300, IPC?
A. Exercise of the right of private defence
B. Exercise of legal
C. Exercise of legal powers
D. Sudden fight
Ans : C
Q - 199 : A lady wishing to get a railway ticket, finding a crowd at the ticket window
at the station, asked 'X', who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and
handed him over the money for the same, 'X' took the money and instead of getting
the ticket run away with the money. What offence has been committed by 'X' ?
A. No offense
B. Offence of criminal breach of trust
C. Offence criminal misappropriation
D. Offence of theft
Ans : B
Q - 200 : Which of the following elements constitute criminal misappropriation of

property ? 1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused 2. Any
property belonging to a person other than the accused 3. The accused must have
misappropriated the property to his own use 4. There must be dishonest intention
on the part of the accused Select the Answer using the codes given below :
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans : B
45
Q - 201 :
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A. A B C D 2 3 1 4
B. 4 1 2 3
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans : D
Q - 202 : Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of
India Act 1919? 1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the
provinces. 2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims. 3.
Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces. 4. Expansion and
reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
Ans : D
Q - 203 : Consider the following statements: The Indian constitution is 1. Unwritten

constitution 2. Written constitution 3. Largely based on government of India Act,
1935
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
Ans : B
Q - 204 : Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism: 1.
Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state. 2. Secularism
means that the state treats all the religions equally. 3. Secularism means that the
state regulates the relation of man with Go
D. Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
46
Ans : B
Q - 205 : Which one is not correctly matched?

A. Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B. Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C. conscience Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business
liberty
D. (d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Ans : C
Q - 206 : The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice- President
C. Chief Minister
D. Chief Justice
Ans : A
Q - 207 : An accused person has been provided with the following protections by
constitution of India: 1. Ex post facto law 2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy. Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the
Indian constitution.
A. Codes: 1, 3, 2
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 1,3
Ans : A
Q - 208 : Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding
reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Ans : C
Q - 209 : Match the following:

A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case. abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case. liability
47
A. Codes: A B C D 2 4 1 3
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 2 4 3 1
D. 4 2 1 3
Ans : C
Q - 210 : A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for
such period not exceeding
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. Nine months
D. Twelve months
Ans : D
Q - 211 : Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A. Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B. Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C. Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D. Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Ans : A

A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A. A B C D 2 4 1 3
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 2 4 3 1
D. 4 2 1 3
Ans : C

A. Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath from DPSP
Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B. Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure
guaranteed by Art. 21.
C. In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to
Q - the correctness of the conviction of the accuse

48
D.
D. In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Ans : C
Q - 214 : List-I List-II Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver of fundamental
rights Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom vs. UOI Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and
personal liberty vs. State of MP Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A. A B C D 4 2 3 1
B. 5 4 3 2
C. 4 3 2 1
D. 5 3 2 1
Ans : C
Q - 215 : List-I List-II Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication

Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government Quasi-judicial functions 3.
Appointment and transfer of judges Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A. A B C D 2 1 4 3
B. 3 4 1 2
C. 2 4 1 3
D. 3 I 4 2
Ans : B
Q - 216 : The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Ans : A
Q - 217 : List-I List-II A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice

B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A. A B C D 2 4 3 1
B. 1 3 4 2
C. 2 3 4 1
D. 1 4 3 2
Ans : B
49
Q - 218 : The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are: 1. To value and
preserve rich heritage of our composite culture. 2. To safeguard private property. 3.
To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these
fundamental duties include:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 219 : If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the

constitution must be amended?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Ans : A
Q - 220 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth
schedule of the constitution of India?
A. It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B. It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C. It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D. It allocates seats in the council of states.
Ans : D
Q - 221 : The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:

A. Fundamental rights
B. DPSP
C. List of languages recognised by the constitution
D. Number of states and UTS
Ans : C
Q - 222 : Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution
of India.
A. 2nd schedule
B. 5th schedule
C. 8th schedule
D. 10th schedule
Ans : D
50
Q - 223 : At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of

India.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11
Ans : A
Q - 224 : The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is
absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Ans : C
Q - 225 : When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant,
_____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A. The President
B. The prime minister
C. The chief justice of India
D. Council of ministers
Ans : A
Q - 226 : The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from
the constitution of:
A. France
B. USA
C. United Kingdom
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 227 : Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of

either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A. The election commission
B. President
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime minister
Ans : B
51
Q - 228 : Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?

A. Part IX
B. Part IX-A
C. Part X
D. Part X-A
Ans : B
Q - 229 : It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution
lies in the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Fundamental duties
D. Directive principles of state policy
Ans : A
Q - 230 : Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to

be decided by
A. The President
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D. Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Ans : D
Q - 231 : Preamble to the constitution of India:

A. is not a Part of the constitution.
B. Indicates the objectives to be achieve
D.
C. Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D. Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Ans : C
Q - 232 : The preamble to the Indian constitution is:

A. A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor
can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B. A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the
constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C. A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other
provision of the constitution.
D. Not a Part of the constitution.
52
Ans : B
Q - 233 : The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be
traced back to the constitution of
A. USA
B. United Nations
C. United Kingdom
D. Ireland
Ans : D
Q - 234 : The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India (a)
Equality of status and opportunity (b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith
and worship. (c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual. (d) Unity and
integrity of the nation . Which one of the following is the correct order in which they
appear in the preamble ?
A. 5,1,2,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 3,1,2,5,4
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Ans : B
Q - 235 : Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian
constitution ?
A. Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B. Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C. Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D. Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Ans : A
Q - 236 : The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A. Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B. Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C. Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D. Security of service to government servants .
Ans : C
Q - 237 : Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the

constitution.
A. 1st Amendment Act
B. 24th Amendment Act
53
C. 42nd Amendment Act

D. 44th Amendment Act
Ans : C
Q - 238 : Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. Never
Ans : C
Q - 239 : The word secular denotes:

A. Keeping away from all religions.
B. Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C. Belief in one god
D. Practicing different religions
Ans : B
Q - 240 : The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is
to:
A. Prohibit concentration of wealth
B. Distribute equitably the natural resources
C. Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D. That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic
means.
Ans : D
Q - 241 : In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can
be suspended? 1. External Aggression 2. Internal Emergency 3. When Martial Law is
in force
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 242 : Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India. 1. Right
to Education 2. Right to Information 3. Right to Vote
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
54
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 only
Ans : B
Q - 243 : Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under
Article 21 is:
A. Against arbitrary legislative action.
B. Against arbitrary executive action.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : C
Q - 244 : Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct: 1. Right to

Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution 2.
Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act. 3. Supreme Court of
India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : A
Q - 245 : Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an
aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Article 32. 1. Parliament
can suspend this right during national emergency. 2. Only SC shall have the power to
issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR 3. High courts have the power to
issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A. I only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Ans : B
Q - 246 : Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person
shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure
established by law."? 1. Right to speedy trial. 2. Right against delayed execution. 3.
Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
55
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 247 : Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative

authorities?
A. Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B. Certiorari & Mandamus.
C. Prohibition & Mandamus.
D. Prohibition & Certiorari.
Ans : B
Q - 248 : The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-
enforceable because: 1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to
implement them. 2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could
stand in the way of implementation.
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : C
Q - 249 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. The directive

principles are meant to establish Political Democracy. 2. The directive principles are
meant to establish Social Democracy. 3. The directive principles are meant to
establish Economic Democracy.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B
Q - 250 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. Fundamental Rights

enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles. 2. The parliament can amend the
Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles. 3. Fundamental rights
cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A. 1 and 3
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
56
Ans : B
Q - 251 : Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional

Amendment Bill? 1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the
constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament. 2. President must give his assent to the
Bill if duly passed by both houses. 3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced
in any house of the Parliament.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. I only
Ans : B
Q - 252 : The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be

altered by:
A. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and
ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Ans : A
Q - 253 : Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution? 1.

Supremacy of the Constitution. 2. Rigid Constitution. 3. Independent Judiciary.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 254 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations? 1.
In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests
with the states. 2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the
legislative power rests with the centre 3. Residuary powers are assigned to the
parliament.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : D
57
Q - 255 : Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations? 1.
During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to
a state on any matter. 2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352)
President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre
and the states. 3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under
Art. 352.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Ans : C
Q - 256 : Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The chairman and
members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by
the President. 2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but
can be removed only by the President. 3. Finance commission is mentioned under
Art. 280 of the constitution.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 257 : Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of

Emergency?
A. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be
passed by both houses of Parliament by a special majority.
B. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be
passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
C. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either
house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 258 : Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule
in a state (Article 356)? 1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party
secures a majority. 2. Serious maladministration in the state. 3. Stringent financial
exigencies of the state.
A. I only
58
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : A
Q - 259 : Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation
of Financial Emergency (Article 360)? 1. It can be extended to an indefinite period
with an approval of the parliament for every six months. 2. A resolution approving
the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of
Parliament by simple majority. 3. The President may issue directions for reduction of
salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A. I only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : B
Q - 260 : The Electoral College for President's election consist of: 1. Elected members
of both the houses of Parliament. 2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 261 : When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95
provides that
A. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Ans : C
Q - 262 : With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -

A. The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B. The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C. The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D. The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Ans : C
59
Q - 263 : The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of

President is/are 1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax
laws. 2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans : B
Q - 264 : The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his
term in which of the following manner?
A. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha.
C. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha.
D. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the
Lok Sabha
Ans : D
Q - 265 : The Council of Ministers' does not consist of: 1. Deputy Ministers. 2.
Parliamentary Secretaries. 3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of these
Ans : D
Q - 266 : The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by: 1.
The members of the State Legislative Assembly only. 2. Elected members of the
Legislative Assembly of that State legislative assembly or electoral college of the UT
as the case may be. 3. The system of proportional representation by single
transferrable vote. 4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Ans : C
60
Q - 267 : Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with
the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person to be chosen a member of
Parliament? 1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a
member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory. 2. He/she must not have been
punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry
and sati. 3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or
services.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 268 : Which of the following statements are correct? 1. If an MLA is elected to be

an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the
state legislature within 14 days. 2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he
should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans : C
Q - 269 : As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with

A. to discover new rules
B. to reflect all the rules already known
C. to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D. logi
C.
Ans : B
Q - 270 : Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?

A. Bentham
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Ans : D
Q - 271 : Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?

A. Bentham
61
B. Stone
C. Austin
D. Holland
Ans : B
Q - 272 : Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?

A. R. Dworkin
B. Hart
C. Bentham
D. Tom Bingham
Ans : A
Q - 273 : The concept of law depends largely on the:

A. social values
B. accepted norms
C. behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 274 : Law consists of social norms which are:

A. coercive
B. ethical
C. non-coercive
D. religious
Ans : A
Q - 275 : Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law
by:
A. Salmond
B. Holland
C. Gray
D. Paton
Ans : A
Q - 276 : The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote

A. Positive law
B. Negative law
C. Fundamental legal principles
D. Legal systems
Ans : C
62
Q - 277 : Austin's law is:

A. command of sovereign
B. command of God
C. command of people
D. command of constitution
Ans : A
Q - 278 : Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A. Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B. Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent
being having power over him.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is
done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D. If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior,
receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate
superior is sovereign in that society.
Ans : C
Q - 279 : Mark the incorrect statement:

A. Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B. The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C. Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal constitutions e.g.,
India, USA
D. Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real
character and functions of law in a community.
Ans : B
Q - 280 : Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-
optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation,
legislation and adjudication?
A. Hart
B. Salmond
C. Kelsen
D. Austin
Ans : A
Q - 281 : Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?

A. Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B. The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal
63
system.
C. A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is
done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D. The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Ans : D

A. Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by Go
D.
C. Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the
people.
Ans : B
Q - 283 : The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:

A. a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B. a theory which includes everything which is law.
C. a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
Ans : A
Q - 284 : According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be
traced back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their
existence. The grundnorm: I must be efficacious II. The Grundnorm is not deduced
from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis. III. should secure for itself
a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum of support of
people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm. Codes:
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II
Ans : C
Q - 285 : Mark the incorrect option:

A. The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B. The concept of law - Hart
C. Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D. None of the above.
Ans : D
64
Q - 286 : Mark the correct statement:

A. Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B. Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international
law.
C. Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and
laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 287 : The philosophical school seeks to investigate:

A. quest of the law
B. purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C. the philosophical basis of the law
Ans : B
Q - 288 : Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of
individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This
statement belongs to:
A. Analytical school
B. Historical school
C. Sociological school
Ans : C
Q - 289 : Which of the following is incorrectly matched? I. Fuller - inner morality II.
Bentham - utilitarianism III. Maine - status of contract IV. Duguit - social solidarity V.
Hart -rules on fundamentals of a legal system Codes:
A. None except I
B. None except III
C. None except IV
Ans : D
Q - 290 : Mark the correct option:

A. Sources of law - Salmond
B. Nature and sources of law - Gray
C. (c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D. All of the above
65
Ans : D
Q - 291 : A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient

under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A. is same
B. does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its
validity
C. antiquity is not essential
Ans : B
Q - 292 : The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A. interpretation of statute
B. construction of statute
C. both (a) and (b)
D. harmonization of statute
Ans : A
Q - 293 : It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature
should not delegate to a subordinate body the power make rules on:
A. technical matter
B. policy matter
C. matter of inclusion and exclusion
D. date of commencement of a statute
Ans : B
Q - 294 : Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated
legislation?
A. Parliamentary control
B. Judicial control
C. Publication of delegated legislation
D. Registration of delegated legislation
Ans : D

A. Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B. Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C. Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D. Literal rule - strict interpretation
Ans : C
66
Q - 296 : Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?

A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Ans : D
Q - 297 : Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?

A. Literal rule
B. Golden rule
C. Harmonious construction rule
D. Liberal rule
Ans : A
Q - 298 : The maxim Ejusdem generis means:

A. of the same kind or nature
B. when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are
constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 299 : Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?

A. Title
B. Preamble
C. Proviso and explanation
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 300 : The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:

A. a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B. a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C. a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
Ans : A
Q - 301 : Which of the following is not an external aid to construction of a statute?

A. Parliamentary debates
B. Statement of object and reasons
67
C. Books and dictionaries

D. Marginal notes
Ans : D
Q - 302 : Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in the present
day context?
A. Judges did not create any new principles of law through their decisions but simply
put a stamp of authority on the already existing principles of law in the society.
B. Judicial decisions are not source of law but as the proof of what the law is.
C. Judges not only declare law but also make it through their decisions.
D. The judges either apply the constitution or legislation or a custom to come to a
conclusion.
Ans : C
Q - 303 : Who said: "Case law is gold in mine while statute law is coin of the realm
ready for immediate use"?
A. Grotius
B. Hugo
C. Puchta
D. Salmond
Ans : D
Q - 304 : The realist theory is given by

A. Ihering
B. Gierke
C. Savigny
D. Kelsen
Ans : B
Q - 305 : The making of law by the recognition and application of new rules by the
courts themselves in the administration of justice implies:
A. judicial precedent
B. judicial decision
C. judicial activism
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : D
Q - 306 : The doctrine of precedent is of antiquity. while the stare decisis is relatively
modern, the latter relates to:
A. settled judicial hierarchy of courts and law reports
68
B. emergence of concept of sovereignty of Parliament

C. a point of law settled by a judicial decision
Ans : C
Q - 307 : Ratio decidendi of a case can be defined as the:

A. material facts of the case plus the decision thereon
B. obiter dicta of the case plus the decision thereon
C. the decision of a case
Ans : A
Q - 308 : The decision of the Supreme Court are bounded on:

A. All court within the territory of India, including Supreme Court
B. High Courts only
C. All courts within the territory of India, except Supreme Court
D. Indians living abroad
Ans : C
Q - 309 : According to who, ratio decidendi is nothing more than the decision based
on the material facts of a case?
A. Dias
B. Wambaugh
C. Goodhart
D. Bentham
Ans : C
Q - 310 : Who said: "A right is a faculty which resides in a determinate party or
parties by virtue of a given law and which avails against a party or parties other than
the party or parties in whom it resides"?
A. Austin
B. Salmond
C. Hart
D. Kelsen
Ans : A
Q - 311 : Which of the following is incorrect in relation to right in its various forms
and its opposites?
A. Claim - duty
B. Liberty - no-claim
69
C. Power - liberty
D. Immunity - disability
Ans : C
Q - 312 : Mark the incorrect options:

A. Liberty - freedom from the claim other
B. Duty- gives content to the claim of a person
C. Power - ability of a person to change relations
D. Absolute duty - have a correlative claim
Ans : D
Q - 313 : In India, it is a duty of every citizen to respect national flag, protect culture
et
C., it is:
A. Absolute duty
B. Relative duty
C. Secondary duty
Ans : A
Q - 314 : What is the main element of a right?

A. Will
B. Interest
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Coercion
Ans : C
Q - 315 : A jural relation between:

A. person and person
B. person and a thing
C. person and state
D. person and object
Ans : A
Q - 316 : Duties without a corresponding rights are called:

A. absolute duty
B. relative duty
C. secondary duty
Ans : A
70
Q - 317 : A gives B Rs. 600 as a consideration for a contract. Now A has:

A. power
B. privilege
C. claim
D. immunity
Ans : C

A. Immunity - freedom from the power of another
B. Disability- absence of power
C. Nemo dat quod non habet - disability on the part of persons in general to transfer
property that they do not themselves own
D. Disability - no right
Ans : D
Q - 319 : Duty implies:

A. obligation
B. an act that opposite of which would be wrong
C. one may perform a certain act
Ans : B
Q - 320 : Which of the following is incorrect in relation to right in its various forms
and its opposites?
A. Right - no right
B. Liberty - duty
C. Power - immunity
D. Immunity – liability
Ans : C
Q - 321 : When a power is coupled with a liberty to exercise it, it is called:

A. discretionary power
B. ministerial power
C. wrongful power
D. relative power
Ans : A
Q - 322 : A primary right can be a:

A. right in rem only
71
B. right in personam only

C. Either (a) or (b)
Ans : C
Q - 323 : All cases of damnum sine injuria are cases of:

A. disability
B. liability
C. liberty
D. no right
Ans : D
Q - 324 : Which of the following is not mentioned in the Hohfeldian scheme?

A. Jural correlatives
B. Jural opposites
C. Jural contradictories
Ans : C
Q - 325 : A right in personam is:

A. available only against a particular person
B. available against person in general
C. a positive right
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : D
Q - 326 : The object of right is called:

A. jus
B. res
C. sine
D. lex
Ans : B
Q - 327 : A time barred claim is a:

A. perfect right
B. imperfect right
C. right in rem
Ans : B
72
Q - 328 : A person is any being whom the law regards as capable of:
A. rights only
B. duties only
C. rights or duties
Ans : C
Q - 329 : Legal theory assumes that a person is an entity which is capable of suing
and being sue
D. In view of this, which of the following is/are not a legal person?
A. Idiots
B. Lunatics
C. Dead persons
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 330 : Who said the child in womb is not a legal personality and can have no right?
A. Savigny
B. Bentham
C. Paton
D. Salmond
Ans : C
Q - 331 : Natural persons being human beings are:

A. person in fact
B. person in law
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 332 : A company is vested with a distinct corporate personality from the

members who compose it was held in:
A. Salomon vs Salomon and Co.
B. Daimler Co. Lt
D. vs Continental Tyre Co.
C. Bridges vs Hawkesworth
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 333 : The main purpose of corporate sole is:

73
A. protect the property of the govt.

B. maintain continuity of an office
C. make the property easily transferable
D. make the property easily inheritable
Ans : B
Q - 334 : An incorporated group of coexisting persons

A. corporation sole
B. corporation aggregate
C. individual
D. institution
Ans : B
Q - 335 : Who amongst the following was the propounder of the theory that says:
"the movement of the progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from
status to contract"?
A. Hugo
B. Burke
C. Henry Maine
D. Herbert Spencer
Ans : C
Q - 336 : Law is the sum of the conditions of social life in the widest sense of the
term, as secured by the power of the state through the means of external
compulsion. This statement relates to:
A. Historical school
B. Analytical school
C. Natural law school
D. Sociological school
Ans : D
Q - 337 : Which one of the following is not natural law?

A. Living law
B. Divine law
C. Universal law
D. Moral law
Ans : A
Q - 338 : A right with me is a child of law_____ natural law is a son that never had a
father. Who said this?
74
A. Jeremy Valdon
B. Bentham
C. Salmond
D. Paton
Ans : B
Q - 339 : Which of the following pairs are jural correlatives? 1. Power - liability 2.
Power - disability 3. Liberty - duty 4. Immunity - disability Of the above pairs choose
the
Ans :
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans : C
Q - 340 : The concept of social engineering is at the root of the definition of law
given by:
A. Savigny
B. Roscoe
C. Hegel
D. Ehrlich
Ans : B
Q - 341 : Do you know how they make it? Just as a man makes law for his dog. This
famous statement on judge made law was made by:
A. Aristotle
B. Plucknett
C. Monstesquieu
D. Bentham
Ans : D
Q - 342 : Who amongst the following treats law as a system of rules?

A. Allen
B. Hart
C. Jenks
D. Lloyd
Ans : B
Q - 343 : In order that a local custom may be valid operative as a source of law,
75
which of the following requirements besides antiquity to be satisfied? 1.

Reasonableness 2. Conformity with the statute 3. Observance as matter of moral
right Select the Answer using codes given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Ans : A
Q - 344 : The idea of natural law first appeared in:

A. French revolution
B. American war of independence
C. Roman law
D. Greek thinking
Ans : D
Q - 345 : Consider the following statements: 1. Precedents are created by the judges
2. A precedent is not binding if it is inconsistent with a statute 3. Precedent can
sometimes be created by legislation Choose the
Ans :
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : C
Q - 346 : Who is generally considered as the founder of the historical school of

jurisprudence?
A. Hegel
B. Savigny
C. Karl Marx
D. Emmanuel Kant
Ans : B
Q - 347 : Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Possession in fact confers actual right to property
B. Possession in fact exists only when a person has immediate physical control of the
thing.
C. Possession in fact also extends to things which are beyond a persons immediate
physical control.
76
D. Possession in fact is possible only when the possessor has the legal right to
possess.
Ans : B
Q - 348 : "Sovereignty according to Austin has the characteristics:

A. positive and negative both
B. positive only
C. negative only
D. internal
Ans : A
Q - 349 : Consider the following four types of legal doctrines: (1) Volksgeist (2)
Imperative theory of law (3) Social engineering (4) Social solidarity Identify the
correct order in terms of time in which they appeared:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 3, 4, 1 and 2
C. 2, 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 1, 4 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 350 : Who opines that codification is the reduction of the whole corpus juris so
far as practicable in the form of enacted law?
A. Savigny
B. Salmond
C. Hobbes
D. Pollock
Ans : B
Q - 351 : Who among the following said that the ownership is a right indefinite in
point of user, and restricted in point of disposition and unlimited in point of
duration?
A. Austin
B. Kelsen
C. Holland
D. Hart
Ans : A
Q - 352 : The celebrated essay determining ratio decidendi of case was written by:
A. Goodhart
B. Winfield
77
C. Oppenheim
D. Stone
Ans : A
Q - 353 : The author of the book Province of Jurisprudence Determined is:

A. Bentham
B. Austin
C. Kelsen
D. Hart
Ans : B
Q - 354 : Which one of the following does not come within the ambit of ownership?
A. Right to possess
B. Right to dispossess
C. Right to use and enjoy
D. Right to destroy
Ans : B
Q - 355 : Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law of school?
A. Emmanuel Kant
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Stammler
D. John Rawls
Ans : B
Q - 356 : Which one of the following cases does not relate to possession?
A. Bridges vs Hawkesworth
B. R. vs Moore
C. London Street Tramways vs LCC
D. Towers and Co Ltd vs Gary
Ans : C
Q - 357 : According to Austin which of the following is not an essential element of

law?
A. Command
B. Ideal
C. Duty
D. Sanction
Ans : B
78
Q - 358 : Which one of the following is not an essential element of custom?

A. Certainty
B. Reasonableness
C. Continuance
D. Moral force
Ans : D
Q - 359 : Which of the following is not a characteristic of legal right?

A. Person of inheritance
B. Person of incidence
C. Subject matter of right
D. Novation of right
Ans : D
Q - 360 : Point out incorrect response:

A. iberty and claim are correlative
B. claim and duty are correlative
C. power and liability are correlative
D. immunity and disability are correlative
Ans : A
Q - 361 : Which one of the following schools adhered to the view that Law is found
not made, it is self existent?
A. Analytical school
B. Historical school
C. Sociological school
D. Realist school
Ans : B
Q - 362 : Which one of the following is not a legal mode of acquisition of possession?
A. Taking
B. Delivery
C. By acquisition
D. By operation of law
Ans : C
Q - 363 : Match List-I with List-II and select the Answer by using the code given
below the lists: List-I List-II
A. Historical school 1. Acquinas
B. Sociological school 2. Bentham
79
C. Natural law 3. Auguste Comte

D. Analytical school 4. Puchta Codes:
A. A B C D 3 4 2 1
B. 4 3 1 2
C. 1 2 3 4
D. 2 1 4 3
Ans : B
Q - 364 : According to Salmond, supreme legislation refers to :

A. colonial legislation
B. executive legislation
C. judicial legislation
D. law made by the Parliament
Ans : D
Q - 365 : The constitutional basis of the doctrine of precedent is found in:

A. Article-12
B. Article-136
C. Article-141
D. Article-14
Ans : C
Q - 366 : The original author of the book "The Limits of Jurisprudence Defined" is:
A. Austin
B. Stuart Mill
C. David Hume
D. Bentham
Ans : D
Q - 367 : Which of the following jurists is not related to historical school of

jurisprudence?
A. Ehrlich
B. Savigny
C. Henry Maine
D. Hegel
Ans : A
Q - 368 : Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below! List-I List-II
A. Utilitarian individualism 1. Duguit
80
B. Social engineering 2. Ihering

C. Social solidarity 3. Bentham
D. Social utilitarian 4. Roscoe Pound
A. A B C D 1 2 3 4
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 3 2 4 1
Ans : C
Q - 369 : Right of eligible employees to be considered for promotion is virtually a

part of Fundamental Right of employees, was decided by the Supreme Court in:
A. Union of India vs. Hemraj Singh Chauhan
B. Supreme Court Employees Association vs. Union of India
C. John Vallamattam vs. Union of India
D. St. Stephens College vs. University of Delhi
Ans : A
Q - 370 : Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration is a landmark case on

A. Autre fois aquit
B. Bias
C. Habeas corpus
D. Mandamus
Ans : C
Q - 371 : Using codes given below, find out correct answers: Administrative law deals
with (i) the powers of constitutional authorities (ii) the powers of judicial authorities
(iii) the powers of the administrative authorities (iv) the powers of the legislative
authorities. Codes :
A. Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
B. Only (ii) is correct.
C. Only (iii) is correct.
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans : C
Q - 372 : Match List-I with List-Il using codes given below : List-I List-II (i)There is no
rigid formula for principles 1. R.S. Dass vs. Union of India of natural justice. (ii) Choice
of application of rules of 2. R. vs. Sussex justice. natural Justices (iii) Justice should
not only be done, 3. Union of India vs, P.K. Roy but manifestly and undoubtedly be
seen to be done. (iv) Meaning of bias 4. Secy. to Govt.Transport Dept vs.
Munuswamy Codes :
81
A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2 4 1 3

B. 3 1 4 2
C. 1 3 2 4
D. 3 1 2 4
Ans : D
Q - 373 : Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out Answer using codes given
below: Assertion (A) : Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a
claimant. Reason (R): Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before
a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking being
taken. Codes :
A. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false.
D. (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans : A
Q - 374 : Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Gullappalli Nageswara Rao vs. State of AP, is about bias.
B. KL. Tripathi vs. State Bank of India, is about right of cross examination.
C. General Medical Council vs. Speakmen, is about irrelevance of principles of
natural justice: if in reaching a decision, the principles make no difference.
D. N. Kalindi ws. Tata Locomotives, is about the right of representation by a lawyer
being considered to be a part of natural justice and it can be claimed as of right.
Ans : B
Q - 375 : Abuse of discretion can be inferred from the following circumstances. Find
out the answer from the codes given below: (1) Non-application of min
D. (ii) Colourable exercise of power, (iii) Non-observance of audi alteram partem. (iv)
Irrelevant considerations. Codes :
A. Only (i) is correct.
B. Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
C. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
D. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans : D
Q - 376 : What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A.K. Kraipak vs.
Union of India? Find Answer from the following statements:
A. Rule of law is embedded in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
B. Judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Constitution.
82
C. Principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings.

D. Post-decisional hearing would be sufficient for the observance of principles of
natural justice.
Ans : C
Q - 377 : Find Answer from the following statement:

A. A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision unless authorised by the
statute.
B. A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is grave error of law in
C. A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is violation of natural
justice.
D. All tribunals may review their decisions.
Ans : A
Q - 378 : Doctrine of forum prorogatum means

A. Jurisdiction cannot be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise
competent by the litigants during the proceedings.
B. Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent
by the litigants during the proceedings.
C. Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent
by the litigants after the proceedings.
Ans : B
Q - 379 : Which one of the following is not basic source of administrative law ?
A. Custom
B. Delegated legislation
C. Ordinance promulgated by Governor
D. Reports of the committees and commission
Ans : A
Q - 380 : Which of the following statements is true ?

A. Mandamus lies against quasi-judicial order.
B. Mandamus is issued where inferior court declined jurisdiction.
C. Mandamus may be issued, even if alternate remedy is available.
D. Mandamus may be issued even no legal right of petitioner subsists
Ans : B
Q - 381 : The rule of 'Audi alteram partem' requires reasonable opportunity of

hearing. Hearing may be
83
A. only in writing
B. only orally
C. written or oral
D. written and oral both
Ans : C
Q - 382 : The high court can exercise the supervisory jurisdiction over the courts and
tribunals subordinate to it under
A. Article-32
B. Article-226
C. Article-227
D. Article-141
Ans : C
Q - 383 : The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of
a person to a public office is
A. Certiorari
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Quo-Warranto
Ans : D
Q - 384 : What are exceptions to the rule of natural justice? Answer using codes
given below: (i) Exclusion by statutory provisions (ii) Exclusion by Constitutional
provision (iii) Exclusion in case of legislative act (iv) Exclusion in public interest.
Codes:
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
D. All of above are correct.
Ans : D
Q - 385 : Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find Answer using codes given
below: Assertion (A): In India the order passed in violation of the principles of natural
justice is voi
D. Reason (R): In India there is void in the area of principles of justice by nature.
Codes:
A. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
84
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans : C
Q - 386 : In which of the following conditions, the abuse of discretionary power is

inferred? (i) Use for improper purpose (ii) Mala fide (iii) Relevant consideration (iv)
Leaving out irrelevant consideration Answer using codes given below: Codes:
D. All of above are correct.
Ans : B
Q - 387 : "Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of
administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of
administrative action." This definition of Administrative Law is given by:
A. Ivor Jenning
B. Garner
C. K.
C. Davis
D. Wade
Ans : C
Q - 388 : In which of the following grounds, a write of certiorari may be issued ?

A. Error of jurisdiction
B. Error apparent on face of record
C. Violation of natural justice
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 389 : Answer the following using the codes given below:Administrative Law deals
with : (i) Composition, powers and functions of the administrative authorities. (ii)
Procedures to be followed by the administrative authorities in the exercise of their
powers and functions. (iii) Methods of control of powers of the administrative
authorities. (iv) Remedies available to a person in case of violation of his rights by
the administrative authorities. Codes :
D. All of the above are correct.
Ans : D
85
Q - 390 : Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below,
point out the correct explanation : Assertion (A): One of the principles of natural
justice is, 'No man shall be judge in his own cause'. Reason (R) : Principles of natural
justice require fair play in action.
A. Codes : (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false.
D. (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans : A
Q - 391 : Match List-I with List-II and indicate the Answer using the codes given
below: List-I List-II (i) A.K. Kraipak 1. Postdecisional hearing Vs. Union of India (ii)
Manak Lal Vs. 2. Personal bias Dr. Prem Chand (iii) Maneka Gandhi 3. Pecuniary bias
Vs. Union of India (iv) Olga Tellis Vs. 4. Reasonable opportunity of hearing Bombay
Municipal Corporation
A. Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1 2 3 4
B. 1 3 4 2
C. 2 3 1 4
D. 3 2 4 1
Ans : C
Q - 392 : Answer the following using the codes given below: Which of the following
doctrines were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions? (i)
Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel. (ii) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations. (iii)
Doctrine of Separation of Power and Rule of Law. (iv) Judicial Activism.
A. Codes : Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
B. Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.
C. Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
D. All of the above are correct.
Ans : D
Q - 393 : Answer the following using the codes given below: In which of the following
grounds the judicial review of an administrative action be made? (i) Abuse of
discretion (ii) Mala fide or Bad faith (iii) Irrelevant consideration (iv)
Unreasonableness
A. Codes : Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
C. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
D. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
86
Ans : D
Q - 394 : A writ of mandamus will not lie against

A. President of India
B. Parliament
C. Local authorities
D. Courts and Tribunals
Ans : A
Q - 395 : Match List-I with List-II and indicate the Answer using the codes given
below: List-I List-II (1) Bring the body 1. Writ of Mandamus before the Court (ii)
Petitioner's legal 2. Writ of Mandamus right to compel the performance of public
duty (iii) By what authority 3. Writ of Habeas Corpus a person is holding the public
post (iv) Action of 4. Writ of Quo-warranto subordinate Court in violation of the
principles of natural justice
A. Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1 2 3 4
B. 3 1 4 2
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 3 4 2 1
Ans : B
Q - 396 : According to A.V. Dicey in India the 'Rule of Law' is embodied in

A. Article 12 of the Constitution of India
B. Article 13 of the Constitution of India
C. Article 14 of the Constitution of India
D. Article 21 of the Constitution of India
Ans : C
Q - 397 : When the court declare that certain provisions of the Act as invalid, it does
not affect the validity of the Act and it remains as it is. The principle is known as:
A. Doctrine of prospective over ruling.
B. Doctrine of severability.
C. Doctrine of pleasure
D. Doctrine of Eclipse.
Ans : B
Q - 398 : Find Answer : Administrative law is the law relating to the powers and
procedures of
A. The Parliament
B. The Legislature
87
C. The Administrative Authorities

D. Judiciary
Ans : C
Q - 399 : Find the Answer : The principles of natural justice are (i) No person can be
judge in his own case (ii) No person shall be condemned
A. Codes : only (i) is correct.
B. only (ii) is correct.
C. (i) and (ii) are correct.
D. None of the above are correct.
Ans : C
Q - 400 : Find Answer : Administrative Tribunals exercises :

A. Purely Administrative functions
B. Purely Judicial functions
C. Purely Legislative functions
D. Quasi Judicial functions
Ans : D
Q - 401 : What is the effect of violation of the rule : "Audi Alteram partem" on an
administrative action?
A. Mere irregularity
B. Null and void
C. An illegality
D. Voidable
Ans : D
Q - 402 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the principles
of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings!
A. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India.
B. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India.
C. A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India.
D. Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain.
Ans : C
Q - 403 : Find Answer : The writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is
A. an absence of jurisdiction or abuse of jurisdiction.
B. violation of principles of natural justice and frau
D.
88
C. any kind of contravention of the law the lan

D.
D. all of the above
Ans : A
Q - 404 : Find Answer : The writ of certiorari necessarily implies that

A. An error of fact, cannot correcte
D.
B. An error of law apparent on the face of the record, can be correcte
D.
C. Violation of natural justice.
Ans : B
Q - 405 : Assertion (A) : The principles of natural justice ensures fair hearing. Reason
(R) : It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
A. Codes: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
Ans : A
Q - 406 : Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:

A. Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
B. Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
C. Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and
Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo-warranto.
D. Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo-warranto, Writ of
Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans : D
Q - 407 : A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must

be
A. Legal representation
B. Cross examination
C. Reasoned decision
D. All of the above
Ans : C
Q - 408 : Judicial review of an administrative action means

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A. Review by the Parliament

B. Review by the Government
C. Review by the Legislative Assembly
D. Review by the Judiciary
Ans : D
Q - 409 : Find
Ans :
A. Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional
law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
B. Administrative law is a branch of private law.
C. Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
D. Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a
part of Constitutional law.
Ans : A
Q - 410 : The first committee to recommend for the establishment of an ombudsman

type of institution in India was:
A. Gorwala Committee
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans : B
Q - 411 : The Chairman of which of the following Parliamentary Committees is

invariably from the members of ruling party?
A. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Estimates Committee
D. Committee on Delegated Legislation
Ans : C
Q - 412 : The judicial control over administrative acts emanate from the Doctrine of :
A. Separation of powers
B. Judicial review
C. Rule of law
D. Delegated legislation
Ans : B
Q - 413 : The committee on Public Undertakings were set up on the

90
recommendation of:
A. Administrative Reforms Commission
B. Lanka Sundaran
C. Krishna Menon Committee
D. Chagla Commission
Ans : C
Q - 414 : The chairman of which of the following committee is generally from the
opposition party?
A. Estimates Committee
B. Committee on Public Undertaking
C. Public Accounts Committee
D. Committee on Assurances
Ans : C
Q - 415 : Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House/Lok

Sabha?
A. Committee on Assurances
B. Committee on Delegated Legislation
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Estimates Committee
Ans : D
Q - 416 : Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:

A. Administrative Reforms Commission of India
B. Gorwala Report
C. Kripalani Committee
D. Santhanam Committee
Ans : D
Q - 417 : The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:
A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. Punjab
D. Maharashtra
Ans : D
Q - 418 : In the context of judicial control over administration, malfeasance stands

for:
A. Error of Law
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B. Error of fact-finding
C. Abuse of authority
D. Error of procedure
Ans : C
Q - 419 : Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Central Bureau of Investigation - 1941
B. Special Police Establishment - 1941
C. Prevention of Corruption Act - 1947
D. Central Vigilance Commission – 1964
Ans : C
Q - 420 : Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference
between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India? 1. The
Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of
Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas High Courts can issue
writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 2. High Courts can
issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of
Injunction. 3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas
high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it. 4. High Courts
can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but
also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the
purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4 only
Ans : B
Q - 421 : In countries with Parliament, like India legislative control over

administration is considerably reduced and restricted effectiveness due to which of
the follow reasons? 1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative
work. 2. Frequent use of Guillitone. 3. The large size of the legislature. 4. The
members of the legislature are laymen. 5. The financial committees do post mortem
work.
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans : D
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Q - 422 : Which of the following are the means of judicial control over
administration? 1. Suits against government 2. Judicial review 3. Rule of Law 4.
Statutory appeal 5. Droit administratiff
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 1, 3 and 5
Ans : B
Q - 423 : Which of the following are the limitations of judicial control over
administration? 1. Its intervention takes place only when it is sought by the affected
person. 2. It is a post mortem control. 3. Statutory limitations. 4. Error of Fact-
Finding. 5. Technical nature of the administrative activities.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans : D
Q - 424 : Which of the following are incorrect statements about the Central Vigilance
Commission? 1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms
Commission. 2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the
Prime Minister. 3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of UPS
C. 4. It is certainly a substitute for an ombudsman. 5. It receives complaints directly
from aggrieved persons.
A. 1, 2 and 5
B. 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 5
Ans : C
Q - 425 : The primary object of judicial control over administration is:

A. To restrict the discretion and arbitrariness of administrative agencies
B. To help in redressing the grievances of citizens
C. To safeguard the rights and liberty of the citizens
D. To contain and penalise the wrongful acts of government officials
Ans : C
Q - 426 : Match the following: List-I List-II (Provisions) (Contained in) (1) Writ
93
jurisdiction of 1. Article 13 the Supreme Court (ii) Suits against govern- 2. Article 226
ment (iii) Writ jurisdiction of 3. Article 300 the High Court (iv) Source of the power 4.
Article 32 of judicial review
A. Codes: (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4 1 2 3
B. 3 2 1 4
C. 4 3 2 1
D. 1 4 3 2
Ans : C
Q - 427 : Consider the following statements: 1. The chairman of the Committee on

Public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok Sabha. 2. The Committee on
Public Accounts Comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a
few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : A
Q - 428 : In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
B. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
C. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
D. to postpone the proceedings to check the in appropriate or violent behaviour on
the part of some members.
Ans : A
Q - 429 : Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over
public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of moneys from consolidated Fund of India only after passing the
Appropriation Bill. 3. Provision of supplementary grants and vote-on-account. Select
the Answer using the codes given below:
A. Codes: 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
Q - 430 : In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for
94
intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG)? 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the
Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial
emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the
ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them
Ans : B
Q - 431 : Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee of Public

Accounts 1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha. 2. Scrutinizes
appropriation and finance accounts of the Government. 3. Examines the report of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. 1only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
Q - 432 : The functions of Estimate Committee include: 1. To suggest alternative

policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration. 2 To see that
the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it. 3 To examine whether
the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. 4.
To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament Which
of the above, the correct statement are:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : B
Q - 433 : Assertion (A): Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished

by the creation of the contingency Fund of India. Reason (R): The Contingency Fund
of India is operated by the executive on behalf of the President of India. Select the
correct code:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
95
B. Both A and R are true but R is correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Ans : A
Q - 434 : An act is crime (in the content of Indian law) as

A. It is so declared by publi
C.
B. It is so dictated by morality.
C. Statute makes it.
D. Common law has declared it.
Ans : C
Q - 435 : Mark the

Ans :
A. Crime is essentially an immortal act.
B. Crime is an illegal act.
C. Crime is essentially a socially reprehensible act.
D. Crime is essentially an anti-religious act.
Ans : C
Q - 436 : Criminal law consists of:

A. Definition of offences and punishment for them (IPC).
B. Procedure for investigation, prosecution, trial, (cr.pc) et
C.
C. It includes prevention of offences as well.
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 437 : "In order that an act should be punishable it must be morally blame-
worthy. It must be a sin". Which of the following judges made this observation?
A. Salmond
B. Krishna Iyer
C. Lord Denning
D. Stephen
Ans : C
Q - 438 : The IPC was enacted on

A. 6 October, 1860
B. 1 September, 1872
96
C. 1 July, 1882
D. 6 December, 1890
Ans : A
Q - 439 : The draft of IPC was prepared by

A. Dr. Harisingh Gaur
B. Lord Macaulay
C.
D.F. Mulla
D. Kenny
Ans : B
Q - 440 : IPC (act XLV of 1860) is divided into

A. XXI chapters and 503 Sections.
B. XXIII chapters and 511 Sections.
C. XXII chapters and 511 Sections.
D. XXIII schedules and 511 Sections.
Ans : B
Q - 441 : Section 1 of the IPC talks about the

A. Definition of crime.
B. Title and jurisdiction of the code.
C. Title and extent of operation of the code.
D. Title and object of the code.
Ans : C
Q - 442 : Mark the correct statement:

A. The Penal Code applies to every person in any part of India for every act or
omission contrary to the provisions of the code.
B. The code applies to any offence committed by any citizen of India without and
beyond India.
C. Every act committed outside India which, if committed in India, would be
punishable under the code.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 443 : If a person who is a citizen of India commits any offence out of India, he
A. cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not committed in India.
B. can be prosecuted in the country where the offence was committe
D.
97
C. can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may be foun

D.
D. cannot be prosecuted neither in India, nor in the country, where the crime was
committed
Ans : C
Q - 444 : Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have
jurisdiction? I Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country. II. Crime
committed by a foreigner in India. III. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship
Codes:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II and III
Ans : D
Q - 445 : Mark the correct statements:

A. The Indian Penal Code prescribes no fixed time within which prosecution should
be launche
D.
B. The code follows the maxim nullum tempus occurrit regi.
C. The Criminal Procedure Code introduced the concept of limitation
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 446 : Which of the following statement is incorrect .

A. Crime is a branch of public law.
B. To constitute crime, mens rea is require
D.
C. In crime, statute has no control over proceedings.
D. In crime, there is a punishment.
Ans : C
Q - 447 : Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The categories of the criminal should be determined by general laws.
B. The penal statutes should be strictly followed or constructe
D.
C. There should be ex-post facto penal laws.
D. The persons should be punished without an act.
Ans : B
98
Q - 448 : Special law' as defined in Section 41, IPC means:

A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. a law applicable to a class.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : A
Q - 449 : The term 'offence' means

A. a thing made punishable by the Penal code.
B. a thing punishable by the Penal code or any special or local law, in certain case.
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 450 : The essential ingredients of a crime are:

A. motive, mens rea and actus reus.
B. motive, intention and knowledge.
C. mens rea and actus reus.
D. knowledge, intention and action.
Ans : C
Q - 451 : Actus reus is defined as "such result of human conduct as the law seeks to
prevent”.in the light of this observation, which following statements is incorrect:
A. actus reus means act of omission or commission, which is called conduct.
B. actus reus means conduct prohibited by law.
C. actus reus means voluntary as well as involuntary human actions.
D. actus reus includes results of an act i.e., injury
Ans : D
Q - 452 : Section 497, IPC, defines 'adultery' thus:whoever has sexual intercourse
with a person who is and whom he knows, or has reason to believe to be the wife of
another. Here, actus reus relates to
A. time
B. place
C. person
D. married woman
Ans : D
Q - 453 : The maxim 'actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means
99
A. guilty minds gives birth to crime.

B. there can be no crime without a guilty min
D.
C. crime is a child of guilty min
D.
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans : B
Q - 454 : Which of these is a landmark judgement on the applicability of section

300(3) in a criminal trial?
A. Virsa Singh vs State of Punja
B.
B. Inder Singh vs State of Pepsu.
C. Brij Bhushan vs State.
D. R. Venkalu vs State of Hyderaba
D.
Ans : A
Q - 455 : In the context of criminal liability, state which of the following statements is
correct?
A. mens rea is a mandatory element of a crime and there cannot be any crime
without mens rea.
B. in its nature, the criminal liability is less punitive and more prohibitive.
C. criminal liability generally implies mens rea, except where it has been expressly
exclude
D.
D. the punishment is commensurate with the act.
Ans : C
Q - 456 : Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists List-I List-II A mens rea 1. Always not necessary.
B. motive 2. Condition precedent for any offence.
C. law presumes innocence 3. Relevant & to impute intention.
D. knowledge of the act to be 4. Until crime is proved beyond doubt. unlawful
A. Codes: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Ans : B
100
Q - 457 : Which one of the following statements correctly describes the concept of
mens rea?
A. mens rea need to be present at the stage of planning, but not at the stage of
commission of the offence.
B. mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be prove
D.
C. absolute prohibition is not required to negate mens rea.
D. if the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule it should be read into the
statute.
Ans : D
Q - 458 : Local law as defined in se

C. 42, IPC means:
A. a law applicable to a particular subject.
B. a law applicable to a particular part of India.
C. the municipal law.
D. a law applicable to a local community.
Ans : B
Q - 459 : Give the correct response:

A. the word 'attempt' clearly conveys the idea that if attempt succeeded, the offence
would have been committe
D.
B. attempt is the direct movement towards the commission of an offence after
preparation has been made.
C. if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if
not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit crime.
D. all acts towards committing a misdemeanour are not indictable. Acts remotely
leading towards commission of offences are not to be considered as attempt to
commit but acts immediately connected with it are.
Ans : C
Q - 460 : Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime.

Preparation is not punishable generally but attempts is. One basic reason as to why
preparation is not punishable is that there
A. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
B. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence.
C. is absence of intention.
D. is absence of attempt.
Ans : B
101
Q - 461 : In which of the following cases, Sarkaria J.(S.C) disapproved the narrow
view taken by Kenny that "attempt" is the last, penultimate act which a person does
towards the commission of an offence, the consummation of the offence being
hindered by circumstances beyond his control:
A. Asghar Ali Pradhania vs Emperor.
B. State of Maharashtra vs M
D. Yaku
B.
C. Abhayanand Mishra vs State of Bihar.
D. Malkiat Singh vs State of Punja
B.
Ans : B
Q - 462 : Which of the following correctly describes the four stages of a crime?
A. Attempt, Preparation, Intention, Result.
B. Intention, Attempt, Preparation, Result.
C. Intention, Preparation, Attempt, Result.
D. Result, Intention, Preparation, Attempt.
Ans : C
Q - 463 : In State of Maharashtra vs M

D. Yakub, which of the criteria was used by the court to distinguish an attempt to
commit a crime from its mere 'preparation’ :
A. Impossibility.
B. Danger to the society.
C. Opportunity to retreat from the offence.
D. Proximity.
Ans : D
Q - 464 : Section 511 does not apply in case of

A. attempt of riot
B. attempt of theft
C. attempt of murder
D. attempt of affray
Ans : C
Q - 465 : State in which of the following cases, P is guilty of attempting to commit

the offence:
A. P, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Q, Sends his servant
102
to buy a stamp paper in the name of Q. As the servant reaches stamp shop, he is
arreste
D.
B. P shoots at Q whose back is toward The attempt fails as Q catches a is beyond the
range of the gun
C. P pours half a pint of substance from bottle marked poison into the whisky of Q, Q
is not aware. It turns out that bottle did not contain any poison.
D. P administers some noxious substance to a woman so that an abortion results.
The women was not pregnant.
Ans : B
Q - 466 : A purchased a stamp paper in the name of person whose name he intended
to forge. As guilty of
A. attempt of forgery.
B. attempt of cheating.
C. attempt of criminal misappropriation.
D. no offence.
Ans : D
Q - 467 : A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in it but she was caught
before she could reach it. She is guilty of
A. attempt to suicide.
B. attempt to murder.
C. attempt to culpable homicide.
D. no offence
Ans : D
Q - 468 : Which of the following is an instance of criminal attempt?

A. A procures colour with an intent to make false coins.
B. A is in possession of some obscene photographs and he thought of publishing
them.
C. A, with an intent to kill B, administers sugar thinking it to be poison powder.
Ans : D
Q - 469 : 'X' with a view to murdering 'Y' enters Y’s bedroom at night when 'Y' is out
of station. ‘X' is guilty of
A. murder
B. house trespass
C. attempt to murder
103
D. no offence
Ans : B
Q - 470 : Section 511, IPC is not related to the offen for which the punishment is:
A. death sentence
B. life-imprisonment
C. imprisonment
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 471 : 'A' intending to murder 'B' by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same
with a glass of water. He gives to bearer to serve 'B'. The bearer while approaching
'B' loses balance and the glass drops out of his plate.
A. 'A' has committed no offence.
B. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to commit culpable homicide.
C. 'A' has committed the offence of abetment.
D. 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to murder.
Ans : D
Q - 472 : 'Z' with intention to steal ornaments opened Y's box and found it empty.
Which one of the following statements is correct? Z is
A. Not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of
theft was impossible.
B. Not liable for attempt commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards
commission of theft.
C. Not guilty of attempt to commit theft as he made only preparation to commit
theft.
D. Guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did
an act towards its commission.
Ans : D
Q - 473 : Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible

theft. Reason (R): No criminal liability can be incurred under se
C. 511 for an attempt to do an act which, if done will not be an offence.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Ans : D

104
Q - 474 : The Fundamental principle of criminal liability is embodied in the maxim

"actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". The maxim was developed by:
A. Equity Courts
B. Common Law Courts
C. Sadar Nizamat Court
Ans : B
Q - 475 : "Wrongful gain' means

A. gain by lawful' means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
B. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
C. gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 476 : 'Wrongful loss' means

A. loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled
B. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing it is not legally entitled
C. loss by lawful means of property which the person losing is not legally entitled
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 477 : The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC

A. shall apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an elector
under any law in force
B. shall not apply to a person who has been authorised to vote as proxy for an
elector under any law in force
C. does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
Ans : B
Q - 478 : 'Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause
wrongful gain to one person & wrongful loss to another, under
A. Section 21
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
Ans : C
Q - 479 : 'Fraudulently' has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud
105
A. Section 23
B. Section 25
C. Section 24
D. Section 26
Ans : B
Q - 480 : When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the

common intention of all
A. each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by
him alone
B. each of such person is liable for his own overt act
C. each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in
the crime
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 481 : Which of these punishments was removed from the IPC in the year 1949?
A. Penal servitude
B. Death
C. Forfeiture of property
D. Solitary confinement
Ans : A
Q - 482 : To establish Section 34 of IPC

A. common intention be proved but not overt act of each be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 483 : Section 34 of IPC

A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 484 : 'X' & 'Y' go to murder 'Z'. ‘X' stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not
hit 'Z' at all. Y killed ‘Z’
A. only 'Y' is liable for murder of 'Z’
106
B. 'X' & 'Y' both are liable for murder of 'Z'

C. 'X' is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 485 : 'Voluntarily' has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a

person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means,
knew or had reason to believe it to be likely to cause it under
A. Section 39
B. Section 38
C. Section 37
D. Section 40
Ans : A
Q - 486 : Under Section 45 of IPC, life denotes

A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans : A
Q - 487 : Under Section 46 of IPC, death denotes.

A. death of a human being.
B. death of an animal.
C. death of a human being and of an animal both.
D. death of either human being or an animal.
Ans : A
Q - 488 : Illegal signifies

A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 489 : Animal denotes

A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature - live or dead
D. either (a) or (c)
107
Ans : B
Q - 490 : How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian
Penal Code?
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four
Ans : C
Q - 491 : Under Section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of

imprisonment
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b)
Ans : C
Q - 492 : Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 64 of IPC

A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been
sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 493 : Under Section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

shall be limited to
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
Ans : B
Q - 494 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
108
Ans : B
Q - 495 : Under Section 498A of IPC cruelty includes

A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife
Ans : A
Q - 496 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is

sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs.100 but exceeding Rs.50, the
imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months
Ans : C
Q - 497 : In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is

sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs.100, the imprisonment in default of payment
of fine shall not exceed
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months
Ans : B
Q - 498 : Section 64 of IPC provides for

A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non payment of fine
D. (d) limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the
nature of imprisonment.
Ans : C
Q - 499 : Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate

A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. Both (a) and (b)
109
Ans : C
Q - 500 : In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is

paid, such sentence
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of
reduction
D. All of the above
Ans : A
Q - 501 : Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to
be
A. one year
B. two years
C. three months
D. six months
Ans : C
Q - 502 : If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six

months, the solitary confinement
A. shall not exceed 15 days
B. shall not exceed one month
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed forty-five days
Ans : B
Q - 503 : If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six

months but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement
A. shall not exceed one month
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed three months
Ans : C
Q - 504 : If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year,

the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed
A. one month
B. two months
C. three months
110
D. six months
Ans : C
Q - 505 : Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in good faith which is

done or believed without due care & intention - is the definition of good faith
contained in
A. Section 29 of IPC
B. Section 29A of IPC
C. Section 52 of IPC
D. Section 52A of IPC
Ans : C
Q - 506 : General exceptions are contained in

A. chapter III of IPC
B. chapter IV of IPC
C. chapter V of IPC
D. chapter VI of IPC
Ans : D
Q - 507 : Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person

who is or who by reason of
A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 508 : Under Section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is
justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to
be
A. bound by law to do it
B. justified by law to do it
C. bound by morality to do it
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 509 : The maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat ` means

A. ignorance of law is no excuse
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
111
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse

Ans : A
Q - 510 : Section 76 & Section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of

A. mistake of law
B. mistake of fact
C. Both mistake of law and fact
D. Either mistake of law or of fact
Ans : B
Q - 511 : Accident as an exception has been dealt with-in

A. Section 77
B. Section 78
C. Section 80
D. Section 82
Ans : C
Q - 512 : Under Section 80, the exception of accident is available when an offence is
committed while
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means
B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 513 : The principle as to the way in which a man should behave when he has to
make a choice between two evils is illustrated in
B. Section 81 of IPC
D. Section 78 of IPC
Ans : B
Q - 514 : The motive under Section 81 of IPC should be

A. prevention of harm to person
B. prevention of harm to property
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Either (a) or (b)
Ans : C

112
Q - 515 : 'Infancy' as an exception has been provided under

A. Section 80
B. Section 81
C. Section 82
D. Section 84
Ans : C
Q - 516 : Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a

child under
A. six years of age
B. seven years of age
C. nine years of age
D. ten years of age
Ans : B
Q - 517 : Section 82 of IPC enunciates

A. a presumption of fact
B. a rebuttable presumption of law
C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : C
Q - 518 : A person is stated to be partially incapax under Section 83, IPC if he is aged
A. above seven years and under twelve years
B. above seven years and under ten years
C. above seven years and under sixteen years
D. above seven years and under eighteen years
Ans : A
Q - 519 : Section 83 of IPC lays down

A. a presumption of fact
B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law
C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
D. irrebuttable presumption of fact
Ans : B
Q - 520 : Section 82 of IPC down the rule of

A. Wholly incapax
B. partially incapax
C. Both (a) and (b)
113
D. Either (a) and (b)

Ans : A
Q - 521 : Under Section 82 & Section 83 of IPC an offence is punishable if it is done

by a child
A. of below seven years of age
B. of above seven years of age but below twelve years if he has not attained
sufficient maturity and understanding
C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient
maturity and understanding
D. All of the above
Ans : C
Q - 522 : The maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means
A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans : B
Q - 523 : I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas. II. The mental aspect of crime is
mens rea. III. The motive is the desire to commit crime Which of the following is
correct for the aforesaid
A. I & II are correct but III is not correct
B. only II & III
C. only II & III
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 524 : Section 84 of IPC provides for

A. medical insanity
B. legal insanity
C. moral insanity
D. unsoundness of mind of any kind
Ans : B
Q - 525 : Irresistible impulse is a defence

A. in India
B. in England
C. in India and England both
114
D. neither in India nor in Englan

D.
Ans : B
Q - 526 : A hangman who hangs the prisoners, pursuant to the order of the court is
exempt from criminal liability by virtue of
D. Section 76 of IPC
Ans : B
Q - 527 : Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of doing an act, by
reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing
A. the nature of the act
B. that what he is doing is wrong
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
D. Either (a) or (b) or (c)
Ans : D
Q - 528 : Which of the following is correct?

A. the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at the time of commission of
offence is on the prosecution
B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of commission of
offence is on the accused
C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused was insane at the time of
commission of the offence
D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on the facts proved by the
prosecution
Ans : B
Q - 529 : For unsoundness of mind, the impairment of the cognitive faculty of mind
to escape criminal liability
A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 530 : Intoxication as defence is contained in

115
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : D
Q - 531 : For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the degeneration

of mental faculties
A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. only (b) is correct and (a) is incorrect
Ans : A
Q - 532 : For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication

A. can be self administered
B. administered against his will or knowledge
C. should not be self administered
D. All of the above
Ans : B
Q - 533 : In cases where the act involves a specific mens rea, in cases of intoxication
under Section 86 of IPC
A. the existence of mens rea is presumed
B. the specific mens rea is not presumed
C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending circumstances & the degree of
intoxication
Ans : C
Q - 534 : The term of judges of International Court of Justice is

A. Three years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. Nine years
Ans : D
Q - 535 : When was the Charter of Human Rights adopted in Paris in the year?
A. 1945
B. 1948
116
C. 1951
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 536 : Tobar Doctrine is related to

A. The recognition of a state
B. The recognition of a government
C. The recognition of insurgents
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 537 : Conference of Bogota was held in

A. 1920
B. 1936
C. 1948
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 538 : Vienna Conference of 1961 is related to

A. Diplomatic intercourse and immunities
B. Prisoners-of-war
C. Recognition of states
D. Berlin Crisis
Ans : D
Q - 539 : Who is called 'the father of International Law'?

A. Hugo
B. Oppenheim
C. Suarez
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 540 : Foreign warships have

A. The right of free passage in the territorial waters
B. The right of innocent passage in the territorial waters
C. To stay in the territorial waters
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 541 : Under the UNCLOS framework, landlocked states have access to surplus of
117
allowable catch in the

A. Contiguous zone
B. Lakes and rivers in their own territory
C. Exclusive Economic Zone
D. Pacific ocean
Ans : C
Q - 542 : Contiguous Zone is limited to a maximum of

A. 25 miles (24 nautical mile)
B. 50 miles
C. 12 miles
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 543 : The Alabama Arbitration case was decided in

A. 1872
B. 1854
C. 1890
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 544 : The Convention for the protection of the Ozone Layer was done on
A. March 22, 1985
B. March 23, 1986
C. March 24, 1987
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 545 : Calvo Clause means

A. A state can intervene on behalf of its nationals
B. A state can't intervene on behalf of its nationals
C. An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own state
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 546 : Diplomatic relations are established by

A. Mutual consent
B. A unilateral decision
C. A decision of a regional organization
D. None of these
118
Ans : A
Q - 547 : Eruption of war terminates

A. All treaties
B. No treaty
C. Only political treaties
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 548 : Foreign ships sailing and anchoring in coastal waters of another state are
A. Subject to the law of Flag State
B. Subject to the law of Coastal State
C. Subject to the law of both the States
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 549 : Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction the

A. Flag State
B. Offenders State
C. All the States
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 550 : Territorial Waters are

A. Waters outside the territorial limits of a state
B. Waters dividing territory of Two or more states
C. Waters Adjacent to the contiguous Zone
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 551 : Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a period of
A. 7 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 552 : The Montreal Convention for the safety of Civil Aviation was signed in
A. 1975
B. 1974
119
C. 1971
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 553 : Diplomatic staff enjoys complete immunity from

A. Civil Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Both
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 554 : Number of Judges of International Court of Justice is

A. Nine
B. Twelve
C. Fifteen
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 555 : Permanent Court of International Justice was established under

A. League of Nations
B. UNO
C. European Union
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 556 : Pacta Sunt Servanda means

A. Treaties between states are to be respected
B. An unwanted person
C. International Law must be honoured
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 557 : Headquarters of International Court of

A. The Hague
B. Geneva
C. New York
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 558 : Persona Non Grata means

120
A. Impracticable Article of International Law

B. A fugitive criminal
C. A person refused for asylum
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 559 : Which of these is true in relation to European Commission on Human

Rights?
A. It was abolished in 1988
B. It restricted an individual's direct access to European Court of Human Rights
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. It is still working however no President is appointed
Ans : C
Q - 560 : Principles Jus Soli means

A. Grant of nationality on the basis of place birth
B. Grant of nationality on the basis of blood relationship
C. Grant of nationality through naturalization
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 561 : Much of International Law is derived through analogy from

A. Islamic law
B. Christian Law
C. Roman law
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 562 : Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in

A. 1969
B. 1945
C. 1927
D. None of these
Ans : D
Q - 563 : Truce mean

A. A temporary arrangement between the belligerent parties for cessation of
hostilities
B. Any peace treaty to end a war
C. No War Pact
121
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 564 : Declaration is a treaty between the contracting parties which

A. is always subject to ratification
B. is not needed to be ratified
C. may or may not be subject to be ratification
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 565 : Diplomatic Protection means a protection and security granted

A. to a diplomat by UNO
B. by a state to its national abroad
C. by a state to a person seeking asylum
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 566 : Kellog Briand Pact or Paris Peace Treaty was signed in

A. 1945
B. 1928
C. 1919
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 567 : Recognition of new States is a matter of

A. International Law
B. Constitutional law
C. Policy of the State
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 568 : Grant of extra-territorial asylum in a legation:

A. is a part of customary International Law
B. is a part of Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961
C. depends on circumstances
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 569 : To get asylum in a foreign state by an individual

A. is his basic right
122
B. is not his right

C. depends on circumstances
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 570 : The Security Council has been given the power to use force against a state
under which Article of the UN Charter?
A. Article 41
B. Article 40
C. Article 39
D. Article 42
Ans : D
Q - 571 : Territorial sea of a State is under

A. its total control
B. its control, but subject to certain international obligations
C. its control, only for exploration of mineral resources
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 572 : Genocide Convention was adopted by the UN General Assembly in

A. 1948
B. 1950
C. 1960
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 573 : Bynkershoek principle is related to:

A. Measurement of maritime belt
B. Contiguous zone
C. Extradition of criminals
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 574 : Principal of "double criminality" means that:

A. the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states
B. the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states but may be
punished in one
C. that the offence for which a person is extradited must be an offence in both the
states
123
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 575 : Principal of “specialty" means that

A. the person extradited must be awarded special punishment by the requesting
state
B. the person extradited must not be awarded special punishment by the requesting
state
C. the person extradited must be punished only for the offence for which he has
been extradited
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 576 : Features of International Law include all except which of the following?
A. there is no single legislative source of International Law
B. there is no single world court for interpreting International Law
C. there is no world executive branch that can enforce International Laws
D. None of these
Ans : D
Q - 577 : Which of the following is not a source of International Law?

A. treaties and conventions
B. custom
C. judicial decisions and teachings
D. All of these are sources of International Law
Ans : D
Q - 578 : The United Nations is governed by all except which of the following?
A. the general assembly
B. the security council
C. the secretariat
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 579 : The group of European countries created to promote peace, security,

economic and social unity is called the:
A. European market
B. European Union
C. European coalition
D. None of these
124
Ans : B
Q - 580 : GATT is a multilateral treaty that:

A. restricts trade among non-member countries
B. imposes multiple trade barriers among its member nations
C. establishes trade agreements and limited tariffs and trade restrictions
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 581 : The oldest principal of International Law is the doctrine of

A. sovereign immunity
B. foreign dignitaries
C. religious freedom
D. Pact a Sunt Servanda (Treaties must be kept)
Ans : D
Q - 582 : Diplomatic envoys are absolutely immuned from which of the following
jurisdictions:
A. Criminal jurisdiction
B. Civil jurisdiction
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 583 : Which of the following is not an example Extra-Territorial Asylum:

A. Asylum granted in a ship in high seas
B. Asylum granted in the premises of an International Institution
C. Asylum granted in an embassy
D. None of these
Ans : D
Q - 584 : The Security Council has been given the .............. responsibility to maintain
international peace and security
A. Primary
B. Exclusive
C. Discretionary
D. Ancillary
Ans : A
Q - 585 : "Continental Shelf" means

125
A. that portion of land which belongs to no state

B. that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
C. submerged bed of sea contiguous to a continental land mass
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 586 : Vatican city is

A. a province of Italy
B. is an independent state
C. is not an independent state
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 587 : The jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice:

A. is binding on all the members of the UNO
B. is not binding on all the members of the UNO
C. is binding only upon the members of the Security Council
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 588 : A "Vassal State" is the one which is

A. situated on the sea shore
B. an independent state
C. under the suzerainty of another state
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 589 : Confederation means

A. good diplomatic relation between some states
B. union between some states
C. relation between the provinces of a federal state
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 590 : "Littoral State" means

A. situated on the sea coast
B. an independent state
C. under the suzerainty of another state
D. None of these
Ans : A
126
Q - 591 : "Contiguous Zone" means

C. that portion of sea which is adjacent to territorial waters
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 592 : "Maritime Belt" means

C. that portion of sea which is adjacent to the territory of a coastal state
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 593 : "Economic and Social Council"

A. was an organ of the League of Nations
B. is an organ of the WTO
C. is an organ of UNO
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 594 : A state has the right to exploit in the Continental Shelf

A. living resources
B. non-living resources
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 595 : The principle of rebus sic stantibus means:

A. a state cannot use force
B. there is no crime without a law
C. fundamental change of circumstances
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 596 : The Schooner Exchange case dealt with the principle of

A. A state has sovereign right its natural resources
B. A state courts have to accept the validity of a foreign state's acts
C. A state's right of reprisals in case of violation of rights
127
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 597 : Hague Convention of 1970 dealt in properly with the crimes realting to
A. refugees
B. prisoners of war
C. hijacking
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 598 : By virtue of First Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil

and Political Rights the right to file a petition to the Human Rights Committee has
been extended to
A. All member states
B. Individuals
C. Diplomatic Missions
D. International NGO's
Ans : B
Q - 599 : Contiguous Zone in India is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters
and extending seawards to a line
A. 12 nautical miles
B. 24 nautical miles
C. 60 nautical miles measured from the baseline
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 600 : De facto recognition is

A. legal recognition
B. recognition in principle
C. circumstantial & tentative recognition
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 601 : The limit of territorial waters of India is

C. 24 nautical miles-beyond the land territory and internal waters of Pakistan,
measured from the base-line
D. None of these
128
Ans : A
Q - 602 : Continental shelf of India may extend upto a distance of

B. 200-350 nautical miles
C. 300 nautical miles-beyond the limits of its territorial waters
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 603 : Exclusive Economic Zone of India is beyond and adjacent to the territorial
the limit of which is
C. 200 nautical miles
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 604 : Select the correct one

A. only coastal states have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
B. every state has the right to sail ships under its flag on the high seas
C. only five big powers have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
D. no state has the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
Ans : B
Q - 605 : Convention on the Law of the Sea was signed at Jamaica in

A. 1948
B. 1975
C. 1982
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 606 : Statutes of International Courts of Justice were drawn up by

A. London Declaration in 1941
B. Moscow and Tehran Conference in 1943
C. San Francisco Conference in 1945
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 607 : According to the "floating island" theory, a "floating island" is

A. an island within three nautical miles from the coast of a country
129
B. an island on the high seas, which is not the territory of any particular state
C. a ship bearing the national flag of a state
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 608 : The Security Council is

A. Specialized agency of the U.N.
B. Principle organ of the U.N.
C. N.G.O. for settling disputes between various states
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 609 : In procedural matters, the decisions of the Security Council are made by the
affirmative votes of any
A. 5 members
B. 9 members
C. 15 members
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 610 : Extradition is normally granted

A. in all cases
B. in criminal cases only
C. in civil cases only
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 611 : What is CONTRABAND?

A. all narcotics
B. articles banned by a government
C. all smuggled goods
D. goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war
Ans : D
Q - 612 : The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is

A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 9 years
Ans : D
130
Q - 613 : A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction

A. in all cases
B. in criminal cases
C. in cases involving personal property
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 614 : Diplomatic protection is the protection which a state gives to

A. Its nationals living abroad through its Embassies
B. All diplomatic envoy on its own territory
C. Its own diplomatic agents in the foreign states
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 615 : Forum Prorogatum means

A. Jurisdiction conferred by implication or conduct
B. Inferior forum
C. Superior forum
D. Jurisdiction conferred by delegation
Ans : A
Q - 616 : Briand Kellogg Pact was meant to

A. End War between France and Britain
B. Establish peace in western Europe
C. Denounce war as an instrument for settling disputes
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 617 : Treaty of Westphalia was signed in

A. 1658
B. 1680
C. 1776
D. 1648
Ans : D
Q - 618 : Permanent Court of International Justice was established in

A. 1919
B. 1922
C. 1915
131
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 619 : Sri Lankan High Commissioner in Mumbai, if found involved in a serious

crime in India, can be
A. Arrested by local police and put to trial
B. Arrested and handed over to his home govt.
C. Asked to leave the country by the government
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 620 : The Law of War and Peace was written by

A. Hegel
B. Kelsen
C. Grotius
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 621 : Permanent Court of Arbitration was an outcome of

A. League of Nations
B. Hague Conference 1899
C. Hague Conference 1907
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 622 : Alabama claims Arbitration Award 1872 established certain principles of

A. Nationality
B. Neutrality
C. Extradition
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 623 : The leader of positive school of thought was

A. Bynkershoek
B. Stark
C. Hart
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 624 : Assertion (A): International Law Commission has initiated studies and
132
prepared draft codes on diverse fields in international law. Reason (R): International
Law Commission was established under General Assembly Resolution No. 174 (11)
adopted on 21 November 1947 with an object to promote, progressively develop
and codify international law.
A. Codes: Both (A) and (R) are true
B. (A) is true but (R) is false
C. (R) is true but (A) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Ans : A
Q - 625 : In the Continental Shelf, the coastal state has

A. The exclusive right over all resources
B. The exclusive right over its living resources only
C. The exclusive right over its non-living resources
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 626 : Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in

A. 1961
B. 1969
C. 1975
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 627 : Territorial sea of a coastal state is

A. open for innocent passage of all type of foreign ships
B. open for innocent passage of all except the fishing ships
C. reserved for vessels of the coastal states onl
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 628 : Cabotage is
A. Part of the Sea prohibited for war activity by law
B. No fly zone, determined by U.N. during war
C. Intercourse by sea between two ports of the same state
D. None of these
Ans : C
Q - 629 : Principle of Jus Soli is

A. Granting nationality on the basis of place of birth
133
B. Granting nationality on the basis of parentage

C. Invalidation of a treaty due to change in circumstan
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 630 : U.N. Declaration of Human Rights was passed in

A. 1945
B. 1948 (December)
C. 1949
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 631 : Re Meunier and Re Castioni cases for

A. Extradition of military offenders
B. Extradition of political offenders
C. Determining the enemy status of alien during war
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 632 : All International Treaties signed by the US president are subject to

ratification by the US
A. Senate with 2/3 majority
B. House of Representatives with 2/3 majority
C. Congress with 2/3 majority
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 633 : Prize Courts are

A. International Courts
B. Municipal Courts
C. Judicial Tribunals under UNO
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 634 : The word 'Tort' has been derived from the Latin word
A. tortum
B. tortus
C. torts
D. None of these
Ans : A
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Q - 635 : With reference to the Law of Torts, respond to the following

A. In the English law, tort is defined as a wrong.
B. In the Roman law, tort is defined as deceit.
C. In the Indian law, tort is defined as a civil wrong.
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 636 : Tort means

A. a wrong
B. a legal civil wrong (however, every civil wrong is not a tort)
C. a legal wrong
D. All of the above
Ans : B
Q - 637 : Law of Tort developed mainly through

A. judicial decisions
B. enactment
C. customs
D. None of these
Ans : A
Q - 638 : The major reason for the lack of tort litigation in India is
A. lack of consciousness about one's rights and the spirit of toleration.
B. high cost of litigation.
C. undue delay in the final disposal of the cases.
D. All of the above
Ans : A
Q - 639 : "Tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is a common law action for
unliquidated damages, and which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the
breach of a trust or other merely equitable obligation". This definition of tort' is
given by
A. Winfield
B. Salmond
C. Pollock
D. Clerk and Lindsell
Ans : B
Q - 640 : "The law of torts in civil wrongs is a collective name for the rules governing
135
many species liability, which, although their subject-matter is wide and varied have
certain broad features in common, are enforced by the same kind of legal process
and are subject to similar exceptions. This statement was given by
A. Salmond
B. Winfield
C. S.P. Singh
D. Pollock
Ans : C
Q - 641 : The main supporter of the theory, that "it is a law of Tort" and "not law of
Torts" is
A. Winfield
B. Salmond
C. Fleming
D. Heuston
Ans : A
Q - 642 : The propounder of 'Pigeon-hole' theory ("law of tort' and not 'law of tort')
is
A. Salmond
B. Clerk and Lindsell
C. Austin
D. Winfield
Ans : A
Q - 643 : The maxim "De Minimis non curat" means.

A. No justice for incorrect petition
B. Slight harm
C. Exhibition of disrespect
D. Annoyance
Ans : B
Q - 644 : The nature of a tort can be understood by distinguishing

A. tort and crime
B. tort and duty in civil cases viz. A contract, a trust and a quasi-contract
C. right and duty
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : D
Q - 645 : The essential characterstics of tort is violation

136
A. right in personam (a right available only against some determinate person or

property)
B. a contractual right.
C. right in rem (a right vested in some determine person and available against the
world at large).
Ans : C
Q - 646 : Which among the following is difference between a tort and a crime?
A. A tort is an infringement of the private right belonging to an individual. A crime is
an invasion of public rights or duties affecting the whole society.
B. In tort, the wrongdoer has to pay damages to the injured party. In crime, he is
punished by the state and the fine imposed on him goes to Government treasury.
C. In tort, the civil action is brought by the injured party himself in the civil court;
where in crime, the proceedings are taken and conducted in the name of the state in
criminal court.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 647 : "Wrongs are divisible into two sorts or species, 'private wrongs' and public
wrongs'. The above distinction was made by
A. Bentham
B. Blackstone
C. Salmond
D. Pollock
Ans : B
Q - 648 : One of the following is a good defence for the tort of private nuisance?
A. Plaintiff has come to the place of nuisance.
B. Reasonable care was taken to prevent nuisance
C. The activity is for the public benefit
D. The activity is continuing for the past 20 years.
Ans : D
Q - 649 : There are various wrongs which find their place both under criminal law
and law of torts. These wrongs are
A. assault, defamation and negligence.
B. assault, defamation, negligence, conspiracy and nuisance.
C. assault, defamation, negligence and conspiracy
D. defamation, conspiracy and negligence.
137
Ans : C
Q - 650 : "A tort may be described as a wrong independent of contract, for which the
appropriate remedy is common law action". This definition is given by
A. Salmond
B. Clerk and Lindsell
C. Winfield
D. Pollock
Ans : B
Q - 651 : Ubi jus ibi remedium means

A. every law provides for remedies.
B. there is a right without a remedy.
C. if a law is made corresponding remedy also must be made.
D. every remedy presupposes some injury to somebody
Ans : B
Q - 652 : In the law of tort, the remedies available are

A. executive and non-judicial.
B. executive and judicial
C. judicial and extra-judicial
D. judicial, non-judicial and extra-judicial.
Ans : C
Q - 653 : The general remedy in law of tort is

A. action for damages
B. action for injunction
C. specific restitution of property
D. action for unliquidated damages
Ans : D
Q - 654 : To fasten liability on a person, mental condition of the wrong doer is

A. relevant in all torts
B. not relevant in tortuous liability
C. relevant in case of strict liability
D. relevant in torts based on fault
Ans : D
Q - 655 : Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. Damages can be dispensed with in tort.
138
B. A remedy by way of damages is an essential ingredient of tort.

C. When other remedies are provided by a statute, damages cannot be awarded in
tort
D. Damages can be awarded only for corporeal objects.
Ans : B

A. Contemptuous damages are awarded when it is considered that an action should
never have been brought.
B. Nominal damages are awarded when there has been infringement of the
plaintiff's legal right but he has suffered no loss thereby
C. Ordinary damages are awarded where it is necessary to compensate the plaintiff
fairly for the injury he has in fact sustaine
D.
D. Exemplary damages are not awarded under the law of torts generally
Ans : D
Q - 657 : Ordinary damages are also called

A. General damages
B. compensatory damages
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 658 : Exemplary damages, which are awarded in excess of the material loss
suffered by the plaintiff with a view to prevent similar behaviour in future, are also
called
A. punitive damages
B. vindictive damages
C. compensatory damages
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : D

A. General damages are those which the law will imply in every violation of a legal
right.
B. Special damages are such as the law will not infer from the nature of the act
complained of.
C. The special damage denotes the actual and temporal loss which has, in fact,
occurre
139
D.
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 660 : Which of the following is an extra-judicial remedy?

A. Expulsion of a trespasser
B. Re-entry on land
C. Distress damage feasant
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 661 : When the plaintiff elects to sue in quasi-contract instead of tort, he is said
to have
A. Waived the tort
B. discharged the tort
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 662 : A discharge of tort implies

A. the judgement has not been pronounce
D.
B. that no relief has given
C. that no record has been arrived
D. no action lies against the wrong-doer
Ans : D
Q - 663 : Mark the incorrect statements

A. Ordinarily, all persons are entitled to sue in tort.
B. In India, unlike England, an action in tort by one spouse against the other is
maintainable.
C. An infant can sue for a tort.
D. An infant is not liable for his torts.
Ans : D
Q - 664 : Which of the following are the essential of a tort?

A. There must be a wrongful act or omission on the part of a person.
B. That wrongful act or omission must result in legal damage to another.
C. The wrongful act or omission must be of result a nature as to give rise to a legal
remedy.
140
D. All of the above

Ans : D
Q - 665 : Liability in tort depends upon

A. quantum of damages suffered
B. involvement of intention
C. infringement of legal right
D. effect on public interest.
Ans : C
Q - 666 : In which of the following cases, it was held that 'no exemption clause in a
contract is capable of exempting a party from tortious liability'?
A. Donoghue vs Stevenson.
B. Grant vs Australian Knitting Mills Lt
D.
C. White vs John Warrick & Co.
D. Ashby vs White
Ans : C
Q - 667 : The maxim alterum non leadere means

A. to hurt nobody by word or dee
D.
B. where there is a right there is a remedy.
C. c)\\\\infringement of a legal right without damage or loss.
Ans : A
Q - 668 : The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium means

A. to hurt nobody by word or dee
D.
B. where there is a right there is a remedy
C. infringement of a legal right without damage or loss
Ans : B
Q - 669 : The maxim 'Damnum sine injuria' means

A. damage or loss without infringement of legal right.
B. infringement of private legal right without damage or loss.
C. where there is a remedy, there is a right.
D. where there is a right, there is a remedy.
141
Ans : A
Q - 670 : The maxim 'Injuria sine damnum' means

A. damage or loss without infringement of legal right.
B. infringement of private legal right without damage or loss.
C. where there is a right, there is a remedy.
Ans : B
Q - 671 : Injuria sine damnum relates to cases where there is

A. an invasion of an absolute private right.
B. an invasion of a public right.
C. a violation of a legal right.
D. a legally authorized act resulting in injury
Ans : C
Q - 672 : "If the plaintiff has a right, he must've means to vindicate and maintain it,
and a remedy if he is injured in the exercise or enjoyment of it (Ashby vs White). The
above rule was laid down by
A. Salmond
B. Hold,
C.J.
C. Blackburn, J
D. Winfield
Ans : B
Q - 673 : The case Ashby vs White recognised the principle of ubi jus ibi remedium. It
followed the
A. Winfield's theory
B. Salmond's theory
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 674 : "Damnum may be absque injuria, as if I have a mill and my neighbour builds
another mill whereby the profit of my mill is diminished, I shall have no action
against him, although I am damage
D.... but if a miller disturbs the water from going to my mill, or does any nuisance of
the like sort, I shall water such action as the law gives." The above observation was
made by Justice Hankford in
142
A. Gloucester Grammar School case.

B. Ashby vs White.
C. Chasemore vs Richards.
D. Dickson vs Reuters Telegram Company.
Ans : A
Q - 675 : 'A', a qualified voter, was denied his right to vote by the returning officer.
The candidate for whom 'A' voted was nevertheless electe
D. An action in tort against the Returning Officer
A. Does not lie because 'A' suffered no harm; the candidate he wanted to voted for
was elected
B. Does not lie because there was no malice.
C. Lies because a legal right was injured even though no harm was caused
Ans : C
Q - 676 : 'A' set up a rival school to that of the 'B's. Because of the competition 'B'
had to reduce their fees.
A. 'B' had no remedy in tort for the loss suffered by them
B. 'B' had a remedy in other law
C. 'B' had a remedy in other law
Ans : A
Q - 677 : A' carrying on mining operations in his own Land drained away the
percolating water from the B's land and thus dried up his well
A. 'B' has the remedy against 'A' for loss suffered by him.
B. 'A' will be liable for interference in ‘B’ s use of lan
D.
C. 'B' has no remedy against 'A' because ‘A' has infringed no legal right of 'B’.
Ans : C
Q - 678 : The term 'malice' means

A. in its legal sense a wilful act done with just cause or excuse, and known as 'malice
in law’.
B. it is an evil or improper motive and the same is known as 'malice in fact'.
C. Both (a) and (b).
D. Neither of the two
Ans : C
143
Q - 679 : In which of the following cases, it was observed that if an act is otherwise
lawful it does not become unlawful merely because the same has been done with an
evil motive.
A. Allen vs Flood
B. Mayor vs Bradford Corp. vs Pickles.
C. Town Area Committee vs Prabhu Dayal.
D. Stone vs Bolton.
Ans : B
Q - 680 : The element of malice

A. is not essential
B. is essential in all torts.
C. is essential in the tort of defamation, malicious prosecution, wilful and malicious
damage to property,maintenance and nuisance.
D. is essential in the tort of defamation and malicious prosecution only.
Ans : C
Q - 681 : Mental condition of the wrong-doer at the time of wrong doing is

A. relevant in all torts.
B. relevant in torts based on faults.
C. relevant in torts based on strict liability
D. not relevant in tortuous liability.
Ans : B
Q - 682 : The maxim 'ex turpi causa non oritur action means that
A. an action does not arise from an immoral cause.
B. an action arises from an immoral cause .
C. immorality always depends on the prevailing
Ans : A
Q - 683 : The maxim Volenti non fit injuria means

A. voluntarily suffered injury is not fit for action.
B. no breach of a legal right is committed against one who is a willing party.
C. harm suffered voluntarily does not constitute an injury and is not actionable.
D. All are correct
Ans : C
Q - 684 : The basic ingredient in constituting the ‘maxim volenti non fit injuria', which
144
the defendant must prove in order to justify his tort, is

A. the plaintiff had the knowledge of the risk.
B. the plaintiff with his free consent ran the risk of harm.
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 685 : “Rousseau is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said
this ?
A. Hobbes
B. J. S. Mill
C. Locke
D. Barker
Ans : D
Q - 686 : The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild
life of the country is
A. Directive Principle of State Policy
B. Fundamental National Policy
C. Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
D. Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Ans : D
Q - 687 : Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and

A. Seven other judges
B. Twelve other judges
C. Thirteen other judges
D. Fifteen other judges
Ans : A
Q - 688 : Two stranger took lift in a jeep. A bolt fixing the right front wheel to the
axle gave way toppling the jeep. Two strangers were thrown out and one of them
died of injuries and the other sustained injuries.
A. the driver is responsible for the accident as he did not take care and caution.
B. the owner is responsible as he let the driver to drive a defective vehicle.
C. the strangers are responsible as they took the lift willingly (volenti non fit injuria).
D. Both the driver and owner are responsible.
Ans : C
Q - 689 : The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is
145
not the part of the Constitution of India

A. Berubari case
B.
A. K. Gopalan case
C. Balaji Case
D. Minerva Mill’s case
Ans : A
Q - 690 : ‘Jurisprudence is as big as law and bigger’. who said this ?

A. Austin
B. Lloyds
C. Lewellyn
D. Holland
Ans : C
Q - 691 : The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains
valid in the State for maximum period of
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. One year
Ans : C
Q - 692 : The power of the Parliament to a mend the Constitution of India is a

constituent power laid down in Article 368 by
A. Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
B. Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
C. Forty Second Amendment Act
D. Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans : A
Q - 693 : The maxim Volenti non fit injuria means

A. voluntarily suffered injury is not fit for action
B. no breach of a legal right is committed against one who is a willing party.
C. harm suffered voluntarily does not constitute an injury and is not actionable.
D. All are correct
Ans : C
Q - 694 : The basic ingredient in constituting the ‘maxim volenti non fit injuria', which
the defendant must prove in order to justify his tort, is
146
A. the plaintiff had the knowledge of the risk.

B. the plaintiff with his free consent ran the risk of harm.
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 695 : Which one of the following is not a valid defence in tort?

A. volenti non fit injuria.
B. vis major.
C. scienti non fit injuria.
D. consent
Ans : C
Q - 696 : The maxim 'scienti non fit injuria' means

A. no injury is done to one who knowingly does an act.
B. voluntarily suffered injury is not fit for action.
C. where there is a right, there is a remedy,
Ans : A
Q - 697 : The term 'Scienter' is related to which one of the following sign-boards?
A. 'Trespassers will be prosecuted'.
B. 'Beware of dogs’.
C. 'No Parking’.
D. 'No admission without permission'.
Ans : B
Q - 698 : Two stranger took lift in a jeep. A bolt fixing the right front wheel to the
axle gave way toppling the jeep. Two strangers were thrown out and one of them
died of injuries and the other sustained injuries.
A. the driver is responsible for the accident as he did not take care and caution.
B. the owner is responsible as he let the driver to drive a defective vehicle.
C. the strangers are responsible as they took the lift willingly (volenti non fit injuria).
D. Both the driver and owner are responsible.
Ans : C
Q - 699 : A music teacher was held liable for raping a minor girl even though he had
taken her consent under the pre text that an operation (sexual intercourse) is
required to improve her voice. It is the fact of the case in
A. Ashby vs White
147
B. R. vs Clearance
C. R vs Williams
D. R. vs Catherine
Ans : C
Q - 700 : The maxim volenti non fit injuria would be applied in which of the following
cases?
A. When a servant is compelled to do some work inspite of his protest (Bowater vs
Rowely).
B. A workman adopts a risky method of work under his own free will (Imperial
Chemical Industries Lt
D. vs Shatwel).
C. The workman worked under constant risk of his life but during the accident, he
was not warned, which was supposed to be (Smith vs Baker).
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 701 : A lady died at the time of the birth of her chil

D. An unqualified midwife attended her to on her own request at the time of the
delivery. Her husband brought an action for damages. In this case
A. no damages are payable as the deceased lady voluntarily engaged the midwife.
B. damages are payable to the husband as his contest was not taken.
C. no damages are payable as the unqualified midwife can be criminally trie
D.
D. damages are payable as the consent of the deceased was irrelevant
Ans : A
Q - 702 : A person who is not qualified as a medical practitioner performed an

operation with the consent of a patient die
D. Which one of the following grounds will be most appropriate to determine his
liability?
A. Volenti non fit injuria is a complete defence.
B. He has no intention to kill and has performed the operation in good faith for the
benefit of the person.
C. He has earlier done similar operations with success.
D. As he is not a medical practitioner and is unskilled, the plea of consent and good
faith will not be available.
Ans : B
Q - 703 : The plaintiff, a one-eyed man, employed by the defendants was working in
148
conditions involving some risk of eye injury, but the likelihood of injury was not
sufficient to call upon the defendants to provide goggles as to a normal two-eyed
workman. The plaintiff was injured in the eye while working. The defendants are
A. liable because the plaintiff being a one- eyed workman, magnitude of risk of injury
to his remaining eye was very high and consequently the defendants should have
provident him with goggles.
B. not liable because the defendants were not duty-bound to provide goggles to the
plaintiff.
C. liable because the plaintiff's nature of duties was such that eye injury was
probable.
D. not liable because the plaintiff had voluntarily undertaken the job fully
appreciating the risks involve
D.
Ans : A
Q - 704 : Which one of the following is not an exception to the rule of volenti non fit
injuria?
A. A surgeon amputates a limb of a patient to save his life.
B. Injury is caused while play-fighting with naked swords at a religious function.
C. Injury is caused to a player in a football match
D. Injury is caused while doing lawful acts under a contract
Ans : B
Q - 705 : Which one of the following limitations to the rule of volenti non fit injuria is
not correct ?
A. the consent should be free .
B. consent to illegle act is no consent .
C. mere knowledge of the risk is not an assumption of the risk .
D. consent in rescue cases is no consent
Ans : D
Q - 706 : The scope of application of the doctrine of volenti not fit injuria has been
curtaile
D.
A. in rescue cases.
B. when the person has taken the risk by his own free will
C. by the Unfair Contract Terms Act, 1977 (England).
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : D

149
Q - 707 : The servant of 'A' left a horse van unattended on a street. A boy threw a
stone at the horses that got frightened and bolte
D. This constituted a grave danger to the woman and the children on the roa
D. A policeman perceiving this danger managed to stop the horses but was himself
injure
D.
A. An action against 'A' by the policeman would lie because the latter acted under an
exigency caused by wrongful conduct of 'A's servants.
B. An action against 'A' would fail because of volenti non fit injuria on the part of the
policeman
C. An action against 'A' would fail because it was action of the boy that resulted in
bolting of the horses.
Ans : A
Q - 708 : Who said, "When the plaintiff himself is a wrong-doer, he is not disabled
from recovering in tort, unless some unlawful act or conduct on his part, is
connected with the harm, suffered by him as part of the same transaction".
A. Sir Frederick Pollock
B. Sir Garfield Pollock
C. Winfield
D. Salmond
Ans : A
Q - 709 : A, an employee of a bank was arrested by the police upon a written

complain of bank. A was acquitted at session trial. A claimed damages.
A. Bank had a probable cause and hence no false imprisonment.
B. Bank had a reasonable cause and hence no false imprisonment.
C. As bank caused arrest of A hence it is liable.
Ans : C
Q - 710 : Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. Inevitable accident is not a defence at all but only a denial of liability.
B. Inevitable accident is not a denial of liability but only defence.
C. Inevitable accident is both defence and denial of liability.
D. Inevitable accident is a chance event and can neither be a defence nor a denial of
liability.
Ans : C

150
Q - 711 : Act of God is also known by the name

A. Vis major
B. Damnum Fatale
C. Vis major or Damnum Fatale
D. Force majeure
Ans : A
Q - 712 : The act of God is

A. an inevitable accident (without any human intervention)
B. beyond the control of human's right.
C. extraordinary occurrence which could not be foreseen and could not have been
guarded against.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 713 : A railway company was authorized by law to run railway trains on a track.
The sparks from the engine set fire to the adjoining property belonging to the
plaintiff. Which one of the following defences will be most appropriate for the
defendant, to raise in an action for nuisance by the plaintiff?
A. Public good
B. Nuisance due to other's acts
C. Reasonable act in conducting his business
D. Statutory authority
Ans : D
Q - 714 : The maxim 'Salus populi supreme law' means.

A. No man is above the law.
B. The welfare of the people is the supreme law.
C. The defence of statutory authority is the supreme law.
Ans : B
Q - 715 : The rule of 'strict liability' implies

A. no fault liability i.e., the fault or negligence of the guilty party is immaterial.
B. liability based on fault.
C. state liability.
D. absolute liability.
Ans : A
Q - 716 : The rule of absolute liability' implies

151
A. strict liability.
B. stricter than strict liability.
C. state liability
Ans : B
Q - 717 : The rationale of absolute liability is that the undertakers of hazardous

activities have to pay
A. if they are at fault.
B. partially even if they are not their part.
C. regardless of any fault on their.
D. if they have not taken reasonable care.
Ans : A
Q - 718 : A person who, for his own purposes, brings on his land and collects and
keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes must keep it in at his peril and
if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the
natural consequence of its escape. The above rule was enunciated in
A. Nichols vs Marslan
D.
B. Donoghue vs Stevenson.
C. Rylands vs Fletcher.
Ans : C
Q - 719 : The rule of strict liability was laid down in Rylands vs Fletcher by
A. Blackburn, J. In 1868.
B. Lord Atkin in 1635.
C. Winfield in 1765.
D. Holt,
C. J. In 1868.
Ans : A
Q - 720 : The 'Absolute Liability theory as the basis for liability in court for industrial
injuries was propounded by
A. Blackburn, J.
B. V.R. Krishna Iyer, J.
C. P.N. Bhagwati,
C.J.
D. Lord Atkin.
152
Ans : C
Q - 721 : To bring the case within the ambit of strict liability, the following are
necessary.
A. Some dangerous thing must have been brought by a person on his lan
D.
B. The thing brought by a person on his land must escape.
C. It must be unnatural use of lan
D.
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 722 : The rule in Rylands vs Fletcher is not applicable

A. Inevitable accident
B. Vis Major
C. Negligence of the defendant
D. Mistake
Ans : B
Q - 723 : Give correct response

A. No person is liable for the wrongful acts of others. One is liable for his own acts.
B. One person may be (vicariously) liable for the wrongful acts of others when a
certain relationship exists between the two, such as of master and servant, principal
and agent, or partners inter se.
C. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans : C
Q - 724 : The vicarious arising from relation is

A. of the principal and agent.
B. of the master and servant.
C. of the guardian and war
D.
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 725 : Give correct response

A. The liability of master and servant is joint.
B. The liability of master and servant is several
C. The liability of master and servant is joint and several
153

Ans : C
Q - 726 : When an agent commits a tort in the performance of his duty as an age
injured party can sue
A. the agent only
B. the principal only
C. either the principal or the agent
D. either the principal or the agent or be of them
Ans : D
Q - 727 : Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. An innocent principal is not liable for the fraud of his agent.
B. An innocent principal is liable for the fraud of his agents.
C. An innocent agent is liable for all frauds of his principal
D. None of the above is correct.
Ans : B
Q - 728 : The maxim 'Qui facit per alium facit per se means
A. he who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself.
B. he who does an act through another is not deemed in law to do it himself.
C. the vicarious liability.
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : D
Q - 729 : A servant is a person

A. who works for another.
B. who is employed by another.
C. who acts on behalf of the other.
D. who voluntarily agrees to work under the control and command of another during
the period of employment, whether for remuneration or salary, or even gratuity
ously.
Ans : D
Q - 730 : The employer will not be liable

A. where the thing contracted to be done through the independent contractor is
itself unlawful.
B. for the words of an incompetent contractor
C. for the wrong of servants engaged by the independent contractor.
D. in all the above cases.
154
Ans : C
Q - 731 : A master is liable for the wrongs of his servant if the servant
A. has acted outside the acope of his duty in violation of express orders.
B. is temporarily lent to another,
C. has acted in self- defence against the criminal conduct of the person who sues the
master.
D. is drunk while on duty.
Ans : B
Q - 732 : ’X’ wanted to purchase 'Y's car and was driving it to test it with 'Y' seated by
his side. Because of X's negligence, an accident happened in which the plaintiff 'Z'
was injure
D. Z sues 'Y' for damages
A. Y is not liable as X was driving the car for his own purpose.
B. Y is not liable as X was not the servant of
C. Y is liable because he had not abandoned his right and duty, to control the way in
which the car was driven.
D. Y is liable because X was driving the car for Y's purpose.
Ans : B
Q - 733 : Consider the following elements: (1) Infringement of a legal right. (ii) Legal
damages (iii) Any damage (iv) Existence of a legal right. Right to claim damages in
tort would arise only if
A. (i) and (ii) are present
B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are present
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) are present
D. (iii) and (iv) are present
Ans : A
Q - 734 : A master is liable for the tort committed by his servant when the servant
acts
A. for the benefit of his master
B. in course of his employment.
C. during his duty hours.
D. to the detriment of the plaintiff.
Ans : B
Q - 735 : The Crown Proceedings Act which makes the crown liable for the tortuous
acts of its servants acting in the course of their employment, was enacted in
155
A. 1835
B. 1932
C. 1948
D. 1947
Ans : D
Q - 736 : Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down that the Union of India
and the States can sue and be used?
A. Art. 301
B. Art. 300
C. Art. 304
D. Art. 365
Ans : B
Q - 737 : An act done by a government servant in exercise of statutory power is a

defence
A. if the said act is a constitution act
B. if the said act is in exercise of sovereign function
C. if the said act is in exercise of non- sovereign functions
Ans : B
Q - 738 : The distinction between sovereign and non- sovereign functions of the
state was laid down in
A. Rylands vs Fletcher
B. Donoghue vs Stevenson
C. M.
C. Mehta vs Union of India.
D. Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. vs Secretary of State, India.
Ans : A
Q - 739 : Which of the following is not a sovereign function of the state?

A. Administration of justice
B. Maintenance of law and order
C. Defence
D. Famine relief work
Ans : D
Q - 740 : When two or more persons commit same tort against the same plaintiff,
they may be
156
A. composite tort-feasors
B. contributory negligence tort committers
C. tort partners
Ans : A
Q - 741 : When the acts of two or more persons acting independently concur to
produce a single damage, they are known as
A. independent tort-feasors
B. joint tort-feasors
C. nuisance
Ans : A
Q - 742 : The leading case on the subject of distinction between joint tort-feasors
and independent tort-feasors is
A. Merryweather vs Nixon
B. Ramkumar vs Ali Hasan
C. The Koursk
D. V.Llyod vs Grace Smith and Co.
Ans : A
Q - 743 : Which of the following is an example of joint tort-feasor?

A. Partners
B. Principal and agent
C. Master and servant
D. All of the above
Ans : D
Q - 744 : An agreement enforceable by law is a

A. enforceable acceptance
B. accepted offer
C. approved promise
D. contract
Ans : D
Q - 745 : Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for
each other, of each other ,is an
A. agreement
B. contract
157
C. offer
D. acceptance
Ans : A
Q - 746 : Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for
each other are called
A. reciprocal promises
B. cross offers
C. conditional offer
D. conditional promises
Ans : A
Q - 747 : An agreement not enforceable by law is stated called to be void under

A. section 2(d)
B. section 2(e)
C. section 2(1)
D. section 2(g)
Ans : D
Q - 748 : Void agreement signifies

A. agreement illegal in nature
B. agreement not enforceable by law
C. agreement violating legal procedure
D. agreement against public policy
Ans : B
Q - 749 : Offer as defined under section 2(a) is

A. communication from one person to another
B. suggestion by one person to another
C. willingness to do or abstain from doing an act in order to obtain the assent of
other thereto
Ans : C
Q - 750 : Under section 2(b) if the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his
assent the proposal is said to have been
A. accepted
B. agreed
C. provisionally agreed
D. tentatively accepted
158
Ans : A
Q - 751 : A proposal when accepted becomes

A. promise under section 2(b)
B. agreement under section 2(e)
C. contract under section 2(h)
Ans : A
Q - 752 : When, at the desire of the promisor, the is promisee or any other person
has done or abstained from doing or, does or abstain from doing or promises to do
or to abstain from doing something, such act or abstinence or promise under section
2(d) is called
A. reciprocal promise
B. consideration for the promise
C. counter offer
D. acceptance
Ans : B
Q - 753 : Promises which form the consideration or part there of, for each other
under section 2(f) are called
A. acceptances for different proposals
B. agreements
C. reciprocal promises
D. consideration
Ans : C
Q - 754 : Every promise or set of promises forming the consideration for each other
under section 2(e) is called
A. reciprocal promise
B. contract
C. agreement
Ans : C
Q - 755 : An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one party & not of
other party under section 2(i) is called
A. a valid contract
B. an illegal contract
C. void contract
159
D. a voidable contract
Ans : D
Q - 756 : Which is correct?

A. proposal + acceptance = promise
B. promise + consideration = agreement
C. agreement + enforceability = contract
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 757 : In a valid contract, what comes first

A. enforceability
B. acceptance
C. promise
D. proposal
Ans : D
Q - 758 : Under section 2(c) promisor is the

A. person who makes the proposal
B. person who accepts the proposal
C. person who makes the promise
D. person to whom the proposal is made
Ans : A
Q - 759 : Under section 2(c) promisee is the

A. person who makes the proposal
B. person who accepts the proposal
C. person who makes the promise
D. person to whom proposal is made
Ans : B
Q - 760 : Goods displayed in a shop with a price tag is an

A. offer
B. invitation to offer
C. counter offer
Ans : B
Q - 761 : Tender is
A. an offer
160
B. an invitation to offer
C. a counter offer
D. a promise
Ans : B
Q - 762 : Communication of a proposal is complete

A. when it is put in the course of transmission
B. when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
C. when the proposal is communicated to the person to whom it is made
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 763 : Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer

A. when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
B. when it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the
acceptor
C. when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 764 : Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor

A. when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
B. when it is put in the course of transmission
C. when it is communicated to the acceptor that the acceptance has reached
proposer
D. when the proposer conveys the acceptance to the acceptor
Ans : A
Q - 765 : Revocation of offer by letter or telegram can be completed

A. when it is despatched
B. when it is received by the offeree
C. when it reaches the offeree
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 766 : Acceptance to be valid must

A. be absolute
B. be unqualified
C. both be absolute & unqualified
D. be conditional
161
Ans : C
Q - 767 : A contract with or by a minor is a

A. valid contract
B. void contract
C. voidable contract
D. voidable at the option of either party
Ans : B
Q - 768 : A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void

A. when it ceases to be enforceable
B. before it ceases to be enforceable
C. no such condition necessary
D. None of above
Ans : A
Q - 769 : An acceptance can be revoked

A. at any time before the communication of acceptance is complete as against the
promisee
B. after its acceptance comes to the knowledge of the promisee
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Ans : A
Q - 770 : A proposal stands revoked

A. by communication of notice of revocation by the proposer
B. by failure of acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent
C. by death or insanity of proposer to the knowledge of acceptor
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 771 : A proposal can be accepted

A. by notice of acceptance
B. by performance of condition of proposal
C. by acceptance of consideration for a reciprocal promise
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 772 : Enforceable agreements are the one

A. made by free consent
162
B. parties to the contract are competent to enter into an agreement

C. having lawful consideration & lawful object
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 773 : Competency to contract relates to

A. age of the parties
B. soundness of mind of the parties
C. both age & soundness of mind
D. intelligence of the parties
Ans : C
Q - 774 : Which one of the following is correct?

A. past consideration is no consideration
B. consideration can be past, present or future
C. consideration can only be present
D. consideration can only be present & future
Ans : B
Q - 775 : Past consideration is valid in

A. England only
B. India only
C. Both in England & India
D. Neither in England nor in India
Ans : C
Q - 776 : An agreement not to raise the plea of limitation is

A. valid and binding
B. void
C. voidable
D. illegal
Ans : B
Q - 777 : Which one of the following pairs does not match ?

A. Novation of contract - Section 62
B. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
C. Tender of performance - Section 38
D. Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23
Ans : B

163
Q - 778 : When the consent to the contract is caused by coercion, the contract under
section 19 is
A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. illegal
Ans : B
Q - 779 : A's son forged B's name to a promissory note. B under threat of prosecuting
A's son obtains a bond from A for the amount of the forged note. If B sues on this
bond the court
A. has no jurisdiction in this case
B. must not set aside the bond
C. may set aside the bond
D. None of above
Ans : C
Q - 780 : When the consent is caused by misrepresentation, the contract under

section 19 is
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. illegal
Ans : C
Q - 781 : When the consent is caused by undue influence, the contract under section
19A is
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. illegal
Ans : C
Q - 782 : Where both the parties are under mistake as to matter of fact, the contract
under section 20 is
A. voidable
B. void
C. valid
D. illegal
Ans : B
164
Q - 783 : Where one of the parties is under a mistake as to matter of fact, the
contract is
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. illegal
Ans : A
Q - 784 : Considerations and objects are unlawful where it is

A. forbidden by law or defeat the provision of any law
B. which is fraudulent
C. which is immoral and against the public policy
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 785 : If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under
section 24 shall be
A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. illegal
Ans : C
Q - 786 : A contract without consideration under section 25 is

A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. illegal
Ans : C
Q - 787 : Consideration should be something in return of promise which

A. both the law and parties regard, as having some value
B. only law regards as having some value
C. only the parties regard some value
D. only adequate value necessary
Ans : B
Q - 788 : If the proposer prescribes the mode & manner of acceptance, the
acceptance
165
A. can be in any manner & mode

B. should be in the manner & mode prescribed
C. can be in any reasonable mode & manner
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 789 : Parties are not competent to contract if any of them is

A. minor
B. insane
C. declared unqualified
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 790 : Consent is free under section 14 if not caused

A. coercion and undue influence
B. fraud and misrepresentation
C. mistake subject to the provisions of sections 20, 21 and 22
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 791 : Consent under section 13 means

A. agreeing on the same thing in the same sense
B. agreeing on the same thing at the same time
C. agreeing on the same thing at different time
D. agreeing on different things at different times
Ans : A
Q - 792 : A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable

subsequently, the contract
A. remains valid
B. becomes voidable when enforceable
C. becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable
D. becomes void since inception
Ans : C
Q - 793 : Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain or not capable of being
made under section 29 are
A. void
B. voidable
C. illegal
166
D. valid
Ans : A
Q - 794 : An agreement in restraint of trade under section 27 is

A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. unenforceable
Ans : C
Q - 795 : An agreement in restraint of trade valid under section 27 if it relates to

A. sale of goodwill
B. mutual adjustment
C. business contingency
Ans : A
Q - 796 : An agreement not to pursue any legal remedy to enforce the rights under
section 28 is
A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. unenforceable
Ans : C
Q - 797 : An agreement not to pursue legal remedies but to refer the dispute to the
arbitrator, under section 28 is
A. valid
B. voidable
C. void
D. unenforceable
Ans : A
Q - 798 : An agreement to refer the dispute to the arbitrator is valid

A. in respect of disputes already arisen
B. in respect of disputes which may arise in future
C. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : C

167
Q - 799 : An agreement by way of wager under section 30 is

A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. unenforceable
Ans : A
Q - 800 : An agreement in connection with horse- racing under section 30 is

A. unlawful
B. void
C. voidable
D. valid
Ans : D
Q - 801 : An agreement in restraint of marriage under section 26 is

A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. unenforceable
Ans : A
Q - 802 : If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under
section 24 shall be
A. valid to the extent the same are lawful
B. void to the extent the same are unlawful
C. void as a whole
D. valid as a whole
Ans : C
Q - 803 : An agreement shall be void on account of

A. mistake of fact by one party
B. mistake of fact by both the parties
C. mistake of foreign law
D. Both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 804 : Coercion which vitiates free consent under section 15 is

A. committing or threatening to commit any act which is forbidden by law
B. committing or threatening to commit any act which is forbidden by Indian Penal
Code
168
C. unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property with an intention to

causing any person to enter into an agreement
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 805 : What is correct for a standard form of contract?

A. it is a valid contract
B. One party has no choice but to accept & sign the contract
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. The consent is not a free consent
Ans : A
Q - 806 : Law of contract primarily

A. specifies the circumstances in which promises are binding on the parties to the
contract
B. lays down certain norms by which the . parties are bound
C. lays down the circumstances under which a promise may be made
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 807 : Misrepresentation under section 18 means

A. a positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person
making it, not true but he believes it to be true
B. any breach of duty, which gains an advantage to the person committing it, by
misleading another to his prejudice
C. causing a party to make an agreement to make a mistake as to the subject matter
of contract
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 808 : A person is deemed to be in a position to dominate the will of another by

undue influence if the mental capacity is affected temporarily or permanently by
A. reason of age
B. reason of illness
C. mental or bodily distress
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 809 : An agreement to remain unmarried is

A. valid
169
B. voidable
C. void
D. unenforceable
Ans : C
Q - 810 : A general offer open for world at large can be accepted

A. by sending a communication of acceptance
B. by complying with the conditions of offer
C. by tendering himself to comply the conditions of offer
Ans : B
Q - 811 : The term consensus ad-idem means

A. general consensus
B. reaching an agreement
C. meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense
D. All the above
Ans : C
Q - 812 : Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?

A. suggestion as a fact which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true
B. active concealment of a fact
C. a representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be
true
D. a promise made without any intention of performing it
Ans : C
Q - 813 : Contract without consideration made in writing & registered and made on
account of natural love and affection is
A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. unenforceable
Ans : C
Q - 814 : Inadequacy of consideration does not make the contract

A. void
B. voidable
C. unenforceable
D. neither void nor voidable
170
Ans : A
Q - 815 : Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the
Q - of
A. fraud
B. misrepresentation
C. undue influence
D. free consent
Ans : D
Q - 816 : Agreement without consideration is valid

A. when made out of love & affection due to near relationship
B. when made to compensate a person who has already done something voluntarily
C. when made to pay a time barred debt
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 817 : A contract based on the happening or non- happening of a future event

under section 31 is called
A. a contingent contract
B. a wagering contract
C. a contract marked with uncertainty and hence void
Ans : A
Q - 818 : A contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening of an

uncertain future event under section 32
A. is never enforceable
B. becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event
C. enforceable since the time of making it
D. becomes enforceable in the immediate possibility of happening of that event
Ans : B
Q - 819 : A contingent contract

A. is void
B. never becomes void
C. becomes void when the event impossible
D. is voidable
Ans : C
171
Q - 820 : A contingent agreement based impossible event under section 36

A. is void
B. is void till the impossibility is known
C. becomes void on the knowledge impossibility
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 821 : What is true of misrepresentation?

A. it is the same thing as fraud
B. it renders the contract voidable
C. it may be due to innocence
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : D
Q - 822 : Two persons have the capacity to contract under section 11

A. if both are major
B. if both are not of unsound mind
C. if none is declared unqualified to contract
D. All are correct
Ans : D
Q - 823 : A contract with minor is

A. voidable at the instance of the minor
B. voidable at the instance of other party
C. void
D. valid
Ans : C
Q - 824 : An agreement to do an act impossible in itself under section 56 is

A. void
B. valid
C. voidable
D. unenforceable
Ans : A
Q - 825 : A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain event happening

within a fixed time under section 35
A. remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time
B. becomes void at the expiration of the time fixed
172
C. becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the
expiry of time fixed
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans : D
Q - 826 : The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 (6 of 2009) is an Act to make
provisions for the
A. formulation and regulation of General Partnership Firms and Limited Liability
formed under Indian Partnership Act, 1932
B. formulation and regulation of Joint Ventures with unlimited liability formed under
Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. formulation and regulation of Chit Funds Organisations with unlimited liability
formed under the Chit Funds Act, 1982
D. formation and regulation of Limited Liability Partnership with limited liability
formed under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
Ans : D
Q - 827 : Foreign Limited Liability Partnership (FLLP) under the Limited Liability
Partnership Act, 2008 means
A. a Limited Liability Partnership formed, incorporated or registered in that country
to which the partners belong
B. a Limited Liability Partnership formed, incorporated or registered under Economic
Council of UNO
C. a Limited Liability Partnership formed, incorporated or registered in Indian
territory
D. a Limited Liability Partnership formed, incorporated or registered outside India
which establishes a place of business within India
Ans : D
Q - 828 : Every Limited Liability Partnership as per the Limited Liability Partnership
Act, 2008 shall have at least two Designated Partners (DPs) who are individuals and
A. at least one among them shall be resident in India
B. both of them shall belong to one family residing in India
C. both of them should be non-resident Indians (NRIS)
D. both of them should belong to a single country outside India
Ans : A
Q - 829 : Prior to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 which came into force from 1
October, 1932 except section 69 which came into force from 1 October, 1933, the
law of partnership was provided in
173
A. Sale of Goods Act, 1930

B. Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. Transfer of Property Act, 1908
D. English Partnership Act, 1890
Ans : B
Q - 830 : Unilateral dissolution of partnership by partner who is minority shareholder

is
A. not permissible
B. permissible
C. permissible if all minority share-holders agree
D. permissible if Memorandum of Association prescribes
Ans : D
Q - 831 : An act, to be called on 'act of a firm', within the meaning of section 2(a) of
the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is
A. every act of the partners
B. only such acts which give rise to a right enforceable by or against the firm
C. such acts which do not give rise to a right enforceable by or against the firm
Ans : D
Q - 832 : Any act or omission, to be an act of a firm, within the meaning of section
2(a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 must be act or omission of
A. all the partners
B. any of the partner
C. agent of the firm
D. either (a) or (b) or (c)
Ans : D
Q - 833 : Whether an act of a partner or agent can be regarded as an 'act of the firm'
is a
A.
Q - of fact
B.
Q - of law
C. mixed

174
Q - of fact & law

Ans : A
Q - 834 : In the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 the term business' has been defined
under
A. section 2(a)
B. section 2(b)
C. section 2(d)
D. section 2(e)
Ans : B
Q - 835 : Under section 2(b) of the Indian Partnership Act, business includes
A. every trade and occupation
B. every occupation and profession
C. every trade, occupation and profession
D. every trade and profession
Ans : C
Q - 836 : The term 'partnership' has been defined under

A. section 3
B. section 4
C. section 5
D. section 6
Ans : B
Q - 837 : Under section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, partnership is a

A. compulsory legal relation
B. creation of choice and voluntarily agreement between the concerned parties
C. a relation arising from status
Ans : A
Q - 838 : Which of the following enactments insist for a written agreement of

partnership
A. the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
B. the Indian Contract Act, 1872
C. the Indian Registration Act, 1908
D. neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)
Ans : D
175
Q - 839 : A partnership can be

A. a general partnership
B. a particular partnership
C. either (a) or (b)
D. only (a) and not (b)
Ans : B
Q - 840 : Section 8 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides for

A. a particular partnership
B. a general partnership
C. a partnership at will be
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 841 : The relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status, has
been prescribed under
A. section 4
B. section 5
C. section 6
D. section 7
Ans : B
Q - 842 : Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides for

A. partnership in undertaking
B. general partnership
C. partnership at will
D. All the above
Ans : C
Q - 843 : A partnership firm is

A. a distinct legal entity from its partners
B. not a distinct legal entity from its partners
C. a juristic person
Ans : B
Q - 844 : For the purposes of income-tax, a partnership firm

A. can be assessed as an entity distinct and separate from its partners
B. cannot be assessed as an entity separate and distinct from its partners
176
C. can be assessed as an entity distinct and separate from its partners only with the
permission of the court
D. can be assessed as an entity distinct and separate from its partners only if all the
partners agree for the same
Ans : A
Q - 845 : A partnership cannot be constituted by

A. two individuals
B. two Hindu joint families
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) or (b)
Ans : B
Q - 846 : The historic case laying down the test for determining the existence of a
partnership is
A. Grace vs Smith
B. Waugh vs Carver
C. Bloream vs Pell
D. Cox vs Hickman
Ans : D
Q - 847 : The mode of determining the existence of partnership has been laid down
in
A. section 6
B. section 5
C. section 9
D. section 10
Ans : A
Q - 848 : Which of the following in itself is not sufficient to constitute a partnership?

A. The sharing of profits by persons having a joint or common interest
B. The receipt by a person of a share of the profits
C. The receipt by a person of a payment varying with the profits earned by business
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 849 : Which of the following is a valid partnership?

A. Partnership between two partnership firm
B. Partnership between one partnership firm and an individual
C. Partnership between individual member of one firm and the individual members
177
of another firm
D. Neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)
Ans : C
Q - 850 : A partnership firm is entitled to enter into a partnership with

A. another firm
B. Hindu undivided family
C. an individual
Ans : D
Q - 851 : Mutual agency among the partner is

A. a test to determine the existence of a partnership
B. a legal incidence of partnership
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 852 : A Hindu undivided family is entitled to enter into an agreement of

partnership with
A. another joint Hindu family
B. another partnership firm
C. an individual
Ans : D
Q - 853 : Which of the following is a valid partnership?

A. Partnership between the Karta of a joint Hindu family in his representative
capacity and an individual co-parcener of the same family
B. Partnership between two Hindu joint families
C. Partnership between a Hindu joint family and a partnership firm
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 854 : Who wrote the famous 1855 poem 'The Charge of the Light Brigade' ?
A. Lord Alfred Tennyson
B. Christopher Marlowe
C. Johannes Gutenberg
D. Rene Descarte
Ans : A
178
Q - 855 : Section 5 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 does not apply to
A. Muslim Trading Family
B. Christian Trading Family
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 856 : The concept of partnership commensurate with

A. principal and agent
B. co-owners of property
C. joint owners of property
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 857 : A right to participate in profits, although strong but not a conclusive test of
partnership. It was so held in
A. Tellis vs Saldanha
B. Cox vs Hickman
C. Re: Stanton Iron Co.
D. Grace vs Smith
Ans : B
Q - 858 : Which of the following is not an essential requisite for creating a

partnership as per section 4?
A. an agreement to carry on a business
B. sharing of profits
C. sharing of losses
D. business to be carried by all or any of them acting for all
Ans : C
Q - 859 : A person who has lent money to a person or firm engaged in a business and
has agreed to take a proportion of the profits of the business in addition to or in lieu
of his interest, does not by that reason alone becomes a partner, in the business, has
been laid down in
A. Badeley vs Consolidated Bank
B. Janes vs Whitbread
C. Marconis Wireless Telegraph Co. vs Newman
D. Price vs Groom
Ans : A
179
Q - 860 : The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides for and recognises
A. partnerships for a specified and fixed period
B. partnerships for a specified and fixed venture
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 861 : A partnership for which no period or duration is fixed, under the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932 is known as
A. general partnership
B. partnership at will
C. particular partnership
D. co-ownership
Ans : B
Q - 862 : Partnership is a
A. Start-up
B. Company
C. Mutual agency
D. Mutual fund
Ans : C
Q - 863 : Which of the following is an exception to the partnership at will, as

provided under section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A. where there is a provision for the duration of the partnership
B. where there is a provision for determination of the partnership
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 864 : Where a partnership firm is constituted for a fixed period and after the
expiration of that term, the firm continues to carry on business, without any new
agreement,
A. the partnership stands extended till the new agreement is made
B. the partnership becomes partnership at will
C. the partnership becomes illegal
D. the partnership stands dissolved on the date of expiry of the term and no
partnership can be said to be in existence.
Ans : A
180
Q - 865 : In a partnership at will

A. a partner of a firm can retire from the firm at any time by giving a notice of his
intention to retire to his co-partners
B. a partner of a firm can dissolve the firm at any time by giving a notice intention to
dissolve the firm to his co-partners
D. only (b) and not (a)
Ans : C
Q - 866 : The test to determine whether the partnership is a ” partnership at will”

‘whether the partnership could be dissolved by a single partner', has been laid down
in
A. Crawshay vs Maule
B. Abbot vs Abbot
C. Cuffe vs Murtagh
D. Kurumuthu T. Chettiar vs EM. Mutliappa Chettiar
Ans : A
Q - 867 : For constituting a partnership within the meaning of section 4 of the Indian
Partnershin Act, 1932
A. the business has to be of permanent nature
B. the business can be of temporary nature
C. it is immaterial as to whether the business is of temporary or permanent nature
Ans : C
Q - 868 : The principles governing partners' mutual relations have been laid down in
A. Chapter II of the Indian Partnership Act
B. Chapter III of the Indian Partnership Act
C. Chapter IV of the Indian Partnership Act
D. Chapter V of the Indian Partnership Act
Ans : B
Q - 869 : General duties of partners have been laid down in

A. section 9 of the Act
B. section 10 of the Act
C. section 11 of the Act
D. section 13 of the Act
Ans : A
181
Q - 870 : Under section 9 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in doing best for the
common body 1. a partner is regarded as a kind of trustee for the other partners 2. a
partner is liable to render the accounts to other partners in a fiduciary capacity
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. both
D. neither
Ans : C
Q - 871 : under Section 10 of the Indian Partnership Act , every partner is under a
duty
A. to indemnify the firm for any loss caused it by his fraud in the conduct of the
business of the firm
B. to render true accounts and full information
C. not to carry on any business other than that of the firm
D. to be just and faithful to each other
Ans : A
Q - 872 : The rights and duties of partners inter se can be regulated and varied by the
consent of the can partners by virtue of
A. section 14 of the Act
B. section 13 of the Act
C. section 12 of the Act
D. section 11 of the Act
Ans : B
Q - 873 : Under section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in case of any conflict
between the provision of the Act and the articles of the agreement, the articles of
the agreement with it, will be
A. valid
B. invalid
C. voidable at the instance of any of the partner
D. viodable at the instance of a third party
Ans : B
Q - 874 : An agreement in restraint of trade in a partnership under section 11 of the

Act is
A. valid
B. voidable
182
C. void
D. invalid
Ans : A
Q - 875 : Section 12 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

A. a statement of rights of the partners in reference to the conduct of business
B. a statement of duties of the partners in the conduct of the business
C. a mixed statement of rights and duties of partners in reference to the conduct of
the business
Ans : C
Q - 876 : Section 12 (c) of the Indian Partnership Act provides for a

A. rule of majority
B. rule of unanimity
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 877 : The rule of majority contained in section 12(c) of the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 is applicable in
A. trivial matters
B. ordinary matters
C. fundamental matters
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 878 : The rule of unanimity contained in section 12 (c) of the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 has a reference to
A. fundamental matters
B. ordinary matters
C. trivial matters
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 879 : The rights and duties of a partner contained in section 12 of the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932 are
A. subject to the provision of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
B. subject to a contrary arrangement between the partners
C. subject to the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
183
D. subject to the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882

Ans : B
Q - 880 : An agreement to carry on business in partnership in the future creates a

partnership
A. immediately on the agreement
B. on the date mentioned in the agreement irrespective of whether the business has
commenced or not on that date
C. only on the date when the business is actually commenced
D. never creates a partnership and any such agreement is void
Ans : C
Q - 881 : Whether a partnership exists or not is a

A.
Q - of fact
B.
Q - of law
C. mixed
Q - of fact and law

Ans : A
Q - 882 : The maxim 'socii mei socius meu socius non est' means
A. my partner's partner is not necessarily my partner
B. my partner's partner is necessarily my partner
C. the partnership has become illegal
D. the partnerships stands dissolved by the ‘act of God'
Ans : A
Q - 883 : The minimum number of persons required for a partnership is

A. two
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Ans : A
Q - 884 : The maximum number of partners in a partnership, has been provided

184
under
A. the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
B. the Indian Companies Act, 1956
C. the Indian Contract Act, 1872
D. the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
Ans : B
Q - 885 : Under section 11 of the Indian Companies Act, 1956 for a non-banking
business, the maximum number of partners can be
A. ten
B. twenty
C. twenty-five
D. thirty
Ans : B
Q - 886 : For a banking business, the maximum number of partners in a partnership,

under section 11 of the Indian Companies Act, 1956, can be
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. twenty-five
Ans : A
Q - 887 : A partnership in which the number of partners exceeds than that allowed
under section 11 of the Indian Companies Act, shall be
A. valid
B. voidable at the instance of any of the partners
C. voidable at the instance of third parties
D. illegal
Ans : D
Q - 888 : An illegal partnership

A. can sue
B. can be sued
C. cannot be sued
D. can sue and be sued
Ans : C
Q - 889 : The members of an illegal partnership

A. have a remedy against each other for the partnership dealings and transactions
185
B. have no remedy against each other for the partnership dealings and transactions
C. have a remedy against each other for the partnership dealings and transaction
only with the permission of the court
Ans : B
Q - 890 : If the partners are equally divided on a issue, the rule is: 'in re communi
potior est condition prohibentis', which means
A. those who forbid a change must have their way
B. those who do not forbid i.e., in favour of the change, must have their way
C. the discussion on the issue be deferred for another day
D. opinion on the issue be taken from an expert
Ans : A
Q - 891 : A partner has a right to have access to all the books of accounts et
C., of the firm
A. during the subsistence of the partnership
B. during the proceedings for the dissolution of the firm
C. after the dissolution of the firm
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 892 : A partner has a right to examine the account books et

C., of the firm
A. himself
B. through legal representatives
C. through agent
Ans : D
Q - 893 : A partner can examine the books et

C., of the partnership firm
A. as many number of times without any restriction
B. once a year
C. once a month
D. once a week
Ans : A
Q - 894 : Section 13 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is

A. a mixed statement of rights and duties of the partners
186
B. a mixed statement of duties and liabilities of the partners

C. a mixed statement of rights and liabilities of the partners
D. a mixed statement of rights, duties and liabilities of the partners
Ans : C
Q - 895 : The rate of interest prescribed under section 13, where a partner, advances
money beyond the amount of capital, for the business of the partnership, is
A. six per cent
B. nine per cent
C. twelve per cent
D. fifteen per cent
Ans : A
Q - 896 : Where a partner is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed, such

interest is payable
A. out of profits only
B. out of capital if no profits
C. out of capital if losses
Ans : A
Q - 897 : Section 13 (a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides for
A. payment of remuneration to a partner as a matter of right
B. payment of remuneration to a partner only when there is an agreement to that
effect between the partners
C. non-payment of remuneration to a partner only when there is an agreement to
that effect between the parties
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 898 : Under section 13(b) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 all the partners are
entitled to
A. share the profits and losses in the ratio of their capital contributions
B. share the profits and losses equally irrespective of any agreement between them
to the contrary
C. share the profits and losses equally in the absence of any agreement to the
contrary between them
D. share the profits and losses in the ratio of their personal efforts input
Ans : C

187
Q - 899 : Where a change occurs in the constitution of a firm and no new agreement
is made
A. the ratio of profit sharing shall become equal for all the partners
B. the ratio of profit sharing shall remain the same to the extent to which it is
consistent with the altered composition of the firm
C. the ratio of profit sharing shall change in the ratio of capital contributions
D. the ratio of profit sharing shall change in the ratio of personal efforts/labour input
of the partners
Ans : B
Q - 900 : As a general rule, by virtue of section 13 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
A. partner is not entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by him
B. partner is not entitled to interest on the advance made over and above the share
capital
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 901 : As regards the capital contribution in the partnership business, the status of
a partner is that of
A. a creditor of the firm
B. a partner of the firm
C. an employee of the firm
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 902 : The status of a partner, making advances to the firm for its business, over
and above the capital subscribed, is that of
A. a partner of the firm
B. a creditor of the firm
C. an employee of the firm
D. both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 903 : On the dissolution of the partnership

A. the interest on capital ceases run whereas interest of advances keeping running
upto the date of payment
B. the interest on capital and the interest on advances cease to run
C. the interest on capital keeps running upto the date of payment whereas interest
on advances cease to run
188
D. the interest on capital as well as on advances keeps running upto the date of
payment
Ans : A
Q - 904 : Ordinarily, on the overdrawings by the partners from the firm

A. no interest is chargeable
B. interest is chargeable @ 6% p.a.
C. interest is chargeable @ 9% pa.
D. interest is chargeable @ 12% p.a.
Ans : B
Q - 905 : A partner has a right to indemnity for the acts done in

A. the ordinary & proper conduct of the business
B. an emergency
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 906 : The right to indemnity is lost on

A. the dissolution of the partnership
B. the death of the partner
C. the retirement of the partner
Ans : D
Q - 907 : Section 13(f) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides for
A. indemnity in favour of the partner against the firm
B. indemnity in favour of the firm against a partner
C. indemnity in favour of the third parties against the firm
D. All the above
Ans : B
Q - 908 : An action for indemnity against a partner can be brought by

A. the firm only
B. an individual partner
Ans : C
Q - 909 : What constitutes the property of the firm has been dealt within
189
A. Section 16
B. Section 15
C. Section 14
D. Section 13
Ans : C
Q - 910 : Section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

A. exhaustive
B. inclusive
C. conclusive
D. both (a) and (c)
Ans : B
Q - 911 : Under section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the property thrown
into the common stock at the commencement of the business
A. becomes the property of the firm
B. remains the individual property of the partners in the shares contributed by them
C. becomes the individual property of the partners in equal shares irrespective of
their contributions and profit sharing ratio
D. either (a) or (e)
Ans : A
Q - 912 : A property belonging to a partners and entering into a partnership and

used for the purposes of partnership
A. becomes the property of the firm
B. remains the property of that partner
C. becomes the property of the partner having highest share of capital contribution
D. becomes the property of the partners in their profit sharing ratio
Ans : A
Q - 913 : All the benefits and liabilities arising out of a contract made on behalf of a
partnership do not
A. belong to the partnership if the contract has been performed before the
dissolution of the firm
B. belong to the partnership if the contract has been performed before the
retirement of the firm
C. belong to the partnership if the contract has been performed after the dissolution
of the firm or retirement of a partner
Ans : C
190
Q - 914 : The property of the firm includes all property

A. acquired by or for the firm
B. for the purpose or in the course of business of the firm
C. property purchase with money belonging to the firm
D. All the above
Ans : D
Q - 915 : When the property is purchased out of the partnership funds but in the
name of an individual partner, it
A. becomes an estate of the partner
B. becomes a joint estate
C. is a
Q - of fact to be determined with reference to the intention of the partners

D. is a
Q - of law to be decided on legal principles

Ans : B
Q - 916 : When the personal property of a partner is being used in the business of
the firm, it
A. is a
Q - of fact to be determined with reference to the partner's intention whether it has

become the property of the firm
B. becomes the joint estate
C. remains an estate of the partner
D. is a
Q - of law to be decided on legal principles

Ans : A
Q - 917 : Under section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, goodwill of the
business is
A. property of the firm
B. property of the managing partner
C. property of the partner having the highest share in the profits
D. property of the partner having the lowest share in the profits
Ans : A
191
Q - 918 : Since the partnership property vests in all the partners and every partner
has an interest in the property of the partnership, during the subsistence of
partnership
A. a partner can deal with the property as his own
B. a partner can deal with a portion of the property up to his share in the
partnership, as his own
C. a partner can deal with a specific item of the partnership property as his own
D. a partner cannot deal with any particular property or any portion of the property
as his own
Ans : D
Q - 919 : In a partnership property, a partner has

A. something in the nature of personal ownership
B. only certain rights
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : C
Q - 920 : If a partner chooses to use any assets of the partnership for his own
purpose, it gives rise to
A. a civil liability of that partner
B. a criminal liability of that partner
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 921 : Where a partner is authorised to recover dues of the partnership & spend
the same for the business of the partnership and if he does not deposit the money
so collected in the bank the partner is
A. guilty of criminal breach of trust
B. accountable civilly to the other
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 922 : Goodwill of the partnership business is the property of the partnership

A. under section 14
B. under section 15
C. under section 16
192
D. under section 17
Ans : A
Q - 923 : The term 'goodwill' is a thing very easy to describe but very difficult to
define, is stated by
A. Lord Herschell
B. Lord Haldane
C. Lord MacNaughten
D. Lord Eldon
Ans : C
Q - 924 : Section 15 of the Indian Partnership Act provides that

A. the property of the firm shall be held and used by the partners exclusively for the
purposes of the business of the firm
B. the property of the firm can be used by the partners for any of his/their personal
use
C. the property of the firm can be used by the partners for the personal use of all the
partners
D. Both (a) and (c)
Ans : A
Q - 925 : Section 15 of the Indian Partnership Act is a statement of a

A. right of the partners
B. duty of the partners
C. privilege of the partners
D. liability of the partners.
Ans : B
Q - 926 : A marriage solemnized under section 11 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

between any two Hindus, who are related to each other in sapinda relationship, shall
be:
A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Void
D. Either valid or voidable
Ans : C
Q - 927 : In case of impotence a marriage is voidable:

A. quoad hanc
B. quoad hunc
193

Ans : C
Q - 928 : In violation of section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage solemnized

between two Hindus as to the requirement of age, shall be:
A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. invalid
Ans : B
Q - 929 : On which ground a marriage is voidable under section 12 of Hindu Marriage

Act, 1955?
A. Physical incapacity
B. Mental incapacity
C. Both mental and physical incapacity
D. Only mental incapacity & not physical incapacity
Ans : C
Q - 930 : An agreement between husband and the wife before the commencement
of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
A. cannot take away the right of the wife under section 13(2)(i)
B. can take away the right of the wife under section 13(2)(i)
C. may or may not take away the right of the wife under Section 13(2) depending on
the nature of compromise or agreement
D. only (a) and not (b) or (c)
Ans : A
Q - 931 : Order can be passed in respect of children under section 26 of Hindu

Marriage Act, who are:
A. minor
B. major
C. if girl either minor or major
D. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 932 : Under section 26 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 orders can be passed in
respect of:
A. illegitimate minor children
194
B. legitimate minor children

C. both illegitimate and legitimate minor children
Ans : C
Q - 933 : Under which section adultery is punishable as a matrimonial offence:

A. section 494 of IPC
B. section 497 of IPC
C. section 498 of IPC
D. section 498A of IPC
Ans : B
Q - 934 : Under section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, every appeal according
to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act 2003 shall be preferred within:
A. 60 days from the date of decree or order
B. 90 days from the date of decree or order
C. 120 days from the date of decree or order
Ans : B
Q - 935 : According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001, application for
maintenance and education of the minor children pending the proceeding shall be
disposed of within:
A. 60 days from the date of decree or order
B. 90 days from the date of decree or order
C. 120 days from the date of decree or order
Ans : B
Q - 936 : Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 a petition can be presented before:
A. District Court
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. District Court and the High Court
Ans : A
Q - 937 : The Court forfeits the right of maintenance on the ground of:
A. Re-marriage
B. Sexual immorality
C. Either (a) or (b)
195
D. Only (a) and not (b)

Ans : C
Q - 938 : If one of the spouse dies intestate after the passing of a decree for judicial
separation, the other spouse:
A. can inherit the property of that spouse only with the consent of the children
B. can inherit the property of that spouse
C. cannot inherit and only the children can inherit the property of that spouse
D. can not inherit the property of that spouse
Ans : B
Q - 939 : As per Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under section 24, application for interim
maintenance:
A. can be filed before the filing of the written, statement
B. can be filed after the filing of the written statement
C. only after the filing of the written statement and not before
D. either before or after the filing of the written statement
Ans : D
Q - 940 : As per Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 an application under section 25 can be
made:
A. at any time subsequent to the passing of the decree
B. in the main proceedings either before or at the time of passing of the decree
granting substantive relief
Ans : C
Q - 941 : As per Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 an order for the grant of permanent
alimony under section 25:
A. operates on a charge on the property of the respondent when the court creates a
charge on the property
B. cannot operate as a charge on the property of the respondent under any
circumstances
C. by itself operates as a charge on the property of the respondent
Ans : A
Q - 942 : Under section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 an order of maintenance can
be varied modified or rescinded:
196
A. Retrospectively
B. Prospectively
C. either prospectively or retrospectively depending on the facts & circumstances of
the case
D. only prospectively & not retrospectively
Ans : C
Q - 943 : A pre-marriage agreement to live separately is:

A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. invalid
Ans : A
Q - 944 : A post-marriage agreement to live separately in future is:

A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. invalid
Ans : B
Q - 945 : A petitioner shall be entitled to a decree of restitution

A. on establishing that he or she has a desire to resume matrimonial cohabitation
and to perform all matrimonial obligation
B. on admission of the respondent that he or she is living separate on of the
respondent spouse
Ans : A
Q - 946 : A respondent can be ordered to take residence with the spouse:

A. where the marriage has not been 28 consummated and the parties have not
provisionally lived together
B. where the marriage has been consummated
C. where the marriage his not been consummated though the parties have
provisionally lived together
D. in all the above circumstances.
Ans : D
Q - 947 : Under section 13(2)(i) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 a right to divorce has
197
been given to:

A. the first wife
B. the second or subsequent wife or wives
C. the first wife as well as the second or subsequent wife or wives
D. only (a) and not (b) of (c)
Ans : C
Q - 948 : Under section 13(1)(ii) of Hindu Marriage Act 1955, A bright, can be
exercised by a party: 3
A. who continues to be a Hindu
B. who ceases to be a Hindu
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 949 : Adoption is recognized under the:

A. Muhammadan law
B. Hindu law
C. Parsi law
D. All above
Ans : B
Q - 950 : As per Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 adultery means:

A. sexual connection of a husband with his wife against her wishes
B. sexual connection of a husband or wife with somebody other than a lawful spouse
C. exual connection of a husband with his wife who is less than 15 years of age,
without her consent
D. all the above
Ans : B
Q - 951 : Marriage between two persons who are related to each other within the
degrees of prohibited relationship shall be:
A. void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. invalid
Ans : A
Q - 952 : Which section provides the Hindu Marriage registration:

A. section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act
198
B. section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act

C. section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act
D. section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act
Ans : B
Q - 953 : Remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is aimed at:

A. dissolving the marriage
B. preserving the marriage
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : B
Q - 954 : Restitution of conjugal rights is available to:

A. husband
B. wife
C. wife and husband both
D. only husband and not wife
Ans : A
Q - 955 : Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 section 9 provides for:

A. judicial separation
B. jurisdiction of court
C. restitution of conjugal rights
D. ceremonies of marriage
Ans : C
Q - 956 : A decree of judicial separation:

A. dissolves the marriage
B. does not dissolve the marriage & the marriage subsists
Ans : B
Q - 957 : In Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under section 25, an order passed is:
A. an interlocutory order and no appeal lies against it
B. appealable only with the leave of the court
C. appealable generally
Ans : C

199
Q - 958 : Ceremonies to marriage have been laid down in minute details in:
A. Dharma shastras
B. Dharma sutras
C. Grhiya sutras
D. All the above
Ans : C
Q - 959 : Children of annulled voidable marriages and of void marriage are:

A. heirs of their parent as well as to others in the family of their parents
B. heirs of their parents alone and to none else
C. neither the heirs of their parents not to any one else
Ans : B
Q - 960 : During judicial separation the:

A. parties continue to be husband & wife and may suspend or may not suspend the
marital rights and obligations
B. parties continue continue to be husband & wife and the marital rights &
obligation remain infact
C. parties continue to be husband & wife but marital rights and obligations are
suspended
D. parties cease to be husband & wife
Ans : C
Q - 961 : Degrees of prohibited relationship include relationship by:

A. adoption
B. full blood
C. half or uterine blood
D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 962 : Doctrine of 'factum valet' enables to cure the violation of:

A. fundamental principles
B. essence of the transaction
C. a directory provisions or a mere matter of form
D. all the above
Ans : C
Q - 963 : Doctrine of recrimination provides that:

A. if both parties, independent of each other. have committed matrimonial offences,
200
the marriage should not be dissolved

B. if both parties, independent of each other, have committed matrimonial offences,
the marriage should be dissolved
C. if both parties, independent of each other, have committed matrimonial offences,
they should be judicially separated
D. either (b) or (c)
Ans : A
Q - 964 : Under section 28 of the Hindu marriage Act, 1955 every appeal from
decrees or orders shall be preferred with effect from 23 December 2003, within a
period of ....... from the date of decree or order:
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Ans : C
Q - 965 : For the application of Hindu Marriage Act 1955 citizenship is a:

A. necessary qualification
B. imperative qualification
C. both necessary and imperative wife qualification
D. neither a necessary nor an imperative qualification band
Ans : D
Q - 966 : Under section 13(2) (i) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the wife, other than the
one seeking wife divorce:
A. must be alive at the time of presentation of petition of divorce
B. must be alive at the time of marriage with the wife seeking divorce
C. may not be alive at the time of presentation of the petition
Ans : A
Q - 967 : The minority of the children has to be determined for the purposes of
section 26 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 with reference to the:
A. Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
B. Indian Majority Act, 1875
C. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
D. Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956
Ans : B

201
Q - 968 : Fine for child marriage may extend to prescribed under Prohibition of Child
Marriage Act, 2006:
A. RS. 1 lakh
B. RS. 5000
C. RS. 10,000
D. RS. 3000
Ans : A
Q - 969 : An order in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under section 24:

A. is an appealable order generally
B. is an interlocutory order and no appeal
C. is an appealable order but with the leave of the court only
Ans : B
Q - 970 : For availing right at the time of commencement of the Act, under section
13(2)(i) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the petitioner wife:
A. must be living together with the husband
B. must be living separately from the husband
C. must be living together with the other wife & husband
D. it is immaterial whether the petitioner wife is living with the husband or living
elsewhere separate
Ans : D
Q - 971 : Grounds of divorce has been prescribed under which section of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 exclusively for wife:
A. section 13(1) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B. section 13(2) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C. section 13(1A) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
D. section 13(A) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Ans : B
Q - 972 : Guilt theory of divorce implies:

A. both parties to the marriage to be guilty
B. one guilty party and the other party to be innocent
D. both (a) & (b)
Ans : B
Q - 973 : Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to:

202
A. Hindus domiciled in India but who are living outside India

B. Hindus domiciled in India and are living in India
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. only (a) & not (b)
Ans : C
Q - 974 : Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

A. does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite not leaves it to the parties to choose
B. does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite for solemnization of marriage but
leaves it to the parties to choose a form of ceremonial marriage which is accordance
with any custom or usage applicable to either party
C. does prescribe the ceremonies and at the same time leaves it to the parties to
choose
D. does prescribe the ceremonies and does not leave it to the parties to choose
Ans : B
Q - 975 : In a suit for jactitation of marriage:

A. maintenance pendente lite and permanent alimony both can be granted
B. Neither maintenance pendente lite nor permanent alimony can be granted
C. Maintenance pendente lite can be granted
D. None of these
Ans : B
Q - 976 : Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for:

A. consent theory of divorce
B. fault theory of divorce
C. breakdown theory of divorce
D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 977 : Section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for:

B. separation by agreement
C. both separation by agreement and judicial separation
Ans : A
Q - 978 : Insanity is a ground for:

B. divorce
203
C. getting the marriage annulled as voidable

D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 979 : In Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 insanity as a ground for divorce has been
provided under which section?
A. section 13(1)(iv) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
B. section 13(1)(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C. section 13(1)(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
D. section 13(1)(vii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Ans : B
Q - 980 : The marriage can be annulled in which of the following cases?

A. if there is a mistaken identity of a party, to the marriage
B. if there is a mistake as to nature of ceremony in the mind of one of the parties to
the marriage
C. if there is a fraud played as the ceremony of marriage
D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 981 : The status of second wife in a case of bigamous marriage:

A. has no status of wife
B. has a status of wife
C. may have or may not have a status of wife
Ans : A
Q - 982 : The order for the custody, maintenance & education of minor children in
the absence of any proceeding under the Hindu Marriage Act, between the parents
of the children can be passed by the:
A. Guardian Court
B. District Court
C. High Court
D. All the above
Ans : A
Q - 983 : Within the meaning of section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, incapacity
to consummate the marriage:
A. can be mental
B. can be physical
204
C. only physical & not mental

D. either physical or mental
Ans : D
Q - 984 : Modern Hindu law recognises:

A. seven kinds of adopted sons
B. four kinds of adopted sons
C. two kinds of adopted sons
D. five kinds of adopted sons
Ans : C
Q - 985 : Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 marriage is:

A. having semblance of a sacrament as well as semblance of a contract
B. purely sacramental
C. purely contract
Ans : B
Q - 986 : Under section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, maintenance is:

A. an ancillary relief
B. a substantive relief
D. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 987 : Jactitation of marriage is a cause of action which arises:

A. when a person is guilty of adultery and the remedy sought is divorce
B. when a person marries, having a spouse living & the remedy sought is annulment
of marriage
C. when a person falsely alleges that he or she is married to petitioner and remedy
sought is a perpetual injunction against the respondent to cease making such
allegation
D. all the above
Ans : C
Q - 988 : An order for periodical payments or maintenance pending suit is a:

A. personal allowance to be paid by one spouse to the other
B. debt due from the spouse
C. property of the spouse
D. all the above
205
Ans : A
Q - 989 : Under section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, non-registration of marriage:

A. does not invalidate the marriage but may be imposed penalty
B. invalidates the marriage and calls for imposition of penalty
C. neither invalidates the marriage nor calls for imposition of penalty
D. makes the marriage voidable
Ans : A
Q - 990 : Under Section 13(1A)(ii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, non-compliance with
the decree of restitution for conjugal rights is a ground for divorce, the non-
restitution of conjugal rights must be for a minimum period of:
A. six months
B. twelve months
C. eighteen months
D. twenty four months
Ans : B
Q - 991 : On the grounds of barrenness or sterility, marriage can be:

A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Neither void nor voidable
D. Both void and voidable
Ans : C
Q - 992 : Onus to prove a reasonable excuse for withdrawal from society is on the:
A. respondent
B. petitioner
C. both (a) & (b)
Ans : A
Q - 993 : In Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under section order can be passed in respect
of:
A. legitimate minor children
B. illegitimate minor children
C. both legitimate and illegitimate minor children
D. only legitimate minor children and not illegitimate minor children
Ans : C

206
Q - 994 : Restitution of conjugal rights can be claimed:

A. when there is a withdrawal from the society of other with an excuse
B. when there is a withdrawal from the society of other without any absolute cause
C. when there is a withdrawal from the society of other without any reasonable
cause
D. Both (b) & (c)
Ans : D
Q - 995 : Restitution of conjugal rights is a remedy having its generic under:

A. Indian Law
B. English Law
C. Jewish Law
D. All the above
Ans : C
Q - 996 : Second marriage can be proved:

A. by the essential rites & ceremonies having taken place
B. by the mere admissions of the parties
D. both (a) & (b)
Ans : A
Q - 997 : Section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, prescribes the age of the parties,
at the time of marriage. It provides the age:
A. for the bridegroom and the bride both to be eighteen years
B. for the bridegroom and bride both not less than sixteen years
C. for bridegroom to be eighteen years and the bride to be sixteen years
D. for the bridegroom to be twenty one years and for bride to be eighteen years
Ans : D
Q - 998 : The number to grounds of divorce which are common to husband & wife,
under section 13 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:
A. nine
B. seven
C. ten
D. eleven
Ans : A
Q - 999 : The number of grounds of divorce which are exclusively available to the
wife, under section 13 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:
207
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Ans : C
Q - 1000 : A person can enter sanyas ashrama - a holy order, under the Hindu law:
A. at old age
B. at a young age
C. either at a young age or at old age
D. only at old age and not at young age
Ans : C
Q - 1001 : Under the Hindu Marriage Act, the sapinda relationship extends in the line
of ascent, to:
A. two degrees through the mother and three degrees through the father
B. three degrees through the mother and five degrees through the father
C. three degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father
D. five degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father
Ans : B
Q - 1002 : The right is available to the petitioner wife under section 13(2)(i) of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 is:
A. if she is not aware of the other wife at the time of her marriage
B. if she is aware of the other wife at the time of her marriage
C. irrespective of whether the petitioner wife is aware of the other wife or not
Ans : C
Q - 1003 : Under section 26 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 test of jurisdiction:

A. parenthood of the child
B. legitimacy of the child
C. both (a) and (b)
Ans : A
Q - 1004 : Suppressioveri by a woman, who was pregnant at the time of marriage is a

ground for annulling the marriage as:
A. void
B. voidable
208
C. both (a) & (b)

Ans : B
Q - 1005 : The marriage between two Hindu may be 85 solemnized if:

A. bridgegroom completes age of 18 years and bride completes 18 years
B. bridgegroom completes age of 21 years and bride completes 21 years
C. bridgegroom completes age of 21 years and bride completes 18 years
D. bridgegroom completes age of 18 years and bride completes 21 years
Ans : C
Q - 1006 : Under section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the time to constitute fund
within the meaning, which is relevant is:
A. when the marriage is solemnized
B. when the parties consent to solemnise the marriage
C. both (a) & (b)
D. only (b) & not (a)
Ans : C
Q - 1007 : Two persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood:
A. when they are descended from a common ancestress but by different husbands
B. when they are descended from a comman ancestress but by same husband
C. when they are descended from a comman ancestress but by different wives
D. when they are descended from a comman ancestress but by same wife
Ans : A
Q - 1008 : When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the
same wife, they are said to be related to each other:
A. by half blood
B. by full blood
C. by uterine blood
Ans : B
Q - 1009 : Where a property sought to be charged mentioned in the application for

permanent alimony, is subsequently transferred before the order creating the
charge is passed:
A. transferee will take the property free of any charge
B. transferee will take the property subject to the charge
C. transferee may or may not take the property subject to the charge
209

Ans : B
Q - 1010 : Which of the following marriages are valid :

A. a man marrying his deceased wife's sister's daughter
B. a man marrying his divorced wife's sister
C. a man marrying his deceased wife's sister
D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 1011 : Which of the following amounts to reasonable excuse:

A. persistent nagging of wife by husband's parents
B. domineering and dictatorial conduct
C. husband's insistence that the wife must live with his parents
D. all the above
Ans : D
Q - 1012 : When two persons are the descendents of a common ancestor but by
different wives, they are said to be related to each other by:
A. full blood
B. half blood
C. uterine blood
Ans : B
Q - 1013 : The Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003 added a new clause in
connection with place of residence to section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act of:
A. wife on the date of petition
B. her husband on the date of petition
C. parents of husband if they are party to suit
D. both husband and wife on the date of petition
Ans : A
Q - 1014 : Hindu Marriage act, 1955, under section 25, the court has the power to
grant a:
A. monthly or other periodical payment
B. gross sum
Ans : C
210
Q - 1015 : Under section 13(1)(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 venereal disease to be
a ground for divorce:
A. Must be in non-communicable form
B. Must be in communicable form
C. Must be in either (a) or (b)
D. Form is not relevant
Ans : B
Q - 1016 : Under section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, withdrawal from the society
of other within the meaning means:
A. total repudiation of cohabitation
B. mere refusal to have sexual intercourse
C. both (a) & (b)
Ans : A
Q - 1017 : When two Hindus are descendants of a common ancestress but by

different husbands, they are said to be related to each other by
A. Uterine Blood
B. Half Blood
C. Full Blood
D. Fosterage
Ans : A
Q - 1018 : Rules relating to sapinda relationship are based on the principle of

A. Polygyny
B. Endogamy
C. Exogamy
D. Polyandry
Ans : C
Q - 1019 : Divorce by Zihar is a species of

A. actual divorce
B. inchoate divorce
C. khula divorce
D. constructive divorce
Ans : D
Q - 1020 : Propositions are: (1) A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling
211
it has been passed by a competent court. (ii) A void marriage is never a valid
marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it. (iii) A voidable
marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by
a court of competent jurisdiction. In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is
correct?
A. (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is incorrect.
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct, but (i) is incorrect.
C. (i) and (iii) are incorrect, but (ii) is correct.
D. (i) and (ii) are incorrect, but (iii) is correct.
Ans : B
Q - 1021 : The world as World Environmental day is celebrated on:

A. December 1
B. June 5
C. November 14
D. August 15
Ans : B
Q - 1022 : The provisions for environmental protection in the Directive Principles

were made in:
A. 1976
B. 1950
C. 1982
D. 1960
Ans : A
Q - 1023 : The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made

under:
A. Article 5-A
B. Article 21-B
C. Article 27-B (h)
D. Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)
Ans : D
Q - 1024 : The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in

India was:
A. Water Act, 1974
B. Air Act, 1981
C. Environment Act, 1986
D. Forest Act, 1980
212
Ans : A
Q - 1025 : The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1980
D. 1972
Ans : C
Q - 1026 : The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India except:
A. Uttar Pardesh
B. Karnataka
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Haryana
Ans : C
Q - 1027 : Penalty for conservation of the provisions of the Forest Act is under:
A. Section 3A
B. Section 4A
C. Section 12A
D. Section 8A
Ans : A
Q - 1028 : Offences by the Authorities and Government Department in Forest Act is

under:
A. Section 5B
B. Section 5A
C. Section 3B
D. Section 8A
Ans : C
Q - 1029 : The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1994
D. 1972
Ans : D
Q - 1030 : The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of Central

Government is Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
213
A. Section 38
B. Section 39
C. Section 18
D. Section 27
Ans : A
Q - 1031 : The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:

A. 7 Chapters
B. 6 Chapters
C. 5 Chapters
D. 8 Chapters
Ans : A
Q - 1032 : The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:

A. 66 Sections
B. 6 Sections
C. 7 Sections
D. 46 Sections
Ans : A
Q - 1033 : The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the
year:
A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1994
D. 1975
Ans : B
Q - 1034 : The Water Act contains:

A. 4 Chapters
B. 5 Chapters
C. 7 Chapters
D. 8 Chapters
Ans : D
Q - 1035 : The Water Act have:

A. 64 Sections
B. 68 Sections
C. 45 Sections
D. 62 Sections
214
Ans : A
Q - 1036 : The functions of Central Board are given under:

A. Section 16
B. Section 19
C. Section 25
D. Section 24
Ans : A
Q - 1037 : The functions of State Board are given under:

A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 21
D. Section 45
Ans : B
Q - 1038 : Power to give directions are declared under:

A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 18
D. Section 25
Ans : C
Q - 1039 : Protection and Improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and

wild life is a directive principle under
A. Art. 48
B. Art. 48 A
C. Art. 45
D. Art. 46
Ans : B
Q - 1040 : The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
A. 1981
B. 1996
C. 2000
D. 1974
Ans : A
Q - 1041 : The Air Act contains:

A. 5 Chapters
215
B. 6 Chapters
C. 7 Chapters
D. 8 Chapters
Ans : C
Q - 1042 : The Air Act have

A. 56 Section
B. 54 Section
C. 58 Section
D. 62 Section
Ans : B
Q - 1043 : Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
A. 1981
B. 1987
C. 1982
D. 2000
Ans : B
Q - 1044 : The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1992
C. 1984
D. 1974
Ans : A
Q - 1045 : The EPA consists:

A. 2 Chapters
B. 4 Chapters
C. 8 Chapters
D. 7 Chapters
Ans : B
Q - 1046 : The EPA contains:

A. 25 Sections
B. 12 Sections
C. 26 Sections
D. 14 Sections.
Ans : C

216

wild life is a Fundamental Duty under
A. Article 51-A(b)
B. Article 51-A(e)
C. Article 51-A(f)
D. Article 51-A(g)
Ans : D
Q - 1048 : An act relating to unclean worship that leads to pollution is known as the
offence of________
A. Intolerance
B. Defilement
C. Anti secularism
D. Strict liability
Ans : A
Q - 1049 : Which of these committees was tasked by the Supreme Court with the job
of evaluating the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001?
A. Bhurelal Committee
C. JS Verma Committee
D. M C Mehta Committee
Ans : A
Q - 1050 : Resources like air, sea, water and the forests cannot be made a subject of
private ownership. This is the basic principle of Public Trust Doctrine and was
discussed in
A. M.
C. Mehta v/s Kamalnath 1997 1 SC
C.
B. Rural litigation and Environment Kendra v/s Union of India AIR.1985 S
C.
C. Vellore Citizen's welfare Forum v/s Union of India 1996, 5 SC
C.
D. M.
C. Mehta v/s Union of India AIR. 1987 S
C.
Ans : A
Q - 1051 : Population explosion has occurred in the last:

217
A. 500 years
B. 300 years
C. 700 years
D. 150 years
Ans : D
Q - 1052 : The world has a population of:

A. 4 billion
B. 5 billion
C. 6 billion
D. 7 billion
Ans : D
Q - 1053 : The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is:
A. To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
B. To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles.
C. To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants.
D. To establish air laboratory for air quality standards.
Ans : A
Q - 1054 : The definition of environmental pollution under the Environment

(Protection Act) is:
A. Any pollution of air, water and soil.
B. The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that
causes injuries to man
C. The presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant
D. Any pollution in land, sea and air
Ans : C
Q - 1055 : For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting any wild
animal, cannot be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act?
A. Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs.
B. Collection of specimen for zoos and museums.
C. Scientific research.
D. Research in traditional and established Universities.
Ans : D
Q - 1056 : Under whose specification the recycling of plastic is undertaken as per the
Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999?
A. Indian Standard Institution
218
B. Bureau of Indian Standards

C. Indian Standard Organisation
D. Indian Plastic Bureau
Ans : D
Q - 1057 : A ceremonial pollution is an act relating to unclean worship and is known

as the offence of__________
A. Insult to religion
B. Defilement
C. Anti secularism
D. Religious hatredness
Ans : B
Q - 1058 : One of the following case is popularly known as "Doon Valley case":
A. Pathumna Vs. State of Kerala AIR 1978, 2 SC
C.
B. M.
C. Metha Vs. Union of India AIR 1987 S
C.
C. Unni Krishnan Vs. State of A.P. AIR 1993, 1 SCC
D. R.L. & E. Kendra Vs. State of UP AIR 1985 SC
Ans : D
Q - 1059 : The polluter pays principle has been incorporated in

A. Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
B. Principle 27 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
C. Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
D. Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
Ans : D

wild life is
A. One of the Directive Principles of state policy
B. A fundamental right
C. Fundamental duty
D. Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties
Ans : D
Q - 1061 : Two important Amendments were brought in the year 1976. One with
reference to directive principles of state policy making the state responsible to
219
protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the
country. The other under fundamental duties making every citizen to protect and
improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to
have compassion for living creatures. The relevant amendment is
A. 49th Amendment
B. 45th Amendment
C. 43rd Amendment
D. 42nd Amendment
Ans : D
Q - 1062 : Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 enables a person to

file a complaint in a criminal court after giving a notice to the Pollution Control Boar
D. Once a complaint has been made, the board is bound to make available to the
complaint all relevant reports to him on deman
D. The board may also refuse to disclose on public interest. Similar provisions are
also available under
A. Section 49 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act 1981
B. Section 43 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 49 of the Air Act 1981
C. Section 42 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 46 of the Air Act 1981
D. Section 41 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 42 of the Air Act 1981
Ans : A
Q - 1063 : The Supreme Court of India ordered conversion from fuel to CNG on July
28, 1998. It also set up a committee to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on
April 27, 2001. The name of the committee is
A. Bhurelal Committee
C. Mallimath Committee
D. Madanlal Committee
Ans : A
Q - 1064 : The public trust doctrine primarily rests on the principle that certain
resources like air, sea, water and the forests have such a great importance to the
people as a whole that it would be wholly injustified to make them a subject of
private ownership." The above Doctrine was discussed in detail in one of the
following case :
A. M.
C. Metha Vs. Kamalnath 1997 1 SC
C.
B. Rural litigation and Environment Kendra Vs. Union of India AIR. 1985 S
220
C.
C. Vellore Citizen's welfare Forum Vs. Union of India 1996, 5 SC
C.
D. M.
C. Metha Vs. Union of India AIR. 1987 SC
Ans : A
Q - 1065 : On which date and place the Earth Summit was held at?
A. 6th June, 1997 at Geneva.
B. 20th June, 1997 at London.
C. 21st June, 1992 at Rio.
D. 27th June, 1992 at Rio.
Ans : C
Q - 1066 : "In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court
could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also
for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance." In which case the
Supreme Court of India has made above observations?
A. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
B. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
C. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath AIR 2000 SC 1997
D. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath 2000 (2) SCALE 654
Ans : D
Q - 1067 : In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety
and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass tort action
relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India?
A. Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 273
B. M.
C. Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248
D. Charanlal Sahu Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
Ans : C
Q - 1068 : Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act,

1986 was enacted?
221
A. Article 253
B. Article 258
C. Article 255
D. Article 254
Ans : A
Q - 1069 : The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the
municipalities was brought to light in which of the following case?
A. Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446
B. A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu, AIR 1999 SC 812
C. S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 811
D. M.
Ans : D
Q - 1070 : Which one of the following cases relates to Sariska Tiger Park?
A. Tarun Bharat Sangh Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 514
B. Consumer Education and Research Society Vs. Union of India, AIR 2000 SC 975
C. Pradeep Krishen Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 2040
D. Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund case, AIR 1997 SC 1070
Ans : A
Q - 1071 : Which of the following case relates to transfer of Tribal lands by

Government to Non-tribal people?
A. Shri Manchegowda Vs. State of Karnataka, AIR 1984 SC 1151
B. Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1997 SC 3297
C. Suresh Lohiya Vs. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 10 SCC 397
D. Fatesang Gimba Vasava Vs. State of Gujarat, AIR 1987 Guj. 09
Ans : B
Q - 1072 : The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament
A. Article 252 of the Constitution of India.
B. Article 253 of the Constitution of India.
C. Article 250 of the Constitution of India.
Ans : B
Q - 1073 : Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court is famously known as
the "Green Judge"?
222
A. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyar

B. Justice P.N. Bhagwati
C. Justice Kuldip Singh
D. Justice
B.N. Kirpal
Ans : C
Q - 1074 : Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been
mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment?
A. Article 32
B. Article 21
C. Both Articles 21 and 32
Ans : C
Q - 1075 : What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central
Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
A. Not less than 30 days
B. Not less than 60 days
C. Not less than 90 days
Ans : B
Q - 1076 : Which one of the following cases is considered as "High Water-mark case
in Forest Protection" decided by the Supreme Court ?
A. Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali Vs. State of Gujarat
B. T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad Vs. Union of India.
C. Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs. Union of India.
D. Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.
Ans : B
Q - 1077 : The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution :
A. On the request from States.
B. of his own.
C. On the direction of United Nations.
D. On the direction of Supreme Court.
Ans : A

223
Q - 1078 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of
public trust that the State as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to
protect the natural resources. These natural resources are meant for public use and
cannot be converted into private ownership?
A. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Kamalnath and Others.
B. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
C. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Replacing diesel vehicles by CNG vehicles)
D. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
Ans : A
Q - 1079 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court discussed the
development of the precautionary principle?
A. A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu.
B. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of U.P.
C. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
D. Olga Tellis (1986) case
Ans : A
Q - 1080 : The term "environment" under Section 2(a) of the Environment

(Protection) Act, 1986 means
A. Air, Water and Land only.
B. Water, Air, Land and interrelationship between air, water, and land only.
C. Water, Air, Land, and the interrelationship between water, air and land and
human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro organism and property.
Ans : C
Q - 1081 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court observed that, 'When
there is a state of uncertainty due to the lack of data or material about the extent of
damage or pollution likely to be caused, then in order to maintain the ecological
balance, the burden of proof that the said balance will be maintained must
necessarily be on the industry or the unit which is likely to cause pollution'?
A. M.
C. Mehta vs. Union of India.
B. Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation.
C. Taj Trapezium case.
224
D. Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India

Ans : D
Q - 1082 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down
and demolition of shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the
"precautionary principle" and "the polluter pays principle" and held them liable for
payment of compensation for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual
for loss suffered ?
A. S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India.
B. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India
C. M.
D. Church of God (Full Gospels) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
Ans : A
Q - 1083 : In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the
governmental direction to close down the lime-stone mining operations and
quarrying permanently, holding it the duty of the lessee to protest and safeguard the
right of the people to live in a healthy environment with minimal disturbance of
ecological balance?
A. All India Council for Enviro Legal Action Vs. Union of India.
B. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh.
C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India.
D. M.
Ans : B
Q - 1084 : Match the Answer from to the item The polluter be pays
A. Each generation should obligated to conserve the diversity of naturalprinciple and
cultural resources base so that it does not restrict options of the future generations.
B. Affirmative State Action for efficient management of resources and empowers the
citizens to
Q - ineffective management of natural resources

C. The pollutant not only has an obligation to make good the loss to the victims but
has to bear the costs of restoring the environment to itsoriginal state.
D. State's obligation to devise and implement a cohesive and coordinated
programme to meet its obligation to sustainable development
Ans : C

225
Q - 1085 : Assertion (A): A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by
discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.
Reason (R) : The court decided that the company could not be held liable under
Water Act, 1974.
A. Codes: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Ans : C
Q - 1086 : The National Environment provides for compensation on the basis of no

fault liability in the cases of (i) Death of any person (ii) Injury to any person (iii) Death
and injury to workman (iv) Damage to any property
A. Codes : (i) and (ii) are correct
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct
C. Only (iv) is correct
D. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
Ans : D
Q - 1087 : Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the
year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine
under Environment law. Use the code given below: (i) M.
C. Mehta vs. Kamal Nath (ii) M.I. Builders Pvt. Lt
D. vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu (iii) Hinch Lal Tiwari vs. Kamala Devi (iv) Intellectual
Forum, Thirupathi vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
A. Codes : (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
B. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
C. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans : D
Q - 1088 : Match items in List-I with items in List-II using codes given below: List-I
List-II (a) Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15 (i) Intergenerational Equity (b) Rio
Declaration, 1992, Principle 16 (ii) Sustainable Development (c) Stockholm
Declaration 1972, Principles 1 & 2 (iii) Precautionary Principle (d) Rio Declaration,
1992, Principle 3 (iv) Polluter Pays Principle
A. Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) (c) (a) (b)
B. (a) (c) (b) (d)
C. (b) (d) (a) (c)
D. (c) (d ) (a) (b)
226
Ans : D
Q - 1089 : Assertion
(A) : Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying
the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker. Reason
(R): While one has a right to speech others have a right to listen or decline to listen.
Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a
fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollutantion reaching him.
A. Codes: (A) is true, but (R) is false.
B. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
C. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
Ans : D
Q - 1090 : Find the

Ans : The Supreme Court allowed compensation of 23.84 lakhs and later allowed
additional compensation of 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being
irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated
effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of
A. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India
B. Indian Council For Environment Action vs. Union of India
C. S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
Ans : B
Q - 1091 : The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following

essentials?
A. The precautionary principle
B. The polluter pays principle
C. The doctrine of public trust
D. All above
Ans : D
Q - 1092 : Assertion
(A): The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh,
permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal
dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain
facilities approved by the Court. Reason

227
(R): Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened
to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their
fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood
A. Codes: (A) is true and (R) is false.
B. (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is false and (R) is true.
D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
Ans : D
Q - 1093 : The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated,
even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in
the case of
A. A.P. Pollution Control Board vs. Prof M.V. Naidu
B. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vs KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
C. K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of India
Ans : B
Q - 1094 : In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to
compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
A. Samantha Vs. State of A.P.
B. M.
C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
C. Murli Deora Vs. Union of India
D. Sheela Barse Vs. Union of India
Ans : C
Q - 1095 : Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and

wildlife is
A. A fundamental right
B. One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
C. One of the Fundamental Duties
D. Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental
Duties
Ans : D
Q - 1096 : When an injury is caused by the act of an enterprise engaged in a

hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, the enterprise is absolutely liable for the
injury because 1. it has not taken reasonable care. 2.the enterprise owes an absolute
and non- delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results from the
228
activity. 3. it is considered as a part of the social cost for carrying on the hazardous
on inherently dangerous activity. 4 it is difficult to prove lack of care on the part of
enterprise. Select the right code:
D. 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : D
Q - 1097 : The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is :
A. To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
B. To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles.
C. To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants.
D. To establish air laboratory for air quality standards.
Ans : A
Q - 1098 : The National Green Tribunal was established in the year

A. 2006
B. 2007
C. 2010
D. 2011
Ans : B
Q - 1099 : The maximum number of judicial members on NGT panel allowed in the
NGT act, 2010 is
A. Two judicial members
B. Twenty judicial members
C. Ten judicial members
D. Five judicial members
Ans : B
Q - 1100 : The maximum number of experts on NGT panel allowed in the NGT act,
2010 is
A. None
B. Twenty
C. Ten
D. Eight
Ans : B

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1

Q - 1 : Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

Q - 3 : What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’?

Q - 4 : Which is not a negotiable instrument?

Q - 5 : Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines

Q - 6 : Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.

Q - 7 : What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the

Q - 8 : Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines

Q - 9 : What are the kinds of warrant?

Q - 10 : What is the difference between summon and warrant?

Q - 11 : Which condition/s must be satisfied before issuing a proclamation?

B. A warrant should have been legally issued against a person

Q - 12 : What are the important condition/s necessary for initiation of proceedings

Q - 13 : Public nuisance may be defined as

Q - 15 : Which condition/s should be fulfilled to constitute the Frist Information

Q - 16 : A ……….. is not entitled to maintenance under section 125 of the code of

A. Wife unable to maintain herself

Q - 18 : Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an

Q - 20 : The Supreme Court’s Judge retries at the age of

Q - 21 : Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by

B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q - 22 : In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year

Q - 23 : Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?

Q - 25 : The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San Francisco on

Q - 26 : How Many members are there in the Security Council?

Q - 27 : The Procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in

Q - 28 : In International Court of Justice, there are

Q - 29 : Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between

Q - 30 : A decree may be executed by

Q - 32 : Pleading has been defined in

C. Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure

Q - 34 : Which one of the following suits is not of a civil nature?

Q - 35 : In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be

Q - 37 : Promissory estoppel is sometimes spoken of as a substitute of –

Q - 39 : What is/are the characteristic/s of a share?

Q - 41 : In which case, the acts of a company are said to be ultra vires:

Q - 42 : The memorandum of a company must contain

C. Capital clause and subscribers’ clause

Q - 43 : What are the main features of memorandum of association?

Q - 44 : What are the necessary steps for registration of a company?

Q - 45 : According to …………., “The memorandum of association of a company is its

Q - 46 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of ownership?

Q - 47 : What are the kinds of companies, on the basis of control?

Q - 48 : The companies with limited liability may be

Q - 49 : For which purpose, the Central Government may appoint inspectors to

Q - 50 : According to ……… “A company is an artificial person created by law, having

Q - 51 : What are the merits of a Negotiable instrument ?

Q - 52 : Which of the following is/are negotiable instrument/s?

Q - 53 : What is/are the Essential/s of a promissory note?

Q - 54 : ………… can make a promissory note payable to bearer.

Q - 55 : The main parties to a bill of exchange are

Q - 56 : The person who is directed to pay the bill of exchange is called

Q - 57 : The Transfer of property Act, 1882 covers

Q - 58 : An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the Transfer of property Act,

Q - 59 : Where on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favor of a

Q - 60 : Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

Q - 61 : A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by

Q - 63 : When did the Banking Regulation Act come into effect ?

C. 16th March 1949

Q - 64 : Lease of immovable property determines

Q - 65 : An instrument as defined under section 3 of the Transfer of property Act,

Q - 66 : In case of “Part performance” what is not necessary with a transferee?

Q - 67 : What is the rank of India in the Foreign Exchange Reserve ?

Q - 68 : What may be transferred?

AIBE 1100 - Que & Ans

AIBE 1100 - Que & Ans