Greetings, Awais Khan. Thank you for bringing up that question.

Made me exercise my grey matter a

bit.

Here in John 10:34 (I think that is the verse you were referring to? You did not mention the verse
reference…), Jesus was quoting from Psalm 82 which refers to the judges of Israel as “gods”. Not that
they were really Gods (as in deity), since there is only ONE God (Deuternomy 6:4) . In this context,
the judges were called “gods” because they hold a divinely appointed office and were given God-like
powers where they had power and authority over the Israelites as representatives of God, and they held
authority to pronounce judgement and determine the fate of the people. But they were clearly not
“gods” as we are told in Psalm 82 that they were unjust, showed partiality, walked in darkness, and
eventually died.

Now, let us go back to John 10. Jesus had just pronounced Himself one with the Father (John 10:30) and
the Jews wanted to stone Him because they thought Jesus was blaspheming when He claimed to be
equal with God (John 10:31~33). Jesus responded by quoting Psalm 82:6, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I
said, you are “gods”?’” Jesus was simply telling the Jews that if the Old Testament scriptures could give
some divine status to divinely appointed human judges, why should they find it incredible that He
should call Himself God whom the Father had sent into the world (John 10:34~36)? Thus, here, Jesus
was giving a defense for His own deity, and not saying the Jews were gods.

Incidentally, there are a few other places in scripture where the word “gods” was used to refer to
humans, which carries a different meaning:-

a) When the serpent lied to Eve in the Garden, he said “your eyes will be opened, and you will be
like God…. (Genesis 3:5). This was a half-truth and they did not become like God.

b) When God sent Moses to Pharaoh, He said, “See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh…”
(Exodus 7:1). This simply means that Moses, as the messenger of God , was speaking God’s
words and would therefore be God’s representative to Pharaoh.

c) Satan is also called a “god of this world” (2 Corinthians 4:4) but his power is only limited to what
God allows (Job 1:12). Satan is not a “god” but rather he is a fallen angel.

1 Corinthians 8:5~6 also tells us, “for even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as
indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”), yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from
whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all
things came and through whom we live.

Hope that helps.

Cheers.