Massage Therapy 6th Edition Salvo Test Bank Ivsblw

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Chapter 01: History of Massage: Prehistoric Times to the Modern Era, and
Professional Societies, Organizations, and Associations
Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which method is defined as manual manipulation of soft tissue using pressure and traction for
therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes?
a. Acupuncture
b. Ayurveda
c. Polarity therapy
d. Massage therapy
ANS: D
Massage therapy is as a method of manipulating soft tissue using pressure and traction for
therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes.
2. Which origin for the word massage is Greek?

a. Mashesh
b. Masso
c. Masser
d. Makeh
ANS: B
The origin of the word massage is unclear, but can be traced to numerous sources: the Hebrew
mashesh, the Greek masso and massin, the Latin massa, the Arabic mass’h, the Sanskrit
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makeh, and the French masser.
3. When is the earliest the term massage was used by most European-based cultures?
a. 1600s
b. 1700s
c. 1800s
d. 1900s
ANS: C
By the early 1800s, the term massage was used by most European-based cultures.
Historically, massage was referred to by its techniques such as friction or simply rubbing.
4. The first written records of massage date back to 3000 BC in which country?
a. India
b. China
c. Egypt
d. Greece
ANS: B
Early records have revealed that the practice of massage goes back to China, as early as 3000
BC. Acupuncture was not mentioned in Chinese writings until 90 BC.
5. Which work is commonly referred to as the classic scripture of traditional Chinese medicine?
a. Tao Te Ching
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b. Nei Ching
c. Ayur-Veda
d. Corpus Hippocraticum
ANS: B
At the time of Hwang Ti, various ideas and beliefs were compiled under the name of the
Yellow Emperor (died in 2599 BC) which became the classic scripture of traditional Chinese
medicine known as the Nei Chang. The Nei Chang was written about 2760 BC, and this work
contains detailed descriptions of massage procedures as well as herbal medicines.
6. What is the original massage technique in China and the precursor to manual and energetic
therapies?
a. Polarity
b. Shiatsu
c. Acupuncture
d. Amma
ANS: D
Amma is regarded as the original massage technique and precursor to all other Chinese
therapies, manual and energetic.
7. Which healing method is based on Hindu tradition?

a. Ayurveda
b. Shiatsu
c. Amma
d. Polarity
ANS: A TESTBANKSELLER.COM
Knowledge of amma massage traveled to the subcontinent of India from China and massage
became part of Hindu tradition. Massage is described in India’s first great medical works, the
Ayur-Veda books of wisdom (about 1800 BC) and recommend it as an almost indispensable
healing procedure.
8. Which method is Japanese but based on Chinese medicine concepts, and uses applied pressure
of the thumbs, elbows, and other parts of the body?
a. Ayurveda
b. Shiatsu
c. Massage
d. Amma
ANS: B
Shiatsu is a Japanese method based on the same traditional Chinese medicine concepts as
acupuncture. Acupuncturists use needles at specific points to balance the flow of energy;
shiatsu therapists use their fingers, thumbs, forearms, and elbows, and even their knees and
feet.
9. Who is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine?

a. Galen
b. Celsus
c. Rhazes
d. Hippocrates
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ANS: D
Hippocrates was known to be a fine clinician, founder of a medical school, author of
numerous books, and advocated the use of massage or “rubbing.” His works are collectively
known as the Corpus Hippocraticum, and summarized much of what was known about
disease and medicine in the ancient world. Hippocrates is generally recognized as the father of
modern Western medicine, and he believed that physicians should avoid causing harm to
patients.
10. Who wrote the Canon of Medicine, the most famous book in the history of medicine in both
the East and the West?
a. Rhazes
b. Celsus
c. Avicenna
d. Hippocrates
ANS: C
A text entitled or Canon of Medicine was written by one of the greatest
Persian physicians of his era, Avicenna (980-1037). He was also known as Ibn Sina. The
Canon of Medicine is the most famous book in the history of medicine in both the East and
the West.
11. Which individual discussed the effects of massage and used friction on joints in the 1500s?
a. Paré
b. Harvey
c. Galen
d. Mezger
Ambroise Paré (1515-1590) was a famous French surgeon who was among the earliest
individuals in this era to discuss the effects of massage. He also used friction to treat
dislocated joints and other orthopedic conditions.
12. Who was the first known scientist to demonstrate that blood circulation due to muscular
contraction of the heart?
a. Paré
b. Galen
c. Harvey
d. Mezger
ANS: C
English scientist William Harvey (1578–1657) discovered the circulation of blood in 1628.
Harvey observed the hearts of living animals and determined that muscular contraction
(systole) pumped blood through arteries and veins. This discovery enhanced the acceptance of
massage as a therapeutic measure.
13. Who developed the Swedish Movement Cure, which included the use of massage?
a. Johann Mezger
b. Pehr H. Ling
c. George Henry Taylor
d. John Harvey Kellogg
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ANS: B
Ling developed his own system of medical or Swedish gymnastics and exercise, known as the
Ling System, Swedish Movements, or Swedish Movement Cure. The term Swedish massage
was used to describe the massage component of Ling’s system.
14. Which term describes a component of the Ling System?

a. Shiatsu
b. Ayurveda
c. Thai massage
d. Swedish massage
ANS: D
The term “Swedish massage” was used to describe the massage component of Ling’s system.
For this reason, Ling is often regarded as the father of Swedish massage.
15. Which individual is credited with having introduced French terms still in use to describe
massage techniques?
a. Johann Mezger
b. William Harvey
c. Pehr H. Ling
d. Charles Taylor
ANS: A
The Dutch physician Johann Mezger (1838–1909) is credited with having introduced the
French terminology still used to describe massage techniques (e.g., effleurage, pétrissage,
tapotement) that are currently used in massage legislation and massage curricula. French was
the international language in the nineteenth century.
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16. Who is the founder of modern nursing, which included massage as part of care?
a. Tiffany Field
b. Florence Nightingale
c. Charles Fayette Taylor
d. John Harvey Kellogg
ANS: B
Florence Nightingale (1829-1910) from England was the founder of modern nursing. She
assumed patient care in hospitals in Turkey during the Crimean War (1853-1856). She
developed a standard of care for soldiers, which massage was an integral part of.
17. French physician Lucas-Championniere used massage and exercise to treat soldiers injured
during which event?
a. World War I
b. World War II
c. Civil War
d. Viet Nam War
ANS: A
World War I provided countless opportunities for the use of massage and exercise to
rehabilitate injured soldiers. French physician Just Lucas-Championniere (1843-1913)
advocated for the use of massage and passive movements to treat soft tissue injuries,
particularly fractures.
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18. In what year did George Henry Taylor and Charles Fayette Taylor introduce the Swedish
Movement system in the United States?
a. 1796
b. 1856
c. 1911
d. 1958
ANS: B
Two brothers, Drs. George Henry Taylor and Charles Fayette Taylor, introduced the Swedish
Movement System in the United States in 1856. The Taylors had studied the techniques in
Europe and returned to the United States, where they opened an orthopedic practice with a
specialization massage, exercise, water cures, and nutrition.
19. Who wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System in 1860?
a. Hartvig Nissen
b. Andrew Weil
c. George Taylor
d. Douglas Graham
ANS: C
George Taylor wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System in 1860,
titled An Exposition of the Swedish Movement Cure.
20. Who opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington, DC, considered the first massage
school in the United States?
a. John Harvey Kellogg
b. Douglas Graham
c. Just Lucas-ChampionniereTESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Hartvig Nissen
ANS: D
In 1883, Hartvig Nissen opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington, DC). It is
considered the first massage school in the United States.
21. Who helped popularize massage therapy in the United States during the modern era by writing
numerous books and publishing articles in his magazine, Good Health?
a. John Harvey Kellogg
b. Douglas Graham
c. Just Lucas-Championniere
d. Hartvig Nissen
ANS: A
John Harvey Kellogg (1852–1943) of Battle Creek, Michigan, promoted massage to the
general public. He wrote numerous articles and books on massage and published a magazine
called Good Health.
22. Which massage organization took the first step toward professionalism by the establishing a
massage curriculum and accreditation of massage schools?
a. American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses
b. Chartered Society of Physiotherapy
c. Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association
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d. Society of Trained Masseuses

ANS: D
Four British women established the Society of Trained Masseuses in 1894. They sought to
legitimize massage, which had become associated with prostitution. The Society established a
massage practice model, which regulated massage through the establishment of a massage
curriculum and accreditation of massage schools which included regular inspections and use
of only qualified for massage instructors. Members of the Society were required to pass
examinations and were subject to routine surveillance.
23. What was the original name of the American Massage Therapy Association?
a. Society of Trained Masseuses
b. Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association
c. American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses
d. Chartered Society of Massage and Medical Gymnastics
ANS: C
In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago created the
American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses, renamed the American Massage and
Therapy Association in 1958, then finally the American Massage Therapy Association in
1983.
24. When was the American Massage and Therapy Association founded?
a. 1926
b. 1943
c. 1965
d. 1987
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ANS: B
In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago founded the
American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses. The name was changed to the American
Massage and Therapy Association in 1958, and then was changed again to the American
Massage Therapy Association, in 1983.
25. When was the Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals founded?
a. 1926
b. 1943
c. 1965
d. 1987
ANS: D
Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals was founded in 1987.
26. Which center was a think tank for human potential movement and the first exposure to
massage for many people?
a. Remedial Hygienic Institute
b. Esalen Institute
c. Swedish Institute
d. Touch Research Institute
ANS: B
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In 1962, Michael Murphy and Richard Pierce founded the Esalen Institute, a retreat center and
think tank for human potential movement. For many people, Esalen was their first exposure to
massage and where many came to learn massage.
27. What organization was established to advance massage by supporting research?

a. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals
b. National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork
c. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards
d. Massage Therapy Foundation
ANS: D
In 1990, the American Massage Therapy Foundation was established by the AMTA to
advance the massage profession through supporting scientific research and evidence-informed
practice skills. In 2004, the foundation became an independent organization and changed its
name to the Massage Therapy Foundation.
28. What organization offered a national certification exam in 1992 that was later adopted by
most states as a licensure requirement?
a. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards
b. National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork
c. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals
d. American Massage Therapy Association
ANS: B
In 1992, the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork was
founded due to encouragement from the AMTA and other industry leaders. The objective was
to create a national certification to facilitate massage licensing reciprocity throughout the
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United States. A national certification KSELwas LEcreated,
R.COMand many states adopted it as part of
their licensing requirements.
29. What type of credential did the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and
Bodywork begin offering in 2013?
a. Master’s certification
b. Research licensure
c. Board certification
d. National licensure
ANS: C
In 2013, NCBTMB began providing board certification, which is currently the highest
voluntary credential in the massage profession. Offering the exam as part of state licensure
was retired in 2014.
30. Which center is the first in the world to focus on the effects of massage and its application in
the treatment of diseases?
a. Remedial Hygienic Institute
b. Esalen Institute
c. Swedish Institute
d. Touch Research Institute
ANS: D
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The Touch Research Institute at the University of Miami’s School of Medicine was
established in 1992 under the directorship of Dr. Tiffany Field. The Institute is the first in the
world to focus on effects of massage and touch and its applications in the treatment of
diseases. Their research has shown that massage and touch have numerous beneficial effects
on health and well-being.
31. Which organization developed and released the Massage and Bodywork Licensing
Examination in 2008?
a. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards
b. National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork
c. American Massage Therapy Association
d. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals
ANS: A
In 2005, the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards was formed after the ABMP
convened a meeting of massage regulators and educators. One of the initial goals of the
Federation was to create a valid and reliable licensing exam. In 2008 the Massage &
Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx) was released. In 2014, the MBLEx became the
only licensing exam in the United States.
32. According to the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health, which approach
is considered mind/body practice?
a. Probiotics
b. Herbal supplements
c. Yoga
d. Booster vaccinations
ANS: C TESTBANKSELLER.COM
NCCIH classifies CIH therapies into natural products such as herbal supplements and
probiotics and mind/body practices such as massage, acupuncture, and yoga. Massage therapy
and chiropractic and osteopathic manipulations are among the most common complementary
health care practices utilized by the general public.
33. How is human trafficking best described?

a. Immigrant movement
b. Modern-day slavery
c. Modern-day pioneering
d. Rehabilitative coercion
ANS: B
Human trafficking is the unlawful trade of people; it is modern-day slavery. Human
trafficking is the third largest source of revenue for organized crime, just behind drugs and
guns/firearms trafficking.
34. Which illegal activity uses massage as a cover for its operations?
a. Arms dealing
b. Dog fighting
c. Drug running
d. Sex trafficking
ANS: D
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While great strides have been made in the massage industry towards professionalism, human
trafficking using massage as a cover is still prevalent today. According to a report published
by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards, an estimated 9,000 illicit massage
businesses are currently active, and this type of commercial-front massage business is one of
the top venues for sex trafficking.
35. Which issue may legal massage therapists have to deal with because of human trafficking?
a. Paying higher costs for supplies
b. Being threatened
c. Needing additional continuing education
d. Researching businesses
ANS: B
Several issues can arise for legal massage therapists due to human trafficking. Therapists can
be threatened, harassed, intimidated, and even assaulted. This may result in additional
operational costs for massage therapists to address the need for security. Personal and
business establishment reputations may be compromised. It also erodes public trust as the
integrity of massage educational institutions, testing authorities, and state licensing boards are
questioned, especially if they have allowed unqualified individuals to enter the massage
profession.
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Chapter 02: The Therapeutic Relationship: Ethics, Boundaries, and Cultural

Competencies
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A good therapeutic relationship is one of the best predictors of which therapy-related factor?
a. Client compliance
b. Positive outcomes
c. Legal actions
d. Arbitration counsel
ANS: B
The efficacy of the therapeutic relationship can be substantiated scientifically. Research has
found repeatedly that a good therapeutic relationship is one of the best predictors of positive
outcomes in therapy.
2. Which term means adherence to a set of values and obligations, formally agreed-upon codes
of conduct, and reasonable expectations of clients, colleagues, and co-workers?
a. Therapeutic relationships
b. Professionalism
c. Conflicts of interest
d. Reciprocity
ANS: B
Professionalism is the adherence to a set of values and obligations, formally agreed-upon
TESTBexpectations
codes of conduct, and reasonable ANKSELLof ERclients,
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values of professionalism include acting in the client’s best interest and putting that interest
before your own, maintaining standards expected of other members of the profession, and
staying current with changes and discoveries in the field.
3. Which term means moral principles that govern behavior?

a. Autonomy
b. Laws
c. Empathy
d. Ethics
ANS: D
Ethics are moral principles that govern behavior.
4. Which aspect of ethics involves respecting the rights of competent individuals to make their
own decisions?
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Fidelity
ANS: A
Professionals have an obligation to uphold autonomy, which is respecting the rights of
competent individuals to make their own decisions.
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5. Which aspect of ethics obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing of
others?
a. Autonomy
b. Non-malfeasance
c. Beneficence
d. Fidelity
ANS: C
Beneficence obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing of others.
6. Which aspect of ethics requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their clients,
and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments?
a. Autonomy
b. Justice
c. Beneficence
d. Fidelity
ANS: D
The principle of fidelity requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their clients,
and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments.
7. Which principle involves protecting information from unauthorized access or release, loss,
theft, and from its modification?
a. Fidelity
b. Authenticity
c. Justice
d. Confidentiality TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Confidentiality refers to the obligation of professionals or professional organizations to
safeguard entrusted information. The principle of confidentiality includes protecting
information from unauthorized access or release, loss, theft, and from its modification.
8. Under which circumstance can massage therapists legally breach confidentiality?

a. Records are requested by a client’s spouse
b. Records are subpoenaed by a court order
c. Transferring records from one massage therapist to another
d. Complying with verbal request for records by a client’s physician
ANS: B
If clients are involved in court proceedings and requests are made for client records, the
therapist may be legally required to release the record as the client/therapist relationship may
not be privileged under state law. If client records are subpoenaed, notify the client before
records are released and this action will allow the client to discuss the situation with his or her
attorney, which may lead the attorney to file a motion to quash or block the subpoena.
9. Which legislation requires professionals to report concerns of neglect or abuse to appropriate

state agencies?
a. Consumer protection
b. Mandatory reporting
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c. Malpractice regulation
d. Civil rights act
ANS: B
If therapists have reasons to suspect that children, elderly adults, or incapacitated adults are
being abused, neglected (including self-neglect), or exploited, they may be legally required to
make a report and provide relevant information to the appropriate state department. The legal
requirement is called mandatory reporting.
10. Which concept allows the application of professional knowledge and clinical expertise to help
clients achieve their treatment goals?
a. Dual relationship
b. Healing touch
c. Therapeutic relationship
d. Subjective rapport
ANS: C
The therapeutic relationship is the relationship between a therapist and a client that allows
therapists to apply their professional knowledge and clinical expertise to help clients achieve
their treatment goals. This relationship serves to protect the client’s dignity and provides a
framework for which ethical principles are applied.
11. Which concept is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite own personal feelings?
a. Trust
b. Respect
c. Authenticity
d. Sympathy
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ANS: B
Respect is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite your own personal feelings.
Respect in the therapeutic relationship is an acceptance of the client as a whole person.
Acceptance does not necessarily mean approval or agreement; it means acknowledging the
right of another person to have unique feelings, thoughts, and beliefs.
12. Which term does Rogers use to describe helping clients feel comfortable even if their feelings,
thoughts, and beliefs are different from the massage therapist’s?
a. Therapeutic accordance
b. Healing therapeutic space
c. Countertransference reversal
d. Unconditional positive regard
ANS: D
The goal of respect is to help clients feel comfortable even if these feelings, thoughts, and
beliefs are not the same as your own. Rogers called this unconditional positive regard. This
validation has the potential to be deeply healing for clients.
13. Which example demonstrates respect?

a. Self-disclosure of personal information to the client
b. Counseling a distressed client
c. Giving the client the massage he or she asked for
d. Draping the client improperly
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ANS: C
Therapists who are respectful take into account the client’s preferences, expectations,
predispositions, social and cultural values, and religious or spiritual beliefs when developing
the treatment plan without inserting their own agenda. For example, when clients request
relaxation massage, avoid turning the session it into a clinical massage as this action would be
disrespectful and invalidate the client’s preferences.
14. Which concept is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing without
mistaking it for own experience?
a. Empathy
b. Tolerance
c. Sympathy
d. Ambivalence
ANS: A
Empathy is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing without mistaking it
for your own experience. Empathy is educated compassion or intellectual understanding of
another person’s perspective and emotions.
15. Which nonverbal expression demonstrates empathy?

a. Avoiding eye contact
b. Avoiding mirroring the look on the client’s face
c. Determining what emotional affect the client has
d. Keeping arms crossed
ANS: C
Riess and Kraft-Todd identified seven essential nonverbal expressions of empathy which can
be used by professionals toTexpress
ESTBAempathy
NKSELtoLE R.C
their OM Each uses a letter of the word
clients.
empathy. E is for eye contact; M is for muscles of facial expression; P is for posture; A stands
for affect; T is for tone of voice; H is for hearing the whole person; and Y stands for your
response. Affect is the term to describe expressed emotions. When listening to a client, try to
determine what he or she is feeling such as happiness, fear, apprehension, or sadness. Making
a nonverbal mental note of the client’s emotional state deepens our understanding of the
clients.
16. Which concept means confidence in and reliance upon others to act in accordance with
accepted social, ethical, or legal norms?
a. Trust
b. Respect
c. Validity
d. Congruence
ANS: A
Trust is confidence in and reliance upon others, whether individuals or organizations, to act in
accordance with accepted social, ethical, or legal norms.
17. Which statement describes cultural competency?

a. Ability of professionals to speak languages of more than one culture
b. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to work effectively in
cross-cultural situations
c. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to determine which
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culture is best
d. Ability of professionals to be tolerant of cross-cultural situations
ANS: B
Cultural competency is a set of behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to
work effectively in cross-cultural situations.
18. Which aspect of cultural competency involves self-exploration and examination of one’s own
cultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures?
a. Desire
b. Knowledge
c. Encounter
d. Awareness
ANS: D
Cultural awareness is the process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s
own cultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures, including the
existence of racism and other “-isms” in health care delivery.
19. Which aspect of cultural competency involves directly interacting and engaging with
individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds?
a. Skill
b. Knowledge
c. Encounter
d. Awareness
ANS: C
Cultural encounters indicate
TEthat
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BANprofessional
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individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds. These encounters have the potential to
modify existing beliefs about cultural groups and prevent possible stereotyping.
20. The therapeutic relationship is a professional one that exists to meet the needs of whom?
a. Client
b. Therapist
c. Client’s family
d. Massage regulatory board
ANS: A
The therapeutic relationship is a professional relationship that exists to meet the needs of
clients while providing them with safe, effective, and competent care.
21. Which term means the spaces between the therapist’s power and the client’s vulnerability?
a. Professional boundaries
b. Professional resolutions
c. Ethics differentials
d. Interpersonal skills
ANS: A
Professional boundaries are the spaces between the therapist’s power and the client’s
vulnerability.
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22. What is the term for the imbalance of authority in the therapeutic relationship with clients in
the vulnerable position?
a. Power resurgence
b. Cultural competency
c. Power differential
d. Boundary distribution
ANS: C
Power comes from the therapist’s position and the access he or she has to client information.
In contrast, clients know (or should know) little about their therapists. These differences, also
called a power differential, create an imbalance of power in the therapeutic relationship with
clients in the vulnerable position.
23. What term means improper treatment of an individual due to carelessness or thoughtlessness?
a. Abuse
b. Neglect
c. Sympathy
d. Misperception
ANS: B
Neglect is improper treatment of an individual due to carelessness or thoughtlessness. Neglect
may occur from lack of professional knowledge or lack of boundaries.
24. What term means improper treatment that is intentional and deliberate?
a. Abuse
b. Neglect
c. Insensitivity
d. Misperception TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
Abuse is improper treatment that is intentional and deliberate. Abuse may occur when
therapists use clients for personal gain or gratification.
25. Which strategy establishes and maintains professional boundaries?

a. Develop and follow a treatment plan
b. Have more than one source of income
c. Put client needs ahead of self-care needs
d. Meet personal needs within the therapeutic relationship
ANS: A
Strategies for maintaining professional boundaries are (1) have clearly defined roles and
responsibilities including who can participate in the therapeutic relationship; (2) establish
clear boundaries between yourself and others; (3) develop and follow a treatment plan, (4)
recognize that different cultures and ethnic groups may have varying rules for interactions and
these rules must be factored into professional decisions and actions; (5) meet personal needs
outside the therapeutic relationship, (6) develop self-awareness regarding your responses to
the needs of others, and (7) follow a self-care plan.
26. What term describes a therapist’s revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients?
a. Self-disclosure
b. Confidentiality
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c. Empathy
d. Cultural competency
ANS: A
Revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients is called self-disclosure.
27. Which example demonstrates a physical boundary?

a. Starting and finishing a massage session on time
b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients
c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region
d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client
ANS: C
Physical boundaries are the circumstances under which therapists physically touch clients; this
includes the who, when, where, how, and under what circumstances of professional touch.
Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region is an example of a physical boundary
in the therapeutic relationship.
28. Which type of boundary helps an individual identify own feelings and keep them separate
from the feelings of others?
a. Physical
b. Biological
c. Emotional
d. Financial
ANS: C
Emotional boundaries involve the capacity to be aware of, to control, and to express one’s
emotions. It also involves identifying
TESTBANwhichKSELemotions
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M yours and which ones are not yours,
and keeping these feelings separate.
29. Which response is appropriate for the massage therapist if a client has an emotional release
during the session?
a. End the client’s treatment immediately
b. Charge the client an additional fee
c. Assume the role of psychotherapist for the client
d. Bring the focus back to the client’s body
ANS: D
A massage therapist’s scope of practice does not allow for the intentional eliciting or
processing of emotions. When clients share their emotional concerns with their massage
therapists, therapist should act to bring the focus back to the body using questions such as,
“Where do you feel that in your body?” or “Can you tell me what you notice in your body as
you say that?”
30. Which term describes the unconscious transfer of emotions and resultant behaviors associated
with a significant person in the client’s life onto someone else such as the therapist?
a. Empathy
b. Transference
c. Countertransference
d. Fidelity
ANS: B
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Transference is the unconscious transfer or displacement of emotions and resultant behaviors

associated with a significant person in the client’s life onto someone else such as the therapist.
31. Which term describes the unconscious transfer or displacement of unresolved emotions by the
professional onto a client?
a. Sympathy
b. Transference
d. Fidelity
ANS: C
Countertransference is the unconscious transfer or displacement of unresolved emotions by
the professional onto a client. Countertransference may occur from unmet personal needs,
unresolved emotions, or internal conflicts that are brought into the therapeutic relationship
unknowingly.
32. Which example is a sign of countertransference?

a. Becoming angry when the client cancels an appointment
b. Shortening the session time if the client is late
c. Giving the client the office email address
d. Calling the client as a reminder for a massage session
ANS: A
Signs of countertransference can include becoming angry or depressed when a client cancels
an appointment.
33. What type of boundary encompasses beliefs, thoughts, and ideas while also safeguarding
self-esteem? TESTBANKSELLER.COM
a. Physical
b. Intellectual
c. Time
d. Location
ANS: B
Intellectual boundaries encompass beliefs, thoughts, and ideas, as well as safeguard
self-esteem.
34. Which example demonstrates a time boundary?

a. Starting and finishing a massage session promptly
b. Sharing religious and political views with clients
ANS: A
Time boundaries include: (1) Being ready when clients arrive with music playing (if
appropriate) and clean linens on the massage table. (2) Beginning and ending the session on
time. (3) Focusing on the client during the session, and avoiding distracting activities such as
talking or texting on mobile devices or conversing with other clients in the waiting room.
35. Which example demonstrates a financial boundary?

a. Posting your fee schedule and accepted forms of payment
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b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients

ANS: A
Financial boundaries involve issues of money and include fee schedules, payment
arrangements and procedures, and policies of non-payment.
36. Which example shows a common scenario involving a financial conflict of interest for
massage therapists?
a. Selling products to clients
b. Using more than one therapeutic modality
c. Being an independent contractor
d. Using a cell phone for business calls
ANS: A
One of the most common financial conflicts of interest for massage therapists is selling
products to clients. In these situations, therapists may be faced with choosing between the
client’s best interest and therapist’s financial interests when profits are received from product
sales.
37. Which type of boundary is necessary for emails, texting, and social media?
a. Intellectual
b. Financial
c. Digital
d. Emotional
Digital media including social media and electronic communications introduce a new
boundary for health care providers and this may create dual relationships, and issues with
confidentiality and privacy.
38. Which term is defined the existence of multiple roles a therapist and a client?
a. Dual relationships
b. Transference
d. Power differentials
ANS: A
Dual relationships are any situation where multiple roles exist between a therapist and a client.
Examples of dual relationships are when clients are also friends, family members, or business
associates.
39. What is the most common social dual relationship between therapists and their clients?
a. Friend
b. Family member
c. Business associate
d. Codependent
ANS: A
The most common social dual relationship is friendships.
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40. What characteristic differentiates friendships from therapeutic relationships?

a. Choice
b. Mutuality
c. Trust
d. Reciprocity
ANS: D
Friendships involve choice, mutuality (both parties voluntarily enter the relationship), trust,
pleasure (both parties enjoy the relationship), and reciprocity. Therapeutic relationships
involve choice, mutuality, trust, and pleasure, but not reciprocity.
41. According to the NCBTMB’s standards of practice, at least how much time should lapse
between discontinuing the client–therapist relationship and initiating a mutual romantic or
sexual relationship with a client?
a. 6 weeks
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
ANS: B
The NCBTMB Standards of Practice (Standard VI.A) require discontinuation of the
client–therapist relationship for at least 6 months before initiating a romantic or sexual
relationship with that client.
42. Which action is part of the model for ethical decision making?
a. Blaming the person who started the problem
b. Imposing a preferred solution to a conflict
TESTBperson
c. Agreeing to whatever another ANKSwants
ELLER.COM
d. Identifying potential issues involved
ANS: D
A model for ethical decision making involves identifying the problem or dilemma, identifying
potential issues involved, reviewing relevant ethics codes, knowing applicable laws and
regulations, obtaining consultation, considering possible and probable courses of action,
enumerating consequences of various decisions, and deciding on what appears to be the best
course of action.
43. Which step of the model for ethical decision making involves seeking advice from mentors,
teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals?
a. Identify the problem or dilemma
b. Obtain consultation
c. Identify potential issues involved
d. Consider possible and probable courses of action
ANS: B
Prejudices, biases, personal needs, or emotional investments can impair objectivity. Therefore,
it is prudent to seek advice from mentors, teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals. If
there is a legal question, seek legal counsel. After full evaluation of the problem, request
feedback to ascertain that you have considered all applicable factors including ethical, legal,
clinical considerations.
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44. Which term can be defined as sexual interaction between someone in an authoritative role and
a subordinate?
a. Interest
b. Activity
c. Misconduct
d. Assault
ANS: C
Sexual misconduct encompasses a wide range of sexual behaviors and includes sexual
harassment, nonconsensual sexual contact, and any sexual activity between someone in an
authoritative role and a subordinate.
45. Which type of sexual misconduct consists of unwelcome verbal hostility, threats, jokes, and
circulation of unwelcome graphic material?
a. Harassment
b. Exacerbation
c. Activity
d. Risk
ANS: A
Sexual harassment includes, but is not limited to (1) unwelcome verbal, written, or physical
conduct that denigrates or shows hostility or aversion toward an individual (or that of an
individual’s relatives, friends, or associates); (2) unwelcome threats, derogatory comments,
jokes, innuendos, insults, slurs, epithets, negative stereotyping, and other similar conduct; or
(3) placement, dissemination, or circulation of any unwelcome written or graphic material (in
hard copy or electronic form) that denigrates or shows hostility or aversion toward an
individual or group.
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46. Which example demonstrates a way a massage therapist can decrease the risk of sexual
misconduct?
a. Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie”
b. Dressing for work as though going on a date to increase tips
c. Wearing tight or revealing clothing to perform the session
d. Using the words “release” or “happy ending” in advertisements
ANS: A
Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie” is one way to reduce the risk of
sexual misconduct.
47. Which procedure is an appropriate way of dealing with a client’s erection?

a. Ask questions about the client’s parents
b. Apply pressure to the client’s abdomen
c. Tell the client that erections are unimpressive
d. Turn down the thermostat to lower the client’s body temperature
ANS: A
When your client has an erection, you can ask questions to distract the client from whatever
thoughts, feelings, or sensations led to the erection. For example, you might say, “Tell me
about your mother” or ask “What type of work did your father do when you were a child?”
Even if you do not know his parents, you can ask. Or you can ask him to roll over and
continue the massage.
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48. Which activity is an indication the client is sexualizing the massage?

a. Snoring or drooling during part of the session
b. Requesting additional draping, such as a blanket
c. Wearing undergarments under the drape
d. Moving the pelvis repetitively
ANS: D
The client is likely sexualizing the massage if he or she exhibits certain behaviors. Behavior
ranges from subtle to overt, and may include noises such as moaning, repetitive movements of
the pelvis, touching his or her pelvis or penis, or removing some or all of the drape.
Inappropriate behavior may also include sexually suggestive comments, questions, or jokes.
The client may also touch you, even in a seemingly casual or accidental way.
49. Which action by the massage therapist is appropriate when terminating a massage while in
session?
a. Answering any of the client’s questions while in the room
b. Leaving the massage room without notifying the client
c. Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door
d. Waiting in the massage room for the client to get dressed
ANS: C
Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door is an appropriate way to
terminate a massage while in session if the client is behaving inappropriately.
50. Which action is required of massage therapists who know first hand about sexual misconduct
by another therapist?
TESthe
a. Letting the therapist know TBexact
ANKnature
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OM
b. Informing the therapist’s supervisor of the allegation
c. Filing a report with the state licensing board
d. Keeping information confidential until contacted by the authorities
ANS: C
In many states, there is “duty to report” sexual misconduct by other therapists. If we have
firsthand knowledge (i.e., witnessed it ourselves or it was disclosed by the offending
therapist), we are required to file a report with the state licensing board. If we fail to do so, we
are in violation of the law.
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Chapter 03: Tools of the Trade: Massage Tables, Table Accessories, Linens,
Lubricants, and the Treatment Room
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which feature is an advantage of portable massage tables?

a. Thickness of padding on
b. Relative ease of transport
c. Strength of frame material
d. Available accessories to use
ANS: B
An advantage of portable massage tables is that they can be moved with relative ease,
increasing the variety of locations in which the massage therapist can perform treatments.
2. Which reason is an advantage of purchasing massage equipment from reputable,

well-established manufacturers?
a. Customer service is consistent among all massage manufacturers
b. Massage table and massage chair warranties a less than one year
c. Most manufacturers avoid offering a trial period for purchases
d. Their equipment tends to hold its value and bring a higher resale price
ANS: D
Reputable, well-established companies have quality, well-made products whose designs have
stood the test of time. These companies usually provide superior customer service before and
TESaTtrial
after the purchase, and provide BANperiod
KSELwith
LERall.CorOpart
M of the purchase price refunded
once the product is returned if the customer is not satisfied with the product. Additionally,
previously-owned massage tables and chairs manufactured from reputable companies often
hold their value and bring a higher resale price.
3. What is the national standard for weight ratings for massage tables and chairs?
a. 500 pounds
b. Depends on whether client is male or female
c. The massage therapist’s best judgment
d. None
ANS: D
Currently, there is no national standard for determining weight ratings for massage tables and
massage chairs. When looking for a sturdy product, consumers must rely on weight ratings
supplied by the company. The more reputable the company, the more trustworthy their
published weight ratings.
4. How wide are most massage tables?

a. 25-27 inches
b. 28-30 inches
c. 30-31 inches
d. 33-34 inches
ANS: C
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Most massage tables have a width between 28 and 33 inches, with most tables being 30-31
inches wide.
5. Which term means the ability of table foam pads to return to their original height after being
compressed?
a. Loft
b. Density
c. Memory
d. Durability
ANS: C
High-density pads generally have better memory, or ability to return to their original height
after being compressed.
6. Which fabric is most often used on high-quality massage tables?

a. Cordura
b. Polyvinyl
c. Gore-Tex
d. Polyurethane
ANS: D
Most good-quality massage tables and products use polyurethane fabrics and do not contain
polyvinyl chlorides (PVCs), which makes them environmentally friendly.
7. Which type of product should be avoided for cleaning the massage table because it may
degrade the fabric?
a. Vinegar-based
b. Citrus oil–based TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Nonabrasive
d. Nonalcohol
ANS: B
Many massage table manufactures recommend a 4:1 diluted solution of green Windex, 409,
Fantastik, or other nonabrasive, nonalcohol cleaning products. Vinegar may also be used.
Avoid citrus oil–based cleaners because they can damage the fabric.
8. When should chlorine bleach be used on the massage table?

a. At the beginning of a three-month calendar period
b. When table linens are thrown away and replaced with new ones
c. When the table needs to be disinfected
d. Before the start of each workday and before each massage therapy session
ANS: C
Chlorine bleach is used for disinfecting, but not routine cleaning.
9. Which massage table accessory allows a client’s neck to remain relatively straight while the
client lies prone?
a. Face rest
b. Arm shelf
c. Cervical pillow
d. Covered bolster
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ANS: A
A face rest, or face cradle, allows clients to keep their heads and necks relatively aligned
while lying prone or face down.
10. Which massage table accessory is used while the client is lying supine?
a. Face rest
b. Arm shelf
c. Knee bolster
d. Ankle bolster
ANS: C
A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain by
decreasing lordosis.
11. A knee bolster increases client comfort by decreasing which condition?

a. Lower back strain
b. Abdominal distention
c. Cervical extension
d. Pectoral strain
ANS: A
A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain by
decreasing lordosis.
12. Which fabric is the most popular for massage therapy linens?
a. Rayon
b. Cotton
c. Jersey TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Polyester
ANS: B
Popular sheet fabrics are cotton, cotton blends, and flannel. Avoid thin, clingy, or see-through
fabrics such as jersey knit because these types of fabrics reveal details of the client’s body.
13. What type of material should be avoided as a drape the client is positioned over because it can
leave compression marks on the skin?
a. Flannel
b. Cotton
c. Polyester
d. Terrycloth
ANS: D
Towels are made with terrycloth and are designed to absorb water easily, making them ideal
for spa treatments. Do not place a towel on the massage table then position the client over it as
the pressure of the client’s body will cause the towel to leave compression marks on the skin.
14. How often are sheets and accessory covers used before needing to be laundered?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. For a week
d. Until they smell rancid
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ANS: A
Sheets and accessory covers are used once for each client, then need to be laundered.
15. What is the primary purpose of using massage lubricants?

a. Reduce friction
b. Hydrate the skin
c. Test for skin allergies
d. Increase client relaxation
ANS: A
The primary purpose of a massage lubricant is to reduce friction between the therapist’s hands
and the client’s skin. Types of massage lubricant are crèmes, lotions, butters, oils, and gels.
16. Which type of product should be used if the massage therapist is unsure which is the safest for
the client?
a. Coconut oil
b. Shea butter
c. Scented
d. Hypoallergenic
ANS: D
Hypoallergenic products are the most unlikely to cause allergic reactions. They are used when
the client has allergies to ingredients in non-hypoallergenic lubricants or if the client has
sensitive or hyper-reactive skin. If you are unsure what product to use, the best and safest
option is to choose a scent-free, hypoallergenic lubricant.
17. From what are oils and gels usually derived?

a. Fruits, nuts, and seeds TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Petroleum-based products
c. Nuts, seeds, and vegetables
d. Extracts of medicinal herbs
ANS: C
Oils and gels are derived from nuts, seeds, and vegetables. Sesame, grape, coconut, and hemp
seed oils tend to be well-tolerated.
18. From what are butters derived?

a. Fruits, grains, and minerals
b. Petroleum-based products
c. Vegetables, nuts, and seeds
d. Extracts of medicinal herbs
ANS: A
Butters are derived from fruit, nuts, or seeds. The most common butters used in massage
lubricants are cocoa butter and Shea butter.
19. Which butters are the most common ones used in massage lubricants?
a. Carrot and avocado
b. Coconut and almond
c. Cocoa and Shea
d. Shea and peanut
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ANS: C
The most common butters used in massage lubricants are cocoa butter and Shea butter.
20. Which massage lubricant should be avoided if the client has a latex allergy?
a. Olive oil
b. Shea butter
c. Coconut oil
d. Almond butter
ANS: B
If the client is allergic to latex, he or she may also have an allergic reaction to Shea butter
because of cross-reactivity. Avoid Shea butter as a massage lubricant or lubricant ingredient
in these cases.
21. Which substance should be avoided because it can clog pores and may be carcinogenic?
a. Aloe vera
b. Cornstarch
c. Mineral oil
d. Cocoa butter
ANS: C
Mineral oil is thought to clog pores and may be a carcinogen (cancer causing agent).
22. Which type of product is thought to mimic the hormone estrogen, which may play a role in
breast cancer development?
a. Parabens
b. Eucalyptus
c. Mineral oils TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Alcohol
ANS: A
Parabens are thought to mimic the hormone estrogen when they are absorbed into the
bloodstream; estrogens may play a role in breast cancer development. In response to these
concerns, many massage lubricant manufacturers are removing mineral oils and parabens
from all or part of their product lines.
23. Which term means the transfer of harmful microorganisms from one source to another?
a. Infection control
b. Cross-contamination
c. Universal precautions
d. Single-usage
ANS: B
Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria are transferred from one
source to another.
24. Which method is the most effective way to prevent cross-contamination of a thin massage
lubricant?
a. An open jar used for multiple clients
b. A container with a pump mechanism
c. An open jar that sits in a massage holster
d. A container on the floor near the client
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ANS: B
When dispensing thin lubricants such as lotions, gels, or oils, use a container that has either a
pump mechanism or squeezable bottle or tube.
25. How long can massage lubricant remain blended and unrancid after being purchased if it is
stored in a cool, dark place out of direct sunlight?
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 36 months
ANS: C
After purchase, store all unused lubricants in a cool, dark location out of direct sunlight. In
these conditions, most lubricants remain blended and unrancid for approximately 18 months.
26. Which scent does the National Sleep Foundation recommend to promote calmness and
relaxation?
a. Lavender
b. Geranium
c. Eucalyptus
d. Patchouli
ANS: A
If scents are used, the National Sleep Foundation recommends lavender, vanilla, valerian,
jasmine, or any scent your clients like to promote calmness and relaxation.
27. Which temperature range is

TE the
STmost
BANcomfortable
KSELLERrange for a massage room?
.COM
a. 57 to 60 F
b. 65 to 70 F
c. 68 to 76 F
d. 80 to 86 F
ANS: C
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) recommends temperatures between
68-76 F for workers. For client comfort, the higher end of the range is recommended.
28. Which colors are most likely to create a cozy feeling in the massage space?
a. Taupe, gray, and beige
b. Blue, violet, and green
c. Green, taupe, and red
d. Red, yellow, and orange
ANS: D
Rich shades of red, orange, yellow (warm colors), can create a cozy feeling.
29. Which factor is part of a massage therapist’s professional appearance?

a. Clean hair that hangs around the face
b. Nails that are trimmed once a month
c. Wearing unscented personal hygiene products
d. Explaining to clients the meaning of personal tattoos
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ANS: C
In any setting, professional appearance should be clean and neat, no scents or odors, nails
trimmed and hair held back from the face. Choose clothing that will not drape or hang on the
client during the session yet clothing should not be so tight fitting as to be revealing or impair
movement, or so low cut as to show cleavage on females.
30. Which practice best promotes a safe and accessible treatment facility?
a. Using circular-style door handles
b. Providing slick and smooth flooring
c. Posting a fire escape route inside a closet located near a building exit
d. Checking and tightening loose knobs on massage tables before each business day
ANS: D
Maintain all equipment in safe working condition. This includes checking and tightening your
massage table hinges, knobs, and locks before each business day.
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Chapter 04: Career Longevity: Self-Care, Burnout Prevention, and the Wellness Model
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Studies about career longevity in nursing, education, and athletic training can be correlated to
massage therapy because all these professions have what in common?
a. Being health related
b. A physical component
c. Comparable pay rates
d. Same amount of schooling
ANS: B
While investigations into factors contributing to career longevity in the massage field have not
been conducted, studies have been carried out in nursing, education, and athletic training. The
information from these studies can be related to massage therapy because all these professions
have commonalities – they involve taking care of others, and there is a physical component in
the performance of duties.
2. Which approach do professionals use to help prevent burnout?

a. Being minimally active
b. Keeping concerns to self
c. Spending time with family
d. Avoiding spiritual interests
ANS: C
Many professionals persistedTEinSTtheir
BANcareers
KSELandLERprevented
.COM burnout by utilizing self-care
strategies such as exercising, talking with peers and supervisors, spending time with family,
practicing spirituality, and performing mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques.
3. Which term means a conscious, self-directed, and evolving process of achieving full
potential?
a. Wellness
b. Perfection
c. Tranquility
d. Independence
ANS: A
Wellness is a conscious, self-directed, and evolving process of achieving full potential,
according to the National Wellness Institute. Wellness involves programs of self-care which
are learned, proactive, deliberate, purposeful, and continuous activities to reduce stress, avoid
burnout, prevent illness and injury, and live a more balanced life.
4. According to Bonnie Prudden, massage therapists are placed in which classification based on
their degree of physical activity?
a. Active
b. Walking
c. Standing
d. Strenuous
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ANS: D
Prudden classifies massage therapy as a strenuous occupation.
5. According to Bonnie Prudden, someone in a sitting occupation may develop trigger points
where?
a. Feet
b. Chest
c. Abdomen
d. Forearms
ANS: B
Sitting occupations often put trigger points in the chest, neck, shoulders, and upper and lower
back.
6. According to Bonnie Prudden, barbers, physicians, and teachers are all in what category of
physical activity?
a. Active
b. Walking
c. Standing
d. Strenuous
ANS: C
According to Bonnie Prudden, barbers, physicians, and teachers are all in the physical activity
category of standing rather than walking, active, or strenuous.
7. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how many minutes of

moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise should adults achieve each week?
a. 30 TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. 60
c. 100
d. 150
ANS: D
Cardiorespiratory exercises are activities involving prolonged body movements to increase
heart and respiration rates to increase stamina, lose or maintain weight, and reduce the risk of
cardiovascular disease. The current recommendation is 150 minutes of moderate-intensity
exercise per week.
8. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how often should adults participate in
resistance exercises?
a. Every day
b. 2 or 3 days each week
c. 1 day each week
d. Every other week
ANS: B
Resistance exercises are activities involving resistance to contract skeletal muscles to improve
strength and muscular endurance. Current recommendations are to perform resistance
exercises two or three non-consecutive days each week on all major muscle groups.
9. Which type of exercise specifically helps prevent falls in older adults?

a. Cardiorespiratory
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b. Resistance
c. Neuromotor
d. Flexibility
ANS: C
Neuromotor exercises are activities that involve balance, agility, coordination, and
proprioceptive to improve physical function and prevent falls in older adults.
10. What term means ingesting food and drink to help the body function properly?
a. Health
b. Nutrition
c. Calories
d. Wellness
ANS: B
Nutrition is ingesting food and drink to help our bodies function properly, to support tissue
growth and repair, and to supply the energy needed to perform daily activities.
11. What term refers to proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water?
a. Nutrients
b. Calories
c. Enzymes
d. Hormones
ANS: A
Nutrients are substances obtained from diet and can be grouped into six categories which are
proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.
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12. Which classification provides energy through calories and includes proteins, carbohydrates,
and fats?
a. Micronutrients
b. Macronutrients
c. Dietary cofactors
d. Organic compounds
ANS: B
Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats are macronutrients because they are needed in relatively
large quantities, and they provide energy through calories.
13. Which type of nutrient is composed of chains of amino acids?

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
ANS: B
Proteins are chains of amino acids. The body uses approximately 24 amino acids.
14. Which nutrient aids the body’s growth and energy needs, helps build and repair tissues, and
helps form antibodies to fight infection?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
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c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
ANS: B
Proteins assist the body’s growth and energy needs, help build and repair tissues, and help
form antibodies which fight infection.
15. Which type of protein contains all eight essential amino acids?
a. Complete
b. Saturated
c. Incomplete
d. Unsaturated
ANS: A
Foods that contain all 8 essential amino acids are complete proteins, and foods that lack one or
more essential amino acid are incomplete proteins.
16. Which foods are considered good sources of protein?

a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts
b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey
c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados
d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey
ANS: A
Good sources of complete proteins are meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, cheese, beans, peas, and
nuts.
17. Which type of nutrient provides

TESTthe
BAbody
NKSwith
ELLenergy?
ER.COM
a. Fibers
b. Vitamins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
ANS: D
Carbohydrates are sources of sugar and cellulose (dietary fiber). Carbohydrates provide the
body with energy.
18. Which foods are sources of carbohydrates?

c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados
d. Cheese, beans, peas, butter, cream, and nuts
ANS: B
Sources of complex carbohydrates are whole grains breads, cereals and pasta, potatoes, beans,
and peas. Sources of simple carbohydrates are fresh fruits, honey, and table sugar.
19. Which type of nutrients are sources of energy and help the body absorb certain vitamins?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
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ANS: A
Fats are sources of energy and help the body absorb certain vitamins.
20. Which type of nutrient is classified as either unsaturated or saturated?

a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
ANS: A
Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at room
temperature).
21. Which term refers to a type of fat that is liquid at room temperature?
a. Complete
b. Saturated
c. Incomplete
d. Unsaturated
ANS: D
Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at room
temperature).
22. Which term refers to fats in foods made with or fried in partially hydrogenated oils?
a. Unsaturated
b. Saturated
c. Organic
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d. Trans
ANS: D
Trans fats are foods made with or fried in partially hydrogenated oils. Intake of saturated fats
and trans fats should be limited or avoided.
23. Which foods are sources of healthy fats?

c. Nuts, seeds, olive oil, fatty fish, and avocados
d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey
ANS: C
Good sources of healthy fats are nuts, seeds, olive oil, fatty fish, avocados, and eggs.
24. Which vitamin water-soluble?

a. A
b. C
c. D
d. E
ANS: B
Water soluble vitamins are absorbed easily and excreted within hours. Examples of
water-soluble vitamins are the B vitamins and vitamin C.
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25. Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

a. B1
b. B12
c. C
d. E
ANS: D
Fat soluble vitamins are absorbed slowly and often reside in the liver and fat cells. Examples
of fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K.
26. Which food is the best source of Vitamin A?

a. Yogurt
b. Spinach
c. Strawberries
d. Citrus fruits
ANS: B
The best sources of vitamin A are spinach, liver, sweet potatoes, pumpkin, collard greens, and
milk.
27. Which food is the best source of Vitamin C?

a. Limes
b. Cheese
c. Seafood
d. Potatoes
ANS: A
The best sources of vitamin
TECSare
TBcitrus
ANKS fruits,
ELLsuch
ER.as
COoranges
M and limes, strawberries,
broccoli, and sweet red peppers.
28. Which food is the best source of Vitamin E?

a. Yogurt
b. Potatoes
c. Strawberries
d. Almonds
ANS: D
The best sources of vitamin E are almonds, peanuts, sunflower seeds, spinach, avocado, oils
(wheat germ and safflower), and carrot juice.
29. Which vitamin acts as an antioxidant and helps the body resist infection?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. K
ANS: B
Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant, helps the body resist infection, promotes adrenal gland
function, and aids in collagen production and can also reduce high blood pressure and
cholesterol.
30. Which vitamin promotes bone development as well as calcium absorption and metabolism?
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a. A
b. C
c. D
d. K
ANS: C
Vitamin D promotes bone development, helps absorb and metabolize calcium, and aids the
immune system.
31. Which vitamin aid in blood clotting?

a. A
b. C
c. D
d. K
ANS: D
Vitamin K aids in blood clotting and maintains bone health.
32. Which nutrients are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in regulating
many body functions?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Minerals
d. Carbohydrates
ANS: C
Minerals are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in regulating many
body functions. Minerals act
TEasSTcoenzymes
BANKSE(iron),
LLERsupport
.COM organs (potassium), build bone
(calcium), relax muscles (magnesium), and aid healthy growth and development (zinc).
33. Which mineral supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth?
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
ANS: C
Calcium supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth and promotes
heart, nerve, and muscle function. To properly function, calcium requires other nutrients, such
as vitamin D.
34. Which mineral is part of hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby helping deliver oxygen to the
tissues?
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
ANS: A
Iron attaches to the hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby supporting the delivering of
oxygen to the tissues.
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35. Which nutrient helps regulate body temperature, flushes out waste products, and prevents
constipation?
a. Fats
b. Water
c. Protein
d. Minerals
ANS: B
Drinking water helps the body regulates its temperature, lessens the burden on kidneys and the
liver by flushing out waste products, helps dissolve minerals and other nutrients, making them
more accessible to the body, helps prevent or reduce constipation, and moistens mucosal
membranes such as those found in the mouth.
36. Food labels provide nutritional information based on a daily intake of how many calories?
a. 1,000
b. 1,500
c. 2,000
d. 2,500
ANS: C
Food labels are panels on packaged foods that contain information about its nutritional value
and are required by the FDA. Standard information includes serving size, number of calories
per serving, macro- and micronutrients, and a list of ingredients. The label provides each item
with its approximate percent daily value, generally based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Food labels
help consumers plan food intake and compare foods.
37. How much of the Healthy Eating Plate do fruits and vegetables occupy?
a. One eighth TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. One fourth
c. One third
d. One half
ANS: D
The Healthy Eating Plate was developed by the Harvard School of Public Health and helps
consumers make food choices and plan portions at meal times. It divides a meal plate into
portions of fruits and vegetables (half of the plate), whole grains (one-fourth of the plate), and
healthy proteins (one-fourth of the plate).
38. Which factor contributes to learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety?
a. Adequate sleep
b. Insufficient sleep
c. Adequate water intake
d. Insufficient mineral intake
ANS: A
According to the Harvard Medical School Special Health Report, adequate sleep is important
for learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety.
39. Which term means the ability to achieve balance between work and leisure time, manage
workplace stress, and to build relationships with colleagues?
a. Occupational wellness
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b. Compassion
c. Balance
d. Emotional wellness
ANS: A
Occupational wellness is the ability to achieve balance between work and leisure time, to
manage workplace stress, and to build relationships with colleagues.
40. Which statement defines burnout?

a. Physical exhaustion from overstressing muscles during weight bearing exercise
b. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of personal
accomplishment
c. Emotional strain from working with those who are suffering from the
consequences of traumatic events
d. Mental exhaustion from interactions with people and from educational demands
ANS: B
Burnout is a state of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of
personal accomplishment that can occur among individuals who work with others in
challenging situations.
41. Approximately how many massage therapists have experienced work-related pain and
musculoskeletal symptoms?
a. 25%
b. 35%
c. 50%
d. 70%
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ANS: D
Greene and Goggins and Jang et al. found that approximately 70% or more massage therapists
had experienced work-related pain and musculoskeletal symptoms.
42. Which strategy is effective in reducing physical exhaustion while performing massage?
a. Increasing repetitive movements
b. Refraining from using leverage
c. Lowering the massage table
d. Raising the massage table
ANS: C
Effective strategies to reduce physical exhaustion while performing massage using adequate
pressure may be to lower the massage table, use leverage rather than muscle strength to apply
pressure, and use a variety of techniques to reduce repetitive motion.
43. Which approach can help alleviate or prevent burnout in massage therapists?
a. Refraining from physical exercise because it is stressful
b. Avoiding taking continuing education because it is stressful
c. Spending as much time alone as possible
d. Being part of a positive work community
ANS: D
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Positive interactions with coworkers and talking with peers and supervisors was shown to
promote career longevity. Therefore, it is vital that massage therapists build and maintain a
positive and supportive work community and participate in team-building activities.
44. Which wellness domain involves a commitment to lifelong learning?

a. Emotional
b. Intellectual
c. Spiritual
d. Social
ANS: B
Intellectual wellness is the continuous acquisition, development, and creative application of
critical thinking in the quest for a more satisfying existence. Intellectual wellness involves a
commitment to lifelong learning.
45. Which term means a response of the body due to an environmental, societal, situational, or
chemical factor?
a. Stress
b. Nutrition
c. Wellness
d. Psychology
ANS: A
Stress is the response of the body to demands placed on it by the stressors. A stressor is
something that triggers the stress response and include environmental factors (crowding,
deadlines, and noise), societal factors (family, friends, coworkers), situational factors (starting
or losing a job, marriage, divorce), or chemical factors (stimulants such as caffeine).
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46. What is a primary source of stress in adults?
a. Education
b. Friends
c. Money
d. Family
ANS: C
According to the American Psychological Association, primary sources of stress in adults
include money and work.
47. Which stress reduction method involves purposefully paying attention to detail and being
aware of surroundings?
a. Guided imagery
b. Mindfulness-based
c. Expressive writing
d. Self-affirmations
ANS: B
Mindfulness-based stress reduction is focused attention and observation of the present
moment. The focus can be on any experience while purposefully paying attention to detail and
being aware of surroundings, emotions, thoughts, and physical sensations.
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48. Which stress reduction method involves positive statements spoken or read silently to
facilitate change within the individual using them?
a. Guided imagery
b. Expressive writing
c. Self-affirmations
d. Mindfulness-based
ANS: C
Self-affirmations are positive statements spoken or read silently and are designed to facilitate
self-change in the individual using them. They can serve as inspiration, as well as reminders.
49. Which statement describes the social wellness domain?

a. Interacting with others through good communication skills and maintaining
meaningful relationships
b. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts
c. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without religious
affiliation
d. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity
ANS: A
Social wellness is the ability to interact with others involving the use of good communication
skills, developing and maintaining meaningful relationships, respecting others, and creating a
social support system that includes family members and friends.
50. Which statement describes the spiritual wellness domain?

a. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity
b. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without religious
affiliation TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts
d. Interacting with others through good communication skills and maintaining
meaningful relationships
ANS: B
Spiritual wellness is searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without
religious affiliation. Spirituality is the life an individual lives inside himself or herself, versus
the life lived outside through occupations and social networks.
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Chapter 05: Evidence Informed Practice and Research Literacy

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which type of complementary care is one of the most common used by the general public?
a. Massage therapy
b. Alexander techniques
c. Yoga
d. Meditation
ANS: A
Massage therapy and chiropractic and osteopathic manipulations are among the most common
complementary health care approaches utilized by the general public.
2. Which term means making therapeutic treatment decisions by integrating relevant research,
the massage therapist’s clinical expertise, and the client’s preferences and values?
a. Dynamic functioning
b. Behavior modification
c. Evidence-informed practice
d. Integrative–holistic practice
ANS: C
Evidence informed practice (EIP) is a problem-solving approach to clinical practice that
integrates (1) a systematic search for, critical appraisal of, and synthesis of relevant and best
research; (2) one’s own clinical expertise; and (3) patient preferences and values in order to
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achieve desired patient goals.
3. Which activity involves the ability to locate, read, understand, and evaluate investigative
studies?
a. Digital competency
b. Massage competency
c. Research literacy
d. Computer literacy
ANS: C
Research literacy is cognitive and social understanding of the basic purpose, process, and
value of research and research participation. Research literacy involves a skill set including
the ability to locate, read, understand, and evaluate research literature.
4. Which factor is a barrier to evidence-informed practice?

a. Knowledge of statistical information
b. Lack of information literacy skills
c. Requirements by administration to incorporate information
d. Preference for computerized sources over information from colleagues
ANS: B
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Some barriers to EIP include lack of information literacy skills; lack of research skills; limited
or poor access to quality information; lack of time (speed of access); negative staff attitudes
and resistance; lack of administrative support; preference for colleagues as information
sources over printed or computerized sources; reading barrier (health literacy); language
barrier (English language learners); lack of statistical knowledge.
5. Which term means information that supports an idea or conclusion?

a. Data
b. Placebo
c. Variable
d. Evidence
ANS: D
Evidence is information that supports an idea or conclusion. In the context of EIP, evidence is
derived from a variety of sources including (1) research, (2) the practitioner’s own clinical
expertise, and (3) patient preferences.
6. Which term means systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine existing
knowledge or to develop new knowledge?
a. Abstract
b. Research
c. Hypothesis
d. Evidence
ANS: B
Research is diligent, systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine existing
knowledge or to develop new knowledge.
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7. Which type of research emphasizes objective measurements and statistic, mathematic, or
numeric data analysis?
a. Systematic
b. Predictive
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
ANS: D
Quantitative research emphasizes objective measurements and statistic, mathematic, or
numeric data analysis.
8. Which term means recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings?
a. Data
b. Placebo
c. Variable
d. Evidence
ANS: A
Data refers to recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings. Data may be
in the form of questionnaires, surveys, polls, or interventions, depending on the type of data
needed to answer the research question.
9. Which type of research is subjective and narrative-based?
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a. Systematic
b. Predictive
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
ANS: C
Qualitative research is exploratory research that is more subjective and narrative-based. Data
collected are non-numeric and may appear in the form of observations or interviews
(individual or group; structured or semi-structured) used to describe human behavior, life
experiences, or common themes, which deepen our understanding of a phenomenon.
10. Which process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field?
a. Peer review
b. Scientific method
c. Secondary sourcing
d. Therapeutic outcome
ANS: B
The research process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field.
The terms research process and scientific method are often used interchangeably. In general,
the research process includes (1) formulating a research question, (2) conducting a literature
review, (3) selecting the best method or research design to answer the research question and
conducting the investigation, (4) collecting and analyzing the data, and then (5) presenting the
research results or findings.
11. Which statement describes the concept of reliability in research?

a. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest
TEactual
b. Test result is close to the STBAvalue
NKSof ELwhat
LERwas
.CO M
measured
c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated
d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure
ANS: C
Reliability implies consistency and indicates that if the experiment were repeated by the same
or a different investigator, the results would be the same.
12. Which statement describes the concept of validity in research?

a. Test result is close to the actual value of what was measured
b. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest
c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated
d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure
ANS: D
Validity implies accuracy and indicates that the experiment measured what it was supposed to
measure.
13. Which term means a personal tendency toward a preference or outcome?

a. Bias
b. Sample
c. Variable
d. Blinded
ANS: A
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Bias is our tendency toward a preference or outcome. In research, bias occurs when the
investigator(s) select or encourage one outcome or answer over others.
14. During which process are research participants advised of the risks and benefits of the
experiment?
a. Data collection
b. Results analysis
c. Health history
d. Informed consent
ANS: D
Risks and benefits are disclosed to participants during the informed consent process.
15. Which part of research is the presumed outcome of an experiment?

a. Results
b. Sample
c. Hypothesis
d. Conclusion
ANS: C
A hypothesis is the presumed outcome and what is expected to occur given a certain set of
circumstances. Hypotheses are largely derived from the literature review, featured next.
Furthermore, hypotheses define or describe relationships between variables and attempt to
answer the research question.
16. Which part of research is anything that can be changed in an experiment that might influence
the outcome?
a. Sample TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Variable
c. Result
d. Analysis
ANS: B
A variable is anything that can vary or change in an experiment that might influence the
study’s outcome.
17. Which factor does the researcher manipulate or control during an experiment?
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Qualitative data
d. Quantitative data
ANS: B
The independent variable is the variable that is stable and unaffected by other variables. It is
independent in that is does not depend on other variables. The independent variable is the
condition that is manipulated or controlled by the investigator and is the presumed cause of
the effect.
18. Which factor is the presumed effect from the procedure used in research?
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
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c. Qualitative data
d. Quantitative data
ANS: A
The dependent variable is the variable that is dependent on other variables and is the variable
that is expected to change as a result of the independent variable. The dependent variable is
the presumed effect.
19. Which step occurs after the research question has been formulated?
a. Participant recruitment
b. Variable determination
c. Method determination
d. Literature review
ANS: D
A literature review represents the existing body of knowledge that has been documented in the
professional literature and scholarly articles. Once the research question has been formulated,
the next step is to search the literature and gather existing literature to see what is known
through scientific inquiry.
20. Which term means the steps taken to conduct the research experiment?
a. Data
b. Conclusions
c. Methods
d. Hypothesis
ANS: C
Methods are the steps taken toSconduct
TE TBANKthe SEexperiment.
LLER.COMethods
M are also called protocols or
procedures. Methods includes details about the participants, the setting or where the
investigation was conducted, and how data will be collected and analyzed, allowing the reader
to critically evaluate a study’s overall validity and reliability.
21. Which research term means a group of individuals used to represent the entire population?
a. Data
b. Sample
c. Variable
d. Hypothesis
ANS: B
Experiments are usually conducted on a small group of individuals called a sample. A sample
is a subset of a population that is used to represent the entire population as whole.
22. Which term means characteristics that would disqualify a potential participant from being in
an experiment?
a. Qualitative data
b. Exclusion criteria
c. Independent variables
d. Dependent variables
ANS: B
Exclusion criteria are characteristics that would disqualify prospective participants from
inclusion in the experiment.
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23. Which term means a group of people that receives something other than the treatment studied
during an experiment?
a. Sham
b. Independent
c. Treatment
d. Control
ANS: D
The control group does not receive the treatment or intervention or receives comparison
treatment.
24. Which statement describes delimitations in an investigative study?

a. Boundaries the researcher sets
b. Potential weaknesses or problems
c. Things the researcher accepts as true
d. Variables outside of the study
ANS: A
Delimitations are boundaries that the researcher sets for the study and are under his or her
control. Examples of delimitations include the research question, choice of variables, and the
population chosen for the study.
25. Which group evaluates and approves a study before it begins, monitors the study throughout
the data collection, investigates any incidents that occur during the study, and evaluates the
final report?
a. Community Action Board
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b. Institutional Review Board
c. Human Rights Commission
d. Commission for Liberty and Justice
ANS: B
The Institutional Review Board (IRB) evaluates the research proposal and either approves,
requires modifications prior to approval, or disallows the research. The IRB protects
participants from undue harm caused by participation in research as well as monitors the study
throughout data collection, investigates incidents that occur during the study, and evaluates
the final report.
26. When do research scientists analyze data?

a. During the design of the research study
b. After it has been collected
c. Before it has been collected
d. During the determination of the hypothesis
ANS: B
Once data are collected, the researcher analyzes the data, aligns it with the research question,
and then draws conclusions.
27. Which term means the outcome of an experiment?

a. Results
b. Criteria
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c. Variables
d. Hypothesis
ANS: A
Results are the outcome or findings of the investigation and are arranged in a logical sequence
without bias or interpretation.
28. Which type of publication is most likely to be peer reviewed?

a. Newspaper
b. Trade journal
c. Popular magazine
d. Scientific journal
ANS: D
Examples of primary sources of research are academic and scholarly journals. If a journal is
peer-reviewed, the document will undergo scrutiny. Peer review is evaluation of scientific,
academic, or professional work by a group of experts in the same or similar field.
29. Which type of periodical informs a profession about industry trends, new techniques or
products, research, or news within an organization?
a. Newspaper
b. Trade journal
c. Popular magazine
d. Scientific journal
ANS: B
Trade journals or professional journals are written for professionals and their purpose is to
inform a profession about T
industry
ESTBA trends,
NKSEnewLLE techniques
R.COM or products, research, or news
within an organization.
30. Which extension means a web address is a learning site?

a. .org
b. .gov
c. .edu
d. .net
ANS: C
In the United States, common extensions are.edu for educational sites,.gov for governmental
sites,.org for organizational sites,.com for commercial sites, and.net for network
infrastructures.
31. Which source of information is likely to be the most reliable?

a. Magazine
b. Online commercial site
c. Trade journal
d. Peer-reviewed academic journal
ANS: D
Choosing your source of information is important. Magazines and newspapers may be
appropriate in some cases, trade journals for others, but the most reliable sources of
information are peer-reviewed academic journals.
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32. Which term describes a system used to rank research based on strength of evidence?
a. Research literacy
b. Quantitative research
c. Hierarchy of evidence
d. Evidence-based practice
ANS: C
To objectively and critically evaluate research studies for scientific merit, a ranking system is
used to place studies into a hierarchy. Higher levels in the system indicate stronger evidence,
and lower levels indicate weaker evidence.
33. Which research is considered the highest quality of evidence?

a. Anecdote
b. Cohort study
c. Case report
d. Systematic review
ANS: D
Systematic reviews of random control trials are considered the highest quality of evidence. A
systematic review is a critical analysis of many studies.
34. Which type of research follows a group of participants across a period of time?
a. Anecdote
b. Cohort study
c. Case report
d. Metanalysis
ANS: B TESTBANKSELLER.COM
A cohort study is a longitudinal study, which follows a group of participants across a period of
time.
35. Which approach is based on hearsay rather than the research process?
a. Metanalysis
b. Cohort study
c. Case report
d. Anecdote
ANS: D
An anecdote is a description of a personal experience. Anecdotal reports are based on hearsay
rather than the research process, which takes considerable planning and includes methods to
reduce the influence of bias. Anecdotal accounts are common in non-scholarly professional
journals.
36. Which result occurs from a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation, past
treatment decisions, and past patient care outcomes?
a. Research methodology
b. Clinical expertise
c. Research literacy
d. Clinical preferences
ANS: B
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Clinical expertise is a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation, past

treatment decisions, and past patient care outcomes. Development of expertise occurs when
theoretical and practical knowledge are “tested” and “refined” in actual clinical situations,
which leads to improved clinician judgment and improved quality of patient care.
37. Which description fits a massage therapist whose clinical behavior is rule-governed and
inflexible?
a. Novice
b. Competent
c. Proficient
d. Expert
ANS: A
Novices or beginners are new students who have no experience in situations which they are
expected to perform. Novices lack confidence and their clinical behaviors are rule-governed
and inflexible.
38. Which description fits a massage therapist who perceives situations as wholes rather than
chopped up parts?
a. Novice
b. Competent
c. Proficient
d. Expert
ANS: C
Proficient practitioners perceive situations as wholes rather than chopped up parts. Because of
this perspective, they can better predict what might happen in given situations and what needs
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to change to alter outcomes.
39. Which aspect of evidence informed practice impacts patient adherence and compliance?
a. Including patient preferences
b. Researching patient conditions
c. Having clinical expertise about the patient
d. Determining what is best for the patient
ANS: A
Inclusion of patient preferences in evidence informed practice impacts patient adherence and
compliance, patient satisfaction, and treatment outcomes
40. What is the first step when implementing evidence informed practice?
a. Formulate a question
b. Identify the problem
c. Search for data
d. Apply the intervention
ANS: B
The following are useful steps when implementing evidence informed practice: 1. Identify the
problem; 2. Formulate a question using the P-I-C-O method; 3. Search for, collect, and
evaluate evidence; 4. Integrate the best evidence with your clinical expertise and patient
preferences; 5. Apply the intervention; 6. Evaluate the patient outcome.
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41. What does the P in the P-I-C-O method stand for?

a. Physiology
b. Preference
c. Patient
d. Pertinent
ANS: C
P-I-C-O stands for: P: Patient or Population. Describe the patient (client) or population; I:
Intervention. What intervention is being considered? C: Comparison or Control. What
alternate interventions are being considered (if appropriate)? O: Outcome. What are you
trying to accomplish?
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Chapter 06: Massage Therapy and Research: A Review of the Literature

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. According to the chapter, what is the best way to improve understanding of massage therapy?
a. Experience
b. Education
c. Research
d. Reading
ANS: C
It is important that we separate fact from myth. Much of what we once thought we knew
about the benefits and mechanisms of massage has been brought into question. Research is
necessary to improve our understanding and is a constant process of discovery – we
investigate, learn new things, replace old ideas, and investigate more.
2. What percentage of clients who discussed massage therapy with their health care providers
received a massage recommendation?
a. 15%
b. 33%
c. 61%
d. 92%
ANS: C
Nineteen % of clients who discussed massage therapy with their health care providers
TEand
received a massage referral, ST61%
BANreceived
KSELLaEmassage
R.COMrecommendation
3. Which complementary therapy has one of the highest physical referral rates?
a. Aromatherapy
b. Massage therapy
c. Chiropractic medicine
d. Traditional Chinese medicine
ANS: B
Massage therapy is one of the complementary therapies with the highest physician referral
rates. Massage is also rated among physicians as the complementary therapy most likely to be
beneficial and least likely to be harmful
4. Which effect does massage therapy have on the cardiovascular system?

a. Increases blood pressure
b. Decreases heart rate
c. Increases inflammatory markers
d. Increases variations in heart rate
ANS: B
Massage therapy has been reported to decrease blood pressure, reduce heart rate, and cause
variations in heart rate.
5. Which effect does massage therapy have on blood platelets?
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a. Increases the count

b. Decreases the count
c. Interferes with their clotting ability
d. Interferes with their replication
ANS: A
Platelet counts are reactive to many factors such as exercise, mental stress, and several
pathologies. Very early studies demonstrated increases in blood platelet count after massage.
6. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on blood and blood circulation?
a. Decreases white blood cell count
b. Increases blood capillary flow rate
c. Increases blood viscosity
d. Decreases blood flow to the skin
ANS: B
Liu et al. measured the effects of mechanical pressure on capillary flow rate and blood
viscosity after traditional Chinese medical massage (specifically “swing,” which includes
finger-pushing, kneading, and rolling). This study revealed that massage increased tissue
pressure, which produced increases in capillary flow rate and decreased blood viscosity.
7. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on lymphatic circulation and immunity?
a. Reduces immune response
b. Decreases killer T cell levels
c. Improves lymphatic drainage
d. Increases edema and lymphedema
There is evidence that massage promotes lymphatic drainage, increases killer T cell levels,
stimulates immune responses in individuals who have HIV infection or cancer, and reduces
edema and lymphedema.
8. Which condition did research find that manual lymph drainage alleviated?
a. Skin cancer
b. Colitis
c. Trigger points
d. Migraines
ANS: D
Work assessing manual lymph drainage (MLD), traditional massage, and a no massage
control group on patients with migraines found a significant decrease in migraine frequency
and decreased intake of analgesics in the MLD group.
9. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on the musculoskeletal system?
a. Increases headaches
b. Improves range of motion
c. Increases electromyography activity
d. Intensifies muscle spasms
ANS: B
Massage therapy has been found to improve range of motion, reduce muscle spasms, decrease
electromyography activity, and reduce headaches.
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10. Research shows that massage has which effect on the musculoskeletal system?
a. Tones weak muscles
b. Decreases range of motion
c. Increases in muscle tension when trigger points are compressed
d. Produces a viscoelastic response and promote muscle healing
ANS: D
Research on animal tissues found that compressive forces that replicate effleurage on muscles
after eccentric exercise produced a viscoelastic response. New studies looking at stem cells,
angiogenesis, and muscle healing suggest that massage therapy promotes healing.
11. Research shows that massage has which effect on connective tissues?
a. Reduces scar tissue formation
b. Increases pain and itching in burn scars
c. Decreases scar tissue strength in tendon injuries
d. Slows healing in ligament injuries
ANS: A
Research indicates that massage therapy reduces scar tissue formation, leading to improved
healing, reduced pain and itching in burn scars, and improved scar tissue strength in tendon
injuries.
12. Which condition is improved by massage therapy on the skin?

a. Eczema
b. Melanoma
c. Impetigo
d. Fungus TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
Several studies assessed the effect of massage on the skin itself, but studies indicate
improvements in eczema, including decreases in redness, lichenification (i.e., rough,
thickened, dry skin), scaling, excoriation (i.e., crusting skin), and pruritus.
13. Which type of neurotransmitter regulates mood and sleep?

a. Endorphins
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Enkephalins
ANS: C
Serotonin regulates mood, appetite, sleep, memory, learning, and muscle contraction.
14. Research suggests that massage therapy has which effect on the nervous system?
a. Decreases relaxation
b. Increases stress, depression, and anxiety
c. Activates the sympathetic response
d. Improves cognitive and memory functioning
ANS: D
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Current research suggests that massage therapy decreases relaxation; decreases stress,
depression, and anxiety; improves cognitive and memory functioning; and activates the
parasympathetic response.
15. Most studies indicate that massage therapy decreases the level of which hormone related to
stress?
a. Adrenaline
b. Cortisol
c. Insulin
d. Oxytocin
ANS: B
Most of these studies indicate a significant decrease in cortisol levels in various populations
after massage therapy.
16. Research indicates that massage improves insulin absorption and circulation, which may be
helpful for clients who have which condition?
a. Crohn disease
b. Renal failure
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Migraine headaches
ANS: C
Clinical evidence indicates improvement in diabetic symptoms with regular massage
treatments. One animal study indicated improved insulin production after massage-like
treatment in rats. Studies also indicate changes in insulin production and absorption after
massage therapy.
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17. Abdominal massage has been found to be helpful for which condition?
a. Crohn disease
b. Renal failure
c. Diarrhea
d. Constipation
ANS: D
Massage has been shown to decrease the severity of gastrointestinal symptoms, especially
constipation and abdominal pain. Massage may also reduce nausea and vomiting under certain
conditions.
18. Current research suggests that massage therapy has which psychological effect?
a. Promotes feelings of well-being
b. Intensifies anxiety and depression
c. Interferes with the mind-body connection
d. Worsens symptoms of hyperactivity
ANS: A
Massage has been shown to reduce anxiety, depression, and stress; promote feelings of
well-being; promote a mind-body connection; be useful in treating hyperactivity disorders
19. How does massage therapy influence pain?

a. Everyone one responds the same way to pain so massage techniques need to be
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uniform
b. Perception of pain has little impact on the effects of massage techniques
c. Very few causes of pain are alleviated due to massage
d. Pain relief can be due to massage causing changes in neurotransmitter levels
ANS: D
Massage therapy has long been used for pain resulting from multiple causes. Pain from
muscle spasm and injury, tendonitis, bone fracture, skin conditions, trigger points, headaches,
cancer treatments, osteoarthritis, orthopedic injury, fibromyalgia, labor and delivery, and other
sources. How massage influences pain in each case may vary depending on the type and
source of the pain. Increased circulation, decreased spasms, changes in neurotransmitters and
hormone levels, or even the simple act of touch and comfort all likely influence how the client
perceives pain.
20. How does massage therapy influence fatigue?

a. Activates the sympathetic response
b. Improves sleep
c. Worsens symptoms of anxiety
d. Decreases serotonin levels
ANS: B
Fatigue is another area that seems to respond well to massage therapy. Massage therapy
influences numerous psychological factors that cause fatigue and interfere with sleep.
Massage has been shown to improve sleep.
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Chapter 07: Body Mechanics, Client Positioning, and Draping

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means the use of one’s body that is safe, energy-conserving, reduces strain, and is
anatomically efficient?
a. Balance
b. Stamina
c. Body mechanics
d. Client positioning
ANS: C
Body mechanics is the use of one’s body that is safe, energy-conserving, reduces stress and
strain, and that is anatomically and physiologically efficient.
2. Foot stances that provide support, balance, and mobility are all essential to which aspect of
massage therapy?
a. Body mechanics
b. Centering techniques
c. Client positioning
d. Proper draping
ANS: A
Balance, breathing, strength, and stability are all essential to body mechanics.
TESTBbalance,
3. Foot stances that provide support, ANKSEand
LLE R.COMare all essential to which aspect of
mobility
massage therapy?
a. Body mechanics
b. Mental preparation
c. Client positioning
d. Proper draping
ANS: A
Body mechanics also involve the use of foot stances that provide support, balance, and
mobility.
4. Which condition do effective body mechanics help prevent?

a. Repetitive stress injury
b. Fibromyalgia
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Diabetes mellitus
ANS: A
Effective body mechanics positively influence the execution of the massage, decrease
therapist fatigue and discomfort during and after the massage, and help prevent repetitive
stress injuries from recurring body movements.
5. Research has shown that when massage therapists work at least 6 hours per day, pain develops
in which area of their bodies?
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a. Neck
b. Middle back
c. Lower back
d. Feet
ANS: C
Sathya, Ramakrishnan, and Gowda discovered that lower back pain was more likely to occur
in therapists who worked at least 6 hours per day or who attended to more than 6 clients per
day.
6. Which effect does using proper body mechanics have?

a. Greater upper body strength for techniques
b. Decreased need for stamina
c. Increased recovery time after performing techniques
d. Pressure that maximizes benefit to the client
ANS: D
Effective body mechanics can help therapists manage physical exhaustion, stress, and strain,
both daily and cumulatively, over the span of a career while providing pressure that
maximizes benefit to the client
7. It is recommended that female massage therapists strengthen which body area in particular?
a. Back
b. Hips
c. Legs
d. Shoulders
ANS: D TESTBANKSELLER.COM
Blau et al. suggested that female therapists strengthen their upper muscular limbs (e.g.,
shoulder, arms, neck) and that all massage and manual therapists continue strengthening
exercises through their careers.
8. The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that warm-ups last how many
minutes?
a. 2-3
b. 4-5
c. 5-10
d. 10-15
ANS: C
The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that warm-ups start slowly and easily
and include walking or low-intensity activities with the goal of breaking a sweat. After 5-10
minutes, focus on muscles and movements specific to the activity planned.
9. Which approach would be most effective in reducing risk of fatigue and injury to massage
therapists?
a. Perform deep tissue sessions at the end of the day
b. Alternate intensive hands-on treatments with less intensive treatments
c. Use only a few techniques and repeat them many times to perfect them
d. Avoid methods such as hydrotherapy or ashiatsu
ANS: B
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Use a variety of techniques to reduce repetitive motion of the hands; this may reduce the risk
of fatigue and injury. Furthermore, Greene and Goggins recommend alternating intensive
hands-on treatments such as deep tissue with less intense treatments such as muscle energy
techniques or Trager which require less compressive force and repetitive movements. Also
recommended was to interject techniques that require little or no use of the hands such as
hydrotherapy, aromatherapy, ashiatsu, or energy balancing methods such as polarity or reiki.
10. To avoid fatigue, Greene and Goggins suggest that what percentage of massage time be spent
with the therapist in the seated position?
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 80%
ANS: B
Additionally, Greene and Goggins encourage therapists to spend approximately 25% of the
massage time in the seated position to avoid fatigue. The client’s face, neck, feet, or hands can
be massaged while seated as these areas require less compressive force.
11. Which concept helps massage therapists prepare themselves mentally when performing
professional activities?
a. Drive
b. Mindfulness
c. Tranquility
d. Detachment
ANS: B
Therapists should prepare T ESTBANmentally
themselves KSELLE inRways
.COthat
M give their full attention when
performing professional activities and promote emotional wellness. This can be achieved by
applying principles of mindfulness.
12. Which term describes attention given to present moments characterized by curiosity,
openness, acceptance, and engagement?
a. Mindfulness
b. Wellness
c. Focus
d. Synergy
ANS: A
Mindfulness is attention given to present moments characterized by curiosity, openness,
acceptance, and engagement with increased sensitivity to context and perspective
13. What is the minimal amount of recommended open space around all sides of a massage table?
a. 2 feet
b. 3 feet
c. 4 feet
d. 5 feet
ANS: B
Greene and Goggins recommend at least 3 feet (1 meter) of open space around all sides of the
table.
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14. Which type of flooring is recommended for massage therapists to work on?
a. Stone
b. Tile
c. Wood
d. Concrete
ANS: C
Prolonged standing on hard surfaces such as tile, stone, concrete, or thin carpet over concrete
can be tiring for the therapist and may contribute to conditions such as fatigue and varicose
veins. Greene and Goggins urge therapists to work on traditional wood flooring (not laminate
flooring over concrete), carpeting with a cushion backing, and foam-backed vinyl flooring.
15. Which factor is taken into account when adjusting massage table height?
a. Client height
b. Client girth
c. Room size
d. Ceiling height
ANS: B
Table height will vary according to the client’s girth or width, areas of the body being worked
(leg, back), and to techniques used during a single session, and throughout the workday.
16. Which guideline is recommended for effective body mechanics?

a. Warming up after giving a massage
b. Using a limited number of techniques
c. Wearing comfortable clothing
TES
d. Keeping wrists and digits TBANKSELLER.COM
hyperflexed
ANS: C
Clothing should feel comfortable, allow freedom of movement, and look professional. Avoid
wearing loose fitting clothing, watches, bracelets, dangling necklaces or hair styles that may
drag on the client’s body.
17. Which factor provides the massage therapist’s base of support?

a. Foot stances
b. Table height
c. Client’s body
d. Shoulder strength
ANS: A
Foot stances provide the therapist’s base of support, which are all points of contact on which
an object rests.
18. Which area of the foot makes contact with the ground?
a. Third cuneiform
b. Navicular tuberosity
c. Head of the fifth metatarsal
d. Head of the second metatarsal
ANS: C
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Each foot makes contact with the ground at three bony points which include the (1) calcaneal
tuberosity, (2) head of the first metatarsal, and (3) head of the fifth metatarsal.
19. Which shape is the strongest and most stable?

a. Triangle
b. Line
c. Point
d. Rhombus
ANS: A
The three points of the foot make the shape of a triangle, which is the strongest and most
stable geometric shape.
20. Which factor in a shoe provides the best balance, performance, and directional control while
performing massage?
a. Flat heel rest
b. Lace-up closure
c. Hard insole
d. Arch support
ANS: D
Shoes with softer insoles, arch support, and a depression for the heel constitute the best
footwear for balance, performance, directional control, and productivity.
21. Which foot stance is most stable for performing long massage techniques?
a. Warrior
b. Horse
c. Archer TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Squatting
ANS: C
The archer stance provides a stable foundation for the therapist to lunge forward or backward
while performing long massage techniques.
22. Which position is appropriate for the archer stance?

a. Head tilted downward
b. Spine aligned
c. Trunk flexed
d. Knees kept extended
ANS: B
The therapist’s spine is erect and shoulders are comfortably dropped.
23. In the archer position, which body position allows the massage therapist to deliver consistent
pressure?
a. Keeping the arms close to the trunk
b. Pushing on the client to move forward
c. Preventing the hips from rotating
d. Placing the trailing foot ahead of the lead foot
ANS: A
Keeping the arms close to the trunk allows for more consistent delivery of pressure.
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24. Which foot stance should be used when performing massage techniques on the area of the
client that is directly in front of the therapist’s body?
a. Lunge
b. Horse
c. Bow
d. Archer
ANS: B
It is the position used by massage therapists when the target area(s) of the massage techniques
is directly in front of the therapist’s body.
25. How are the massage therapist’s feet positioned in the horse stance?
a. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is directly
behind it, pointing in the same direction
b. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is pointing
beneath the table
c. Symmetric and pointing in the same direction
d. Symmetric and pointing in opposite directions
ANS: D
Feet in the horse stance are symmetric and pointing in the same direction, usually beneath the
massage table.
26. In the horse stance, as the massage therapist’s hands move laterally or anteriorly and
posteriorly, what does the therapist’s body weight do?
a. Distributes itself over the right foot
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b. Elevates into the shoulders
c. Shifts from one foot to the other and back
d. Shifts forward and stays there
ANS: C
As the therapist’s hands move laterally (side-to-side) or anteriorly and posteriorly
(front-to-back), the therapist’s weight is shifted alternately from one foot to the other foot, and
back.
27. Which body position helps stabilize the core?

a. Extended hips
b. Flexed hips
c. Anteriorly-tilted pelvis
d. Abducted shoulder joints
ANS: B
An aligned spine, flexed hips, and posteriorly-tilted pelvis help stabilize the core.
28. Which factor serves as the “engine” of force development in the application of massage
techniques?
a. Stable core
b. Strong shoulders
c. Limber forearms
d. Flexed trunk
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ANS: A
A stable core serves as the “engine” of force development, allowing small changes that occur
in the core to translate into larger changes in distal joints, similar to the cracking at the end of
a whip
29. Where is the body’s center of gravity located?

a. Middle of the sternum
b. Midway between the shoulders
c. Pubic crest
d. Lower abdomen
ANS: D
Center of gravity is the point at which the mass or weight of an object is equal and
symmetrical on all sides. The center of gravity of an average person is located in the lower
abdomen when standing in anatomic position.
30. Which joint position allows the massage therapist to apply the most pressure with the least
amount of stress?
a. Stacked
b. Hyperextended
c. Flexed
d. Abducted
ANS: A
When joints are stacked, locked, but not hyperextended, they are more stable and pressure can
be applied with less stress to the therapist’s joints.
31. When applying decompression

TEST orBtraction,
ANKSEwhere
LLERshould
.COMthe massage therapist’s body weight
be positioned in relation to the application area?
a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Over
d. Lateral
ANS: A
When applying decompression or traction, direct force away from the client’s body. This also
can be accomplished by using the therapist’s body weight positioned distal to the application
area.
32. Which technique used to move around a client lying on a mat?

a. Diving
b. Lunging
c. Squatting
d. Crawling
ANS: D
Crawling is a natural way of moving around a client lying on a mat.
33. Which technique is a posture from which the massage therapist can move into other positions
easily when working on a client lying on a mat?
a. Diving
b. Swinging
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c. Squatting
d. Draping
ANS: C
Squatting is a posture from which the therapist can move into other positions easily.
34. Which position is a primary one for the client to be in while receiving massage therapy?
a. Seated
b. Standing
c. Kneeling
d. Squatting
ANS: A
The four primary client positions are prone, supine, side-lying, and seated.
35. Recumbent means that a person is in which position?

a. Standing up
b. Lying down
c. Kneeling
d. Sitting
ANS: B
The term recumbent refers to a person or object that is lying down or in a resting position.
36. Which items are pillows or cushions used for supporting clients in the various positions for
massage therapy?
a. Bolsters
b. Drapes TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Stools
d. Dispensers
ANS: A
Bolsters are pillows or cushions of various sizes and densities used for supporting the client in
the prone, supine, side-lying, and seated positions.
37. Which term means lying face down?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Side-lying
d. Semireclining
ANS: A
The prone position is a body position in which the individual lies flat and “face down,” with
the chest or anterior surface downward, and the back or posterior surface upward.
38. Where is a bolster typically placed for a client in prone position?

a. Under the neck
b. Behind the knees
c. Under the ankles
d. Over the ankles
ANS: C
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Bolsters can be placed in front of the ankles with the ankles positioned about hip distance
apart.
39. If a prone client has excess lumbar spine curvature, under which part of the body should a
pillow be placed for comfort?
a. Abdomen
b. Knees
c. Neck
d. Ankles
ANS: A
Clients with lower back pain may require a pillow under the abdomen or hips to reduce excess
lumbar spine curvature.
40. Which term means lying on the back, face up?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Seated
d. Side-lying
ANS: B
The supine position is a body position in which the individual lies flat and “face up” with the
chest or anterior surface upward and the back or posterior surface downward.
41. While lying supine, the client’s cervical spine should be in what position?
a. Flexed
b. Neutral
c. Rotated TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Extended
ANS: B
The cervical spine should be in a neutral position with a slight anterior curvature. A rolled-up
towel can serve as a neck bolster.
42. Which term means the client is resting face up, and his or her trunk and head are upright in
relation to the lower body?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Side-lying
d. Semireclining
ANS: D
The semireclining position, also called the semirecumbent position, is body position in which
the trunk and head of the individual is upright while supine; half lying down and half sitting,
not lying flat.
43. High Fowler’s position means the client’s upper body is elevated how many degrees?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 70
d. 90
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ANS: D
High Fowler’s is when the individual is positioned on the high end of the range (90 degrees)
and semi-Fowler’s is when the individual is portioned on the low end of the range (30
degrees).
44. Which term means the client is resting on the left or right aspect of his or her body?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Side-lying
d. Semireclining
ANS: C
The side-lying position is a body position in which the individual lies on his or her side,
usually with the hips and knees flexed slightly. The side-lying position is also called lateral
recumbent position; the left or right lateral recumbent position refers to which side the
individual lies, left side and the right respectively.
45. Which position means the client who has his or her torso erect, knees bent, and buttocks
supported?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Seated
d. Side-lying
ANS: C
The seated position is a body position in which the individual is seated usually with the torso
erect, knees bent, with buttocks supported.
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46. Which term means covering the client’s body and massage equipment with a cloth?
a. Draping
b. Palpating
c. Bolstering
d. Positioning
ANS: A
Draping is using a cloth or other materials to cover the body or massage equipment.
47. Which reason is a purpose for draping a client?

a. Ability to charge more for the massage session
b. Enhancement of certain techniques
c. Client modesty and emotional privacy
d. Massage therapist’s comfort
ANS: C
The purposes of draping are to provide (1) a protective barrier between equipment and the
client’s skin; (2) client modesty, emotional privacy, and feelings of security as most clients
are fully or partially undressed while receiving massage; (3) client warmth; and (4)
professionalism.
48. What should the therapist do before asking the client to turn over on the massage table?
a. Remove all bolsters
b. Sanitize the hands
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c. Remove the client drape

d. Open the door to the treatment room
ANS: A
The therapist should remove all bolsters from the massage table before asking the client to
turn over.
49. Which procedure should the massage therapist do to manage the draping as the client turns
over?
a. Anchor the edge of the sheet furthest away
b. Lift up the nearest edge of the sheet
c. Form a tent by lifting the edge of the sheet furthest away
d. Remove the sheet completely so that it is out of the way
ANS: C
Anchor the sheet edge nearest you by leaning on it. This secures the sheet to the edge of the
table. Reach across and grasp the sheet along the opposite table edge with both hands. Lift the
sheet up to form a tent. Instruct the client to turn over.
50. What is the minimum number of towels used to drape clients?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
ANS: B
A minimum of two towels are used: one towel is draped over the client from the abdomen
down the lower extremitiesTand
ESTone
BAtowel
NKSEisLdraped
LER.overCOMthe chest area.
51. To access the client’s abdomen, the towel should be fanfolded from the bottom edge until it is
at the level of which body part?
a. Iliac crests
b. Xiphoid process
c. Clavicles
d. Navel
ANS: B
To access the abdomen, fanfold the towel from the bottom edge until it is at the level of the
xiphoid process.
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Chapter 08: Massage Techniques, Joint Mobilizations, and Stretches

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which practice is defined as manipulation of the soft tissues using compression and traction
for therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes?
a. Ayurveda
b. Aromatherapy
c. Polarity therapy
d. Massage therapy
ANS: D
Massage therapy is the manipulation of soft tissue using compression and traction for
therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes
2. Which method increases the pressure on and between tissues?

a. Torqueing
b. Stretching
c. Compression
d. Traction
ANS: C
Use of compression increases the pressure on and between tissues whereas traction decreases
the pressure. Torqueing twists tissues, and stretching elongates them.
TESTcontact
3. Which term means the physical BANKofSEthe
LLtherapist’s
ER.COMskin with the client’s skin?
a. Touch
b. Intention
c. Duration
d. Excursion
ANS: A
Massage techniques involve touch, or the physical contact of the therapist’s skin with the
client’s skin in a way that the client’s skin and underlying soft tissues can be manipulated.
4. Which term means the application of force?

a. Depth
b. Pressure
c. Duration
d. Pallor
ANS: B
Pressure is the application of force. Depth or level of pressure varies from light to medium to
deep or strong.
5. Which area of the body can deep pressure be used on?

a. Bony prominence
b. Anterior elbow
c. Gluteal region
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d. Posterior knee
ANS: C
Deep pressure is more appropriate on clients who are robust and over areas of fleshy or dense
tissues such as the central portion of large muscle groups.
6. Which term describes the distance a massage technique travels over the body?
a. Rate
b. Rhythm
c. Duration
d. Excursion
ANS: D
The distance traveled using a massage technique, or excursion, ranges from the length of the
palpable muscle spasm, the muscle or muscle group, the length of a bone such as the humerus,
or the length of the limb or the trunk. Some massage techniques span the length of the entire
body.
7. Which term means the number of times or speed at which a massage technique is repeated?
a. Rate
b. Duration
c. Excursion
d. Continuity
ANS: A
Rate is the number of times or speed at which a massage technique is repeated.
8. Which term describes the regularity

TESTBAor NKpatterning
SELLERof.Ca massage
OM technique?
a. Rate
b. Rhythm
c. Duration
d. Excursion
ANS: B
Rhythm is the pattern or regularity of the massage technique.
9. Which session factor is determined by the individual seeking massage?

a. Rate
b. Duration
c. Excursion
d. Continuity
ANS: B
Duration of the session is determined by the list of massage services published by the
business, by the individual who is seeking massage, by the agency or individual prescribing
massage, and by the reasons for which massage services are sought.
10. Who determines the frequency of sessions?

a. Massage therapist
b. Local municipality
c. Massage licensing agency
d. Client
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ANS: D
Frequency or how often massage is received is also determined by who is seeking or
prescribing the massage and why massage is sought.
11. Which term means the order in massage techniques are arranged during the session?
a. Rate
b. Pressure
c. Sequence
d. Excursion
ANS: C
Sequence is the order in which techniques are arranged during the session. In general, a
techniques repeat in multiples of three (e.g., 3, 6, 9, 12), until the desired effect is achieved.
12. Which term means the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body?
a. Effleurage
b. Pétrissage
c. Vibration
d. Tapotement
ANS: A
Effleurage is the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body.
13. Which massage technique term originated from the French word meaning “to flow” and “to
glide?”
a. Friction
b. Vibration
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c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: C
The term effleurage originates from the French verb effleurer, meaning “to flow” and “to
glide.” Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding.
14. Which massage technique is also called gliding?

a. Friction
b. Vibration
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: C
Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding.
15. Which massage technique is commonly used to begin the session and to assess tissues before
treatment?
a. Effleurage
b. Pétrissage
c. Vibration
d. Tapotement
ANS: A
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Effleurage is commonly used to begin the massage session, to apply or reapply lubricant, to
introduce touch and pressure to the client, to assess tissues before treatment and reassess
tissues after treatment.
16. In which direction is deep pressure generally applied during effleurage?

a. Inferiorly
b. Superiorly
c. Centrifugally
d. Centripetally
ANS: D
After skin in lubricated, apply movements with the hands (fingers, thumbs) or forearms with
the deeper or heavier pressure applied centripetally or during the upward stroke, and less
pressure applied centrifugally or on the downward stroke.
17. Which action should occur as deeper pressure is applied during effleurage?
a. Movement becomes faster
b. Movement becomes slower
c. Contact becomes narrower
d. Rate is increased
ANS: B
In general, the deeper the pressure, the slower the movement, and the broader the contact (heel
of hand versus fingertips).
18. Which term means a type of effleurage that uses light pressure applied with the weight of the
fingers or hands as they glide down the body?
a. Skin rolling TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Warming friction
c. Nerve stroke
d. Pincement tapotement
ANS: C
Nerve stroke or feathering uses light pressure applied with the weight of the fingers or hands
as they glide down the body.
19. Which massage technique involves lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such as
skin and muscle?
a. Vibration
b. Pétrissage
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: B
Pétrissage involves lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such as skin and muscle.
20. Which massage technique is also called kneading?

a. Vibration
b. Pétrissage
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
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ANS: B
Pétrissage is also called kneading.
21. Which massage technique lifts skin and underlying tissues from muscle or bone?
a. Skin rolling
b. Chucking tapotement
c. Rhythmic rocking
d. Superficial gliding
ANS: A
Skin rolling is a superficial pétrissage that lifts skin and underlying tissues from muscle or
bone.
22. Which description applies to both effleurage and pétrissage?

a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking
b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary
c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep
d. One-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand
ANS: D
Types of effleurage and pétrissage are one-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand.
23. Which massage technique rubs one body surface against another while maintaining constant
and equal pressure in all directions?
a. Friction
b. Vibration
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
Friction involves rubbing one body surface against another while maintaining constant and
equal pressure in all directions.
24. What do faster frictional movements produce more of?

a. Oil
b. Heat
c. Waste
d. Perspiration
ANS: B
Unlike effleurage in which deeper pressure is maintained in one direction and reduced in
another direction, friction involves equal pressure in all directions, which generates heat.
Faster movements generate more heat.
25. What are the two main categories of friction?

a. Proximal and distal
b. Superficial and deep
c. Efferent and afferent
d. Centrifugal and centripetal
ANS: B
Two types of friction are superficial and deep.
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26. Which type of friction would most likely be used on tendons and ligaments?
a. Superficial warming
b. Deep transverse
c. Rolling
d. Wringing
ANS: B
Superficial friction requires that the therapist’s hands rub over the client’s skin. Deep friction
requires the therapist to use the client’s skin to rub against deeper underlying tissues and may
be used on tendons and ligaments. Variations of superficial friction are superficial warming,
rolling, and wringing. Variations of deep friction are deep transverse friction, chucking, and
circular friction.
27. What other type of friction is deep transverse friction called?

a. Cross warming
b. Rolling
c. Wringing
d. Cross fiber
ANS: D
Deep transverse friction is also called cross fiber friction. This technique was popularized by
Cyriax and is occasionally referred to as Cyriax friction massage.
28. Which massage technique is a non-gliding method of pressure application?

a. Friction
b. Pétrissage
c. Effleurage TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Compression
ANS: D
Compression is a non-gliding technique of pressure application.
29. How long is pressure typically maintained during sustained compression?

a. 5 to 10 seconds
b. 10 to 20 seconds
c. 20 to 30 seconds
d. 30 to 35 seconds
ANS: B
During sustained compression, pressure is maintained for 10 to 20 seconds
30. Which massage technique involves repetitive striking?

a. Friction
b. Pétrissage
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: D
Tapotement is a repetitive striking motion.
31. Which massage technique is also called percussion?
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a. Vibration
b. Pétrissage
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: D
Tapotement is also called percussion because it is similar to beating a drum.
32. Which descriptions are types of tapotement?

a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking
b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary
c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep
d. Acute, subacute, and chronic
ANS: A
Types of tapotement include tapping, pincement, hacking, cupping, pounding, and clapping.
33. Which type of tapotement grasps, lifts, and releases the skin?
a. Tapping
b. Hacking
c. Cupping
d. Pincement
ANS: D
During pincement, the tips of several fingers and thumb are used to strike, grasp, lift, and
release the skin.
34. Which massage techniquesTis

ESaT
shaking,
BANKStrembling,
ELLER.orCO
rocking
M motion?
a. Compression
b. Vibration
c. Pétrissage
d. Tapotement
ANS: B
Vibration is a shaking, trembling, or rocking motion.
35. Which type of tapotement uses the ulnar surfaces of one or both hands?
a. Hacking
b. Cupping
c. Pounding
d. Clapping
ANS: A
Hacking, is achieved with the ulnar surfaces of one or both hands.
36. Which massage technique usually requires lubricant?

a. Friction
b. Vibration
c. Effleurage
d. Tapotement
ANS: C
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Effleurage usually requires lubricant. Friction, vibration, and tapotement usually do not
require lubricant.
37. Which massage technique is usually performed without lubricant?

a. Wringing
b. Effleurage
c. Pétrissage
d. Tapotement
ANS: D
Tapotement usually does not require lubricant. Wringing, effleurage, and pétrissage usually
require lubricant.
38. Which term means the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the body moves in
relationship to another segment of the body?
a. Range of motion
b. Facilitated action
c. Stretching
d. Mobilization
ANS: A
Range of motion (ROM) is the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the body
moves in relationship to another segment of the body.
39. Which term means movement is produced entirely by external forces without voluntary
muscle contraction?
a. Active
b. Passive TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Resisted
d. Functional
ANS: B
Passive range of motion (PROM) is movement produced entirely by external forces without
voluntary muscle contraction.
40. Which term means movement is produced by voluntary muscular contraction?

a. Active
b. Passive
c. Resisted
d. Functional
ANS: A
Active range of motion (AROM) is movement produced by voluntary muscular contraction.
41. Which technique involves passive range of motion movements applied to a joint complex?
a. Friction
b. Stretching
c. Tapotement
d. Mobilization
ANS: D
Mobilizations are passive range of motion movements applied to a joint complex.
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42. Which technique elongates muscles in the direction opposite to that of their actions?
a. Stroking
b. Vibration
c. Percussion
d. Stretching
ANS: D
Stretching is passively positioning a muscle attachment as far as possible to elongate the
muscle in the direction opposite to that of its action.
43. Which procedure should be performed on a joint before it is mobilized?

a. Deep specific friction
b. Slight manual traction
c. Jostling
d. Compression
ANS: B
For mobilizations, apply a slight manual traction before mobilizing the joint.
44. The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that muscles should be in which state
before being stretched?
a. Warm
b. Tense
c. Soft
d. Cold
For stretching, the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends that muscles
should be warm before stretching.
45. Stretches on muscles should be repeated several times until how many seconds have
accumulated?
a. 10
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
ANS: D
Each stretch should be held for 10-30 seconds to the point of tightness or slight discomfort.
Repeat each stretch 2-4 times, accumulating 60 seconds per stretch.
46. Which technique is osteoarthritis a contraindication for?

a. Passive range of motion
b. Stretching
c. Deep specific friction
d. Pétrissage
ANS: A
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PROM is contraindicated for the presence of bone or joint inflammation, infection, injury, or
malignancy including osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, herniated disc, bone cancer,
osteoporosis or any condition that causes bone frailty, and joints that are hypermobile or prone
to separation or subluxation.
47. Which joint can the techniques of pulls and circles that feature flexion, extension, adduction,
abduction, rotation, and circumduction be performed on?
a. Knee
b. Elbow
c. Shoulder
d. Hip
ANS: C
PROM of the shoulders are arm pulls and shoulder circles and feature flexion, extension,
adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction
48. Which muscle group is stretched by the massage therapist placing a hand over the client’s
anterior superior iliac spine and applying gentle pressure with the other hand on the medial
aspect of the client’s flexed knee?
a. Quads
b. Hamstrings
c. Adductors
d. Gluteals
ANS: C
While standing tableside, place your bottom hand over the clients’ anterior superior iliac spine
and apply gentle pressure to anchor the far hip while applying gentle pressure on the medial
aspect of near flexed knee T
toEstretch
STBAtheNKadductors.
SELLER.COM
49. Who is called the father of orthopedic medicine?

a. Johann Mezger
b. John Harvey Kellogg
c. Pehr Henrik Ling
d. James Cyriax
ANS: D
James Cyriax is called the father of orthopedic medicine.
50. Which approach did James Cyriax incorporate into his medical practice?
a. Nerve strokes
b. Aromatherapy
c. Deep massage techniques
d. Jostling
ANS: C
Cyriax was a great believer in deep massage techniques, both on their own and in conjunction
with physical therapy.
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Chapter 09: Standard Precautions, Contraindications, and Emergency Preparedness

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means the study of disease?

a. Syndrome
b. Pathology
c. Etiology
d. Autoimmunity
ANS: B
Pathology is the study of disease.
2. Which term means a prediction of how a disease will progress?

a. Etiology
b. Syndrome
c. Prognosis
d. Diagnosis
ANS: C
Prognosis is a prediction of how the disease will progress, and the chances of recovery based
on the person’s condition and the usual course of the disease as observed in similar situations.
3. Which term refers to a disease that has an abrupt onset and persists for a short time?
a. Acute
b. Chronic TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Idiopathic
d. Autoimmune
ANS: A
When signs and symptoms have an abrupt onset, persist for a short time, run a brief course
(less than 3 months) then resolves or, in some cases, bring death, it is called an acute disease.
4. Which type of disease involves the body mistakenly attacking and destroying healthy tissue?
a. Metabolic
b. Deficiency
c. Degenerative
d. Autoimmune
ANS: D
Autoimmune diseases are part of a large group of diseases marked by an inappropriate or
excessive immune response. The body mistakenly attacks and destroys healthy tissue.
5. Which example is of an autoimmune disease?

a. Athlete’s foot
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Parkinson disease
d. Down syndrome
ANS: B
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Examples of autoimmune diseases are rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and
multiple sclerosis.
6. Which type of disease is characterized by growth of abnormal cells that can accumulate into
masses or tumors?
a. Cancer
b. Infectious
c. Metabolic
d. Deficiency
ANS: A
Cancer is characterized by growth of abnormal cells that possess uncontrolled cell division,
lack programmed cell death, and can accumulate into masses or tumors.
7. Which term means the ability to invade other tissues of the body?
a. Metastasize
b. Incubate
c. Transmit
d. Contaminate
ANS: A
Cancer can metastasize, which is the ability to invade other tissues of the body.
8. Which type of disease is caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the diet or the inability to
digest and absorb a particular nutrient properly?
a. Cancer
b. Infectious
c. Deficiency TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Autoimmune
ANS: C
Deficiency diseases are caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the individual’s diet or by
the individual’s inability to digest and absorb a particular nutrient properly. This deficiency
typically interferes with the body’s growth, development, and metabolism.
9. Which example is of a degenerative disease?

a. Anemia
c. Osteoarthritis
ANS: C
Examples of degenerative diseases are osteoporosis (bone degeneration), Alzheimer and
Parkinson diseases (brain degeneration), and osteoarthritis (joint degeneration).
10. Which example is of a genetic disease?

a. Down syndrome
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Hypertension
ANS: A
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Examples of genetic diseases are Turner syndrome (one of the two X chromosomes is absent
or incomplete), Down syndrome (three rather than the normal two copies of chromosome 21),
hemophilia (mutation in a clotting factor gene), and albinism (defect in the skin pigment
gene).
11. Which example is of a metabolic disease?

a. Down syndrome
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
ANS: D
Examples of metabolic diseases are Cushing disease (caused by overproduction of cortisol by
the adrenals) and diabetes mellitus (caused by elevated blood sugar levels from the inability of
the body to produce and/or use insulin produced by the pancreas).
12. What types of diseases are caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses, or protozoa?
a. Cancer
b. Infectious
c. Deficiency
d. Autoimmune
ANS: B
Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and
pathogenic animals.
13. Which example is of an infectious disease?

a. Scurvy TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Impetigo
c. Down syndrome
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
ANS: B
Examples of infectious diseases are impetigo (bacterial infection), ringworm (fungal
infection), herpes simplex virus (HSV) (viral infection), malaria (protozoal infection), and lice
(infestation).
14. Nosocomial infections are ones that are acquired in which location?
a. Work
b. Hospital
c. Home
d. School
ANS: B
Nosocomial infections are infections that occurred or were acquired while in a hospital or
medical facility.
15. Which term means a biologic agent capable of causing infectious disease?
a. Host
b. Reserve
c. Pathogen
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d. Carcinogen
ANS: C
A pathogen is a biologic agent capable of causing infectious disease. Examples of pathogens
are (1) viruses, (2) bacteria, (3) fungi, (4) protozoa, (5) prions, and (6) pathogenic animals.
16. Which type of pathogens are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth and
replication?
a. Prions
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Bacteria
ANS: C
Viruses are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth and replication.
17. Which example is of a viral infection?

a. Malaria
b. Influenza
c. Ringworm
d. Tuberculosis
ANS: B
Examples of viral infections are the common cold, influenza, human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) infection, measles, mumps, rabies, and HSV.
18. Which pathogens are single-cell organisms and can be spiral-shaped or rod-shaped?
a. Prions TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Bacteria
ANS: D
Bacteria are single-cell organisms, can be spheres, spiral-shaped or rod-shaped, and may
appear singly or in chains.
19. Which example is of a bacterial infection?

a. Malaria
b. Influenza
c. Ringworm
d. Tuberculosis
ANS: D
Examples of bacterial infections are boils, tuberculosis, gastroenteritis, strep throat, and
tetanus.
20. Which example is of a fungal infection?

a. Malaria
b. Influenza
c. Ringworm
d. Tuberculosis
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ANS: C
Examples of fungal infections are thrush, ringworm, and athlete’s foot.
21. Which example is of infestation?

a. Hives
b. Scabies
c. Malaria
d. Ringworm
ANS: B
Examples of pathogenic animals include worms, ticks, lice, and scabies. Parasitic infections
are called infestations.
22. Which term means the source of infection?

a. Host
b. Portal
c. Disease
d. Reservoir
ANS: D
Reservoirs are sources of infection and can be living (humans, animals) or nonliving
(doorknobs, flooring).
23. Which term means the movement of pathogens from a reservoir to a host?
a. Susceptibility
b. Transmission
c. Contamination
d. Contraindication TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
Transmission is the transfer of pathogens from a reservoir to a host.
24. Which terms are methods of pathogen transmission?

a. Contact, vehicle, and vector
b. Local, intermediate, and widespread
c. Stage one, stage two, and stage three
d. Acute, subacute, and chronic
ANS: A
Methods of pathogen transmission are contact, vehicle, and vector.
25. Which term means the proliferation of pathogens inside the host?
a. Carrier
b. Endemic
c. Infection
d. Transmission
ANS: C
Infection is the proliferation of pathogens inside the host.
26. Which term means the time interval between initial exposure to pathogens and first
appearance of disease signs and symptoms in a susceptible host?
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a. Residual effect
b. Incubation period
c. Prevalence outcome
d. Disease complication
ANS: B
Most infections begin with a latent stage called the incubation period, which is the time
interval between initial exposure to pathogens to the first appearance of disease signs and
symptoms in a susceptible host. During this period, disease transmission can occur to a new
host unknowingly.
27. Which method of disease transmission is the most common?

a. Vector
b. Contact
c. Vehicle
d. Isolation
ANS: B
Contact, the most common method of disease transmission and occurs both directly and
indirectly.
28. Which transmission of infectious agents occurs through a common source such as food, water,
or air?
a. Vector
b. Contact
c. Vehicle
d. Isolation
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ANS: C
Vehicle transmission occurs when pathogens are transmitted through a common vehicle or
source, such as food, water, air, and in some cases blood distributed by transfusion services.
29. Which type of transmission is transfer of infectious agents between two or more hosts, such as
between animals or insects and human beings?
a. Vector
b. Contact
c. Vehicle
d. Isolation
ANS: A
Vector transmission uses a vector (usually an animal or insect) to spread infectious agents
between two or more hosts. Most vector-borne diseases are transmitted by bites, stings, or
infestation of tissues.
30. Which term means the minimum infection control measures used regardless of suspected or
confirmed infection status of the client?
a. Health and hygiene
b. Standard precautions
c. Local contraindication
d. Antimicrobial resistance
ANS: B
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Standard precautions are the minimum infection control practices used to prevent transmission
of diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin (such as
skin rashes), and mucous membranes. Standard precautions are so called because they are
used regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the client.
31. Which vaccine does the CDC recommend health care providers receive?
a. Smallpox
b. Rabies
c. Chickenpox
d. Rotavirus
ANS: C
The CDC recommends that appropriate vaccines be used to reduce the risk of acquiring or
spreading vaccine-preventable diseases. Recommended vaccines include hepatitis B, influenza
(flu), measles, mumps, rubella (MMR), chickenpox (varicella), tetanus, diphtheria, and
pertussis (Tdap), and meningococcal.
32. Which method is the best for infection control?

a. Hand hygiene
b. Taking supplements
c. Receiving vaccinations
d. Avoiding massaging clients who are ill
ANS: A
Cleaning hands with soap and water is the best methods of infection control because the
primary source of disease transmission is contact with human hands.
TESrub
33. During hand washing, briskly TBsoapy
ANKShands,
ELLEforearms,
R.COM and elbows together for at least how
many seconds?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 60
ANS: B
Use soap and generate lather. Rub your hands, forearms, and elbows briskly together using
firm circular motions. Be sure to include the areas between the fingers. Do this for at least 20
seconds. This is about the time it takes to hum the “Happy Birthday” song from beginning to
end twice.
34. Which factor is the primary source of disease transmission?

a. Using mobile devices
b. Contact with human hands
c. Drinking at water fountains
d. Dining at public restaurants
ANS: B
Cleaning hands with soap and water is the best methods of infection control because the
primary source of disease transmission is contact with human hands.
35. Which type of glove is the most popular in professional settings?
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a. Latex
b. Vinyl
c. Nitrile
d. Rubber
ANS: C
Nitrile gloves are currently the most popular glove of choice in professional settings; latex
gloves are no longer used. Nitrile gloves can be used with both oil-based and water-based
lubricants.
36. Approximately how much bleach should be added to a washing machine to disinfect
contaminated linens?
a. 1/4 to 1/2 cup
b. 1/2 to 1 cup
c. 1 to 1 1/4 cups
d. 1 1/4 to 1 3/4 cups
ANS: B
According to the Consumer Energy Center, older top-load washing machines use
approximately 40 gallons of water, which means adding about 1 cup of bleach per wash.
Front-load washing machines and newer top-load washing machines use approximately 24
gallons of water, which means adding a little over 1/2 cup or 4.8 oz of bleach per wash.
37. Disinfection of contaminated tools means immersing them in a 1:10 solution of household
bleach and water for at least how many minutes?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10 TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. 15
ANS: B
Immerse contaminated reusable objects such as massage tools in 70% isopropyl alcohol for 5
minutes, 3% hydrogen peroxide for 30 minutes, or a 1:10 solution of unscented chlorine
bleach and water for 5 minutes.
38. Which term means a situation requiring the massage therapist to modify techniques or refrain
from using them to avoid possible harm?
a. Indication
b. Risk factor
c. Contraindication
d. Standard precaution
ANS: C
A contraindication is a situation that requires the therapist to modify techniques or refrain
from using them to avoid possible harm.
39. Which term means a situation in which massage should be postponed?

b. Local contraindication
c. Risk factor
d. Absolute contraindication
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ANS: D
Absolute contraindications represent situations in which massage therapy should be
postponed.
40. Which example is an absolute contraindication for massage?

a. Chronic disease in an exacerbation stage
b. Rash on a client’s foot without other signs or symptoms
c. Wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 96 hours ago
d. Client who is feeling sedated because of a sinus medication
ANS: A
Examples of absolute contraindication include the following situations include contagious
diseases; widespread infection or systemic inflammation, often indicated by fever (greater
than 100 degrees F or 37 degrees C, taken orally); chronic disease in an exacerbation period or
an acute stage; client in a state of medical emergency.
41. Which term used means an area in which massage must be avoided because it is injured or
inflamed, is part of a disease process, or has a medical device or pharmaceutical product?
a. Standard precaution
b. Local contraindication
c. Risk factor
d. Absolute contraindication
ANS: B
A local contraindication is an area in which massage must be avoided because it is injured or
inflamed, is part of a disease process, or has a medical device or pharmaceutical product.
Massage can be administered in other areas of the body while avoiding the area that is locally
contraindicated. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
42. Which example is a local contraindication for massage?

a. Chronic disease in a state of exacerbation
b. Widespread infection or inflammation and fever
c. Reported or presenting disease that is highly contagious
d. Wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 48 hours ago
ANS: D
Potential areas of local contraindication include recently injured areas; acutely inflamed areas;
endangerment sites; areas that contain medicated transdermal patches, chemotherapy ports,
pacemakers, or other medical devices; a lump, lesion, suspicious mole, localized rash, or
enlarged lymph nodes. A wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 48 hours ago is
considered a recent injury.
43. Which term describes sites that contain tissues such as nerves, blood vessels, and glands that
are vulnerable to harm from pressure?
a. Anatomic
b. Endangerment
c. Muscular
d. Physiologic
ANS: B
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Endangerment sites are a type of local contraindication and these areas contain tissues such as
nerves, blood vessels, and glands that are vulnerable to harm from pressure. These areas, also
called cautionary sites or areas of caution are not well protected by muscle or bone.
44. The anterior neck is an endangerment site because it contains which artery?
a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Coronary
d. Mesentery
ANS: B
Avoid deep vigorous techniques and prolonged deep pressure on the anterior neck because it
was found to damage local structures. One case involved a female client who received a neck
massage using a hand-held electric massage unit that caused her carotid artery to dissect.
Elliott and Taylor reported two cases of carotid artery dissection attributed to neck massage
with a shiatsu-type electric massage chair.
45. Which term describes providing first and immediate responses during health or medical
emergency situations to minimize loss of life?
b. Standard precautions
c. Local contraindication
d. Emergency preparedness
ANS: D
Emergency preparedness is the process of providing first and immediate responses during
health or medical emergency situations to minimize loss of life.
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46. What is the appropriate action to take if encountering an unresponsive individual?
a. Call 911 and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately
b. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately; then call 911 after signs and
symptoms abate
c. Check for responsiveness to determine whether there is an actual emergency
d. Search pockets or a purse for emergency meds such as an epinephrine pen then
administer if found
ANS: C
If you encounter an unresponsive individual, check for responsiveness to determine if there is
an actual emergency or if the individual is simply resting.
47. Which information should be given to the 911 emergency dispatcher?

a. The caller’s age
b. Victim’s location
c. Victim’s height
d. The time of day
ANS: B
When calling 9-1-1, give the following information to the emergency dispatcher: what the
emergency is or what is happening now; the location of the emergency and victim(s).
48. The Heimlich maneuver should be used if the client is in which condition?
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a. Choking and is unable to cough or speak

b. Diabetic and experiencing hypoglycemia
c. Having a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes
d. Unable to speak coherently or raise both arms
ANS: A
A person who is coughing and can speak is not choking, so encourage the person to cough.
The person is likely choking if he or she appears distressed, grasps the throat, cannot cough or
speak, has difficulty breathing or cannot breathe, and has a bluish tint of the lips and nails. If
the person is choking, use the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts, to help open a
suddenly obstructed trachea.
49. If a client who is experiencing hypoglycemia is conscious and coherent, what should the
massage therapist do?
a. Perform CPR on him or her immediately
b. Gently place him or her on the floor if possible
c. Give him or her food or beverage that contains sugar
d. Press into his or her upper abdomen with a quick upward thrust
ANS: C
If the client is conscious and coherent, he or she should be given a substance that contains
sugar such as contents of a honey packet, cake frosting in a tube, 4 oz of orange juice, or 6 oz
of regular (not diet) soda.
50. In the acronym F-A-S-T to learn stroke signs and symptoms, what does “S” stand for?
a. Speed
b. Supine
c. Speech TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Seizure
ANS: C
In the acronym F-A-S-T, “S” stands for speech.
51. Which condition is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the heart caused by an occluded
blood vessel or hemorrhage from a broken blood vessel?
a. Stroke
b. Seizure disorder
c. Heart attack
d. Hypoglycemia
ANS: C
Heart attack, also called a myocardial infarction (MI), is a sudden disruption of blood flow to
the heart muscle or myocardium caused by an occluded blood vessel or hemorrhage from a
broken blood vessel.
52. Which condition is associated with the acute care principle “time is muscle?”
a. Stroke
b. Seizure disorder
c. Heart attack
d. Hypoglycemia
ANS: C
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The acute care principle for heart attack is “time is muscle”—heart muscle, in this case.
53. What is the rate per minute for chest compressions used to perform CPR?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. 125
ANS: C
The rate per minute for chest compressions is approximately 100 to 120.
54. Which conditions are characterized by episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical
activity in the brain?
a. Strokes
b. Seizure disorders
c. Cognitive disorders
d. Hypoglycemia
ANS: B
Seizure disorders are characterized by episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical
activity in the brain that result in a sudden change in behavior.
55. If a client is having a seizure, when should 911 be called?

a. Seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or immediately repeats
b. Client stops having a seizure within 3 minutes
c. Client has had a seizure before, as indicated on the intake form
d. Seizure produces patterns of alternating contractions that gradually subside
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ANS: A
Call 9-1-1 in the following cases: 1. It is the person’s first seizure or if you do not know; 2. If
the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or immediately repeats, or if the person cannot be
awakened after the seizure; 3. If the person is injured or vomits during the seizure; 4. If the
person has a medical condition such as diabetes, heart disease, or congestive heart failure or is
pregnant.
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Chapter 10: Professional Standards: Scope of Practice, Assessment, Treatment

Planning, Informed Consent, Documentation, and Networking with Health Care
Providers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term describes professional activities that can be performed legally by members of a
licensed profession?
a. Scope of practice
b. Informed consent
c. Client documentation
d. Professional reference
ANS: A
Scope of practice refers to professional activities that can be performed legally by members of
a licensed profession as well as the context in which these activities can be applied. Scope of
practice is defined by state law or practice act.
2. Which method is within the scope of practice for massage therapists?

a. Herbalism
b. Acupuncture
c. Hot pack application
d. Nutritional counseling
ANS: C
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Within massage therapy scope of practice are usually use of therapeutic agents such as hot and
cold applications (e.g., packs, stones), hydrotherapy, topical agents (e.g., muds, clays, salts,
sugars)
3. What are chiropractic adjustments considered in relation to massage therapy?

a. An exclusion
b. A delegation
c. Within scope of practice
d. Within standard of care
ANS: A
Exclusion means something that is outside scope of practiced. Massage therapists cannot
provide services or apply techniques that would require a separate state license to practice,
such as psychotherapy, chiropractic procedures, acupuncture, physical or occupational
therapy, or any other branch of medicine, unless they have the appropriate state license.
4. Which term refers to the degree of prudence or caution reasonable individuals follow who
have similar training and who work under similar circumstances?
a. Exclusion
b. Delegation
c. Scope of practice
d. Standard of care
ANS: D
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Standard of care refers to the degree of prudence or caution reasonable individuals follow who
have similar training and who work under similar circumstances.
5. Which term means the act of exchanging thoughts, feelings, and behaviors?
a. Literacy
b. Documentation
c. Assessment
d. Communication
ANS: D
Communication is the act of exchanging thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Massage therapists
have a duty to factually communicate and report.
6. Which term means the capacity of and individual to obtain and understand information and
services to make appropriate wellness care decisions?
a. Health literacy
b. Research literacy
c. Assessment
d. Documentation
ANS: A
Health literacy is the degree to which an individual has the capacity to obtain, communicate,
process, and understand basic health information and services in order to make appropriate
decisions.
7. What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
a. Prevent client personal health information from being shared among professionals
b. Protect the storage andTtransmission
ESTBANKS ofEclient
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personal
c. Determine what personal health care information the client is allowed to release
d. Determine how much the client can charge for personal health information
ANS: B
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), and the Patient
Protection and Affordable Health Care Act of 2010 were created by the Department of Health
and Human Services (DHHS) to protect client rights and targets the storage, transmission, and
dissemination of personal health information, which includes information that is written,
spoken, recorded, or electronically stored that pertains to the past, present, or future care of
clients.
8. Which method is recommended to protect client information?

a. Apply the double-lock rule
b. Keep family members out of the filing room
c. Store records offsite from where services are provided
d. Record all client information while at home
ANS: A
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One method used to safeguard client information is the double lock rule. If client information
is on paper, secure paper documents behind two locks such as a locked fireproof file cabinet
inside a locked office. If client information is digitized, secure electronic files behind two
locks such as a passcode-protected computer program or cloud-based storage accessed
through a passcode-protected digital device. Additionally, if services are provided onsite such
as in residential settings, client files are secured within a locked mobile transport case and in a
locked vehicle.
9. How many years does the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and
Bodyworkers recommend that therapists maintain client records after the last date of client
service?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 7
d. 10
ANS: B
Many state licensing boards have a specific time frame massage therapists are required to
maintain records. These are generally 4 years after the last date of service. The 4-year
minimum time frame is also recommended by the National Certification Board for
Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork (NCBTMB).
10. Which term means an evaluation that identifies an individuals’ health status, treatment goals,
and how these goals will be addressed by the health care provider?
a. Planning
b. Assessment
c. Documentation TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Implementation
ANS: B
Assessments are evaluations that identify an individual’s health status, treatment goals, and
how these goals will be addressed by the health care provider.
11. Which type of pain scale consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with the endpoints
defining extreme limits?
a. Visual analog
b. FACES rating
c. Numeric rating
d. Verbal descriptor
ANS: A
A visual analogue scale (VAS) consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with the
endpoints defining extreme limits such as no pain and worst pain possible. The client is asked
to mark his or her current pain level on the line between the two endpoints.
12. Which concept is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and ideas
are mutually expressed?
a. Rapport
b. Memory
c. Self-esteem
d. Reinforcement
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ANS: A
Rapport is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and ideas are
mutually expressed. Rapport is facilitated when the therapist expresses genuineness,
acceptance, and trust while soliciting information, which may lead to client satisfaction and
continued patronage.
13. Which area is the most appropriate for the massage therapist to conduct the client interview?
a. Office lobby
b. Office break room
c. Parking lot
d. Private treatment room
ANS: D
The location of the client interview should be in an area conducive for gathering information.
Choose an area that is: comfortable, at a pleasant room temperature, ventilated, well lit, and
free of distractions and interruptions. Be sure the area is private during oral disclosures and
cannot be overheard.
14. Which type of questions is defined as offering little restriction when answering and allows for
reflection and clarification of thoughts and feelings?
a. Open-ended
b. Closed-ended
c. Exploratory
d. Reflective
ANS: A
Open-ended questions offer TElittle
STB restriction
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.COM and allow the client to reflect
and clarify thoughts and feelings.
15. Which example is of an open-ended question?

a. Does it hurt to raise your right arm?
b. Does pain radiate down your left leg?
c. How does your headache feel?
d. Can you take more pressure on this area?
ANS: C
Examples of open-ended questions are “What brings you to the clinic?” “Can you tell me
about your headache?” “How can I help you be more comfortable?” and “Anything else?”
16. Which type of question is defined as requiring affirmative, denial, or factual answers?
a. Open-ended
b. Closed-ended
c. Exploratory
d. Reflective
ANS: B
Close-ended questions are precise and require affirmative, denial, or factual answers such as
“yes,” “no,” or “the right shoulder.”
17. Which example is of a closed-ended question?

a. Can you tell me about your headaches?
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b. What brings you to the clinic?

c. Does pain radiate down your left leg?
d. How can I help you be more comfortable?
ANS: C
Examples of close-ended questions are “Does it hurt to raise your right arm?” “Does pain
radiate down your left leg?” “Can you take more pressure on this area?” and “Do you want me
to spend more time on your right or your left shoulder?”
18. What is an effective interview skill?

a. Look at the clipboard as much as or more than at the client
b. Use closed-ended questions only when talking with the client
c. Stay focused on the client’s discussion about personal relationships
d. Listen actively and signal interest with eye contact and occasional nodding
ANS: D
During the interview, occasionally nod, use facial expressions that convey attention, and use
neutral phrases such as “I see,” and “okay,” to show interest and encourage communication.
Take notes sparingly by jotting down key words. Excessive note taking is distracting and
interferes with listening and observing.
19. According to James Borg, which type of human communication is expressed 93% of the time?
a. Written words
b. Spoken words
c. Tone of voice
d. Body language
James Borg, author of Body Language: 7 Easy Lessons to Master the Silent Language, states
that human communication is 93% body language, and much of it expressed subconsciously.
20. Which acronym stands for an interview strategy that provides an organizational framework to
the interview?
a. APIE
b. PPALM
c. OPPQRST
d. SOAP
ANS: B
PPALM interview strategy provides an organizational framework to the interview that helps
prevent errors of omission.
21. In PPALM, what does the L stand for?

a. Limitations
b. Length
c. Lifestyle
d. Language
ANS: C
PPALM is an acronym for the first letter of five assessment domains: Purpose of session;
Pain; Allergies and skin conditions; Lifestyle and vocation; Medical and surgical information
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22. Which acronym stands for pain assessment guidelines?

a. APIE
b. SOAP
c. HIPAA
d. OPPQRST
ANS: D
Use questions related to the acronym OPPQRST to gain further insight into a client’s pain.
OPPQRST stands for: Onset; Provocative; Palliative; Quality; Radiation; Site; Timing.
23. In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, what does S stand for?
a. Site
b. Sharp
c. Sensation
d. Superficial
ANS: A
In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, S stands for “site.”
24. Which concept is the documented process of developing a client’s therapy?

a. Informed consent
b. Practice agreement
c. Treatment planning
ANS: C
Treatment planning is the documented process by which the therapist or health care team
plans an appropriate treatment
TES(therapy)
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OM (therapy) for a client.
25. What is the purpose of the PICO approach?

a. Create a way to document the treatment session
b. Develop a clinical question for treatment planning
c. Obtain permission to proceed with the treatment
d. Establish pain level before the treatment
ANS: B
PICO is a questioning approach to treatment planning. This method is used to develop a
clinical question by identifying characteristics of the client/patient, the desired outcome or
reasons he or she is seeking massage services, and interventions considered to achieve the
desired outcome.
26. What does the C in PICO stand for?

a. Change
b. Culture
c. Chronic
d. Comparison
ANS: D
PICO stands for: P: Patient or Population; I: Intervention; C: Comparison or Control; O:
Outcome.
27. Which classification is given to a client who has a long-term chronic or terminal disease?
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a. Medically fragile
b. Medically viable
c. Unreliable
d. Compliant
ANS: A
Clients who have a long-term chronic or terminal disease may have a frail constitution and be
classified as medically fragile.
28. How soon can massage therapy usually be applied to a recently injured area?
a. 1-2 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 4-6 days
d. 6-8 days
ANS: A
Massage therapy can be applied to an area recently injured once acute inflammation has
subsided, which is usually between day 4 and day 6 after the initial injury-producing event.
29. Which acronym stands for the current soft tissue injury protocol?
a. RICE
b. MCE
c. PICO
d. OPPQRST
ANS: B
The current soft tissue injury protocol is Move–Compress–Elevate or M-C-E. For decades,
R-I-C-E (Rest–Ice–Compress–Elevate)
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.Csoft
OMtissue acute care treatment of choice,
but now it appears that rest and ice may delay healing.
30. Which risk factor requires avoiding vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities for
12 weeks after surgery?
a. Weakened muscle tone
b. Lack of balance
c. Blood clots
d. Hypertension
ANS: C
Avoid vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities (thighs and legs) for 12 weeks
after surgery. This restriction is because of the increased risk of blood clots that could last up
to 3 months.
31. What effect has research shown massage therapy to have on patients who have undergone
surgery?
a. Decreased sleep
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Increased pain
d. Decreased anxiety
ANS: D
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Hand massage reduced anxiety, blood pressure, and pulse rate in patients who underwent eye
surgery under local anesthesia. Back massage, hand massage, and foot massage decreased
postoperative pain and/or anxiety in several studies.
32. When documenting client progress, how should goals be expressed?

a. Subjectively
b. Creatively
c. In functional terms
d. In abstract terms
ANS: C
Goals expressed in functional terms (i.e., massage needed to increase ROM in the right
shoulder) are necessary when documenting client progress. Ideally, you hope to see an
increase in flexibility and ROM and a decrease in the frequency and severity of symptoms,
most notably pain.
33. Which term means permission given by a client after being educated in all the relevant facts
regarding treatment?
a. Scope of practice
b. Informed consent
c. Client documentation
ANS: B
Informed consent is permission given by a client after he or she has been informed of all the
relevant facts regarding treatment.
TESalso
34. What can the consent process TBbeANviewed
KSELL ER.COM
as?
a. Limited liability
b. Indemnity clause
c. Therapeutic contract
d. Arbitration agreement
ANS: C
The consent process may be viewed as the “therapeutic contract” or agreement between the
client and the therapist. The process establishes professional boundaries and delineates
responsibilities and reasonable expectations. Professional boundaries and consistent focus on
the client’s safety and best interest creates a relationship that is pleasant and predictable.
35. Which component is essential for informed consent?

a. Competency
b. Technical communication
c. Health literacy
d. Compliance
ANS: A
Three essential components of informed consent include individuals being adequately
informed, voluntarily receiving treatment, and competent.
36. Which part of informed consent is covered by discussing techniques, methods, and products?
a. Expected benefits
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b. Procedural details
c. Therapist qualifications
d. Office policies
ANS: B
Procedural details of informed consent involve discussing procedures, techniques, methods,
products, and massage tools.
37. What is the term for withdrawing or modifying permission for treatment?
a. Professional conduct
b. Informed consent
c. Explanation of risks
d. Right of refusal
ANS: D
Both the client and the therapist have the right to withdraw or modify consent. This is called
right of refusal.
38. Which term means the process of collecting, confirming, and recording client information?
a. Debriefing
b. Agreement
c. Assessment
d. Documentation
ANS: D
Documentation is the process of collecting, confirming, and recording client information.
Documentation is vital for communicating with other health care providers about client care
and is the preferred form ofTE
communication
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.COM arenas.
39. What is considered the most credible evidence in legal proceedings?

a. Documentation
b. Assessment
c. Massage therapist’s memory
d. Client’s memory
ANS: A
Documented or recorded information is the “gold standard” of admissible evidence and is
often the most credible evidence in legal proceedings.
40. Using which method is appropriate for documentation?

a. Correction fluid and tape to correct errors
b. Commonly accepted medical abbreviations
c. Best judgment when diagnosing conditions
d. Black ink when writing treatment notes
ANS: B
A suggestion for documentation is to use commonly accepted medical abbreviations.
41. Which type of information is obtained from the client or client’s family and friends?
a. Objective
b. Subjective
c. Treatment
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d. Assessment
ANS: B
Subjective information is information based on or influenced by opinions, attitudes, feelings,
and beliefs of the client. Subjective information is obtained from the client or the client’s
family and friends.
42. Which type of information is defined as being measurable and verifiable?

a. Objective
b. Subjective
c. Treatment
d. Assessment
ANS: A
Objective information is information that is measurable and verifiable and based on facts.
43. In the F-DAR system of documentation, what does the D stand for?
a. Dominant
b. Distal
c. Data
d. Duration
ANS: C
F-DAR stands for: F: Focus; D: Data; A: Action; R: Response
44. In the APIE documentation format, what does the I stand for?
a. Informed
b. Interview TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Individual
d. Implementation
ANS: D
In the APIE documentation format, I stands for “implementation” and contains the methods
and techniques used during that day’s session.
45. In both the SOAP and the APIE documentation formats, what does P stand for?
a. Plan
b. Pattern
c. Palpation
d. Participant
ANS: A
In both the SOAP and APIE documentation formats, P stands for “plan.”
46. In the CARE documentation format, what does the R stand for?
a. Referrals
b. Restrictions
c. Response of the client
d. Recommendations for the client
ANS: C
In the CARE documentation format, the R stands for “response of client.”
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47. Which term means an order from an authorized health care provider for medications, medical
treatments, or medical devices?
a. Referral
b. Prescription
c. Medical release
d. Informed consent
ANS: B
A prescription is an order from an authorized health care provider for medications, medical
treatments (e.g., physical or massage therapy), or medical devices (e.g., hearing aids,
eyeglasses).
48. Which entity is most likely to require documentation of referrals or prescriptions?

a. Massage licensing board
b. Business license office
c. Health insurance company
d. Liability insurance company
ANS: C
Many insurance companies require documentation of referrals or prescriptions when insurance
is billed for massage services.
49. Which documentation can the massage therapist elect to provide for the prescriber as client
sessions are completed?
a. Progress report
b. Medical prescription
c. Medical release
d. Informed consent TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
As a series of sessions prescribed by a qualified health care provider are completed, the
therapist may elect to write a progress report for the prescriber. A progress report describes
the care received by the client and may include the therapist’s findings and suggestions for
future sessions.
50. Which term means the act of recommending products or services to address a client’s
problem?
a. Referral
b. Prescription
c. Medical release
d. Informed consent
ANS: A
A referral is the act of recommending products or services to address a client’s specific
problem(s).
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Chapter 11: Special Populations: Massage for Pregnant Women, Infants, Children,
Adolescents, Tactical Athletes and the Military, the Elderly, People with Visual,
Hearing, and Mobi
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term is defined as groups of individuals who, due to a variety of factors, are
disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at risk for harm?
a. Legal cohorts
b. Minors
c. Special populations
d. Victims
ANS: C
Special populations are groups of individuals who, due to a variety of factors, are
disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at risk for harm.
2. Which type of vulnerability is an individual living in an abusive home considered to have?

a. Physical
b. Social
c. Psychological
d. Emotional
ANS: B
Those with social vulnerabilities include those living in abusive or neglectful families, the
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homeless, immigrants, minorities, refugees, individuals living in poverty or who are
economically disadvantaged, and those who are institutionalized.
3. Which type of massage involves modifications of basic techniques and body positions to meet
the needs of women as they undergo changes during the prenatal and postpartum periods?
a. Infant
b. Sports
c. Geriatric
d. Pregnancy
ANS: D
Pregnancy massage involves modification of techniques and body positions to meet the needs
of women as they undergo changes during pregnancy and the postpartum period.
4. Which effect has research shown massage to have on pregnant women?

a. Decreased sleep
b. Reduced anxiety
c. Increased need for pain medication
d. Increased back and leg pain
ANS: B
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Massage therapy reduced anxiety, improved mood, promoted sleep, decreased back pain and
leg pain, and decreased depression in pregnant women. When massage therapy was used
during labor, labors were, on average, 3 hours shorter in duration and there was less need for
pain medication, women had fewer complications, and their infants had fewer postnatal
complications.
5. Which method should be avoided by pregnant women because they have been linked to neural
tube defects and spontaneous abortion?
a. Hot immersion baths or hot packs
b. Reflexology or any method that manipulates tissues on the foot or hands
c. Side-lying position
d. Exfoliations, which may overstimulate the nervous system and cause premature
labor
ANS: A
Pregnant women should not use hot immersion baths, hot tubs, or spa tubs, as they have been
linked to neural tube defects and spontaneous abortion.
6. Which term describes premature termination of a pregnancy?

a. Preeclampsia
b. Gestation
c. Thrombosis
d. Miscarriage
ANS: D
Miscarriage is the premature termination of a pregnancy and occurs in approximately 20% to
30% of all pregnancies.
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7. What is the best course of action if a pregnant client is experiencing any signs or symptoms of
miscarriage?
a. Press on the ankle area that corresponds to the uterus and ovaries in reflexology
b. Postpone massage and make a referral to her obstetrician or health care provider
c. Conduct a thorough evaluation into the primary cause of the signs or symptoms
d. Proceed with the massage in the side-lying position to reduce pain and discomfort
ANS: B
Postpone massage therapy if your client is experiencing any signs or symptoms of miscarriage
or ectopic pregnancy; make a referral to her obstetrician or health care provider who is
managing the pregnancy.
8. Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties and increased clot-producing factors, pregnant

women are at a higher risk for which condition?
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Peripheral arterial disease
c. Gestational diabetes
d. Preeclampsia
ANS: A
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is inflammation of a deep vein with blood clot formation.
Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties during pregnancy and increased
clot-producing factors, pregnant women are at a five to six times higher risk for DVT.
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9. Which condition affects approximately 75% of pregnant women?

a. Miscarriage
b. Preeclampsia
c. Morning sickness
d. Gestational diabetes
ANS: C
Morning sickness is nausea with or without vomiting that occurs during pregnancy. It affects
approximately 75% of pregnant women and is also called nausea and vomiting of pregnancy
10. Which range indicates the second trimester of pregnancy?

a. 10 to 16 weeks
b. 15 to 28 weeks
c. 22 to 27 weeks
d. 28 to 40 weeks
ANS: B
The second trimester spans week 15 to week 28.
11. Which condition occurs as the pregnant uterus compresses major abdominal blood vessels,
causing a sudden drop in blood pressure?
a. Spontaneous fetal abortion
b. Placental previa and abruption
c. Supine hypotensive syndrome
d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Supine hypotensive syndrome, also called aortocaval compression syndrome, is a drop in
blood pressure caused by compression of the pregnant uterus against major abdominal blood
vessels, especially the aorta and inferior vena cava.
12. The modified semireclining position helps prevent which condition?

a. Spontaneous fetal abortion
b. Placental previa and abruption
c. Supine hypotensive syndrome
ANS: C
From about week 22 of pregnancy on, use a side-lying position or a left lateral tilt while the
client is supine to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome. The American Pregnancy
Association recommends sleeping on the left side because it helps blood travel from the heart
to the placenta and prevents the enlarged and heavy uterus from putting pressure on the liver.
13. Which term means persistent high blood pressure with protein in the urine?
a. Miscarriage
b. Preeclampsia
c. Placenta previa
d. Morning sickness
ANS: B
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Preeclampsia is persistent high blood pressure with protein in the urine that develops after 20
weeks of gestation, but returns to normal levels after childbirth. Preeclampsia is also called
pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
14. Preeclampsia is also known by what other term?

a. Morning sickness
b. Atypical syndrome
c. Low-risk pregnancy
ANS: D
Preeclampsia is also called pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
15. Which condition requires immediate referral of a pregnant client to her obstetrician or the
health care provider who is managing her pregnancy?
a. Leg cramps
b. Varicose veins
c. Frequent urination
d. Widespread edema
ANS: D
If the client has widespread edema, postpone massage and refer her to the obstetrician or
health care provider who is managing her pregnancy for evaluation and treatment.
16. Which fetal complication is related to gestational diabetes mellitus?

a. Excessive growth
b. Small birth size
c. Cardiovascular issues TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Urinary tract issues
ANS: A
Fetal complications related to gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) include excessive growth,
respiratory distress syndrome, and premature birth.
17. Which week range indicates the third trimester of pregnancy?

a. 10 to 16 weeks
b. 15 to 28 weeks
c. 22 to 27 weeks
d. 29 to 40 weeks
ANS: D
The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which occurs around week 40.
18. What effect does relaxin have on the pregnant woman’s body?
a. Stimulates milk production.
b. Stimulates uterine contractions
c. Decreases the risk of heartburn
d. Increases pelvic girdle flexibility
ANS: D
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Towards the end of pregnancy, relaxin helps the cervix relax and dilate, and relaxes ligaments
to increase the flexibility of the pelvis in preparation for childbirth. Relaxin may have a slight
effect on all joints in pregnant women by making them hypermobile.
19. Which modification is appropriate for a pregnant client experiencing swelling or edema in the
feet and ankles?
a. Apply heat to the affected areas
b. Massage distal to the affected areas first
c. Elevate the affected areas by placing them on pillows
d. Use deep pressure applied centrifugally over affected areas
ANS: C
For mild swelling of the legs, ankles, and feet, elevate your client’s lower extremities by
placing them on pillows or cushions. Use gentle gliding effleurage applied centripetally.
Massage proximal to the affected area first and then proceed distally (e.g., massage the thigh,
then the leg, and the ankle and foot last).
20. Which condition involves dilated veins resulting from incompetent valves?
a. Varicose veins
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
d. Supine hypotensive syndrome
ANS: A
Varicose veins are dilated veins as a result of incompetent valves. Women may develop
varicose veins during pregnancy or find that varicose veins present before pregnancy get
worse.
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21. Which condition is due to tearing, thinning, or overstretching of skin, reducing its thickness?
a. Stretch marks
b. Varicose veins
c. Heartburn pain
d. Premature labor
ANS: A
Stretch marks are caused by extreme skin stretching, which reduces its thickness. Stretch
marks are most often located on the abdomen, breasts, hips, buttocks, and thighs.
22. How should massage over stretch marks be performed?

a. It is a contraindication
b. Light pressure should be used
c. Deep pressure should be used
d. It should occur after applying heat packs
ANS: B
Lighter-than-normal pressure is indicated over stretch marks. Massage will not reduce stretch
marks because they are not caused by a build-up of collagen such as occurs in scar tissue.
23. High-risk pregnancies are so named because they are likely to involve which issue?
a. Large birth weight
b. Complications
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c. Prolonged labor
d. Easy gestation
ANS: B
High-risk pregnancies are ones that are more likely to have complications, including disease
and death to the mother, the developing fetus, or both.
24. Which term means the period that begins after childbirth and extends for approximately 6
weeks?
a. Gestation
b. Pregnancy
c. Postpartum
d. Incubation
ANS: C
The postpartum period begins after childbirth and extends for approximately 6 weeks.
25. Which type of delivery do most pregnant women have?

a. Laparoscopic
b. Vaginal
c. Multiple baby
d. Cesarean section
ANS: B
In 2015, approximately 68% of childbirths in the United States were vaginal deliveries
according to the National Center for Health Statistics.
26. Which type of massage creates

TESaTnurturing
BANKSEand bonding
LLE R.COM experience between the child and the
parent or caregiver?
a. Infant
b. Sports
c. Geriatric
d. Pregnancy
ANS: A
The framework of infant massage is to promote parent/child interaction which facilitates
understanding, builds trust, and promotes attachment, the latter of which helps the child feel
safe, secure, and protected.
27. How should an infant massage instructor demonstrate massage techniques to the parents or
caregivers?
a. On a doll
b. With the baby
c. With the caregiver
d. On his or her own baby
ANS: A
The framework of infant massage is to promote parent/child interaction which facilitates
understanding, builds trust, and promotes attachment, the latter of which helps the child feel
safe, secure, and protected. Because of this, the instructor uses a doll to demonstrate infant
massage while parents and caregivers massage the child.
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28. Which approach is appropriate for infant massage?

a. Using mineral oil
b. Using scented lotion
c. Having natural or low lighting
d. Keeping the baby uncovered
ANS: C
Natural light or low light is best as bright light may overstimulate the child. Use food-grade
oils, such as jojoba, apricot, coconut, safflower, and olive in small amounts. Inevitably, the
child’s hand covered with oil will end up in the child’s mouth. Avoid scented and peanut or
almond oils because they may cause allergic reactions in sensitive babies. Cover
non-massaged areas when massaged areas are uncovered.
29. In most states, consent from a parent or legal guardian is needed for a client at which age and
younger?
a. 15 years
b. 19 years
c. 20 years
d. 21 years
ANS: A
In most states, individuals 16 years old and older can legally consent to medical and/or
psychiatric treatments. Therefore, the parent or legal guardian must consent to therapy on
behalf of a minor child’s behalf.
30. Which individual would be considered a tactical athlete?

a. Teacher
b. Firefighter TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Massage therapist
d. Family physician
ANS: B
Tactical athletes describe individuals in service professions who typically have significant
physical fitness and performance requirements associated with their work. Tactical athletes
include individuals in military service, law enforcement, and first responders such as
firefighters and emergency medical technicians.
31. One of the most common complaints for tactical athletes is pain in which area of the body?
a. Neck
b. Abdomen
c. Hips
d. Knees
ANS: D
Lower back pain and knee pain are two of the most common complaints for tactical athletes.
32. Which method for pain relief have research participants indicated benefitted them the most?
a. Opioids
b. Breathing techniques
c. Surgery
d. Massage therapy
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ANS: D
Fletcher et al conducted a study with inpatients and outpatients who were receiving
complementary and integrative health (CIH) services though the VA. Participants were
interviewed about their experiences and asked about which CIH therapy benefited them most.
Massage was found to be well-received and reported to have reduced pain, increased mobility,
and decreased opioid use.
33. Which type involves modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meet the
needs of the elderly?
a. Thai massage
b. Geriatric massage
c. Craniosacral therapy
d. Neuromuscular therapy
ANS: B
Geriatric massage is the modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meet
the needs of the elderly.
34. At which age are people classified as senior citizens according to the World Health
Organization?
a. 55
b. 60
c. 65
d. 70
ANS: C
Sixty-five years old is the chronologic age considered by most developing countries as the
beginning of old age and isTclassified
ESTBANasKS anEelderly
LLER. COM or senior citizen, according to the
person
World Health Organization.
35. The least touched people are in which age group?

a. Infancy
b. Late adolescence
c. Middle adulthood
d. Elderly
ANS: D
The elderly are the least touched of all age groups in Western health care systems.
36. What is the period of life from old age to death called?
a. Senescence
b. Adolescence
c. Convalescence
d. Prepubescence
ANS: A
Senescence is the period of life from old age to death.
37. Which term means a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or
emotional and cognitive functioning?
a. Impairment
b. Bereavement
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c. Disability
d. Senescence
ANS: A
Impairment is a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or
emotional and cognitive functioning resulting from injury, disease, disfigurement, or
progressive deterioration during aging.
38. Which term means having a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or
more major life activities?
a. Disability
b. Senescence
c. Frailty
d. Sarcopenia
ANS: A
A disability is a condition of having a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits
one or more major life activities, according to the Americans with Disabilities Act.
39. Which disease tends to afflict the elderly because of a slower and weaker immune system?
a. Hypertension
b. Cancer
c. Emphysema
d. Diverticulitis
ANS: B
The immune response is slower and weaker in the elderly. This increases the risk of many
diseases, including autoimmune
TESTdiseases,
BANKSshingles,
ELLER.and COcancer.
M
40. Which change due to aging can contribute to a loss in coordination and an unsteady gait?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Kyphosis
c. Sarcopenia
d. Purpura
ANS: C
Changes in muscle tone, loss of muscle mass, and loss of muscle strength from age-related
inactivity called sarcopenia combined with neurologic changes can cause or contribute to a
loss in coordination and an unsteady gait.
41. Which time is best to schedule a massage for elderly clients?

a. After dark
b. During daylight hours
c. Within an hour of eating
d. A week before the client’s doctor appointment
ANS: B
The best time to schedule massage sessions for elderly clients may be during daylight hours.
Elderly clients may prefer not to drive their vehicles after sunset because of impaired night
vision and increased sensitivity to glare.
42. What is the biggest safety issue for elderly clients receiving massage?
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a. Becoming chilled
b. Drug interactions
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Falling
ANS: D
Falling is the biggest safety issue for elderly clients. Many older people experience dizziness
related to sudden changes in blood pressure, vision or hearing impairments, or medication side
effects. Dizziness related to a sudden drop in blood pressure is called orthostatic hypotension
and occurs most often when the individual is moving from a lying down or sitting position to
an upright or standing position.
43. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a geriatric client?

a. A blanket for warmth may be necessary
b. Prone position will be the most comfortable
c. Treatment sessions should be longer than 60 minutes
d. Techniques should be applied with increased pressure
ANS: A
Cover the draped or clothed client with a blanket during the massage because many elderly
people experience cold intolerance.
44. Which indicator denotes health and vitality in the elderly?

a. Regular multivitamin use
b. Regular physical activity
c. Hearing ability
d. Sharp vision
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ANS: B
Low levels of physical activity are an indicator of frailty. Robust clients are typically
physically active, which may include regular exercise.
45. Which body position is uncomfortable for many elderly clients, especially if wearing dental
appliances?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Seated
d. Side-lying
ANS: A
Many elderly clients are uncomfortable while prone. Dental appliances may make the prone
position uncomfortable, even when a soft face rest cushion is used.
46. Which approach is appropriate for massaging frail elderly clients?

a. Lower the light level for the client before leaving the room after the session
b. Use less lubricant than is used with other clients
c. Perform less vigorous joints mobilizations than with other clients
d. Allow the client to get off the table by himself or herself
ANS: C
If your client is sedentary and frail, use techniques that are rhythmic, slow, gentle, and lighter
in pressure. Gentle joint mobilizations such as rocking are appropriate for the frail elderly.
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47. Which approach is appropriate for the massage therapist with a client who has a visual
impairment?
a. Talk to the client in a louder tone of voice
b. Converse with the assistant, if present, instead of the client
c. Begin by addressing the client by name and then stating own name
d. Be silent when entering and exiting the office and treatment room
ANS: C
Announce your presence when you enter the room where your client awaits. Begin by
addressing your client by name and then state your name.
48. Which approach is appropriate for the therapist with a client who has a hearing impairment?
a. Exaggerate lip movements while talking
b. Converse with the interpreter, if present, instead of the client
c. Be as inexpressive as possible when communicating with the client
d. Avoid moving hands near hearing aids if worn during the massage
ANS: D
If your client is wearing hearing aids during the massage, avoid moving your hands close to
the ears. Objects near the device may produce feedback, an uncomfortable squeaking noise.
49. Which suggestion is appropriate for clients with mobility aids, other special populations, and
all clients generally?
a. Keep massage facilities barrier-free
b. Exaggerate lip movements while talking
c. Stand during the intake for clients who use wheelchairs
TESTlitBrooms
d. Conduct the intake in dimly ANKSto ELfacilitate
LER.Crelaxation
OM
ANS: A
The first consideration is how the client with the mobility aid will enter your office. Most
municipalities require businesses to be barrier-free and wheelchair-accessible.
50. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a client who has a mobility impairment?
a. Use deep sustained and vigorous pressure on the legs
b. Inspect the client’s skin for evidence of decubitus ulcers
c. Remain standing while talking with a client who is in a wheelchair
d. Avoid working on the shoulders, chest, and arms
ANS: B
Local massage is contraindicated over areas at risk for decubitus ulcer formation. At-risk areas
for chair-bound clients are over the scapula, sacrum, the ischial tuberosities, popliteal areas,
and plantar surfaces of the feet. The therapist cannot rely on assessment to determine the
presence of developing decubiti because the client may have inflammation manifesting as
non-blanching skin that is difficult to observe, particularly in individuals with darker skin.
51. Which type of care provides services to patients who are facing a life-limiting illness?
a. Hospice
b. Emergency
c. Outpatient
d. Geriatric
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ANS: A
According to the Hospice Foundation of America, hospice is a type of care that provides
services to patients who are facing a life-limiting illness and who are no longer responding to
cure-oriented treatments.
52. Which type of care is defined as improving the quality of life through the prevention and
relief of suffering?
a. Respite
b. Palliative
c. Custodial
d. Residential
ANS: B
Palliative care improves the quality of life of individuals through the prevention and relief of
suffering. Palliative care is also called comfort care or supportive care.
53. Patients with which diagnosis receive the largest number of days in hospice care?
a. Dementia
b. Cancer
c. Hypertension
d. Emphysema
ANS: A
Patients with a principal diagnosis of dementia received the largest number of days in hospice
care.
54. Which approach is appropriate for therapists providing massage in hospice care?
TESTBofAlight
a. Use slow massage techniques NKSpressure
ELLER.COM
b. Tuck linens under the client instead of folding them back
c. Use scented lubricant
d. Bring a portable massage table
ANS: A
Clients in hospice are fragile. Use techniques of light pressure and slow speed. Touch-based
techniques such as Therapeutic Touch or and Reiki are also appropriate.
55. Which stage of grief identified by Dr. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross often involves heightened
spirituality?
a. Denial
b. Depression
c. Anger
d. Acceptance
ANS: B
Stage 4: Depression. This stage is the beginning of withdrawal in which the person needs
space to internalize and self-assess feelings of death and the process of leaving the people and
places to whom the patient has bonded. Heightened spirituality is often a part of this phase.
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Chapter 12: Hydrotherapy: Clinical and Spa Applications

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the term used for the external use of water for therapeutic, palliative, recreational, or
hygienic purposes?
a. Hypnotherapy
b. Hydrotherapy
c. Aromatherapy
d. Thalassotherapy
ANS: B
Hydrotherapy, from the Greek word hydro, meaning “water,” is the external use of water for
therapeutic, palliative, recreational, or hygienic purposes.
2. What is the term for therapeutic use of heat?

a. Thermotherapy
b. Hydrotherapy
c. Cryotherapy
d. Thalassotherapy
ANS: A
The therapeutic use of heat is thermotherapy.
3. What is the term for therapeutic use of cold?

a. Thermotherapy TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Hydrotherapy
c. Cryotherapy
d. Thalassotherapy
ANS: C
The therapeutic use of cold is cryotherapy.
4. What is the term for the use of sea water?

a. Aromatherapy
b. Cryotherapy
c. Thermotherapy
d. Thalassotherapy
ANS: D
Thalassotherapy is the use of sea water specifically.
5. Who is regarded as the father of hydrotherapy?

a. Pehr Henrik Ling
b. Hippocrates of Cos
c. John Harvey Kellogg
d. Father Sebastian Kneipp
ANS: D
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Father Sebastian Kneipp (1821–1897), from Worshofen, Bavaria, in western Germany, is

regarded as the father of hydrotherapy. Father Kneipp possessed exceptional knowledge and
skill in using water to heal the ailments that afflicted members of his community. These
treatments, known collectively as Kneipp therapy, are still used today at world-class spas.
6. Which method has as key components herbal and mineral baths as well as cold or alternating
hot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles?
a. Physical therapy
b. Aromatherapy
c. Kneipp therapy
d. Thalassotherapy
ANS: C
Key components of Kneipp therapy are herbal and mineral baths, as well as cold or alternating
hot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles.
7. Which type of facility was established in the late nineteenth century for individuals to regain
health after a long-term illness?
a. Rest home
b. Gymnasium
c. Orthopedic center
d. Sanitarium
ANS: D
Sanitariums were established as a type of health resort where individuals could go to regain
health after a long-term illness such as tuberculosis and polio.
8. Which type of heat transferToccurs

ESTBA NKSEL
between LEobjects
two R.COM or substances that are in direct
contact?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Evaporation
d. Conversion
ANS: B
Conduction is the transfer of heat between two objects or substances that are in direct contact.
Stationary or non-moving water transfers heat by conduction.
9. Which type of heat transfer occurs by circulating currents of water or air between warmer and
cooler objects or substances?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
ANS: C
Convection is transfer of heat by circulating currents of water or air between warmer objects
or substances and cooler objects or substances. The principles are similar to that of conduction
in that one object/substance is heated and its particles interact with another object/substance of
a lesser temperature and transfer heat in the process.
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10. Which type of heat transfer occurs through emanating heat rays?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
ANS: A
Radiation is heat transfer through emanating heat rays.
11. Which process involves heat reduction from the process of changing water into gas?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
ANS: D
Evaporation is heat reduction from the process of changing water into gas or vapor.
12. Which term means pressure exerted by fluid on an immersed object?

a. Isometric
b. Barometric
c. Hydrostatic
d. Therapeutic
ANS: C
Hydrostatic pressure is pressure exerted by a fluid on an immersed object. According to
Pascal’s law, a fluid exerts equal inward pressure at a given depth, and the pressure will
increase as water depth increases.
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13. Which condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy?
a. Tight muscles
b. Edema
c. Local pain
d. Hypertension
ANS: D
Contraindications to cryotherapy include impaired circulation (peripheral arterial disease),
reduced sensation, Raynaud disease or Raynaud syndrome, open wounds and rashes,
hypertension, age including the very young and very old, hypersensitivities or cold
intolerance, and the inability to communicate about sensations being experienced.
14. Which term describes initial vasoconstriction and later vasodilation that occurs during cold
application?
a. Barometric pressure
b. Hydrostatic pressure
c. Hunting response
d. Inflammatory response
ANS: C
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When cold application is longer than 20-minutes or when the tissue temperature reaches
approximately 50 F (10C), cold-induced vasodilation may occur. This later vasodilation was
first noted by Lewis, calling it the hunting response. It should be noted that this response is
inconsistent.
15. A general recommendation is that cold be applied for a maximum of how many minutes?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 15
d. 20
ANS: C
A general recommendation is that cold be applied no longer than 15 minutes
16. Which therapeutic effect does cold application have?

a. Increases edema
b. Increases muscle spasm
c. Decreases inflammation
d. Decreases joint stiffness
ANS: C
Cold application decreases edema.
17. Which reaction to cryotherapy is characterized by smooth, elevated patches that are red or
pale and may be accompanied by severe itching?
a. Eczema
b. Cold hypersensitivity
c. Dermatitis TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Cold numbness
ANS: B
Cryotherapy should not be applied if a client has cold hypersensitivity. This reaction is
characterized by smooth, slightly elevated patches that are redder or paler than surrounding
skin and may be accompanied by severe itching
18. Which sensation is usually felt last in cryotherapy application?

a. Cold
b. Aching
c. Burning
d. Numbness
ANS: D
During cold application of any method, the client usually experiences a sequence of
sensations including (1) feeling of intense cold, (2) burning, (3) stinging or aching, and then
(4) numbness or analgesia. These sensations are thought to correspond to activation of
thermoreceptors and nociceptors followed by blocking sensations by gate control mechanisms
19. Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with which ratio of water and rubbing
alcohol?
a. 2:1
b. 3:1
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c. 4:1
d. 5:1
ANS: C
Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with a 4:1 ratio mixture of water and rubbing
alcohol cooled in a freezer.
20. Ice massage combines ice with which massage technique?

a. Friction
b. Tapotement
c. Compression
d. Petrissage
ANS: A
Ice massage combines ice with friction massage.
21. Which type of treatment combines cold application with joint mobilizations?
a. Ice pack
b. Ice massage
c. Cryostretch
d. Cryokinetics
ANS: D
Cryokinetics combine cold application with joint mobilizations.
22. Passive or active movements used in cryostretch can be performed when the client has
reached which stage of application?
a. Cold TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Aching
c. Burning
d. Numbness
ANS: D
Cryostretch combines cold applications with stretching. Once analgesia has been reached,
passive or active movements can begin.
23. Which type of treatment combines cold and heat?

a. Paraffin method
b. Thermotherapy
c. Contrast method
d. Cryotherapy
ANS: C
Contrast method combines cold and heat in the same treatment. Cold can be applied at the
same time as heat on adjacent areas such as the anterior thigh and posterior thigh. Cold and
heat can also be applied alternatingly.
24. Which reason is thermotherapy primarily used in clinical settings?

a. Tonicity
b. Sedation
c. Reduce joint stiffness
d. Reduce edema
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ANS: C
Thermotherapy is used in clinical settings primarily to reduce pain and joint stiffness, and
increase range of motion.
25. How are heat applications thought to decrease pain?

a. Through increasing blood flow
b. Through reducing blood flow
c. By slowing nerve conduction
d. By stimulating edema
ANS: A
Superficial heat applications can be used clinically to decrease pain. This analgesic effect may
occur by increased blood flow and resultant reduced ischemia or by stimulation of
thermoreceptors, which may reduce pain transmission by gate control mechanisms.
26. Which approach should be combined with thermotherapy to increase blood flow in muscles?
a. Passive movement
b. Active movement
c. Compression
d. Vibration
ANS: B
If the goal of treatment is to increase blood flow in muscles, the therapist should consider
combining thermotherapy with active movement
27. Which therapeutic effect does heart application have?

a. Decreases edema
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b. Increases muscle spasm
c. Decreases inflammation
d. Increases collagen extensibility
ANS: D
Heat application increases collagen extensibility.
28. To elongate tissues by stretching, tissue temperatures should be maintained at 104F to 113F
for a minimum of how many minutes?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
ANS: D
Heat increases extensibility of collagenous tissues such as tendons, ligaments, and scar tissue,
with the effects noted after tissue temperature was elevated then elongated by stretching. For
this effect to occur, tissue temperatures should be maintained at 104F to 113F (40C to
45C) for 5-10 minutes.
29. Which condition is a contraindication for heat application?

a. Sore muscles
b. Joint stiffness
c. Blood clot
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d. Scar tissue
ANS: C
Thermotherapy should not be applied if clients state that they have blood clots in the treatment
area, or have a diagnosis of or signs and symptoms related to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
30. Which condition is a potential adverse effect of thermotherapy application?

a. Fainting
b. Itching
c. Numbness
d. Vomiting
ANS: A
Adverse effects of thermotherapy have been reported including burns and fainting. The
client’s skin can be burned when heat is applied too long, when the heating agent is too hot, or
when the client does not have sufficient protective vasodilation.
31. Skin can be burned in 7 1/2 minutes at which temperature?

a. 110F
b. 112F
c. 113F
d. 115F
ANS: D
Skin can be burned at temperatures of 113F (45C) for 60 minutes and at 115F (46C) for 7
1/2 minutes, so temperatures of heat application and duration should always be maintained
below these levels
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32. Clients with which condition have the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical uses
of thermotherapy?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Skin cancer
c. Shingles
d. Hives
ANS: A
Mun et al found that hot packs use were the most common cause of contact burns in clinical
settings with the leg the most common injury site, followed by the foot and ankle. Individuals
with diabetes mellitus had the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical uses of
thermotherapy.
33. What are hydrocollator hot packs filled with?

a. River rock
b. Bentonite clay
c. Sand
d. Marbles
ANS: B
Hot packs made for commercial use are pouches filled with bentonite (a type of clay) heated
in a thermostatically controlled stainless steel water cabinet. Most professional use a water
cabinet called a hydrocollator.
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34. What temperature is the water within the hydrocollator?

a. 136 to 145F
b. 147 to 156F
c. 158 to 167F
d. 169 to 178F
ANS: C
Water temperature within the hydrocollator is usually between 158F to 167F.
35. How long are hydrocollator packs typically left on the client’s body?
a. 5 to 8 minutes
b. 6 to 9 minutes
c. 10 to 14 minutes
d. 15 to 20 minutes
ANS: D
Once heated, the packs are removed, wrapped in 6-8 layers of dry terrycloth or a cover
specially designed to use with the hot pack, then placed on the treatment area. More layers can
added if the client is feeling too much warmth or layers can reduced if the client does not feel
enough warmth. Remove the pack after 15-20 minutes.
36. Which method is application of a heated waxy mixture to a treatment area of the body?
a. Aromatherapy
b. Paraffin bath
c. Hot pack
d. Cryotherapy
Paraffin is a heated mixture of paraffin wax and mineral oil in a 6:1 or 7:1 ratio of paraffin
wax to oil. Paraffin is an excellent insulator so when it is applied to the body, the heat
penetrates deeply instead of being lost to the air.
37. What happens to the heat from paraffin when it is applied to the body?
a. Dissipates rapidly into the air
b. Has a cooling action
c. Penetrates deeply
d. Penetrates superficially
ANS: C
Paraffin is an excellent insulator so when it is applied to the body, the heat penetrates deeply
instead of being lost to the air.
38. Which step occurs after the client’s hand is completely coated in paraffin in the dip method?
a. Wrap the hand in a plastic bag or wax paper
b. Wrap the hand in a towel or terrycloth mitt
c. Elevate the hand and allow the wax to cool
d. Remove the wax coating and discard it
ANS: A
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Repeat the dip-remove sequence nine more times for a total of 10 times. Advise the client to
avoid moving the fingers during treatment as this action may crack the wax coating. Wrap the
clients hand in a plastic bag or wax paper, and then in a towel or terrycloth mitt. Elevate the
hand and allow the wax to cool.
39. What does sanus per aqua mean?

a. Water is life
b. Water is cleanliness
c. Take in water daily
d. Healing through water
ANS: D
Some scholars believe that the word spa comes from the letters S-P-A that were scribbled on
the marble walls of ancient public baths of Rome. This is translated from the Latin term sanus
per aqua, meaning “healing through water” or “cure of water.”
40. Which type of spa has overnight accommodations with length of stay varying from a long
weekend to several weeks or longer?
a. Day
b. Health
c. Medical
d. Destination
ANS: D
Destination spas are places where clients come to relax, rejuvenate, or begin or improve their
lifestyle choices. The length of stay varies from a long weekend to several weeks or longer.
Education is often a central theme of destination spas.
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41. Which spa hydrotherapy is a dry heat bath in a wood-lined room with 10–20% humidity and
temperatures around 175 F?
a. Sauna bath
b. Steam bath
c. Vichy shower
d. Swiss shower
ANS: A
Sauna bath is a dry heat bath received in a wood-lined room or cabinet. Radiant heat can be
provided by hot stones (Finnish sauna) or by infrared light bulbs (modern sauna). In most
saunas, humidity is between 10-20% with temperatures around 175 F at head level
42. Which spa hydrotherapy is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy with
temperatures ranging between 105 F and 120 F?
a. Sauna bath
b. Steam bath
c. Vichy shower
d. Swiss shower
ANS: B
Steam bathing is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy. Air
temperature of most steam baths is between 105F and 120F (40.5C to 50C).
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43. Which spa hydrotherapy involves a client lying on a shallow table as jets of water come from
multiple down-facing showerheads situated along the length of a horizontal pipe?
a. Steam bath
b. Sauna bath
c. Swiss shower
d. Vichy shower
ANS: D
During a Vichy shower, warm water is sprayed over a client while he or she lies on a shallow
table that contains drainage for the water. Most often, the shower contains multiple
down-facing showerheads situated along the length of a horizontal pipe that runs the length of
the table.
44. Which spa hydrotherapy involves warm water spraying over a client from above and from the
sides while he or she stands in a shower stall?
a. Steam bath
b. Sauna bath
c. Swiss shower
d. Vichy shower
ANS: C
During a Swiss shower, warm water is sprayed over a client from above and from the sides
while he or she stands in a shower stall.
45. Which approach is a form of an Asian bodywork treatment received in water heated to the
body’s natural temperature?
a. Watsu
b. Cryotherapy TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Paraffin
d. Thermotherapy
ANS: A
In Watsu, the practitioner uses traditional shiatsu massage techniques, stretching, joint
mobilization, and flotation to help the client to relax. It is performed in water that is around 4
feet deep and has been heated to the body's natural temperature.
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Chapter 13: Foot Reflexology: Theories and Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Reflexology involves addressing areas of the body by applying different amounts of pressure
to points located where?
a. Internal organs
b. Chakras and third eye
c. Skull, spine, and pelvis
d. Feet and hands
ANS: D
Reflexology, or zone therapy, is a practice in which different amounts of pressure are applied
to specific points on the feet or hands that are believed to match up with certain other parts of
the body, according to the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health
2. Reflexology originated more than 5,000 years ago, tracing back to which country?
a. Egypt
b. Persia
c. Nigeria
d. Turkey
ANS: A
Various forms of foot massage and reflexology have existed for over 5000 years with
references found in many countries including India, Egypt, China, and Japan.
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3. Reflexology developed out of zone therapy, and the research and writings in the early 1900s
by whom?
a. James Watson and Francis Crick
b. William Harvey and Andrea Borelli
c. James Cyriax and John Harvey Dalton
d. William Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley
ANS: D
Reflexology developed out of zone therapy and the research and writings of Drs. William
Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley in the early 1900s.
4. Who is regarded as the mother of reflexology?

a. Ida Rolf
b. Janet Travell
c. Eunice Ingham
d. Bonnie Prudden
ANS: C
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Reflexology was popularized in North America by Eunice Ingham, a physiotherapist who is

affectionately referred to as the “mother of reflexology.” She spent most of her life mapping
the exact location of reflex points on the feet. Ingham spread her love and knowledge of
reflexology through teaching, writing, and demonstrating reflexology on as many people as
possible from the 1930s through the early 1970s. Her work is still carried on by the
International Institute of Reflexology with seminars held worldwide.
5. Which reason makes reflexology a popular treatment to receive?

a. It is cheaper than massage
b. Extra lubricant is used to soften feet
c. Disrobing is unnecessary
d. Varying amounts of pressure is used on the points
ANS: C
To receive reflexology, disrobing is not necessary and lubricants are not needed. Furthermore,
reflexology can be practiced practically anywhere that is comfortable for both the
reflexologist and the client. For these and many more reasons, reflexology is a popular form
of massage.
6. In reflexology, which term means the paths that life force travels in the body?
a. Poles
b. Zones
c. Nadis
d. Meridians
ANS: B
Reflexology theory states that this life force flows through the body through 1 of 10 vertical
paths called zones. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
7. What was reflexology originally called?

a. Zone therapy
b. Craniosacral therapy
c. Trigger point therapy
ANS: A
Reflexology theory states that this life force flows through the body through 1 of 10 vertical
paths called zones, which give rise to reflexology’s original name of zone therapy.
8. Which condition has research shown that reflexology will alleviate?

a. Renal failure
b. Menstrual cramps
c. Heart failure
ANS: B
Reflexology decreased the intensity and duration of menstrual cramps more effectively than
ibuprofen in university students. These effects continued after the sessions discontinued.
9. How many zones are in the body, according to reflexology?

a. Two
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b. Three
c. Seven
d. Ten
ANS: D
Zones are the 10 vertical pathways in the body through which life force flows. Five zones are
located in each foot.
10. Through which toe does Zone 1 pass?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth
ANS: A
Zone 1 passes through the great toe, Zone 2 passes through the second toe, and so on to the
smallest toe, through which Zone 5 passes.
11. Which term means the four horizontal lines that traverse the plantar surface of each foot?
a. Zones
b. Chakras
c. Channels
d. Landmarks
ANS: D
Landmarks are the four horizontal lines that traverse the bottom or plantar surface of each
foot. They are the neck/shoulder line, the diaphragm line, the waistline, and the pelvic line.
Landmarks help reflexologists
TESlocate
TBANreflex
KSEL points
LERon.Cthe
OMfoot.
12. In reflexology, which landmark is located just below the ball of the foot?
a. Waistline
b. Pelvic line
c. Diaphragm line
d. Neck/shoulder line
ANS: C
The diaphragm line is located just below the ball of the foot.
13. In reflexology, which landmark starts at the base of the fifth metatarsal and creates a line
across to the foot’s medial longitudinal arch?
a. Waistline
b. Pelvic line
c. Diaphragm line
d. Neck/shoulder line
ANS: A
The waistline in reflexology is located at the base of the fifth metatarsal and is traced across
the foot’s medial longitudinal arch.
14. What do reflex points represent?

a. Chakras
b. Meridians
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c. Brain and nerve pathways

d. Organs and structures
ANS: D
Reflex points are points located within the 10 zones and reflect the body’s organs and
structures. Reflex points and their positional relationships to each other follow a logical
anatomic pattern that closely resembles that of the body itself.
15. Which technique is used to stimulate all points within an entire zone during a reflexology
treatment?
a. Cupping
b. Walking
c. Point work
d. Point tapping
ANS: B
The walking technique is used to stimulate points within an entire zone.
16. Which technique is used to stimulate specific points within a zone during a reflexology
treatment?
a. Cupping
b. Walking
c. Point work
d. Point tapping
ANS: C
Point work is used to stimulate specific reflex points within a zone. Some reflexologists use
hand-held tools to apply point
TESwork.
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17. What is another term for the relaxation techniques used in reflexology?
a. Gems
b. Anchors
c. Desserts
d. Triggers
ANS: C
Relaxation techniques, sometimes called desserts, are used to relax the client before, during,
and after a reflexology session. Techniques include the foot flop, the ankle flop, and moving
the foot and ankle into dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, and eversion.
18. Which condition is a local contraindication for receiving reflexology?

a. Pregnancy
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Client frailty
d. Warts
ANS: D
Local contraindications include warts.
19. The sinus reflexes are located on which area of the foot?
a. Heel
b. Ankle
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c. Top of the foot

d. Pads of the toes
ANS: D
The sinus reflex points are located in the pads of each toe.
20. Which area of the foot contains the reproductive reflexes?

a. Ankle
b. Top
c. Ball
d. Heel
ANS: D
The reproductive areas are located on the heels and ankles. The uterus or prostate reflex points
are located on the medial ankle, and the ovaries or testes reflex points are located on the
lateral ankle.
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Chapter 14: Clinical Massage: Pain, Trigger Points, Fascia, Orthopedic Assessments,
and Applications Methods
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means the use of techniques to safely work with clients who have diseases,
disorders, or injuries?
a. Reflexology
b. Shiatsu
c. Lymphatic massage
d. Clinical massage
ANS: D
Clinical massage is the use of massage techniques to safely work with patients who have
diseases, disorders, or injuries.
2. Which term refers to restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition after a
disabling disease or injury?
a. Orthopedics
b. Remission
c. Physical rehabilitation
d. Maximum medical improvement
ANS: C
Physical rehabilitation is the restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition
after a disabling disease orTinjury.
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3. What does maximum medical improvement mean?

a. The client’s treatment has just started working
b. The client’s condition is unlikely to improve
c. A standard the client wishes to reach
d. A standard the physician wishes the client would reach
ANS: B
Maximum medical improvement (MMI) is the point in the rehabilitative process when the
client’s condition is unlikely to improve, and no further recovery is expected; it occurs when
treatment reaches a plateau.
4. Insurance companies are most likely to cover massage treatments received for which
situation?
a. Soreness from recreational activities
b. Stress from busy lifestyle
c. Cellulite removal
d. Personal injury
ANS: D
Insurance companies are more likely to cover massage therapy expenses related to personal
injury (PI) claims, automobile medical claims, automobile liability claims, and worker’s
compensation claims.
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5. Which documentation does an insurance company require to process claims?

a. Professional liability certificate
b. Diagnostic code
c. Profit and loss statement
d. Medical release
ANS: B
Insurance companies require diagnostic codes and procedural codes to process insurance
claims.
6. Which term means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or
potential tissue damage?
a. Pain
b. Psychosis
c. Rehabilitation
d. Assessment
ANS: A
Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential
tissue damage.
7. Which term means stimuli that are damaging or threaten damage to normal tissues?
a. Modulation
b. Nociception
c. Contraction
d. Rehabilitation
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ANS: B
Nociception is the term for stimuli that are damaging or threaten damage to normal tissues.
8. Who proposed the gate control theory of pain?

a. Einstein
b. Descartes
c. Melzack and Wall
d. Watson and Crick
ANS: C
The gate control theory of pain was proposed by Melzack and Wall in 1965.
9. Which concept involves synthesis of perception, emotional states, and past experiences?
a. Trigger point theory
b. Central sensitization
c. Body–self neuromatrix
d. Gate control theory
ANS: C
According to Melzack, pain is one of several expressions or outputs produced by a cerebral
network called the body-self neuromatrix after synthesizing various inputs including
perceptions, emotional states, and past experiences.
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10. Which theory states that pain is a response or output determined by how the brain interprets
incoming information or input?
a. Trigger point
b. Sliding filament
c. Gate control
d. Neuromatrix
ANS: D
According to Melzack’s neuromatrix theory of pain, pain is a response or output determined
by how the neuromatrix interprets input.
11. Which term means the brain’s ability to change, remodel, and reorganize itself to improve
adaptability?
a. Meta-analysis
b. Neuroplasticity
c. Algorithm neurology
d. Self-fulfilling prophecy
ANS: B
The neuromatrix theory fully embraces neuroplasticity, the brain’s ability to change, remodel,
and reorganize itself to improve adaptability.
12. Which term is given to pain generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation?

a. Neuropathic
b. Persistent
c. Acute
d. Chronic
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ANS: A
Neuropathic pain is generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation.
13. Which term is given to pain that outlasts the typical healing time of involved tissues?
a. Acute
b. Chronic
c. Perceptual
d. Centralized
ANS: B
Chronic pain, also called persistent pain, usually refers to pain that outlasts the typical healing
time of involved tissues.
14. Which term refers to the minimum intensity of a stimulus perceived as painful?
a. Sensitization
b. Threshold
c. Tolerance level
d. Sympathetic arousal
ANS: B
Pain threshold is the minimum intensity of a stimulus perceived as painful.
15. Which term refers to the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus an individual is
willing to accept in any given situation?
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a. Tolerance level
b. Sensitization
c. Threshold
d. Parasympathetic arousal
ANS: A
Pain tolerance level is the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus an individual is
willing to accept in any given situation.
16. Which phenomenon occurs with increased nociceptor responsiveness and reduced threshold?
a. Tolerance level
b. Acute awareness
c. Threshold
d. Sensitization
ANS: D
Sensitization occurs with increased nociceptor responsiveness and reduced threshold.
17. Which term means a tender localized hardening that lies in a palpable taut band within a
skeletal muscle?
a. Reflex point
b. Trigger point
c. Muscle spasm
d. Muscle soreness
ANS: B
A trigger point (TrP) is a tender localized hardening that lies in a palpable taut band within a
skeletal muscle. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
18. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that causes pain when compressed that the
client recognizes as familiar?
a. Latent
b. Active
c. Limited
d. Antagonist
ANS: B
Active trigger points cause pain when compressed; the person recognizes it as familiar. They
can also cause referred pain, motor dysfunction (stiffness, limited motion, muscle weakness),
and autonomic phenomena (pallor, sweating, watering eyes).
19. Which term is given to pain felt in an area of the body other than its source or site of origin?
a. Referred
b. Latent
c. Acute
d. Chronic
ANS: A
Referred pain is pain felt in an area of the body other than its source or site of origin.
20. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that is nonpainful until compressed, and the
client is unfamiliar with the resulting pain?
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a. Latent
b. Active
c. Limited
d. Antagonistic
ANS: A
Latent trigger points have the same characteristics as active trigger points, but cause no pain
until they are compressed and the person does not recognize it as familiar.
21. Which phenomenon is a brisk contraction elicited by snapping palpation of a trigger point?
a. Jump sign
b. Local twitch response
c. Referred pain phenomena
d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness
ANS: B
Some trigger points exhibit local twitch responses, a brisk contraction elicited by snapping
palpation of the trigger point.
22. Which neurotransmitter is involved in trigger point formation?

a. Epinephrine
b. Serotonin
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine
ANS: D
There are several hypothesis to explain trigger point development. The most widely accepted
is the Integrated Hypothesis
TEdeveloped
STBANKby SESimons,
LLER.Travell,
COM and Simons which states
development begins when precipitating events cause an excessive release of acetylcholine by
presynaptic neurons.
23. Which term means sheets of fibrous tissues enveloping the body beneath the skin, and
enclosing and compartmentalizing muscle tissue layers and muscle groups?
a. Adipose
b. Membranes
c. Fascia
d. Tendons
ANS: C
Fascia is sheets of fibrous tissue enveloping the body beneath the skin, and enclosing and
compartmentalizing muscle tissue layers and muscle groups.
24. Which term refers to fascia’s ability to move from a sol to a gel state, and back again?
a. Torquing
b. Spasming
c. Thixotropy
d. Conditioning
ANS: C
Thixotropy is a reversible transformation in which a substance can move from a dense state
(sol) to a liquid state (gel); or sol-gel conversion.
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25. Which factor is used to establish a client’s health status, identify treatment goals, and
determine how these goals are best accomplished?
a. Technique
b. Assessment
c. Documentation
d. Implementation
ANS: B
Assessments are used to establish a client’s health status, identify treatment goals, and
determine how these goals are best accomplished using an evidence-informed approach.
26. Which term means conscious or unconscious ways of moving used to correct imbalances and
reduce discomfort?
a. Posture
b. Gait
c. Compensatory patterns
d. Systematic desensitization
ANS: C
Compensatory patterns are conscious or unconscious movement patterns used to correct
imbalances and reduce discomfort.
27. Which group of muscles tend to shorten and strengthen?

a. Postural
b. Phasic
c. Core
d. Compensatory
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ANS: A
Postural muscles tend to shorten and strengthen, whereas phasic muscles lengthen and
weaken.
28. Which term refers to the quality of resistance felt by the evaluator at the end of a client’s
passive range of motion?
a. End-feel
b. Compensatory pattern
c. Gait
d. Mobilization
ANS: A
End-feel is the quality of resistance felt by the evaluator at the end of passive ROM.
29. Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist guides
the movement in the same direction?
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Active resisted
d. Active assisted
ANS: D
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During active assisted movements, the client (patient) actively performs the movement while
the therapist assists and physically guides the movement in the same direction the client
(patient) is moving.
30. Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist opposes
it?
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Active resisted
d. Active assisted
ANS: C
During active resisted movements, the client (patient) actively performs the motion while the
therapist applies resistance to the client’s (patient’s) movement.
31. The Full Can/Empty Can Tests may identify dysfunction in which muscle?
a. Infraspinatus
b. Deltoid
c. Supraspinatus
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: C
The Full Can/Empty Can Tests may identify supraspinatus dysfunction.
32. Which test measures shoulder mobility?

a. Apley Scratch
b. Spurling
c. Thompson TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Full Can/Empty Can
ANS: A
The Apley Scratch Test measures shoulder mobility.
33. The FABER test assesses pathology in which joint?

a. Elbow
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Sacroiliac
ANS: D
The FABER (Patrick’s) Test assesses hip and/or sacroiliac (SI) pathology.
34. Which orthopedic test attempts to determine possible cervical root compression?
a. Empty Can
b. Spurling
c. Apley Scratch
d. Thompson
ANS: B
Spurling Test attempts to ascertain possible cervical nerve root compression and cervical
radiculopathy.
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35. Which term means an abnormal sensation, either spontaneous or provoked?

a. Origin
b. Plexus
c. Paresthesia
d. Innervation
ANS: C
Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation(s), either spontaneous or provoked.
36. What is the definition of posture?

a. The manner in which a person moves on foot
b. The position of the body over a base of support
c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance
d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort
ANS: B
Posture is the position of the body over a base of support.
37. Which factor is used to determine the amount of symmetry on both sides of the client?
a. Line of gravity
b. Gait
c. Compensatory pattern
d. Phasic muscles
ANS: A
Some therapists use a posture grid or plumb line to determine a line of gravity, a vertical line
extending from the center of an object to its base of support. This line of gravity is important
for determining a client’s ability
TESTto BAmaintain
NKSELbalance
LER.Cwhile
OM standing, and to determine the
amount of symmetry in both sides of the client.
38. Which posterior landmark is used in static postural assessment?

a. Nasal septum
b. Occipital protuberance
c. Manubrium of the sternum
d. Anterior superior iliac spines
ANS: B
Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment.
39. Which lateral landmark is used in static postural assessment?

a. Nasal septum
b. Occipital protuberance
c. Greater trochanter of the femur
d. Anterior superior iliac spines
ANS: C
Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment.
40. Which statement describes gait?

a. An individual’s manner of walking or running
b. How the body positions itself over a base of support
c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance
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d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort

ANS: A
Gait is someone’s manner of walking or running.
41. Which term means a repetitive pattern that begins when one foot contacts the ground and ends
when the same foot contacts the ground again?
a. Gait cycle
b. Static posture
c. Compensatory pattern
d. Maximum improvement
ANS: A
Gait cycle is a repetitive pattern and begins when one foot contacts the ground and ends when
the same foot contacts the ground again.
42. During the stance period of the gait cycle, what percentage of time is the foot in contact with
the ground?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
ANS: C
During the stance phase, the foot is in contact with the ground. The stance phase accounts for
approximately 60% of a single gait cycle.
43. Which method of addressing

TEtrigger
STBApoints
NKSEinvolves
LLER.pressing
COM so that the skin blanches?
a. Transverse friction
b. Ischemic compression
c. Dry needling
d. Strain counterstrain
ANS: B
Compression and transverse friction can be used over trigger points. Compression is also
called ischemic compression, a term coined by Travell and Simons because skin first blanches
or becomes ischemic once pressure is remove; reactive hyperemia occurs after ischemia.
44. In the acronym TART, what does A stand for?

a. Active
b. Alignment
c. Assessment
d. Asymmetry
ANS: D
The A in TART stands for asymmetry. Asymmetry is noted when comparing one side of the
client’s body to its equivalent on the other side; include observing and palpating similarities
and differences in tissue changes before and after intervention.
45. How long is compression or transverse friction typically applied to a trigger point?
a. 5 to 10 seconds
b. 10 to 20 seconds
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c. 20 to 30 seconds
d. 35 to 45 seconds
ANS: B
To treat trigger points, apply compression and/or transverse friction to bare skin, through the
drape, or through clothing. When applied to bare skin, it should be lubricant-free or lightly
lubricated. Treat the area for 10 to 20 seconds.
46. Which technique is used to release restricted tissues in myofascial release?

a. Gliding
b. Compression
c. Friction
d. Stretching
ANS: D
Myofascial release (MFR) is a manual method that uses skin stretching techniques to release
restricted fascia.
47. Which method involves the client actively contracting against a counterforce?
a. Muscle energy techniques
b. Myofascial release
c. Positional release therapy
d. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
ANS: A
In muscle energy techniques, when requested by the massage therapist, the client actively
contracts his or her muscle(s) against a counterforce which matches it, fails to match it, or
overcomes it, depending on TEthe
STdesired
BANKeffect.
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48. Which method involves passively stretching a muscle then having it isometrically contract
against resistance?
a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
b. Myofascial release
c. Positional release therapy
d. Strain-counterstrain
ANS: A
In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation a muscle is passively stretched, then
isometrically contracted against resistance at between 20-70% maximal contraction for 10
seconds while in the stretched position, and then is passively stretched.
49. Which method uses the concept of “position of ease?”

a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
b. Muscle energy techniques
c. Strain-counterstrain
d. Cupping
ANS: C
During positional release therapy (strain-counterstrain), the targeted tissues are placed in a
shortened or slackened position for between 90 seconds and three minutes, causing tissue
lengthening. This body position is known as the “position of ease” or position in which pain is
relieved.
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50. What is the purpose of placing glass or silicone cups on the skin in cupping therapy?
a. Perform ischemic compression
b. Create suction
c. Glide along tissues
d. Stretch fascia
ANS: B
Cupping therapy involves placing glass or silicone cups on skin to create a suction.
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Chapter 15: Seated Massage: Principles and Practice

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is another term for chair massage?

a. Ashiatsu
b. Onsite massage
c. Location massage
d. Polarity
ANS: B
David Palmer coined the term onsite massage, and began teaching this method and also
selling the newly developed massage chair.
2. Which individual brought chair massage to prominence through his vision to make massage
therapy convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, anytime?
a. Harold Dull
b. James Cyriax
c. David Palmer
d. Ken Robinson
ANS: C
Seated massage, or chair massage, came to prominence through the efforts of Palmer, whose
vision was to make massage convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, and anytime.
TESTBto
3. Palmer introduced seated massage ANthe
KScorporate
ELLER.world
COMin which timeframe?
a. 1900s
b. 1950s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
ANS: C
Palmer introduced seated massage to the corporate world in the early 1980s.
4. Palmer blended techniques from which traditional Japanese massage method?

a. Aveda
b. Amma
c. Polarity
d. Reflexology
ANS: B
Palmer’s original method blended techniques from traditional Japanese-style massage called
amma and European-style massage. It includes techniques such as acupressure, stretching and
joint mobilizations, and percussion.
5. Which component is unnecessary during seated massage?

a. Pressure
b. Lubricant
c. Sanitation
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d. Communication
ANS: B
Seated massage does not require massage lubricants and sessions are typically brief (5 to 15
minutes), but can last up to 30 minutes.
6. Which action should the therapist do before setting up the massage chair?
a. Sanitize the chair fabric
b. Adjust the chair to fit the client
c. Place the face rest and arm rest covers on the chair
d. Choose an area that allows movement completely around the chair
ANS: D
Be sure the area where the seated massage will take place is wide enough to allow the
therapist to move completely around the chair.
7. For client safety, what should the therapist do before the client sits in the massage chair?
a. Demonstrate and explain how to sit on the chair properly
b. Have the client set up the massage chair before sitting in it
c. Explain and demonstrate how to take the chair down after sitting
d. Have the client explain how he or she would like to sit in the chair
ANS: A
Many clients are unsure of how to sit in the massage chair, and often sit on it backwards the
first time. Therefore, before the client sits in the chair, demonstrate and explain how to sit in it
properly.
8. Which client body positionTensures

ESTBAcomfort?
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a. Hips are rotated
b. Shoulders are dropped
c. Neck is extended
d. Back is slouched
ANS: B
For client comfort, be sure that the client’s back is straight and that the shoulders are relaxed
and not elevated.
9. After the client has been positioned comfortably, what should the therapist do right before
starting the actual massage?
a. Move the carrying bag out of the way
b. Remove the arm rest cover
c. Wash own hands
d. Sanitize the chair
ANS: C
After adjustments to the chair have been made for the client’s comfort, the massage therapist
should wash and dry his or her hands before the massage begins.
10. If the area where seated massage is performed is noisy, what method can the client use when
he or she experiences pain during the massage?
a. Speak loudly
b. Raise a hand
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c. Nod the head

d. Shrug the shoulders
ANS: B
The area where seated massage is performed may be noisy. Consider establishing a nonverbal
communication method before beginning the massage. For example, ask the client to raise a
hand if they are experiencing discomfort from the massage technique, which will be
responded to immediately.
11. In one-handed communication about pain levels, what do five fingers raised represent?
a. No pain
b. Mild pain
c. Moderate pain
d. Severe pain
ANS: D
A 5-point pressure scale can be used and indicated by the number to fingers extended on a
raised hand. In this situation, one extended finger represents light or low intensity pressure
and five fingers represents deep or high intensity pressure.
12. In a 15 minute chair massage, which area of the body do clients typically want most of the
time spent on?
a. Legs
b. Arms
c. Back
d. Scalp
In a basic 15 minute routine, be sure to spend more time on the client’s areas of complaint,
which are usually the back, neck and shoulders.
13. At what angle should the face rest frame be tilted to work the base of the skull and neck?
a. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 180 degrees
ANS: B
To work the base of the skull and neck, tilt the face rest frame forward until the neck is flexed
approximately 45 degrees.
14. Which techniques is most commonly used during seated massage?

a. Trigger point therapy
b. Superficial friction
c. Ballistic stretching
d. Compression
ANS: D
Compression is one of the most commonly used massage techniques during seated massage.
15. Which procedure should be done in between chair massage clients?

a. Disinfect the chair fabric
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b. Lower the chair

c. Take the chair down
d. Cover the chair with the bag
ANS: A
On completion of all interactions with the client, wash and dry your hands, disinfect the chair
fabric, write your progress notes, take a few deep breaths, and get ready for the next client.
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Chapter 16: Asian Bodywork Therapy: Shiatsu, Thai Massage, Ayurvedic Principles,
and Chakras
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which approach uses pressure and manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including
the electromagnetic or energetic field in and surrounding the body?
a. Ayurveda
b. Hellerwork
c. Asian bodywork therapy
d. Trigger point therapy
ANS: C
The American Organization for Bodywork Therapies of Asia (AOBTA) defines Asian
bodywork therapy (ABT) as the use of pressure and manipulation to treat the body, mind, and
spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surrounding the body.
2. Which concept is part of all types of Asian bodywork therapy?

a. Herbs
b. Energy
c. Exercise
d. Acupuncture
ANS: B
The American Organization for Bodywork Therapies of Asia (AOBTA) defines Asian
bodywork therapy (ABT) as TEthe
STuse
BAof
NKpressure
SELLEand R.manipulation
COM to treat the body, mind, and
spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surrounding the body.
3. Which type of bodywork has Asian origins?

a. Shiatsu
b. Hellerwork
c. Lymphatic massage
d. Trigger point therapy
ANS: A
Many methods share the same Asian origins. For example, shiatsu originates from Japan,
amma from Korea, Tui na from China, and other styles such as acupressure, Chi Nei Tsang,
Jin Shin Do, Jin Shin Jyutsu, and so forth.
4. Which term is Chinese for the concept of energy or life force?

a. Ki
b. Chi
c. Prana
d. Space
ANS: B
Energy or life force is called qi, chi, or ch’i in Chinese, ki in Japanese, and ojas in Sanskrit.
5. Which term is Japanese for the concept of energy or life force?
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a. Ki
b. Chi
c. Prana
d. Space
ANS: A
Energy or life force is called qi, chi, or ch’i in Chinese, ki in Japanese, and ojas in Sanskrit.
6. Which term means the symbol used to represent yin and yang?
a. Fu
b. Zang
c. Tai Ji
d. Tsubo
ANS: C
The Tai Ji symbol represents yin and yang formed by a complete circle and means
completeness.
7. Which aspect is considered more yang?

a. Light
b. Cold
c. Earth
d. Moist
ANS: A
The Yang or sunny side of the hill, has more light, warmth, activity, and so movement exists.
Plants grow easily and have foliage and seeds that attract insects and birds.
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8. Which aspect is considered more yin?
a. Dry
b. Light
c. Exterior
d. Cool
ANS: D
The Yin or shadowy side of the hill is darker, the temperature is cooler, plants grow more
slowly, more dampness can be found, and less overall activity exists compared with the sunny
side.
9. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yang imbalance?

a. Dull
b. Deep
c. Cold
d. Agitation
ANS: D
Pain as a manifestation of a yang imbalance is a feeling of heat, agitation, and restlessness; the
area appears red, is warm to touch, and feels hard and inflamed. The pain is often sharp, can
move around, and is frequently found in the upper part of the body.
10. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yin imbalance?

a. Heat
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b. Inflamed
c. Weakness
d. Restlessness
ANS: C
Pain as a manifestation of a yin imbalance is a feeling of cold, weakness, weight, and
lethargy; the pain is dull rather than sharp, and feels deep. The skin is discolored or dark, and
it feels good to the client if the area is touched directly.
11. Which term means the pathways in the body through which energy circulates?
a. Dhatus
b. Doshas
c. Tsubos
d. Channels
ANS: D
Channels or meridians are pathways in the body through which energy circulates.
12. Which channel pair is associated with the metal element?

a. Stomach and Spleen
b. Lung and Large Intestine
c. Heart and Small Intestine
d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney
ANS: B
Lung and Large Intestine channels are associated with the metal element.
13. Which channel pair is associated

TESTB with
ANthe water
KSE LLEelement?
R.COM
a. Stomach and Spleen
b. Lung and Large Intestine
ANS: D
Urinary Bladder and Kidney channels are associated with the water element.
14. Which channel pair is associated with the fire element?

a. Stomach and spleen
b. Lung and Large intestine
ANS: C
Heart and Small Intestine channels are associated with the fire element.
15. Which channel is yin?

a. Spleen
b. Stomach
c. Small Intestine
d. Large Intestine
ANS: A
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Spleen channel is yin.
16. Which channel is yang?

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Kidney
d. Gallbladder
ANS: D
Gallbladder channel is yang.
17. Which channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face?
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Spleen
d. Stomach
ANS: D
Stomach channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face.
18. Heart Protector channel ends on which finger?

a. Ring
b. Little
c. Index
d. Middle
ANS: D
Heart Protector channel ends
TEon
STthe
BAmiddle
NKSEL finger.
LER.COM
19. Which term means specific points located along channels where energy concentrates and
surfaces?
a. Phases
b. Cycles
c. Tsubos
d. Doshas
ANS: C
Along the channels are points called tsubos or acupoints, although acupoint is more of an
acupuncture term. These are where energy concentrates and surfaces.
20. Which term means a tsubo that feels depleted of ki?

a. Kyo
b. Jitsu
c. Prana
d. Dosha
ANS: A
Kyo means empty, yin, depleted, or not enough ki.
21. Which term means a tsubo that feels full of ki?

a. Kyo
b. Jitsu
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c. Prana
d. Dosha
ANS: B
Jitsu means full, yang, excessive, or too much ki.
22. Which organ system is zang?

a. Liver
b. Stomach
c. Gallbladder
d. Small Intestine
ANS: A
Zang are the yin organ systems: Heart, Liver, Lungs, Kidney, Heart Protector, and Spleen.
They tend to be solid organs.
23. Which organ system is fu?

a. Heart
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Kidney
ANS: B
Fu are the yang organ systems: Small Intestine, Gallbladder, Large Intestine, Bladder, Triple
Heater, and Stomach. They tend to be hollow organs.
24. Which elements are the five phases?

a. Air, fire, water, spirit, and
TESearth
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b. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air
c. Earth, water, fire, space, and metal
d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water
ANS: D
The five phases, or elements, are wood, fire, earth, metal, and water.
25. What color is associated with the wood phase?

a. Red
b. White
c. Green
d. Yellow
ANS: C
Green, the color of foliage at its peak, is the color associated with the wood phase.
26. What emotion is associated with the water element?

a. Joy
b. Fear
c. Grief
d. Anger
ANS: B
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The bones, bone marrow, teeth, central nervous system, ears, hearing, the emotion of fear,
winter, black or dark blue color, urine, groaning sounds, and craving for salty foods are all
correspondences to the water phase.
27. Which cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next phase?
a. Control
b. Creative
c. Insulting
d. Overacting
ANS: B
The creative or generative cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next
phase in line.
28. Which method is a main one used to evaluate energetic imbalances?

a. Needling
b. Listening
c. Influencing
d. Documenting
ANS: B
The main assessment methods used to evaluate energetic imbalances are looking, listening
and smelling, palpating, and asking.
29. Which method is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy that uses pressure along channels to
restore, maintain, or balance the flow of energy?
a. Polarity
b. Shiatsu TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Acupuncture
d. Ayurveda
ANS: B
Shiatsu is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy that uses pressure along the energy channels to
restore, maintain, or balance the flow of ki.
30. What does the term “shiatsu” literally mean?

a. Pray always
b. Finger pressure
c. Hollow like a flute
d. Healing through touch
ANS: B
The term “shiatsu” literally means “finger (shi) pressure (atsu),” but hands, elbows, knees, and
feet are also used, along with, when appropriate, joint mobilizations and stretches.
31. Which principle is part of Zen shiatsu?

a. Move from the hara
b. Practice grace always
c. Wear comfortable clothes
d. Use organic products only
ANS: A
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The principles of Zen Shiatsu are relaxation; use of body weight, not force; move from the
hara; use two-handed connection; stationary, perpendicular penetration; project of ki; and
continuity.
32. What is the hara is the body’s center of?

a. Solar plexus
b. Focused power and energy
c. The governing vessel
d. The gallbladder channel
ANS: B
The hara, or abdomen, is the body’s center of focused power and energy.
33. Where is the tanden located?

a. Along the lateral aspect of the tibia
b. Inch or two below and behind the navel
c. Inch or two above the center of the brow
d. Two cun below and behind the heart chakra
ANS: B
Within the hara is the tanden, the sea of ki located an inch or two below and behind the navel.
34. What are the two main techniques used in shiatsu?

a. Palming and thumbing
b. Tapotement and traction
c. Effleurage and pétrissage
d. Stretches and joint mobilizations
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ANS: A
The two main techniques used in Zen shiatsu are palming and thumbing.
35. Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from where toward where?
a. Head toward the chest
b. Arms toward the chest
c. Sacrum toward the feet
d. Sacrum toward the chest
ANS: C
Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from the sacrum to the feet.
36. Which term means palpating the client’s abdomen to assess reflex areas of the channels?
a. Gua sha
b. Tanden
c. Hara evaluation
d. Mother hand positioning
ANS: C
Palpating the client’s abdomen to assess reflex areas of the channels is called hara evaluation.
37. What finding is the aim of hara evaluation?

a. Angle of pressure and apply force until the energy flow is balanced
b. Fundamental source of ki flow and synchronize it with the chakras
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c. Source of highest ki energy and project it toward the client’s third eye
d. Kyo-jitsu pair of channels that will be the focus of the client’s treatment
ANS: D
The aim of hara evaluation is to find the kyo-jitsu pair of channels that will be the focus of the
client’s treatment. Working the kyo and jitsu pair of channels is the fastest and most direct
way to balance the client’s whole system.
38. Which method is a form of Asian bodywork that consists of stretching and compressive
techniques along energy pathways and on points to balance energy and restore health?
a. Reiki
b. Thai massage
c. Polarity
ANS: B
Thai massage is a form of Asian bodywork therapy that consists of stretching and
compressive massage techniques along energy pathways and on points to balance energy and
restore health.
39. What is Thai massage called in Thailand?

a. Tui na
b. Jin shin do
c. Chi nei tsang
d. Nuad bo’rarn
ANS: D
In Thailand, Thai massageTisEcalled
STBAnuad
NKSbo’rarn.
ELLERNuad.COM is Thai for “to touch with the
intention of imparting healing.” Bo’rarn is Sanskrit for “something that is ancient and
revered.”
40. Which term means the body’s energy pathways in Thai massage?
a. Sen
b. Chee
c. Nadis
d. Dosha
ANS: A
Like the healing traditions of China and Japan, the Thai massage system postulates that the
body possess energy pathways called Sen.
41. Which concept is one of the Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy?
a. Active listening
b. Respect and reverence
c. Vicarious joy and happiness
d. The truth and nothing but the truth
ANS: C
The Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy are (1) loving kindness, (2)
compassion, (3) mental equanimity, and (4) vicarious joy and happiness.
42. Which technique sequence often used during Thai massage?
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a. 1-2-3-4-5
b. 1-2-3-2-1
c. 1-2-1-2-1
d. 1-2-3-4-5-6
ANS: B
Often during treatment, techniques are performed in the sequence 1-2-3-2-1. This pattern
sequence is very rhythmic and soothing and is repeated at various locations on the body
during a Thai massage session.
43. Which approach is a Hindu system of medicine designed to maintain or improve health
through dietary modification, massage, yoga, and herbal preparations?
a. Shiatsu
b. Ayurveda
c. Thai massage
d. Lymphatic massage
ANS: B
Ayurveda is India’s traditional healing modality and one of the world’s oldest healing systems
currently practiced. It is the Hindu system of medicine designed to maintain or improve health
through measures such as diet, massage, yoga, and use of herbal preparations.
44. What are the five basic elements in Ayurveda?

a. Earth, air, fire, water, and space
b. Air, fire, water, spirit, and metal
c. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air
d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water
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ANS: A
According to Ayurveda, the five elements are earth, air, fire, water, and space (or ether).
45. Which definition is related to the Sanskrit word “dosha?”

a. Fault or defect
b. Container or vase
c. Life force or energy
d. The sunny side of the hill
ANS: A
The Sanskrit word dosha means a “fault” or “defect.”
46. What are the tri-doshas called?

a. One, two, and three
b. Vata, pitta, and kapha
c. Heaven, earth, and hades
d. Wood, metal, and earth
ANS: B
The tri-doshas are called vata, pitta, and kapha.
47. Which dosha means wind and is composed of the elements air and space?
a. Pitta
b. Vata
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c. Mala
d. Kapha
ANS: B
In Ayurveda, vata means wind and is composed of the elements air and space.
48. Which dosha means bile and is composed of the elements fire and water or just fire?
a. Pitta
b. Vata
c. Mala
d. Kapha
ANS: A
Pitta, or bile, is made up of the elements fire and water or, according to some sources, just
fire.
49. Which dosha means phlegm and is made up of the elements of earth and water?
a. Pitta
b. Vata
c. Mala
d. Kapha
ANS: D
Kapha means phlegm and is made up of the elements of earth and water.
50. Which Ayurvedic term means a person’s unique natural constitution, determined at the
moment of conception and remaining until death?
a. Vayu TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Prakriti
c. Meridian
d. Shleshman
ANS: B
A person’s unique natural constitution is called prakriti and is determined at the moment of
conception and remains until death.
51. According to Ayurveda, which aspect is one of the four factors that influences an individual’s
constitutional type?
a. Mother
b. City of birth
c. Family birth order
d. Natal astrological sign
ANS: A
The four factors that influence a person’s constitutional type are (1) the father, (2) the mother
(particularly her food intake), (3) the womb, and (4) the season of the year they were born.
52. According to Ayurveda, which term means the channels in the body where prana energy
flows?
a. Sen
b. Chee
c. Nadis
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d. Dosha
ANS: C
Similar to the traditional channels of traditional Chines medicine, the nadis are channels in the
body where prana energy flows.
53. Which term means energy centers in the body that located along a central channel or
sushumna?
a. Rasas
b. Dhatus
c. Chakras
d. Prakriti
ANS: C
Chakras are the energy centers in the body located along a central channel or sushumna.
54. Which number refers to the root chakra?

a. First
b. Second
c. Fifth
d. Seventh
ANS: A
The first chakra is also called the root chakra.
55. Which element corresponds to the first chakra?

a. Air
b. Fire TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Earth
d. Water
ANS: C
The element of the first chakra is earth.
56. Which chakra is the fourth one?

a. Root
b. Brow
c. Heart
d. Sacral
ANS: C
The fourth chakra is also called the heart chakra.
57. Which chakra is represented by the color orange?

a. Root
b. Brow
c. Heart
d. Sacral
ANS: D
The color orange is representative of the sacral chakra.
58. Which element corresponds to the solar plexus chakra?
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a. Air
b. Fire
c. Earth
d. Water
ANS: B
The element of the solar plexus chakra is fire.
59. Which number refers to the throat chakra?

a. First
b. Second
c. Fifth
d. Seventh
ANS: C
The fifth chakra is also called the throat chakra.
60. Where is the seventh chakra located?

a. The top of the skull
b. The base of the spine
c. Between the eyebrows
d. Below the sternum and above the navel
ANS: A
The seventh chakra, or crown chakra, is located on the top of the skull.
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Chapter 17: Business, Marketing, Accounting, and Finance

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement describes most massage therapists according to the American Massage
Therapy Association?
a. Most are independent contractors
b. Few are older than 30 years of age
c. Those working in franchises make the most money per hour
d. They chose massage therapy as their primary career
ANS: A
Fifty-eight percent of massage therapists describe themselves as sole practitioners with 21%
stating they are independent contractors (American Massage Therapy Association [AMTA],
2017a).
2. Which reason is the major cause of business failures in general?

a. Incompetence
b. Acquired disability
c. Professional burnout
d. Staff conflict
ANS: A
A study conducted by the University of Tennessee found that “incompetence” was the major
cause of business failures in general.
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3. Which aspect of business protects the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice to
qualified individuals who have met specific qualifications?
a. Occupational license
b. Sales tax permit
c. Professional liability insurance
d. Professional license
ANS: D
Professional licensure seeks to protect the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice
to qualified individuals who have met specific qualifications in education, work experience,
and passing competency exams such as the Massage and Bodywork Licensing Examination or
MBLEx issued by the Federation of State Massage Boards.
4. Which type of insurance protects service-providing professionals from bearing the full cost of
defending against a negligence claim made by a client?
a. Disability
b. Health care
c. General liability
d. Professional liability
ANS: D
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Professional liability insurance is a form of liability insurance which helps protect

service-providing professionals and companies from bearing the full cost of defending against
a negligence claim made by a client, and damages awarded in a lawsuit.
5. What is another term for professional liability insurance?

a. Health insurance
b. Disability insurance
c. Malpractice insurance
d. General liability insurance
ANS: C
Professional liability insurance is also called malpractice insurance and errors and omission
(E&O) insurance.
6. Which type of insurance provides income when an individual is unable to work because of
illness or injury?
a. Disability
b. Health care
c. General liability
ANS: A
Disability insurance is a form of insurance that provides beneficiary’s income in the event that
a disability created a barrier that prevented individuals from completing a core activity
associated with their work.
7. What is the minimum number of hours per week an employee needs to work to be considered
full-time? TESTBANKSELLER.COM
a. 20
b. 28
c. 38
d. 43
ANS: C
Full-time employees usually work 38-hours or more per week and part-time employees work
fewer hours.
8. If a massage therapist works at a place that provides the setting and equipment and determines
when the therapist works and for how long, what is the therapist classified as?
a. Employee
b. Self-employed
c. Sole proprietor
d. Independent contractor
ANS: A
In any type of employment, the employer usually determines the hours of the day and days of
the week of employment. Employers generally provide the place for massage services to be
given to clients, the tools and materials required to perform the services, exercise some
control over services such as the time of service and length of time spent providing each
service, and the fee the client pays for services rendered. In addition, the employer is
responsible for the collection of all taxes and provides compensation to the employees.
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9. Which term means a massage therapist who works under terms specified in a written or verbal
agreement, provides own tools and equipment, and sets the fee for services?
a. Sole proprietor
b. Independent contractor
c. Casual employee
d. Contract employee
ANS: B
Self-employed individuals are usually considered independent contractors, or persons who
provide goods or services to another under terms specified in a contract or within a verbal
agreement. Independent contractors have special skills, training, or licensure that allows
operation without supervision, and they often provide their own tools and equipment.
Independent contractors generally provide services in more than one location and cannot be
required to sign a non-compete agreement. Self-employed individuals receive a fee based on a
completion of a task and the fee is usually determined by the independent contractor, not the
individual who is receiving the service, or the business who contracted independent provider.
10. Which document is a brief summary of an individual’s education, experience, and

accomplishments related to a particular skill set?
a. License
b. Résumé
c. Contract
d. Proposal
ANS: B
A resume is a brief summary of an individual’s education, experiences, and accomplishments
related to a particular skill Tset.
ESResumes
TBANKS ELtypically
are LER.ConeOMpage in length and usually organized
in reverse chronologic order with the most current events listed first.
11. Which document is an in-depth account of an individual’s education, experience,

accomplishments, and is organized in reverse chronological order?
a. License
b. Résumé
c. Contract
d. Curriculum vitae
ANS: D
Curriculum vitae (CVs) are an in-depth account of education, experiences, and
accomplishments and are also organized in reverse chronological order. CVs are often longer
in length compared to resumes.
12. What do the majority of employers look for on resumes and curriculum vitae?
a. Technique skills
b. Superior knowledge base
c. Leadership skills
d. Ability to work independently
ANS: C
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What more than 80% of employers are looking for on resumes and CVs is evidence of
leadership skills and indications that the candidate works well in a team, according to survey
conducted by the National Association of Colleges and Employers (2016).
13. Which type of interview involves being questioned by different individuals within a
company?
a. Sequential
b. Screening
c. Electronic
d. Panel
ANS: A
Sequential interviews are when the applicant is interviewed by different individuals within a
company, sometimes within the same day.
14. Which type of business is that of a single owner?

a. S-corporation
b. Sole proprietorship
c. General partnership
d. Limited partnership
ANS: B
A sole proprietorship is a business of a single owner, with no legal distinction between the
business and the owner.
15. Which business entity is between two or more individuals who join together to carry on a
business venture for profit, and have unlimited personal liability for the business’s debts?
a. S-corporation TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. General partnership
c. Sole proprietorship
d. Limited liability
ANS: B
General partnerships are an agreement between two or more individuals who join together to
carry on a business venture for profit. Each partner contributes money, property, labor, or
skill, and each partner shares in the business’s profits and losses. Additionally, partners have
unlimited personal liability for the business’s debts.
16. Which business entity is granted a charter by the state and has its own privileges and liabilities
distinct from those of its board of directors or its shareholders?
a. Corporation
b. Sole proprietorship
c. General partnership
d. Limited partnership
ANS: A
Corporations are legal entities that are granted a charter by the state in which it operates and
who has its own privileges and liabilities distinct from those of its board of directors or its
shareholders.
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17. Which term means dividing geographic areas into regions so a city can restrict the number and
types of buildings within the region as well as how these buildings are used?
a. Zoning
b. Distributing
c. Licensure
d. Certification
ANS: A
Zoning is dividing of geographic areas into zones so a city or municipality can restrict the
number of and types of buildings within the zone as well as how these buildings are used.
18. Which type of insurance protects businesses from bearing the full cost of defending against
claims for damages that arise from personal injury and property damage while clients are on
the premises?
a. Disability
b. Health care
c. Commercial general liability
ANS: C
Commercial general liability (CGL) insurance is a type of liability insurance that helps protect
business from bearing the full cost of defending against claims for damages resulting from
negligence associated with property and day-to-day business operations. Example include
bodily injuries when a client slips and falls in the office or property damage when a tree limb
falls and damages a client’s car. Commercial general liability insurance is also called premises
insurance.
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19. Which expense is a tax deduction?
a. Vacation travel
b. Leisure clothing
c. Continuing education
d. Meals eaten during work time
ANS: C
Continuing education is a tax deduction.
20. Business receipts, past income tax returns, and documents related to tax returns should be kept
for a minimum of how many years?
a. Three
b. Five
c. Seven
d. Nine
ANS: A
Generally, business records that support an item of income, deduction, or credit shown on
your tax return must be kept until the period of limitations for that tax return runs out. The
minimum period the IRS says these documents should be kept is 3 years.
21. Which type of tax is levied on small business owners who derive income directly from
consumers?
a. Income
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b. Self-employment
c. Sales
d. Corporate
ANS: B
Self-employment taxes are taxes levied on small business owners who derive income directly
from consumers as opposed to individuals who are an employee.
22. Which aspect of business involves adding up all costs and profits then dividing this amount by
the number of billable hours?
a. Insurance cost
b. Hourly expenses
c. Social security tax
d. Hourly rate
ANS: D
To determine an hourly rate, Fishman suggests adding up all costs (labor/salary and overhead)
and profits, then dividing this amount by the number of billable hours.
23. Which term means the exchange of goods or services without using money?
a. Asset
b. Equity
c. Barter
d. Cash flow
ANS: C
Bartering is the exchange of goods or services. Bartering does not include exchanges made on
a noncommercial basis. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
24. Which term means a small gift, such as money, given to a person who provided a service?
a. Gratuity
b. Debt
c. Capital
d. Deduction
ANS: A
Tips or gratuities are discretionary (optional or extra) payments which are given to the
therapist as determined by the customer (IRS, 2018c). Tips can be cash or noncash, the latter
encompassing gifts such as tickets or gift cards.
25. Which type of conflict management involves listening in a respectful manner, being specific,
and asking for the solution?
a. Avoidance
b. Competing
c. Sympathetic
d. Empathetic
ANS: D
Steinbrecher recommends an empathetic approach that involves six simple steps to manage
conflict. These are 1. Discuss the situation in a respectful manner. 2. Be specific. 3. Discuss
how the problem that lead to the conflict impacted you. 4. Ask for the specific cause of the
conflict. 5. Ask for the solution. 6. Agree on the action to be taken.
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26. Which term means activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange offerings
that have value for customers and clients?
a. Media
b. Vision
c. Marketing
d. Citizenship
ANS: C
Marketing is activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange offerings that have
value for customers, clients, and the society at large.
27. Which term means an attempt to influence buying behaviors by persuasive selling messages?
a. Vision
b. Publicity
c. Finances
d. Advertising
ANS: D
Advertising is an attempt to influence buying behaviors of customers or clients by persuasive
selling messages.
28. What is the primary method massage therapists use to promote themselves?
a. Client referral
b. Website
c. Social media
d. Events
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ANS: A
Client referral is the primary method massage therapists promote themselves at 85% followed
by the Internet via websites (59%), social media (55%), community and local events (42%),
and locator services (30%). The vast majority of massage clients seen by therapists were
repeat clients (71%) and majority of massage therapists are actively referring clients to each
other.
29. Which term refers to a statement of why a business exists and its core objectives?
a. Balance sheet
b. Curriculum vitae
c. Mission statement
d. Professional profile
ANS: C
A mission statement is a single statement of why a business exists and its core objectives.
30. Which type of marketing is usually the first opportunity a massage therapist has to make a
strong impression?
a. Business card
b. Facebook
c. Website
d. Blog
ANS: A
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Business cards are often the first item prospective clients receive, so your business cards are
the first opportunity you have to make a strong impression.
31. Which type of marketing is the center of a business’s digital or online presence?
a. Blog
b. Facebook
c. Instagram
d. Website
ANS: D
Websites are places on the Internet where one or more pages of information are located.
Websites are vital to businesses and for good reasons. We live in a digital world, a website is
the center of a business’s digital or online presence, and consumers use digital devices
connected to the Internet to locate products and services.
32. Which term means the responsible and ethical use of technology?
a. Limited liability
b. Mission statement
c. Digital citizenship
ANS: C
Digital citizenship is the responsible and ethical use of technology. Digital citizens within
virtual communities should treat others with dignity and respect when interacting with others.
33. Which type of marketing is considered word-of-mouth?

a. Keeping a website up to date
TESTBAtoNaKfriend
b. A client giving a gift certificate SELLER.COM
c. A blog that has useful information
d. Handing out a business card
ANS: B
Most often, people who purchase and give gift cards are clients and, because they enjoy the
service, they want to share it with others. This is a word-of-mouth advertising.
34. Short professional profiles are how many words or less?

a. 30
b. 60
c. 100
d. 500
ANS: C
Short profiles are approximately one paragraph in length using 100 words or less. It covers all
essential information; something you might use on LinkedIn.
35. Which process is voluntary and involves specialists in a particular field examining and
endorsing the qualifications of a professional?
a. State licensure
b. Board licensure
c. State registration
d. Board certification
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ANS: D
Board certification is the examining and endorsing of the qualifications of a professional by a
board of specialty in a particular field. The process is voluntary and different than the process
for licensure, which sets the minimum competency requirement to practice massage therapy
and is not specialty specific.
36. Which term means an experienced individual within a facility who is paired with a newly
hired individual during his or her orientation period?
a. Preceptor
b. Mentor
c. Sole proprietor
ANS: A
In health care industries, a preceptor is an experienced individual within the facility who is
paired with a newly hired individual during his or her orientation period. A preceptor teaches
the new therapist about the company’s policies and procedures, and helps with the acquisition
of skills related to the position.
37. Which term means a written or spoken agreement that usually involves business relationships,
and are intended to be legally binding and enforceable by law?
a. License
b. Résumé
c. Contract
d. Proposal
ANS: C
TESTagreements
Contracts are written or spoken BANKSEL LEusually
that R.COM involve business relationships, and
are intended to be legally binding and enforceable by law.
38. Which term means an idea or suggestion put forward for consideration?
a. License
b. Résumé
c. Contract
d. Proposal
ANS: D
Proposals are plans or suggestions put forward for consideration and discussion.
39. Which term means the recording and reporting of financial transactions?
a. Inventory
b. Marketing
c. Accounting
d. Depreciation
ANS: C
Accounting is the recording and reporting of financial transactions, including transaction
origination and summarization in financial statements.
40. Which term refers to a small amount of money that a business keeps on hand to pay for minor
business expenses?
a. Cash flow
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b. Liabilities
c. Petty cash
d. Accounts receivable
ANS: C
Petty cash is a small amount of cash that a business keeps on hand to pay for minor business
expenses.
41. Which term means a presentation of a business entity’s assets, liabilities, and equities of its
owners on a specific date?
a. Balance sheet
b. Accounts payable
c. Accounts receivable
d. Profit and loss statement
ANS: A
A balance sheet, also called a statement of financial condition, is a presentation of a business
entity’s assets, liabilities, and equities of its owners on a specific date.
42. Which term means economic resources that are expected to be of benefit in the future?
a. Assets
b. Taxes
c. Loans
d. Liabilities
ANS: A
Assets are economic resources that are expected to be of benefit in the future and to which the
business or owners have a Tlegal
ESTclaim;
BANKthese
SELcanLEbe
R.tangible
COM or intangible items. Examples of
tangible assets include property, equipment, and inventory.
43. Which example is a business asset?

a. Taxes owed
b. Rent and utilities
c. Money borrowed from a bank
d. Property and equipment
ANS: D
Examples of tangible assets include property, equipment, and inventory.
44. Which document reports movement of money into and out of a business during a period of
time?
a. Balance sheet
b. Accounts receivable
c. Cash flow statement
d. Mission statement
ANS: C
A cash flow statement reports the movement of cash provided to the company (moving into
the company) and the movement of cash used by the company (moving out of the company)
during a period of time such as a month, quarterly (every 3 months), or annually (every 12
months).
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45. Which term means a business’s net worth?

a. Equity
b. Capital
c. Asset
d. Income
ANS: A
Equity is a business’s net worth and is derived by deducting liabilities from assets (Assets –
Liabilities = Equity). Equity, or capital, belongs to the shareholders or owners of the
company.
46. Which document is a statement that shows income and expenses and indicates whether a
business made money or not?
a. Balance sheet
b. Accounts receivable
c. Cash flow statement
d. Profit and loss statement
ANS: D
A profit and loss (P&L) statement reports a business’s profits or revenues and losses or
expenses during a particular period of time.
47. Which document describes a company’s or individual’s organization, services and products,
marketing strategy, and financial projections?
a. Business plan
b. Treatment plan
c. Liability insurance
d. Social networking sitesTESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
A business plan is a document that describes a business’s organization, services and products,
marketing strategy, management style, and financial projections, as well as future plans and
strategies for achieving them.
48. In which part of the business plan is the mission statement?

a. Company description
b. Executive summary
c. Market analysis
d. Funding request
ANS: B
The executive summary briefly states the background of the company, where it is today,
where it is headed and why it will be successful or more successful in the future. It Includes a
mission statement, products/services, basic information about the company’s organization,
and location.
49. In which part of the business plan is the company’s legal structure discussed?
b. Executive summary
c. Organization and management
d. Appendix
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ANS: C
In the organization and management section, discuss the company’s legal structure (business
entity) and who will run it. Include an organizational chart if applicable. Also, provide a
professional profile of key members that includes their qualifications, experience, and
education that are important to their role in the company.
50. In which part of the business plan are credit histories, resumes, and copies of licenses and
certifications?
b. Organization and management
c. Marketing and sales
d. Appendix
ANS: D
Use your appendix to provide supporting documents or other materials where specifically
requested. Common items included are personal and business credit histories, resumes and
CVs, images of products, references, copies of licenses and certifications, legal documents,
insurance policies, and contracts and contact information for consultants.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to the Human Body: Medical Terminology, Cells, Tissues,
and the Body Compass
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means the study of the structures of the human body and their positional
relationships to one another?
a. Anatomy
b. Pathology
c. Physiology
d. Craniotomy
ANS: A
Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body and their positional relationships to
one another.
2. Which term means the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal body
processes?
a. Anatomy
b. Pathology
c. Physiology
d. Craniotomy
ANS: C
Physiology is the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal body
processes. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
3. Which term means the study of disease?

a. Anatomy
b. Pathology
c. Physiology
d. Craniotomy
ANS: B
Pathology or pathophysiology is the study of disease.
4. Which term means the tendency of the body’s internal environment to remain relatively
constant with a narrow range of change?
a. Anatomy
b. Hemostasis
c. Physiology
d. Homeostasis
ANS: D
Homeostasis is the tendency of the body’s internal environment to remain relatively constant
with a narrow range of change.
5. Which prefix means within or inside?

a. Dors-
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b. Endo-
c. Epi-
d. Histo-
ANS: B
Endo- means within or inside, as in endometrium or endocardium.
6. Which suffix means cell?

a. -blast
b. -cele
c. -clast
d. -cyte
ANS: D
-cyte means cell, as in hemocyte or osteocyte.
7. Which suffix means pain?

a. -algia
b. -emia
c. -itis
d. -plasia
ANS: A
-algia means pain, as in fibromyalgia or neuralgia.
8. Which sequence represents how the body is organized from least complex to most?
a. Cells, tissues, membranes, organs, organ systems, organism
b. Chemicals, cells, tissues,
TEorgans,
STBANorgan
KSEsystems,
LLER.C organism
OM
c. Cells, chemicals, organs, tissues, organ systems
d. Chemicals, molecules, tissues, cells, organism
ANS: B
The human body can be regarded as a universe made up of small components organized to
function as a unit. This organization follows a hierarchy based on levels of complexity. The
levels from least complex to most complex are chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system,
and organism.
9. Which term means the inner region of an organ or structure?

a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Ipsilateral
d. Transverse
ANS: A
The medulla is the inner region of an organ or structure.
10. Which term means the space within a hollow or tubular structure, such as an artery or
intestine?
a. Cortex
b. Lumen
c. Ipsilateral
d. Transverse
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ANS: B
Lumen is the space with a hollow or tubular structure.
11. The heart, stomach, and brain are examples of which level of organization?
a. Cellular
b. Tissue
c. Organ
d. System
ANS: C
The organ level is composed of intricate structures containing of two or more tissue types that
perform specialized functions. Examples of organs are the heart, kidney, brain, lung, and
stomach.
12. Which component is the smallest structural and functional unit that can exist as a
self-sustaining entity?
a. Cell
b. Atom
c. Particle
d. Molecule
ANS: A
The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit that can exist as a self-sustaining entity.
13. Which structure separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid and functions like a
semipermeable filter?
a. Golgi apparatus
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b. Cytoplasm
c. Mitochondrion
d. Cell membrane
ANS: D
Each cell is surrounded by a cell membrane that separates intracellular fluid from extracellular
fluid. The cell membrane is semipermeable, like a filter, and may contain openings that
function like gates in a fence and allows some materials to pass freely and blocks passage of
others.
14. Which term is another name for intracellular fluid?

a. Nucleus
b. Cytoplasm
c. Mitochondrion
d. Cytoskeleton
ANS: B
Cells contain a gel-like intracellular fluid called cytoplasm.
15. Which organelle is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows found near the center of
a cell that helps transport materials?
a. Nucleus
b. Golgi body
c. Mitochondrion
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d. Endoplasmic reticulum
ANS: D
The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows found near
the center of a cell. This organelle helps transport cellular materials.
16. Which organelle provides adenosine triphosphate and cellular energy?

a. Nucleus
b. Golgi body
c. Mitochondrion
ANS: C
Mitochondria are the cell’s “power plant,” because most of the chemical reactions involved in
cellular respiration happen here. These reactions provide most of the cell’s adenosine
triphosphate (ATP), which is the cell’s energy molecule.
17. Which organelle breaks down unneeded proteins and pathogens by engulfing and destroying
them using digestive enzymes?
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
c. Mitochondrion
d. Ribosome
ANS: B
Lysosomes are the cell’s janitors or “garbage disposals.” They break down proteins that are
not needed and engulf and destroy pathogens using digestive enzymes.
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18. Which organelle is the control center of the cell, directing most metabolic activities?
a. Nucleus
b. Golgi body
c. Mitochondrion
ANS: A
The nucleus is the cell’s “control center” or its brains because it directs most metabolic
activities, including growth and reproduction.
19. Which part is the network of microfilaments and microtubules that provides an internal
structure to many cells?
a. Cytosol
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Plasma membrane
d. Cytoskeleton
ANS: D
Many cells contain a network of microfilaments and microtubules called a cytoskeleton. This
network serves as scaffolding material to provide an internal structure to the cell.
20. What are fingerlike cellular extensions called?

a. Cilia
b. Flagella
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c. Spinoza
d. Microvilli
ANS: D
Microvilli are fingerlike projections on the lining of the lower gastrointestinal (GI) tract to
help increase its surface area which improves absorption of nutrients.
21. Which process is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of
low concentration?
a. Osmosis
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: C
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration. During diffusion, molecules simply spread out, or diffuse, in a given space or
across a cell membrane.
22. Which process is movement of water across a membrane from an area of low concentration to
high concentration to equalize the fluid concentration on both sides of the membrane?
a. Osmosis
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: A
Osmosis is the movement T ofEwater
STBA across
NKSE aL
cell
LEmembrane
R.COM from an area of low concentration
to high concentration to equalize the fluid concentration on both sides of the membrane.
Water moves instead of other molecules to create equilibrium.
23. Which process is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due to
pressure?
a. Osmosis
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: B
Filtration is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due to pressure.
24. Which type of transport involves carrier molecules within the membrane that facilitate active
transport?
a. Osmosis
b. Filtration
c. Cell respiration
d. Pump mechanisms
ANS: D
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Pump mechanisms can facilitate active transport. These pumps are carrier molecules located
within the cell membrane. Because of their location, carrier molecules are also called
membrane pumps. The carrier molecule functions like a clamshell. When a certain ion binds
to a carrier molecule, the shell closes, the ion is carried inside, then the shell opens on the
other side of the membrane to expel the ion.
25. Which process involves a piece of the cell membrane wrapping around large molecules and
drawing them inside the cell?
a. Osmosis
b. Filtration
c. Diffusion
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: D
During phagocytosis or cell eating, a piece of the cell membrane is wrapped around large
molecules and they are drawn inside the cell.
26. Which term means groups of similar cells that act together to perform specific functions?
a. Organs
b. Tissues
c. Molecules
d. Organelles
ANS: B
Tissues are groups of similar cells that act together to perform specific functions. Tissues
organize themselves into organs.
27. Which terms represent theT EST

four BANKStypes
principal ELLof
ERtissues?
.COM
a. Alpha, beta, delta, and theta
b. Heart, lung, brain, and kidney
c. Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
d. Epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous
ANS: D
There are four principal types of tissue: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue,
and nervous tissue.
28. Which type of fluid is found in extracellular spaces between tissues?

a. Amniotic
b. Interstitial
c. Lymphatic
d. Peritoneal
ANS: B
Interstitial fluid is found in the extracellular spaces between tissues. It bathes cells and
provides a transport medium for nutrients, gases, and wastes.
29. Which embryologic tissue layer gives rise to structures of the nervous system, including
special senses and the epidermis of the skin?
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
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c. Mesoderm
d. Echinoderm
ANS: A
Ectoderm is the outermost embryologic tissue layer and gives rise to structures of the nervous
system including special senses and the epidermis of the skin.
30. Which type of tissue covers external and internal structures, and lines open and closed body
cavities?
a. Nervous
b. Muscular
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
ANS: C
Epithelial tissue, or epithelium, lines or covers external and internal body structures; lines
open body cavities, such as the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts; and
closed body cavities, such as the heart and abdomen.
31. Which function does epithelium perform?

a. Motion of parts of the body
b. Insulation for warmth and cushioning
c. Integration of sensory information
d. Secretion of hormones and enzymes
ANS: D
Secretion of hormones, enzymes, mucus, other lubricating fluids occur through epithelium.
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32. Which type of tissue forms the framework for organs and glands, and provides transportation
and defensive functions?
a. Nervous
b. Muscular
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
ANS: D
Connective tissues form the framework for organs and glands and for the body as a whole. It
transports nutrients and wastes, as well as providing defensive functions such as blood
clotting and inflammatory responses. Connective tissue is the most abundant tissue type.
33. Which type of tissue is predominately fat and serves as storage for surplus food and as
insulation to conserve body heat?
a. Adipose
b. Glandular
c. Epithelial
d. Cartilaginous
ANS: A
Adipose tissue is predominately fat and serves as storage for surplus food, as insulation to
conserve body heat, as well as support and protection for certain structures such as the heart,
kidneys, and some joints.
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34. Which type of cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of bones and connects ribs to the
sternum?
a. Elastic
b. Hyaline
c. Reticular
d. Fibrous
ANS: B
Hyaline is the most prevalent type of cartilage and covers the articulating surfaces of bones,
connects ribs to the sternum, and is found as supportive tissues in the nose, ears, trachea, and
smaller respiratory tubes.
35. Which component is a connective tissue?

a. Muscle
b. Nerve
c. Blood
d. Gland
ANS: C
The three types of cartilage are (1) hyaline, (2) fibrocartilage, and (3) elastic.
36. Which type of tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body?
a. Nervous
b. Muscular
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
Muscle tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body. Muscle tissue possesses
properties of excitability or the ability to respond to a stimulus.
37. What are the three types of muscle tissue?

a. Cilia, microvilli, and flagella
b. Smooth, cardiac, and skeletal
c. Hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic
d. Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm
ANS: B
The three types of muscle tissue are smooth or visceral muscle, skeletal muscle, and cardiac
muscle.
38. Which type of muscle tissue is located in the walls of hollow organs and within tubes?
a. Smooth
b. Cardiac
c. Skeletal
d. Parietal
ANS: A
Smooth muscle, also called visceral muscle, is located in the walls of hollow organs, such as
the stomach, bladder, and uterus, and within tubes, such as the intestines and blood vessels.
39. Which type of muscle tissue is attached to bones?
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a. Smooth
b. Cardiac
c. Skeletal
d. Parietal
ANS: C
Skeletal muscle is attached to bones and is the most abundant muscle tissue type. Not only do
skeletal muscles help us move, but they also maintain posture and produce heat.
40. Which type of tissue provides sensory input, motor output, and helps interpret and coordinate
bodily functions?
a. Nervous
b. Muscular
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
ANS: A
Nervous tissue is located in the brain, spinal cord, and within nerves. Nerve cells, or neurons,
transmit nerve impulses, which provide sensory input and motor output, and help interpret and
coordinate bodily functions.
41. What are the processes of tissue repair?

a. Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration
b. Metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism
c. Anaerobic, aerobic, and active transport
d. Inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling
When tissues are damaged by injury or infection, they begin a process of repair and healing.
This involves specific steps beginning with inflammation and, depending on the severity of
the damage, regeneration and remodeling.
42. Which process is characterized by swelling, heat, a loss of function, redness, and pain?
a. Local inflammation
b. Homeostasis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Active transport
ANS: A
Local inflammation, also called acute inflammation, has vascular, cellular, and chemical
components. It involves inflammation contained to a specific area and characterized by
swelling, heat, a loss of function, redness, and pain.
43. Which tissue heals rapidly?

a. Tendon
b. Cartilage
c. Bone
d. Epithelium
ANS: D
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Epithelial tissue has cells that divide rapidly and regenerate the tissue quickly and easily. On
the other end of the spectrum, cartilage repairs slowly because of its lack of blood supply.
Muscle has an extensive blood supply and can heal relatively quickly, whereas bone tissue
takes longer to heal, and tendons and ligaments take even longer because they have a sparse
blood supply.
44. Which membrane lines open body cavities?

a. Mucous
b. Serous
c. Synovial
d. Cutaneous
ANS: A
Mucous membranes line open body cavities.
45. Which membrane lines closed body cavities?

a. Mucous
b. Serous
c. Synovial
d. Cutaneous
ANS: B
Serous membranes line closed body cavities.
46. What are the two layers found in most serous membranes?
a. Cortex and medulla
b. Parietal and visceral
c. Tissue and organ TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Central and peripheral
ANS: B
Serous membranes consist of two layers—a parietal layer and a visceral layer. The parietal
layer covers the walls of body cavities like wallpaper and often adheres to it. The visceral
layer covers the visceral organs located within the body cavity.
47. Which membrane lines cavities or spaces between bones and joints?
a. Mucous
b. Serous
c. Synovial
d. Cutaneous
ANS: C
Synovial membranes line cavities or spaces between bones and joints—mainly freely movable
joints such as the shoulder, hip, and knee. These membranes secrete a thick clear fluid called
synovial fluid or synovium.
48. Which statement describes anatomic position?

a. Lying supine with the palms of the hands flat on the floor
b. Standing with the palms facing forward and the toes pointing forward
c. Standing with the palms facing each other and the toes pointing to the side
d. Lying prone with both feet hip-distance apart, the toes pointing downward
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ANS: B
In anatomic position the body is standing upright and facing forward, the arms are at the sides,
palms are facing forward with the thumbs to the side, and feet are hip distance apart with toes
pointing forward.
49. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
a. Frontal
b. Coronal
c. Transverse
d. Midsagittal
ANS: D
The midsagittal plane runs through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal right and left
halves.
50. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections?
a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Transverse
d. Midsagittal
ANS: A
The frontal plane, or coronal plane, bisects the body side-to-side and divides the body into
anterior and posterior sections.
51. Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections?
a. Frontal
b. Sagittal TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Transverse
d. Midsagittal
ANS: C
The transverse plane or horizontal plane bisects the body horizontally and divides the body
into superior and inferior sections.
52. Which term means situated below or toward the tail end of a structure?
a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Posterior
d. Proximal
ANS: A
Inferior means situated below or toward the tail end of a structure.
53. Where is the mandible in relation to the forehead?

a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Superior
d. Posterior
ANS: A
The mandible is inferior to the forehead.
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54. Which term means located on the back of a structure?

a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Posterior
d. Proximal
ANS: C
Posterior means located on the back of a structure.
55. Where is the heart in relation to the vertebral column?

a. Inferior
b. Anterior
c. Superior
d. Posterior
ANS: B
The heart is anterior to the vertebral column.
56. Which term means oriented toward or near the midline of the body?
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Inferior
d. Superior
ANS: A
Medial means oriented toward or near the midline of the body.
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57. Which term means related to opposite sides of the body?
a. Medial
b. Anterior
c. Ipsilateral
d. Contralateral
ANS: D
Contralateral means related to opposite sides of the body.
58. Where is the wrist in relation to the elbow?

a. Distal
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Proximal
ANS: A
The wrist is distal to the elbow.
59. Which cavities is the dorsal cavity subdivided into?

a. Cranial and spinal
b. Anterior and posterior
c. Abdominal and pelvic
d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic
ANS: A
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The dorsal cavity is located on the backside or posterior aspect of the body and is further
divided into a cranial cavity and a spinal cavity.
60. Which cavities is the ventral cavity subdivided into?

a. Cranial and spinal
b. Anterior and posterior
c. Abdominal and pelvic
d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic
ANS: D
The larger ventral cavity is located on the front side or anterior aspect of the body and is
further divided by the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity.
61. Which cavity contain the reproductive and urinary organs?

a. Pelvic
b. Dorsal
c. Abdominal
d. Thoracic
ANS: A
The pelvic cavity contains the reproductive and urinary organs.
62. Which quadrant contains the gallbladder?

a. Left upper
b. Left lower
c. Right upper
d. Right lower
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ANS: C
The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder.
63. Which term is given to the uppermost central portion of the nine regions of the body?
a. Epigastric
b. Umbilical
c. Right iliac
d. Left lumbar
ANS: A
The uppermost central portion of the nine body regions is the epigastric region.
64. Which term refers to the upper cheek?

a. Costal
b. Orbital
c. Temporal
d. Zygomatic
ANS: D
Zygomatic refers to the region of the upper cheek.
65. Which term refers to the ribs?

a. Costal
b. Buccal
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c. Temporal
d. Zygomatic
ANS: A
Costal refers to the region of the ribs.
66. Which term refers to the armpit?

a. Axillary
b. Brachial
c. Femoral
d. Antecubital
ANS: A
Axillary refers to the armpit.
67. Which term refers to the forearm?

a. Axillary
b. Brachial
c. Femoral
d. Antebrachial
ANS: D
Antebrachial refers to the forearm.
68. Which term refers to the thumb?

a. Pollex
b. Brachial
c. Femoral TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Antecubital
ANS: A
Pollex refers to the thumb.
69. Which terms refers to the thigh?

a. Axillary
b. Brachial
c. Femoral
d. Antebrachial
ANS: C
Femoral refers to the thigh.
70. Which term refers to the fingers or toes?

a. Plantar
b. Calcaneal
c. Dorsum
d. Digital
ANS: D
Digital refers to the fingers or toes.
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Chapter 19: Skeletal System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Where in bone are blood cells produced?

a. Haversian canal
b. Hyaline cartilage
c. Red bone marrow
d. Yellow bone marrow
ANS: C
Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a process
called hematopoiesis.
2. Which term means blood cell production?

a. Hyperemia
b. Hematopoiesis
c. Remodeling
d. Ossification
ANS: B
Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a process
called hematopoiesis.
3. Which term refers to the hard outer shell of a bone?

a. Compact TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Trabecular
c. Cancellous
d. Osteoporotic
ANS: A
Compact bone constitutes approximately 80% of the total adult bone mass and forms the hard
outer shell of bone.
4. What is the central passageway of an osteon that contains the bone’s blood supply and nerves
called?
a. Haversian canal
b. Diaphysis
c. Trebecula
d. Volkmann’s canal
ANS: A
Each osteon surrounds a central canal that runs lengthwise through the bone. The central
canal, also called Haversian canal, contain blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves.
5. Which term refers to the lighter and less dense area of a bone?
a. Compact
b. Spongy
c. Irregular
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d. Sesamoid
ANS: B
Spongy bone, or cancellous bone, constitutes approximately 20% of the total bone mass, and
is lighter and less dense than compact bone.
6. Which cells destroy bone?

a. Fibroblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts
d. Chondroclasts
ANS: B
Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells.
7. Which cells form bone?

a. Fibroblasts
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts
d. Chondroclasts
ANS: C
Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.
8. Which term means the process of bone development?

a. Oscillation
b. Ossification
c. Mobilization TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Colonization
ANS: B
Ossification, or osteogenesis, is the process of bone tissue development by osteoblasts.
9. The bones in the spine are in which category?

a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Sesamoid
ANS: C
Irregular bones are oddly-shaped and do not fit well in other shape/size categories. Irregular
bones are found in the skull and the spine (vertebrae).
10. Which bones are small, rounded, and embedded in tendons?

a. Flat
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Sesamoid
ANS: D
Sesamoid bones are round and usually embedded in tendons. Sesamoid bones are found in the
knee (patella), hands, and feet.
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11. Which term means the long cylindrical shaft of a bone?

a. Meniscus
b. Epiphysis
c. Diaphysis
d. Periosteum
ANS: C
The diaphysis is the long cylindrical shaft of a bone.
12. What term means the dense, fibrous sheath that surrounds the diaphysis?
a. Meniscus
b. Epiphysis
c. Diaphysis
d. Periosteum
ANS: D
The periosteum surrounds the diaphysis and is a dense, fibrous sheath that contains blood and
lymphatic vessels, nerves, and osteoblasts for growth and fracture healing.
13. Which term means the hollow space within the center of the diaphysis?
a. Meniscus
b. Metaphysis
c. Medullary cavity
d. Epiphyseal cavity
ANS: C
The medullary cavity is the hollow space within the diaphysis. It is filled with red and yellow
bone marrow, which are soft
TEsubstances.
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14. Which term means the two ends of a long bone?
a. Bursae
b. Epiphyses
c. Diaphyses
d. Periosteum
ANS: B
The two ends of a long bone are the epiphyses (epiphysis, sing.).
15. What covers the articulating surfaces of bone?

a. Bursae
b. Periosteum
c. Bone marrow
d. Hyaline cartilage
ANS: D
Articular cartilage covers the surfaces of the epiphyses. This type of cartilage is hyaline and
provides the smooth surfaces for movement within joints. Periosteum does not extend over
articular cartilage.
16. Where does bone grow in length?

a. Epiphyseal plate
b. Medullary cavity
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c. Periosteum
d. Diaphysis
ANS: A
In growing bone, an epiphyseal plate of hyaline cartilage is found between the diaphysis and
epiphysis. Bone grows in length at the epiphyseal plate.
17. The skeletal system is divided into which two regions?

a. Acute and chronic
b. Central and peripheral
c. Systemic and regional
d. Axial and appendicular
ANS: D
The skeletal system is divided into the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.
18. How many bones are in the skull?

a. 10
b. 14
c. 29
d. 33
ANS: C
Twenty-nine bones are located in the skull.
19. Which bone is located in the axial skeleton?

a. Femur
b. Radius TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Sternum
d. Metatarsal
ANS: C
The sternum is located in the axial skeleton.
20. Which bone is located in the appendicular skeleton?

a. Skull
b. Sacrum
c. Scapula
d. Sternum
ANS: C
The scapula is located in the appendicular skeleton.
21. Which term means the place where bones come together or join?
a. Diaphysis
b. Periosteum
c. Articulation
d. Hematopoiesis
ANS: C
Joints are where two or more bones come together or “join.” Other terms for joint is
articulation or arthrosis (arthro- means joint).
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22. Which type of joint has extremely limited movement capabilities?

a. Synovial
b. Diarthrotic
c. Synarthrotic
d. Ball and socket
ANS: C
Movement in synarthrotic joints, or synarthroses, is not permitted or extremely limited under
normal conditions.
23. Which type of joint is freely movable?

a. Fibrous
b. Diarthrotic
c. Synarthrotic
d. Cartilaginous
ANS: B
Diarthrotic joints, or diarthroses, are freely movable joints. Diarthrotic joints are common in
the appendicular skeleton and include joints in the shoulders (glenohumeral joints) and hips
(acetabulofemoral joints).
24. Which structure unites articulating bones?

a. Labrum
b. Bursa
c. Tendon
d. Ligament
Ligaments unite articulating bones, which strengthens the joint.
25. Which type of fluid is found in cavities of freely movable joints?

a. Mucus
b. Serous
c. Lymph
d. Synovial
ANS: D
Synovial fluid fills the joint cavity, decreases friction as the bones in the joint move, lubricates
the joint cavity, and provides nourishment and shock absorption. The
26. Which structures are flattened and saclike, and located between ligaments or tendons and
bones?
a. Bursae
b. Synovia
c. Periosteum
d. Metaphysis
ANS: A
Some synovial joints contain bursae, flattened saclike structures between ligaments or tendons
and bones that act as cushions to reduce friction
27. Which type of joint provides movement in one axis?
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a. Biaxial
b. Triaxial
c. Uniaxial
d. Nonaxial
ANS: C
Uniaxial joints move around only one axis and in only one plane. Types of uniaxial joints are
hinge and pivot.
28. Which type of joint has movements limited to flexion and extension?
a. Pivot
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Ball and socket
ANS: B
Hinge joints possess a convex surface on one bone that fits into a concave surface of another
bone. The movement in hinge joints are similar to the movement of two board joined together
by a hinge which allows the angle of the joint to decrease, causing flexion, or increase,
causing extension.
29. Which type of joint has movements limited to rotation?

a. Pivot
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Ball and socket
Pivot joints possess a ringed or notched surface of one bone that fits into a projection of
another bone. Movement in pivot joints are limited to rotation around the length of a bone.
30. Which type of joints, found in the thumb, possess a concave surface facing one direction and a
convex surface facing the other direction?
a. Pivot
b. Hinge
c. Saddle
d. Ball and socket
ANS: C
Saddle joints possess a concave surface of one bone that fits into a convex surface of another
bone.
31. Which type of joint contains an oval-shaped surface of one bone that fits into a depression or
socket of another bone, allowing the bone to travel back and forth and from side to side?
a. Pivot
b. Hinge
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Ball and socket
ANS: C
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Condyloid joints possess an oval-shaped surface or condyle of one bone that fits into a
depression or socket of another bone. This position allows one bone to travel back-and-forth
(flexion and extension) and side-to-side (abduction and adduction).
32. Which type of joint provides movement in all three cardinal planes?
a. Biplanar
b. Uniplanar
c. Nonplanar
d. Multiplanar
ANS: D
Multiaxial joints permit movement around three axes and in three planes. Types of multiaxial
joints are ball and socket and gliding.
33. Which type of joint has is the most movable?

a. Pivot
b. Hinge
c. Ellipsoidal
d. Ball and socket
ANS: D
Ball and socket joints consist of the ball-shaped end of one bone fitting into a socket-shaped
surface of another bone. This position allows the first bone to move in many directions around
a central joint. Ball and socket joints are our most movable synovial joints.
34. Which movement is bending of a joint so that the angle of the joint decreases?
a. Flexion
b. Extension TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Abduction
d. Adduction
ANS: A
Flexion is bending a joint so that the angle between the bones decreases.
35. Which movement is toward the midline of the body?

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Abduction
d. Adduction
ANS: D
Adduction is movement toward the midline of the body.
36. Which movement is conical in which one end of the body is fixed and the other end moves in
a circle?
a. Rotation
b. Retraction
c. Protraction
d. Circumduction
ANS: D
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Circumduction is circular or conical movement in which one end of the body is relatively
fixed and the other end moves in a circle.
37. Which movement occurs when a bone pivots around its own central axis?
a. Rotation
b. Pronation
c. Supination
d. Dorsiflexion
ANS: A
Rotation occurs when a bone pivots or rotates around its own central axis.
38. Which movement is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are parallel and the
palm faces anteriorly?
a. Inversion
b. Pronation
c. Supination
d. Dorsiflexion
ANS: C
Supination is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are in a parallel position and
the palms face anteriorly.
39. Which movement occurs when the ankle causes the foot to move superiorly in the direction of
the top of the foot?
a. Inversion
b. Pronation
c. Supination TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Dorsiflexion
ANS: D
Dorsiflexion is movement of the ankle as the foot moves superiorly in the direction of the
dorsum of the foot—the toes are moving toward the shin or leg bones.
40. Which movement is in an anterior direction?

a. Rotation
b. Retraction
c. Protraction
d. Circumduction
ANS: C
Protraction is movement in an anterior or forward direction.
41. Which pathology is an accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee?

a. Gout
b. Baker cyst
c. Osteoporosis
d. Adhesive capsulitis
ANS: B
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A Baker cyst is an accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee. Classified as a type of
ganglion, a Baker cyst can be an accumulation of synovial fluid within the normal bursae or a
separate cystic structure.
42. Which pathology is inflammation of a cushioning sac?

a. Bursitis
b. Baker cyst
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteoporosis
ANS: A
Inflammation of a bursa is called bursitis.
43. Which condition is a pouchlike structure filled with synovial fluid that arises from joint
capsules or tendon sheaths?
a. Gout
b. Baker cyst
c. Ganglion cyst
d. Bursitis
ANS: C
A ganglion cyst is a pouchlike structure filled with synovial fluid. These cysts are common
and arise from joint capsules or tendon sheaths, usually on the wrist (90% of cases).
44. Which of the following pathologies results from deposition of uric acid crystals in joints?
a. Gout
b. Baker cyst
c. Osteoporosis TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Ganglion cyst
ANS: A
Gout is a type of arthritis resulting from the deposition of uric acid crystals in joints. Uric acid
is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys.
45. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal posterior curvature in the thoracic spine?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Lordosis
c. Scoliosis
d. Kyphosis
ANS: D
Kyphosis is an exaggeration of the normal posterior or kyphotic curvature in the thoracic
spine. Some curvature is normal (20 to 40 degrees), but kyphosis refers to an excessive
rounding of more than 45 to 50 degrees.
46. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal anterior curvature in the lumbar spine?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Lordosis
c. Scoliosis
d. Kyphosis
ANS: B
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Lordosis is an exaggeration of the normal anterior or lordotic curvature in the lumbar spine.
Some curvature is normal, but lordosis refers to an excessive curvature. Lordosis is also called
hyperlordosis, swayback, or saddleback.
47. Which pathology is characterized by inflammation of the joint capsule and progressive joint
damage, leading to loss of articular cartilage?
a. Cellulitis
b. Baker cyst
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteoporosis
ANS: C
The most common form of arthritis, osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by inflammation of
the joint capsule and progressive joint damage, leading to eventual loss of articular cartilage.
48. Which pathology is loss of normal bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures?
a. Bursitis
b. Gout
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteoporosis
ANS: D
Osteoporosis is loss of normal bone density and is the most common bone disease. Both
compact bone and spongy bone are affected; spongy bone becomes thin and sparse, whereas
compact bone becomes porous. As bones lose density, they become brittle and weak, resulting
in increased susceptibility to fractures.
TESinflammatory,
49. Which pathology is a chronic, TBANKSELsystemic
LER.COdisease
M that destroys synovial
membranes?
a. Gout
b. Baker cyst
c. Osteoporosis
ANS: D
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, inflammatory, and systemic type of arthritis in which
synovial membranes are destroyed. Over time, inflammation spreads to articular cartilages,
joint capsules, surrounding ligaments, and the underlying bone.
50. Which condition is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine,
usually in the thoracic region?
a. Osteoporosis
b. Lordosis
c. Scoliosis
d. Kyphosis
ANS: C
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine, usually in the
thoracic region. The lumbar and cervical regions may also be involved.
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Chapter 20: Muscular System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means continuous and partial contraction of skeletal muscles?

a. Gait
b. Posture
c. Muscle tone
d. Muscle twitch
ANS: C
Muscle tone or tonus is the continuous and partial contraction of skeletal muscles, or muscle’s
resistance to stretch while muscles are not contracting. Muscle tone helps to maintain posture
and declines during sleep.
2. Which function does the muscular system perform?

a. Filtration of wastes
b. Heat production
c. Exchange of gases
d. Immune responses
ANS: B
Muscles provide movement, heat production, and posture maintenance.
3. Which term means heat production?

a. Thermogenesis TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Homeostasis
c. Glycolysis
d. Extensibility
ANS: A
Skeletal muscles are the most metabolically active structures in the body and produce a
significant amount of heat. This mechanism is called thermogenesis and is important for
maintaining body temperature.
4. Which term means the covering of a muscle cell?

a. Epimysium
b. Sarcoplasm
c. Perimysium
d. Sarcolemma
ANS: D
Sarcolemma is the cell membrane that surrounds muscle fibers.
5. What is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle cell?

a. Fascicle
b. Retinacula
c. Sarcomere
d. Perimysium
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ANS: C
Myofibrils contain repeating compartments along their entire length called sarcomeres; these
are the basic units of contraction.
6. Which term refers to a thin filament protein?

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Fascicle
d. Sarcolemma
ANS: A
Thin filaments are made of three proteins: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.
7. Which term refers to a thick filament?

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Fascicle
d. Sarcolemma
ANS: B
Myosin composes the thick filaments which are located in the center of the sarcomere.
8. Which ion does the sarcoplasmic reticulum store and release?

a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Phosphorus
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ANS: B
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a system of interconnected hollow tubes and plays a key role in
muscular contractions by storing and releasing calcium ions.
9. Which tissue surrounds the entire muscle?

a. Epimysium
b. Perimysium
c. Endomysium
d. Endometrium
ANS: A
Muscles are groups of fasciculi that are surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called
epimysium and anchored to bone by tendons.
10. Which structure anchors muscles to bone?

a. Tendon
b. Fascicle
c. Ligament
d. Retinaculum
ANS: A
Muscles are groups of fasciculi that are surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called
epimysium and anchored to bone by tendons.
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11. Which structure is a broad, flat tendon?

a. Retinaculum
b. Fascicle
c. Ligament
d. Aponeurosis
ANS: D
A broad, flat tendon is called aponeurosis, and it attaches muscle to bone, muscle to other
muscle, or muscle to skin.
12. Which structure is a band of connective tissue that acts like a bracelet to help stabilize tendons
and keep them in place?
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Fascicle
d. Retinaculum
ANS: D
Retinacula are bands of connective tissues that act like bracelets to help stabilize tendons to
keep them in place and may also function as pulleys for tendons. Retinacula are found
primarily around the elbows, knees, ankles, and wrists.
13. Which term means the tendinous attachment on bone that is less movable during contraction?
a. Belly
b. Origin
c. Insertion
d. Inversion
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ANS: B
Muscle origins are the tendinous attachment on the less movable or more stable bones during
contraction.
14. Which of the following is the tendinous attachment on the bone and is more movable during
contraction?
a. Belly
b. Origin
c. Insertion
d. Inversion
ANS: C
Muscle insertions are the tendinous attachment on more movable bones during contraction.
Insertions usually move toward origins.
15. Which phenomenon occurs when a muscle’s origin moves toward the insertion?
a. Threshold stimulus
b. Functional reversibility
c. Isometric contraction
d. Power stroke
ANS: B
Functional reversibility occurs when muscles reverse their relationship between attachment
sites and muscle origins move toward their insertions.
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16. Which state are muscle cells in when they receive a stimulus by the nervous system via a
motor neuron?
a. Elastic
b. Excited
c. Contracted
d. Relaxed
ANS: B
Muscle fibers become excited when they receive a stimulus by the nervous system via a motor
neuron.
17. What is the model of muscle contraction called?

a. Lever system
b. Sliding filament
c. Proprioceptive sense
d. Action potential
ANS: B
The mechanism of muscle contraction is called sliding filament model.
18. Which area contains the motor end plate, the terminal end of the motor neuron, and the
synaptic gap?
a. Sarcolemma
b. Sarcomere
c. Neuromuscular junction
d. Axon terminal
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ANS: C
The neuromuscular junction has three parts: the motor end plate, the terminal end of the motor
neuron, and the synaptic gap located between the motor end plate and the motor neuron.
19. What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction?

a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Acetylcholine
ANS: D
Synaptic vesicles located at ends of the motor neuron are filled with the neurotransmitter
acetylcholine (ACH), the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction.
20. Which term refers to folded sections of the sarcolemma that are part of the neuromuscular
junction?
a. Endomysium
b. Thick filament
c. Muscle spindle
d. Motor end plate
ANS: D
The motor end plate is composed of folded sections of the sarcolemma (the cell membrane of
the muscle fiber). This structure contains receptor sites for ACH.
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21. Which term refers to myosin pulling thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere?
a. Recruitment
b. Power stroke
c. Cross-bridge formation
d. Functional reversibility
ANS: B
Myosin heads are hinged at their base and, after cross-bridging, myosin pulls the thin
filaments toward the center of the sarcomere or the H zone. These actions are comprise the
power stroke.
22. Which term refers to a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates?
a. Fascicle
b. Motor unit
c. Motor end plate
d. Retinaculum
ANS: B
A motor unit is a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates.
23. Which term means motor unit activation based on need?

a. Tonus
b. Excitability
c. Recruitment
d. All-or-none response
The process of motor unit activation based on need is known as recruitment.
24. Which chemical is the universal unit of energy in the cell?

a. Calcium
b. Growth hormone
c. Acetylcholine
d. Adenosine triphosphate
ANS: D
The main sources of energy for muscle contraction are adenosine triphosphate (ATP),
glucose, and oxygen. ATP is the universal unit of energy in the cell.
25. Which molecule is the red respiratory pigment found in sarcoplasm?

a. Glucose
b. Myoglobin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Dopamine
ANS: B
During rest, oxygen is stored in myoglobin located in the sarcoplasm until it is needed.
Myoglobin is a red respiratory pigment similar to hemoglobin in red blood cells because it
stores oxygen.
26. Which term refers to the stage of glucose breakdown that uses oxygen?
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a. Recruitment
b. Thermogenesis
c. Aerobic glycolysis
d. Anaerobic glycolysis
ANS: C
The stage of glycolysis called aerobic glycolysis uses oxygen to produce energy. This process
creates the equivalent of 36 ATP molecules.
27. Breathing heavily after strenuous exercise is due to which process?

a. Tonus
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Oxygen debt
d. Thermogenesis
ANS: C
Lactic acid forms as an end product of anaerobic glycolysis. Some lactic acid diffuses into the
blood and makes its way to the liver to be converted back to glucose. This process is one
reason why a person may continue to breathe heavily after strenuous exercise. This action
repays the oxygen debt by using oxygen gained by heavy breathing to process the lactic acid
produced during physical activity.
28. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 1 muscle fibers, or red muscle?
a. Fast twitch
b. Slow twitch
c. Moderate twitch
d. Intermediate twitch
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ANS: B
Muscle fibers that contain large amounts of myoglobin and mitochondria, and have copious
amounts of blood capillaries, are called type 1. Because type 1 contains larger amount of
myoglobin and blood vessels, they take on a deeper red appearance and are called red muscle
fibers. Slow twitch fibers contract more slowly, for longer periods of time, and they take
longer to fatigue. Type 1 or red fibers are also classified as slow twitch fibers.
29. Which type of athletes tend to have a high ratio of slow twitch muscles present in their lower
extremities?
a. Boxers
b. Sprinters
c. Tennis players
d. Marathon runners
ANS: D
Marathon runners tend to have more type 1 or slow twitch fibers in their lower extremities
than other athletes such as tennis players or sprinters.
30. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 2 or white muscle?
a. Fast twitch
b. Slow twitch
c. Moderate twitch
d. Intermediate twitch
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ANS: A
Type 2 muscle fibers contain less myoglobin, mitochondria, and blood capillaries compared
with type 1. Because of these characteristics, type 2 muscle fibers are lighter in color and are
called white muscle fibers. Fast twitch fibers contract more quickly and for shorter periods of
time.
31. Which term refers to contractions that cause a muscle to shorten in length while generating
force?
a. Physiologic
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric
d. Concentric
ANS: D
During concentric contractions, muscles shorten in length while generating force. Examples of
concentric contractions are the biceps during a biceps curl and the quadriceps during leg
extensions.
32. Which term refers to contractions that generate force while muscle length remains the same,
without movement occurring?
a. Isotonic
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric
d. Concentric
ANS: C
During isometric contractions, muscles are generating force while their length remains the
same and movement does T ESoccur.
not TBAN KSELLcontractions
Isometric ER.COM often occur in fixators or
stabilizers because they stabilize joints so that the primary muscles (called prime movers and
synergists) performing the action are able to do so.
33. Which class of levers involves the fulcrum positioned between the load and the pull?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: A
In class 1 levers, the fulcrum is positioned between the load and the pull or L – F – P. This
arrangement resembles a seesaw or pair of scissors.
34. Which classification has parallel muscle fiber arrangement?

a. Pennate
b. Circular
c. Fusiform
d. Convergent
ANS: C
Parallel or fusiform muscles have their fibers arranged along the long axis of bone, and are
usually tapered at both ends or are spindle-shaped.
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35. Which classification has muscle fibers joining at one end with fibers spreading out like a fan
at the other end?
a. Pennate
b. Circular
c. Fusiform
d. Convergent
ANS: D
Convergent muscle fibers have fibers joining at one end with fibers spreading out like a fan at
the other end. Convergent muscles often have a triangular shape.
36. Which classification has muscles fibers arranged as a central tendon with muscle fibers
emerging diagonally, giving them a featherlike appearance?
a. Pennate
b. Circular
c. Fusiform
d. Convergent
ANS: A
Pennate muscles are arranged as a central tendon with muscle fibers emerging diagonally,
giving them a featherlike appearance.
37. Which classification of muscles cause specific or desired movements?

a. Fixators
b. Synergists
c. Antagonists
d. Agonists
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ANS: D
Prime movers or agonists are muscles causing the desired action.
38. Which classification of muscles assist prime movers by performing the same movement at the
same time?
a. Fixators
b. Agonists
c. Synergists
d. Antagonists
ANS: C
Synergists are muscles that assist prime movers by performing the same movement at the
same time.
39. Which classification of muscles lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract to
produce the desired action?
a. Fixators
b. Agonists
c. Synergists
d. Antagonists
ANS: D
Antagonists are muscles that lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract to
produce the desired action.
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40. Which classification of muscles cross two joints?

a. Isotonic
b. Postural
c. Biarticular
d. Uniarticular
ANS: C
Biarticular muscles cross two joints.
41. Which condition is inflammation of the tendinous sheath located on the radial side of the
wrist?
a. Fibromyalgia syndrome
b. Osgood–Schlatter disease
c. de Quervain tenosynovitis
d. Myofascial pain syndrome
ANS: C
De Quervain tenosynovitis, also called de Quervain tendinitis, is inflammation of the tendon
sheaths located on the radial side of the wrist. This tendon sheath surrounds two muscles of
the thumb: abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.
42. Which condition is characterized by localized areas or tender points, widespread pain, joint
stiffness, and fatigue, with the affected person having no signs of inflammation or
degeneration in the tissues?
c. de Quervain tenosynovitisTESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) is characterized by tenderness in localized areas or tender
points, widespread pain, joint stiffness, fatigue, non-refreshing sleep, and mood problems. In a
person with FMS, there are no signs of inflammation or degeneration in the tissues.
43. Which condition is characterized by the presence of trigger points and muscular pain?
ANS: D
Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by the presence of trigger points and muscular
pain.
44. Which condition involves patellar tendinitis at the tibial tuberosity in immature bone?
ANS: B
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Osgood-Schlatter disease, also called tibial tuberosity apophysitis, is patellar tendinitis at the
tibial tuberosity in immature bone. It is seen more often in children 11 to 13 years of age who
participate in sports such as soccer, basketball, volleyball, and gymnastics.
45. Which condition is chronic inflammation of the fascia on the bottom of the foot?
a. Tendinitis
b. Torticollis
c. Shin splints
d. Plantar fasciitis
ANS: D
Plantar fasciitis is chronic inflammation of the plantar fascia. This thick band of fascia is
located on the plantar surface of the foot, attaches to the calcaneus, and fans toward the toes.
46. Which condition is characterized pain along the medial tibia?

a. Tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis
c. Shin splints
d. Plantar fasciitis
ANS: C
Shin splints, also called medial tibial stress syndrome, is the term used to describe pain along
the medial tibia. The most common cause is overuse.
47. Which condition occurs when muscles or tendons become overstretched or torn?
a. Strain
b. Sprain
c. Tendinitis TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Tenosynovitis
ANS: A
A strain, also called a pulled muscle, occurs when a muscle or its tendons become
overstretched or torn. In contrast, a sprain is damage to ligaments. Muscles become strained
when they are overstretched or when they experience violent contraction or synergistic failure.
48. Which condition is inflammation of a tendon?

a. Strain
b. Sprain
c. Tendinitis
d. Torticollis
ANS: C
Inflammation of a tendon(s) is known as tendinitis or tendonitis. Tendinosis is degeneration of
a tendon. Tendinosis is often mislabeled as tendinitis, but inflammation usually is not present
in tendinosis.
49. Which term refers to a group of disorders involving spasms of sternocleidomastoid?

a. Strain
b. Sprain
c. Tendinitis
d. Torticollis
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ANS: D
Torticollis is a group of disorders involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid. Other neck
muscles, such as the scalenes, trapezius, and the splenius muscles, may also be involved.
50. Which condition is a strain of the cervical spine, most commonly at the junction of fourth and
fifth cervical vertebrae?
a. Whiplash
b. Shin splints
c. Plantar fasciitis
d. de Quervain tenosynovitis
ANS: A
Whiplash is a strain of the cervical spine, most commonly at the junction of the fourth and
fifth cervical vertebrae. It also may involve upper and lower cervical segments. During the
causative event, the head is thrown backward and forward rapidly (acceleration and
deceleration); the upper four cervical vertebrae act as the lash, and the lower three act as the
handle of a whip, hence the term whiplash.
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Chapter 21: Kinesiology

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means the study of human motion?

a. Anatomy
b. Oncology
c. Physiology
d. Kinesiology
ANS: D
Kinesiology is the study of human motion.
2. Which bone is in the upper extremity?

a. Ilium
b. Tibia
c. Radius
d. Temporal
ANS: C
The radius is a bone of the upper extremity.
3. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the upper extremity?

a. Sternoclavicular
b. Scapulohumeral
c. Acromioclavicular TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Glenohumeral
ANS: A
The upper extremities join the axial skeleton at the sternoclavicular joints.
4. Injury to the acromioclavicular joint would involve which end of the clavicle?
a. Medial
b. Superior
c. Lateral
d. Anterior
ANS: C
An injury to the acromioclavicular joint would be located at the lateral end of the clavicle.
5. Which bone is most commonly fractured in the body?

a. Scapula
b. Clavicle
c. Humerus
d. Sternum
ANS: B
The clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone in the body.
6. What are the bones of the shoulder girdle?
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a. Femur and tibia

b. Radius and ulna
c. Sacrum and pelvis
d. Clavicle and scapula
ANS: D
The clavicle and the scapula make up the shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle.
7. Which joint is located at the medial end of the clavicle?

a. Sternocostal
b. Costochondral
c. Sternoclavicular
d. Acromioclavicular
ANS: C
The medial end or sternal end of the clavicle articulates with the sternum at the
sternoclavicular joint, or the SC joint.
8. Which bone contains the acromion process?

a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Scapula
d. Clavicle
ANS: C
The scapula contains the acromion process.
9. Which bone articulates with

TEthe
STclavicle
BANKSandELthe
LEhumerus?
R.COM
a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Scapula
d. Metacarpal
ANS: C
The scapula articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint, or AC joint, and with
the humerus at the glenohumeral joint or shoulder joint.
10. What is the scientific name for the shoulder joint?

a. Radiocarpal joint
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Acromioclavicular joint
ANS: B
The glenohumeral joint is the shoulder joint.
11. Which bone contains the deltoid tuberosity?

a. Ulna
b. Scapula
c. Clavicle
d. Humerus
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ANS: D
The deltoid tuberosity is located on the humerus bone.
12. Which joint do the humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint form?
a. Wrist
b. Elbow
c. Knuckle
d. Shoulder
ANS: B
The humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint form the elbow joint.
13. Which bone is in the medial forearm?

a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Humerus
d. Scaphoid
ANS: A
The ulna is the medial forearm bone.
14. Which bone contains the olecranon process?

a. Ulna
b. Radius
c. Scapula
d. Clavicle
The ulna contains the olecranon process.
15. Which bone is in the lateral forearm?

a. Ulna
b. Humerus
c. Radius
d. Pisiform
ANS: C
The radius is the lateral forearm bone.
16. Which joint allows supination and pronation?

a. Radioulnar joint
b. Humeroulnar joint
c. Humeroradial joint
d. Sternoclavicular joint
ANS: A
The movements of the radioulnar joints are supination and pronation.
17. During supination and pronation, the radius rotates over which bone?
a. Ulna
b. Scapula
c. Clavicle
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d. Humerus
ANS: A
The radius rotates over the ulna during the actions of supination and pronation.
18. Which term is collective for the wrist bones?

a. Tarsals
b. Carpals
c. Metatarsals
d. Metacarpals
ANS: B
The carpal bones are the wrist bones.
19. Each wrist contains how many carpal bones?

a. 5
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14
ANS: B
Each wrist contains 8 carpal bones.
20. Which bone is a carpal?

a. Hyoid
b. Xiphoid
c. Pisiform
d. Cuneiform TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: C
The pisiform is one of the carpal bones.
21. Which bones articulate with the radius and the metacarpals?
a. Tarsals
b. Carpals
c. Metatarsals
d. Metacarpals
ANS: B
The carpals articulate with the radius at the radiocarpal joint or wrist joint and with the
metacarpals at the carpometacarpal joints, or CMC joints.
22. What is the scientific name for the wrist joint?

a. Radiocarpal joint
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Acromioclavicular joint
ANS: A
The radiocarpal joint is the wrist joint.
23. Which structure forms one of the sides of the carpal tunnel?
a. Nuchal ligament
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b. Extensor retinaculum
c. Sacrotuberous ligament
d. Flexor retinaculum
ANS: D
The carpal tunnel is a tunnel surrounded on three sides by carpal bones and on one side by the
transverse carpal ligament or flexor retinaculum.
24. Which bones are located in each hand and numbered I through V?
a. Tarsals
b. Carpals
c. Metatarsals
d. Metacarpals
ANS: D
The metacarpals are located in each hand and numbered I through V.
25. Each hand contains how many phalanges?

a. 5
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14
ANS: D
Each hand contains 14 phalanges.
26. At which joints do the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with the middle phalanges?
a. Carpometacarpal TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Metatarsophalangeal
c. Distal interphalangeal
d. Proximal interphalangeal
ANS: D
The distal ends of the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with their middle phalanges
at the proximal interphalangeal joints, or PIP joints.
27. Which bone is in the lower extremity?

a. Ulna
b. Tibia
c. Radius
d. Humerus
ANS: B
The tibia is a bone of the lower extremity.
28. Which three bones are fused to form the pelvis?

a. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
b. Sacrum, pubis, and femur
c. Ischium, patella, and calcaneus
d. Pubis, patella, and lateral pterygoid
ANS: A
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The pelvic bones consist of three fused bones: the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
29. What is the scientific name for the hip socket?

a. Ganglion
b. Acromion
c. Olecranon
d. Acetabulum
ANS: D
The acetabulum, or acetabular cavity, is the deep hip socket made from portions of all three
pelvic bones. The acetabulum articulates with the proximal end of the femur or femoral head
at the acetabulofemoral joint or hip joint.
30. What is the scientific name for the hip joint?

a. Sacroiliac joint
b. Talocrural joint
c. Tibiofemoral joint
d. Acetabulofemoral joint
ANS: D
The acetabulofemoral joint is the scientific name for the hip joint.
31. Which term describes the position of the pelvis as it rests on the femurs?
a. Pelvic tilt
b. Plantar flexion
c. Planar obliquity
d. Pelvic stabilization
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ANS: A
Pelvic tilt refers to the position of the pelvis as it rests on the femurs.
32. Which section is the superior pelvic bone?

a. Pubis
b. Ilium
c. Sacrum
d. Ischium
ANS: B
The ilium bones are the superior pelvic bones.
33. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the lower extremity?
a. Sacroiliac
b. Talocrural
c. Patellofemoral
d. Acetabulofemoral
ANS: A
The lower extremities join the axial skeleton at the sacroiliac joints.
34. Which bone is also called the sitz bone because correct seated posture involves resting the
weight of the upper body on one of its bony markings?
a. Pubis
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b. Ilium
c. Sacrum
d. Ischium
ANS: D
The ischium bones are also called the sitz bones, because correct seated posture involves
resting the weight of the upper body on the ischial tuberosities.
35. What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament?

a. Ischial spine to the sacrum
b. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity
c. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter
d. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter
ANS: B
The sacrotuberous ligament is a triangular-shaped ligament that extends from the sacrum to
the ischial tuberosity and provides stability to the pelvis.
36. What is the longest bone in the body?

a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Ischium
ANS: C
The femur is the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body.
37. What is the scientific nameTfor

ESthe
TBknee
ANKS joint?
ELLER.COM
a. Sacroiliac joint
b. Talocrural joint
ANS: C
The tibiofemoral joint is the scientific name for the knee joint.
38. Which term refers to a half-ringed fibrocartilage disk inside the knee?
a. Labium
b. Meniscus
c. Cruciate
d. Innominate
ANS: B
The lower portion of the knee contains half-ringed fibrocartilage disks called the medial and
lateral meniscus.
39. Which knee ligament is often torn during knee injuries?

a. Tibial collateral
b. Anterior cruciate
c. Fibular collateral
d. Posterior cruciate
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ANS: B
The anterior cruciate ligament, or ACL, is often torn during knee injuries.
40. Which ligament connect the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity?

a. Patellar
b. Cruciate
c. Annular
d. Collateral
ANS: A
The patellar ligament connect the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity.
41. Which bone is also called the kneecap?

a. Talus
b. Patella
c. Sacrum
d. Calcaneus
ANS: B
The patella is the kneecap, the largest sesamoid bone in the body.
42. Which bone is the medial leg bone?

a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Patella
The tibia is the medial leg bone.
43. Which bony markings are located at the distal ends of the tibia and fibula?
a. Malleoli
b. Foramina
c. Epicondyles
d. Tuberosities
ANS: A
The medial malleolus is located at the distal end of the tibia, and the lateral malleolus is
located at the distal end of the fibula.
44. Which bone articulates with the tibia and the talus?
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Patella
ANS: B
The fibula articulates with the tibia and with the talus at the talocrural joint or ankle joint.
45. What is the scientific name for the ankle joint?

a. Sacroiliac joint
b. Talocrural joint
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ANS: B
The talocrural joint is the scientific name for the ankle joint.
46. Which bone is a tarsal?

a. Hamate
b. Pisiform
c. Scaphoid
d. Navicular
ANS: D
The navicular is one of the tarsal bones.
47. Which bone is the heel?

a. Cuboid
b. Navicular
c. Calcaneus
d. Cuneiform
ANS: C
The calcaneus is the heel bone.
48. How many tarsal bones does each foot contain?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 12 TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. 14
ANS: B
There are 7 tarsal bones in each foot.
49. Which arch is located on the inner edge of the foot and is very prominent in people who have
high arches?
a. Metatarsal
b. Transverse
c. Lateral longitudinal
d. Medial longitudinal
ANS: D
The medial longitudinal arch is located on the inner edge of the foot and is very prominent in
people who have high arches.
50. Which bones are located in each foot and numbered I through V?
a. Tarsals
b. Carpals
c. Metatarsals
d. Metacarpals
ANS: C
The metatarsals are located in each foot and numbered I through V.
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51. At which joints do the middle phalanges in the toes articulate with the distal phalanges?
a. Carpometacarpal
b. Metatarsophalangeal
c. Distal interphalangeal
d. Proximal interphalangeal
ANS: C
The middle phalanges of the foot articulate with the distal phalanges at the distal
interphalangeal joints, or DIP joints.
52. Which bone contains the mastoid process?

a. Parietal
b. Occipital
c. Sphenoid
d. Temporal
ANS: D
The mastoid process is located on the temporal bone.
53. Where is the sphenoid bone located?

a. Foot
b. Skull
c. Hand
d. Wrist
ANS: B
The sphenoid bone is located in the skull.
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54. Which bone contains the sella turcica?
a. Parietal
b. Occipital
c. Sphenoid
d. Temporal
ANS: C
The sella turcica is located in the sphenoid bone.
55. Which bone is the forehead?

a. Temporal
b. Parietal
c. Occipital
d. Frontal
ANS: D
The frontal bone is the forehead.
56. Which suture is located between the two parietal bones?

a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Squamosal
d. Lambdoidal
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ANS: A
The sagittal suture is located between the two parietal bones.
57. Which joint is bilateral and contains an articular disk similar to the meniscus of the knee?
a. Atlantoaxial
b. Zygapophyseal
c. Atlantooccipital
d. Temporomandibular
ANS: D
The temporomandibular joint is located between the temporal bones and the mandible. This
bilateral joint is unique because it contains an articular disk similar to the meniscus of the
knee.
58. Which joint is between the skull and the first cervical vertebra?
a. Atlantoaxial
b. Zygapophyseal
c. Atlantooccipital
d. Temporomandibular
ANS: C
The occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra (C1) and forms the
atlantooccipital joint, or yes–yes joint. This joint permits up-and-down movements of the
head, or head nodding.
59. Which structure is the zygomatic arch?

a. Jaw
b. Chin TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Forehead
d. Cheekbone
ANS: D
The zygomatic arch is also called the cheekbone.
60. Which structure is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic
process of the temporal bone?
a. Temporal fossa
b. Zygomatic arch
c. Anterior fontanel
d. Foramen magnum
ANS: B
The zygomatic arch or cheekbone is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone
and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.
61. Which bone is suspended from the styloid process of the temporal bone by ligaments and does
not articulate directly with any other bone?
a. Hyoid
b. Xiphoid
c. Pisiform
d. Cuneiform
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ANS: A
The hyoid does not articulate directly with any other bone and is suspended from the styloid
process of the temporal bone by ligaments.
62. How are ribs 1 through 7 classified?

a. True ribs
b. False ribs
c. Floating ribs
d. Tangent ribs
ANS: A
Ribs can be classified as true ribs or false ribs. A rib is said to be “true” if it connects to the
sternum. A rib is said to be “false” if it does not connect to the sternum. Ribs 1–7 are true ribs.
Ribs 8–12 are false ribs.
63. Which joint is located between a rib and a thoracic vertebra?

a. Atlantoaxial
b. Costovertebral
c. Zygapophyseal
d. Atlantooccipital
ANS: B
Ribs articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae at the costovertebral joints.
64. Which bone contains the manubrium and the xiphoid process?
a. Atlas
b. Hyoid
c. Sacrum TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Sternum
ANS: D
The sternum is the breastbone and contains three regions: the manubrium, the sternal body,
and the xiphoid process.
65. Which ligament connects each vertebra and is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral
column?
a. Deltoid
b. Annular
c. Supraspinous
d. Sacrotuberous
ANS: C
The supraspinous ligament is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral column (spinous
processes) and connects each vertebra.
66. Which ligament extends from the occipital bone at the external occipital protuberance to the
posterior aspect of all cervical vertebrae?
a. Nuchal
b. Deltoid
c. Sacrotuberous
d. Transverse carpal
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
The nuchal ligament extends from the occipital bone at the external occipital protuberance to
the posterior aspect of all cervical vertebrae (spinous processes). The nuchal ligament in the
posterior neck is continuous with the supraspinous ligament.
67. Which spinal regions contains only five vertebrae?

a. Lumbar region
b. Cervical region
c. Thoracic region
d. Sacrococcygeal region
ANS: A
The lumbar region contains five vertebrae.
68. Which structure contains the annulus fibrosus and the nucleus pulposus?
a. Lamina
b. Vertebral body
c. Intervertebral disk
d. Superior articular process
ANS: C
Intervertebral disks are located between each vertebral body. These fibrocartilage disks
contain two regions, annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus. Annulus fibrosus is the tough
outer ring and nucleus pulposus is the gel-like center.
69. Which structures can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck?
a. Laminae
b. Vertebral bodies TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Spinous processes
d. Transverse processes
ANS: C
A spinous process projects posteriorly and generally inferiorly from the posterior region of the
arch. The spinous process can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck.
70. Which structures project laterally from most vertebral arches?

a. Pedicles
b. Laminae
c. Spinous processes
d. Transverse processes
ANS: D
Two transverse processes project laterally from most vertebral arches.
71. What structures emerge from the intervertebral foramina?

a. Spinal ligaments and tendons
b. Spinal nerves and blood vessels
c. Meninges and cerebrospinal fluid
d. Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus
ANS: B
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
Intervertebral foramina are openings created between adjacent pedicles, which allow passage
of spinal nerves and blood vessels.
72. Which vertebra is also called the atlas?

a. C1
b. C2
c. C5
d. T1
ANS: A
C1 or atlas is ring-shaped and lacks a vertebral body and pedicles.
73. Which vertebra contains the odontoid process?

a. C1
b. C2
c. C5
d. T1
ANS: B
C2 or axis possesses the dens which is a bony protrusion that projects superiorly.
74. Which joint is located between the first and second vertebrae?
a. Atlantoaxial
b. Costovertebral
c. Zygapophyseal
d. Atlantooccipital
C2 or axis possesses the dens which is a bony protrusion that projects superiorly. The dens or
odontoid process articulates with the atlas at the atlantoaxial joint or no-no joint. This joint
permits side-to-side head turning or head shaking.
75. Which spinal region contains demifacets on most of its vertebrae?

a. Lumbar
b. Cervical
c. Thoracic
d. Sacrococcygeal
ANS: C
Thoracic vertebrae are characterized by facets and demifacets located on the vertebral bodies
and transverse processes.
76. Which bone is triangular-shaped and located between the two pelvic bones?
a. Axis
b. Atlas
c. Hyoid
d. Sacrum
ANS: D
The sacrum is a triangular-shaped bone located between the two pelvic bones. The sacrum
represents five fused vertebrae and contains anterior and posterior sacral foramina for passage
of sacral nerves.
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
77. Which joints involve the pelvis?

a. Pubic symphysis, iliofemoral, sacrotuberal
b. Acetabulofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral
c. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral
d. Sacroiliac, chondrocostal, tibiofibular
ANS: C
The joints of the pelvis are the sacroiliac joints, pubic symphysis, and acetabulofemoral joints.
78. Which bone is the tailbone?

a. Patella
b. Coccyx
c. Sacrum
d. Xiphoid
ANS: B
The coccyx or tailbone is small triangular-shaped bone located at the base of the vertebral
column. The coccyx represents three to five fused bones.
79. Which muscle has one of its origins on the external occipital protuberance?
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Levator scapulae
d. Serratus anterior
ANS: A
The origins of trapezius areTE
the
STexternal
BANKS occipital
ELLERprotuberance,
.COM superior nuchal line, nuchal
ligament, and spinous processes of C7–T12.
80. Which muscle elevates the scapula?

a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Serratus anterior
d. Pectoralis minor
ANS: A
Trapezius elevates the scapula, upwardly rotates the scapula, retracts the scapula, and
depresses the scapula.
81. Which muscle is also called the “coat hanger muscle” because clothes hang from it as if from
a coat hanger?
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Pectoralis minor
ANS: A
Trapezius is called the coat hanger muscle because clothes hang from it as if from a coat
hanger.
82. Which muscle has its origins on most of the cervical transverse processes?
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Levator scapulae
ANS: C
Levator scapulae originates on the transverse processes of C1–C4.
83. Which muscle retracts the scapula?

a. Rhomboid major
b. Levator scapulae
d. Pectoralis minor
ANS: A
Rhomboid major and minor and middle trapezius retract the scapula.
84. Which term is collective for two muscles that include a major and a minor?
a. Rhomboids
b. Levator scapulae
c. Deltoids
d. Erector spinae
ANS: A
Rhomboids is the collective term for rhomboid major and rhomboid minor.
85. Which muscles are also called the “Christmas tree muscle” because their oblique fiber
direction resembles Christmas
TEStree
TBA branches?
NKSELLER.COM
a. Deltoids
b. Rhomboids
c. Levator scapulae
d. Erector spinae
ANS: B
The rhomboids are called the Christmas tree muscle because of their oblique fiber direction
which resemble Christmas tree branches.
86. Which muscle does NOT attach at the medial border of the scapula?
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
d. Levator scapulae
ANS: A
The trapezius does not attach on the medial border of the scapula.
87. Which muscle protracts the scapula?

a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Levator scapulae
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Serratus anterior protracts the scapula.
88. Which muscle is an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapular retraction?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Levator scapulae
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: C
Serratus anterior protracts the scapular and is thus an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapular
retraction.
89. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it protracts the scapula to help a
boxer deliver a knockout punch?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Levator scapulae
d. Pectoralis minor
ANS: C
Serratus anterior and triceps brachii are called the boxer’s muscles because they protract the
scapula and extend the elbow to deliver a “knockout” punch.
90. Which muscle is deep to the scapula?

a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Serratus anterior TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Pectoralis minor
ANS: C
Serratus anterior lies between the scapula and the ribcage.
91. Which muscle inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula?

a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Pectoralis minor
ANS: C
Pectoralis minor inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula.
92. Which muscle is involved in “winged scapula?”

a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
c. Pectoralis minor
ANS: D
Winged scapula occurs when the nerve supply of the serratus anterior is damaged, leading to
the scapula protruding outward like a wing.
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
93. Which muscle is called a “neurovascular entrapper” because it can entrap the brachial plexus
and axillary artery?
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboids
d. Pectoralis minor
ANS: D
Pectoralis minor is called neurovascular entrapper because they can entrap the brachial plexus
and axillary artery and is accentuated when the arm is hyperabducted. Entrapment may lead to
signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) or other conditions.
94. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior iliac
crest, and the posterior sacrum?
a. Deltoid
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Pectoralis major
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: B
Latissimus dorsi originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior iliac
crest, and the posterior sacrum.
95. Which muscle extends the humerus?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Latissimus dorsi TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Latissimus dorsi extends the humerus, medially rotates the humerus, and adducts the humerus.
96. Which muscle is also called the “swimmer’s muscle?”

a. Infraspinatus
b. Subscapularis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: C
Latissimus dorsi is called the swimmer’s muscle because many of its actions are involved in
swimming.
97. Which muscle is the widest in the body?

a. Trapezius
b. Subscapularis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: C
Latissimus dorsi is the widest muscle of the body and forms the posterior axillary fold.
98. Which muscle is called “lat’s twin?”
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
a. Teres major
b. Teres minor
c. Subscapularis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: A
Teres major is called lat’s twin because it performs the same action as the lats and is its
synergist.
99. Which muscles are the rotator cuff group?

a. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, and subclavius
b. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis
d. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, and supraspinatus
ANS: B
The rotator cuff muscles are the teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus.
100. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles does NOT originate within a fossa?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Teres minor
c. Infraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: B
Teres minor does not originate within a fossa.
101. Which rotator cuff muscleT

abducts
ESTBA the
NKhumerus?
SELLER.COM
a. Teres minor
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: C
Supraspinatus abducts the humerus.
102. Which muscle is located directly inferior to the scapular spine?

a. Teres minor
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: B
Infraspinatus is located directly inferior to the scapular spine.
103. Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: A
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
Infraspinatus laterally rotates the humerus.
104. Which muscle is synergistic to teres minor for lateral rotation of the humerus?
a. Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: A
Teres minor and infraspinatus are synergists, and their fibers may fuse.
105. Which rotator cuff muscle is located on the anterior aspect of the scapula?
a. Teres major
b. Subscapularis
c. Infraspinatus
d. Supraspinatus
ANS: B
Subscapularis muscle is located on the anterior aspect of the scapula.
106. Which rotator cuff muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle?

a. Teres minor
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: D
Subscapularis inserts on the
TElesser
STBtubercle.
ANKSELLER.COM
107. Which muscle medially rotates the humerus?
a. Teres minor
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: D
Subscapularis medially rotates the humerus.
108. Which muscle is also called the “frozen shoulder muscle?”

a. Deltoid
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Subscapularis
ANS: D
Subscapularis is called the frozen shoulder muscle as myofascial triggers points may lead to
reduced shoulder mobility.
109. Which muscle is divided into anterior, middle, and posterior regions?
a. Deltoid
b. Trapezius
c. Latissimus dorsi
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: A
The deltoid or delts can be divided into three regions that perform separate actions. The
anterior deltoid flexes and medially rotates the humerus. The middle deltoid abducts the
humerus. The posterior deltoid extends and laterally rotates the humerus.
110. Which muscle is divided into clavicular, sternal, and costal regions?
a. Deltoid
b. Trapezius
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: D
Pectoralis major or pecs form the anterior axillary fold (the lats form the posterior axillary
fold). This muscle possesses clavicular, sternal, and costal regions.
111. Which muscles are responsible for shoulder flexion?

a. Triceps brachii and serratus anterior
b. Supraspinatus and posterior deltoid
c. Latissimus dorsi and teres major
d. Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid
ANS: D
The muscles responsible for shoulder flexion are pectoralis major and anterior deltoid, as well
as the coracobrachialis and biceps brachii.
112. Which muscles form the anterior

TESTB and
ANposterior
KSELLaxillary
ER.COfolds?
M
a. Teres major and teres minor
b. Deltoid and coracobrachialis
c. Infraspinatus and supraspinatus
d. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
ANS: D
Pectoralis major forms the anterior axillary fold, and latissimus dorsi forms the posterior
axillary fold.
113. Excessive muscle tension in which muscle can cause angina-like pain?
a. Infraspinatus
b. Subscapularis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
ANS: D
Excessive muscle tension in the pecs may cause postural distortions, such as rounded
shoulders and angina-like pain.
114. Which muscle originates on the coracoid process of the scapula?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Supraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. Coracobrachialis
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Coracobrachialis originates on the coracoid process of the scapula.
115. Which landmark is an insertion of biceps brachii?

a. Ulnar tuberosity
b. Radial tuberosity
c. Olecranon process
d. Coracoid process
ANS: B
Biceps brachii inserts on the radial tuberosity and the bicipital aponeurosis.
116. Which muscle supinates the forearm?

a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: A
Biceps brachii supinates the forearm and flexes the elbow.
117. Which muscle is called the corkscrew muscle because its actions are involved in uncorking a
wine bottle?
a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
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ANS: A
Biceps brachii is called the corkscrew muscle, because two of its movements are used when
opening a bottle with a corkscrew: first biceps unscrews the cork via supination, then it pulls
the cork out with elbow flexion.
118. Which nerve innervates biceps brachii?

a. Median
b. Vagus
c. Musculocutaneous
d. Trigeminal
ANS: C
Biceps brachii is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.
119. Which muscle inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna?
a. Anconeus
b. Supinator
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
ANS: C
Brachialis inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna.
120. Which muscle is deep to biceps brachii?
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a. Anconeus
b. Brachialis
c. Pronator teres
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: B
Brachialis is deep to biceps brachii.
121. Which muscle can be palpated as the bulge on the radial side of the forearm?
a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: C
Brachioradialis can be palpated as the bulge on the radial side of the forearm.
122. Which muscle inserts at the styloid process of the radius?

a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: C
Brachioradialis inserts at the styloid process of the radius.
123. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process?

a. Biceps brachii TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: B
Triceps brachii inserts on the olecranon process.
124. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it helps a boxer deliver a knockout
punch?
a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ANS: B
Triceps brachii and serratus anterior are occasionally called the boxer’s muscles because they
work simultaneously to extend the elbow and protract the scapula to deliver a boxer’s
“knockout” punch.
125. Which muscle extends the elbow?

a. Triceps brachii
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: A
Triceps brachii extends the elbow.
126. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process?

a. Anconeus
b. Brachialis
c. Pronator teres
d. Palmaris longus
ANS: A
Anconeus inserts on the olecranon process.
127. Which area contains anconeus?

a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Elbow
d. Shoulder
ANS: C
Anconeus is located in the elbow area.
128. Which muscle pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow?
a. Brachialis
b. Pronator teres
c. Biceps brachii
d. Supinator
Pronator teres pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow.
129. The common flexor tendon is located on which bony marking?

a. Coronoid process of the ulna
b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus
c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus
d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
ANS: B
The common flexor tendon is located on the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
130. Which muscle pronates the forearm?

a. Supinator
b. Anconeus
c. Triceps brachii
d. Pronator quadratus
ANS: D
Pronator quadratus pronates the forearm.
131. Which muscle supinates the forearm?

a. Supinator
b. Anconeus
c. Triceps brachii
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Pronator quadratus
ANS: A
Supinator supinates the forearm.
132. Where do most flexors of the wrist originate?

a. Radial tuberosity
b. Deltoid tuberosity
d. Medial epicondyle of the humerus
ANS: D
Most flexors of the wrist originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
133. Which muscle is located on the anterior side of the forearm?

a. Extensor digitorum
b. Extensor carpi ulnaris
c. Abductor pollicus longus
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
ANS: D
Flexor digitorum superficialis is located on the anterior side of the forearm.
134. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking?

d. Infraglenoid tubercle ofTE
the
STscapula
BANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, can occur with forceful repetitive flexion of the wrist.
135. Which area is located between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis?
a. Radial pulse
b. Thenar eminence
c. Anatomic snuffbox
d. Hypothenar eminence
ANS: A
The radial pulse is located between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis.
136. Which muscle flexes the wrist?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Extensor digitorum
d. Extensor carpi ulnaris
ANS: B
Flexor carpi ulnaris flexes the wrist.
137. Which muscle abducts the wrist?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Flexor carpi radialis
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
Flexor carpi radialis abducts the wrist.
138. The common extensor tendon is located on which bony marking?

ANS: C
The common extensor tendon is located on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
139. Tennis elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking?

ANS: C
Lateral epicondylitis or tennis elbow can occur with forceful repetitive extension of the wrist.
140. Which muscle extends the wrist?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Palmaris longus
c. Opponens pollicus TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Extensor carpi ulnaris extends the wrist.
141. Which muscle adducts the wrist?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
ANS: D
Extensor carpi ulnaris adducts the wrist.
142. Which muscle is called the “tea drinker’s muscle” because it extends the little finger when
raising a teacup?
a. Extensor indicus
b. Extensor carpi ulnaris
c. Extensor digiti minimi
d. Extensor pollicis longus
ANS: C
Extensor digiti minimi is called the tea drinker’s muscle because it extends the little finger
when raising a teacup.
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143. Which muscle extends the index finger?

a. Palmaris longus
b. Extensor indicis
c. Opponens pollicis
d. Abductor digiti minimi
ANS: B
Extensor indicis extends the index finger.
144. Which area is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis,
and abductor pollicis longus?
a. Radial pulse
b. Thenar eminence
ANS: C
The anatomic snuffbox is formed by tendons of extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis
brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. This space on the lateral wrist is where snuff or
powdered tobacco used to be placed before it was inhaled through the nose.
145. Which area is located on the lateral side of the palm and formed by flexor pollicis brevis,
opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis?
a. Radial pulse
b. Thenar eminence
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ANS: B
Flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis form the thenar
eminence, or thumb pad, located on the lateral side of the palm.
146. Which area is located on the medial side of the palm and is formed by flexor digiti minimi,
abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi?
a. Radial pulse
b. Thenar eminence
ANS: D
Flexor digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi form the hypothenar
eminence, located on the medial side of the palm.
147. Which muscle originates on the transverses processes of the lumbar vertebrae?
a. Iliacus
b. Adductor brevis
c. Piriformis
d. Psoas major
ANS: D
Psoas major originates on the transverse processes of T12–L5, the vertebral bodies of
T12–L5, and the intervertebral disks of lumbar vertebrae.
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148. Which muscle flexes the hip?

a. Psoas major
b. Semitendinosus
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: D
Psoas major flexes the hip.
149. Which muscle has its origins near the abdominal aorta?
a. Gracilis
b. Piriformis
c. Psoas major
d. Tensor fascia latae
ANS: C
The origins or proximal attachments of psoas major lie near the abdominal aorta.
150. Which muscle originates on the iliac fossa?

a. Iliacus
b. Pectineus
c. Piriformis
d. Gracilis
ANS: A
Iliacus originates on the iliac fossa.
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151. Which muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter?
a. Gracilis
b. Iliopsoas
c. Sartorius
d. Pectineus
ANS: B
Iliopsoas inserts on the lesser trochanter.
152. Which muscle is a synergist to iliopsoas?

a. Piriformis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus maximus
ANS: B
Rectus femoris is a synergist to iliopsoas for hip flexion.
153. Which muscle is the largest lateral rotator of the hip?

a. Piriformis
b. Pectineus
c. Obturator internus
d. Quadratus femoris
ANS: A
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Piriformis is the largest lateral rotator of the hip.
154. Approximately 15% of the population has part or all of the sciatic nerve running through
which muscle?
a. Gracilis
b. Sartorius
c. Pectineus
d. Piriformis
ANS: D
Part or all of the sciatic nerve runs through piriformis in approximately 15% of the population.
155. What is the origin of piriformis?

a. Ischial ramus
b. Anterior sacrum
c. Anterior superior iliac spine
d. Posterior superior iliac spine
ANS: B
Piriformis originates on the anterior sacrum.
156. Which muscle is synergistic to the piriformis?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Semitendinosus
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Quadratus lumborum
Gluteus maximus is synergistic to piriformis; both laterally rotate and abduct the hip.
157. Which muscle inserts on the greater trochanter?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Obturator externus
d. Adductor longus
ANS: C
Obturator externus inserts on the greater trochanter.
158. Which muscle is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators?

a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Gemellus superior
c. Quadratus femoris
d. Obturator externus
ANS: A
The tensor fascia latae is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators.
159. Which muscle originates on the posterior sacrum, the posterior coccyx, and the posterior iliac
crest?
a. Piriformis
b. Rectus femoris
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c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus maximus
ANS: D
Gluteus maximus originates on the posterior sacrum, the posterior coccyx, and the posterior
iliac crest, as well as the external ilium to the posterior gluteal line.
160. Which muscle is the strongest extensor of the hip?

a. Iliacus
b. Psoas major
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Gluteus maximus
ANS: D
Gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor and is one of the strongest muscles in the body.
161. Which structure constitutes a large portion of the insertion of the gluteus maximus?
a. Iliotibial band
b. Achilles tendon
c. Nuchal ligament
d. Galea aponeurotica
ANS: A
Gluteus maximus inserts largely on a structure called the iliotibial band, or ITB.
162. Which muscle has part of its insertion on the gluteal tuberosity?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Gluteus medius TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Obturator externus
ANS: C
Part of the insertion of gluteus maximus is on the gluteal tuberosity.
163. Which structure is a thickened fascial strip located on the lateral thigh?
a. Linea aspera
b. Iliotibial band
c. Galea aponeurotica
d. Sacrotuberous ligament
ANS: B
Iliotibial band (ITB), or iliotibial tract, is a thickened fascial band located on the lateral thigh.
The ITB is derived from the fascia lata or a fascial tube surrounding the thigh muscles like a
tight stocking.
164. Which muscle is synergistic to gluteus medius?

a. Gracilis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Biceps femoris
d. Gluteus minimus
ANS: D
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Gluteus minimus is synergistic to gluteus medius. Both abduct, medially rotate, and laterally
rotate the hip, and anteriorly and posteriorly tilt the pelvis.
165. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine?

a. Psoas major
b. Rectus femoris
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Tensor fascia latae
ANS: D
Tensor fascia latae originates on the anterior superior iliac spine as well as the anterior iliac
crest.
166. Where does tensor fascia latae insert?

a. Linea aspera
b. Iliotibial band
c. Galea aponeurotica
d. Sacrotuberous ligament
ANS: B
The iliotibial band is the insertion for tensor fasciae latae.
167. Which muscle adducts the hip?

a. Gracilis
b. Iliopsoas
c. Piriformis
d. Gastrocnemius
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ANS: A
Gracilis adducts the hip.
168. Which muscle is the most medial adductor of the hip?

a. Gracilis
b. Pectineus
c. Adductor longus
d. Adductor magnus
ANS: A
Gracilis is the most medial adductor and is the only adductor that crosses the hip and the knee.
169. Which muscle crosses both the hip and the knee?
a. Gracilis
b. Pectineus
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Gluteus maximus
ANS: A
Gracilis is the most medial adductor and is the only adductor that crosses the hip and the knee.
170. The term pes anserinus refers to which area?

a. Ligament attaching to the calcaneus
b. Conjoined tendons of three muscles
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c. Thickened fascial band located on the lateral thigh

d. Facial layers connecting the abdominal oblique muscles
ANS: B
Pes anserinus is the conjoined tendons of three muscles: gracilis, semitendinosus, and
sartorius.
171. Which muscles make up the pes anserinus?

a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris
b. Brachialis, trapezius, and rhomboids
c. Gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius
d. Adductor longus, pectineus, and sartorius
ANS: C
sartorius.
172. Which muscle has one of its origins on the ischial tuberosity?
a. Gracilis
b. Sartorius
c. Vastus medialis
d. Adductor magnus
ANS: D
Adductor magnus originates on the ischial tuberosity, the inferior pubic ramus, and the ischial
ramus.
173. Which muscle contains a gap

TEScalled
TBAthe
NKadductor
SELLERhiatus?
.COM
a. Gracilis
b. Pectinues
c. Adductor longus
d. Adductor magnus
ANS: D
Adductor magnus contains two sections with a gap between them—one section inserts on the
linea aspera and the other inserts on the adductor tubercle. The gap, or adductor hiatus, allows
passage of blood vessels.
174. Which muscle inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur?

a. Gracilis
b. Adductor brevis
c. Adductor magnus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: C
Adductor magnus inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur as well as the linea aspera.
175. Which adductor muscle is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of the
common origin of ischial tuberosity and the common action of hip extension?
a. Gracilis
b. Pectineus
c. Adductor brevis
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d. Adductor magnus
ANS: D
Adductor magnus is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of the common
origin of ischial tuberosity and the common action of hip extension.
176. Which muscle inserts on the linea aspera?

a. Gracilis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Iliopsoas
d. Adductor longus
ANS: D
Adductor longus inserts on the middle third of the linea aspera.
177. What is the common insertion of the quadriceps femoris?

a. Tibial tuberosity
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Medial malleolus
d. Greater trochanter
ANS: A
The quadriceps femoris, or quads, is a group of muscles that have a common insertion on the
tibial tuberosity.
178. Which muscle is part of the quadriceps femoris?

a. Biceps femoris
b. Vastus medialis TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Adductor magnus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: B
The quadriceps femoris, or quads, is a group of muscles that includes rectus femoris, vastus
lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis.
179. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Vastus medialis
d. Vastus intermedius
ANS: A
Rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine, as well as the external ilium just
superior to the acetabulum.
180. Which muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee?
a. Piriformis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus maximus
ANS: B
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Rectus femoris flexes the hip and extends the knee.
181. Which quadriceps muscle crosses both the hip and the knee?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Vastus medialis
ANS: A
Rectus femoris crosses both the hip and the knee.
182. Which quadriceps muscle is called the teardrop muscle because of its shape on the anterior
thigh?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Vastus medialis
ANS: C
Vastus medialis is called the teardrop muscle because of its teardrop shape on the medial
anterior thigh.
183. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the gluteal tuberosity?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Vastus medialis
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ANS: B
Vastus lateralis originates on the gluteal tuberosity as well as the lateral lip of the linea aspera.
184. Which muscle group opposes knee flexion?

a. Quadriceps
b. Rotators
c. Hamstrings
d. Adductors
ANS: A
The hamstrings create knee flexion, which means that the quadriceps group opposes or resists
knee flexion.
185. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine?

a. Pectineus
b. Sartorius
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Rectus femoris
ANS: B
Sartorius originates on the anterior superior iliac spine.
186. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus?

a. Pectineus
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b. Sartorius
c. Vastus medialis
d. Rectus femoris
ANS: B
sartorius.
187. Which muscle is called the tailor’s muscle because its actions allow tailors to sit cross-legged
while sewing?
a. Gracilis
b. Sartorius
c. Rectus femoris
d. Biceps femoris
ANS: B
The sartorius is called the tailor’s muscle because tailors may sit cross-legged as they sew.
The actions of sartorius—hip flexion, knee flexion, and hip lateral rotation—allow sitting
cross legged.
188. Which muscle is the longest in the body?

a. Sartorius
b. Pectineus
c. Palmaris longus
d. Adductor longus
ANS: A
Sartorius is the longest muscle
TESinTBthe
ANbody
KSEand
LLruns
ER.obliquely
COM across the quads crossing both
the hip and knee.
189. Which muscle is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee and
begins the first few degrees of flexion?
a. Popliteus
b. Pectineus
c. Sartorius
d. Piriformis
ANS: A
Popliteus is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee and
begins the first few degrees of flexion.
190. Which muscle is NOT in the hamstring group?

a. Gracilis
b. Biceps femoris
c. Semitendinosus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: A
Gracilis is part of the adductor muscle group. Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and
semitendinosus are all hamstring muscles.
191. What is the common origin of the hamstring muscles?
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a. Tibial tuberosity
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Medial malleolus
d. Greater trochanter
ANS: B
The hamstring muscles originate on the ischial tuberosity.
192. Which muscle is the most medial hamstring?

a. Gracilis
b. Biceps femoris
c. Semitendinosus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: D
Semimembranosus is the most medial hamstring muscle.
193. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus?

a. Pectineus
b. Piriformis
c. Rectus femoris
d. Semitendinosus
ANS: D
sartorius.
194. Which muscle inserts on the

TEfibula?
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a. Biceps femoris
b. Rectus femoris
c. Semitendinosus
d. Semimembranosus
ANS: A
Biceps femoris inserts on the fibular head.
195. Which actions does biceps femoris perform?

a. Hip flexion and knee extension
b. Hip extension and knee flexion
c. Shoulder extension and elbow flexion
d. Shoulder flexion and elbow extension
ANS: B
Two actions of biceps femoris are hip extension and knee flexion.
196. Which muscle is a synergist to the biceps femoris?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Peroneus longus
ANS: B
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Gastrocnemius is synergistic to biceps femoris. They both perform knee flexion.
197. What is the common insertion of gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus?

a. Patellar tendon
b. Annular tendon
c. Achilles tendon
d. Extensor tendon
ANS: C
Gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus insert on the calcaneus via the Achilles tendon.
198. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal I?

a. Plantaris
b. Gastrocnemius
d. Extensor hallucis longus
ANS: C
Tibialis anterior inserts on metatarsal I, as well as on the medial cuneiform.
199. Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?

a. Soleus
b. Gastrocnemius
d. Fibularis longus
ANS: C
Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes
TEthe
STankle.
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200. Which muscle inverts the foot?
a. Fibularis longus
b. Plantaris
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Tibialis anterior
ANS: D
Tibialis anterior inverts the foot.
201. Which muscle extends digits II–V?

a. Tibialis anterior
b. Tibialis posterior
c. Flexor digitorum longus
d. Extensor digitorum longus
ANS: D
Extensor digitorum longus extends digits II–V.
202. Which muscle extends the great toe?

c. Flexor hallucis longus
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ANS: D
Extensor hallucis longus extends the great toe.
203. Which muscle originates on the fibular head?

a. Soleus
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Fibularis brevis
d. Fibularis longus
ANS: D
Fibularis longus originates on the fibular head.
204. Which muscle everts the foot?

a. Soleus
b. Gastrocnemius
d. Fibularis longus
ANS: D
Fibularis longus everts the foot.
205. Which muscles are called the stirrup muscles?

a. Soleus and plantaris
b. Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis
c. Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus
d. Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus
Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus are called the stirrup muscles because their tendons form
an anatomic stirrup or sling under the foot.
206. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal V?

a. Tibialis posterior
b. Fibularis brevis
d. Fibularis longus
ANS: B
Fibularis brevis inserts on metatarsal V.
207. Which muscle originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur?
a. Soleus
c. Gastrocnemius
ANS: C
Gastrocnemius originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur.
208. Which muscle plantar flexes the ankle?

a. Gastrocnemius
b. Tibialis anterior
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c. Extensor digitorum longus

ANS: A
Gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle.
209. Which muscle is called the toe dancer’s muscle because it helps ballerinas stand or dance on
their toes?
a. Gastrocnemius
c. Fibularis longus
d. Fibularis brevis
ANS: A
Gastrocnemius is called the toe dancer’s muscle, because it helps ballerinas stand or dance on
their toes, or “on pointe.”
210. Which muscle is called the mini-gastroc?

a. Plantaris
c. Tibialis posterior
ANS: A
Plantaris is called the mini-gastroc because of its common origin, insertion, and actions with
gastrocnemius.
211. Which muscle is an antagonist

TEStoTBgastrocnemius?
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a. Soleus
b. Plantaris
c. Biceps femoris
ANS: D
Tibialis anterior is an antagonist to gastrocnemius. Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the ankle, and
gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle.
212. Which muscle flexes digits II–V?

c. Flexor digitorum longus
ANS: C
Flexor digitorum longus flexes digits II–V.
213. Which muscle flexes the great toe?

c. Flexor hallucis longus
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ANS: C
Flexor hallucis longus flexes the great toe.
214. Which term is a synonym for occipitofrontalis?

a. Epicranius
b. Pes anserinus
c. Triceps surae
d. Suboccipitals
ANS: A
Epicranius is a synonym for the occipitofrontalis and includes two pairs of muscles:
occipitalis and frontalis.
215. Which structure is the extensive network of cranial fascia that connects occipitalis and
frontalis muscle?
a. Linea aspera
b. Rectus sheath
c. Flexor retinaculum
ANS: D
Occipitalis and frontalis are connected by an extensive network of cranial fascia called the
galea aponeurotica.
216. Which muscle is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle?

a. Platysma
b. Orbicularis oris
c. Orbicularis oculi TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Sternocleidomastoid
ANS: C
Orbicularis oculi is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle because it closes one or both
eyelids.
217. Which muscle is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss?
a. Platysma
b. Orbicularis oris
c. Orbicularis oculi
ANS: B
Orbicularis oris is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss.
218. Which muscle is called the pouting muscle?

a. Platysma
b. Orbicularis oris
c. Orbicularis oculi
ANS: A
Platysma is called the pouting muscle because it pulls the corners of the mouth downward and
backward as in pouting.
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219. Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process?

a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Scalenus posterior
ANS: B
Temporalis inserts on the coronoid process.
220. Which muscles elevate the mandible?

a. Temporalis and masseter
b. Orbicularis oris and buccinator
c. Platysma and lateral pterygoids
d. Masseter and lateral pterygoids
ANS: A
Temporalis and masseter, as well as medial pterygoid, elevate the mandible.
221. Which muscle is a mirror image of medial pterygoid?

a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
ANS: A
Masseter is a mirror image of the medial pterygoid.
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222. Which muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular disorder?
a. Scalenes, temporalis, and pterygoids
b. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis
c. Temporalis, buccinator, and masseter
d. Pterygoids, zygomaticus, and temporalis
ANS: B
Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular
disorder because they all move the temporomandibular joint.
223. What is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid?

a. Neck flexion
b. Neck extension
c. Rotation of the head to the same side
d. Rotation of the head to the opposite side
ANS: D
Rotation of the head to the opposite side occurs is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid.
224. Which muscle is called the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck to
bring the head down in a bow often used while praying?
a. Platysma
b. Medial pterygoid
c. Splenius capitis
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ANS: D
Sternocleidomastoid is called the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck
to bring the head down in a bow often used while praying.
225. Which muscle is a mirror image of sternocleidomastoid?

a. Masseter
b. Platysma
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Splenius capitis
ANS: D
Splenius capitis is the mirror image of sternocleidomastoid.
226. Which condition involves spasms of sternocleidomastoid?

a. Tetanus
b. Tinnitus
c. Tendonitis
d. Torticollis
ANS: D
Torticollis occurs when the sternocleidomastoid is in spasm.
227. Which muscles can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery?
a. Scalenes and pectoralis major
b. Scalenes and pectoralis minor
c. Pectoralis major and subscapularis
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d. Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
ANS: B
Scalenes and pectoralis minor can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery. These
muscles are also called the “neurovascular entrappers.”
228. Which muscle inserts on rib 2?

a. Splenius capitis
b. Scalenus anterior
ANS: C
Scalenus posterior inserts on rib 2.
229. Which muscles are called headache ghosts?

a. Rhomboids
b. Hamstrings
c. Abdominals
d. Suboccipitals
ANS: D
Suboccipitals are called headache ghosts because their referred pain patterns are “ghostly” and
may radiate from the base of the skull through the head to behind the orbits or eyes.
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230. Which term is collective rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, oblique
capitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior?
a. Rotators
b. Quadriceps
c. Rhomboids
d. Suboccipitals
ANS: D
Suboccipitals are a group of four muscles: rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis
posterior minor, oblique capitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior.
231. Which muscle lies within the rectus sheath?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Quadratus femoris
ANS: B
Within the rectus sheath is the rectus abdominis muscle.
232. Which structure connects the two recti muscles?

a. Linea alba
b. Linea aspera
c. Rectus sheath
ANS: A
The linea alba connects theTtwo
ESTrecti
BANmuscles.
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233. Which muscle contains tendinous intersections?
a. Multifidus
b. Semispinalis
c. Rectus abdominis
ANS: C
Rectus abdominis contains tendinous intersections. These horizontal bands of connective
tissue help keep the length of the rectus abdominis relatively constant because this muscle
goes a long distance without skeletal attachments.
234. Which muscle of the following is called the six-pack muscle?

a. Transverse abdominis
b. External oblique
c. Rectus abdominis
ANS: C
Rectus abdominis is occasionally called the 6-pack muscle because it looks like someone is
wearing a 6-pack when left and right sections are well-developed from weight training.
However, rectus abdominis actually contains eight sections, four on either side, but only six
sections are viewed externally.
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235. Which action do the external obliques and internal obliques perform?
a. Depressing the ribs
b. Lifting the ribs
c. Extending the vertebral column
d. Rotation of the vertebral column
ANS: D
The external obliques and the internal obliques perform rotation of the vertebral column as
well as laterally flexing the vertebral column, flexing the vertebral column, compressing the
abdominal contents, and posteriorly tilting the pelvis.
236. What is the origin of quadratus lumborum?

a. Iliac crest
b. Sciatic notch
c. Ischial tuberosity
d. Lesser trochanter
ANS: A
The origin of quadratus lumborum is the posterior iliac crest.
237. Which muscle is called the hip hiker muscle?

a. External oblique
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Transverse abdominis
ANS: C
Quadratus lumborum (QL)TisES sometimes
TBANKScalled
ELLEhip
R.hiker
COMmuscle because unilateral
contraction elevates or “hikes” the hip.
238. Which muscle groups do the paraspinals include?

a. Hamstrings and adductors
b. Abdominals and quadriceps
c. Rotator cuff and rhomboids
d. Transversospinalis and erector spinae
ANS: D
The paraspinals is the term for group of back muscles that consist of two different muscle
sections: transversospinalis and erector spinae.
239. Which muscles are in the transversospinalis group?

a. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis
b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis
c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus
d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor
ANS: C
Transversospinalis are the deeper section of the paraspinals and consist of semispinalis,
rotatores, and multifidus.
240. Which muscle is the most superficial in the transversospinalis group?

a. Rotatores
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b. Multifidus
c. Longissimus
d. Semispinalis
ANS: D
Semispinalis is the most superficial muscle in the transversospinalis group.
241. Which muscle is located between semispinalis and rotatores in the transversospinalis group?
a. Spinalis
b. Multifidus
c. Iliocostalis
d. Longissimus
ANS: B
Multifidus is the middle transversospinalis muscle and is located between the semispinalis and
rotatores.
242. Which muscles are the deepest in the transversospinalis group?

a. Rotatores
b. Multifidi
c. External obliques
d. Internal obliques
ANS: A
Rotatores are the deepest transversospinalis muscles.
243. Which muscles are included in the erector spinae group?

a. Masseter, pterygoids, and
TES temporalis
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b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis
c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus
d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor
ANS: B
Erector spinae, or sacrospinalis, are the superficial paraspinals and consist of spinalis,
longissimus, and iliocostalis.
244. Which muscle is the most medial in the erector spinae group?
a. Spinalis
b. Multifidus
c. Iliocostalis
d. Longissimus
ANS: A
Spinalis is the most medial muscle of the erector spinae group.
245. Which action do all the muscles of the erector spinae group perform?
a. Neck flexion
b. Neck extension
c. Extension of the vertebral column
d. Flexion of the vertebral column
ANS: C
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Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis all extend the vertebral column.
246. Where does the diaphragm insert?

a. Central tendon
b. Xiphoid process
c. Public crest
d. Costal cartilage
ANS: A
The diaphragm inserts on the central tendon.
247. Which muscle increases the thoracic cavity volume during inhalation and increases
intraabdominal pressure?
a. Psoas major
b. Diaphragm
c. Infraspinatus
d. Rectus abdominis
ANS: B
The diaphragm is the main muscle of inhalation because it descends when it contracts,
increasing thoracic cavity volume, and increasing intraabdominal pressure.
248. Which muscle area is primary for inhalation?

a. Diaphragm
b. External intercostals
c. Internal intercostals
d. Serratus posterior inferior
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ANS: A
The diaphragm is the main muscle of inhalation.
249. Which muscle area depresses the ribcage during exhalation?

a. Iliocostalis
b. Pectoralis major
c. Transversospinalis
d. Internal intercostals
ANS: D
The internal intercostals maintain the intercostal spaces and depress the ribcage during
exhalation.
250. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9–12, and
depresses the ribs during exhalation?
a. Platysma
b. Levator scapulae
c. Serratus posterior inferior
d. Rectus capitis posterior minor
ANS: C
Serratus posterior inferior originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9–12,
and depresses the ribs during exhalation.
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Chapter 22: Integumentary System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which type of cell triggers immune responses?

a. Melanocyte
b. Keratinocyte
c. Dendritic cell
d. Meissner cell
ANS: C
Specialized cells called dendritic or Langerhan cells stimulate immune responses when skin is
broken by surgery or injury.
2. Which mechanism does the skin use to regulate temperature?

a. Tanning
b. Sweating
c. Absorption
d. Keratinization
ANS: B
Skin plays a role in temperature regulation through changes in blood flow and activity of
sweat glands.
3. Skin helps synthesize which vitamin?

a. A TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. E
c. C
d. D
ANS: D
Skin helps synthesize vitamin D, a nutrient necessary for the absorption of calcium by the
gastrointestinal tract.
4. Which region is relatively avascular?

a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Subcutaneous
ANS: B
The epidermis is the thin outer region of skin and is composed of epithelial tissue. The
epidermis itself is relatively avascular; therefore, nutrients are provided by tissue fluids from
the underlying dermis.
5. Which type of cell produces pigment that contributes to skin color?

a. Melanocyte
b. Keratinocyte
c. Dendritic
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d. Meissner
ANS: A
Approximately one fourth of the cells in the stratum basale are melanocytes, which produce a
dark pigment called melanin. Melanin production is stimulated by sunlight and skin darkens
as a result, creating a semi-protective shield from ultraviolet or UV radiation.
6. Which substance waterproofs the skin?

a. Elastin
b. Keratin
c. Adipose
d. Collagen
ANS: B
Vesicles within keratinocytes secrete a substance keratin, which mixes with skin oils and
forms an epidermal water barrier, essentially waterproofing the skin by reducing water loss
that would led to dehydration.
7. Which region is known as “true skin?”

a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Subcutaneous
ANS: A
The dermis is the thicker, deeper region or “true skin.”
8. Which region contains blood

TEvessels,
STBANnerve receptors,
KSEL LER.CO hair
M follicles, and skin glands?
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Subcutaneous
ANS: A
Connective tissue within the dermis is mainly collagen and elastin. Collagen, which
constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis, offers structural support to nerve receptors,
blood vessels, hair follicles, muscles, and glands.
9. Collagen constitutes what percentage of the dermis?

a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 100%
ANS: C
Collagen, which constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis, offers structural support to
nerve receptors, blood vessels, hair follicles, muscles, and glands.
10. What is another term for the subcutaneous layer?

a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
c. Hypodermis
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d. Submuscular
ANS: C
The subcutaneous layer is deep to the dermis. It is also called the hypodermis or superficial
fascia.
11. Which substance gives skin a golden color?

a. Melanin
b. Carotene
c. Collagen
d. Hemoglobin
ANS: B
The yellow pigment of carotene gives skin a golden color. In most individuals, the skin effects
of carotene are dominated by the color effects of melanin.
12. Which term refers to pale skin?

a. Pallor
b. Jaundice
c. Melasma
d. Cyanosis
ANS: A
Pale or ashen skin is called pallor.
13. Which structures are pouchlike and have hair arising from them?
a. Sebaceous glands
b. Sudoriferous glands TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Sinuses
d. Follicles
ANS: D
Hair is composed of keratinized filaments arising from pouchlike follicles located in the
dermis. The hair shaft protrudes through a pore located in the epidermis.
14. Which structure attaches to hair follicles and pulls hair upright?
a. Arrector pili
b. Langerhans cells
c. Superficial fascia
d. Meissner corpuscles
ANS: A
Arrector pili are muscles attached to hair follicles. These muscles contract to pull the hair
shaft upright.
15. Which term refers to the hard plates found on distal surfaces of fingers and toes?
a. Hair
b. Nails
c. Glands
d. Corpuscle
ANS: B
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Nails are compact keratinized cells that form the thin hard plates found on distal surfaces of
fingers and toes.
16. Which area is the site of nail production?

a. Lunula
b. Cuticle
c. Bed
d. Root
ANS: D
Nail production takes place in the nail root.
17. Which term refers to the tough ridge of skin that grows out over the nail from its base?
a. Lunula
b. Cuticle
c. Nail bed
d. Nail root
ANS: B
The cuticle is the tough ridge of skin that grows out over the nail from its base.
18. Which types of gland produces oil?

a. Eccrine
b. Endocrine
c. Sebaceous
d. Sudoriferous
Sebaceous glands, or oil glands, produce sebum (oil). These glands are connected to hair
follicles by small ducts.
19. Which type of gland regulates body temperature and eliminates wastes?
a. Endocrine
b. Sebaceous
c. Ceruminous
d. Sudoriferous
ANS: D
Sudoriferous glands, or sweat glands, produce sweat or perspiration. Their primary functions
are to regulate body temperature and to eliminate wastes.
20. Which type are the most numerous sweat glands?

a. Eccrine
b. Apocrine
c. Mammary
d. Ceruminous
ANS: A
Eccrine glands are the most numerous sweat glands and produce a watery liquid. They help
with temperature regulation through evaporative cooling of perspiration.
21. Which term refers to activating body responses to bring temperature back to normal range?
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a. Thermogenesis
b. Thermoregulation
c. Hyperthermia
d. Hypothermia
ANS: B
When the hypothalamus senses changes in body temperature, it activates responses to bring
temperature back to normal range; this is called thermoregulation.
22. Which term means excessive decreases in body temperature?

a. Thermogenesis
b. Thermoregulation
c. Hyperthermia
d. Hypothermia
ANS: D
Failure of the body to thermoregulate may cause hypothermia or excessive decreases in body
temperature.
23. Which part of the brain receives sensations from skin receptors and tracks them back to which
area of the body is being stimulated?
a. Postcentral gyrus
b. Wernicke area
c. Occipital lobe
d. Prefrontal cortex
ANS: A
Information from skin receptors
TESTtravel
BANKtoStheELpostcentral
LER.COMgyrus in the parietal lobe of the brain.
The postcentral gyrus is also called the somatosensory cortex. This area of the brain not only
receives sensations from skin receptors, it tracks it back to which area of the body is being
stimulated, and then determines what type of sensation is being felt.
24. The hands, forearms, arms, face, lips, and tongue make up what percentage of the postcentral
gyrus?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
ANS: D
The hands, forearms, arms, face, lips, and tongue make up approximately 80% of the
postcentral gyrus.
25. Which receptor is an example of encapsulated nerve endings?

a. Meissner corpuscle
b. Nociceptor
c. Merkel disk
d. Hair root plexus
ANS: A
Examples of encapsulated nerve endings located in skin are Meissner corpuscle, Krause
corpuscle, Ruffini corpuscle, and Pacini corpuscle.
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26. Which type of receptor detects changes in temperature?

a. Krause corpuscle
b. Ruffini corpuscle
c. Hair root plexus
d. Nociceptor
ANS: D
Nociceptors respond to almost any noxious stimuli such as tissue damage from temperature
change, extreme mechanical stimuli, and chemical irritation.
27. Which type of receptor wrap around follicles and resemble a net or web?
a. Hair root plexus
b. Nociceptors
c. Meissner corpuscles
d. Pacinian corpuscles
ANS: A
A hair root plexus, or hair follicle receptor, responds to mechanical stimuli such as hair
movement. These receptors are wrapped around hair follicles and resemble a net or web.
28. Which receptor is also known as a tactile corpuscle and detects light pressure?
a. Hair root plexus
b. Nociceptor
c. Meissner corpuscle
d. Pacinian corpuscle
Meissner corpuscles, or tactile corpuscles, mediate light pressure or light touch in addition to
textural sensations and low-frequency vibration.
29. Which receptor detects heavy pressure and continuous touch?

a. Hair root plexus
b. Ruffini corpuscle
c. Nociceptor
ANS: B
Ruffini corpuscles, or bulbous corpuscles, are found in the dermis and respond to heavy
pressure, continuous or persistent touch, skin stretching, and warmth.
30. Which receptor detects deep pressure, vibration, and stretch?

a. Hair root plexus
b. Thermoreceptor
c. Meissner corpuscle
ANS: D
Pacini or Pacinian corpuscles, also called lamellar corpuscles, are found deep in the dermis,
especially in the hands and feet, as well as in joint capsules. They respond to deep pressure,
high-frequency vibration, and stretch.
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31. Which condition occurs most often on the soles and between the toes?
a. Shingles
b. Athlete’s foot
c. Herpes simplex
d. Decubitus ulcer
ANS: B
Athlete’s foot is a fungal infection of the foot, most often the sole and between the toes. It is
most prevalent among teenagers and adult men, as well as people with weakened or impaired
immune responses, such as individuals with diabetes.
32. Which condition is an infection of hair follicles?

a. Boils
b. Warts
c. Ringworm
d. Herpes simplex
ANS: A
Boils are deeply infected hair follicles that spread to surrounding areas. Boils are also called
furuncles. Boils can occur anywhere on the body, but they are most common on the face,
neck, axillae, back, buttocks, and thighs.
33. Which condition is a recurrent viral infection?

a. Eczema
b. Impetigo
c. Seborrheic dermatitis
d. Herpes simplex
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ANS: D
Cold sores are also called fever blisters and oral herpes simplex. Cold sores are recurrent viral
infections that affect the skin and mucous membranes. They can appear anywhere on the body
but most often affect areas around the mouth.
34. Which condition is localized injury to the skin and underlying tissues usually over a bony
prominence from sustained pressure?
a. Shingles
b. Athlete’s foot
c. Herpes simplex
d. Decubitus ulcers
ANS: D
Decubitus ulcers are localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissues, usually over a bony
prominence from sustained pressure. Ulcers are classified in four stages based on the depth of
tissue damage from superficial tissue layers: (stage I) all the way down to bones and joints
(stage IV).
35. Which skin condition is noncontagious?

a. Eczema
b. Impetigo
c. Ringworm
d. Scabies
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ANS: A
Eczema is the most common inflammatory skin condition. It is not contagious. Eczema is
most often found on the hands, scalp, face, nape of the neck, creases of the elbows and knees,
and ankles and feet.
36. Which condition is a bacterial skin infection that occurs mainly around the mouth, nose, and
hands and that is more common in children?
a. Eczema
b. Impetigo
d. Herpes simplex
ANS: B
Impetigo is a bacterial infection that occurs mainly around the mouth, nose, and skin folds
such as the axillae. Impetigo is more common in children than in adults.
37. Which condition causes accelerated proliferation of epidermal cells, leading to a buildup of
thick skin in patches?
a. Eczema
b. Shingles
c. Impetigo
d. Psoriasis
ANS: D
Psoriasis is a noninfectious chronic inflammatory skin condition in which the proliferation
rate of epidermal cells is greatly accelerated. Instead of skin renewing approximately every 28
days, it occurs every few days. When this happens, skin cells build up in thick patches.
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38. Which condition is a fungal infection often transmitted by direct contact with cats and dogs?
a. Eczema
b. Impetigo
c. Ringworm
d. Psoriasis
ANS: C
Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin. It is transmitted by contact with infected skin or
infected domestic animals, such as cats and dogs.
39. Which condition is an acute, localized viral infection caused by reactivation of the chickenpox
virus?
a. Shingles
b. Psoriasis
c. Herpes simplex
d. Decubitus ulcers
ANS: A
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Shingles is an acute, localized viral infection of the skin. It is essentially a reactivation of the
chickenpox, or herpes zoster, virus. After chickenpox has resolved, the virus lies dormant
within sensory spinal nerve roots and is kept inactive by healthy immune responses. However,
if the immune response becomes weakened or is suppressed, the virus can travel down a
dermatome (cutaneous area innervated by a spinal nerve), which leads to the disease
manifestation.
40. Which condition is characterized by rough, raised masses of skin tissue and caused by the
human papilloma virus?
a. Boils
b. Warts
d. Herpes simplex
ANS: B
Warts are a rough, raised, oval-shaped mass of skin. They may occur anywhere on the body,
but most warts are located on the hands, feet (plantar warts), face and legs (flat warts), and
genitals (genital warts). Warts are contagious and are spread by contact with infected skin.
Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus virus (HPV).
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Chapter 23: Nervous System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which body system helps maintain homeostasis along with the nervous system?
a. Digestive
b. Cardiovascular
c. Respiratory
d. Endocrine
ANS: D
Two body systems help to maintain homeostasis—the nervous system and endocrine system.
2. Which function does the nervous system perform?

a. Immune responses against pathogens
b. Sensory input and motor output
c. Transportation of nutrients
d. Waste elimination
ANS: B
Sensory input, motor output, higher mental functioning, and emotional responsiveness are all
functions of the nervous system.
3. Which division of the nervous system is defined as containing the brain and spinal cord?
a. Peripheral
b. Autonomic TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Somatic
d. Central
ANS: D
Major components of the central nervous system are the brain, spinal cord, meninges or
covering around the brain and spinal cord, and the cerebrospinal fluid.
4. Which term means connective tissues that support, nourish, protect and insulate the impulse
conducting cells?
a. Neuroglia
b. Neurons
c. Gray matter
d. White matter
ANS: A
Neuroglia, or glial cells, are connective tissues that support, nourish, protect, and insulate
neurons.
5. Which term refers to fatty coverings around neurons that insulates and increases the
conduction rate of the impulse?
a. Epineurium
b. Neuroglia
c. Myelin
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d. Perineurium
ANS: C
Fatty myelin sheaths surround certain neurons. It increases the conduction rate of the impulse
and provides insulation to prevent impulse leakage to adjacent neurons.
6. Which term means the outer layer of myelin sheaths?

a. Neurilemma
b. Neuroglia
c. Endoneurium
d. Epineurium
ANS: A
The outer layer of myelin sheaths is called neurilemma.
7. What are the gaps between Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths called?
a. Synaptic gaps
b. Neurilemmas
c. Synaptic vesicles
d. Nodes of Ranvier
ANS: D
Gaps located between Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths are called Nodes of Ranvier or
myelin sheath gaps. These structures increase the speed of the impulse because it can literally
jump from one node to another.
8. What are the impulse-conducting cells of the nervous system called?

a. Neuroglia TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Neurons
c. Astrocytes
d. Oligodendrocytes
ANS: B
Neurons are impulse-conducting cells and represent the nervous system’s simplest structural
unit.
9. Which structures receive stimuli and initiate nerve impulse transmission?

a. Axons
b. Dendrites
c. Microglia
d. Astrocytes
ANS: B
Dendrites are short and narrow extensions from the cell body that receive stimuli and initiate
nerve impulse transmission.
10. Which structure transmits impulses away from the neuron cell body?
a. Dendrite
b. Microglia
c. Axon
d. Sarcolemma
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ANS: C
Axons conduct nerve impulse transmission away from the cell body.
11. Which structures contain neurotransmitters?

a. Dermatomes
b. Ganglia
c. Synaptic vesicles
d. Nodes of Ranvier
ANS: C
Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called neurotransmitters.
12. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward the central nervous system?
a. Effector
b. Afferent
c. Efferent
d. Motor
ANS: B
Afferent neurons transmit sensory information toward the CNS. These neurons, which are
also called sensory neurons, are found within the skin, joints, and muscles. Afferent neurons
are called receptors.
13. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward muscles or glands called?
a. Arcing
b. Sensory
c. Afferent
d. Efferent TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
Efferent neurons transmit impulses from the CNS toward muscles or glands (effectors).
Efferent neurons are also called motor neurons.
14. Which term refers to a single conduction pathway to and from the central nervous system?
a. Saltatory conduction
b. Actional potential
c. Reflex arc
d. Nerve plexus
ANS: C
A reflex arc is a single conduction pathway to and from the CNS. Reflex arcs are the simplest
structural and functional unit in the nervous system.
15. Which term means bundles of nerve fibers in the central nervous system?
a. Neuroglia
b. Nerve
c. Gyrus
d. Tract
ANS: D
Tracts are bundles of nerve fibers in the central nervous system.
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16. What is the connective tissue layer in a nerve surrounding each fascicle called?
a. Sarcolemma
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium
d. Neurilemma
ANS: B
Individual nerve fibers, each surrounded by endoneurium, are organized into small bundles of
nerve fibers called fasciculi, which lie in parallel rows and are surrounded by a connective
tissue layer called perineurium.
17. Which term refers to a neuron that is resting, without conducting an impulse?
a. Polarization
b. Depolarization
c. All-or-none response
d. Saltatory conduction
ANS: A
Polarization is the term used to describe the neuron while resting and not conducting an
impulse.
18. What is the mechanism that produces and maintains the state of polarization called?
a. Sodium–potassium pump
b. Repolarization
c. Saltatory conduction
d. Blood–brain barrier
The mechanism that produces and maintains the state of polarization is the sodium–potassium
pump. This pump transports sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+) in opposite directions
at unequal rates. It moves three Na+ out of the cell for every two K+ it moves into the cell
(3:2). Very little sodium enters the cell.
19. Which term refers to a neuron that is conducting an impulse?

a. Polarization
b. Depolarization
c. All-or-none response
ANS: B
The movement continues as long as the gates remain open. Movement of Na+ inside the cell
causes the polarity of the cell to reverse, or move from a negative charge to positive charge;
this is called depolarization. The reversing of charges is the nerve impulse. The impulse
moves down the axon in small segments, much like a line of dominoes, and continues until it
reaches the end of the neuron.
20. Which term means the time during what a neuron is unable to conduct another impulse until it
repolarizes?
a. Depolarization
b. Repolarization
c. Action potential
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d. Refractory period
ANS: D
The refractory period is the brief period during which the membrane is repolarizing and
restoring its resting phase or membrane potential. The membrane resists restimulation and will
not respond to another stimulus during this period.
21. Which principle means that after a nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at maximum
capacity, without fluctuations in membrane potential and without any decrease in magnitude?
a. All-or-none response
b. Adaptation
c. Refractory period
d. Recruitment
ANS: A
Once the nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at maximum capacity without
fluctuations in membrane potential and without any decrease in magnitude. These principles
are referred to as the all-or-none response.
22. Which term means the place where signals are transmitted between two neurons or between a
neuron and a muscle or gland?
a. Gyrus
b. Synapse
c. Plexus
d. Dermatome
ANS: B
A synapse is the place where
TEsignals
STBAN are
KStransmitted
ELLER.C between
OM two neurons or between a
neuron and a muscle or gland.
23. Which term means chemical messengers that allow neurons to talk to each other?
a. Neurotransmitters
b. Neurilemma
c. Telodendria
d. Antibodies
ANS: A
Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers and allow neurons to talk to each other.
24. Which structure is part of a chemical synapse?

a. Synaptic bulb
b. Microglia
c. Myelin sheath
d. Perineurium
ANS: A
A chemical synapse is made up of three structures; synaptic bulb of a presynaptic neuron, a
synaptic gap, and the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron.
25. What is the absorption of released neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron called?
a. Reuptake
b. Action potential
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c. Reflex
ANS: A
Reuptake is the absorption of released neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron.
26. Which neurotransmitter is vital for muscle contraction?

a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Histamine
d. Acetylcholine
ANS: D
The most common neurotransmitter is acetylcholine; it is vital for muscle contraction and
regulating the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
27. Which chemicals are gamma-aminobutyric acid and acetylcholine examples of?
a. Nutrients
b. Enzymes
c. Neurotransmitters
d. Hormones
ANS: C
Gamma-aminobutyric acid and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters.
28. Which term refers to the connective tissue coverings surrounding the brain and spinal cord?
a. Neuroglia
b. Myelin sheaths TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Meninges
d. Neurilemma
ANS: C
Meninges are the membranes that line the skull and vertebral column and enclose and
surround the brain and spinal cord.
29. What is the correct meningeal order, from deep to superficial?

a. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
b. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
c. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater
d. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
ANS: D
The pia mater is the innermost layer and it attaches to the surface of the brain and spinal cord;
this layer is thin and delicate, and contains blood vessels. The arachnoid mater, or arachnoid,
is the middle layer. Its loose arrangement of collagen fibers gives this layer web-like
appearance. Cerebrospinal fluid, discussed next, is stored in the subarachnoid space, or space
between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer and lies
against the skull and vertebral column.
30. Which function does cerebrospinal fluid perform?

a. Supplies the brain and spinal cord with nutrients
b. Prevents certain substances from entering the brain
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c. Conducts nerve impulses

d. Detects sensation
ANS: A
The main functions of CSF are to cushion the brain within the skull, serve as a shock
absorber, supply tissues of the brain and spinal cord with oxygen and nutrients, and remove
waste products from the brain during sleep.
31. What is the purpose of the blood–brain barrier?

a. Prevents passage of some chemicals into the central nervous system
b. Provides shock absorption for the brain and spinal cord
c. Produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system
d. Produces myelin in the central nervous system
ANS: A
Surrounding the brain and spinal cord is a wall of connective tissue formed by astrocytes and
blood vessels called the blood-brain barrier. This functions as a semipermeable membrane to
prevent or slow down the passage of some chemicals and disease-causing organisms such as
viruses from traveling from the blood into the CNS.
32. What are the major regions of the brain?

a. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
b. Cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, brainstem
c. Cerebellum, corpus callosum, midbrain, hypothalamus
d. Cerebrum, midbrain, hypothalamus
ANS: B
The brain consists of four main
TESTregions:
BANKS (1)
ELcerebrum,
LER.CO(2)M diencephalon, (3) cerebellum, and
(4) brainstem.
33. Which region of the brain is the largest?

a. Cerebellum
b. Brainstem
c. Cerebrum
d. Diencephalon
ANS: C
The cerebrum is the largest and most superior portion of the brain.
34. What are the grooves in the brain’s surface called?

a. Sulci
b. Gyri
c. Cortex
d. Lobes
ANS: A
The brain’s surface is characterized by grooves or sulci, and elevated ridges called gyri.
35. What are the elevated ridges in the brain’s surface called?
a. Sulci
b. Lobes
c. Gyri
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d. Cortex
ANS: C
The brain’s surface is characterized by grooves, or sulci, and elevated ridges called gyri.
36. What are large fibrous bundles of transverse fibers connecting the cerebral hemispheres
called?
a. Gyri
b. Nerve plexus
c. Sulci
d. Corpus callosum
ANS: D
The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by bundles of transverse fibers called
the corpus callosum.
37. Which cerebral lobe regulates motor output, cognition, and speech production?
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital
ANS: A
The frontal lobe regulates motor output, cognition, and speech production.
38. Which cerebral lobe receives information about proprioception, reading, and taste?
a. Frontal
b. Parietal TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Temporal
d. Occipital
ANS: B
The parietal lobe receives information about proprioception, reading, and taste. The
postcentral gyrus, or somatosensory cortex, in the parietal lobe of the brain governs sensory
input primarily from the skin and muscles.
39. Which cerebral lobe houses auditory and olfactory areas, as well as the Wernicke area?
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital
ANS: C
The temporal lobe houses auditory and olfactory areas and the Wernicke area, which is critical
to language comprehension.
40. Which cerebral lobe contains centers for visual input?

a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital
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ANS: D
The occipital lobe contains centers for visual input.
41. Which brain wave state is associated with alertness and mental activity?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Theta
d. Delta
ANS: B
Beta (13+ Hz) is associated with alertness and mental activity.
42. Which brain wave state is related to calmness and relaxation?

a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Theta
d. Delta
ANS: A
Alpha (8-13 Hz) is related to calmness and relaxation.
43. Which part of the brain houses the thalamus and hypothalamus?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Diencephalon
d. Brainstem
The diencephalon is located in the center of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain
of the brainstem. The diencephalon houses several structures such as the thalamus, the
hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the pineal gland.
44. Which region is the largest portion of the diencephalon and relays most sensory information
to appropriate areas of the cerebrum?
a. Thalamus
b. Pons
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebellum
ANS: A
The thalamus is the largest portion of the diencephalon and relays sensory information (except
olfaction) to appropriate areas of the cerebrum.
45. Which region regulates the autonomic nervous system?

a. Cerebellum
b. Thalamus
c. Pons
d. Hypothalamus
ANS: D
The hypothalamus regulates the ANS, controls behavioral patterns, and 24-hour cycles called
the biorhythms or circadian rhythms.
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46. Which part of the brain is concerned with coordinating complex movements and regulating
posture and balance?
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebrum
c. Pons
d. Cerebellum
ANS: D
The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain and is concerned with muscle tone,
coordinating complex muscular movements, and regulating posture and balance.
47. What is the most inferior portion of the brainstem?

a. Cerebrum
b. Pons
c. Hypothalamus
d. Medulla oblongata
ANS: D
The most inferior portion of the brainstem, the medulla oblongata conducts sensory and motor
impulses between other parts of the brain and the spinal cord.
48. Which part of the brain contains the respiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers?
a. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Cerebrum
d. Pons
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ANS: B
The medulla, often considered the most vital part of the brain, contains the respiratory,
cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers. The medulla also controls gastric secretions and
reflexes, such as sweating, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting.
49. Which part of the spinal cord do afferent impulses travel on?
a. Gray matter
b. Central canal
c. Descending tracts
d. Ascending tracts
ANS: D
Within the spinal cord are collections of nerves running up and down in columns called tracts.
Tracts are divided into ascending and descending tracts. Afferent impulses travel up the cord
on ascending tracts and efferent impulses travel down and out of the cord on descending
tracts.
50. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

a. 12
b. 24
c. 26
d. 31
ANS: A
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The 12 pairs of cranial nerves emerge from the inferior surface of the brain and are named by
Roman numerals, by the areas they supply, or by the type of signal they carry.
51. Which nerve is a cranial nerve?

a. Sciatic
b. Median
c. Trigeminal
d. Brachial
ANS: C
The trigeminal nerve is a cranial nerve. The sciatic nerve, median nerve, and brachial nerve
are all spinal nerves.
52. Which nerve is cranial nerve V?

a. Vagus
b. Facial
c. Trigeminal
d. Optic
ANS: C
The trigeminal nerve is cranial nerve V. It contains three branches and is both sensory and
motor.
53. Which cranial nerve helps regulate digestion and heart rate?
a. Trochlear
b. Accessory
c. Vagus
d. Abducens TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: C
The vagus nerve regulates activity of thoracic and abdominal organs, such as gastrointestinal
peristalsis, heart rate, and blood pressure, as well as sweating. The vagus nerve is both sensory
and motor.
54. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

a. 12
b. 24
c. 26
d. 31
ANS: D
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the sides of the spinal cord. Unlike cranial nerves,
spinal nerves are simply numbered by their corresponding vertebral segment.
55. Which term refers to a network of intersecting spinal nerves?

a. Plexus
b. Dermatome
c. Synapse
d. Tract
ANS: A
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Ventral rami become individually named nerves or join to form a network of intersecting
nerves, called a plexus.
56. Which plexus supplies skin and muscles of the upper extremity?
a. Sacral
b. Cervical
c. Brachial
d. Lumbosacral
ANS: C
The brachial plexus supplies skin and muscles of the upper extremity.
57. Which term means an area of skin supplied by a specific sensory spinal nerve root?
a. Myotome
b. Plexus
c. Dermatome
d. Ganglion
ANS: C
Dermatomes are areas of skin supplied by a specific sensory spinal nerve.
58. Which term means a protective involuntary but predictable response?

a. Dermatome
b. Synapse
c. Myotome
d. Reflex
Reflexes are protective involuntary but predictable responses to stimuli that use a reflex arc to
exert its action.
59. Which structures does the autonomic nervous system regulate?

a. Organs, glands, and smooth muscle
b. Skeletal muscles
c. Brain and spinal cord
d. Bones, muscles, and skin
ANS: A
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates
involuntary responses of organs, glands, and smooth muscle such as the heart, lungs,
pancreas, and intestines.
60. Which effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have?

a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction
b. Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility
c. Stimulation of digestion
d. Increases respiration rate
ANS: C
The parasympathetic division dominates during periods of rest and under calm conditions. It
supports body functions that conserve and restore body energy, such as digestion.
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61. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as rest-and-digest?

a. Central
b. Somatic
c. Parasympathetic
d. Sympathetic
ANS: C
The parasympathetic division is referred to as “rest-and-digest” division, or the
“housekeeping” division.
62. What division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as “fight or flight?”
a. Sympathetic
b. Central
c. Parasympathetic
d. Somatic
ANS: A
The sympathetic division dominates during physical exertion or emotional stress. It prepares
our body for the physical exertion of “fight-or-flight.”
63. Which effect does the sympathetic nervous system have?

a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction
b. Stimulates gastrointestinal motility
c. Stimulates kidney function
d. Decreases respiration rate
ANS: A
Sympathetic responses occurTEquickly
STBANandKSexpend
ELLERenergy.
.COMIn a typical response, the heart rate
increases, as does the force of each contraction.
64. Olfaction is what sense?

a. Hearing
b. Smell
c. Vision
d. Taste
ANS: B
Olfaction is a term to describe the sense of smell.
65. Which type of receptors are located in the retina?

a. Chemoreceptors
b. Nociceptors
c. Thermoreceptors
d. Photoreceptors
ANS: D
Vision is the ability to see and use receptors located in the eye. Photoreceptors, such as rods
and cones, transmit visual information once it passes through the pupil and strikes the retina
located at the rear of the eye.
66. Which type of receptors are involved in balance and equilibrium?

a. Thermoreceptors
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b. Nociceptors
c. Mechanoreceptors
d. Photoreceptors
ANS: C
Ears also play a role in balance and equilibrium. Within the cochlea are three semicircular
canals. Within these canals are fluid-filled sacs containing mechanoreceptors that resemble
hair. As we change positions, the hairlike cells in one or all canals move.
67. Which term means a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus?

a. All-or-none response
b. Adaptation
c. Reflex
d. Repolarization
ANS: B
Adaptation is a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus. Adaptation occurs rapidly in
receptors that detect pressure and smell; we quickly become accustomed to the weight of
clothing and unpleasant odors.
68. Which receptors are found in muscles, joints, and ears, and detect body movements, body
position in space, and muscle stretch?
a. Nociceptors
b. Chemoreceptors
c. Photoreceptors
d. Proprioceptors
Proprioceptors are specialized interoceptors found in muscles, joints, and ears. These
receptors detect body movements, body position in space, and muscle stretch.
69. Which neurologic law states that when a muscle receives a nerve impulse to contract, its
antagonist simultaneously receives an impulse to relax?
a. Law of Reciprocal Innervation
b. Law of Generalization
c. Law of Symmetry
d. Law of Facilitation
ANS: A
Sherrington’s law states that when a muscle receives a nerve impulse to contract, impulses are
stopped being sent to its antagonist simultaneously so that it can relax.
70. When muscles are stretched rapidly or are overstretched, muscle spindles are activated and
cause what to happen?
a. Sympathetic response
b. Parasympathetic response
c. Reflexive relaxation
d. Reflexive contraction
ANS: D
When muscles are stretched rapidly or are overstretched, muscle spindles are activated and
cause reflexive contraction.
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71. The inverse stretch reflex is governed by which mechanoreceptor?

a. Golgi tendon organ
b. Thermoreceptor
c. Nociceptor
d. Muscle spindle
ANS: A
Golgi tendon organs are located at musculotendinous junctions and are activated by muscle
tension. If tension is too great, efferent nerves are inhibited and muscle contraction is
prevented, causing muscle relaxation. Referred to as an inverse stretch reflex, this protective
mechanism helps ensure that muscles do not contract too strongly and damage their tendons.
72. Which condition is a progressive neurodegeneration that produces a typical profile of mental
deterioration?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Alzheimer disease
d. Trigeminal neuralgia
ANS: B
Alzheimer disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a typical
profile of mental deterioration. This deterioration involves most areas of the brain, particularly
the frontal and occiput regions, which affect processes of thinking, memory, and
communicating.
73. Which condition is characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships and
usually becomes apparent T
inEthe
STsecond
BANKor SEthird
LLEyear
R.CofOlife?
M
a. Sciatica
b. Autism
c. Alzheimer disease
d. Attention deficit–hyperactivity disorder
ANS: B
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD), as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
Mental Disorders, 5th edition (DSM-V), is a condition present in early childhood
characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships. These behaviors usually
become apparent in the second or third year of life.
74. Which condition involves the facial nerve and results in weakness or paralysis of muscles on
one side of the face?
a. Sciatica
b. Bell palsy
d. Alzheimer disease
ANS: B
Bell palsy is a neurologic condition of the facial nerve or cranial nerve VII that causes
weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face.
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75. Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of the compression of what nerve within the carpal
tunnel?
a. Radial
b. Median
c. Ulnar
d. Sciatic
ANS: B
Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of median nerve compression within the carpal tunnel.
76. Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration and demyelination of neurons

of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves?
a. Parkinson disease
b. Bell palsy
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Shingles
ANS: C
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is progressive degeneration and demyelination of neurons of the
brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves, especially the optic nerve. The loss of myelin ultimately
leads to scarring or sclerosis and plaque formation, which interferes with the transmission of
nerve impulses (similar to an electrical wire stripped of its insulation).
77. Which condition is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a syndrome of

abnormal movements caused by deterioration of neurons in the basal ganglia?
a. Sciatica
b. Bell palsy
c. Parkinson disease TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: C
Parkinson disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a syndrome of
abnormal movements called parkinsonism. Neurons deteriorate in a section of the midbrain
called the basal ganglia, particularly in the substantia nigra. These neurons produce dopamine,
a neurotransmitter that regulates voluntary movements.
78. Which condition is inflammation or irritation of the sciatic nerve with pain that originates in
the lower back or hip and travels down the leg?
a. Sciatica
b. Bell palsy
ANS: A
Sciatica is inflammation of the sciatic nerve. Pain usually originates in the lower back or hip
and travels down to one side of the posterior thigh and leg, but both sides may be affected.
79. Which condition is characterized by explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive

electrical activity in the brain?
a. Sciatica
b. Bell palsy
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d. Seizure disorder
ANS: D
Seizure disorders are characterized by explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive
electrical activity in the brain, or seizure, and results in a sudden change in behavior and level
of consciousness.
80. Which condition is caused by compression of nerves in the brachial plexus?

a. Sciatica
b. Bell palsy
c. Thoracic outlet syndrome
d. Trigeminal neuralgia
ANS: C
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a disorder caused by compression of nerves in the brachial
plexus alone or with the subclavian artery and vein (located between the base of the neck and
axilla).
81. Which of the following is a synonym for sensory neurons?

a. Telodendria
b. Afferent
c. Motor
d. Efferent
ANS: B
Afferent neurons transmit sensory information toward the central nervous system. These
neurons, which are also called
TESsensory
TBANKneurons,
SELLEare R.found
COM within skin, joints, and muscles.
Neurons that respond to sensory stimuli are called receptors.
82. Which of the following is a synonym for motor neurons?

a. Telodendria
b. Afferent
c. Efferent
d. Sensory
ANS: C
Efferent neurons are also called motor neurons. Muscles or glands that respond to efferent
neurons are also called effectors.
83. Which neurotransmitter is involved with emotions and moods and is implicated in attention
and learning?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Epinephrine
ANS: B
Dopamine is involved in emotions, moods, and motor control regulation; it is also implicated
in attention and learning.
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Chapter 24: Endocrine System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called?

a. Hormones
b. Antibodies
c. Enzymes
d. Neurotransmitters
ANS: A
The nervous system uses impulses and chemical messengers called neurotransmitters, whereas
the endocrine system uses several mechanisms involving chemical messengers called
hormones.
2. Which statement describes endocrine glands?

a. Located only in the skin
b. Use ducts to transport their products to the site of action
c. Ductless glands that secrete hormones
d. Types include sudoriferous, sebaceous, and salivary
ANS: C
The endocrine system uses several mechanisms involving chemical messengers called
hormones.
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3. Which glands are endocrine?
a. Adrenal
b. Salivary
c. Ceruminous
d. Sudoriferous
ANS: A
Adrenal glands are endocrine glands.
4. Which function does the endocrine system perform?

a. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement
b. Digests, adsorbs, and eliminates ingested substances
c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss
d. Regulates reproductive processes and helps the body adapt during stress
ANS: D
The endocrine system produces and secretes hormone, regulates the reproductive process, and
helps the body adapt during stress.
5. What do hormones do?

a. Eliminate cellular waste products
b. Regulate physiologic activity of other cells
c. Help maintain the oxygen content of blood
d. Provide physical protection from the outside environment
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ANS: B
Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate physiologic activity of other cells.
Hormones influence growth, metabolism, digestion, reproduction, and mood.
6. Which substances are also known as local hormones?

a. Glucocorticoids
b. Androgens
c. Estrogens
d. Prostaglandins
ANS: D
Prostaglandins, or local hormones, are produced by many tissues and they generally act on
nearby cells.
7. Which term refers to a response to stimulus that moves current levels in the opposite
direction?
a. Neural regulation
b. Positive feedback
c. Negative feedback
d. Hormonal regulation
ANS: C
Negative feedback is a response to a stimulus that moves current levels in the opposite, or
negative, direction. This movement brings levels back to homeostasis.
8. Which mechanism controls most hormone levels?

a. Nerve impulse
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b. Positive feedback systems
c. Negative feedback systems
d. Neurotransmitter release
ANS: C
Most hormone levels are regulated by negative feedback systems.
9. Which term applies to hormones that stimulate the activity of other endocrine glands?
a. Releasing
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Tropic
ANS: D
Hormones that stimulate the activity of other endocrine glands are called tropic hormones.
10. Which structure secretes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the release of hormones from the
anterior pituitary?
a. Pineal
b. Thymus
c. Pancreas
d. Hypothalamus
ANS: D
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The hypothalamus secretes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the release of pituitary
hormones, and it regulates the autonomic nervous system.
11. Which gland lies in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone?
a. Pineal
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary
d. Hypothalamus
ANS: C
The pituitary is located in the diencephalon of the brain and lies in the sella turcica of the
sphenoid bone.
12. Which gland extends from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum?

a. Pineal
b. Thyroid
c. Thymus
d. Pituitary
ANS: D
The pituitary extends from the hypothalamus by a stalklike structure called the infundibulum.
13. Which region is also called the adenohypophysis?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Posterior pituitary
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ANS: C
The anterior pituitary, or the adenohypophysis, constitutes approximately 75% of the total
weight of the gland.
14. Which region is interconnected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system?
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: C
The anterior lobe is connected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system. A
portal system is an arrangement of two capillary beds connected by veins. The hypophyseal
portal system allows hypothalamic hormones to travel directly to the anterior pituitary without
traveling through the blood in the systemic circuit, which would route these hormones through
the heart, then back to the pituitary.
15. Which region is also called the neurohypophysis?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: D
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The posterior lobe, or the neurohypophysis, constitutes approximately 25% of the total weight
of the gland.
16. Which hormone causes the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones?
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Follicle-stimulating hormone
c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
ANS: D
Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones, especially
cortisol.
17. Which region secretes growth hormone?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: C
The anterior pituitary secretes growth hormone.
18. Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone maintenance and repair, and
plays a role in metabolism?
a. Oxytocin
b. Growth hormone
d. Prolactin TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
Growth hormone (GH) stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone growth, maintenance
and repair, and plays a role in metabolism. Growth hormone is also called somatotrophin or
STH.
19. Which region secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: C
The anterior pituitary secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone.
20. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of thyroxine?

a. Oxytocin
b. Growth hormone
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
ANS: C
Thyroid-stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid to secrete its hormones, especially
thyroxine.
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21. Which region secretes follicle-stimulating hormone?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: C
The anterior pituitary secretes follicle-stimulating hormone.
22. Which hormone stimulates testosterone and sperm production in the testes?
a. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
ANS: B
In men, FSH stimulates testosterone production and sperm production in the testes. In women,
FSH stimulates estrogen production and development of ovarian follicle.
23. Which region secretes luteinizing hormone?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: C
The anterior pituitary secretes
TESluteinizing
TBANKShormone.
ELLER.COM
24. Which hormone stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone?
a. Luteinizing hormone
d. Prolactin
ANS: A
Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone, ovulation,
and development of the corpus luteum. In men, LH stimulates testosterone production.
25. Which hormones are collectively called gonadotropins?

a. Prolactin and oxytocin
b. Antidiuretic hormone and growth hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone
ANS: C
Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are collectively called gonadotropins.
26. Which region secretes the hormone prolactin?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
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ANS: C
The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin.
27. Which hormone promotes milk production in the breasts?

a. Estrogen
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
ANS: B
Prolactin (PRL) promotes lactation or milk production in the breasts. This hormone is secreted
in larger amounts during pregnancy and lactation.
28. Which hormone decreases urine production?

a. Oxytocin
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Prolactin
ANS: B
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) decreases urine production by stimulating the kidneys to absorb
more water.
29. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions?

a. Estrogen
b. Prolactin TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone
ANS: C
Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions in pregnancy, labor, and delivery, and stimulates
milk expression during lactation.
30. Which gland secretes melatonin?

a. Pineal
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas
ANS: A
The pineal gland secretes several hormones, but its chief hormone is melatonin.
31. Which hormone maintains the body’s circadian rhythm?

a. Cortisol
b. Glucagon
c. Melatonin
d. Calcitonin
ANS: C
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Melatonin helps regulate other hormones and maintain the body’s circadian rhythm which is
the body’s internal 24-hour cycle.
32. Which gland secretes T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)?

a. Testis
b. Thymus
c. Thyroid
d. Parathyroid
ANS: C
The thyroid gland secretes T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine.
33. What is the function of T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)?

a. Regulate metabolism
b. Decrease urine production
c. Inhibit the secretion of luteinizing hormone
d. Stimulate the release of estrogens and progesterone
ANS: A
T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, regulate metabolism and affect the growth and
development of many other body systems. T3 and T4 are collectively called thyroid hormones.
34. Which hormones require iodine in order to be produced?

a. Thymosin and thymopoietin
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
c. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. Tri-iodothyronine and thyroxine
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ANS: D
T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, consist of an amino acid bound to iodine;
therefore these hormones cannot be made without iodine. Some good sources of iodine are
seafood and iodized salt.
35. Which glands secrete calcitonin?

a. Testes
b. Ovaries
c. Adrenals
d. Parathyroids
ANS: D
The parathyroids secrete calcitonin.
36. Which hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclastic activity?
a. Calcitonin
b. Thyroxine
c. Thymopoietin
d. Parathyroid hormone
ANS: D
Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclastic activity,
which decreases calcium storage in bone.
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37. Which region secretes cortisol and aldosterone?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
ANS: A
The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone.
38. Which hormone has an anti-inflammatory effect?

a. Cortisol
b. Glucagon
c. Melatonin
d. Calcitonin
ANS: A
Cortisol is the major glucocorticoid, and it activates anti-stress and anti-inflammatory
pathways.
39. Which hormone enhances and prolongs the physiological effects of stress?
a. Cortisol
b. Calcitonin
c. Aldosterone
d. Epinephrine
ANS: D
Epinephrine or adrenaline and norepinephrine or noradrenaline bind to receptors of
sympathetic effectors that T
enhance
ESTBA and
NKprolong
SELLEthe R.physiological
COM effects of stress.
40. Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine?

a. Pineal
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas
ANS: D
The pancreas is located inferior to the stomach and possesses both endocrine and exocrine
functions.
41. Which hormone is secreted by pancreatic beta cells?

a. Insulin
b. Prolactin
c. Glucagon
d. Aldosterone
ANS: A
Alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, and beta cells secrete the hormone insulin.
42. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels?

a. Insulin
b. Prolactin
c. Glucagon
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d. Aldosterone
ANS: C
Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by stimulating the release of stored glucose (called
glycogen) from the liver.
43. Which hormone decreases blood glucose levels?

a. Insulin
b. Prolactin
c. Glucagon
d. Aldosterone
ANS: A
Insulin decreases blood glucose levels by stimulating liver, skeletal muscle, and fat cells to
absorb glucose from the blood.
44. Which glands secrete estrogens and progesterone?

a. Ovaries
b. Testes
c. Parathyroids
d. Adrenals
ANS: A
The ovaries secrete the hormones progesterone and estrogen, which are responsible for
regulating menstrual cycles and female secondary sex characteristics that occur during
puberty.
45. Which hormone maintainsTthe

ESuterine
TBANlining
KSELfor
LEimplantation
R.COM and gestation?
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone
ANS: C
Progesterone is the pregnancy-promoting hormone that maintains the endometrium and
inhibits uterine contractions.
46. Which hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics?
a. Progesterone
b. Erythropoietin
c. Thymosin
d. Testosterone
ANS: D
Testosterone stimulates sperm production and is responsible for the development of male
secondary sex characteristics.
47. Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells?

a. Renin
b. Erythropoietin
c. Thymosin
d. Testosterone
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ANS: B
Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone marrow.
48. Which hormone is referred to as the “hunger hormone?”

a. Renin
b. Secretin
c. Thymosin
d. Ghrelin
ANS: D
Ghrelin stimulates appetite and is referred to as the “hunger hormone” as high levels of this
hormone are found in individuals who are fasting.
49. Which hormone is secreted by adipocytes?

a. Leptin
b. Secretin
c. Renin
d. Ghrelin
ANS: A
Adipocytes, or fat cells, produce the hormones leptin and resistin. Leptin plays a role in
metabolism and energy regulation by inhibiting hunger.
50. Which effect does atrial natriuretic peptide have?

a. Decreases blood calcium levels
b. Increases blood glucose levels
c. Decreases blood pressure
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Increases blood pressure
ANS: C
Atrial natriuretic hormone triggers the kidneys to increase urine production, which decreases
blood pressure.
51. Which condition is a group of disorders characterized by chronic elevated blood glucose
levels?
b. Hashimoto disease
c. Goiter
d. Lupus
ANS: A
Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a group of diseases characterized by chronic elevated blood glucose
levels and disturbances in protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism (mainly carbohydrates).
52. Which condition is characterized by damaged or destroyed pancreatic beta-cells, creating a

lack of insulin?
a. Diabetes mellitus type 1
b. Diabetes mellitus type 2
c. Lupus
d. Goiter
ANS: A
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In Type 1 diabetes mellitus, pancreatic beta-cells are damaged or destroyed, creating a lack of
insulin. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells.
53. Which condition is characterized by insulin resistance?

a. Diabetes mellitus type 1
b. Diabetes mellitus type 2
c. Lupus
d. Goiter
ANS: B
In type 2 diabetes, pancreatic beta cells produce insulin but cells are resistant to it, called
insulin resistance.
54. Which condition is an enlargement of the thyroid gland?

a. Lupus
b. Goiter
c. Baker cyst
d. Ganglion cyst
ANS: B
Any enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a goiter.
55. Which condition is caused by an underactive thyroid gland leading to thyroid hormone
deficiency?
b. Goiter
c. Lupus
d. Hashimoto disease TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: D
An underactive thyroid gland leading to a thyroid hormone deficiency is called Hashimoto
disease.
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Chapter 25: Reproductive System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term refers to the process by which male and female gametes unite?
a. Gestation
b. Spermatogenesis
c. Sexual reproduction
d. Asexual reproduction
ANS: C
Sexual reproduction is the process by which male sex cells and female sex cells unite. The
union of these cells may produce offspring, which essentially passes on hereditary traits from
one generation to the next to propagate the species. Primary organs called gonads produce the
male and female sex cells, called gametes, and the hormones that assist sexual reproduction.
2. Which structure is part of the anatomy of the reproductive system?

a. Aorta
b. Oocyte
c. Epiphysis
d. Neurilemma
ANS: B
Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoon in males and oocyte in females.
TESTBANsystem
3. Which function does the reproductive KSELLperform?
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a. Exchange of gases, olfaction, and sound production
b. Movement, posture maintenance, and heat production
c. Produce offspring and hormone production and secretion
d. Elimination and regulation of the chemical composition of blood
ANS: C
Important functions of the reproductive system are to produce offspring and to produce and
secrete hormones.
4. Which term refers to the primary reproductive organs?

a. Uterus
b. Breasts
c. Gonads
d. Gametes
ANS: C
Gonads—Gonads are the primary reproductive organs; they include the testes in males and
ovaries in females.
5. Which term means sex cells, such as spermatozoa in males and oocytes in females?
a. Testes
b. Gonads
c. Ovaries
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d. Gametes
ANS: D
Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoon in males and oocyte in females.
6. Which part of the reproductive system produces sperm?

a. Fallopian tube
b. Ejaculatory duct
c. Seminiferous tubules
d. Bulbourethral glands
ANS: C
Seminiferous tubules within the testes produce sperm.
7. Which part of the reproductive system secretes testosterone?

a. Glans penis
b. Ovarian follicle
c. Bulbourethral glands
d. Interstitial cells of Leydig
ANS: D
Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary stimulates interstitial cells of Leydig
within the testes produce testosterone.
8. Which part of the reproductive system transports sperm cells and seminal fluid out of the body
during ejaculation?
a. Scrotal sac
b. Spermatic duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Seminal vesicles
ANS: B
The spermatic duct transports sperm cells and seminal fluid out of the body during
ejaculation.
9. Which structure stores sperm while they become mature?

a. Epididymis
b. Umbilical cord
c. Follicle
d. Seminal vesicles
ANS: A
Immature sperm cells leave the testicle and enter the epididymis, a tightly coiled
comma-shaped tube. The sperm stay in the epididymis for 2–3 months during which time they
become able to swim and fertilize an egg.
10. Which structure connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct?

a. Urethra
b. Vas deferens
c. Fallopian tube
d. Umbilicus
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ANS: B
The vas deferens connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.
11. Which tube transports both semen and urine in males?

a. Ureter
b. Urethra
c. Fallopian tube
d. Vas deferens
ANS: B
The urethra is a tube located below the bladder that transports both semen and urine in males.
12. Which passageway passes through the prostate and the penis?
a. Ureter
b. Urethra
c. Fallopian tube
d. Vas deferens
ANS: B
The urethra is a tube located below the bladder that transports both semen and urine in males.
The urethra passes through the prostate and the penis.
13. Which structure is donut-shaped gland and located inferior to the urinary bladder?
a. Cowper gland
b. Prostate
c. Epididymis
d. Bulbourethral gland
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ANS: B
The prostate is a donut-shaped gland that lies beneath the urinary bladder and surrounds the
urethra. The prostate also prevents the flow of urine during ejaculation.
14. What is the pouch that contains the testes called?

a. Cervix
b. Prostate
c. Scrotum
d. Epididymis
ANS: C
The scrotum is the pouch that contains the testes. The scrotal sac is made of thin, loose, and
usually wrinkled skin that hangs down behind the penis.
15. Which liquid is thick, milky white and contains sperm cells?
a. Seminal fluid
b. Plasma
c. Lymph
d. Interstitial fluid
ANS: A
Seminal fluid is a milky white alkaline substance that comprises the liquid portion of semen,
and is the transport medium and source of nutrients for sperm.
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16. Which muscle draws the testes closer to or away from the body to help regulate their
temperature?
a. Psoas major
b. Adductor brevis
c. Cremaster
d. Pectineus
ANS: C
The cremaster muscle draws the testes closer to or away from the body to help regulate their
temperature.
17. Which structures are paired almond-shaped glands located in the female abdominopelvic
cavity?
a. Testes
b. Adrenals
c. Ovaries
d. Follicles
ANS: C
Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands that produce oocytes, or eggs, and hormones; they
are located in the abdominopelvic cavity lateral to the uterus.
18. Which structures produce oocytes and hormones?

a. Testes
b. Prostate
c. Ovaries
d. Uterus
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ANS: C
Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands that produce oocytes, or eggs, and hormones; they
are located in the abdominopelvic cavity lateral to the uterus.
19. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy?
a. Oxytocin
b. Progesterone
c. Epinephrine
d. Testosterone
ANS: B
Progesterone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy.
20. What is the term for the female sex cell?

a. Ovary
b. Sperm
c. Oocyte
d. Follicle
ANS: C
Oocytes are the sex cells that carry genetic information from the female that produced them.
21. Which structures are paired passageways from the ovaries to the uterus?
a. Ureters
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b. Epididymis
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Seminal vesicles
ANS: C
Fallopian tubes are paired passageways for ova to travel from the ovaries toward the uterus.
22. Which structure is the hollow, pear-shaped organ that receives the fertilized ovum and allows
the embryo to grow and develop into a fetus during pregnancy?
a. Testis
b. Prostate
c. Ovary
d. Uterus
ANS: D
The uterus is a hollow pear-shaped organ that receives the fertilized ovum and allows the
embryo to grow and develop into a fetus during pregnancy. It is also from which menses
(tissue and blood) flows if pregnancy does not occur.
23. Which layer is shed during menstruation?

a. Epimetrium
b. Perimetrium
c. Myometrium
d. Endometrium
ANS: D
The uterine wall contains three layers. The inner lining, the endometrium, is shed each month
during menstruation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
24. Which structure acts as a sphincter for the uterus and allows passage of semen and menstrual
fluid?
a. Cervix
b. Vagina
c. Prostate
d. Epididymis
ANS: A
The cervix acts as a sphincter and allows passage of semen and menstrual fluid. During
childbirth, uterine contractions cause the cervix to widen or dilate up to 10 cm in diameter to
allow the movement of the fetus into the birth canal or vagina.
25. Which structure extends from the cervix to outside the body?
a. Endometrium
b. Vagina
c. Prostate
d. Epididymis
ANS: B
The vagina is the canal extending from the cervix to outside the body.
26. Which structures produce mucus?

a. Fallopian tubes
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b. Seminal vesicles
c. Bartholin glands
d. Bulbourethral glands
ANS: C
Bartholin glands located on either side of the vaginal opening secrete mucous; these glands
are homologous to bulbourethral glands in males.
27. Which term means the female external genitalia?

a. Vulva
b. Ovary
c. Cervix
d. Vagina
ANS: A
Female external genitalia, or vulva, includes the labia majora and minora, the clitoris, and the
mons pubis.
28. Which term refers to the region located between the vaginal opening and the anus?
a. Perineum
b. Periosteum
c. Peritoneum
d. Perimysium
ANS: A
The perineum is the region between the vaginal opening and anus. The perineum may be torn
or incised during childbirth; the latter is called an episiotomy.
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29. Which term means milk production?
a. Lactation
b. Ovulation
c. Fertilization
d. Menstruation
ANS: A
Milk production, which is under hormonal control, is called lactation.
30. On what day of the menstrual cycle does menstruation begin?

a. 1
b. 10
c. 14
d. 28
ANS: A
The follicular phase begins with menstruation and lasts until approximately day 13 (the first
day of menstruation is day one of the menstrual cycle).
31. On what day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation usually occur in a 28-day cycle?
a. 1
b. 10
c. 14
d. 28
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ANS: C
Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle.
32. What event is marked by the release of an ovum from an ovarian follicle?
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Implantation
d. Menstruation
ANS: A
Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge of LH causes rupture of an ovarian
follicle and release of an ovum.
33. A surge of which hormone causes rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of an ovum during
ovulation?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Growth hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
ANS: D
Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge of LH causes rupture of an ovarian
follicle and release of an ovum.
34. After ovulation, what does the collapsed follicle turn into?
a. Corpus luteum
b. Interstitial cells
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c. Endometrium
d. Lobules
ANS: A
The collapsed follicle develops into the corpus luteum.
35. Which term refers to the final stage of the menstrual cycle?
a. Ovulation
b. Luteal phase
c. Menstruation
d. Follicular phase
ANS: B
The luteal phase is the final phase of the menstrual cycle which is between day 15 to day 28.
It begins after ovulation and ends when menstruation begins.
36. Which structure secretes estrogens and progesterone?

a. Endometrium
b. Corpus luteum
c. Myometrium
d. Corpus albicans
ANS: B
The corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone, which maintain the uterine lining for
implantation and pregnancy.
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37. What hormone reduces tension in the uterine wall to facilitate implantation?
a. Inhibin
b. Relaxin
c. Testosterone
d. Progesterone
ANS: B
Relaxin relaxes the uterus to facilitate implantation.
38. Which term means penetration of the ovum by sperm?

a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. Implantation
d. Menstruation
ANS: B
Fertilization is the penetration of the ovum by sperm, resulting in a zygote.
39. Approximately how many hours after ovulation does fertilization usually occur?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
ANS: B
Fertilization is the penetration of the ovum by sperm and occurs approximately 24 hours after
ovulation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM
40. Which term refers to the fertilized ovum?
a. Zygote
b. Oocyte
c. Follicle
d. Chromosome
ANS: A
The fertilized ovum is called a zygote and contains genetic information from each parent.
41. Approximately how many days after fertilization does a blastocyst enter the uterus?
a. 1
b. 7
c. 12
d. 48
ANS: B
The blastocyst continues to travel through the fallopian tube and enters the uterus about day 7
after fertilization, where it implants. The result is pregnancy.
42. Which term means a sequence of events that includes implantation, embryonic development,
fetal growth, and ends in birth?
a. Infancy
b. Pregnancy
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c. Senescence
d. Adolescence
ANS: B
Pregnancy is the sequence of events that includes implantation, embryonic development, fetal
growth, and ends in birth.
43. Which term means the pregnancy period?

a. Gestation
b. Discussion
c. Metabolism
d. Prolongation
ANS: A
The pregnancy period, also called gestation, is approximately 10 lunar months (40 weeks, 9
calendar months, or approximately 266 days).
44. Approximately how many weeks long is the pregnancy period?

a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
ANS: C
The pregnancy period, also called gestation, is approximately 10 lunar months (40 weeks, 9
calendar months, or approximately 266 days).
45. Which trimester is considered

TESthe
TBtime
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ELL embryo?
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a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
ANS: A
The first trimester is the first day of the last period to week 14. This trimester is considered the
time of the embryo because this is when most embryonic development occurs and the
pregnant woman experiences few structural changes.
46. Which structure is a flattened organ located in the pregnant uterus that nourishes the
developing fetus by exchanging nutrients and wastes with the mother?
a. Cervix
b. Corpus albicans
c. Placenta
d. Corpus luteum
ANS: C
The placenta is a flattened organ located in the pregnant uterus that nourishes the developing
fetus by exchanging nutrients and wastes between the fetus’ and mother’s blood.
47. Which week does the third trimester start?

a. 12
b. 15
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c. 29
d. 42
ANS: C
The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which is around week 40.
48. Which term means childbirth?

a. Lactation
b. Gestation
c. Parturition
d. Ovulation
ANS: C
Childbirth, or parturition, is the act of giving birth to a baby.
49. Which event occurs in second stage of childbirth?

a. Dilation of the cervix
b. Expulsion of the fetus
c. Expulsion of the placenta
d. Lactation in the mammary glands
ANS: B
The second stage of childbirth is expulsion of the fetus. This stage is the time from complete
cervical dilation, the fetal journey down the vagina, and welcome of the newborn by the
parents.
50. Which term means secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands?
a. Lactation TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Gestation
c. Parturition
d. Ovulation
ANS: A
Lactation is the secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands.
51. Which condition is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3–14 days before menstruation and are
relieved by its onset?
a. Menopause
b. Endometriosis
c. Premenstrual syndrome
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
ANS: C
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3 to 14 days before
menstruation and are relieved by its onset. More than 200 physical, emotional, and behavioral
symptoms have been attributed to PMS, some of which may impair interpersonal relationships
and interfere with normal activities.
52. Which condition is characterized by the sloughing off of endometrial tissue from a
nonpregnant uterus through the vagina?
a. Menopause
b. Menstruation
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c. Endometriosis
d. Ovulation
ANS: B
Menstruation, part of the menstrual cycle, is characterized by the sloughing off of endometrial
tissue from a nonpregnant uterus through the vagina.
53. Which condition is the presence of uterine lining tissue outside the uterus?
a. Menopause
b. Endometriosis
ANS: B
Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. The most common
sites of endometrial tissue are inside the fallopian tubes and around the ovaries, but it has been
found throughout the body.
54. Which condition is characterized by bilaterally enlarged ovaries that become studded with
multiple cysts?
a. Menopause
b. Endometriosis
ANS: D
In polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), also called hyperandrogenic anovulation and
Stein–Leventhal syndrome,TEthe
STovaries
BANKenlarge
SELLE bilaterally
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multiple cysts.
55. Which term refers to the period of life that represents cessation of menstruation?
a. Menopause
b. Endometriosis
ANS: A
Menopause is the period in a woman’s life that represents permanent cessation of ovarian
function and the end of menstrual cycles; 12 months have passed since the last menstrual
cycle.
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Chapter 26: Cardiovascular System

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which function does the cardiovascular system perform?

a. Digests, absorbs, and eliminates ingested substances
b. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement
c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss
d. Regulates reproduction and helps stress responses
ANS: C
The cardiovascular system transports substances, protects against pathogens, and combats
hemorrhage and blood loss.
2. Which characteristic describes blood?

a. Slightly cooler than normal body temperature
b. Thinner and less adhesive than water
c. Bright scarlet red to dull maroon in color
d. Slightly acidic pH
ANS: C
The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygen
content; the brighter the red, the more oxygen.
3. What determines whether blood is bright red or dull brick red in color?
a. Iron content TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Platelet count
c. Oxygen content
d. Platelet count
ANS: C
The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygen
content.
4. Where are blood cells formed?

a. Liver and spleen
b. Red bone marrow
c. Hepatic portal system
d. Aorta and coronary sinus
ANS: B
Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow. These cells include
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
5. Which term means blood cell production?

a. Hyperemia
b. Hematopoiesis
c. Remodeling
d. Ossification
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ANS: B
Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow. These cells include
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes.
6. Which liquid are blood cells suspended in?

a. Lymph
b. Plasma
c. Interstitial fluid
d. Synovial fluid
ANS: B
Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is
mostly water (between 90-95 percent), with substances including glucose, hormones,
dissolved proteins such as albumins and clotting factors such as fibrinogen.
7. What percentage of blood is plasma?

a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 55%
d. 90%
ANS: C
Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is
mostly water (between 90-95 percent), with substances including glucose, hormones,
dissolved proteins such as albumins and clotting factors such as fibrinogen.
8. Which type of cells transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells?
a. Platelets TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Fibroblasts
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes
ANS: D
Erythrocytes, or red blood cells (RBCs), are the most numerous blood cell type. RBCs contain
a molecule called hemoglobin, giving blood its characteristic red color. Hemoglobin is an
iron-based protein that binds with oxygen and carbon dioxide so they can be transported in
blood.
9. Which type of cells contain hemoglobin?

a. Platelets
b. Fibroblasts
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes
ANS: D
RBCs contain a molecule called hemoglobin, giving blood its characteristic red color.
10. Proteins that are used to classify blood types are on the surfaces of which type of cells?
a. Platelets
b. Fibroblasts
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes
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ANS: D
The surfaces of RBCs may contain proteins that are used to classify blood into ABO blood
types.
11. Which type of cells serve as part of the body’s defense mechanisms?
a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Red blood cells
ANS: B
Leukocytes, or white blood cells (WBCs), are the body’s mobile army and serve as part of the
body’s defense mechanisms by destroying or inactivating pathogens and foreign agents.
12. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are all which type of cells?
a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Fibroblasts
ANS: B
The granular WBCs are neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and the agranular WBCs are
monocytes, and lymphocytes.
13. What is another term for thrombocytes?

a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Erythrocytes
d. Red blood cells
ANS: A
Thrombocytes, or platelets, are cell fragments that help reduce blood loss from damaged
vessel walls by promoting hemostasis or mechanisms that slow blood loss or that stop
bleeding.
14. Which type of cells are involved in hemostasis?

a. Platelets
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Red blood cells
ANS: A
bleeding.
15. Which term means slowing blood loss or stopping of bleeding?

a. Hypertension
b. Hemorrhage
c. Homeostasis
d. Hemostasis
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ANS: D
bleeding.
16. Which blood type is without antigen A and antigen B?

a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type AB
d. Type O
ANS: D
Blood type O does not contain any antigen.
17. Which blood type is called the universal recipient?

a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type AB
d. Type O
ANS: C
Persons with type AB blood are universal recipients because their blood does not have
reactive antibodies.
18. Which blood type is called the universal donor?

a. Type A
b. Type B
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c. Type AB
d. Type O
ANS: D
Persons with type O blood are universal donors because their blood does not have any
antibodies in it; it is compatible with all other blood types. Persons with type O blood can
donate their blood to almost anyone.
19. Which layer makes up the bulk of the heart wall?

a. Epicardium
b. Pericardium
c. Myocardium
d. Endocardium
ANS: C
The myocardium, or middle layer, makes up the bulk of the heart wall.
20. Which structure is a superior heart chamber?

a. Atrium
b. Ventricle
c. Coronary sinus
d. Pulmonary trunk
ANS: A
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The right and left atria are the superior chambers, and are separated by an interatrial septum.
They receive blood – the right atrium receives oxygenated-depleted blood from the superior
and inferior vena; the left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the pulmonary veins.
21. Which structure is an inferior heart chamber?

a. Atrium
b. Ventricle
c. Coronary sinus
d. Pulmonary trunk
ANS: B
The heart is divided into four chambers. The right atrium, the left atrium, the right ventricle
and the left ventricle. The right and left atria are the superior chambers. The right and left
ventricles are separated by an interventricular septum, and have trabeculae carneae located
within their walls to help them pump blood out of the heart more efficiently.
22. Which structures regulate the flow of blood through the heart?
a. Valves
b. Atria
c. Carotid sinuses
d. Atrioventricular septa
ANS: A
Valves open and shut to regulate the flow of blood through the heart and keep it on its
unidirectional course.
23. The right atrioventricular valve is also known as which valve?

a. Mitral TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Aortic
c. Tricuspid
d. Pulmonary
ANS: C
The atrioventricular (AV) valves are located between the atria and the ventricles, and have
pointed flaps called cusps. The tricuspid valve has three cusps and it is located between the
right atrium and the right ventricle; the tricuspid valve is also called the right AV valve.
24. The bicuspid valve is also known as which valve?

a. Mitral
b. Aortic
c. Tricuspid
d. Pulmonary
ANS: A
The bicuspid valve has two cusps and it is located between the left atrium and the left
ventricle; the bicuspid valve is also called the left AV value or the mitral valve because it is
shaped like a mitre or bishop’s hat.
25. Which valve is located between the aorta and the left ventricle?
a. Mitral
b. Aortic
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c. Tricuspid
d. Pulmonary
ANS: B
The aortic valve or left SL valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta.
26. Which valve is located between the pulmonary trunk and the right ventricle?
a. Mitral
b. Aortic
c. Tricuspid
d. Pulmonary
ANS: D
The pulmonary valve or right SL valve is located between the right ventricle and the
pulmonary trunk.
27. Which factor creates the sounds of a beating heart?

a. Closure of the valves
b. Closure of the ventricles
c. Nerve impulses along the conduction system
d. Superior vena cava and pulmonary veins emptying into the atria
ANS: A
Closures of the heart valves produce the “lubb-dubb” sounds characteristic of the heartbeat.
The “lubb” is the low-pitched sound generated by blood turbulence from closure of both AV
valves. The “dubb” is the second higher pitched sound caused by blood turbulence from
closure of both the SL valves.
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28. Which term refers to the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to the
beginning of the next called?
a. Pulse
b. Cardiac cycle
c. Conduction system
d. Bradycardia
ANS: B
The cardiac cycle is the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to the
beginning of the next heartbeat.
29. Which term means the number of cardiac cycles that occur in 1 minute?
a. Heart rate
b. Heart murmur
c. Blood pressure
d. Conduction system
ANS: A
Heart rate is the number of cardiac cycles that occur in 1 minute.
30. Tachycardia is a heart rate of how many beats per minute?

a. Fewer than 50
b. 72 to 80
c. 60 to 70
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d. More than 100

ANS: D
Heartbeats over 100 per minute is called tachycardia.
31. Bradycardia is heart rate of how many beats per minute?

a. Fewer than 50
b. 72 to 80
c. 60 to 70
d. More than 100
ANS: A
Heartbeats lower than 50 per minute is called bradycardia.
32. Which part of the heart’s conduction generates the heartbeat and sets the pace?
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibers
ANS: A
The SA node generates the impulse for the heartbeat and sets the pace of the heart rate.
Because of this action, the SA node is also called the pacemaker.
33. Which part of the heart’s conduction system is located in the interventricular septum?
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle of His TESTBANKSELLER.COM
d. Purkinje fibers
ANS: C
The AV nodes synapses with the bundle of His, and the impulse travels through the
interventricular septum to the Purkinje fibers.
34. Which term means the space within blood vessels?

a. Fossa
b. Cavity
c. Lumen
d. Sinus
ANS: C
The space within the vessels is the lumen.
35. Which term means enlarging or widening of the lumen of a blood vessel?
a. Pulse
b. Vasodilation
c. Cardiac cycle
d. Vasoconstriction
ANS: B
Vasodilation occurs when the lumen enlarges or widens.
36. Which term means narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel?
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a. Pulse
b. Vasodilation
c. Cardiac cycle
d. Vasoconstriction
ANS: D
Vasoconstriction occurs when the lumen becomes smaller or narrows.
37. Which term means an increase in local blood flow?

a. Pulse
b. Ischemia
c. Hyperemia
d. Vasoconstriction
ANS: C
Increased local blood flow is called hyperemia, which may cause the skin to become reddened
and feel warm.
38. Which term means a decrease in local blood flow?

a. Pulse
b. Ischemia
c. Hyperemia
d. Vasoconstriction
ANS: B
Decreased local blood flow is called ischemia, which may cause the skin to become pale and
feel cool.
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39. Which blood vessel is the only artery that transports oxygen-depleted blood?
a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Coronary
d. Pulmonary
ANS: D
Blood within most arteries is oxygen-rich; the exception is the pulmonary arteries that
transport oxygen-depleted blood from the heart to the lungs.
40. Which term refers to the expansion in arteries that occurs as the heart beats?
a. Pulse
b. Ischemia
c. Hyperemia
d. Cardiac output
ANS: A
As the heart beats and ejects blood, the arterial walls expand and recoil. This arterial
expansion is called a pulse and can be felt in the arteries that lie near the surface of the body
or where they lie over bone.
41. Which term means the amount of force exerted by the blood on vessel walls as the heart
beats?
a. Cardiac cycle
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b. Stroke volume
c. Blood pressure
d. Blood volume
ANS: C
Blood pressure is the amount of pressure exerted by the blood on vessel walls as the heart
beats.
42. Which term means refers to the maximum pressure within an artery during the cardiac cycle?
a. Pulse
b. Systole
c. Diastole
d. Vasomodilation
ANS: B
Blood pressure readings are expressed as two numbers: a higher number over a lower number
as seen in a fraction. The higher number represents systole or systolic pressure. The lower
number represents diastole or diastolic pressure.
43. Normal blood pressure reading for an average adult is how many mm Hg?
a. 60/90
b. 120/80
c. 145/110
d. 150/120
ANS: B
The normal blood pressure reading for an average adult is about 120/80 mm Hg.
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44. Which structures are the site of exchange between the blood and tissue cells?
a. Ventricles
b. Veins
c. Arteries
d. Capillaries
ANS: D
Capillaries are the functional unit of the cardiovascular system because this is where the
exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes occurs between the blood and tissue cells.
45. Which blood vessel is the only vein that transports oxygen-rich blood?
a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Coronary
d. Pulmonary
ANS: D
The blood within most veins is oxygen-depleted, the exception is the pulmonary veins that
transport oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.
46. Which term refers to the rate at which blood flows back to the heart?
a. Venous stasis
b. Venous return
c. Cardiac insufficiency
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d. Cardiac output
ANS: B
Venous return is the rate at which blood flows back to the heart. Having a good rate of venous
return is important because cardiac output is dependent on cardiac input.
47. Which term means the degree of muscle contraction present within venous walls?
a. Venous stasis
b. Venomotor tone
c. Venous insufficiency
d. Venous portal system
ANS: B
Changes in the tone of the smooth muscle of venous walls is called venomotor tone, and can
affect blood flow and blood pressure.
48. Which pathway replenishes the oxygen supply of the blood and eliminates gaseous wastes?
a. Venous portal
b. Hepatic portal
c. Systemic circuit
d. Pulmonary circuit
ANS: D
The pulmonary circuit replenishes the blood’s oxygen supply and eliminates gaseous wastes.
49. Which pathway consists of two capillary beds connected through a system of veins?
a. Portal system
b. Vascular system TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Cardiac circuit
d. Pulmonary circuit
ANS: A
Venous portal systems are found within the systemic circuit and consist of two capillary beds
connected through a system of veins. This way, blood products from one area can be
transported directly to another area in relatively high concentrations without going through the
heart, which would cause the blood products to become widely distributed.
50. Which artery is the largest in diameter?

a. Aorta
b. Carotid
c. Coronary
d. Pulmonary
ANS: A
All systemic arteries branch from one major artery, the aorta, which is the largest artery in
diameter.
51. Which condition is a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or their hemoglobin?
a. Anemia
b. Phlebitis
c. Hypertension
d. Atherosclerosis
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ANS: A
Anemia is a reduction in the quantity of either RBCs or their hemoglobin, which impairs the
blood’s ability to carry oxygen to cells.
52. Which condition is characterized by chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow to
the heart?
a. Anemia
b. Angina pectoris
c. Raynaud disease
d. Deep vein thrombosis
ANS: B
Angina pectoris, or angina, is chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow to the
heart, usually from narrowed coronary arteries.
53. Which condition is the inability of the heart to pump blood to meet the body’s demands?
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Congestive heart failure
ANS: D
The term congestive heart failure (CHF) refers to the inability of the heart to pump blood to
meet the body’s demands. CHF, also known as heart failure, is not a single disease; it is rather
a syndrome or complication associated with other diseases, such as hypertension, CAD,
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or previous myocardial infarction or MI.
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54. Which condition involves the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within arteries of the heart?
a. Hypertension
b. Raynaud disease
d. Coronary artery disease
ANS: D
Coronary artery disease (CAD) is the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within coronary
arteries; these arteries supply the myocardium of the heart. Narrowed arteries reduce blood
flow and create ischemia, sometimes leading to myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a
heart attack.
55. Which condition is inflammation of a vein and blood clot formation?

a. Anemia
b. Angina pectoris
ANS: C
Inflammation of a deep vein with thrombus or blood clot formation is called deep vein
thrombosis (DVT).
56. Which condition is a disorder of intermittent or sustained elevated blood pressure?

a. Anemia
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b. Hypertension
c. Raynaud disease
d. Peripheral vascular disease
ANS: B
Hypertension, or high blood pressure (HBP), is a disorder of intermittent or sustained elevated
blood pressure. Hypertension is the most prevalent cardiovascular disorder in the United
States.
57. Which term means a heart attack, and is characterized by disruption of blood flow to the
heart?
a. Raynaud disease
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Myocardial infarction
ANS: C
A myocardial infarction (MI), or heart attack, is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the heart
muscle or myocardium caused by an occluded blood vessel or hemorrhage from a broken
blood vessel.
58. Which condition is inflammation of the veins?

a. Anemia
b. Phlebitis
c. Hypertension
d. Angina pectoris
Phlebitis is an inflammation of the veins. It generally affects the extremities, but any veins,
including cranial veins, can be affected.
59. Which condition is characterized by periodic episodes of vasospasm in the fingers and toes?
a. Raynaud disease
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Myocardial infarction
ANS: A
Raynaud disease is periodic episodes of vasospasms in the fingers and toes. It also can affect
the tip of the nose, parts of the ears, parts of the cheeks, and the tongue. If the condition is
primary without an underlying disease, it is called Raynaud disease. If it is a secondary to
another disease, such as scleroderma or systemic lupus erythematosus, it is called Raynaud
syndrome.
60. Which condition involves dilated veins caused by incompetent valves?

a. Anemia
b. Hypertension
c. Varicose veins
d. Angina pectoris
ANS: C
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Varicose veins, also called varicosities, are dilated veins. They develop because of a weakness
in the vessel wall or by incompetent valves. Once they are dilated, they tend to remain so.
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Chapter 27: Lymphatic System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which functions does the lymphatic system perform?

a. Digestion, absorption, and elimination of ingested substances
b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement
c. Regulation of reproductive processes and helping the body adapt during stress
d. Protection of the body through defense mechanisms and transportation of fats
ANS: D
The lymphatic system removes excess interstitial fluid, transports fats and fat-soluble
vitamins, and protects the body through defense mechanisms.
2. From which fluid is lymph derived?

a. Plasma
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Synovial fluid
d. Cytosol
ANS: B
Lymph, or lymphatic fluid, is the nearly colorless watery fluid circulating through lymphatic
vessels. Lymph is derived from interstitial fluid that is collected by lymphatic capillaries.
3. What do lymph capillaries merge to form?

a. Lymph ducts TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Lymph nodes
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Lymphatic ducts
ANS: C
Lymph capillaries merge to form lymphatic vessels. These vessels contain more valves
compared with veins and, like venous valves, open in only one direction, permitting lymph to
flow toward the center of the body.
4. Which regions does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph from?
a. Right lower extremity and foot
b. Right arm, left arm, and entire trunk
c. Right abdomen, left side of the head, and right arm
d. Right arm, right side of the head, and right half of the thorax
ANS: D
The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and neck, the right upper extremity,
and the right half of the upper trunk, and delivers the lymph to the right subclavian vein.
5. Where does the thoracic duct deliver lymph?

a. Left jugular vein
b. Abdominal aorta
c. Left subclavian vein
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d. Right subclavian vein

ANS: C
The thoracic duct drains the rest of the body and delivers the lymph to the left subclavian
vein. The thoracic duct begins at the cisterna chyli, a lymphatic sac located between the
abdominal aorta and L2, and lies anterior to the vertebral column.
6. What is the name of lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2?
a. Tonsil
b. Appendix
c. Peyer patch
d. Cisterna chyli
ANS: D
The cisterna chyli is a lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2, and anterior
to the vertebral column.
7. Which term is used to describe the movement of lymph through the body?
a. Active transport
b. Peristalsis
c. Lymphokinesis
d. Lymph drainage
ANS: C
Lymphokinesis is the movement of lymph through the body.
8. Which factor promotes the flow of lymphatic fluid?

a. Skeletal muscle movements
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b. Digestive movements
c. Lack of valves in the vessels
d. Release from compression by bandages
ANS: A
Lymph moves by the milking action of the skeletal muscles, pressure differentials in the
thoracic and abdominal cavities created by the movement of the diaphragm and chest during
respiration, the contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles within the walls of the vessels,
and presence of valves to prevent backflow. Lymph can also move by compressive forces
such as massage, clothing, bandages, and even hydrostatic pressure from water.
9. Which structures are the primary lymphatic organs?

a. Skin and receptors
b. Brain and spinal cord
c. Heart and blood vessels
d. Red bone marrow and thymus
ANS: D
Primary lymphatic organs are involved with the production and maturation of lymphocytes.
Primary lymphatic organs include red bone marrow located in spongy bone and the thymus
located behind the sternum.
10. What percentage of the total white blood count is represented by lymphocytes?
a. 10%
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b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
ANS: B
Along with other types of blood cells, all lymphocytes originate in red bone marrow and
comprise approximately 25% of the total WBC count.
11. Where do B cells mature?

a. Brainstem
b. Thymus
c. Thyroid
d. Bone marrow
ANS: D
Some lymphocytes mature in bone marrow; they are called B lymphocytes or B cells (B =
bone marrow). Once mature, they enter the bloodstream where they facilitate defense
mechanisms against intruders.
12. Where do T cells mature?

a. Brainstem
b. Thymus
c. Thyroid
d. Bone marrow
ANS: B
Some lymphocytes are carried in the blood from the bone marrow to the thymus, where they
mature in the thymus and become
TESTBTAlymphocytes
NKSELLERor.C T Ocells
M (T = thymus). Once matured,
T-cells enter the bloodstream and go to other lymphatic organs where they also provide
defense mechanisms.
13. Which structure is bean-shaped and located along the lymphatic chain?
a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Lymph node
d. Lymphatic duct
ANS: C
Lymph nodes are bean-shaped structures that are widely distributed throughout the body
along the lymphatic chain.
14. Where are the inguinal lymph nodes located?

a. Neck
b. Groin
c. Axilla
d. Intestines
ANS: B
Several regions located on each side of the body contain clusters of superficial nodes. These
include the cervical region located in neck, the axillary region located in the armpit, and the
inguinal region located in the groin.
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15. Where is lymph filtered?

a. Thymus
b. Lymph node
c. Lymphatic duct
d. Spleen
ANS: B
Lymph nodes filter lymph before returning it to the blood. In fact, lymph nodes are the only
structures that filter lymph.
16. Which structure is the largest lymphatic organ?

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Appendix
ANS: B
The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ and is located in the left upper quadrant.
17. Which organ stores lymphocytes and serves as a reservoir for blood?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Appendix
ANS: B
Lymphocytes in the spleen react to pathogens in the blood and attempt to destroy or inactive
them. Macrophages engulfTdebris,
ESTBdamaged
ANKSELcells,
LERand
.CO other
M microorganisms. The spleen
releases lymphocytes when needed to assist in defense mechanisms. The spleen stores blood
and can release small amounts into the bloodstream during blood loss.
18. Which term means small groups of lymphatic tissue located along the respiratory and
digestive tracts?
a. Lymphatic system
b. Thoracic duct system
c. Lymphatic vessel chain
d. Mucosa-associated lymph tissue
ANS: D
Mucosa-associated lymph tissue (MALT) is a collective term to describe small groups of
lymphatic tissue located along the respiratory and digestive tracts. These tissues help protect
the body from swallowed or inhaled pathogens and invaders.
19. Which type of lymphatic tissue is located in the oral cavity and pharynx?
a. Tonsil
b. Thymus
c. Peyer patch
d. Lymph node
ANS: A
Tonsils are located in the oral cavity and pharynx.
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20. Which type of lymphatic tissue is located in portions of the small intestine?
a. Tonsil
b. Thymus
c. Lymph node
d. Peyer patch
ANS: D
Peyer patches are located in portions of the small intestine and are also called intestinal
tonsils.
21. Which structure is attached to the cecum of the large intestine?

a. Tonsil
b. Thymus
c. Peyer patch
d. Vermiform appendix
ANS: D
The vermiform appendix is attached to the cecum which is the first region of the large
intestine. Lymphatic tissue is found inside the appendix.
22. Which term refers to defense mechanisms that are directed against all pathogens and foreign
agents and include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation?
a. Specific
b. Artificial
c. Adaptive
d. Nonspecific
Nonspecific defense mechanisms are directed against all pathogens and foreign agents and
include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation.
23. Which term refers to a protective response to tissue damage that is designed to eliminate
pathogens, remove damaged tissues, and create an environment to maximize tissue repair?
a. Anabolism
b. Inflammation
c. Hypersensitivity
d. T cell maturation
ANS: B
Inflammation is a protective response to tissue damage resulting from a variety of causes,
including infection and trauma. The purpose of inflammation is to eliminate pathogens and
foreign agents, remove damaged tissues, and create an environment that maximizes tissue
repair.
24. Which sign is a part of inflammation?

a. Heat
b. Pallor
c. Cyanosis
d. Numbness
ANS: A
Heat is a sign of inflammation.
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25. What does the S in the acronym SHARP stands for?

a. Spleen
b. Sensory
c. Swelling
d. Subjective
ANS: C
The S in SHARP stands for swelling.
26. Which term means the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and foreign
agents?
a. Filtration
b. Immunity
c. Lymphokinesis
d. Hypersensitivity
ANS: B
Immunity is the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and foreign agents.
Once exposed to a particular pathogen or foreign agent, the body “remembers” it and launches
a quicker attack if the agent enters the body again.
27. Which factor is part of specific immunity?

a. Complementary proteins
b. Mucous membrane
c. Lymphocytes
d. Inflammation
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ANS: C
Specific defense mechanisms are selective and directed against particular pathogens, provide
immunity, and involve lymphocytes. Types of lymphocytes include B cells, which mature in
bone marrow, and T cells, which mature in the thymus.
28. Which type of cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. T-cells
d. B-cells
ANS: C
T-cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity and they directly attack the invading
pathogen or foreign agent.
29. What do B cells produce when they encounter a foreign agent?

a. Macrophages
b. Antibodies
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
ANS: B
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B cells provide surveillance, and when they encounter a foreign agent, produce antibodies.
The antibodies attack the foreign agent or direct other immune cells to attack it. This type of
response is called antibody-mediated immunity.
30. Which condition is a viral infection characterized by progressive impairment of the immune
response and increased susceptibility to infections and cancerous tumors?
a. Allergies
b. Chronic fatigue syndrome
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
ANS: D
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) results from human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) infection and is characterized by progressive impairment of the immune response and
increased susceptibility to infections and cancerous tumors.
31. Which condition involves altered immunologic responses to otherwise harmless substances?
a. Allergies
ANS: A
Allergies are altered immunologic responses to otherwise harmless substances.
32. Which condition is characterized by prolonged, severe, and disabling tiredness that is
unrelieved by rest and may worsen with activity?
a. Allergy TESTBANKSELLER.COM
ANS: B
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), also called immune dysfunction syndrome, is characterized
by prolonged and severe tiredness and disabling fatigue. This feeling is not relieved by rest
and may worsen with physical or mental activity.
33. Which condition is characterized by abnormal accumulation of fluids within interstitial spaces
due to damaged or missing vessels or nodes?
a. Edema
b. Lymphedema
c. Chronic fatigue syndrome
ANS: B
Lymphedema is swelling caused by abnormal accumulation of fluids within interstitial spaces
because lymphatic vessels or nodes are malformed, damaged, or have been surgically
removed.
34. Which condition is characterized by an imbalance in the distribution of body fluids but vessels
are still intact?
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a. Edema
b. Lymphedema
c. Chronic fatigue syndrome
ANS: A
Edema is swelling caused by an imbalance in the distribution of body fluids but, unlike in
lymphedema, lymphatic vessels are still intact.
35. Which condition is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body’s connective
tissues?
a. Allergies
ANS: C
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease
of the body’s connective tissues. It leads to the overproduction of circulating autoantibodies. It
commonly affects skin, bones, joints, the nervous system, kidneys, lungs, and other organs.
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which functions does the respiratory system perform?

a. Digestion, adsorption, and elimination of ingested substances
b. Heat production, maintenance of posture, and production of movement
c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and maintenance of homeostasis
d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress
ANS: C
The respiratory system exchanges gases and is involved with olfaction, sound production, and
the maintenance of homeostasis.
2. Which cranial nerve is involved with smell?

a. Facial
b. Phrenic
c. Olfactory
d. Trigeminal
ANS: C
Scent molecules enter the nose as we inhale. These molecules are forced against the olfactory
nerve endings that lie in the superior nasal cavity. Impulses travel from the olfactory nerves to
the olfactory bulb and then to the cerebral cortex, which interprets olfactory stimuli.
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3. Which region contains conchae?
a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Pharynx
d. Nasal cavity
ANS: D
The walls of the nasal cavity contain ridged projections called conchae and grooved
passageways called meatuses. A meatus lies beneath each conchae.
4. Which region is referred to as the air-conditioning chambers?

a. Sinuses
b. Trachea
c. Bronchia tree
d. Nasal cavity
ANS: D
The nasal cavity is often referred to as the “air-conditioning chamber.”
5. Which function do the sinuses perform?

a. Trigger exhalation
b. Improve gas exchange
c. Purify the incoming air
d. Resonating chamber for sound
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ANS: D
Sinuses lighten the skull, act as resonance chambers for sound, and are named for the bones in
which they are located.
6. Which bone has a sinus?

a. Maxilla
b. Temporal
c. Zygomatic
d. Mandibula
ANS: A
The four paranasal sinuses are the frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal, and maxillary sinuses.
7. Which term is synonymous with throat?

a. Larynx
b. Bronchial tree
c. Pharynx
d. Nasal cavity
ANS: C
The pharynx, or throat, is the muscular tube that extends from the nasal cavity to the larynx.
8. Where are the glottis and vocal cords located?

a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Bronchial tree
d. Nasal cavity
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ANS: A
The larynx, or voice box, connects the pharynx to the trachea. The glottis is located within the
larynx and contains the vocal cords or vocal folds. Air passed over the vocal cords causing
them to vibrate and produce sound.
9. Which structure is referred to as the “guardian of the airways?”

a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Pharynx
d. Epiglottis
ANS: D
The epiglottis also forms a flap over the glottis during swallowing which helps food and water
enter into the esophagus. Because of the latter function, the epiglottis is referred to as the
“guardian of the airways.”
10. Which structure is the windpipe?

a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Pharynx
d. Epiglottis
ANS: B
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The trachea or windpipe is located anterior to the esophagus and connects the larynx with the
bronchi.
11. What do the openings in the tracheal rings allow the esophagus to do?
a. Compress the trachea during vomiting
b. Expand anteriorly into the trachea as food is swallowed
c. Conduct food and air, along with the trachea, to the lungs
d. Close over the trachea, keeping food from entering the lungs
ANS: B
The trachea is approximately 9 inches in length and consists of 16 to 21 C-shaped or
semicircular cartilaginous rings located at regular intervals. Openings in the rings allow the
esophagus to expand anteriorly into the trachea as food is swallowed.
12. Which structures are the passageways leading from the trachea to each lung?
a. Bronchi
b. Alveoli
c. Sinuses
d. Meatuses
ANS: A
The right and left primary bronchi lead from the trachea to the right and left lung respectively.
13. Which statement describes the lungs?

a. Viral infections are more frequent in the left lung
b. Foreign bodies more frequently lodge in the left lung
c. Gas exchange occurs more efficiently in the right lung
TESTBAlodge
d. Foreign objects more frequently NKSEinLtheLEright
R.Clung
OM
ANS: D
The right bronchus is wider and has a steeper downward angle compared to the left. Because
of this characteristic, swallowed objects lodge there more often.
14. What are the primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract?
a. Alveoli
b. Sinuses
c. Bronchi
d. Lobes
ANS: A
Aveoli are air sacs attached to alveolar ducts. Groups of alveoli resemble clusters of grapes
called alveolar sacs. Alveoli are the primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract.
15. Which structure is formed by the alveolar membrane, basement membrane, and capillary wall
form?
a. Nasal concha
b. Vocal cord
c. Respiratory membrane
d. Bronchial tree
ANS: C
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The alveolar epithelium, the basement membrane, and the capillary wall, are collectively
referred to as the respiratory membrane.
16. Which substance assists in gas exchange by stabilizing the alveolus and reducing surface
tension?
a. Mucus
b. Surfactants
c. Serous fluid
d. Interstitial fluid
ANS: B
Alveoli are coated with a fluid containing surfactants. Surfactants assist in gas exchange by
stabilizing the alveolus and reducing surface tension.
17. Which structures are the primary organs of respiration?

a. Lungs
b. Alveoli
c. Sinuses
d. Bronchi
ANS: A
Lungs are the primary organs of respiration. The lungs extend from the clavicles to the
diaphragm and lie against the interior ribcage.
18. Which statement describes the lungs?

a. The cardiac notch is in the right lung
b. Serous fluid reduces friction as the lungs move
TEST
c. Peritoneal cavity surrounds BAN
each KSELLER.COM
lung
d. Left lung has two lobes, and the right has three
ANS: B
The visceral pleura is attached to the lungs and the parietal pleura is attached to the
mediastinum and internal chest wall. Between these two membranes is lubricating serous fluid
which reduces friction between these layers as the lungs move during breathing.
19. Which term means breathing?

a. Biorhythm
b. Carbon cycle
c. Interval cycle
d. Respiratory cycle
ANS: D
Breathing, or the respiratory cycle, is the process used to intake air and expel it from the
lungs. Breathing consists of two phases, inhalation and exhalation.
20. What is the main muscle of respiration?

a. Anterior scalene
b. Diaphragm
c. Rectus abdominis
ANS: B
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The diaphragm located between the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the main muscle
of respiration.
21. What is the average number of breaths per minute for a resting adult?
a. 5–7
b. 9–11
c. 12–16
d. 17–20
ANS: C
At rest, adults breathe approximately 12 to 16 times or cycles a minute; children may breathe
up to twice as fast as adults.
22. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm to initiate inhalation?

a. Facial
b. Phrenic
c. Olfactory
d. Trigeminal
ANS: B
Nerve impulses from the medulla oblongata travel down the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm,
causing the diaphragm to contract and initiate inhalation of the respiratory cycle.
23. Which factor determines how long a breath can be held?

a. Amount of nitrogen in the blood
b. Amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
c. Increased nerve impulses to the diaphragm
TEtissue
d. Increased compliance of STBA inNthe
KSlungs
ELLER.COM
ANS: B
How long individuals can hold their breath is largely determined by elevated levels of carbon
dioxide in the bloodstream.
24. Which term means the process of taking air into the lungs?
a. Inhalation
b. Exhalation
c. Redolence
d. Recruitment
ANS: A
Inhalation or inspiration is the process of moving air into the lungs.
25. Which term means the ease with which the thorax and lungs stretch during inhalation?
a. Olfaction
b. Breathing
c. Compliance
d. Elastic recoil
ANS: C
The ease with which the thorax and lungs are able to stretch during inhalation is called
compliance.
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26. Which term means the process of expelling air from the lungs?
a. Inhalation
b. Exhalation
c. Redolence
d. Recruitment
ANS: B
Exhalation, or expiration, is the process of expelling air from the lungs.
27. Which process involves the tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-inhalation
size?
a. Olfaction
b. Breathing
c. Compliance
d. Elastic recoil
ANS: D
The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-inhalation size is called elastic
recoil.
28. Which process is gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in capillaries?
a. Tissue respiration
b. Internal respiration
c. Cellular respiration
d. External respiration
ANS: D
External respiration is gas T
exchange
ESTBAbetween
NKSELL the
ERair.C
inOthe
M alveoli and the blood in capillaries.
Oxygen diffuses from the air in the lungs, crosses the respiratory membrane, and moves into
the bloodstream. Oxygen attaches to hemoglobin located in of red blood cells. At the same
time, carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction.
29. Which process is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and body cells within tissues?
a. Internal respiration
b. Cellular respiration
c. External respiration
d. Pulmonary respiration
ANS: A
Internal respiration is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and body cells within
tissues. Oxygen crosses the capillary wall and enters the cell. Carbon dioxide diffuses from
cells, crosses the capillary wall, and enters the bloodstream.
30. Which statement describes hiccups?

a. A very deep inhalation initiated by opening the mouth wide
b. Sudden expulsion of air to clear lower respiratory tracts
c. Forceful involuntary expulsion of air through the nose and mouth to clear the
upper respiratory tracts
d. Spasmodic closure of the vocal cords after forceful contraction of the respiratory
muscles
ANS: D
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Hiccups, or hiccoughs, is spasmodic closure of the vocal cords after forceful contraction of
the respiratory muscles.
31. Which condition involves bronchospasms that cause breathing difficulties in susceptible
people?
a. Asthma
b. Sinusitis
c. Laryngitis
d. Emphysema
ANS: A
Asthma is bronchospasms that cause breathing difficulties in susceptible people. This
condition is usually caused by an allergic reaction or other forms of hypersensitivity.
32. Which condition is inflammation of the mucosa of air passageways with resultant swelling
and mucus hypersecretion?
a. Sinusitis
b. Bronchitis
c. Pneumonia
d. Emphysema
ANS: B
Inflammation of the bronchial mucosa with resultant swelling and mucus hypersecretion is
called bronchitis. The two types of bronchitis are acute and chronic.
33. Which condition is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined
to the nose and throat?
a. Asthma TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Sinusitis
c. Hay fever
d. Common cold
ANS: D
A common cold is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined
to the nose and throat, although the larynx can be involved.
34. Which condition is highly contagious?

a. Asthma
b. Sinusitis
c. Hay fever
d. Common cold
ANS: D
A common cold is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined
to the nose and throat, although the larynx can be involved. It is highly contagious during the
onset of symptoms and then becomes less contagious.
35. Which condition involves permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied by

destruction of alveolar walls?
a. Asthma
b. Sinusitis
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c. Laryngitis
d. Emphysema
ANS: D
Emphysema involves permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied by destruction of
alveolar walls, affecting their elasticity. Obstruction results from changes in lung tissue rather
than mucus production and inflammation as seen in asthma and chronic bronchitis.
36. Which general term describes any hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens, usually
plant pollen?
a. Asthma
b. Hay fever
c. Bronchitis
d. Common cold
ANS: B
Hay fever is a general term used to describe any hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to
allergens, usually plant pollen. It occurs annually in approximately 1 in 5 people in the United
States.
37. Which condition an acute, highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract?
a. Asthma
b. Sinusitis
c. Influenza
d. Emphysema
ANS: C
Influenza is an acute, highly
TEcontagious
STBANKviral SELinfection
LER.COofMthe upper respiratory tract, but it can
extend into the lower respiratory tract. The various forms of influenza, or “flu,” such as Hong
Kong or Beijing, are named for the areas where they were first recognized.
38. Which condition is an infection of the lungs?

a. Asthma
b. Laryngitis
c. Pneumonia
d. Emphysema
ANS: C
Pneumonia is infection or inflammation of the lungs. According to the CDC, approximately 1
million people in the United States seek care in a hospital due to pneumonia and
approximately 50,000 people die from the disease annually.
39. Which condition is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States?
a. Asthma
b. Bronchitis
c. Pneumonia
d. Emphysema
ANS: C
Pneumonia is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States, affecting older
adults, infants, and immunocompromised individuals in particular. Worldwide, pneumonia is
a leading cause of death in children.
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40. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of mucosa that line spaces in skull bones?
a. Asthma
b. Sinusitis
c. Influenza
d. Bronchitis
ANS: B
Sinusitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the mucosa that lines the paranasal sinuses.
Most cases of sinusitis are acute and resolve in 4 weeks or less.
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Chapter 29: Digestive System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which functions does the digestive system perform?

a. Ingestion, absorption, secretion, and defecation
b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement
c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and homeostasis
d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress
ANS: A
The digestive system performs ingestion, digestion, secretion, absorption, and defecation.
2. Which process is mixing and propulsion movements?

a. Peristalsis
b. Deglutition
c. Mastication
d. Diaphoresis
ANS: A
The muscle layer is composed of circular and longitudinal smooth muscle. This layer is
responsible for mixing and propulsion movements called peristalsis, as well as actions of
swallowing and defecation.
3. Which term refers to the large flat folded serous membrane within the abdominal cavity?
a. Perineum TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Periosteum
c. Peritoneum
d. Pericardium
ANS: C
The peritoneum is a large flat folded serous membrane within the abdominal cavity. It secretes
serous fluid, which lubricates the viscera and allows peritoneal layers to slide across each
other. The peritoneum anchors digestive organs, blood and lymph vessels, and nerves in the
abdominal cavity, and helps restrict the spread of infection in the abdominal cavity.
4. Which section of the peritoneum contains significant amounts of fat, and resembles an apron?
a. Mesentery
b. Mesocolon
c. Lesser omentum
d. Greater omentum
ANS: D
The greater omentum is a double-layered structure, contains significant amounts of fat, and
resembles an apron.
5. Which structure is the first portion of the gastrointestinal tract?

a. Oral cavity
b. Nasal cavity
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c. Pharynx
d. Esophagus
ANS: A
The oral cavity, or mouth, is the first portion of the GI tract and contains the teeth, tongue, and
openings for the salivary glands.
6. Which term means a small round mass of food?

a. Villus
b. Bolus
c. Chyme
d. Sphincter
ANS: B
As food is chewed, the tongue mixes it with saliva to form a bolus, which is a small round
mass of food.
7. Which substance breaks down carbohydrates?

a. Pepsin
b. Gastrin
c. Lingual lipase
d. Salivary amylase
ANS: D
Salivary amylase, or ptyalin, initiates carbohydrate breakdown.
8. Which substance breaks lipids down into glycerol and fatty acids?
a. Pepsin TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Gastrin
c. Lingual lipase
d. Salivary amylase
ANS: C
Lingual lipase breaks lipids down into glycerol and fatty acids.
9. Which term means swallowing?

a. Peristalsis
b. Deglutition
c. Mastication
d. Diaphoresis
ANS: B
The pharynx, or throat, is involved with swallowing (deglutition).
10. Which structure aids in the transport of food and liquids from the pharynx to the stomach?
a. Trachea
b. Pharynx
c. Esophagus
d. Duodenum
ANS: C
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The esophagus is located behind the trachea and aids in the transport of food and liquids from
the pharynx to the stomach. As it descends toward the stomach, the esophagus pierces the
diaphragm at the esophageal hiatus.
11. Which term means a ring of muscle that remains contracted to close or guard an opening?
a. Villus
b. Bolus
c. Chyme
d. Sphincter
ANS: D
A sphincter is a ring of muscle that remains contracted to close or guard an opening.
12. Which structure is a J-shaped saclike organ located between the esophagus and the small
intestine?
a. Pharynx
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Gallbladder
ANS: B
The stomach is a J-shaped saclike organ located between the esophagus and the small
intestine. The stomach is essentially an enlargement of the GI tract bound at both ends by
sphincters, and serves as an expandable food storage tank.
13. Which term means the semiliquid substance churned by the stomach?
a. Bolus
b. Saliva TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Chyme
d. Sphincter
ANS: C
The stomach churns and mixes the food with gastric juice, which is a blend of enzymes and
acids, until it becomes a semiliquid substance called chyme.
14. What is the pyloric sphincter located between?

a. Esophagus and stomach
b. Stomach and small intestine
c. Small intestine and large intestine
d. Large intestine and the outside of the body
ANS: B
The pyloric sphincter is located between the stomach and the small intestine.
15. What do the chief cells in the stomach’s lining secrete?

a. Bile
b. Pepsin
c. Salivary amylase
d. Hydrochloric acid
ANS: B
Pepsin, an enzyme secreted by chief cells, digests proteins.
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16. What do the parietal cells in the stomach’s lining secrete?

a. Bile
b. Pepsin
c. Salivary amylase and lingual lipase
d. Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
ANS: D
Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor are secreted by parietal cells.
17. What is the first section of the small intestine called?

a. Ileum
b. Cecum
c. Jejunum
d. Duodenum
ANS: D
The duodenum is the first and shortest portion, and is approximately 10 to 12 inches in length.
18. Where do ducts from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas enter the intestines?
a. Ileum
b. Cecum
c. Jejunum
d. Duodenum
ANS: D
The duodenum is the first and shortest portion, and is approximately 10 to 12 inches in length.
It contains ducts from the liver,
TESTgallbladder,
BANKSELand LEpancreas.
R.COM
19. Which term means the fingerlike projections in the lining of the small intestine that house
blood and lymph vessels?
a. Villi
b. Cilia
c. Rugae
d. Flagella
ANS: A
The walls of the small intestine have circular folds called plicae circulares that are lined with
numerous fingerlike projections called villi. Each villus contains a blood capillary and a
lymphatic capillary called a lacteal.
20. What percentage of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine?
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 90%
ANS: D
Ninety percent of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine; the remainder occurs
in the stomach and large intestine.
21. Maltase, sucrase and lactase digest which type of nutrient?
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a. Vitamin
b. Lipid
c. Protein
d. Carbohydrate
ANS: D
Intestinal glands secrete enzymes such as peptidase and enterokinase, which facilitate protein
digestion; lipase which facilities fat digestion, and disaccharidases, maltase, sucrase, and
lactase, which facilitate carbohydrate digestion.
22. What is the ileocecal sphincter located between?

a. Esophagus and stomach
b. Stomach and small intestine
c. Small intestine and large intestine
d. Large intestine and the outside of the body
ANS: C
The ileocecal sphincter is located between the ileum of the small intestine and the cecum of
the large intestine.
23. What substances does the large intestine absorb?

a. Fats and lipids
b. Proteins and peptides
c. Water and electrolytes
d. Carbohydrates and starches
ANS: C
The primary functions of the
TElarge
STBintestine
ANKSEL include
LER.absorption
COM of water and electrolytes,
production of certain vitamins such as vitamin K and some B vitamins, formation of feces or
stools, and elimination of wastes.
24. Which section of the large intestine is a blind pouch located in the right lower quadrant of the
abdomen?
a. Ileum
b. Cecum
c. Rectum
d. Haustra
ANS: B
The cecum is a blind pouch located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
25. The vermiform appendix is suspended from the inferior portion of which structure?
a. Ileum
b. Cecum
c. Rectum
d. Haustra
ANS: B
Suspended from the inferior portion of the cecum is the vermiform appendix which contains
lymphatic tissue.
26. Which part of the colon connects to the rectum?
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a. Transverse
b. Ascending
c. Sigmoid
d. Descending
ANS: C
The S-shaped sigmoid colon continues to the middle of the abdomen, where it joins the
rectum. The rectum is the last section of the large intestine and is about 7 to 8 inches in length.
27. Which term refers to the pouches in the large intestine formed by the taeniae coli appearance?
a. Villi
b. Haustra
c. Microvilli
d. Plicae circulares
ANS: B
Haustra are the pouches in the large intestine that give it a segmented appearance.
28. Which substance does the liver secrete?

a. Bile
b. Lipase
c. Pepsin
d. Trypsin
ANS: A
The main secretion of the liver that serves digestive functions is bile. Bile is a greenish yellow
liquid that emulsifies fat which means dispersing large globules into small droplets. This
allows pancreatic lipase, a Tfat-digesting
ESTBANKenzyme,
SELLER to.work
COMmore efficiently.
29. Which structure stores and concentrates bile?
a. Spleen
b. Pancreas
c. Stomach
d. Gallbladder
ANS: D
The gallbladder is a hollow, pear-shaped sac that lies on the inferior surface of the liver. The
gallbladder stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver.
30. Which nutrients do trypsin and chymotrypsin from the pancreas digest?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Lipids
d. Minerals
ANS: B
The pancreas secretes enzymes that break down all categories of digestible foods. Trypsin and
chymotrypsin facilitate protein digestion.
31. Which condition is a progressive liver disease in which destroyed cells are replaced by scar
tissue?
a. Ulcerative colitis
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b. Cirrhosis
c. Crohn disease
d. Irritable bowel syndrome
ANS: B
Cirrhosis is a progressive disease characterized by degeneration and regeneration of liver
tissue. As liver cells are destroyed, they are replaced by fibrous scar tissue, giving the liver a
yellow-orange color and a cobbled appearance called a “hobnail liver.”
32. Which term refers to infrequent or difficult passing of stools?

a. Ulcer
b. Diarrhea
c. Colitis
d. Constipation
ANS: D
Constipation is infrequent or difficult passing of stools. Normal bowel habits range from two
to three evacuations daily to three per week and depend on various factors.
33. Which condition is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that most commonly affects the
beginning of the large intestine and end of the small intestine?
a. Gallstones
b. Crohn disease
c. Ulcerative colitis
ANS: B
Crohn disease is an inflammatory
TESTBbowelANKSdisease
ELLEthatR.Cmost
OM commonly affects the beginning of
the large intestine and end of the small intestine, but any part of the GI tract can be affected.
The disease can extend through all of the intestine’s layers. Chronic inflammation thickens the
walls of the GI tract, giving it a cobblestone appearance.
34. Which term refers to frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools?
a. Ulcer
b. Diarrhea
c. Colitis
d. Constipation
ANS: B
Frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools is called diarrhea.
35. Where can gallstones become lodged?

a. Appendix
b. Cystic duct
c. Pancreatic duct
d. Cecum
ANS: B
Masses of solid material or stones called calculi that form in the gallbladder are gallstones.
Gallstones may remain undetected or become lodged in the cystic or common bile duct.
36. Which condition involves periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into the esophagus?
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a. Cirrhosis
b. Crohn disease
d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
ANS: D
Periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into the esophagus is known as gastroesophageal
reflux disease (GERD). GERD is most often caused by one of two scenarios: relaxation of the
lower esophageal sphincter (LES) or increase in intraabdominal pressure.
37. Which condition is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of the colon?

a. Gallstones
b. Hepatitis
c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
ANS: D
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of the
colon.
38. Which condition involves damaged areas of the gastrointestinal mucosa that are exposed to
acidic gastric juice?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Hepatitis
c. Crohn disease
d. Peptic ulcer disease
Peptic ulcer disease is ulcerations of the mucosal lining in parts of the GI tract exposed to
acidic gastric juice. The word peptic refers to the stomach enzyme pepsin, which breaks down
proteins. Ulcerations, which can be chronic or acute, can be found in the lower esophagus
(esophageal ulcers), in the distal portion of the stomach (gastric ulcers), or in the proximal end
of the duodenum (duodenal ulcers).
39. Which condition involves inflammation of the large intestine?

a. Cirrhosis
b. Hepatitis
d. Peptic ulcer disease
ANS: C
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is an IBD that usually begins in the rectum and then spreads
proximally, eventually involving the entire colon.
40. Which term means inflammation of the liver?

a. Cystitis
b. Hepatitis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Crohn disease
ANS: B
Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the liver. All types of hepatitis cause damage to liver cells.
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Chapter 30: Urinary System and Pathologies

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which term means study of kidney function?

a. Neurology
b. Enterology
c. Nephrology
d. Urology
ANS: C
Urology is the study of the urinary system and nephrology is the study of kidney function.
2. Which function does the urinary system perform?

a. Exchange of gases
b. Movement of the body
c. Regulation of the digestive process
d. Regulation of blood volume
ANS: D
The urinary system regulates eliminates wastes, regulates chemical composition of blood,
regulates blood pH, regulates blood volume and fluid balance, regulates blood pressure,
regulates red blood cell production, and helps maintain homeostasis.
3. Which structure is the principal organ of the urinary system?

a. Lung TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Bladder
c. Kidney
d. Prostate
ANS: C
The kidneys, the two principal organs of the urinary system, are located bilaterally at the
spinal level of T11 to L3.
4. Which term refers to the indentation located on the medial side of the kidney?
a. Pelvis
b. Hilus
c. Bladder
d. Nephron
ANS: B
The medial indentation where structures such as the renal arteries, veins, and ureters enter and
exit is called the hilus.
5. If one kidney is removed, the other kidney increases its filtering capacity to what percentage
of that of two normal kidneys?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 80%
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d. 100%
ANS: C
If one kidney is removed, the other will then increase its filtering capacity up to 80% of the
capacity of two normal kidneys.
6. What is the outer region of the kidney called?

a. Cortex
b. Dermal
c. Parietal
d. Medulla
ANS: A
Each kidney has two main regions. The outer region is the cortex and the inner region is the
medulla.
7. What is the filtering unit of the kidneys called?

a. Pelvis
b. Hilum
c. Bladder
d. Nephron
ANS: D
The kidneys are composed of filtering units called nephrons. Nephrons are specialized
tube-shaped structures that filter blood, reabsorb nutrients, and form and excrete urine.
8. Which structures are the two main regions of the nephron?

a. Renal artery and renal T
vein
ESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Renal cortex and renal medulla
c. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule
d. Renal viscera and renal periphery
ANS: C
Each nephron has a vascular component, called the renal corpuscle which is made up of a
glomerulus and a Bowman capsule, and a tubular component, called the renal tubule.
9. What are the two main components of the renal corpuscle?

a. Cortex and medulla
b. Pyramids and columns
c. Bowman capsule and glomerulus
d. Seminal vesicles and epididymis
ANS: C
Each nephron has a vascular component, called the renal corpuscle which is made up of a
glomerulus and a Bowman capsule.
10. What are the clusters of capillaries within the renal corpuscles called?
a. Pyramid
b. Trigone
c. Microvilli
d. Glomeruli
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ANS: D
Afferent arterioles branch into glomeruli, which are clusters of capillaries surrounded by
Bowman capsules.
11. What is the network of blood vessels surrounding the renal tubules called?
a. Glomerulus
b. Renal capillaries
c. Venus portal system
d. Peritubular capillaries
ANS: D
Blood exits glomeruli and flows into efferent arterioles and then into peritubular capillaries, a
network of capillaries surrounding renal tubules.
12. What is the purpose of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

a. Transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder
b. Monitor blood pressure
c. Filter wastes out of urine
d. Reabsorb substances from filtrate back into the blood
ANS: B
The juxtaglomerular cells, also called granular cells, within the juxtaglomerular apparatus are
mechanoreceptors which monitor blood pressure.
13. Which substance is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells when blood pressure drops in the
afferent arteriole?
a. Renin
b. Growth hormone TESTBANKSELLER.COM
c. Aldosterone
d. Antidiuretic hormone
ANS: A
The juxtaglomerular cells release renin to ultimately raise blood pressure.
14. Which structure is a slender, hollow tube that extends from the renal pelvis of the kidneys to
the urinary bladder?
a. Ureter
b. Urethra
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland
ANS: A
The ureters are two slender tubes that extend from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder.
15. Which structure is an expandable sac that stores urine?

a. Ureter
b. Urethra
c. Kidney
d. Bladder
ANS: D
The urinary bladder is an expandable sac that temporarily stores urine.
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16. Which term refers to the folds in the lining of the urinary bladder that permit expansion?
a. Villi
b. Calyx
c. Rugae
d. Cortex
ANS: C
The interior lining of the bladder contains transitional epithelium and folds called rugae, both
which help the bladder expand as it fills with urine. (Rugae are typical of expanding structures
such as the stomach, gallbladder, and vagina.)
17. Which structure is a narrow tube located below the bladder that conducts urine out of the
body?
a. Ureter
b. Urethra
c. Gallbladder
d. Urinary bladder
ANS: B
The urethra is a narrow tube located below the bladder that conducts urine out of the body. In
males, the urethra extends through both the prostate and penis; both urine and semen travel
down this tube. In females, the path of the urethra is between the vaginal opening and the
clitoris and functions only to pass urine.
18. Which process occurs during the first step of filtering blood and manufacturing urine?
a. Blood enters the glomerulus
TESTBthe
b. Urine leaves the body through ANurethra
KSELLER.COM
c. Substances are reabsorbed back into the blood
d. Substances are secreted that increase blood pressure
ANS: A
Glomerular filtration is the first step in the process of filtering blood and manufacturing of
urine.
19. During tubular reabsorption, approximately what percentage of molecules that were initially
filtered are reabsorbed back into the bloodstream?
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 75%
d. 99%
ANS: D
During tubular reabsorption, approximately 99% of the filtrate initially filtered is reabsorbed
from the renal tubule back into peritubular blood.
20. Which stage involves the movement of molecules from the peritubular blood into the renal
tubule?
a. Filtration
b. Diffusion
c. Tubular secretion
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d. Tubular reabsorption
ANS: C
During tubular secretion, very small amount of selected substances, such as extra wastes and
electrolytes, move from peritubular blood into the renal tubule.
21. Which term means urination?

a. Voiding
b. Ingestion
c. Deglutition
d. Incontinence
ANS: A
Urination is the release of urine from the urinary bladder. Urination is also called voiding or
micturition.
22. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water?

a. Renin
b. Calcitriol
c. Erythropoietin
ANS: D
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted by the posterior pituitary stimulates the kidneys to
reabsorb more water, which decreases urine output and concentrates urine.
23. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water, and excrete potassium?
a. Renin TESTBANKSELLER.COM
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoeitin
ANS: B
The hormone aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex stimulates the reabsorption of sodium
and water, and the excretion of potassium.
24. Which term refers to an abnormal accumulation of body fluids in various compartments?
a. Cystitis
b. Dehydration
c. Edema
d. Incontinence
ANS: C
Edema is abnormal accumulation of body fluids in various compartments, especially in
interstitial spaces.
25. Which condition means the kidneys are unable to adequately perform their physiologic
functions?
a. Pyelonephritis
b. Renal failure
c. Cystitis
d. Urinary incontinence
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ANS: B
Kidney failure involves the inability of the kidneys to adequately perform their physiologic
functions. Kidney failure is also called renal failure.
26. Which condition is characterized by small, hard masses?

a. Kidney stones
b. Kidney failure
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Cystitis
ANS: A
Kidney stones are small, hard masses that form inside the kidney. They are created by the
union of various substances, especially calcium phosphate, calcium oxalate, uric acid, and
cystine, followed by progressive enlargement.
27. Which condition is loss of bladder control?

a. Cystitis
b. Pyelonephritis
c. Urinary retention
d. Urinary incontinence
ANS: D
Urinary incontinence, or UI, is loss of bladder control.
28. What are the two main types of urinary incontinence?

a. Stress and urge
b. Acute and chronic
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c. Complex and tertiary
d. Primary and secondary
ANS: A
The two main types of urinary incontinence are stress incontinence and urge incontinence.
29. Which condition is an infection of the upper urinary tract and involves the ureters and
kidneys?
a. Pyelonephritis
b. Cystitis
c. Micturition
d. Incontinence
ANS: A
Pyelonephritis is an infection of the upper urinary tract and involves the ureters and kidneys.
30. Which condition is a bladder infection?

a. Cystitis
b. Hepatitis
c. Pharyngitis
d. Bronchitis
ANS: A
Urinary tract infection (UTI) is a general term for infection of one or more structures of the
urinary system. UTIs are classified according to their location. Cystitis is a bladder infection.
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TESTBANKSELLER.

2. Which origin for the word massage is Greek?

7. Which healing method is based on Hindu tradition?

9. Who is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine?

14. Which term describes a component of the Ling System?

d. Society of Trained Masseuses

27. What organization was established to advance massage by supporting research?

33. How is human trafficking best described?

Chapter 02: The Therapeutic Relationship: Ethics, Boundaries, and Cultural

3. Which term means moral principles that govern behavior?

8. Under which circumstance can massage therapists legally breach confidentiality?

9. Which legislation requires professionals to report concerns of neglect or abuse to appropriate

13. Which example demonstrates respect?

15. Which nonverbal expression demonstrates empathy?

17. Which statement describes cultural competency?

25. Which strategy establishes and maintains professional boundaries?

27. Which example demonstrates a physical boundary?

Transference is the unconscious transfer or displacement of emotions and resultant behaviors

32. Which example is a sign of countertransference?

34. Which example demonstrates a time boundary?

35. Which example demonstrates a financial boundary?

b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients

40. What characteristic differentiates friendships from therapeutic relationships?

47. Which procedure is an appropriate way of dealing with a client’s erection?

48. Which activity is an indication the client is sexualizing the massage?

1. Which feature is an advantage of portable massage tables?

2. Which reason is an advantage of purchasing massage equipment from reputable,

4. How wide are most massage tables?

6. Which fabric is most often used on high-quality massage tables?

8. When should chlorine bleach be used on the massage table?

11. A knee bolster increases client comfort by decreasing which condition?

15. What is the primary purpose of using massage lubricants?

17. From what are oils and gels usually derived?

18. From what are butters derived?

27. Which temperature range is

29. Which factor is part of a massage therapist’s professional appearance?

2. Which approach do professionals use to help prevent burnout?

7. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how many minutes of

9. Which type of exercise specifically helps prevent falls in older adults?

13. Which type of nutrient is composed of chains of amino acids?

16. Which foods are considered good sources of protein?

17. Which type of nutrient provides

18. Which foods are sources of carbohydrates?

20. Which type of nutrient is classified as either unsaturated or saturated?

23. Which foods are sources of healthy fats?

24. Which vitamin water-soluble?

25. Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

26. Which food is the best source of Vitamin A?

27. Which food is the best source of Vitamin C?

28. Which food is the best source of Vitamin E?

31. Which vitamin aid in blood clotting?

40. Which statement defines burnout?

44. Which wellness domain involves a commitment to lifelong learning?

49. Which statement describes the social wellness domain?

50. Which statement describes the spiritual wellness domain?

Chapter 05: Evidence Informed Practice and Research Literacy

4. Which factor is a barrier to evidence-informed practice?

5. Which term means information that supports an idea or conclusion?

9. Which type of research is subjective and narrative-based?

11. Which statement describes the concept of reliability in research?

12. Which statement describes the concept of validity in research?

13. Which term means a personal tendency toward a preference or outcome?

15. Which part of research is the presumed outcome of an experiment?