Atd DPP 05072022

APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
05/07/2022
1. MSQ
The velocity of steam exiting the nozzle of the impulse stage of a turbine is 400 m/s.
The blades operate close to the maximum blading efficiency. The nozzle angle is 20!.
Considering symmetrical blading and neglecting blade friction. Steam flow rate is
0.6 kg/s.
A.Power developed by blades is 40.5 kW to 44.5 kW.
B.Power developed by blades is 35.2 kW to 36.2 kW.
C.Diagram efficiency is 86.2% to 89.2%
D.Diagram efficiency is 80.2% to 82.2%
Daily Practice Problems & Assignment by NEGI10 for #NEGIsoldiers

2. NAT
A single row impulse turbine develops 132.4 kW at a blade speed of 175 m/s, using
2 kg of steam per sec. Steam leaves the nozzle at 400 m/s. Steam leaves the turbine
blades axially. The whirl velocity at the entrance of moving blade is _______ m/s.

3. NAT
The steam leaves the nozzles of a single-row impulse turbine at 900 m/s. The nozzle
angle is 20!. The blade velocity is 315 m/s. The blade angles are 30! at inlet and
outlet. If the blade velocity coefficient is 0.7, then the work done per kg of steam is
______ kJ/kg. (Round off to two decimal places).

4. MSQ
In a single stage impulse turbine nozzle angle is 20! and blade angles are equal. The
blade velocity coefficient is 0.85. The actual blade efficiency is 92% of the maximum
blade efficiency.
A.Actual blade efficiency is 0.72 to 0.78.
B.Actual blade efficiency is 0.81 to 0.83.
C.Ratio of blade speed to steam speed is (possible) 0.56 to 0.64.
D.Ratio of blade speed to steam speed is (possible) 0.71 to 0.74.

ANSWER KEYS – (Steam Turbines)
1. A, C
2. 377 to 379
3. 282.61 to 288.61
4. A, C
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
27/06/2022
MCQ
If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is heated to a higher temperature, then
A. specific humidity of the air increases
B. specific humidity of the air decreases
C. relative humidity of the air increases
D. relative humidity of the air decreases
[GATE-2011-ME]
Answer: D
MCQ
Moist air at 35°C and 100% relative humidity in entering a psychrometric device and
leaving at 25°C and 100% relative humidity. The name of the device is
A. Humidifier B. Dehumidifier
C. Sensible heater D. Sensible cooler
[GATE-2014-ME]
Answer: B
MCQ
For air at a given temperature, as the relative humidity is increased isothermally,
A. the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy increases
B. the wet bulb temperature and specific enthalpy decreases
C. the wet bulb temperature increases and specific enthalpy decreases
D. the wet bulb temperature decreases and specific enthalpy increases
[GATE-2001-ME]
Answer: A
NAT
In an air conditioning system, air is to be cooled and dehumidified by means of a
cooling coil. The data are as follows: Initial condition of the air at the inlet to the
cooling:
Dry bulb temperature = 25°C, Partial pressure of water vapour = 0.019 bar, Absolute
total pressure = 1.02 bar (102 kPa). Final condition of the air at the exit of the cooling
coil:
Dry bulb temperature = 15°C;
Relative humidity = 90%, Absolute total pressure = 1.02 bar (102 kPa).
Other data are us follows: Specific gas constant for air = 287 J/kg-K,
Specific gas constant for water vapour = 461.5 J/kg-K,
Saturation pressure for water at 15°C = 0.017 bar (1.7 kPa),
Enthalpy of dry air = 1.005t kJ/kg, Enthalpy of water vapour h = (2500+1.88t) kJ/kg.
Where t is temperature in °C. Determine
Moisture removed from air in kg per kg of dry air. [GATE-1988-ME]
Answer: 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟐𝟖,
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS
ASSIGNMENT
24/06/2022
1. NAT
In a dew point apparatus, a metal beaker is cooled by gradually adding ice water to
water initially at room temperature. The moisture from the room air begins to
condense on the beaker when its temperature is 15°C. If the room temperature is
27°C and wet bulb temperature of air is 21°C and the barometric pressure is
1.01325 bar. If the volume of the room is 48 m" , then the mass of water vapour
present in the room is _____ kg. (Round off two decimal places)
Refer the following data
Saturated vapour pressure of water at 15°C = 1.7056 kPa

2. MCQ
A room is filled with saturated moist air at 25°C and a total pressure of 100 kPa. The
saturated pressure at 25°C is 3.1698 kPa. If the mass of dry air in the room is 100 kg,
the mass of water vapour is _____.
A. 0.52 kg B. 2.96 kg
C. 2.04 kg D. 3.17 kg

3. NAT
The dry bulb temperature for sample of moisture is 37°C, while its relative humidity is
50% and the barometric pressure is 101.325 kPa. The enthalpy of moist air is _____
kJ⁄ kgda (Saturation pressure of water vapour at 37°C is 6.2795 kPa) (Round off two
decimal places)

4. NAT
0.005 kg of water vapour per kg of air is removed. After removing the water vapour
the temperature becomes 15°C (P#$ = 0.0170 bar). The atmospheric conditions are
30°C (P#$ = 0.0425 bar) and 55% RH, the atmospheric pressure is 1.1032 bar. The
relative humidity is _____%. (Round off nearest integer)

5. MSQ
The air at 28°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity of 0.016 kg/kgda. At 28°C, the
saturation pressure is 0.03778 bar. Take c% = 1.005 kJ/kg-K.
A. Relative humidity ϕ = 64% to 68%.
B. Relative humidity ϕ = 72% to 74%.
C. Specific enthalpy of air is 6894 kJ/kg to 6902 kJ/kg.
D. Specific enthalpy of air is 7201 kJ/kg to 7210 kJ/kg.

ANSWER KEYS – (DPP )
1. 𝟎. 𝟓𝟕 to 𝟎. 𝟔𝟏 5. A, C
2. C
3. 𝟖𝟔. 𝟐𝟓 to 𝟗𝟎. 𝟎𝟓
4. 𝟖𝟒 to 𝟗𝟏
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
24/06/2022
MSQ
Atmospheric air with Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT) of 24°C and Relative Humidity of
35%, entering in a circular duct (assume no pressure drop in the duct) is heated by an
electrical resistance arrangement inside the duct. The DBT of air measured at the
outlet of the duct is equal to 30°C. Considering the flow to be steady, which of the
following statement(s) is (are) correct as regards to the outlet air, with respect to the
inlet air?
A. There is no change in the Relative Humidity
B. There is no change in the Dew Point Temperature
C. There is no change in the Specific Humidity
D. There is no change in the Specific Enthalpy
Answer: B, C
MCQ
Air – water vapour mixture having 100% relative humidity at 50°C is heated
isobarically to 100°C in a closed system. If saturation pressure at 50°C is 12.352 kPa
and at 100°C is 101.42 kPa, final relative humidity is
A. 0% B. 8.2%
C. 12.2% D. 100%
Answer: C
NAT
Moist air enters a duct at a rate of 3 kg/s at 10°C, 80 % relative humidity. The air is
heated as it flows through the duct and exits at 30°C. No moisture is added or
removed and the pressure of air in the duct is constant at 1 bar. The saturation vapor
pressure (p&) of H' O at 10°C is 0.01228 bar. Specific enthalpy values of dry air at inlet
and outlet of the duct are respectively 283. 1 kJ/kg and 303.2 kJ/kg. The corresponding
specific enthalpy values for water vapor are 2519.8 kJ/kg and 2556.3 kJ/kg. For steady
state operation the amount of heat added to the moist air in kW (up to 2 decimal
places) is ___________
Answer: 60.5 to 61.5

MCQ
Consider the process of sensible cooling of air with 60% relative humidity at constant
pressure. Which one of the following statements is TRUE for this process?
A. Both humidity ratio and relative humidity increase during the process.
B. The humidity ratio decreases continuously due to condensation.
C. The dry bulb temperature decreases but the wet bulb temperature increases.
D. The humidity ratio remains constant.
Answer: D
MCQ
Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled to 35°C in
an after cooler. The air at the entry to the after cooler is unsaturated and becomes just
saturated at the exit of the after cooler. The saturation pressure of water at 35°C is
5.628 kPa. The partial pressure of water vapour (in kPa.) in the moist air entering the
compressor is closest to
A. 0.57 B. 1.13
C. 2.26 D. 4.52
[GATE-2008-ME]
Answer: B
MCQ
If moist air is cooled by sensible heat removal, which of the following is true?
A. neither relative humidity nor specific humidity changes
B. specific humidity changes but not relative humidity
C. both relative humidity and specific humidity change
D. none of these
[GATE-1991-ME]
Answer: D
NAT
A mixture of air and water vapour enters a steady-flow adiabatic saturator at 50°C and
100 kPa. It leaves the saturator in a completely saturated state at temperature of
25°C and pressure of 100 kPa. Liquid water enters the saturator at 25°C. If air is
considered to be an ideal gas, with constant specific heat capacity, the relative
humidity of the air entering the saturator is _____% (1 decimal place).
Use the following data:
at 25°C
h( = 104.87 kJ/kg, h& = 2547.17 kJ/kg, P$)* = 3.161 kPa
at 50°C
h( = 209.31 kJ/kg, h& = 2592.06 kJ/kg, P$)* = 12.335 kPa
Specific heat capacity of air at constant pressure c% = 1.005 kJ/(kgK)

NAT
At a location where the atmosphere pressure is 960 millibar, the temperature is 30°C
and the relative humidity 60 %. Calculate the humidity ratio, degree of saturation,
enthalpy and dew point. Assume that air and water vapour may be treated as perfect
gases. The following data may be used:
M)+, = 29; M-)*., = 18;
Universal Gas constant = 8.314 kJ/kmol-K. c%) = 1 kJ/kg-K, c%- = 4.186 kJ/kg-K
Vapour pressure of water follows the equation
/"'/
ln P = 19.013 - ,
0
P in kPa & T in K.
[GATE –ME-94]
Answer: 0.01683, 0.589, 73.02,𝟐𝟏. 𝟐𝟗°𝐂

APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
23/06/2022
1. MCQ
Which among the following plots represents a line joining two states with the same
dew point temperature on a standard psychometric chart, with the dry bulb
temperature on the X-axis and the humidity ratio on the Y-axis?
Answer: D
2. MCQ
The statements concern psychometric chart.
1. constant relative humidity lines are uphill straight lines to the right
2. constant wet bulb temperature lines are downhill straight lines to the right
3. constant specific volume lines are downhill straight liens to the right
4. constant enthalpy lines are coincident with constant wet bulb temperature lines
Which of these are correct?
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
[GATE-2006-ME]
Answer: A
3. NAT
The partial pressure of water vapour in a moist air sample of relative humidity 70% is
1.6 kPa, the total pressure being 101.325 kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas
mixture of water vapour and dry air. The relation between saturation temperature (T$
in K ) and saturation pressure (P$ in kPa) for water is given by
ln ( P$ /P! ) = 14.317 − 5304/T$ , where
P! = 101.325 kPa. The dry bulb temperature of the moist air sample (in °C) is
_________.
[GATE-2016-ME]

APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
22/06/2022
1. NAT
A sample of moist air at a total pressure of 85 kPa a has a dry bulb temperature of
30°C (saturation vapor pressure of water = 4.24 kPa). If the air sample has a relative
humidity of 65 %, the absolute humidity (in gram) to water vapor per kg of dry air is
____________.
[GATE-2014-ME]
Answer: 19 to 22
2. MCQ
For air with a relative humidity of 80%
A. the dry bulb temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature
B. the dew point temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
C. the dew point and wet bulb temperature are equal
D. the dry bulb and dew point temperatures are equal
[GATE-2003-ME]
Answer: B
3. MCQ
Wet bulb depression, under saturated Ambient air conditions:
A. is always positive
B. is always negative
C. is always zero
D. may have a value depending upon dew point temperature
[GATE-1989-ME]
Answer: C
4. MCQ
During the adiabatic saturation process
A. The relative humidity increases but the specific humidity remains constant
B. Both the relative humidity and the specific humidity remain constant
C. Both the relative humidity and the specific humidity increase
D. The relative humidity decreases but the specific humidity increases.
Answer: C
5. MCQ
Moist air undergoes an adiabatic saturation process such that the relative humidity of
air increases. For this process,
A. Dry bulb temperature increases, specific humidity increases
B. Dry bulb temperature increases, specific humidity decreases
C. Dry bulb temperature decreases, specific humidity increases
D. Dry bulb temperature decreases, specific humidity decreases
Answer: C
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
20/06/2022
1. NAT
A room contains air at 25°C, 100 kPa and 80% relative humidity. If the saturation
pressure of water vapor at 25°C is 3.1698 kPa, then the specific humidity of air is
____kg of water vapor/kg of dry air (round off to 4 decimal places).
Answer: 0.0160 to 0.0165

2. MCQ
The relative humidity of ambient air at 300 K is 50% with a partial pressure of water
vapour equal to P#. The saturation pressure of water at 300 K is P$)* . The correct
relation for the air-water mixture is
A. P# = 0.5 P$)*
B. P# = P$)*
C. P# = 0.622 P$)*
D. P# = 2 P$)*
[GATE-2021-ME]
Answer: A
3. MCQ
Ambient pressure, temperature, and relative humidity at a location are
101 kPa, 300 K, and 60%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water at 300 K is
3.6 kPa. The specific humidity of ambient air is ____g/kg of dry air.
A. 21.4 B. 35.1
C. 21.9 D. 13.6
[GATE-2021-ME]
Answer: D
4. NAT
Ambient air is at a pressure of 100 kPa, dry bulb temperature of 30°C and 60% relative
humidity. The saturation pressure of water at 30°C is 4.24 kPa. The specific humidity of
air (in g/kg of dry air) is ______ (correct two decimal places).
[GATE-ME-18]
Answer: 16.00 to 16.50

5. MCQ
When a fixed mass of air-water vapour mixture is heated at constant pressure,
A. Both relative and specific humidity decrease.
B. Relative humidity decreases, but specific humidity remains unchanged.
C. Specific humidity decreases, but relative humidity remains unchanged.
D. Both relative and specific humidity increase.
Answer: B
6. NAT
Air in a room is at 35°C and 60% relative humidity (RH). The pressure in the room is
0.1 MPa. The saturation pressure of water at 35°C is 5.63 kPa. The humidity ratio of
the air (in gram/kg of dry air ) _________.
[GATE-2015-ME]

7. NAT
An air-water vapor mixture with volume 100 m" at 100 kPa, 35°C is at 75% relative
humidity. Talking saturation pressure of vapor at 35°C as 5.63 kPa, the mass of vapor
in the mixture in kg is _______.
Answer: 2.9 to 3.0

8. MCQ
The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air in a room are 1 bar,
30°C and 70%, respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C is 4.25 kPa, the
specific humidity of the room air in kg water vapour/kg dry air is
A. 0.0083 B. 0.0101
C. 0.0191 D. 0.0232
[GATE-2014-ME]
Answer: C
9. MCQ
A room contains 35 kg of dry air and 0.5 kg of water vapour. The total pressure and
temperature of air in the room are 100 kPa and 25°C respectively. Given that the
saturation pressure for water at 25°C, is 3.17 kPa, the relative humidity of the air in
the room is
A. 67% B. 55%
C. 83% D. 71%
[GATE-2012-ME]
Answer: D
10. MCQ
A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30°C and specific humidity of 11.5 g
water vapour per kg dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93. If the saturation
vapour pressure of water at 30°C is 4.24 kPa and the total pressure is 90 kPa, then the
relative humidity (in %) of air sample is
A. 50.5 B. 38.5
C. 56.5 D. 68.5
[GATE-2008-ME]
Answer: B
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP
19/06/2022
1. NAT
In a mixture of dry air and water vapor at a total pressure of 750 mm of Hg. The partial
pressure of water vapor is 20 mm of Hg. The humidity ratio of the air in grams of water
vapor per kg of dry air (g -/kg 1) ) is ______.
[GATE-2016-ME]

2. MCQ
Dew point temperature is the temperature at which condensation begins when the air
is cooled at constant
A.volume B. entropy
C. pressure D. enthalpy
[GATE-2006-ME]
Answer: C
RANKINE CYCLE &
REFRIGERAITON
ASSIGNMENT – 3
16/06/2022
1. NAT
In the Rankine cycle for a steam power plant the turbine inlet and exit enthalpies are
3317.2 kJ/kg and 2276.2 kJ/kg respectively. The enthalpy of water at pump exit and
entry are 271.96 k J /kg and 277.03 k J/ kg respectively. The specific steam
consumption of the cycle is _______ kg/KW-h.

2. MCQ
In Rankine cycle of steam power plant specific enthalpies of steam entering and
leaving turbine are 3500 kJ/kg and 2100 kJ/kg respectively. Saturated water at
condenser exit is having specific enthalpy of 220 kJ/kg. The rate of heat supplied to
boiler = 2600 kW. The power developed by the turbine is (in kW).
A. 2112.60 B. 1420.62
C. 1109.71 D. 3020.27

3. NAT
A steam power plant operating on a simple Rankine cycle. The boiler and condenser
pressures of 60 bar (h = 2785.10 kJ/kg, s = 5.8891 kJ/kg-K) and 0.1 ba (h( =
191.81 kJ/kg, h(& = 2392.82 kJ/kg , s( = 0.6492 kJ/kg-K, s(& = 7.5010 kJ/kg-K),
respectively. The steam coming out of the boiler is dry & saturated. The saturated
liquid at 0.1 bar has h( = 191.81 kJ/kg and v( = 0.001010 m" /kg. The thermal
efficiency of the cycle is _______ %. (Round off to two decimal places)

4. NAT
A steam power plant operates on ideal Rankine cycle. The steam enters the turbine at
3MPa, 350°C (h = 3115.6 kJ/kg; s = 6.7428 kJ/Kg-K) and is condensed in the
condenser at a pressure of 75 kPa (h( = 384.36 kJ/kg, h(& = 2278.6 kJ/kg, s( =
1.213 kJ/kg-K , s(& = 6.2434 kJ/kg-K). The Back-work ratio is _____. (round off to 4
decimal places). The properties of saturated liquid at 75 kPa is h( = 384.36 kJ/kg,
v( = 0.001037 m" /kg .

5. NAT
In a ideal Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at 30 bar and 300°C (h =
2993.48 kJ/kg and s = 6.5389 kJ/kg-K). It is cooled in the condenser at a pressure of
10 kPa. The heat rejected in the condenser is _____ kJ/kg. (round off to 2 decimal
places) The properties to be used at 10kPa are
h( = 191.81 kJ/kg, h& = 2492.82 kJ/kg
s( = 0.6492 kJ/kg-K, s& = 8.0488 kJ/kg-K

6. NAT
Steam is the working fluid in an ideal Rankine cycle with superheat and Reheat. The
steam enters the first stage turbine at 8 MPa, 480°C (h = 3380 kJ/kg) and expands
to 0.7 MPa (h = 2755 kJ/kg, x = 0.98). It is then reheated to 440°C (h = 3350 kJ/
kg), entering the second stage turbine, it expands in the second stage turbine to the
condenser pressure of 0.008 MPa (h = 2410 kJ/kg, x = 0.94). If the net power
output of the cycle is 100 MW, then the mass flow rate of steam is ______ kg/s.
(round off to two decimal places). The properties of saturated liquid at 0.008 MPa
(h( = 173.93 kJ/kg , v( = 0.001008 m" /kg).

7. MCQ
A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat Rankine cycle between the pressure
limits of 15 MPa and 10 kPa steam enters the high pressure turbine with h =
3310.8 kJ/kg and then enters in re-heater with h = 2817.2 kJ/kg. This reheated
steam is now enters in low pressure turbine with h = 3466.61 kJ/kg. If the mass flow
rate of steam through the cycle is 12 kg/s, the total rate of heat input in the boiler will
be (in kW). The properties of the condensed water are h( = 191.81 kJ/kg, v( =
0.00101 m" /kg, h(& = 2392.1 kJ/kg.
A. 37246.2 B. 33806
C. 41599 D. 45039

8. NAT
Steam at 100 bar, 500°C (h = 3373.6 kJ/kg) enters a prime mover. It has one stage
of reheat. The steam is exhausted from the prime mover at 0.07 bar and 85% dry
(h( = 163.38 kJ/kg, h(& = 2409.2 kJ/kg). The net work developed by the prime
mover is 1600 kJ/kg of steam. The thermal efficiency of the prime mover is ______ %
(round off to two decimal places).

9. MCQ
A steam power plant operates on an ideal reheat Rankine cycle. The steam enters the
steam turbine at 90 bar, 480°C (h = 3333.5 kJ/kg). The steam is reheated with h =
2815 kJ/kg at 12 bar . This reheated steam is now enters in low pressure turbine with
h = 3425.5 kJ/kg. The expansion after re-heating takes place to condenser pressure
of 0.07 bar (h = 2364 kJ/kg). The efficiency of the cycle is (in %) . The properties of
saturated liquid at 0.07 bar is h( = 161.8 kJ/kg, v( = 0.001013 m" /kg.
A. 41.6 B. 38.6
C. 44.2 D. 47.4

10. MSQ
Consider a Simple ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and Condenser pressures.
If the cycle is modified with reheating
A. The turbine work output will increase.
B. The amount of heat rejected will increase.
C. The thermal efficiency will decrease.
D. The work input to the pump will remain same.

11. MSQ
A refrigerator operates as the reversed Carnot cycle. The maximum and minimum
temperatures of the refrigerant is 37°C and −13°C respectively. The capacity of the
system is 10 tonnes. Neglect all losses.
A. Heat rejected per hour is 165.7 MJ/h to 167.7 MJ/h.
B. Heat rejected per hour is 124.4 MJ/h to 126.4 MJ/h.
C. Power required to run the refrigerator is 7.42 kW to 7.52 kW.
D. Power required to run the refrigerator is 6.19 kW to 6.26 kW.

12. NAT
A perfect reversed heat engine makes 444 kg of ice per hour at −13°C from feed
water at 17°C. Assume specific heat of ice as 2.09 kJ/kg-K and Latent heat 334 kJ/kg.
The minimum power required to make the ice from feed water is ____ kW. (round off
to 2 decimal places). Take c% of water = 4.18 kJ/kg-K.

13. NAT
A cold storage is supplied with 20 tonnes of fish at a temperature of 25°C. The fish has
to be cooled to −8°C for preserving it for a few days. The cooling takes place in
8 hours. The specific heat of fish above freezing point is 2.93 kJ/kg-K and 1.25 kJ/kg-
K below freezing point −3°C . The latent heat of freezing is 232 kJ/kg. The
Refrigerating capacity of the plant is _____ tons. (round off to two decimal places).

14. NAT
If the Heat rejection ratio of condenser in refrigeration system is 1.2, the COP of the
plant is _________. (Round off to nearest integer)

15. MCQ
A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 150 kW, the compressor
of refrigeration system consumes a power of 50 kW. The COP of the system would be
A. 2 B. 4
C. 3 D. 1.5

16. NAT
In a simple vapour compression refrigeration plant, the inlet of compressor is dry
saturated. The enthalpy at the inlet of both compressor and evaporator are 1426 kJ/
kg and 347.5 kJ/kg respectively. The relative efficiency and maximum COP are 60%
and 5 respectively. If the mass flow rate of refrigerant is 0.02 kg/s, the work input to
the compressor is _____ kW.

17. MSQ
A Vapour Compression refrigeration system has condensing temperature of 50°C and
evaporating temperature of0°C. The refrigeration capacity is 7 tonns. The liquid
leaving the condenser as saturated liquid and isentropic compression. The enthalpy at
the end of isentropic compression is 210 kJ/kg.
h( h&
T °C P bar
kJ/kg kJ/kg
50 12.12 84.868 206.298
0 3.086 36.022 187.397

A. Mass flow rate of refrigerant is 0.21 kg/s to 0.27 kg/s.
B. Mass flow rate of refrigerant is 0.16 kg/s to 0.17 kg/s.
C. Rate of heat rejection is 24.2 kW to 25.2 kW.
D. COP is 4.50 to 4.59.
18. NAT
A refrigerator is based on ideal vapour compression cycle operates between the
temperature limits of −20°C and 40°C. The refrigerant enters the condenser as
saturated vapour and leaves as saturated liquid. If the circulation rate of refrigerant is
0.025 kg/s, the refrigeration effect is ________ kJ/s . (round off to one decimal place).
The enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid and vapour at these
temperatures are given below.
h( h& s( s&
T °C
(kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg-K) (kJ/kg-K)
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67

19. NAT
Ammonia based vapour Compression system has evaporator pressure is 2 bar (latent
heat = 1325 kJ/kg). The Dryness fractions at entry and exit are 0.19 and 0.85
respectively. If the specific work-done of ammonia is 160 kJ/kg, then the COP is
______ (round off to two decimal places)

20. MSQ
A refrigerator operate between temperature limits of 30°C and −5°C. The refrigerant
is 0.97 dry before leaving the evaporator coil. Temperature rise of water circulating
through the condenser is limited to 20°C.
h( h& s( s&
T °C
(kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg-K) (kJ/kg-K)
30 323.22 1465.38 1.2037 4.9839
−5 158.26 1431.89 0.63 5.4072
A. The dryness fraction of the refrigerant entering the evaporator is 0.17 to 0.19.
B. The dryness fraction of the refrigerant entering the evaporator is 0.12 to 0.14.
C. The refrigerating effect per kg of refrigerant is 1070.05 kJ/kg to 1071.05 kJ/kg.
D. The refrigerating effect per kg of refrigerant is 1172.4 kJ/kg to 11735 kJ/kg.
21. MSQ
Air enters the compressor of an ideal Bell-Coleman cycle at 1 atm and 270 K with a
volumetric flow rate of 1.5 m" ⁄s. The pressure ratio of compressor is 3, the expander
inlet temperature is 300 K. Assume air is modelled as an ideal gas with c% =
1.005 kJ/kg-K and γ = 1.4
A. Mass flow rate of air is 1.61 kg⁄s to 1.69 kg⁄s .
B. Mass flow rate of air is 1.92 kg⁄s to 2.01 kg⁄s .
C. Net power input in the cycle is 29.62 kW to 30.42 kW.
D. Net power input in the cycle is 37.95 kW to 38.95 kW.

22. MSQ
Air enters the compressor of Reversed Brayton cycle at 100 KPa, 283 K, it is
compressed to 2.5 bar with an isentropic efficiency of 72%. After being cooled to
320 K at constant pressure in a heat exchanger and then air expands in an expander to
1 bar with an isentropic efficiency of 75%. The cooling load of the system is 3 tonnes
of refrigeration. After absorbing heat at constant pressure, the air re-enters the
compressor. Take c% = 1.005 kJ/kg-K and γ = 1.4
A. Actual temperature after expansion in the expander is 262.75 K to 265.75 K.
B. Actual temperature after expansion in the expander is 252.62 K to 254.62 K.
C. COP of Refrigerator is 1.15 to 1.35.
D. Mass flow rate of air in the system is 0.56 kg/s to 0.59 kg/s.

23. NAT
An air refrigerator working on Bell-Coleman Cycle, takes air from cold chamber at
1 bar and −5°C. It is compressed to 6 bar following the law of Pv2.'/ = C. The
compressed air is cooled to 37°C in the cooler before entering into the expander.
Assume isentropic expansion, neglect the clearances in compressor and expander.
Take c% of air is 1 kJ/kg-K, γ = 1.4. The COP of the cycle is __________ (Round off to
nearest integer) Take R = 287 kJ/kg-K .

24. MSQ
A refrigerating machine using air as working fluid and working on closed Bell-Coleman
cycle operates under the following conditions. Refrigerator temperature = 150 K,
Cooler temperature 300 K. The air temperature at the entry of the refrigerator is 40 K
less than the refrigerator temperature. Pressure in the refrigerator = 1 bar. Assume
expansion and compression are isentropic, take c% = 1.05 kJ/kg-K.
A. Cooler pressure is 28.6 bar to 29.6 bar.
B. Cooler pressure is 32.12 bar to 34.12 bar.
C. Net work done is 70.7 kJ/kg to 74.7 kJ/kg.
D. Net work done is 64.2 kJ/kg to 65.2 kJ/kg.

25. MSQ
A Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle works between 1 bar and 5 bar. The isentropic
efficiency of compression and expansion are 85%, 90% respectively. The ambient
temperature is 27°C and refrigerator temperature is 0°C. The mass flow rate of air is
1 kg/s. Take c% = 1.05 kJ/kg-K and γ = 1.4.
A. Isentropic compressive work is 194.8 kJ/kg to 198.8 kJ/kg.
B. Isentropic compressive work is 174.2 kJ/kg to 177.2 kJ/kg.
C. Tonnage capacity of the unit is 20.64 to 22.44.
D. Tonnage capacity of the unit is 19.25 to 19.95.

ANSWER KEYS – (DPP)
1. 3.36 to 3.56 10. A, B, D 19. 𝟓. 𝟒𝟐 𝐭𝐨 𝟓. 𝟓𝟐
2. C 11. A , C 20. B, C
3. 34.25 to 35.95 12. 𝟔. 𝟖𝟗 𝐭𝐨 𝟔. 𝟗𝟔 21. B, D
4. 0.0039 to 0.0044 13. 𝟔𝟑. 𝟎𝟓 𝐭𝐨 𝟔𝟒. 𝟎𝟓 22. A, D
5. 1830.75 to 1832.95 14. 𝟓 𝐭𝐨 𝟓 23. 1.9 to 2.1
6. 63.88 to 64.88 15. A 24. B, C
7. D 16. 7.0 to 7.4 25. A, C
8. 43.29 to 44.19 17. A, D
9. A 18. 𝟏. 𝟗 𝐭𝐨 𝟐. 𝟒
APPLICATIONS OF
THERMODYNAMICS DPP – 17
31/05/2022
1. NAT
Consider the open feed water heater (FWH) shown in the figure given below:
Specific enthalpy of steam at location 2 is 2624 kJ/kg, specific enthalpy of water at

location 5 is 226.7 kJ/kg and specific enthalpy of saturated water at location 6 is 708.6
kJ/kg. If the mass flow rate of water entering the open feed water heater (at location
5) is 100 kg/s then the mass flow rate of steam at location 2 will be ____ kg/s (round
off to one decimal place) [GATE-2021-ME]
2. NAT
Steam enters a well-insulated turbine and expands isentropically throughout. At an
intermediate pressure, 20 percent of the mass is extracted for process heating and the
remaining steam expands isentropically to 9 kPa.
Inlet to turbine:
P = 14 MPa, T = 560°C.
h = 3486 kJ/kg, s = 6.6 kJ/kg-K
Intermediate stage:
h = 2776 kJ/kg
Exit of turbine:
P = 9 kPa,
hf = 174 kJ/kg, h& = 2574 kJ/kg,
s( = 0.6 kJ/kg-K, s& = 8.1 kJ/kg-K
If the flow rate of steam entering the turbine is 100 kg/s then the work output (in
MW) is_______. [GATE-2015-ME]
Answer: 123.56 to 127.57
3. MCQ
A thermal power plant operates on a regenerative cycle with a single open feed water
heater, as shown in the figure. For the state points shown, the specific enthalpies are:
h2 = 2800 kJ/kg and h' = 200 kJ/kg. The bleed to the feed water heater is 20% of the
boiler steam generation rate. The specific enthalpy at state 3 is
A. 720 kJ/kg B. 2280 kJ/kg

C. 1500 kJ/kg D. 3000 kJ/kg [GATE-2011-ME]
Answer: A
4. MCQ
The INCORRECT statement about regeneration in vapor power cycle is that
A. it increases the irreversibility by adding the liquid with higher energy content to the
steam generator
B. heat is exchanged between the expanding fluid in the turbine and the compressed
fluid before heat addition
C. the principle is similar to the principle of Stirling gas cycle
D. it is practically implemented by providing feed water heaters
[GATE-2016-ME]
Answer: A
APPLICATIONS OF
30/05/2022
1. NAT
In a steam power plant based on Rankine cycle, steam is initially expanded in a high-
pressure turbine. The steam is then reheated in a reheater and finally expanded in a
low-pressure turbine. The expansion work in the high-pressure turbine is 400 kJ/kg
and in the low-pressure turbine is 850 kJ/kg, whereas the pump work is 15 kJ/kg. If
the cycle efficiency is 32%, the heat rejected in the condenser is_____kJ/kg (round
off to 2 decimal places).
[GATE-2022-ME]
Answer: 2620.00 to 2630.00

2. NAT
An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates between the pressure limits of 10 kPa and 8
MPa, with reheat being done at 4 MPa. The temperature of steam at the inlets of both
turbines is 500°C and the enthalpy of steam is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high-
pressure turbine and 2247 kJ/kg at the exit of low-pressure turbine. The enthalpy of
water at the exit from the pump is 191 kJ/kg. Use the following table for relevant data.
Super-heated
Pressure 𝐯 𝐡 𝐬
steam
(MPa) (𝐦𝟑 /𝐤𝐠) (𝐤J/𝐤𝐠) (𝐤J/𝐤𝐠. 𝐊)
temperature
𝟓𝟎𝟎°𝐂 4 0.08644 3446 7.0922
𝟓𝟎𝟎°𝐂 8 0.04177 3399 6.7266
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle efficiency (in percentage) is __________.
Answer: 40 to 42
Common Data for Questions :
Consider a steam power plant using a reheat cycle as shown. Steam leaves the boiler
and enters the turbine at 4 MPa, 350°C (h" = 3095 kJ/kg). After expansion in the
turbine to 400 kPa (hB = 2609 kJ/kg), the steam is reheated to 350°C (h/ =3170
kJ/kg), and then expanded in a low-pressure turbine to 10 kPa (hC =2165 kJ/kg).
Continued
3. MCQ
The thermal efficiency of the plant neglecting pump work is
A. 15.8% B. 41.1%
C. 48.5% D. 58.6%
[GATE-2004-ME]
Answer: B
4. MCQ
The enthalpy at the pump discharge (h' ) is
A. 0.33 kJ/kg B. 3.33 kJ/kg
C. 4.0 kJ/kg D. 33.3 kJ/kg
[GATE-2004-ME]
Answer: D
Consider an ideal reheat cycle utilizing steam. Steam leaves the boiler and enters the
turbine at 3 MPa, 400°C (state 3) and then expands to 0.8 MPa (state 4). It is then
reheated at constant pressure 0.8 MPa to 400°C (state 5) and expands to 10 kPa in the
low pressure turbine (state 6). The entry to the pump corresponds to saturated liquid
state (state 1), and state 2 represents inlet to the boiler. The following data are given:
h2 =191.81 kJ/kg, h" = 3230.82 kJ/kg,
hB = 2891.6 kJ/kg, h/ = 3267.97 kJ/kg,
h&a = 2584.63 kJ/kg, xC = 0.92285,
2D EF)
v( b = 0.00101 m" /kg
2D EF)
5. MCQ
The total heat transfer in the boiler is approximately
A. 4411 kJ/kg B. 3412 kJ/kg
C. 3230 kJ/kg D. 2892 kJ/kg
Answer: B
6. MCQ
The net wokdone in the cycle is approximately
A. 1004 kJ/kg B. 1101 kJ/kg
C. 1204 kJ/kg D. 2004 kJ/kg
Answer: C
APPLICATIONS OF
29/05/2022
MCQ
The thermal efficiency of an ideal Rankine cycle is less than that of a Carnot cycle
operating between the same maximum and minimum temperature limits, because
A. heat addition does not take place at constant temperature
B. the expansion process is not reversible and adiabatic
C. heat rejection does not take place at constant temperature
D. The compression process is not reversible and adiabatic
Answer: A
MCQ
Assertion (A): Condenser is an essential equipment in a steam power plant.
Reason(R): For the same mass flow rate and the same pressure rise, a water pump
requires substantially less power than a steam compressor.
A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct reason for (A)
C.Both (A) and (R) are false
D.(A) is false but (R) is true.
[GATE-2006-ME]
Answer: B
MCQ
The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
because
A. the enthalpy of main steam is higher for superheat cycle
B. the mean temperature of heat addition is higher for superheat cycle
C. the temperature of steam in the condenser is low
D. the quality of steam in the condenser is low
[GATE-2002-ME]
Answer: B
MCQ
In the Rankine cycle when superheated steam in used:
A. Thermal efficiency increases.
B. Steam consumption decreases.
C. Steam dryness fraction after expansion increases.
D. All of the above
[GATE-1990-ME]
Answer: D
MCQ
In an ideal Rankine cycle, increase in superheat of vapor at the exit of boiler leads to
A. decrease in net work output from the cycle
B. increase in cycle efficiency
C. decrease in cycle efficiency
D. decrease in quality of steam at the exit of the turbine
Answer: B
NAT
In a simple Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters the turbine at 100 bar, 500℃
(h = 3375.1 kJ/kg, s = 6.5995 kJ/kg.K) at a rate 1000 kg/s. It expands isentropically in
the turbine to the condenser pressure. The temperature in the condenser is 30℃
(h( = 125.74 kJ/kg, s( = 0.4368 kJ/kg.K, h& = 2555.6 kJ/kg, s& = 8.4520 kJ/kg.K).
Saturated water from the condenser is pumped back to the boiler. Neglecting the
pump work, the efficiency (in percentage, rounded off to 1 decimal) of the cycle is
__________.

NAT
In a steam power plant operating on an ideal Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters
the turbine at 3 MPa and 350°C. The condenser pressure is 75 kPa. The thermal
efficiency of the cycle is _____ percent.
Given:
For saturated liquid, at P = 75 kPa,
h( = 384.39 kJ/kg,
v( = 0.001037 m" /kg,
s( = 1.213 kJ/kg-K,
h(& = 2278.6 kJ/kg,
s(& = 6.2434 kJ/kg-K.
At P = 3 MPa and T = 350°C (Superheated steam),
h = 3115.3 kJ/kg,
s = 6.7428 kJ/kg-K.
[GATE-2016-ME]
A steam power plant operates on an ideal Rankine cycle between pressure of 5 MPa
(boiler) and 10 kPa (condenser). Water enters the pump at a specific enthalpy of
191.83 kJ/kg, and specific volume 0.00101 m" /kg, and steam enters the turbine at an
enthalpy of 4612.2 kJ/kg, and leaves the turbine as saturated vapor at 10 kPa. The
enthalpy of vaporization of water at 10 kPa is 2392.8 kJ/kg.
MCQ
The net work done per cycle (kJ/kg) is approximately
A. 2023 B. 2123
C. 2223 D. 2323
Answer: A
MCQ
The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
A. 35.8% B. 40.8%
C. 45.8% D. 50.8%
Answer: C
Common data for questions :
In a steam power plant operating on the Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at 4
MPa, 350°C and exits at a pressure of 15 kPa. Then it enters the condenser and exits
as saturated water. Next, a pump feeds back the water to the boiler. The adiabatic
efficiency of the turbine is 90%. The thermodynamic states of water and steam are
given in table.
State h(kJ/kg) s(kJ/kg-K) v(m!/kg)
Water, 15 kPa
3092.5 6.5821 0.06645
Steam, 4MPa,
Water, h" h# s" s# v" v#

15 kPa 225.94 2599.1 0.7549 8.0085 0.001014 10.02
h is specific enthalpy; s is specific entropy and v the specific volume; subscripts f and g
denote saturated liquid state and saturated vapour state.
Continued
MCQ
The network output (kJ/kg) to the cycle is
A. 498 B. 775
C. 860 D. 957
[GATE-2010-ME]
Answer: C
MCQ
Heat supplied (kJ/kg) to the cycle is
A. 2372 B. 2576
C. 2863 D. 3092
[GATE-2010-ME]
Answer: C
APPLICATIONS OF
27/05/2022
MCQ
In a Rankine cycle heat is added
A. Reversibly at constant volume
B. Reversibly at constant temperature
C. Reversibly at constant pressure and temperature
D. Reversibly at constant pressure
[GATE-1991-ME]
Answer: D
MCQ
Group I show different heat addition processes in power cycles. Likewise, Group II
show different heat removal process. Group III lists power cycles. Match items from
Groups I, II and III Group I Group II Group III
1. Rankine
P. Pressure constant S. Pressure constant
cycle
Q. Volume constant T. Volume constant 2. Otto cycle
3. Carnot cycle
R. Temperature U. Temperature
4. Diesel cycle
constant constant
5. Brayton cycle
A. P-S-5 R-U-3 P-S-1 Q-T-2 B. P-S-1 R-U-3 P-S-4 P-T-2

C. R-T-1 P-S-1 P-T-4 Q-S-5 D. P-T-4 R-S-3 P-S-1 P-S-5
[GATE-2006-ME]
Answer: A
MCQ
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason
[r]
Assertion: Carnot cycle is not used in vapour power cycles.
Reason: Pumping of a two phase mixture is difficult
A. Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is a reason for [a]
B. Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT reason for [a]
C. [a] is true but [r] is false
D. Both [a] and [r] are false
Answer: A
MCQ
In a power plant, water (density = 1000 kg/m" ) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa. The
pump has an isentropic efficiency of 0.85. Assuming that the temperature of the water
remains the same, the specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
A. 0.34 B. 2.48
C. 2.92 D. 3.43
[GATE-2014-ME]
Answer: D
NAT
In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187
kJ/kg, respectively. If the specific pump work is 2 kJ/kg, the specific steam
consumption (in kg/kWh) of the cycle based on net output is ________.
[GATE-2015-ME]
Answer: 3.6 to 3.8

NAT
In the Rankine cycle for a steam power plant the turbine entry and exit enthalpies are
2803 kJ/kg and 1800 kJ/kg, respectively. The enthalpies of water at pump entry and
exit are 121 kJ/kg and 124 kJ/kg, respectively. The specific steam consumption (in
kg/kWh) of the cycle is ____________.
[GATE-2017-ME]
Answer: 3.5 to 3.7

NAT
The turbine inlet conditions of a Rankine cycle are 10 MPa and 500°C, while the
condenser pressure is 10 kPa. The enthalpy and entropy of saturated liquid at 10 kPa
are 191.8 kJ/kg and 0.6492 kJ/kg. K, respectively, while the enthalpy and entropy of
vapourisation at 10 kPa are 2392.1 kJ/kg and 7.4996 kJ/kg. K, respectively. The
enthalpy and entropy at the inlet to the turbine are 3375.1 kJ/kg and 6.5995 kJ/
kg. K, respectively. The condenser outlet has saturated liquid. Neglecting the pump
work, the thermal efficiency (in %) of the cycle (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is
_____.
Answer: 39 to 42
NAT
A power station produces 500 MW of power. Assuming a plant thermal efficiency of
33.3%, calculate the rate of cooling water flow required in tons per hour, if the rise of
cooling water temperature is to be restricted to 5°C. The specific heat of the water
used is 4.2 kJ/kg-K.
[GATE-1990-ME]
Answer: 𝟏. 𝟕𝟏𝟔𝟖𝟓×𝟏𝟎𝟓
APPLICATIONS OF
20/05/2022
1. MSQ
An open cycle gas turbine plant uses heavy oil as fuel. The maximum pressure and
temperature in the cycle are 5 bar and 650°C. The pressure and temperature of air
entering into the compressor are 1 bar and 27°C. The exit pressure of the turbine is
also 1 bar. Assuming isentropic efficiencies of compressor and turbine to be 80% and
85% respectively. The overall A : F ratio used is 60 ∶ 1, the plant consumes 5 kg
of fuel/sec.
For both air and gas take c% = 1 kJ⁄kg°C and γ = 1.4.
A. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is 17.8% to 18.2%.
B. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is 16.3% to 16.7%.
C. The power generating capacity of the plant is 22.0 MW to 22.6 MW.
D. The power generating capacity of the plant is 18.2 MW to 18.6 MW.
Answer: A, C
2. NAT
A gas turbine plant operating on Joule cycle. Air is compressed from 1 bar and 15°C
through a pressure ratio of 6, it is then heated to 727°C in a combustion chamber and
expanded back to a pressure of 1 bar. The work ratio of the gas turbine is _____.
(round off to three decimal places). Assume isentropic efficiencies of the turbine and
compressor as 90 and 85 per cent respectively. Take γ = 1.4, c% = 1.005 kJ⁄kg − K .
Answer: 0.370 to 0.375

3. CONVENTIONAL
Air enters at 1 bar and 15°C into the compressor of a constant pressure open cycle gas
turbine plant and leaves the compressor at 6 bar. Using the following data :
Temperature of the gases entering the turbine = 700°C
Pressure loss in the combustion chamber = 0.1 bar
ηG = 80% and η* = 80%, ηG!H combustion = 90%
Take γ = 1.4 and c% = 1 kJ⁄kg − K for air and gases
Find (a) the quantity of air circulation in the system if the plant develops 940 kW.
(b) Heat supplied per kg of air circulation and
(c) The thermal efficiency of the cycle. Neglect the mass of fuel.
Answer: (a) 13.5 kg/s (b) 441.7 kg/s (c) 17.5%

4. MSQ
An open cycle gas turbine power plant has a maximum pressure ratio 8 and
temperature of 1080 K. The pressure and temperature of air at the entry of the
compressor are 1 bar and 300 K. A regenerative heat exchanger is used to increase
the temperature of air before entering into the combustion chamber. The
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.6. If the air flow through the compressor is
500 kg/min, the calorific value of the fuel used in 42000 kJ/kg. Take isentropic
efficiency of compressor and turbine is 80% each and γ = 1.4, c% = 1.00 kJ/kg°C.
Neglect the pressure losses in the system.
A. The Air-Fuel ratio used is 98.0 ∶ 1 to 98.4 ∶ 1.
B. Fuel saved per hour is 37.76 kg/hr to 39.76 kg/hr.
C. Capacity of the plant is 710.4 kW to 711.4 kW.
D. Capacity of the plant is 733.0 kW to 734.0 kW.
Answer: A, B & D
5. MSQ
A simple gas turbine plant operating on Brayton cycle. The maximum and minimum
temperatures are 1000 K and 288 K respectively. The pressure ratio is 6. The
isentropic efficiencies of the compressor and turbine are 85% and 90% respectively. If
the unit consumes 2 tonnes of oil per hour of C. V. 46500 kJ/kg. The mechanical
efficiency is 90% and the generation efficiency is 85%. Take γ = 1.4, c% = 1.005 kJ/
kg°C.
A. The cycle efficiency is 27.3% to 28.1%.
B. The cycle efficiency is 19.1% to 19.4%.
C. The output of the unit is 5.02 MW to 5.10 MW.
D. The output of the unit is 5.42 MW to 5.52 MW.
Answer: A, D
APPLICATIONS OF
19/05/2022
1. MCQ (E)
A Brayton cycle regeneration with pressure ratio 6 works between temperature limit
of 300 K and 1200 K. If effectiveness of the regeneration is 75 percent, then the
efficiency of the cycle (in %) is (Take c% = 1.005 kJ/kgK)
A. 46.1 B. 52.3
C. 50.4 D. 42.8

2. MCQ (E)
In a gas turbine power plant pressure ratio is 7. Temperature at the end of
compression is 327°C and temperature before beginning of expansion process is
1027°C. If the plant employs a regenerator with 100% effectiveness, then the heat
supplied in the combustion chamber (Take cF = 1 kJ/kg − K) is (in kJ/kg)
A. 554.43 B. 185.6
C. 445.6 D. 326.9

3. MCQ (M)
A closed cycle regenerative gas turbine operating with air has P2 = 1.4 bar, T2 =
310 K and rF = 5, maximum temperature is 1050 K. The effectiveness of regenerator
is 100% and net output is 3 MW, then the thermal efficiency is (in %)
A. 46.25 B. 50.62
C. 53.22 D. 48.65

4. NAT (M)
A gas turbine set takes in air at 27°C and 1 atm. The pressure ratio is 4 and the
maximum temperature is 560°C. The compressor and turbine efficiencies are 0.83 and
0.85 respectively. The overall efficiency (in %) _________ if the regenerator
effectiveness is 0.75. Take γ = 1.4 for air.

5. NAT (BRAIN TEASER)
The following data is for a Brayton cycle working on air.
• Temperature before compression = 20°C.
• Temperature before expansion = 1000°C.
• Pressure ratio = 7
• Regenerator effectiveness = 100%
If the combustion process has a linear relation in T − S diagram, then the mean
temperature of heat addition is______ °C

ANWER KEYS (DPP-12 | 19/05/2022)
1. B 5. 722 to 732
2. A
3. C
4. 20 to 22
APPLICATIONS OF
18/05/2022
1. NAT
In a Brayton cycle with air (γ = 1.4) as working fluid, TH+I = 300 K and TH)J =
1000 K. The pressure ratio corresponding to maximum net work per cycle is ________
2. NAT
Air enters at 1 bar and 15°C into the compressor of a constant pressure open cycle gas
turbine and leaves the compressor at 6 bar. The temperature of the gases entering the
turbine is 700°C, pressure loss in the combustion chamber is 0.1 bar. The gas turbine
has ηG = 80% and η* = 80% and ηG!HKL$*+!I = 90%.
Take γ = 1.4 and cF = 1 kJ/kgK for air. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is ___ (up
to three decimal places)

Air enters a gas turbine at 1.0135 MPa, 1000 K at the rate of 1 kg/s and exits at 101.35
kPa and 600 K. Neglect the changes in potential energy and kinetic energy and assume
that air is an ideal gas with R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K, c% = 1.005 kJ/kg-K.
3. MCQ
The net power output of the gas turbine is
A. 102 kW B. 200 kW
C. 301 kW D. 402 kW
4. MCQ
&'%
0$ F$ &
If for the isentropic process = and γ = 1.4, the isentropic efficiency of the
0% F%
turbine is
A. 63% B. 73%
C. 83% D. 93%
[GATE-2008-XE]
ANWER KEYS (DPP-11 | 18/05/2022)
1. 8.20 to 8.25
2. 0.168 to 0.175
3. D
4. C
BRAYTON CYCLE
ASSIGNMENT – 2
17/05/2022
1. NAT
A gas turbine works between temperature limits of 1600 K and 300 K, the pressure
ratio corresponding to maximum work output of the turbine is ______.

2. NAT
In an ideal Brayton cycle, air is compressed from 1 bar to a pressure ratio of 6. If the
ratio of lower to upper temperature is 0.3, then the work ratio is_____.

3. NAT
Consider a gas turbine power plant operates on a simple Brayton cycle between the
pressure limits of 100 kPa and 700 kPa. Air enters the compressor at 30°C with a rate
of 12.6 kg/s and leaves at 260°C. Now, this air and diesel fuel with an air-fuel-ratio of
60 are burned in the combustion chamber with a combustion efficiency of 97%. Diesel
has the heating value of 42000 kJ/kg combustion gases leaves the combustion
chamber and enter the turbine whose isentropic efficiency is 85%. Treat the
combustion gases as air with cF = 1.093 kJ/kg − K; c# = 0.806 kJ/kg − K and γ =
1.357, then the back work ratio is _____.

4. MCQ
A gas turbine plant operates on an air standard Brayton cycle between the
temperature limits of 27°C and 800°C, Take γ = 1.4. If ηM),I!* = ηN,)O*!I, then
pressure ratio and also pressure ratio for maximum work done in Brayton cycle are
respectively.
A. 86.08; 9.3 B. 66.72; 8.129
C. 74.29; 9.3 D. 86.08; 11.42

5. MCQ
Air enters the compressor of an air standard Brayton cycle at 100 kPa, 300 K with a
volumetric flow ratio is 5 m" /s. The pressure ratio is 10. The turbine inlet temperature
is 1400 K then the back work ratio (in %) is
A. 34.2 B. 41.6
C. 28.8 D. 30.6

6. MCQ
The ratio of net work to turbine work of an ideal gas turbine is 0.563. The temperature
of air at the inlet to the compressor is 300 K. Assume mass flow rate is 10 kg/s. If
thermal efficiency of the gas turbine is 35%, then the temperature drop across the
turbine is (in °C). Take cF = 1 kJ/kgK; γ = 1.4
A. 326.24 B. 369.65
C. 421.29 D. 484.21

7. MCQ
A Brayton cycle operates between pressure limits of 1.05 bar and 4.2 bar and
temperature limits of 537°C and 37°C. Assume that c% = 1.09 kJ/kgK and c# =
0.8 kJ/kgK, then the net work output (in kJ/kg).
A. 148.2 B. 164.8
C. 121.6 D. 152.6

8. MCQ
A large stationary Brayton cycle gas-turbine power plant delivers a power output of
100 MW to an electric generator. The minimum temperature in the cycle is 300 K,
and the maximum temperature is 1600 K. The minimum pressure in the cycle is
100 kPa, and the compressor pressure ratio is 14 to 1. Then the fraction of the turbine
output is required to drive the compressor and the thermal efficiency of the cycle are
respectively. Take c% = 1.004 kJ/kg-K
A. 0.4; 0.58 B. 0.4; 0.53
C. 0.28; 0.53 D. 0.35; 0.4

9. MCQ
In an ideal Brayton cycle, air from the atmosphere at 1 atm, 300 K is compressed to
6 atm and the maximum cycle temperature is limited to 1100 K. If the heat supply is
100 MW, then the mass flow rate of air is (in kg/s)
A. 161 B. 154
C. 158 D. 169

10. NAT
A Brayton cycle based gas-turbine power plant delivers a power to an electric
generator. The minimum temperature in the cycle is 300 K and the maximum
temperature is 1600 K. The minimum pressure in the cycle is 100 kPa, and the
compressor pressure ratio is 14. The fraction of the turbine output required to drive
the compressor is _____

NAT
The pressure ratio across a gas turbine (for air, specific heat at constant pressure, c% =
1040 J/kg-K and ratio of specific heats, γ =1.4 is 10. If the inlet temperature to the
turbine is 1200 K and the isentropic efficiency is 0.9, the gas temperature at turbine
exit is ______K
[GATE-2017-ME]
ANWER KEYS (ASSIGNMENT-2 |17/05/2022)
1. 18.5 to 19.1 5. B 9.D
2. 0.48 to 0.52 6. B 10. 0.38 to 0.42
3. 0.541 to 0.612
7. C
4. A
8. B
APPLICATIONS OF
12/05/2022
1. MCQ (E)
Two closed cycle gas turbine engines, A and B, operate on air standard Brayton cycle
with efficiencies of ηP and ηN , respectively. If they operate between the same
maximum and minimum temperatures, but with different pressure ratios of
r%P and r%N , r%P > r%N , Then,
A. ηP = ηN
B. ηP > ηN
C. ηP < ηN
D. cannot be determined as the efficiencies are maximum only at the optimal r%
values.

2. MCQ (E)
The thermal efficiency of an air standard Brayton cycle 0.35. The pressure ratio across
the turbine is
A. 4.516 B. 5.232
C. 7.535 D. 8.234

3. MCQ (E)
A gas turbine power plant operates with air (γ = 1.4) between 1 bar and 20 bar. The
maximum thermal efficiency (in %) for the corresponding air-standard cycle is
A. 30 B. 36.7
C. 48.2 D. 57.5

ANWER KEYS (DPP-10 | 12/05/2022)
1. B 2. A 3. D
APPLICATIONS OF
11/05/2022
1. MCQ (E)
Consider the following statements related to air – standard Otto, Diesel, and Brayton
cycles:
P. Brayton cycle has at least one isentropic and one isobaric process.
Q. Otto cycle has at least one isentropic and one isochoric process.
R. Diesel cycle has a least one isentropic and one isothermal process.
S. At least one of the cycles has an isothermal process
For which of the following options, BOTH the statements are consistent with the
operation of the above cycles:
A. P and R B. P and Q
C. R and S D. P and S
2. MCQ (E)
The thermodynamic cycle shown in figure (T-S diagram) indicates
A. Reversed Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Brayton cycle
C. Vapor compression cycle
D. Vapor absorption cycle
[GATE-2015-ME]
3. MCQ (M)
In a Brayton cycle, if ∆T. is the temperature change during the expansion process, and
∆TG is the change in temperature during the compression process, then
A. ∆T. − ∆TG > 0
B. ∆T. − ∆TG < 0
C. ∆T. − ∆TG = 0
D. ∆T. − ∆TG solely depends on the compression ratio.
4. NAT (M)
The minimum and maximum temperatures of an air standard Brayton cycle are 300 K
and 1100 K, respectively. The pressure ratio of this cycle is 6. The ratio of specific
heats is 1.4 and the specific heats are constant. For this cycle, the ratio of network
output to the turbine work (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______.
5. CONVENTIONAL
A Brayton cycle (air standard) has a pressure ratio of 4 and inlet conditions of one
standard atmospheric pressure and 27°C. Find the air flow rate required for 100 kW
power output if the maximum temperature in the cycle is 1000°C. Assume γ = 1.4 and
c% = 1.0 kJ/kg–K._______
[GATE-2001-ME]
Answer: 0.3696 kg/s

6. CONVENTIONAL
An isentropic air turbine is used to supply 0.1 kg/s of air at 0.1 MN/m' and at 285 K to
a cabin. The pressure at inlet to the turbine is 0.4 MN/m' . Determine the temperature
at turbine inlet and the power developed by the turbine. Assume c% =1.0 kJ/kg
K______.
[GATE-1999-ME]
Answer: 423.508 K & 13.85 kW

7. CONVENTIONAL
A gas turbine is supplied with gas at 5 bar and 1000 K and expands it adiabatically to 1
bar. The mean specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume are 1.0425
kJ/kg-K and 0.7662 kJ/kg-K respectively.
A.Draw the temperature-entropy diagram to represent the processes of the simple gas
turbine system.
B.Calculate the power developed in kW per kg of gas per second and the exhaust gas
temperature.
[GATE-1992-ME]
Answer: 362 kW & 652.757 K

ANWER KEYS (DPP-9 | 11/05/2022)
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. 0.52 to 0.57
APPLICATIONS OF
09/05/2022
1. CONVENTIONAL
In a dual cycle, two-thirds of the total energy added occurs at constant volume. If the
compression ratio is 15, and the maximum pressure in the cycle is 53 bar, compute
Thermal efficiency (in percentage). Assume the minimum temperature and pressure in
the cycle to be 27°C and 1 bar.
Answer : 66.65%
2. CONVENTIONAL
A diesel engine works between the temperature limits of 25°C and 1250°C. The
energy-addition during combustion is 550 kJ.kg Q2 . A dual combustion cycle operates
between the same temperature limits and has the same total energy addition as for
diesel cycle except that this energy is equally divided between the constant volume
and constant pressure processes. Find the difference of efficiencies (in percentage) of
the two cycles.
Answer : 1.59%
APPLICATIONS OF
06/05/2022
1. CONVENTIONAL
An engine operates an air standard Diesel cycle. The pressure and temperatures at the
beginning of compression are 100 kPa and 27°C. The compression ratio is 18. The heat
added per kg of air is 1850 kJ. Determine maximum pressure, maximum temperature,
thermal efficiency, network done and mean effective pressure of the cycle. Assume
γ = 1.4 and c% = 1.005 kJ/kg. K.
Answer: 𝐢 𝐏𝐦𝐚𝐱 = 𝟓𝟕. 𝟐 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝐢𝐢 𝐏𝐦𝐚𝐱 = 𝟐𝟕𝟗𝟒 𝐊, 𝐢𝐢𝐢 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟓𝟗. 𝟐%

𝐢𝐯 𝐰𝐧𝐞𝐭 = 𝟏𝟎𝟗𝟓 𝐤J/𝐤𝐠, 𝐯 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟒𝟔 𝐛𝐚𝐫
2. CONVENTIONAL
In an air-standard Diesel engine cycle with a compression ratio of 14, the condition of
air at the start of the compression stroke are 1 bar and 300 K. After addition of heat at
constant pressure, the temperature rises to 2775 K. Determine the thermal efficiency
of the cycle, net work done per kg of air and the mean effective pressure.
Answer: 𝐢 𝛈𝐝 = 𝟓𝟑. 𝟔𝟓%, 𝐢𝐢 𝐰𝐧𝐞𝐭 = 𝟏𝟎𝟑𝟏. 𝟑𝟖 𝐤J/𝐤𝐠,

𝐢𝐢𝐢 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟗 𝐛𝐚𝐫,
3. CONVENTIONAL
Consider an ideal Diesel cycle. At the beginning of the compression process, the
cylinder volume is 1500 cm" and at the end of the heat addition process, it is
150 cm" . The compression ratio is 15. Air is at 101 kPa and 20°C at the beginning of
the compression process. Calculate
(a) Pressure at the beginning of heat rejection process,
(b) Net work per cycle in kJ
(c) The mean effective pressure of the cycle.
Answer: 𝐚 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟏. 𝟕𝟖 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝐛 𝐖𝐧𝐞𝐭 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟖 𝐤J, 𝐜 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟐. 𝟕 𝐛𝐚𝐫

APPLICATIONS OF
05/05/2022
1. MCQ (E)
Thermal efficiency of a Diesel cycle can be increased by
A. Increasing both compression ratio and cut-off ratio
B. decreasing both compression ratio and cut-off ratio
C. decreasing compression ratio and increasing cut-off ratio
D. Increasing compression ratio and decreasing cut-off ratio
2. MCQ (E)
A Diesel engine has a compression ratio of 16 and cut-off takes place at 8% of stroke.
Assume an air-standard cycle, the cut-off ratio is
A. 1.20 B. 2.20
C. 3.20 D. 4.20
3. NAT (E)
An engine working on the air standard Diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 18. The
cycle has a cut-off ratio of 1.7. If the ratio of specific heats of air is 1.4, then the
thermal efficiency (in %) of the cycle (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is _______.
4. NAT (E)
An air-standard diesel engine has a compression ratio of 18 (the ratio of the volume at
the beginning of the compression process to that at the end of the compression
process), and a cut-off ratio of 2 (the ratio of the volume at the end of the heat
addition process to that at the beginning of the heat addition process). The thermal
efficiency (in %) of the engine is ___________.
5. CONVENTIONAL
An engine working on ideal diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 15 ∶ 1. The
temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is 27°C and the air-fuel
ratio used is 35 ∶ 1. Find the air-standard efficiency of the cycle. The calorific value of
the fuel is 42000 kJ/kg.
[CSE-2019 : 10 Marks]
Answer : 58.67%
ANWER KEYS (DPP-6 | 05/05/2022)
1. D
2. B
3. 63.5 to 65.5
4. 62 to 64
OTTO CYCLE
ASSIGNMENT – 1
04/05/2022
1. CONVENTIONAL
The pressure and temperature of air at the beginning of compression in an Otto cycle
is 103 kPa and 27°C, respectively. The heat added per kg of air is 1850 kJ. The
compression ratio is 8 . Determine maximum temperature, maximum pressure,
thermal efficiency.
Answer: 𝐓𝐦𝐚𝐱 = 𝟑𝟐𝟔𝟓. 𝟖 𝐊, 𝐏𝐦𝐚𝐱 = 𝟖𝟗. 𝟕 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟓𝟔. 𝟒%

2. CONVENTIONAL
In an air-standard Otto cycle the pressure ratio during the compression is 15. The
temperature of air at the beginning of compression is 37°C and maximum
temperature attained in the cycle is 1950°C. Determine
(a) Compression ratio,
(b) Thermal efficiency of the cycle,
(c) Work done.
Take γ = 1.4, c# = 0.717 kJ/kg. K
Answer: (a) 𝐫 = 𝟔. 𝟗𝟏𝟗 (b) 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟓𝟑. 𝟖%, (c)𝐰 = 𝟓𝟗𝟖. 𝟑 𝐤J/𝐤𝐠
3. CONVENTIONAL
In an SI engine working on the ideal Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 5.5. The
pressure and temperature at the beginning of compression are 1 bar and 27°C,
respectively. The peak pressure is 30 bar. Determine the pressure, temperature at the
salient points, the air standard efficiency, and mean effective pressure.
Assume ratio of specific heat to be 1.4 for air.
Answer: (i) 𝐓𝟐 = 𝟓𝟗𝟑. 𝟐𝟖 𝐊, 𝐏𝟐 = 𝟏𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟕 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝐏𝟑 = 𝟑𝟎 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝐓𝟑 = 𝟏𝟔𝟑𝟔. 𝟑𝟑 𝐊,

𝐓𝟒 = 𝟖𝟐𝟕. 𝟒𝟐 𝐊, 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟐. 𝟕𝟓𝟖 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟒𝟗. 𝟒% (iii) 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟓. 𝟐𝟒 𝐛𝐚𝐫
4. CONVENTIONAL
An engine working an Otto cycle has a total volume of 0.45 m" , pressure 1 bar and
temperature 27°C at the beginning of the compression stroke. At the end of the
compression stroke, the pressure is 11 bar and 210 kJ of heat is added at constant
volume. Calculate
(a) the pressure, temperature and volume at the salient points in the cycle.
(b) Percentage clearance volume,
(c) net work done per cycle.
(d) the ideal power developed by the engine if the number of working cycles per
minute is 210
Assume c% = 1.005 kJ/kg. K and c# = 0.717 kJ/kg. K
Answer: (a) 𝐓𝟐 = 𝟓𝟗𝟓. 𝟔𝟖 𝐊, 𝐕𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟏 𝐦𝟑 , 𝐓𝟑 = 𝟏𝟏𝟓𝟗 𝐊, 𝐕𝟑 = 𝐕𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟏 𝐦𝟑 ,

𝐏𝟑 = 𝟐𝟏. 𝟒 𝐛𝐚𝐫, 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟓𝟖𝟒 𝐊, 𝐕𝟒 = 𝐕𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟓 𝐦𝟑 , (b) 𝐜 = 𝟐. 𝟏𝟗% (c) 𝟏𝟎𝟒. 𝟐 𝐤J
(d) 𝐏 = 𝟑𝟔𝟒. 𝟔𝟖 𝐤𝐖
5. CONVENTIONAL
The compression ratio of an air standard Otto cycle is 8. At the beginning of
compression process the pressure is 1 bar and temperature 300 K. The heat transfer
to the air per cycle is 1900 kJ/kg of air. Calculate thermal efficiency and mean
effective pressure.
[IFS-2013: 5 Marks]
Answer: 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟓𝟔. 𝟒𝟕%, 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟏𝟒. 𝟐𝟒 𝐛𝐚𝐫

6. CONVENTIONAL
A petrol engine having stroke volume of 0.0012 m" and compression ratio of 5.5
compresses the mixture to 8.5 bar and 350°C. Ignition is started so that the pressure
rises along a straight line during explosion and attains its higher value of 28 bar after
the piston has travelled 1/30 of working stroke. The air-fuel ratio is 16: 1. Calorific
value of the fuel is 44 MJ/kg and c% = 0.962 kJ/kg-K. Find the heat loss per kg of
charge during explosion.
[IFS - 2016 : 20 Marks]
Answer: 𝐐𝐥𝐨𝐬𝐭 = 𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟖. 𝟓𝟓 𝐤J/𝐤𝐠 of charge

APPLICATIONS OF
03/05/2022
1. NAT (E)
The figure below shows a thermodynamic cycle undergone by a certain system. The
mean effective pressure in Pa is ______
[GATE-ME-93]
2. MCQ (E)
In a spark ignition engine working on the ideal Otto cycle, the compression ratio is 5.5.
The work output per cycle (i.e., area of the P-V diagram) is equal to
23.625×10/ ×VG J, where VG is the clearance volume in m" . The indicated mean
effective pressure is
A. 4.295 bar B. 5.250 bar
C. 86.870 bar D. 106.300 bar
[GATE-ME-01]
3. CONVENTIONAL
A four-stroke, four-cylinder petrol engine of 250 mm bore and 1500 mm stroke works
on Otto cycle. The clearance volume is 0.01052 m" . The initial pressure and
temperature are 1 bar and 47°C. If the maximum pressure is limited to 25 bar, find
the following:
(a) The air standard efficiency of the cycle.
(b) The mean effective pressure.
Answer: 𝛈𝐭𝐡 = 𝟓𝟔. 𝟓%, 𝐏𝐦 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟒𝟔 𝐛𝐚𝐫

4. CONVENTIONAL
An engine operating on the air standard Otto cycle. The conditions at the start of the
compression are 27°C and 100 kPa. The heat added is 1840 kJ/kg. The compression
ratio is 8. Determine the temperature and pressure at the end of expansion process
the mean effective pressure.
Answer : 𝐓𝟒 = 𝟏𝟒𝟏𝟔. 𝟐 𝐊 & 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟒𝟕𝟐. 𝟏 𝐤𝐏𝐚 , 𝐏𝐦= 1379.9 kPa

ANWER KEYS (DPP-5 | 03/05/2022)
1. 1500
2. B
APPLICATIONS OF
02/05/2022
1. CONVENTIONAL
In an air standard Otto cycle the maximum and minimum temperatures are 1400°C
and 15°C. The heat supplied per kg of air is 800 kJ. Calculate the compression ratio
and cycle efficiency. Also calculate the maximum to minimum pressure ratio in the
cycle. [ESE-2014 : 10 M]
Ans : 5.244 , 48.46 % & 30.46

2. CONVENTIONAL
The minimum pressure and temperature in an Otto cycle are 100 kPa and 27°C. The
amount of heat added to the cycle is 1500 kJ/kg. Determine the pressures and
temperatures at all points of the air standard Otto Cycle. Also calculate the specific
work and the thermal efficiency of the cycle for a compression ratio of 8:1. [Take c#
G(
(air) as 0.72 kJ/kg-K and = 1.4].
G) )+,
[GATE-ME-98]
Answer : 𝐓𝟐 = 𝟔𝟖𝟗. 𝟐𝟏𝟗 𝐊, 𝐓𝟑 = 𝟐𝟕𝟕𝟐. 𝟓𝟓𝟐 𝐊 & 𝐓𝟒 = 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟔. 𝟖𝟐𝟑𝐊

𝐏𝟐 = 𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟕. 𝟗𝟏𝟕 𝐤𝐏𝐚, 𝐏𝟑 = 𝟕𝟑𝟗𝟑. 𝟒𝟕𝟏 𝐤𝐏𝐚 & 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟒𝟎𝟐. 𝟐𝟕𝟒 𝐤𝐏𝐚
847.087 kJ/kg & 0.5647
3. CONVENTIONAL
A heat engine working on ideal Otto cycle has a compression ratio 6. The temperature
and pressure at the start of the compression stroke are 27°C and 1 bar respectively.
Heat addition in combustion stroke is 1170 kJ/kg. Find out the following parameters:
(i) Maximum temperature of the cycle (ii) Maximum pressure of the cycle
(iii) Work output per kg of air, (iv) Air standard efficiency of the cycle
Assume the following values for air: C# = 0.717 kJ/kg − K and γ = 1.4
[CSE-2018 : 20 Marks]
Answer : (i) 2246.1 K, (ii) 44.922 bar (iii) Work output and (iv) 𝟓𝟗𝟖. 𝟔𝟏𝟖 𝐤𝐉/𝐤𝐠
APPLICATIONS OF
29/04/2022
1. MCQ (E)
An ideal air standard Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8.5. If the ratio of the
specific heats of air (γ) is 1.4, what is the thermal efficiency (in percentage) of the Otto
cycle?
A. 57.5 B. 45.7
C. 52.5 D. 95
[GATE-ME-02]
2. MCQ (E)
The minimum and maximum volumes in an air standard Otto cycle are 100 and
800 cm" . Its thermal efficiency (%) is
A. 56.47 B. 94.55
C. 54.08 D. 87.50
3. NAT (M)
An engine working on air standard Otto cycle is supplied with air at 0.1 MPa and 35°C.
The compression ratio is 8. The heat supplied is 500 kJ/kg.
Property data for air:
c% = 1.005 kJ/kg-K, c# = 0.718 kJ/kg-K
R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K.
The maximum temperature (in K) of the cycle is _______ (correct to one decimal
place).
[GATE ME-18]
4. MCQ (E)
An air standard Otto cycle has compression ratio of 4. The compression ratio of this
cycle is changed to 6. If the ratio of specific heats is 1.4, the percentage increase in its
thermal efficiency will be
A. 20.2 B. 27.2
C. 42.6 D. 51.2
COMMON DATA QUESTIONS:
At the beginning of compression process of an air-standard Otto cycle, pressure,
temperature, and volume are 1 bar, 290 K, and 400 cm" , respectively. The
compression ratio is 8. The maximum temperature attained in the cycle is 2200 K.
5. MCQ (E)
The heat transferred (kJ) during the heat addition process is approximately
A. 531 B. 53.1
C. 5.31 D. 0.531
6. MCQ (E)
The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
A. 41.5% B. 46.5%
C. 51.5% D. 56.5%
7. CONVENTIONAL
The minimum pressure and temperature in an Otto cycle are 100 kPa and 27°C. The
amount of heat added to the cycle is 1500 kJ/kg. Determine the pressures and
temperatures at all points of the air standard Otto Cycle. Also calculate the specific
work and the thermal efficiency of the cycle for a compression ratio of 8:1. [Take c#
G(
(air) as 0.72 kJ/kg-K and = 1.4].
G) )+,
[GATE-ME-98]
Answer : 𝐓𝟐 = 𝟔𝟖𝟗. 𝟐𝟏𝟗 𝐊, 𝐓𝟑 = 𝟐𝟕𝟕𝟐. 𝟓𝟓𝟐 𝐊 & 𝐓𝟒 = 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟔. 𝟖𝟐𝟑𝐊

𝐏𝟐 = 𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟕. 𝟗𝟏𝟕 𝐤𝐏𝐚, 𝐏𝟑 = 𝟕𝟑𝟗𝟑. 𝟒𝟕𝟏 𝐤𝐏𝐚 & 𝐏𝟒 = 𝟒𝟎𝟐. 𝟐𝟕𝟒 𝐤𝐏𝐚
847.087 kJ/kg & 0.5647
ANWER KEYS (DPP-3 | 29/04/2022)
1. A 5. D
2. A 6. D
3. 1402 to 1406
4. A
APPLICATIONS OF
28/04/2022
1. MCQ (E)
Which of the following is NOT a necessary assumption for the air standard Otto cycle
A. All processes are internally reversible.
B. Intake and exhaust processes are constant volume heat rejection processes.
C. The combustion processes is constant volume heat addition process.
D. The working fluid is an ideal gas with constant specific heats.
[GATE-2008-ME]
2. MCQ (M)
An air standard Otto cycle has the following shape on a thermodynamic property
plane.
The x and y coordinates, respectively, are

A. v and p B. s and v
C. v and s D. s and p
3. NAT (M)
An SI engine running on an air standard Otto cycle has a swept volume 250 cm" and a
clearance volume 50 cm" . The pressure and temperature at the beginning of the
compression process are 100 kPa and 300 K, respectively. Maximum temperature of
the cycle is 1843 K. The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and constant
volume is 1.4. The maximum pressure in the cycle is _____ kPa (round off to the
nearest integer)
4. MCQ (E)
The crank radius of a single cylinder I C Engine is 60 mm and the diameter of the
cylinder is 80 mm. The swept volume of the cylinder in cm" is
A. 48 B. 96
C. 302 D. 603
[GATE-2011-ME]
ANWER KEYS (DPP-2 | 28/04/2022)
1. B
2. C
3. 3684 to 3688
4. 603
APPLICATIONS OF
27/04/2022
1. MCQ (E)
Which of the following is NOT a correct assumption for the Cold air-standard analysis
A. All processes are internally reversible.
B. There are no Intake and exhaust processes as in actual engine.
C. The combustion processes is always constant volume heat addition process.
D. The working fluid, air is an ideal gas with constant specific heats.
2. MSQ (E)
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding reciprocating internal combustion engines
A. Reciprocating internal combustion engines are primarily external combustion
engines.
B. Minimum volume contained within the cylinder is known as clearance volume.
C. The reciprocating motion of piston is converted into rotary motion by a crank
mechanism.
D. Inner diameter of the cylinder is known as stroke .
3. MCQ (E)
Choose the correct statement regarding internal combustion engines
A. Internal combustion engines undergoes both mechanical cycle & thermodynamic
cycle.
B. Internal combustion engines neither undergoes mechanical cycle nor
thermodynamic cycle.
C. Internal combustion engines undergoes mechanical cycle but not thermodynamic
cycle.
D. Internal combustion engines undergoes thermodynamic cycle but not mechanical
cycle.
2. MSQ (E)
For the reciprocating internal combustion engines bore is 0.25 m while stroke length is
0.675 m. If the minimum volume of the cylinder is 10000 cm3 then the most
appropriate statement is
A. Clearance ratio is 0.3 & Compression ratio is 3.3.
B. Clearance ratio is 3.3 & Compression ratio is 4.3.
C. Clearance ratio is 0.3 & Compression ratio is 4.3.
D. None of the above
ANWER KEYS (DPP-1 | 27/04/2022)
1. C
2. B & C
3. C
4. C

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