156-215.80 Exam

156-215.
80 Exam
Exam 156-215.80
Check Point Certified Security

Title
Administrator R80 Exam
Version 9.0
Product
536 Q&A with explanations
Type
“Best Material, Great Results”. www.certkingdom.com 1 of 227

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?
A. VPN key
B. VPN community
C. VPN trust entities
D. VPN domain
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VPN key (to not be confused with pre-shared key that is used for authentication).
VPN trust entities, such as a Check Point Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). The ICA is part of the Check
Point suite used for creating SIC trusted connection between Security Gateways, authenticating
administrators and third party servers. The ICA provides certificates for internal Security Gateways and
remote access clients which negotiate the VPN link.
VPN Domain - A group of computers and networks connected to a VPN tunnel by one VPN gateway that
handles encryption and protects the VPN Domain members.
VPN Community - A named collection of VPN domains, each protected by a VPN gateway.
Reference:
http://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13868.htm
QUESTION 2
Two administrators Dave and Jon both manage R80 Management as administrators for ABC Corp. Jon logged
into the R80 Management and then shortly after Dave logged in to the same server. They are both in the
Security Policies view. From the screenshots below, why does Dave not have the rule no.6 in his
SmartConsole view even though Jon has it his in his SmartConsole view?

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A. Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has Published part of his changes.
B. Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has marked this rule for deletion.
C. Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has deleted it from his Rule Base.
D. Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has not yet Published his changes.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing
session starts. The changes that the administrator makes during the session are only available to that
administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited. To make changes
available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must
publish the session.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/
CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/162331
QUESTION 3
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and
remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has
an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series
appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central
management and firewall on each location?
A. On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.
B. On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.
C. The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.
D. On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for
SIC.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Gateways above R71 use AES128 for SIC. If one of the gateways is R71 or below, the gateways use 3DES.
Reference:
http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/
CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 4
Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
A. Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy.

B. By default all layers are shared with all policies.
C. If a connection is dropped in Network Layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.
D. If a connection is accepted in Network-layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?
A. Medium Path
B. Accelerated Path
C. High Priority Path
D. Slow Path
Answer: C
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SecureXL is an acceleration solution that maximizes performance of the Firewall and does not compromise
security. When SecureXL is enabled on a Security Gateway, some CPU intensive operations are processed by
virtualized software instead of the Firewall kernel. The Firewall can inspect and process connections more
efficiently and accelerate throughput and connection rates. These are the SecureXL traffic flows:
Slow path - Packets and connections that are inspected by the Firewall and are not processed by SecureXL.
Accelerated path - Packets and connections that are offloaded to SecureXL and are not processed by the
Firewall.
Medium path - Packets that require deeper inspection cannot use the accelerated path. It is not necessary for
the Firewall to inspect these packets, they can be offloaded and do not use the slow path. For example,
packets that are inspected by IPS cannot use the accelerated path and can be offloaded to the IPS PSL
(Passive Streaming Library). SecureXL processes these packets more quickly than packets on the slow path.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm
QUESTION 6
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?
A. Machine Hide NAT

B. Address Range Hide NAT
C. Network Hide NAT
D. Machine Static NAT
Answer: B,C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
1. Static NAT rules for Firewall, or node (computer or server) objects
2. Hide NAT rules for Firewall, or node objects
3. Static NAT rules for network or address range objects
4. Hide NAT rules for network or address range objects
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm
QUESTION 7
VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .
A. Passwords; tokens
B. Certificates; pre-shared secrets
C. Certificates; passwords
D. Tokens; pre-shared secrets
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Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
VPN gateways authenticate using Digital Certificates and Pre-shared secrets.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/85469.htm
QUESTION 8
In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:
A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
B. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins
D. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
IP spoofing replaces the untrusted source IP address with a fake, trusted one, to hijack connections to your
network. Attackers use IP spoofing to send malware and bots to your protected network, to execute DoS
attacks, or to gain unauthorized access.
Reference:
http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/
CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 9
The __________ is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.
A. User Directory
B. User server
C. UserCheck
D. User index
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DS_UserDirectorySWB.pdf

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 10
Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
A. Application Dictionary
B. AppWiki
C. Application Library
D. CPApp
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
AppWiki Application Classification Library
AppWiki enables application scanning and detection of more than 5,000 distinct applications and over 300,000
Web 2.0 widgets including instant messaging, social networking, video streaming, VoIP, games and more.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/
QUESTION 11
DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?
A. Standard Policies
B. Shared Policies
C. Inspection Policies
D. Unified Policies
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The Shared policies are installed with the Access Control Policy.

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Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
QUESTION 12
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same
appliance?
A. Bridge Mode
B. Remote
C. Standalone
D. Distributed
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Installing Standalone
Standalone Deployment - The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed on the
same computer or appliance.

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Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/
89230.htm#o98246
QUESTION 13
A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate
resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.
A. Clientless remote access

B. Clientless direct access
C. Client-based remote access
D. Direct access
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Clientless - Users connect through a web browser and use HTTPS connections. Clientless solutions usually
supply access to web-based corporate resources.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/92704
QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B. Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
C. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support
for new products.
D. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the
plug-in.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .
A. GaiaUI; command line interface

B. WebUI; Gaia Interface
C. Command line interface; WebUI
D. Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Configuring Gaia for the First Time
In This Section:
Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI
Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI
After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the
Check Point products on it.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568
QUESTION 16
Where can you trigger a failover of the cluster members?
1. Log in to Security Gateway CLI and run command clusterXL_admin down.
2. In SmartView Monitor right-click the Security Gateway member and select Cluster member stop.
3. Log into Security Gateway CLI and run command cphaprob down.
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
How to Initiate Failover

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Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm
QUESTION 17
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?
A. ifconfig
B. dhcp_cfg
C. sysconfig
D. cpconfig
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
Sysconfig Configuration Options
Refrence: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Splat_AdminGuide/51548.htm
NOTE:Question must be wrong because no answer is possible for GAIA system, this must be SPLAT version.
DHCP CLI configuration for GAIA reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/
CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73181.htm#o80096
QUESTION 18
Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?
A. To satellites through center only

B. To center only
C. To center and to other satellites through center
D. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
On the VPN Routing page, enable the VPN routing for satellites section, by selecting one of these options:
To center and to other Satellites through center; this allows connectivity between Gateways; for
example, if the spoke Gateways are DAIP Gateways, and the hub is a Gateway with a static IP address

156-215.80 Exam
To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets; this allows
connectivity between the Gateways, as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the
hub to the Internet.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk31021
QUESTION 19
Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack
patterns from all network devices?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartEvent
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SmartEvent correlates logs from all Check Point enforcement points, including end-points, to identify
suspicious activity from the clutter. Rapid data analysis and custom event logs immediately alert administrators
to anomalous behavior such as someone attempting to use the same credential in multiple geographies
simultaneously.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/smartevent/
QUESTION 20
Assuming you have a Distributed Deployment, what will be the effect of running the following command on the
Security Management Server?
A. Remove the installed Security Policy.

B. Remove the local ACL lists.
C. No effect.
D. Reset SIC on all gateways.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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Explanation
Explanation:
This command uninstall actual security policy (already installed)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6751.htm
QUESTION 21
An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both
offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server.
While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator found that the check
box to enable pre-shared secret is shared and cannot be enabled. Why does it not allow him to specify the
pre-shared secret?
A. IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

B. Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security
Gateway.
C. Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway
managed by the same SMS.
D. The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
You are the senior Firewall administrator for ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on
Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house overview of the new
features of Check Point R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.
How will you describe the new â€œPublishâ€ button in R80 Management Console?
A. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes
a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.
B. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and

156-215.80 Exam
publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80
C. The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to
all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.
D. The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to
the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy,
you must publish the session. When you publish a session, a new database version is created.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following ClusterXL modes uses a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address.
A. High Availability
B. Load Sharing Multicast
C. Load Sharing Pivot
D. Master/Backup
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation :
ClusterXL uses the Multicast mechanism to associate the virtual cluster IP addresses with all cluster members.
By binding these IP addresses to a Multicast MAC address, it ensures that all packets sent to the cluster,
acting as a gateway, will reach all members in the cluster.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm
QUESTION 24
With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.
A. NT domain
B. SMTP
C. LDAP
D. SecurID
Answer: C
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?
A. Organizational Unit
B. Country
C. Common Name
D. User container
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Distinguished Name Components
CN=common name, OU=organizational unit, O=organization, L=locality, ST=state or province, C=country
name
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/71950
QUESTION 26
What are the three authentication methods for SIC?
A. Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels
B. Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
C. Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
D. Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Secure Internal Communication (SIC)
Secure Internal Communication (SIC) lets Check Point platforms and products authenticate with each other.
The SIC procedure creates a trusted status between gateways, management servers and other Check Point
components. SIC is required to install polices on gateways and to send logs between gateways and
management servers.
These security measures make sure of the safety of SIC:
Certificates for authentication
Standards-based SSL for the creation of the secure channel
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3DES for encryption

QUESTION 27
You have enabled â€œExtended Logâ€ as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any
data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?
A. Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security
Management Server properties and install database.
B. Content Awareness is not enabled.
C. Identity Awareness is not enabled.
D. Log Trimming is enabled.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The most likely reason for the logs data to stop is the low disk space on the logging device, which can be the
Management Server or the Gateway Server.
QUESTION 28
What is the order of NAT priorities?
A. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
C. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
D. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
1. Static NAT
2. IP Pool NAT
3. Hide NAT
Since Static NAT has all of the advantages of IP Pool NAT and more, it has a higher priority than the other
NAT methods.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm#o6919
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active
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Directory users and computers?
A. UserCheck
B. Active Directory Query
C. Account Unit Query
D. User Directory Query
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation :
AD Query extracts user and computer identity information from the Active Directory Security Event Logs. The
system generates a Security Event log entry when a user or computer accesses a network resource. For
example, this occurs when a user logs in, unlocks a screen, or accesses a network drive.
Reference : https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm
QUESTION 30
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server
Operating System. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI. Which command should he use in CLI?
A. remove database lock

B. The database feature has one command: lock database override.
C. override database lock
D. The database feature has two commands: lock database override and unlock database. Both
will work.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Use the database feature to obtain the configuration lock. The database feature has two commands:
lock database [override].
unlock database
The commands do the same thing: obtain the configuration lock from another administrator.

156-215.80 Exam
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091
QUESTION 31
Examine the following Rule Base.
What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?
A. Rule 7 was created by the 'admin' administrator in the current session

B. 8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation
C. Te rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the 'admin' administrator
D. Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explantation:
On top of the print screen there is a number "8" which consists for the number of changes made and not
saved.
Session Management Toolbar (top of SmartConsole)
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QUESTION 32
ALPHA Corp has a new administrator who logs into the Gaia Portal to make some changes. He realizes that
even though he has logged in as an administrator, he is unable to make any changes because all configuration
options are greyed out as shown in the screenshot image below. What is the likely cause for this?
A. The Gaia /bin/confd is locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.

B. The database is locked by another administrator SSH session.
C. The Network address of his computer is in the blocked hosts.
D. The IP address of his computer is not in the allowed hosts.
Answer: B

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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
There is a lock on top left side of the screen. B is the logical answer.
QUESTION 33
Administrator Kofi has just made some changes on his Management Server and then clicks on the Publish
button in SmartConsole but then gets the error message shown in the screenshot below.
Where can the administrator check for more information on these errors?
A. The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole

B. The Validations section in SmartConsole
C. The Objects section in SmartConsole
D. The Policies section in SmartConsole
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
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Validation Errors
The validations pane in SmartConsole shows configuration error messages. Examples of errors are object
names that are not unique, and the use of objects that are not valid in the Rule Base.
To publish, you must fix the errors.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/
CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
QUESTION 34
You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security
administration, which action would you choose?
A. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
C. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
D. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Harriet wants to protect sensitive information from intentional loss when users browse to a specific URL:
https://personal.mymail.com, which blade will she enable to achieve her goal?
A. DLP
B. SSL Inspection
C. Application Control
D. URL Filtering
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point revolutionizes DLP by combining technology and processes to move businesses from passive
detection to active Data Loss Prevention. Innovative MultiSpectâ„¢ data classification combines user, content
and process information to make accurate decisions, while UserCheckâ„¢ technology empowers users to
remediate incidents in real time. Check Pointâ€™s self-educating network-based DLP solution frees IT/security
personnel from incident handling and educates users on proper data handling policiesâ€”protecting sensitive
corporate information from both intentional and unintentional loss.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DLP-software-bladedatasheet.
pdf

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QUESTION 36
To optimize Rule Base efficiency the most hit rules should be where?
A. Removed from the Rule Base.

B. Towards the middle of the Rule Base.
C. Towards the top of the Rule Base.
D. Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
It is logical that if lesser rules are checked for the matched rule to be found the lesser CPU cycles the device is
using. Checkpoint match a session from the first rule on top till the last on the bottom.
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?
A. SmartConsole Wizard
B. Online Activation
C. License Activation Wizard
D. Offline Activation
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which policy type has its own Exceptions section?
A. Thread Prevention
B. Access Control
C. Threat Emulation
D. Desktop Security
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The Exceptions Groups pane lets you define exception groups. When necessary, you can create exception
groups to use in the Rule Base. An exception group contains one or more defined exceptions. This option
facilitates ease-of-use so you do not have to manually define exceptions in multiple rules for commonly
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required exceptions. You can choose to which rules you want to add exception groups. This means they can
be added to some rules and not to others, depending on necessity.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/
CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/82209.htm#o97030
QUESTION 39
By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?
A. 80
B. 4434
C. 443
D. 8080
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To configure Security Management Server on Gaia:
Open a browser to the WebUI: https://<Gaia management IP address>
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/132120
QUESTION 40
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other
Check Point architecture component?
A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B. SmartConsole
C. SecureClient
D. Security Gateway
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
There are different deployment scenarios for Check Point software products.
Standalone Deployment - The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed on
the same computer or appliance.
86429.htm
QUESTION 41
Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
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A. Read/Write, Read Only

B. Read/Write, Read Only, None
C. Read/Write, None
D. Read Only, None
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Roles
Role-based administration (RBA) lets you create administrative roles for users. With RBA, an administrator can
allow Gaia users to access specified features by including those features in a role and assigning that role to
users. Each role can include a combination of administrative (read/write) access to some features, monitoring
(read-only) access to other features, and no access to other features.
You can also specify which access mechanisms (WebUI or the CLI) are available to the user.
Note - When users log in to the WebUI, they see only those features that they have read-only or read/write
access to. If they have read-only access to a feature, they can see the settings pages, but cannot change the
settings.
Gaia includes these predefined roles:
adminRole - Gives the user read/write access to all features.
monitorRole- Gives the user read-only access to all features.
You cannot delete or change the predefined roles.
Note - Do not define a new user for external users. An external user is one that is defined on an authentication
server (such as RADIUS or TACACS) and not on the local Gaia system.
QUESTION 42
What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?
A. 3 month
B. 4 weeks
C. 12 months
D. 1 week
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference:
https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Topics/What-is-the-default-time-that-HIT-count-data-is-kept-in-
R80/td-p/33636

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 43
Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check
Point Appliance.
A. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs
B. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar
C. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar
D. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Gaia's Backup feature allows backing up the configuration of the Gaia OS and of the Security Management
server database, or restoring a previously saved configuration.
The configuration is saved to a .tgz file in the following directory:
action=portlets.SearchResultMainAction&eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk91400
QUESTION 44
With which command can you view the running configuration of Gaia Operating system.
A. show conf-active
B. show configuration active
C. show configuration
D. show running-configuration
Answer: C
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?
A. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used
only for OS level tasks.
B. Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring.
C. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt-cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.
D. All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked
for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators?
A. Publish or discard the session.

B. Revert the session.
C. Save and install the Policy.
D. Delete older versions of database.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the
administrator must publish the session.
To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy,
you must publish the session. When you publish a session, a new database version is created.
When you select Install Policy, you are prompted to publish all unpublished changes. You cannot install a
policy if the included changes are not published.
QUESTION 47
Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model?
A. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no
dependency of the Security Management Server.
B. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server
156-215.80 Exam
and has no dependency of the gateway.

C. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management
interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.
D. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management
Server Mgmt-interface and has no dependency of the gateway.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Central License
A Central License is a license attached to the Security Management server IP address, rather than the
gateway IP address. The benefits of a Central License are:
Only one IP address is needed for all licenses.
A license can be taken from one gateway and given to another.
The new license remains valid when changing the gateway IP address. There is no need to create and
install a new license.
13128.htm#o13527
QUESTION 48
Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems
this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his
calculations?
A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.
B. One machine
C. Two machines
D. Three machines
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
One for Security Management Server and the other one for the Security Gateway.
QUESTION 49
A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .
A. The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway

B. The existing license expires
C. The license is upgraded
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
There is no need to generate new license in this situation, just need to detach license from wrong Security
Gateway and attach it to the right one.
QUESTION 50
What is the default shell for the command line interface?
A. Expert
B. Clish
C. Admin
D. Normal
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The default shell of the CLI is called clish
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm
QUESTION 51
When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or
license stored
A. Security Gateway
B. Check Point user center
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartConsole installed device
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SmartUpdate installs two repositories on the Security Management server:
License & Contract Repository, which is stored on all platforms in the directory $FWDIR\conf\.
Package Repository, which is stored:
- on Windows machines in C:\SUroot.
- on UNIX machines in /var/suroot.
156-215.80 Exam
The Package Repository requires a separate license, in addition to the license for the Security
Management server. This license should stipulate the number of nodes that can be managed in
the Package Repository.
13128.htm#o13527
QUESTION 52
The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
A. infoCP
B. infoview
C. cpinfo
D. fw cpinfo
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer's machine at the time of
execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading
files to Check Point servers).
The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support
engineers can open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and
Objects. This allows the in-depth analysis of customer's configuration and environment settings.
When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and
Security Gateways involved in your case.
QUESTION 53
Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPSEC Security Associations (SA)?
A. vpn tu
B. vpn ipsec remove -l
C. vpn debug ipsec
D. fw ipsec tu
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
vpn tu
Description Launch the TunnelUtil tool which is used to control VPN tunnels.
156-215.80 Exam
Usage vpn tu
vpn tunnelutil
Example vpn tu
Output
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_CLI_WebAdmin/12467.htm#o12627
QUESTION 54
Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?
A. Security questions
B. Check Point password
C. SecurID
D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
Explanation:
Authentication Schemes:
- Check Point Password
- Operating System Password
- RADIUS
- SecurID
- TACAS
- Undefined If a user with an undefined authentication scheme is matched to a Security Rule with some form of
authentication, access is always denied.
QUESTION 55
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that
requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
A. Editor
B. Read Only All
C. Super User
D. Full Access
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
1. In SmartConsole, go to Manage & Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Permission Profiles.
2. Click New Profile.
The New Profile window opens.
3. Enter a unique name for the profile.
4. Select a profile type:
Read/Write All - Administrators can make changes
Auditor (Read Only All) - Administrators can see information but cannot make changes
Customized - Configure custom settings
5. Click OK.
QUESTION 56
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT
A. Download Center Web site

B. UserUpdate
C. User Center
156-215.80 Exam
D. Check Point DVD
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources:
the Download Center web site (packages)
the Check Point DVD (packages)
the User Center (licenses)
by importing a file (packages and licenses)
by running the cplic command line
13128.htm
QUESTION 57
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in
state tables?
A. INSPECT Engine
B. Stateful Inspection
C. Packet Filtering
D. Application Layer Firewall
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7080.htm
QUESTION 58
On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.

156-215.80 Exam
What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?
A. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if
Implicit Drop Rule drops the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it
passes to Threat Prevention layer.
B. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there
is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it
passes to Threat Prevention layer
C. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there
is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next to Threat Prevention layer and then after accepting the
packet it passes to IPS layer.
D. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in IPS policy layer and then if it is accepted
then it comes next to the Network policy layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat
Prevention layer.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To simplify Policy management, R80 organizes the policy into Policy Layers. A layer is a set of rules, or a Rule
Base.
For example, when you upgrade to R80 from earlier versions:
Gateways that have the Firewall and the Application Control Software Blades enabled will have their
Access Control Policy split into two ordered layers: Network and Applications.
When the gateway matches a rule in a layer, it starts to evaluate the rules in the next layer.
Gateways that have the IPS and Threat Emulation Software Blades enabled will have their Threat
Prevention policies split into two parallel layers: IPS and Threat Prevention.
All layers are evaluated in parallel
QUESTION 59
Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console
interface. In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the Summary screen as in the screenshot below. What as an
'Open Server'?

156-215.80 Exam
A. Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.

B. The Open Server Consortium approved Server Hardware used for the purpose of Security and Availability.
C. A Check Point Management Server deployed using the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Server and
Security deployment model.
D. A Check Point Management Server software using the Open SSL.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/
index.html
QUESTION 60
Choose what BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection.
A. If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer.
B. If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer.
C. If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up
156-215.80 Exam
Rule.
D. If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/1092
QUESTION 61
What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?
A. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings

B. Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception
C. Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception
D. Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
What does the â€œunknownâ€ SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?
A. The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication.
B. SIC activation key requires a reset.
C. The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator.
D. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The most typical status is Communicating. Any other status indicates that the SIC communication is
problematic. For example, if the SIC status is Unknown then there is no connection between the Gateway and
the Security Management server. If the SIC status is Not Communicating, the Security Management server is
able to contact the gateway, but SIC communication cannot be established.
QUESTION 63
Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port
number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change
this TCP port?
156-215.80 Exam
A. set web ssl-port <new port number>

B. set Gaia-portal port <new port number>
C. set Gaia-portal https-port <new port number>
D. set web https-port <new port number>
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
In Clish
A. Connect to command line on Security Gateway / each Cluster member.

B. Log in to Clish.
C. Set the desired port (e.g., port 4434):
HostName> set web ssl-port <Port_Number>
D. Save the changes:
HostName> save config
E. Verify that the configuration was saved:
[Expert@HostName]# grep 'httpd:ssl_port' /config/db/initial
QUESTION 64
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .
A. User Directory
156-215.80 Exam
B. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C. Captive Portal
D. UserCheck
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
5. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and
unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users.
If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD users may be identified transparently.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm
QUESTION 65
Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?
A. Monitor
B. Altuser
C. Administrator
D. Superuser
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .
A. Log server; security management server

B. Log server; Security Gateway
C. Security management server; Security Gateway
D. Security Gateways; log server
Answer: D
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 67
The security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80. The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .
A. TCP 18211
B. TCP 257
C. TCP 4433
D. TCP 443
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.
A. Cleanup; stealth
B. Stealth; implicit
C. Cleanup; default
D. Implicit; explicit
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be
transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?
A. Central
B. Corporate
C. Formal
D. Local
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which utility shows the security gateway general system information statistics like operating system
information and resource usage, and individual software blade statistics of VPN, Identity Awareness and DLP?

156-215.80 Exam
A. cpconfig
B. fw ctl pstat
C. cpview
D. fw ctl multik stat
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
CPView Utility is a text based built-in utility that can be run ('cpview' command) on Security Gateway / Security
Management Server / Multi-Domain Security Management Server. CPView Utility shows statistical data that
contain both general system information (CPU, Memory, Disk space) and information for different Software
Blades (only on Security Gateway). The data is continuously updated in easy to access views.
QUESTION 71
The following graphic shows:
A. View from SmartLog for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
B. View from SmartView Tracker for logs of destination address 10.1.1.202

156-215.80 Exam
C. View from SmartView Tracker for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
D. View from SmartView Monitor for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of
A. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and endpoint policy.
B. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
C. Firewall policy, address Translation and application and URL filtering, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy
and Threat Prevention Policy.
D. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and VPN policy.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
D is the best answer given the choices.
Unified Policy
In R80 the Access Control policy unifies the policies of these pre-R80 Software Blades:
Firewall and VPN
Application Control and URL Filtering
Identity Awareness
Data Awareness
Mobile Access
Security Zones
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197&anchor=o129934
QUESTION 73
The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.
A. upgrade_import
B. cpconfig
C. fwm dbimport -p <export file>
D. cpinfo -recover
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
(Should be "migrate import")
"migrate import" Restores backed up configuration for R80 version, in previous versions the command was "
upgrade_import ".
QUESTION 74
The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?
A. BGP, OSPF, RIP

B. BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP
C. BGP, OSPF, RIP, PIM, IGMP
D. BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The Advanced Routing Suite
The Advanced Routing Suite CLI is available as part of the Advanced Networking Software Blade.
For organizations looking to implement scalable, fault-tolerant, secure networks, the Advanced Networking
blade enables them to run industry-standard dynamic routing protocols including BGP, OSPF, RIPv1, and
RIPv2 on security gateways. OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 enable dynamic routing over a single autonomous
systemâ€”like a single department, company, or service providerâ€”to avoid network failures. BGP provides
dynamic routing support across more complex networks involving multiple autonomous systemsâ€”such as
when a company uses two service providers or divides a network into multiple areas with different
administrators responsible for the performance of each.
CP_R76_SecurePlatform_AdvancedRouting_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm
QUESTION 75
Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is
the correct IP address and default port to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?
A. https://<Device_IP_Address>
B. https://<Device_IP_Address>:443
C. https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
D. https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default
administration IP address:
Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
1. Enter this URL in your browser:
https://<Gaia IP address>
2. Enter your user name and password.
QUESTION 76
Which application should you use to install a contract file?
B. WebUI
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartProvisioning
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Using SmartUpdate: If you already use an NGX R65 (or higher) Security Management / Provider-1 / Multi-
Domain Management Server, SmartUpdate allows you to import the service contract file that you have
downloaded in Step #3.
Open SmartUpdate and from the Launch Menu select 'Licenses & Contracts' -> 'Update Contracts' ->
'From File...' and provide the path to the file you have downloaded in Step #3:

156-215.80 Exam
Note: If SmartUpdate is connected to the Internet, you can download the service contract file directly from the
UserCenter without going through the download and import steps.
QUESTION 77
Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
A. Support for IPv6

B. Granular access control
C. Strong user authentication
D. Secure connectivity
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Types of Solutions
All of Check Point's Remote Access solutions provide:
Enterprise-grade, secure connectivity to corporate resources.
Strong user authentication.
Granular access control.
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 78
You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security
conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade
detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in
place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST
against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?
A. IPS and Application Control

B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
D. SandBlast
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources.
Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more
malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/zero-day-protection/
QUESTION 79
Each cluster has __________ interfaces.
A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Each cluster member has three interfaces: one external interface, one internal interface, and one for
synchronization. Cluster member interfaces facing in each direction are connected via a switch, router, or
VLAN switch.
QUESTION 80
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

156-215.80 Exam
A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
C. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Deployments
Basic deployments:
Standalone deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on the same
machine.
Distributed deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on different
machines.
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on
one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all
communication between them.
156-215.80 Exam
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway. The Security
Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate
network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network
security with the Security Management server and its Security Gateways.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/118037
QUESTION 81
What are the two types of address translation rules?
A. Translated packet and untranslated packet

B. Untranslated packet and manipulated packet
C. Manipulated packet and original packet
D. Original packet and translated packet
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
NAT Rule Base
The NAT Rule Base has two sections that specify how the IP addresses are translated:
Original Packet
Translated Packet
QUESTION 82
You are unable to login to SmartConsole. You log into the management server and run #cpwd_admin list with
the following output:
What reason could possibly BEST explain why you are unable to connect to SmartConsole?
A. CDP is down
156-215.80 Exam
B. SVR is down
C. CPM and FWM are down
D. CPSM is down
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The correct answer would be FWM (is the process making available communication between SmartConsole
applications and Security Management Server.). STATE is T (Terminate = Down)
Explanation :
Symptoms
SmartDashboard fails to connect to the Security Management server.
1. Verify if the FWM process is running. To do this, run the command:
[Expert@HostName:0]# ps -aux | grep fwm
2. If the FWM process is not running, then try force-starting the process with the following command:
[Expert@HostName:0]# cpwd_admin start -name FWM -path "$FWDIR/bin/fwm" -command "fwm"
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
QUESTION 83
What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?
A. The Internet.
B. Interfaces that administrator has defined to be part of External Security Zone.
C. External interfaces on all security gateways.
D. External interfaces of specific gateways.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Configuring Interfaces
Configure the Security Gateway 80 interfaces in the Interfaces tab in the Security Gateway window.
156-215.80 Exam
To configure the interfaces:

1. From the Devices window, double-click the Security Gateway 80.
The Security Gateway window opens.
2. Select the Interfaces tab.
3. Select Use the following settings. The interface settings open.
4. Select the interface and click Edit.
The Edit window opens.
5. From the IP Assignment section, configure the IP address of the interface:
1. Select Static IP.
2. Enter the IP address and subnet mask for the interface.
6. In Security Zone, select Wireless, DMS, External, or Internal. Security zone is a type of zone, created by
a bridge to easily create segments, while maintaining IP addresses and router configurations. Security zones
let you choose if to enable or not the firewall between segments.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartProvisioning_WebAdmin/16741.htm
QUESTION 84
The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot _____________
A. User data base corruption

B. LDAP conflicts
C. Traffic issues
D. Phase two key negotiation
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point's FW Monitor is a powerful built-in tool for capturing network traffic at the packet level. The FW
Monitor utility captures network packets at multiple capture points along the FireWall inspection chains. These
captured packets can be inspected later using the WireShark
QUESTION 85
What are the two high availability modes?
A. Load Sharing and Legacy

B. Traditional and New
C. Active and Standby
D. New and Legacy
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
ClusterXL has four working modes. This section briefly describes each mode and its relative advantages and
disadvantages.
Load Sharing Multicast Mode
Load Sharing Unicast Mode
New High Availability Mode
High Availability Legacy Mode
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm#o7363
QUESTION 86
The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.
A. Block Port Overflow

B. Local Interface Spoofing
C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
D. Adaptive Threat Prevention
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Suspicious Activity Rules Solution
Suspicious Activity Rules is a utility integrated into SmartView Monitor that is used to modify access privileges
upon detection of any suspicious network activity (for example, several attempts to gain unauthorized access).
The detection of suspicious activity is based on the creation of Suspicious Activity rules. Suspicious Activity
rules are Firewall rules that enable the system administrator to instantly block suspicious connections that are
not restricted by the currently enforced security policy. These rules, once set (usually with an expiration date),
can be applied immediately without the need to perform an Install Policy operation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartViewMonitor_AdminGuide/17670.htm
QUESTION 87
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive against malicious and unwanted network
traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?
A. Anti-Virus
B. IPS
C. Anti-Spam
D. Anti-bot
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
The IPS Software Blade provides a complete Intrusion Prevention System security solution, providing
comprehensive network protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, including:
Malware attacks
Dos and DDoS attacks
Application and server vulnerabilities
Insider threats
Unwanted application traffic, including IM and P2P
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/ips-software-blade/
QUESTION 88
What is the purpose of Captive Portal?
A. It provides remote access to SmartConsole

B. It manages user permission in SmartConsole
C. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources
D. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Captive Portal â€“ a simple method that authenticates users through a web interface before granting them
access to Intranet resources. When users try to access a protected resource, they get a web page that must
be filled out to continue.
Reference : https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/
QUESTION 89
While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the
windows domain. Why does it not detect the windows domain?
A. Security Gateways is not part of the Domain

B. SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain
C. Security Management Server is not part of the domain
D. Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
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2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
unmanaged assets.
Terminal Servers - Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address).
See Choosing Identity Sources.
Note - When you enable Browser-Based Authentication on a Security Gateway that is on an IP Series
appliance, make sure to set the Voyager management application port to a port other than 443 or 80.
6. Click Next.
The Integration With Active Directory window opens.
When SmartDashboard is part of the domain, SmartDashboard suggests this domain automatically. If you
select this domain, the system creates an LDAP Account Unit with all of the domain controllers in the
organization's Active Directory.
QUESTION 90
View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean?
A. The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.

B. Another user has locked the rule for editing.
C. Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.
D. The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Administrator Collaboration
More than one administrator can connect to the Security Management Server at the same time. Every
administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.
administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited.
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QUESTION 91
When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error 'no proposal chosen' is seen numerous times. No
other VPN-related log entries are present. Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?
A. IKE Phase 1
B. IPSEC Phase 2
C. IPSEC Phase 1
D. IKE Phase 2
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?
A. Add rba user <User Name> roles <List>

B. Add rba user <User Name>
C. Add user <User Name> roles <List>
D. Add user <User Name>
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Configuring Roles - CLI (rba)

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QUESTION 93
You are the administrator for Alpha Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making
some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

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What does this mean?
A. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.
B. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.
C. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.
D. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
Which type of the Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management
Server?
A. Local
B. Central
C. Corporate
D. Formal
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?
A. Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

B. Application Independence
C. High Performance
D. Scalability
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Packet Filter Advantages and Disadvantages

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Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7078.htm
QUESTION 96
In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security
Management Server (Security Management Server)?
A. Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

B. Verify and compile Security Policies.
C. Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.
D. Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

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Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.
A. Traffic that does not match any rule in the subpolicy is dropped.
B. All employees can access only Youtube and Vimeo.
C. Access to Youtube and Vimeo is allowed only once a day.
D. Anyone from internal network can access the internet, expect the traffic defined in drop rules 5.2, 5.5 and
5.6.

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Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Policy Layers and Sub-Policies
R80 introduces the concept of layers and sub-policies, allowing you to segment your policy according to your
network segments or business units/functions. In addition, you can also assign granular privileges by layer or
sub-policy to distribute workload and tasks to the most qualified administrators
With layers, the rule base is organized into a set of security rules. These set of rules or layers, are
inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and the security
functionalities that take precedence. If an â€œacceptâ€ action is performed across a layer, the inspection will
continue to the next layer. For example, a compliance layer can be created to overlay across a crosssection
of rules.
Sub-policies are sets of rules that are created for a specific network segment, branch office or business
unit, so if a rule is matched, inspection will continue through this subset of rules before it moves on to the
next rule.
Sub-policies and layers can be managed by specific administrators, according to their permissions profiles.
This facilitates task delegation and workload distribution.
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/docs/DOC-1065
QUESTION 98
To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:
A. a routing table
B. that each Security Gateway enforces at least one rule
C. a Demilitarized Zone
D. a Security Policy install
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.
A. UDP
B. TDP
C. CCP
D. HTTP
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
Parameters:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76SP/
CP_R76SP_Security_System_WebAdminGuide/105209.htm
QUESTION 100
When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer,
sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following
statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?
A. If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.
B. If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.
C. If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.
D. If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Office mode means that:
A. SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway
assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.
B. Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.
C. Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.
D. Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel,
the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
Office Mode enables a Security Gateway to assign internal IP addresses to SecureClient users. This IP
address will not be exposed to the public network, but is encapsulated inside the VPN tunnel between the
client and the Gateway. The IP to be used externally should be assigned to the client in the usual way by the
Internet Service provider used for the Internet connection. This mode allows a Security Administrator to control
which addresses are used by remote clients inside the local network and makes them part of the local network.
The mechanism is based on an IKE protocol extension through which the Security Gateway can send an
internal IP address to the client.
QUESTION 102
The Administrator wishes to update IPS protections from SmartConsole by clicking on the option â€œUpdate
Nowâ€ under the Updates tab in Threat Tools. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?
A. Security Gateway only

B. Only the device where SmartConsole is installed
C. Only the Security Management Server
D. Either the Security Management Server or device where SmartConsole is installed
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Updating IPS Manually
You can immediately update IPS with real-time information on attacks and all the latest protections from the
IPS website. You can only manually update IPS if a proxy is defined in Internet Explorer settings.
To obtain updates of all the latest protections from the IPS website:
1. Configure the settings for the proxy server in Internet Explorer.
1.In Microsoft Internet Explorer, open Tools > Internet Options > Connections tab > LAN Settings.
The LAN Settings window opens.
2.Select Use a proxy server for your LAN.
3.Configure the IP address and port number for the proxy server.
4.Click OK.
The settings for the Internet Explorer proxy server are configured.
2. In the IPS tab, select Download Updates and click Update Now.
If you chose to automatically mark new protections for Follow Up, you have the option to open the Follow Up
page directly to see the new protections.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/12850.htm
QUESTION 103
Jack works for a managed service provider and he has been tasked to create 17 new policies for several new
customers. He does not have much time. What is the BEST way to do this with R80 security management?
A. Create a text-file with mgmt_cli script that creates all objects and policies. Open the file in SmartConsole
156-215.80 Exam
Command Line to run it.

B. Create a text-file with Gaia CLI -commands in order to create all objects and policies. Run the file in CLISH
with command load configuration.
C. Create a text-file with DBEDIT script that creates all objects and policies. Run the file in the command line
of the management server using command dbedit -f.
D. Use Object Explorer in SmartConsole to create the objects and Manage Policies from the menu to create
the policies.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Did you know: mgmt_cli can accept csv files as inputs using the --batch option.
The first row should contain the argument names and the rows below it should hold the values for these
parameters.
So an equivalent solution to the powershell script could look like this:
data.csv:
mgmt_cli add host --batch data.csv -u <username> -p <password> -m <management server>

This can work with any type of command not just "add host" : simply replace the column names with the ones
relevant to the command you need.
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/1342
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#gui-cli/add-access-rule
QUESTION 104
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?
A. RADIUS
B. Remote Access and RADIUS
C. AD Query
D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
Explanation:
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
AD Query
Browser-Based Authentication
Endpoint Identity Agent
Terminal Servers Identity Agent
Remote Access
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62007.htm
QUESTION 105
Which of the following is NOT a back up method?
A. Save backup
B. System backup
C. snapshot
D. Migrate
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The built-in Gaia backup procedures:
Snapshot Management
System Backup (and System Restore)
Save/Show Configuration (and Load Configuration)
Check Point provides three different procedures for backing up (and restoring) the operating system and
networking parameters on your appliances.
Snapshot (Revert)
Backup (Restore)
upgrade_export (Migrate)
QUESTION 106
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?
A. You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites
B. Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers
C. You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several
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servers
D. You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and
anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?
A. Firewall
B. Application Control
C. Anti-spam and Email Security
D. Antivirus
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The enhanced Check Point Antivirus Software Blade uses real-time virus signatures and anomaly-based
protections from ThreatCloudâ„¢, the first collaborative network to fight cybercrime, to detect and block malware
at the gateway before users are affected.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/antivirus-software-blade/
QUESTION 108
What is the default method for destination NAT?
A. Destination side
B. Source side
C. Server side
D. Client side
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Client Side NAT - destination is NAT`d by the inbound kernel
QUESTION 109
Choose what BEST describes a Session.

156-215.80 Exam
A. Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.

B. Starts when an Administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole and ends
when it is published.
C. Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.
D. Sessions locks the policy package for editing.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Administrator Collaboration
administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited.
QUESTION 110
Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
A. To satellites through center only

B. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
C. To center and to other satellites through center
D. To center only
Answer: A,D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SmartConsole
For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star
community in R80 SmartConsole:
1. On the Star Community window, in the:
A. Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the "Hub".
b. Satellite Gateways section, select Security Gateways as the "spokes", or satellites.
2. On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options:
A. To center and to other Satellites through center - This allows connectivity between the Security
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Gateways, for example if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security
Gateway with a static IP address.
b. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets - This allows
connectivity between the Security Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through
the Hub to the Internet.
3. Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule.
4. NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the
Internet.
The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security
Gateway with the static IP address.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_VPN/html_frameset.htm
QUESTION 111
What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
A. Monitor
B. CLI.sh
C. Read-only
D. Bash
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
This chapter gives an introduction to the Gaia command line interface (CLI).
The default shell of the CLI is called clish.
QUESTION 112
Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?
A. Perpetual and Trial

B. Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation
C. Subscription and Perpetual
D. Evaluation and Subscription
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Should be Trial or Evaluation, even Plug-and-play (all are synonyms ). Answer B is the best choice.

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 113
Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?
A. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.
B. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted
Clients.
C. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server,
in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients.
D. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and
Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security
Gateway.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
In a Network policy with Inline layers, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic.
However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.
A. Accept; redirect
B. Accept; drop
C. Redirect; drop
D. Drop; accept
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her companyâ€™s production Firewall cluster
Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore
production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment. Which details she need to fill in System Restore
window before she can click OK button and test the backup?
A. Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B. Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
C. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
D. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 116
On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:
After clicking â€œNextâ€ the above configuration is supported by:
A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users
and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user
C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal
D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
1. Log in to R80 SmartConsole.
2. From the Gateways & Servers view, double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity

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Awareness.
3. On the Network Security tab, select Identity Awareness.
unmanaged assets.
Terminal Servers - Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address).
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050
QUESTION 117
What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below.
A. Search detailed is missing the subnet mask.

B. There is no object on the database with that name or that IP address.
C. There is no object on the database with that IP address.
D. Object does not have a NAT IP address.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
Why would an administrator see the message below?

156-215.80 Exam
A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed
up first before proceeding.
B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.
C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.
D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by
the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access
based on user, group, and machine identities.
A. Application Control
B. Data Awareness
C. URL Filtering
D. Threat Emulation
Answer: A

156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 120
At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
A. Upon creation of a certificate

B. During the primary Security Management Server installation process.
C. When an administrator decides to create one.
D. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Introduction to the ICA
The ICA is a Certificate Authority which is an integral part of the Check Point product suite. It is fully compliant
with X.509 standards for both certificates and CRLs. See the relevant X.509 and PKI documentation, as well
as RFC 2459 standards for more information. You can read more about Check Point and PKI in the R76 VPN
Administration Guide.
The ICA is located on the Security Management server. It is created during the installation process, when the
Security Management server is configured.
QUESTION 121
In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite
VPN gateway?
A. Pentagon
B. Combined
C. Meshed
D. Star
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
VPN communities are based on Star and Mesh topologies. In a Mesh community, there are VPN connections
between each Security Gateway. In a Star community, satellites have a VPN connection with the center
Security Gateway, but not to each other.
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 122
________information is included in the â€œFull Logâ€ tracking option, but is not included in the â€œLogâ€ tracking
option?
A. File attributes
B. Application
C. Destination port
D. Data type
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Tracking Options
Network Log - Generates a log with only basic Firewall information: Source, Destination, Source Port,
Destination Port, and Protocol.
Log - Equivalent to the Network Log option, but also includes the application name (for example, Dropbox),
and application information (for example, the URL of the Website). This is the default Tracking option.
Full Log - Equivalent to the log option, but also records data for each URL request made.
- If suppression is not selected, it generates a complete log (as defined in pre-R80 management).
- If suppression is selected, it generates an extended log (as defined in pre-R80 management).
None - Do not generate a log.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914
QUESTION 123
In the R80 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?
A. Security Policies
B. Logs and Monitor
C. Manage and Settings
D. Gateway and Servers
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?
A. Full
B. Light
C. Custom
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D. Complete
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Endpoint Identity Agents â€“ dedicated client agents installed on usersâ€™ computers that acquire and report
identities to the Security Gateway.
QUESTION 125
The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ________ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to
and including the ________ layer.
A. Lower; Application
B. First two; Internet
C. First two; Transport
D. Upper; Application
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 126
There are two R80.X0 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The
cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to
have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was
standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an
hour, FW_Aâ€™s interface issues were resolved and it became operational. When it re-joins the cluster, will it
become active automatically?
A. No, since â€œmaintain current active cluster memberâ€ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by
default
B. No, since â€œmaintain current active cluster memberâ€ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties
C. Yes, since â€œSwitch to higher priority cluster memberâ€ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by
default
D. Yes, since â€œSwitch to higher priority cluster memberâ€ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
What Happens When a Security Gateway Recovers?
156-215.80 Exam
In a Load Sharing configuration, when the failed Security Gateway in a cluster recovers, all connections are
redistributed among all active members. High Availability and Load Sharing in ClusterXL ClusterXL
Administration Guide R77 Versions | 31 In a High Availability configuration, when the failed Security Gateway
in a cluster recovers, the recovery method depends on the configured cluster setting. The options are:
â€¢ Maintain Current Active Security Gateway means that if one member passes on control to a lower priority
member, control will be returned to the higher priority member only if the lower priority member fails. This
mode is recommended if all members are equally capable of processing traffic, in order to minimize the
number of failover events.
â€¢ Switch to Higher Priority Security Gateway means that if the lower priority member has control and the
higher priority member is restored, then control will be returned to the higher priority member. This mode is
recommended if one member is better equipped for handling connections, so it will be the default Security
Gateway.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/7e/7ef174cf00762ceaf228384ea20ea64a/
CP_R77_ClusterXL_AdminGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1479822138_31410b1f8360074be87fd8f1ab682464&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 127
After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run.
A. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the Unified SmartConsole.
B. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the command line or from the WebUI.
C. First time Configuration Wizard can only be run from the WebUI.
D. Connection to the internet is required before running the First Time Configuration wizard.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point Security Gateway and Check Point Security Management require running the First Time
Configuration Wizard in order to be configured correctly. The First Time Configuration Wizard is available in
Gaia Portal and also through CLI.
To invoke the First Time Configuration Wizard through CLI, run the config_system command from the Expert
shell.
QUESTION 128
In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools?
A. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
B. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
C. mgmt_cli or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
D. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.
Answer: D
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 129
Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?
A. â€œEncryptâ€ action in the Rule Base

B. Permanent Tunnels
C. â€œVPNâ€ column in the Rule Base
D. Configuration checkbox â€œAccept all encrypted trafficâ€
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Migrating from Traditional Mode to Simplified Mode
To migrate from Traditional Mode VPN to Simplified Mode:
1. On the Global Properties > VPN page, select one of these options:
â€¢ Simplified mode to all new Firewall Policies
â€¢ Traditional or Simplified per new Firewall Policy
2. Click OK.
3. From the R80 SmartConsole Menu, select Manage policies.
The Manage Policies window opens.
4. Click New.
The New Policy window opens.
5. Give a name to the new policy and select Access Control.
In the Security Policy Rule Base, a new column marked VPN shows and the Encrypt option is no longer
available in the Action column. You are now working in Simplified Mode.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/05/05e695b2012b4fd1d2bdfeccecd29290/
CP_R80BC_VPN_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479823792_55fbc10656c87db4fcf742f4899ba90d&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 130
A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .
A. Software container; software package

B. Software blade; software container
C. Software package; signature
D. Signature; software blade
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
Check Point's licensing is designed to be scalable and modular. To this end, Check Point offers both
predefined packages as well as the ability to custom build a solution tailored to the needs of the Network
Administrator. This is accomplished by the use of the following license components:
Software Blades
Container
QUESTION 131
Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.
A. License Management file

B. Security Gateway Contract file
C. Service Contract file
D. License Contract file
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Service Contract File
Following the activation of the license, a Service Contract File should be installed. This file contains important
information about all subscriptions purchased for a specific device and is installed via SmartUpdate. A detailed
explanation of the Service Contract File can be found in sk33089.
QUESTION 132
Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Access Control
C. QoS
D. Threat Prevention
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point's QoS Solution
QoS is a policy-based QoS management solution from Check Point Software Technologies Ltd., satisfies your
needs for a bandwidth management solution. QoS is a unique, software-only based application that manages
156-215.80 Exam
traffic end-to-end across networks, by distributing enforcement throughout network hardware and software.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_QoS_AdminGuide/index.html
QUESTION 133
Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe
logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged
in:
A. When Joe logs in, Bob will be logged out automatically.

B. Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.
C. The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.
D. Bob will receive a prompt that Joe logged in.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 134
When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______
A. UserCheck
B. User Directory
C. User Administration
D. User Center
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point User Directory integrates LDAP, and other external user management technologies, with the
Check Point solution. If you have a large user count, we recommend that you use an external user
management database such as LDAP for enhanced Security Management Server performance.
QUESTION 135
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
A. Firewall
B. Threat Emulation
D. Threat Extraction
Answer: B
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user
accounts and:
A. assign privileges to users.

B. edit the home directory of the user.
C. add users to your Gaia system.
D. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Users
Use the WebUI and CLI to manage user accounts. You can:
Add users to your Gaia system.
Edit the home directory of the user.
Edit the default shell for a user.
Give a password to a user.
Give privileges to users.
QUESTION 137
Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
A. Clients external to the Security Gateway can download archive files from FTP_Ext server using FTP.
B. Internal clients can upload and download any-files to FTP_Ext-server using FTP.
C. Internal clients can upload and download archive-files to FTP_Ext server using FTP.
D. Clients external to the Security Gateway can upload any files to the FTP_Ext-server using FTP.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 138
A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various
__________ .
A. Rule base, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

B. SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers
C. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways
D. The Check Point database, SmartConsole, Security Gateways
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 139
Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

156-215.80 Exam
A. show configuration all

B. show confd configuration
C. show confd configuration all
D. show configuration
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/0c/0caa9c0daa67e0c1f2af3dd06790bc81/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479835768_76058f0fc4209e38bc801cd58a85d7c5&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 140
Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?
A. TACACS
B. SecurID
C. Check Point password

156-215.80 Exam
D. RADIUS
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SecurID
SecurID requires users to both possess a token authenticator and to supply a PIN or password
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6721.htm
QUESTION 141
If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to â€œFirstâ€ , what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?
A. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

B. Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.
C. Track log column is set to none.
D. Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Implied Rules are configured only on Global Properties.
QUESTION 142
The most important part of a site-to-site VPN deployment is the ________ .
A. Internet
B. Remote users
C. Encrypted VPN tunnel
D. VPN gateways
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Site to Site VPN
The basis of Site to Site VPN is the encrypted VPN tunnel. Two Security Gateways negotiate a link and create
a VPN tunnel and each tunnel can contain more than one VPN connection. One Security Gateway can
maintain more than one VPN tunnel at the same time.
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 143
R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?
A. Gaia only
B. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only
C. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only
D. Gaia and SPLAT only
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
R80 can be installed only on GAIA OS.
Supported Check Point Installations All R80 servers are supported on the Gaia Operating System:
â€¢ Security Management Server
â€¢ Multi-Domain Security Management Server
â€¢ Log Server
â€¢ Multi-Domain Log Server
â€¢ SmartEvent Server
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f7e21da67aa992954aa12a0a84e53a8/
CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1479838085_d6ffcb36c6a3128708b3f6d7bcc4f94e&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 144
What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?
A. Port 258
B. Port 18209
C. Port 257
D. Port 981
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 145
The organization's security manager wishes to back up just the Gaia operating system parameters. Which
command can be used to back up only Gaia operating system parameters like interface details, Static routes
and Proxy ARP entries?
A. save configuration
B. backup
C. migrate export
D. upgrade export
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
System Backup (and System Restore)
System Backup can be used to backup current system configuration. A backup creates a compressed file that
contains the Check Point configuration including the networking and operating system parameters, such as
routing and interface configuration etc., but unlike a snapshot, it does not include the operating system,
product binaries, and hotfixes.
QUESTION 146
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
C. There is one default user that can be deleted.
D. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
These users are created by default and cannot be deleted:
admin â€” Has full read/write capabilities for all Gaia features, from the WebUI and the CLI. This user has a
User ID of 0, and therefore has all of the privileges of a root user.
monitor â€” Has read-only capabilities for all features in the WebUI and the CLI, and can change its own
password. You must give a password for this user before the account can be used.
QUESTION 147
You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if
there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files
intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?
A. backup
B. Database Revision
C. snapshot
D. migrate export
Answer: C
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Snapshot Management
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point
products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the
same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be saved.
QUESTION 148
The IT Management team is interested in the new features of the Check Point R80.x Management and wants
to upgrade but they are concerned that the existing R77.30 Gaia Gateways cannot be managed by R80.x
because it is so different. As the administrator responsible for the Firewalls, how can you answer or confirm
these concerns?
A. R80.x Management contains compatibility packages for managing earlier versions of Check Point
Gateways prior to R80. Consult the R80 Release Notes for more information.
B. R80.x Management requires the separate installation of compatibility hotfix packages for managing the
earlier versions of Check Point Gateways prior to R80. Consult the R80 Release Notes for more
information.
C. R80.x Management was designed as a completely different Management system and so can only monitor
Check Point Gateways prior to R80.
D. R80.x Management cannot manage earlier versions of Check Point Gateways prior to R80. Only R80 and
above Gateways can be managed. Consult the R80 Release Notes for more information.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

156-215.80 Exam
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f7e21da67aa992954aa12a0a84e53a8/
CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1479838085_d6ffcb36c6a3128708b3f6d7bcc4f94e&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 149
Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.
How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?
A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
156-215.80 Exam
C. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
D. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it was a physical interface.
A. VPN Tunnel Interface

B. VPN community
C. VPN router
D. VPN interface
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Route Based VPN
VPN traffic is routed according to the routing settings (static or dynamic) of the Security Gateway operating
system. The Security Gateway uses a VTI (VPN Tunnel Interface) to send the VPN traffic as if it was a
physical interface. The VTIs of Security Gateways in a VPN community connect and can support dynamic
routing protocols.
Reference: http://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13868.htm
QUESTION 151
The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.
A. Global Policies
B. Shared policies
C. Concurrent policy packages
D. Concurrent policies
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 152
You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in
the â€œSelect additional profile that will be able edit this layerâ€ you do not see anything. What is the most likely
cause of this problem?
156-215.80 Exam
A. â€œEdit layers by Software Bladesâ€ is unselected in the Administrator Permission Profile

B. There are no Administrator Permission Profiles available and you need to create one first.
C. All Administrator Permission Profiles are in use.
D. There are no Administrator Permission Profiles defined with limited access privileges.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 153
Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
A. SNMP
B. High alert
C. Mail
D. User defined alert
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
In Action, select:
none - No alert.
log - Sends a log entry to the database.
alert - Opens a pop-up window to your desktop.
mail - Sends a mail alert to your Inbox.
snmptrap - Sends an SNMP alert.
useralert - Runs a script. Make sure a user-defined action is available. Go to SmartDashboard > Global
Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SmartViewMonitor_AdminGuide/101104.htm
QUESTION 154
A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to
as a ________ cluster.
A. Standby/standby; active/active
B. Active/active; standby/standby
C. Active/active; active/standby
D. Active/standby; active/active
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
In a High Availability cluster, only one member is active (Active/Standby operation).
ClusterXL Load Sharing distributes traffic within a cluster so that the total throughput of multiple members is
increased. In Load Sharing configurations, all functioning members in the cluster are active, and handle
network traffic (Active/Active operation).
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/7292.htm

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 155
AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock icon on a
rule?
A. Rule is locked by AdminA, because the save button has not been pressed.
B. Rule is locked by AdminA, because the rule is currently being edited.
C. Rule is locked by AdminA, and will be made it available if the session is published.
D. Rule is locked by AdminA, and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 156
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?
A. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.
B. When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to
gateway objects.
C. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
D. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
A Check Point host is a host with only one interface, on which Check Point software has been installed, and
which is managed by the Security Management server. It is not a routing mechanism and is not capable of IP
forwarding.
QUESTION 157
Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?
A. ISO 37001
B. Sarbanes Oxley (SOX)
C. HIPAA
D. PCI
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
ISO 37001 - Anti-bribery management systems
Reference: http://www.iso.org/iso/home/standards/management-standards/iso37001.htm
QUESTION 158
Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?
A. Lock database override

B. Unlock database override
C. Unlock database lock
D. Lock database user
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Obtaining a Configuration Lock
lock database override
unlock database
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091
QUESTION 159
Joey is using the computer with IP address 192.168.20.13. He wants to access web page
â€œwww.CheckPoint.comâ€ , which is hosted on Web server with IP address 203.0.113.111. How many rules on
Check Point Firewall are required for this connection?
A. Two rules â€“ first one for the HTTP traffic and second one for DNS traffic.
B. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is a Packet Filtering firewall
C. Two rules â€“ one for outgoing request and second one for incoming replay.
D. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is using Stateful Inspection technology.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 160
Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .
A. From the User Center, from a file, or manually

B. From a file, manually, or from SmartView Monitor
C. Manually, from SmartView Monitor, or from the User Center
D. From SmartView Monitor, from the User Center, or from a file

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
13128.htm
QUESTION 161
A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule
Base.
A. Firewall drop
B. Explicit
C. Implicit accept
D. Implicit drop
E. Implied
Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
This is the order that rules are enforced:
1. First Implied Rule: You cannot edit or delete this rule and no explicit rules can be placed before it.
2. Explicit Rules: These are rules that you create.
3. Before Last Implied Rules: These implied rules are applied before the last explicit rule.
4. Last Explicit Rule: We recommend that you use the Cleanup rule as the last explicit rule.
5. Last Implied Rules: Implied rules that are configured as Last in Global Properties.
6. Implied Drop Rule: Drops all packets without logging.
QUESTION 162
The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .
A. Firewall policy install

B. Threat Prevention policy install
C. Anti-bot policy install
D. Access Control policy install
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/136486
QUESTION 163
RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client
A. Destination
B. Identity
C. Payload
D. Location
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
How RADIUS Accounting Works with Identity Awareness
RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from RADIUS Accounting Requests generated by the RADIUS
accounting client.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62050
QUESTION 164
The R80 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as
prioritized security events.
A. SmartMonitor
B. SmartView Web Application
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartTracker
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Event Analysis with SmartEvent
The SmartEvent Software Blade is a unified security event management and analysis solution that delivers
real-time, graphical threat management information. SmartConsole, SmartView Web Application, and the
SmartEvent GUI client consolidate billions of logs and show them as prioritized security events so you can
immediately respond to security incidents, and do the necessary actions to prevent more attacks. You can
customize the views to monitor the events that are most important to you. You can move from a high level view
to detailed forensic analysis in a few clicks. With the free-text search and suggestions, you can quickly run
data analysis and identify critical security events.
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 165
Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing
access control through identity-based policies?
A. Firewall
B. Identity Awareness
D. URL Filtering
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Check Point Identity Awareness Software Blade provides granular visibility of users, groups and machines,
providing unmatched application and access control through the creation of accurate, identity-based
policies. Centralized management and monitoring allows for policies to be managed from a single, unified
console.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/
QUESTION 166
How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?
A. Infinite
B. One
C. Three
D. Two
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 167
Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA,
but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been
able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?
A. She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.
B. She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.
C. She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.
D. She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 168
John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to
designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, gateway policy
permits access only from Join's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT
department gave the laptop a static IP address, but the limits him to operating it only from his desk. The
current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants
to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server
from any machine and from any location.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect. How
does he solve this problem?
A. John should install the identity Awareness Agent

B. The firewall admin should install the Security Policy
C. John should lock and unlock the computer
D. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which feature in R77 permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period?
A. Suspicious Activity Monitoring

B. HTTP Methods
C. Local Interface Spoofing
D. Block Port Overflow
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 170
MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to
reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.
What can you do in this case?
156-215.80 Exam
A. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception

B. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
C. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
D. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 171
What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the
Distributed deployment option?
A. degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size

B. requires additional Check Point appliances
C. requires additional software subscription
D. increases cost
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 172
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point production
information, and configuration settings of a GAiA Security Gateway.
B. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS
C. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway
D. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote
Security Management Server
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 173
The Captive Portal tool:
A. Acquires identities from unidentified users.

B. Is only used for guest user authentication.
C. Allows access to users already identified.
D. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 174
Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?
A. SmartDashboard > Edit Gateway Object > General Properties > Communication
B. SmartUpdate > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
C. SmartUpdate > Edit Gateway Object > Communication
D. SmartDashboard > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 175
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Security Gateway
B. Host
C. Security Management object
D. Network
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 176
What happens if the identity of a user is known?
A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.
B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.
C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.
D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based
on the defined action.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 177
Message digests use which of the following?
A. DES and RC4

B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. SHA-1 and MD5
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 178
When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:
A. Requires client and server side software.

B. Prompts the user to enter credentials.
C. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security
Gateway.
D. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 179
You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting
POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
A. The POP3 rule is disabled.

B. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.
C. The POP3 rule is hidden.
D. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 180
What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?
A. upgrade_export
B. fw stat -1
156-215.80 Exam
C. cpinfo
D. remote_uninstall_verifier
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 181
Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner
site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that he setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE
phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?
A. The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error â€¦
No proposal chosenâ€¦
B. All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for
higher performance for setting up the tunnel.
C. Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in
phase 2 only costs performance and does not add security due to a shorter key in phase 1.
D. All is fine and can be used as is.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 182
Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.
A. SmartLog has been an option since release R71.10.

B. SmartLog is not a Check Point product.
C. SmartLog and SmartView Tracker are mutually exclusive.
D. SmartLog is a client of SmartConsole that enables enterprises to centrally track log records and security
activity with Google-like search.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?
A. $SMARTLOGDIR/data
B. $SMARTLOG/dir
C. $FWDIR/smartlog
D. $FWDIR/log
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Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security
Gateway Appliances to run a cluster. Which type of cluster is it?
A. Full HA Cluster
B. High Availability
C. Standalone
D. Distributed
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. Yes, but only when using Automatic NAT.
D. Yes, but only when using Manual NAT.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?
A. Source Network
B. Source Machine
C. Source User
D. Source Server
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 187
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use
IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to
ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates
to the Gateway before shipping it?
1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and
reconfirm.
2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and
click Initialize and OK.
5. Install the Security Policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 188
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

156-215.80 Exam
In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig,
choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC
was successfully initialized and jumps back to the menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a
working connection, you receive this error message:
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
B. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic
Setup > Initialize).
C. The check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the
activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 189
Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?
A. Security Management Server

B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 190
What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?
A. VPN authentication and encrypted traffic are tunneled through port TCP 443.
B. Only ESP traffic is tunneled through port TCP 443.
C. Only Main mode and Quick mode traffic are tunneled on TCP port 443.
D. All VPN traffic is tunneled through UDP port 4500.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 191
Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies. Which statement below is TRUE about these types of
communities?
A. A star community requires Check Point gateways, as it is a Check Point proprietary technology.
B. In a star community, satellite gateways cannot communicate with each other.
C. In a mesh community, member gateways cannot communicate directly with each other.
D. In a mesh community, all members can create a tunnel with any other member.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 192
What CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?
A. show interface (interface) â€“chain

B. tcpdump
C. tcpdump /snoop
D. fw monitor
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 193
Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole
application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
156-215.80 Exam
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 194
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
A. HTTP Logical Server

B. Gateway
C. Address Range
D. Host
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 195
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation

B. Address translation
C. Log Consolidation Engine
D. User data base corruption
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 196
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you
would like to see how many often the particular rules match. Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.
A. In the SmartView Tracker, if you activate the column Matching Rate.

B. In SmartReporter, in the section Firewall Blade â€“ Activity > Network Activity with information
concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.
C. SmartReporter provides this information in the section Firewall Blade â€“ Security > Rule Base Analysis
with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.
D. It is not possible to see it directly. You can open SmartDashboard and select UserDefined in the Track
column. Afterwards, you need to create your own program with an external counter.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 197
Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What
happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

156-215.80 Exam
A. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.

B. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.
C. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and
password for Client Authentication
D. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 198
What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?
A. Network & Endpoint, Management, and Active

B. Network, Endpoint, and Active
C. Predefined, All Records, Custom Queries
D. Endpoint, Active, and Custom Queries
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 199
In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A. Rule 0
B. Blank field under Rule Number
C. Rule 1
D. Cleanup Rule
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 200
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. WebUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartReporter
Answer: B
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Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?
A. Templates, Users
B. Users, Networks
C. Users, User Group
D. Networks, Hosts
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 202
Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?
A. Rule 4
B. Rule 6
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 5
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 203
Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?

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A. IP Appliance Voyager
B. snapshot
C. GAiA WebUI
D. cpinfo
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. 3DES
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 205
Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in
the Gaia CLI?
A. Blue > add local backup

B. Expert&Blue#add local backing
C. Blue > set backup local
D. Blue > add backup local
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 206
You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner.
Which of the following activities sh you do first?
A. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA

B. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's
Certificate Authority (CA)
C. Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.
D. Manually import your partner's Access Control List.
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Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 207
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted
through the perimeter Security Gateway?
A. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked
as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history.
Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
B. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
C. Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log
Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the
same database for HIPPA log audits.
D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 208
What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?
A. HTTP://[IPADDRESS]
B. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:8080
C. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:4434
D. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 209
Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the
competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted
communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?
A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination
port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.
B. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of
potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.
C. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base
156-215.80 Exam
and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.

D. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his
wrongdoings.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 210
Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.
A. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F5
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?
A. Specific â€“ derived from a selected object

B. Route-based â€“ derived from gateway routing table
C. Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask
D. Not-defined
Answer: B
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 212
MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central
license for one remote Security Gateway.
How do you apply the license?
A. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via
SmartUpdate.
B. Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via
SmartUpdate.
C. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with command cplic put.
D. Using each of the Gateway's IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server
with the command cprlic put.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 213
A digital signature:
A. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.

B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Decrypts data to its original form.
D. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 214
According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a 3rd party gateway to a Check Point security solution
what object SHOULD be added? A(n):
A. Interoperable Device
B. Network Node
C. Externally managed gateway
D. Gateway
Answer: A
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 215
You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from
that whole network, not just the problematic host. You want to block this for an hour while you investigate
further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
C. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in Smart Monitor.
D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 216
When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?
A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file

B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 217
A Cleanup rule:
A. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.

B. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.
C. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
D. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 218
You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas.
Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class Security Gateway.
156-215.80 Exam
You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade
your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?
A. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor

B. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
D. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 219
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.

B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway
and type a new activation key.
C. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
D. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 220
Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?
A. Check Point Password

B. TACACS
C. LDAP
D. Windows password
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 221
An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through
your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although
the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE
traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).
Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-
minute interval.
156-215.80 Exam
If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive
packet every minute.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this behavior?
A. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since
certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.
B. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become
corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions.
This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.
C. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific
connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout,
thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the
day.
D. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration
to the partner site to enable proper logging.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 222
Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.
A. To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.
B. Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.
C. You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.
D. You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 223
You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you
have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.
A. You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.

B. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
C. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
D. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 224
You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this
configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two
new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you
decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you
do this?
A. Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to
import the users.
B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database
Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
C. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 225
Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD?
Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 226
You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user
enters the authentication credentials. What must happen after authentication that allows the client to connect
to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?
A. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.
B. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.
C. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.
D. Active-X must be allowed on the client.
Answer: A
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 227
All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers
can NOT perform authentication?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. RLOGIN
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 228
Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client
Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R77?
A. External-user group
B. LDAP group
C. A group with a genetic user
D. All Users
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 229
What is Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter
database.
C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 230
Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?
156-215.80 Exam
A. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for
Security Gateways is checked
B. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is
checked.
C. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory
(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.
D. Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security
Gateways is checked.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 231
Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?
A. Peers agree on encryption method.

B. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.
C. Peers agree on integrity method.
D. Each side generates a session key from its private key and peer's public key.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 232
Which R77 GUI would you use to see number of packets accepted since the last policy install?
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Status
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 233
Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?
A. Bridge
B. Load Sharing
C. High Availability
156-215.80 Exam
D. Fail Open
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 234
What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?
A. 23
B. 264
C. 900
D. 259
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 235
Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to
access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain,
she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive
Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in
the R77 Firewall Rule Base.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:
1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.
2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is
selected.
3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select
accept as the Action.
4) Install policy.
Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?
A. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule â€œRedirect HTTP connections to
an authentication (captive) portalâ€ .
B. Have the security administrator reboot the firewall.
C. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role.
D. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 236
How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?
A. 12
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 237
What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?
A. Automatic NAT
B. Static NAT
C. Manual NAT
D. Hide NAT
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 238
A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts
to install the Security Policy to the new Gateway object, the object does not appear in the Install On check
box. What should you look for?
A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object.

B. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the
Network Objects dialog box.
C. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object.
D. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Secure Gateway option in the network objects, dialog
box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 239
Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?
A. From the Internet

156-215.80 Exam
B. Through internal interfaces

C. Through all interfaces
D. According to the Firewall Policy
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 240
As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?
A. Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4.

B. Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic.
C. Nothing at all
D. Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 241
What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
A. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
B. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
C. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
D. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 242
VPN gateways must authenticate to each other prior to exchanging information. What are the two types of
credentials used for authentication?
A. 3DES and MD5

B. Certificates and IPsec
C. Certificates and pre-shared secret
D. IPsec and VPN Domains
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 243
According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point
security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):
A. Gateway
B. Interoperable Device
C. Externally managed gateway
D. Network Node
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 244
You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be
defined via SmartDashboard?
A. A group with generic user

B. All users
C. LDAP Account Unit Group
D. Internal user Group
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 245
Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?
156-215.80 Exam
A. Gateway Object > General Properties

B. Security Management Server > Identity Awareness
C. Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness
D. LDAP Server Object > General Properties
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 246
While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an
intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes, but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct
order of steps needed to set up the block?
1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker.
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder.
3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker.
4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes.
5) Highlight connection that should be blocked.
A. 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 3, 2, 5, 4
C. 1, 5, 2, 4
D. 3, 5, 2, 4
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 247
You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution
should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of your Security Policy to its previous configuration after
testing the changes?
A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf

B. upgrade_export command
C. Database Revision Control
D. GAiA backup utilities
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 248
You are using SmartView Tracker to troubleshoot NAT entries. Which column do you check to view the NAT'd
source port if you are using Source NAT?

156-215.80 Exam
A. XlateDst
B. XlateSPort
C. XlateDPort
D. XlateSrc
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 249
What happens if the identity of a user is known?
A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.
B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.
C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.
D. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 250
Your company enforces a strict change control policy. Which of the following would be MOST effective for
quickly dropping an attacker's specific active connection?
A. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security Gateways
B. Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker
C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy install
D. SAM â€“ Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView Monitor
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 251
What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?
A. CPMI 200
B. TCP 8080
C. HTTP 80
D. HTTPS 443
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 252
How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?
A. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.

B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.
C. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.
D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 253
Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?
A. In Smart Log Rules View

B. In SmartDashboard on each rule
C. In Global Properties under Firewall
D. In Global Properties under log and alert
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 254
Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?
A. Scalability to accommodate user groups

B. Centralized management
C. Strong authentication
D. Strong data encryption
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 255
You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with
SmartView Monitor.
Unfortunately, you get the message:

â€œThere are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitorâ€ .
What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

156-215.80 Exam
A. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.
B. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.
C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.
D. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 256
You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one
of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicious?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartView Status
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 257
Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Dynamic encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 258
How do you configure the Security Policy to provide uses access to the Captive Portal through an external
(Internet) interface?
A. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.
B. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.
C. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access on all
interfaces.
D. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access for an
external interface.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 259
The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User
Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?
A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMPT, and rlogin services.
B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of
connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.
C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.
D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 260
As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorized time-out every time a new
user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:
156-215.80 Exam
A. in the user object's Authentication screen.

B. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.
C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.
D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 261
When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to
00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you
configure this change?
A. As expert user, issue these commands:

# IP link set eth0 down
# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
# IP link set eth0 up
B. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field
(conf
:(conns
:(conn
:hwaddr (â€œ00:0C:29:12:34:56â€ )
C. As expert user, issue the command:
# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
D. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field
Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 262
John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to
designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway
policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT
department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The
current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a
static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web
Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the
policy.
156-215.80 Exam
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server
from any machine and from any location.
3) Changes from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC.
What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop?
A. John should lock and unlock his computer

B. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue
C. The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC
D. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 263
Review the rules. Assume domain UDP is enabled in the implied rules.
What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user:
A. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated.

B. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.
C. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259.
D. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 264
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 265
Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organizationâ€™s security
policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all of the following except:
A. Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B. Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions
C. Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks
D. Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/
CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517081623_70199443034f806cf2dd0a7ba15f201c&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 266
In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?
A. SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless
B. SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not
C. IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this
D. IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter, SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 267
Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?
A. cpmq set
B. Cpmqueue set
C. Cpmq config
D. Set cpmq enable
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 268
Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?
A. There is no traffic queue to be handled

B. Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU
C. Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores
D. Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 269
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:
A. run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot

B. Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to â€œfullâ€ under the CoreXL menu
C. Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot
D. run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk105261#Configuration%20R80.10
QUESTION 270
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?
A. Security Gateway API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Prevention API and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7b&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 271
What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?
156-215.80 Exam
A. When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B. When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
C. When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta
D. When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 272
The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:
A. The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated
B. The Firewall can run different policies per core
C. The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out
D. The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 273
There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one
is NOT correct?
A. Using Web Services

B. Using Mgmt_cli tool
C. Using CLISH
D. Using SmartConsole GUI console
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7b&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 274
Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication
method?
A. Dynamic ID
156-215.80 Exam
B. RADIUS
C. Username and Password
D. Certificate
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/41587.htm
QUESTION 275
Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?
A. fw conn all
B. fw ctl pst pstat
C. show all connections
D. show connections
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 276
Which remote Access Solution is clientless?
A. Checkpoint Mobile
B. Endpoint Security Suite
C. SecuRemote
D. Mobile Access Portal
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 277
What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?
A. DBSync
B. API Server
C. fwm
D. SOLR

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/r80.10-mgmt-architecture-overview.pdf
QUESTION 278
Which NAT rules are prioritized first?
A. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
C. Automatic Hide NAT
D. Automatic Static NAT
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 279
What is the difference between an event and a log?
A. Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B. A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy
C. Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems
D. Logs and Events are synonyms
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 280
The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The
traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most
likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?
A. There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated

B. The connection required a Security server
C. Acceleration is not enabled
D. The traffic is originating from the gateway itself
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 281
During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection
and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:
A. Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B. Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment
C. Dropped with negative acknowledgment
D. Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 282
Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?
A. Always delivers a file to user

B. Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files
C. Can take up to 3 minutes to complete
D. Delivers file only if no threats found
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 283
Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:
A. Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client
B. Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client
C. Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client
D. Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 284
Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B. Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category
C. Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits
D. A worldwide collaborative security network
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/support-services/threatcloud-managed-security-service/
QUESTION 285
Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT
used for identifying connection?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. TCP Acknowledgment Number
D. Source Port
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 286
When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?
A. Weight
B. Authenticated timeout
C. Schedule
D. Rate
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_QoS_AdminGuide/14871.htm
QUESTION 287
The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How
many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?
A. Six times per day

B. Seven times per day
C. Every two hours
D. Every three hours
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 288
How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check
Point Security Gateway?
A. Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode

B. Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA
C. You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario
D. It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/f2/f2faf02dba06acad8cc4c57833593df6/
CP_TE100X_TE250X_Appliance_GettingStartedGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517091196_a292abdde351bbdb4b3d28e82654b240&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 289
In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?
A. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap
B. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap
C. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap
D. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartEvent_AdminGuide/17401.htm
QUESTION 290
Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.
A. R80 Management APIB.

Identity Awareness Web Services API
C. Open REST API
D. OPSEC SDK
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
HashKey=1517091458_be29bd4732d8d22283df32ccaaffc482&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 291
Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?
A. mgmt_cli add-host â€œServer_1â€ ip_address â€œ10.15.123.10â€ --format txt

B. mgmt_cli add host name â€œServer_1â€ ip_address â€œ10.15.123.10â€ --format json
C. mgmt_cli add object-host â€œServer_1â€ ip_address â€œ10.15.123.10â€ --format json
D. mgmt_cli add object â€œServer_1â€ ip_address â€œ10.15.123.10â€ --format json
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/APIs/index.html#cli/add-host~v1.1
QUESTION 292
SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in realtime.
Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Mobile Access
C. Mail Transfer Agent
D. Threat Cloud
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/zero-day-protection/
QUESTION 293
Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via email.
An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file,
she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some
graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?
A. SandBlast Threat Emulation

B. SandBlast Agent
C. Check Point Protect
D. SandBlast Threat Extraction
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 294
What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?
A. fw ctl stat
B. clusterXL stat
C. clusterXL status
D. cphaprob stat
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 295
On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default
Log Server uses port:
A. 18210
B. 18184
C. 257
D. 18191
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 296
If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?
A. Nothing
B. TCP FIN
C. TCP RST
D. ICMP unreachable
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 297
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?
156-215.80 Exam
A. This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack
against its sender
B. This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it
prior to sending it to the intended recipient
C. This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the
SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
D. Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the
document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 298
What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?
A. If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy
B. There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT
C. You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules
D. On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a Stateful manner
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 299
The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?
A. Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B. Restart Daemons if they fail
C. Transfer messages between Firewall processes
D. Pulls application monitoring status
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 300
Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packer acceleration?
A. Source address
156-215.80 Exam
B. Protocol
C. Destination port
D. Application Awareness
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 301
Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?
A. fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

B. fwaccel stat
C. fwaccel stats
D. fw ctl templates â€“d
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 302
Please choose correct command syntax to add an â€œemailserver1â€ host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA
management CLI?
A. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B. mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
C. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
D. mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 303
The CDT utility supports which of the following?
A. Major version upgrades to R77.30

B. Only Jumbo HFAâ€™s and hotfixes
C. Only major version upgrades to R80.10
D. All upgrades

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 304
Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?
A. Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B. All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot
C. Is configured using cpconfig
D. Is only relevant when using SecureXL
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 305
What command would show the API server status?
A. cpm status
B. api restart
C. api status
D. show api status
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 306
How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
A. Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable
applications
B. Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application
C. Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation
D. Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 307
Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?
A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the
order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities
take precedence.
B. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
C. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
D. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched,
inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f850d1640792cf885336cc6ae8b2743/
CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1517092603_dd917544d92dccc060e5b25d28a46f79&xtn=.pdf
QUESTION 308
What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?
A. Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
C. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect
D. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/mobile-security/check-point-capsule/
QUESTION 309
Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?
A. UDP port 265

B. TCP port 265
C. UDP port 256
D. TCP port 256
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 310
What is true about the IPS-Blade?
156-215.80 Exam
A. in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B. in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict
C. in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to â€œall rulesâ€
D. in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 311
Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new
multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to
perform any additional tasks?
A. Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot
Security Gateway
C. Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU
and Cores
D. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot
Security Gateway | Install Security Policy
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 312
When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?
A. Any size
B. Less than 20GB
C. More than 10GB and less than 20 GB
D. At least 20GB
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 313
Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

156-215.80 Exam
A. fwd
B. fwm
C. cpm
D. cpd
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 314
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the
following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is
responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:
A. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
B. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
C. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
D. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 315
Using R80 Smart Console, what does a â€œpencil iconâ€ in a rule mean?
A. I have changed this rule

B. Someone else has changed this rule
C. This rule is managed by check pointâ€™s SOC
D. This rule canâ€™t be changed as itâ€™s an implied rule
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management APIâ€™s?
A. Typing API commands using the â€œmgmt_cliâ€ command

B. Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application
C. Typing API commands using Gaiaâ€™s secure shell (clash)19+
D. Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services
Answer: D
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#introduction
QUESTION 317
Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?
A. X-chkp-sid
B. Accept-Charset
C. Proxy-Authorization
D. Application
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 318
What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?
A. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete
C. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete
D. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 319
Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control
Blade?
A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the companyâ€™s security policy.
D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk
levels.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_AppControl_WebAdmin/60902.htm

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 320
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
A. write mem <filename>

B. show config -f <filename>
C. save config -o <filename>
D. save configuration <filename>
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 321
Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is
inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?
A. Slow Path
B. Medium Path
C. Fast Path
D. Accelerated Path
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 322
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 323
You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway.
Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

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A. fwd
B. fwm
C. cpd
D. cpwd
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 324
R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?
A. Versions R77 and higher

B. Versions R76 and higher
C. Versions R75.20 and higher
D. Version R75 and higher
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 325
You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be
used?
A. show unsaved
B. show save-state
C. show configuration diff
D. show config-state
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 326
In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?
A. SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B. SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets
C. SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances
D. SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 327
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-
Active cluster.
A. Symmetric routing
B. Failovers
C. Asymmetric routing
D. Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 328
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
A. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy
C. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy
D. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 329
What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?
A. IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B. SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client
C. SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same
D. IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/83586.htm

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 330
Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
C. Quicker than Full sync
D. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 331
Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?
A. $FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server
C. $FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway
D. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76SP.10/
CP_R76SP.10_Security_System_AdministrationGuide/105233.htm
QUESTION 332
Customerâ€™s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when
the management server is not connected to the Internet?
A. Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration
B. CPUSE online upgrade
C. CPUSE offline upgrade
D. SmartUpdate upgrade
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 333
SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:
A. Matching a log against each event definition

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B. Create an event candidate

C. Matching a log against local exclusions
D. Matching a log against global exclusions
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartEvent_AdminGuide/17401.htm
QUESTION 334
John is using Management H
A. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?
A. secondary Smartcenter
B. active Smartcenter
C. connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA
D. primary Smartcenter
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 335
Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?
A. Slow path
B. Firewall path
C. Medium path
D. Accelerated path
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 336
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B. Proactively detects threats
C. Delivers file with original content
D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed
Answer: B
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 337
The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:
B. SmartEventWeb
C. There is no Web application for SmartEvent
D. SmartView
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 338
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for
deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
A. Smart Cloud Services

B. Load Sharing Mode Services
C. Threat Agent Solution
D. Public Cloud Services
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 339
What SmartEvent component creates events?
A. Consolidation Policy
B. Correlation Unit
C. SmartEvent Policy
D. SmartEvent GUI
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 340
Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?
A. Basic â€“ Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on
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network performance
B. Optimized â€“ Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or
popular attacks
C. Strict â€“ Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance
D. Recommended â€“ Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on
network performance
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/136486
QUESTION 341
When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?
A. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

B. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority
C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority
D. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 342
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?
A. Incoming
B. Internal
C. External
D. Outgoing
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 343
When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?
A. Security policy
B. Inbound chain
C. Outbound chain
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D. Decryption is not supported
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 344
Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?
A. Capsule Docs
B. Capsule Cloud
C. Capsule Enterprise
D. Capsule Workspace
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/download/products/sg-capsule-solution.pdf
QUESTION 345
You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command
would you use to restore this backup?
A. restore_backup
B. import backup
C. cp_merge
D. migrate import
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk54100#1.1.1
QUESTION 346
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
A. Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

B. Use 1 dedicated sync interface
C. Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync
D. Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync
Answer: B
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 347
Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?
A. No, only one can be connected

B. Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time
C. Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other
administrators
D. Yes, but only one has the right to write
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 348
What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?
A. Endpoint Security Client

B. Full Agent
C. Light Agent
D. System Agent
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62838
QUESTION 349
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the
following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?
A. Accounting
B. Suppression
C. Accounting/Suppression
D. Accounting/Extended
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 350
You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were
dropped. You donâ€™t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to
use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?
A. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9
C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9
D. fw ctl miltik pq enable
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 351
Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by _____ ?
A. ELA and CPD

B. FWD and LEA
C. FWD and CPLOG
D. ELA and CPLOG
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 352
To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members?
A. fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B. fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1
C. cphaprob â€“a if
D. fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 353
What is the SOLR database for?
156-215.80 Exam
A. Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
B. Writes data to the database and full text search
C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apache_Solr
QUESTION 354
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?
A. cphaprob stat
B. cphaprob status
C. cphaprob
D. cluster state
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm
QUESTION 355
Service blades must be attached to a ______________.
A. Security Gateway
B. Management container
C. Management server
D. Security Gateway container
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 356
An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.
A. Server Units
B. Administrator Units
156-215.80 Exam
C. Account Units
D. Account Servers
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 357
In Security Gateways, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.
A. AES-128
B. AES-256
C. DES
D. 3DES
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 358
What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?
A. Cluster Protocol
B. Synchronized Cluster Protocol
C. Control Cluster Protocol
D. Cluster Control Protocol
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/5990/FILE/
sk31085_Cluster_Control_Protocol_Functionality.pdf
QUESTION 359
Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)
A. Partial log
B. Log
C. Network log
D. Full log
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: A,C,D
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/131914
QUESTION 360
Which command shows the installed licenses?
A. cplic print
B. print cplic
C. fwlic print
D. show licenses
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 361
Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up
most frequently?
A. SmartManager
B. SmartConsole
C. Security Gateway
D. Security Management Server
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 362
Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without
stopping Check Point processes?
A. All options stop Check Point processes

B. backup
C. migrate export
D. snapshot
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 363
What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?
A. It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B. It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and
delivered to the target application.
C. It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact
with the Application layer.
D. It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different
network types.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 364
What needs to be configured if the NAT property â€˜Translate destination on client sideâ€™ is not enabled in Global
Properties?
A. A host route to route to the destination IP

B. Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work
C. Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary
D. Enabling â€˜Allow bi-directional NATâ€™ for NAT to work correctly
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 365
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?
A. SmartConsole
B. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 366
In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.
A. User Center
B. Package repository
C. Download Center Web site
D. License and Contract repository
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R77_Non_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/13128.htm
QUESTION 367
When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is
saved to the:
A. Security Management Serverâ€™s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.
B. Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
C. There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.
D. SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 368
By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.
A. SHA-256
B. SHA-200
C. MD5
D. SHA-128
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 369
Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?
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A. Quick Mode Complete

B. Aggressive Mode Complete
C. Main Mode Complete
D. IKE Mode Complete
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 370
Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices
that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.
What is the possible explanation for this?
A. DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock
icon to let other administrators know it is important.
B. Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.
C. DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.
D. This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 371
When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the
given VPN tunnel.
A. Down
B. No Response
C. Inactive
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D. Failed
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018
QUESTION 372
Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?
A. Password
B. Certificate
C. Token
D. Pre-shared secret
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 373
What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?
A. ifconfig -a
B. show interfaces
C. show interfaces detail
D. show configuration interfaces
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 374
Authentication rules are defined for ____________.
A. User groups
B. Users using UserCheck
C. Individual users
D. All users in the database
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SGW_WebAdmin/6721.htm
QUESTION 375
Which Threat Tool within SmartConsole provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify
to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?
A. ThreatWiki
B. Whitelist Files
C. AppWiki
D. IPS Protections
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/82209.htm
QUESTION 376
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?
A. SSL
B. Captive Portal
C. PKI
D. RSA
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 377
The SIC Status â€œUnknownâ€ means
A. There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.
B. The secure communication is established.
C. There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.
D. The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SIC Status
After the gateway receives the certificate issued by the ICA, the SIC status shows if the Security Management
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Server can communicate securely with this gateway:

Communicating - The secure communication is established.
Unknown - There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.
Not Communicating - The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC. A
message shows more information.
QUESTION 378
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?
A. In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined
NAT-rules.
B. Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.
C. Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.
D. The public IP-address is different from the gatewayâ€™s external IP
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 379
Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?
A. Cplic verify license

B. Cplic print
C. Cplic show
D. Cplic license
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 380
To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:
A. a routing table
B. awareness of the network topology
C. a Demilitarized Zone
D. a Security Policy install
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
The network topology represents the internal network (both the LAN and the DMZ) protected by the gateway.
The gateway must be aware of the layout of the network topology to:
Correctly enforce the Security Policy.
Ensure the validity of IP addresses for inbound and outbound traffic.
Configure a special domain for Virtual Private Networks.
QUESTION 381
Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the
clear?
A. The firewall topologies

B. NAT Rules
C. The Rule Base
D. The VPN Domains
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 382
You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?
A. Create a new policy rule to block the traffic.

B. Create a Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rule to block that traffic.
C. Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.
D. Contact your ISP to request them to block the traffic.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/118300
QUESTION 383
Tom has connected to the R80 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of
making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly
afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?
A. Tomâ€™s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of
this work.
156-215.80 Exam
B. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that
computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.
C. Tomâ€™s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.
D. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache and restore changes.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 384
Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?
A. cpconfig
B. Management Command Line
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartUpdate
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
SmartUpdate GUI is the recommended way of managing licenses.
QUESTION 385
How would you determine the software version from the CLI?
A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw monitor
D. cpinfo
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 386
In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:
A. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.
B. A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.
C. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.
156-215.80 Exam
D. A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 387
When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator
to connect has a lock on:
A. Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to
make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.
B. The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first
administrator switches to Read-only.
C. The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Readonly.
D. Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can
connect to make changes using different sessions.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 388
Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?
A. AES-GCM-256
B. AES-CBC-256
C. AES-GCM-128
D. DES
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 389
To create policy for traffic to or from a specific geographical location, use the _____________.
A. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) shared policy

B. Geo policy shared policy
C. Mobile Access software blade
D. HTTPS inspection

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Shared Policies
The Shared Policies section in the Security Policies shows the policies that are not in a Policy package.
They are shared between all Policy packages.
Shared policies are installed with the Access Control Policy.
Software Blade Description
Mobile Access Launch Mobile Access policy in a SmartConsole. Configure how your
remote users access internal resources, such as their email accounts,
when they are mobile.
DLP Launch Data Loss Prevention policy in a SmartConsole. Configure
advanced tools to automatically identify data that must not go outside
the network, to block the leak, and to educate users.
Geo Policy Create a policy for traffic to or from specific geographical or political
locations.
CP_R80.10_NexGenSecurityGateway_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_NexGenSecurityGateway_Guide/137006
QUESTION 390
After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IPaddress
changes?
A. Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B. The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust
C. The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust
D. The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 391
Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?
A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
C. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
D. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)
Answer: A
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 392
In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with
write permission at the same time.
A. False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.
C. True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.
D. False, only one administrator can login with write permission.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 393
Which one of the following is TRUE?
A. Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both
C. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action
D. Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 394
Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?
A. Distributed
B. Bridge Mode
C. Remote
D. Standalone
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation
86429.htm
QUESTION 395
An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.
A. Shared secret
B. Certificate
C. One-time password
D. Token
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 396
You can see the following graphic:

156-215.80 Exam
What is presented on it?
A. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B. Shared secret properties of Johnâ€™s password.
C. VPN certificate properties of the Johnâ€™s gateway.
D. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 397
When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

156-215.80 Exam
A. Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B. Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.
C. Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.
D. Not reflected for any users who are using that template.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The users and user groups are arranged on the Account Unit in the tree structure of the LDAP server. User
management in User Directory is external, not local. You can change the User Directory templates. Users
associated with this template get the changes immediately. You can change user definitions manually in
SmartDashboard, and the changes are immediate on the server.
QUESTION 398
Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.
A. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results
C. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway
D. The amount of logs being stored is less than the usual in older versions
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 399
Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:
A. Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B. There is Load Sharing solution set up
C. Only when there is Unicast solution set up
D. There is High Availability solution set up
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 400
Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and
156-215.80 Exam
configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?
A. Save Policy
B. Install Database
C. Save session
D. Install Policy
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 401
From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security
Management Server?
A. Verify a Security Policy

B. Open a terminal shell
C. Add a static route
D. View Security Management GUI Clients
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 402
Which of the following are types of VPN communities?
A. Pentagon, star, and combination

B. Star, octagon, and combination
C. Combined and star
D. Meshed, star, and combination
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 403
What are the three types of UserCheck messages?
A. inform, ask, and block

B. block, action, and warn
C. action, inform, and ask
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D. ask, block, and notify
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_AdminGuide/94711
QUESTION 404
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?
A. URL Filtering and Network

B. Network and Threat Prevention
C. Application Control and URL Filtering
D. Network and Application Control
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 405
Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?
A. Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

B. It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually
C. It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table
D. With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing
change
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 406
The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.
A. NAT
B. Firewall
C. Global Properties
D. Object Explorer
Answer: C
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 407
How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser
administrator?
A. By impersonating the administrator with the â€˜Login asâ€¦â€™ option

B. They cannot be seen
C. From the SmartView Tracker audit log
D. From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click â€˜View Changesâ€¦â€™
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 408
Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and
security performance?
B. Threat Emulation
C. Logging and Status
D. Monitoring
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DS_Monitoring.pdf
QUESTION 409
Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway.
Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole
in order to get the connection working?
A. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.

2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gatewayâ€™s external IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
B. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Configure automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.
3. Publish the policy.
C. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Configure automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
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D. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.

2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gatewayâ€™s external IP.
3. Publish the policy.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 410
The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.
A. False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties
B. True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration
C. True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server
D. False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 411
Consider the Global Properties following settings:

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The selected option â€œAccept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)â€ means:
A. UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing
topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
B. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before
first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
C. No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before
first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
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D. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a
Security Policy.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 412
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80?
A. By using IPSEC
B. By using SIC
C. By using ICA
D. By using 3DES
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 413
Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?
A. 259, 900
B. 256, 257
C. 8080, 529
D. 80, 256
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://digitalcrunch.com/check-point-firewall/list-of-check-point-ports/
QUESTION 414
What is the purpose of the CPCA process?
A. Monitoring the status of processes

B. Sending and receiving logs
C. Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server
D. Generating and modifying certificates
Answer: D
156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 415
The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for
troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able
to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?
A. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.

Create a new access role.
Add tcpdump to the role.
Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.
B. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.
Create a new access role.
Add tcpdump to the role.
Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
C. Create a new access role.
Add expert-mode access to the role.
Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
D. Create a new access role.
Add expert-mode access to the role.
Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 416
After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default
gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default
gateway to 192.168.80.1.
A. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24

set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 on
save config
B. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0
add static-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 on
save config
C. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0
add static-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 on
save config
D. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24
add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 on
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save config
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 417
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?
A. Check Point INSPECT Engine

B. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
C. Check Point Update Engine
D. Check Point Upgrade Installation Service
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/129978
QUESTION 418
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a
call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet
connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do
you review the logs to see what the problem may be?
A. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B. Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet
C. Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet
D. Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Managerâ€™s tablet
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 419
What are the advantages of a â€œshared policyâ€ in R80?
A. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway
B. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security
Management Server
C. Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package
D. Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another
managed Security Gateway
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 420
To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
A. Protections
B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 421
What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?
A. Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B. Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.
C. To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D. Used to better optimize a policy.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway.
Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not allowed by the earlier rules.
There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic.
QUESTION 422
What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?
A. Destination and Hide

B. Hide and Static
C. Static and Source
D. Source and Destination

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
A Security Gateway can use these procedures to translate IP addresses in your network:
Static NAT - Each internal IP address is translated to a different public IP address. The Firewall can allow
external traffic to access internal resources.
Hide NAT - The Firewall uses port numbers to translate all specified internal IP addresses to a single
public IP address and hides the internal IP structure. Connections can only start from internal computers,
external computers CANNOT access internal servers. The Firewall can translate up to 50,000 connections
at the same time from external computers and servers.
Hide NAT with Port Translation - Use one IP address and let external users access multiple application
servers in a hidden network. The Firewall uses the requested service (or destination port) to send the traffic
to the correct server. A typical configuration can use these ports: FTP server (port 21), SMTP server (port
25) and an HTTP server (port 80). It is necessary to create manual NAT rules to use Port Translation.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm
QUESTION 423
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the
same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She
has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login
into Gaia is also correct.
What is the most likely reason?

156-215.80 Exam
A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa
requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating
System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.
C. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and
cleared any other administrator sessions.
D. Authentication failed because Vanessaâ€™s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console
update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 424
What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsoleâ€™s
tab, and the Install Policy button within a specific policy?
A. The Global one also saves and publishes the session before installation.
B. The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.
C. The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.
D. The second one pre-selects the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 425
Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?
A. Internal Certificate Authority

B. Token
C. One-time Password
D. Certificate
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
To establish the initial trust, a gateway and a Security Management Server use a one-time password. After the
initial trust is established, further communication is based on security certificates.
Reference:

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 426
John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing an R77.30 Check Point Security
Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To
make Johnâ€™s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy,
what must John do?
A. Logout of the session

B. File > Save
C. Install database
D. Publish the session
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Installing and Publishing
It is important to understand the differences between publishing and installing.
You must do this: After you did this:
Publish Opened a session in SmartConsole and made changes.
The Publish operation sends all SmartConsole modifications to other
administrators, and makes the changes you made in a private session
public.
Install the database Modified network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS
profiles, but not the Rule Base.
Updates are installed on management servers and log servers.
Install a policy Changed the Rule Base.
The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the
entire database on Security Gateways (even if you did not modify any
network objects).
QUESTION 427
There are ________ types of software containers ________.
A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B. Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
C. Two; security management and endpoint security
D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
Answer: A
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
Explanation:
There are three types of Software Containers: Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint
Security.
Reference:
http://downloads.checkpoint.com/dc/download.htm?ID=11608
QUESTION 428
Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address
once___________.
A. the user connects and authenticates

B. office mode is initiated
C. the user requests a connection
D. the user connects
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Office Mode enables a Security Gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. The assignment takes place
once the user connects and authenticates. The assignment lease is renewed as long as the user is connected.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_VPN_AdminGuide/13857.htm
QUESTION 429
Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher
level of security for sensitive servers?
A. AD Query
B. Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent
C. Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication
D. RADIUS and Account Logon
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Endpoint Identity Agents and Browser-Based Authentication - When a high level of security is necessary.
The Captive Portal is used for distributing the Endpoint Identity Agent. IP Spoofing protection can be set to
prevent packets from being IP spoofed.
156-215.80 Exam
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/
CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/
EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/101858
QUESTION 430
Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?
A. Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways
B. Users can share identities with other users
C. Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways
D. Administrators can share identities with other administrators
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Identity Sharing
Best Practice - In environments that use many Security Gateways and AD Query, we recommend that you set
only one Security Gateway to acquire identities from a given Active Directory domain controller for each
physical site. If more than one Security Gateway gets identities from the same AD server, the AD server can
become overloaded with WMI queries.
Set these options on the Identity Awareness > Identity Sharing page of the Security Gateway object:
One Security Gateway to share identities with other Security Gateways. This is the Security Gateway that
gets identities from a given domain controller.
All other Security Gateways to get identities from the Security Gateway that acquires identities from the
given domain controller.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/
CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/
EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/63005
QUESTION 431
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?
A. SmartUpdate installation
B. DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
C. USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
D. Cloud based installation
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 432
Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:
A. Status monitoring
B. Policy configuration
C. Certificate authority
D. Address translation
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference:
www.checkfirewalls.com/datasheets/smartcenter_datasheet.pdf
QUESTION 433
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
A. Manage and Command Line

B. Logs and Monitor
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway and Servers
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

156-215.80 Exam
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/EN/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/EN/4x3HIUbSkxYhtcFgIKlg0w2
QUESTION 434
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.
A. Main
B. Authentication
C. Quick
D. High Alert
Answer: A
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
Explanation:
Phase I modes
Between Security Gateways, there are two modes for IKE phase I. These modes only apply to IKEv1:
Main Mode
Aggressive Mode
QUESTION 435
What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?
A. Use Office Mode

B. Use identity agents
C. Share user identities between gateways
D. Use captive portal
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Using Endpoint Identity Agents give you:
User and machine identity
Minimal user intervention â€“ all necessary configuration is done by administrators and does not require user
input.
Seamless connectivity â€“ transparent authentication using Kerberos Single Sign-On (SSO) when users are
logged in to the domain. If you do not want to use SSO, users enter their credentials manually. You can let
them save these credentials.
Connectivity through roaming â€“ users stay automatically identified when they move between networks, as
the client detects the movement and reconnects.
QUESTION 436
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
A. To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base
B. To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports
C. To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database
D. To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway.
Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not allowed by the earlier rules.
There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic.
QUESTION 437
Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a
regular basis?
B. Threat Emulation
C. Anti-Virus
D. Advanced Networking Blade
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 438
Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.
A. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

B. WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate
C. CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup
D. SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Backup and Restore
These options let you:
Back up the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database to a compressed file
Restore the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database from a compressed file
To back up a configuration:
1. Right-click the Security Gateway.
2. Select Backup and Restore > Backup.
The Backup window opens.
3. Select the backup location.
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/5375-checkpoint-gateway-firewall-backup-through-smartconsole

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 439
What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:
A. SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B. There is a blade reporting a problem
C. VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction
D. Security Gatewayâ€™s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

156-215.80 Exam
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/sc/SolutionsStatics/NEW_SK_NOID1493612962436/
active1704302237.fw.png
QUESTION 440
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the
problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

156-215.80 Exam
How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?
A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
C. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
D. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 441
Which icon indicates in the WebUI that read/write access is enabled?
A. Pencil
B. Padlock
C. Book

156-215.80 Exam
D. Eyeglasses
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 442
What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?
A. High Performance
B. Good Security
C. No Screening above Network layer
D. Transparency
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 443
Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity
Awareness?
A. Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B. Kerberos Ticket Requested
C. Account Logon
D. Kerberos Ticket Timed Out
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 444
Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways,
or__________.
A. On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B. On specific tunnels for specific gateways
C. On specific tunnels in the community
D. On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
Each VPN tunnel in the community may be set to be a Permanent Tunnel. Since Permanent Tunnels are
constantly monitored, if the VPN tunnel is down, then a log, alert, or user defined action, can be issued. A VPN
tunnel is monitored by periodically sending "tunnel test" packets. As long as responses to the packets are
received the VPN tunnel is considered "up." If no response is received within a given time period, the VPN
tunnel is considered "down." Permanent Tunnels can only be established between Check Point Security
Gateways. The configuration of Permanent Tunnels takes place on the community level and:
Can be specified for an entire community. This option sets every VPN tunnel in the community as
permanent.
Can be specified for a specific Security Gateway. Use this option to configure specific Security Gateways to
have permanent tunnels.
Can be specified for a single VPN tunnel. This feature allows configuring specific tunnels between specific
Security Gateways as permanent.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018
QUESTION 445
In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT
A. Upgrade the software version

B. Open WebUI
C. Open SSH
D. Open service request with Check Point Technical Support
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 446
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your
network computers?
A. Anti-Malware
B. IPS
C. Anti-bot
D. Anti-Spam
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Anti-Bot
156-215.80 Exam
The Need for Anti-Bot

There are two emerging trends in today's threat landscape:
A profit-driven cybercrime industry that uses different tools to meet its goals. This industry includes cybercriminals,
malware operators, tool providers, coders, and affiliate programs. Their "products" can be easily
ordered online from numerous sites (for example, do-it-yourself malware kits, spam sending, data theft, and
denial of service attacks) and organizations are finding it difficult to fight off these attacks.
Ideological and state driven attacks that target people or organizations to promote a political cause or carry
out a cyber-warfare campaign.
Both of these trends are driven by bot attacks.
A bot is malicious software that can invade your computer. There are many infection methods. These include
opening attachments that exploit a vulnerability and accessing a web site that results in a malicious download.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/102176.htm
QUESTION 447
When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed
packets are detected?
A. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Alert, None
D. Log, Allow Packets, Email
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation: Configure Spoof Tracking - select the tracking action that is done when spoofed packets are
detected:
Log - Create a log entry (default)
Alert - Show an alert
None - Do not log or alert
Reference:
QUESTION 448
Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:
A. a combination of computer groups and network

B. users and user groups
C. all of above
D. remote access clients
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
To create an access role:
1. Select Users and Administrators in the Objects Tree.
2. Right-click Access Roles > New Access Role.
The Access Role window opens.
3. Enter a Name and Comment (optional) for the access role.
4. In the Networks tab, select one of these:
Any network
Specific networks - Click the plus sign and select a network.
Your selection is shown in the Networks node in the Role Preview pane.
5. In the Users tab, select one of these:
Any user
All identified users - Includes users identified by a supported authentication method (internal users, AD
users or LDAP users).
Specific users - Click the plus sign.
A window opens. You can search for Active Directory entries or select them from the list.
6. In the Machines tab, select one of these:
Any machine
All identified machines - Includes machines identified by a supported authentication method (AD).
Specific machines - Click the plus sign.
You can search for AD entries or select them from the list.
7. Optional: For computers that use Full Identity Agents, from the Machines tab select Enforce IP spoofing
protection.
8. Click OK.
The access role is added to the Users and Administrators tree.
QUESTION 449
What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?
A. Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B. Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone
C. Remote, Standalone, and Distributed
D. Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 450
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?
A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B. Accept all encrypted traffic
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C. Specific VPN Communities

D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The first rule is the automatic rule for the Accept All Encrypted Traffic feature. The Firewalls for the Security
Gateways in the BranchOffices and LondonOffices VPN communities allow all VPN traffic from hosts in clients
in these communities. Traffic to the Security Gateways is dropped. This rule is installed on all Security
Gateways in these communities.
2. Site to site VPN - Connections between hosts in the VPN domains of all Site to Site VPN communities are
allowed. These are the only protocols that are allowed: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS and SMTP.
3. Remote access - Connections between hosts in the VPN domains of RemoteAccess VPN community are
allowed. These are the only protocols that are allowed: HTTP, HTTPS, and IMAP.
QUESTION 451
When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is
installed?
A. Distributed
B. Standalone
C. Bridge
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 452
One of major features in R80 SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT
possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?
A. A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.
B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
C. A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.
D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
156-215.80 Exam
In SmartConsole, administrators work with sessions. A session is created each time an administrator logs into
SmartConsole. Changes made in the session are saved automatically. These changes are private and
available only to the administrator. To avoid configuration conflicts, other administrators see a lock icon on
objects and rules that are being edited in other sessions
Reference:
QUESTION 453
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Before installing contract files.

B. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded, or the IP-address where the license is tied
changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 454
When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.
A. Both User and Objects databases

B. Network databases only
C. Objects databases only
D. User databases only
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
A policy package is a collection of different types of policies. After installation, the Security Gateway enforces
all the policies in the package. A policy package can have one or more of these policy types:
Access Control - consists of these types of rules:
- Firewall
- NAT
- Application Control and URL Filtering
- Data Awareness
QoS
Desktop Security - the Firewall policy for endpoint computers that have the Endpoint Security VPN remote
access client installed as a standalone client.
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Threat Prevention - consists of:

- IPS - IPS protections continually updated by IPS Services
- Anti-Bot - Detects bot-infected machines, prevents bot damage by blocking bot commands and Control
(C&C) communications
- Anti-Virus - Includes heuristic analysis, stops viruses, worms, and other malware at the gateway
- Threat Emulation - detects zero-day and advanced polymorphic attacks by opening suspicious files in a
sandbox
The installation process:
Runs a heuristic verification on rules to make sure they are consistent and that there are no redundant
rules.
If there are verification errors, the policy is not installed. If there are verification warnings (for example, if antispoofing
is not enabled for a Security Gateway with multiple interfaces), the policy package is installed with a
warning.
Makes sure that each of the Security Gateways enforces at least one of the rules. If none of the rules are
enforced, the default drop rule is enforced.
Distributes the user database and object database to the selected installation targets.
Reference:
QUESTION 455
Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?
A. RADIUS
B. Active Directory Query
C. Remote Access
D. Certificates
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 456
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?
A. HTTPS Inspection
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. URL Filtering
D. Application Control
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation:
Check Point Application Control provides the industryâ€™s strongest application security and identity control to
organizations of all sizes.
Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/
QUESTION 457
How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?
A. Saved as *.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B. Saved as *tgz under /var/CPbackup
C. Saved as *tar under /var/CPbackup
D. Saved as *tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Backup configurations are stored in: /var/CPbackup/backups/
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/107104
QUESTION 458
You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database
can be restored on that device?
A. backup
B. logswitch
C. Database Revision
D. snapshot
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point
products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the
same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be saved.
Reference:

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 459
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?
A. SmartUpdate
B. cpconfig
C. SmartConsole
D. sysconfig
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/161105
QUESTION 460
What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?
A. Source
B. Static
C. Hide
D. Destination
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 461
Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80
Management?
A. Microsoft Publisher
B. JSON
C. Microsoft Word
D. RC4 Encryption
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 462
In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway
156-215.80 Exam
A. True, CLI is the preferred method for Licensing

B. False, Central Licenses are handled via Security Management Server
C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways
D. True, Central Licenses can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 463
Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?
A. Remote Access
B. UserCheck
C. AD Query
D. RADIUS
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 464
Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.
A. 675, 389
B. 389, 636
C. 636, 290
D. 290, 675
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
A client starts an LDAP session by connecting to an LDAP server, called a Directory System Agent (DSA), by
default on TCP and UDP port 389, or on port 636 for LDAPS. Global Catalog is available by default on ports
3268, and 3269 for LDAPS.
QUESTION 465
Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway?
A. Antivirus
156-215.80 Exam
B. Data Loss Prevention

C. NAT
D. Application Control
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SGW_WebAdmin/96332.htm
QUESTION 466
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?
A. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

C. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)
D. Specific VPN Communities
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 467
In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?
A. From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

B. From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server
C. From an 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance
D. From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 468
A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is
automatically attached to a Security Gateway.
A. Formal; corporate
B. Local; formal
C. Local; central
D. Central; local
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
13128.htm
QUESTION 469
Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?
A. Users
B. Networks
C. Time
D. Machines
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 470
What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?
A. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B. To reduce the number of rules in the database.
C. To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
D. To hide the gateway from the Internet.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3
QUESTION 471
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_â€œcpview process IDâ€ .
capâ€ number of capturesâ€ ?
A. H
B. Esc
C. C
D. Space bar
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/
156-215.80 Exam
CP_R80.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.20_GA/
QUESTION 472
It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.
A. Explicit Drop
B. Implied Drop
C. Explicit CleanUp
D. Implicit Drop
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2
QUESTION 473
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object
type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?
A. Access Role
B. User Group
C. SmartDirectory Group
D. Group Template
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 474
The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block
malware.
A. Next Generation Threat Prevention

B. Next Generation Threat Emulation
C. Next Generation Threat Extraction
D. Next Generation Firewall
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 475
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate
information is _______.
A. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B. Sent to the Security Administrator.
C. Stored on the Security Management Server.
D. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 476
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?
A. Network Bandwidth Saturation

B. Buffer Overflow
C. SYN Flood
D. SQL Injection
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 477
R80 SmartConsole is supported by which of the following operating systems:
A. Windows only
B. Gaia only
C. Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows
D. SecurePlatform only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Management-Topics/R80-x-FAQ/td-p/39994
QUESTION 478
What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?
A. Application Control, DLP

B. Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.
C. ACL, SandBlast, MPT
156-215.80 Exam
D. IPS, Mobile Threat Protection
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 479
How do you manage Gaia?
A. Through CLI and WebUI

B. Through CLI only
C. Through SmartDashboard only
D. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 480
What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to the License
and Contracts repository?
A. Verification tool
B. Verification licensing
C. Automatic licensing
D. Automatic licensing and Verification tool
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 481
The â€œHit countâ€ feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count
feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to â€œNoneâ€ ?
A. No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or
alert
B. Yes, it will work independently as long as â€œanalyze all rulesâ€ tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway
C. No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged
D. Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from
supported Security Gateways
Answer: D
Section: (none)
156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 482
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
A. 2
B. 7
C. 6
D. 4
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 483
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some
logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an
objects category?
A. Limit
B. Resource
C. Custom Application / Site
D. Network Object
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
QUESTION 484
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?
A. Publish database
B. Save changes
C. Install policy
D. Activate policy
Answer: A
Section: (none)

156-215.80 Exam
Explanation
QUESTION 485
What is UserCheck?
A. Messaging tool used to verify a userâ€™s credentials

B. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access
C. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network
D. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 486
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other
Check Point architecture component?
A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B. SmartConsole
C. SecureClient
D. SmartEvent
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/158318
QUESTION 487
An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.
A. Shared secret
B. Token
C. Username/password or Kerberos Ticket
D. Certificate
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 488
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B. A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.
C. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
D. A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3
QUESTION 489
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?
A. Revisions
B. Gateway installations
C. Installation history
D. Gateway history
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 490
Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential
attack patterns from all network devices?
A. Gateway and Servers

B. Logs and Monitor
C. Manage and Settings
D. Security Policies
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 491
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?
A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
156-215.80 Exam
B. Log server
C. SmartEvent
D. Multi-domain management server
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 492
You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet.
However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your
Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?
A. Right click Accept in the rule, select â€œMoreâ€ , and then check â€œEnable Identity Captive Portalâ€
B. On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check â€œEnable Identity Captive Portalâ€
C. In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check â€œEnable Identity Captive Portalâ€
D. On the Security Management Server object, check the box â€œIdentity Loggingâ€
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 493
Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the
following?
A. Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine
B. Identity of the machine, username, and certificate
C. Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine
D. Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://ccsawannabe.blogspot.com/2016/04/check-point-identity-awareness.html
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 494
Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?
A. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

C. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)
D. Specific VPN Communities
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 495
Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?
A. Log
B. Full Log
C. Detailed Log
D. Extended Log
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 496
Which information is included in the â€œExtended Logâ€ tracking option, but is not included in the â€œLogâ€
tracking
option?
A. file attributes
B. application information
C. destination port
D. data type information
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 497
Where is the â€œHit Countâ€ feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?
A. On the Policy Package

B. On each Security Gateway
156-215.80 Exam
C. On the Policy layer

D. In Global Properties for the Security Management Server
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 498
Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?
A. SmartUpdate
B. cpconfig
C. SmartConsole
D. sysconfig
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/
html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/161105
QUESTION 499
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?
A. Pre-shared secret
B. Diffie-Hellman Public Key
C. Symmetrical IPSec key
D. Diffie-Hellman Private Key
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 500
Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.
A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

156-215.80 Exam
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 501
Examine the sample Rule Base.
What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?
A. No errors or Warnings
B. Verification Error: Empty Source-List and Service-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)
C. Verification Error: Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)
D. Verification Error: Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 502
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to
browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a
Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?
A. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B. Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked
C. Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab
D. Open SmartLog and filter for the IP address of the tablet
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 503
What is a role of Publishing?
A. The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes
them public
B. The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security
Gateways
C. The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security
Gateways
D. Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 504
Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user,
group, and/or machine?
B. Data Awareness
C. Identity Awareness
D. Threat Emulation
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 505
____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.
A. sysdown
B. exit
C. halt
D. shut-down
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 506
Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in
common?
A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

C. Specific VPN Communities
D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 507
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
A. Manage & Settings

B. Security Policies
C. Gateway & Servers
D. Logs & Monitor
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 508
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?
A. RADIUS
B. Remote Access and RADIUS
C. All of the above
D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
156-215.80 Exam
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
AD Query
Browser-Based Authentication
Endpoint Identity Agent
Terminal Servers Identity Agent
Remote Access
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62007.htm
QUESTION 509
Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Access Control
C. Desktop Security
D. Threat Prevention
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 510
An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both
offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server
(SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a
box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?
A. The Gateway is an SMB device

B. The checkbox â€œUse only Shared Secret for all external membersâ€ is not checked
C. Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway
managed by the same SMS
D. Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 511
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in
state tables?
A. INSPECT Engine
B. Next-Generation Firewall
C. Packet Filtering
D. Application Layer Firewall
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 512
What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?
A. Access Role
B. User Group
C. SmartDirectory Group
D. Group Template
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 513
View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?
A. Those rules have been published in the current session.

B. Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.
C. Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.
D. The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.
Answer: B

156-215.80 Exam
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 514
What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?
A. Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B. Username, Password, Path, Version
C. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path
D. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/ud_B7RJG2xrUQywsBK5buA2
QUESTION 515
Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?
A. License and Update

B. Package Repository and Licenses
C. Update and License & Contract
D. License & Contract and Package Repository
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
13128.htm
QUESTION 516
Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?
A. System backup
B. Save Configuration
C. Migrate
D. snapshot
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
QUESTION 517
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an
administrator use?
A. Protections
B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 518
Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?
A. Password
B. Certificate
C. MD5
D. Pre-shared secret
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 519
When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is
installed?
A. Distributed
B. Standalone
C. Bridge Mode
D. Targeted
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
86429.htm
QUESTION 520
In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.
156-215.80 Exam
A. Hide; source
B. Static; source
C. Simple; source
D. Hide; destination
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 521
An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users
to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops,
which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?
A. AD Query
B. Browser-Based Authentication
C. Identity Agents
D. Terminal Servers Agent
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 522
Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?
A. The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B. The existing license expires.
C. The license is upgraded.
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 523
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Before installing contract files.

B. After a device upgrade.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license
changes.
156-215.80 Exam
D. Only when the license is upgraded.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 524
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?
A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
B. CloudGuard
C. Distributed
D. Bridge Mode
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 525
Which of the following is NOT a valid backup command for a Security Management Server?
A. save backup
B. add backup
C. add snapshot
D. migrate export
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://www.networksecurityplus.net/2015/02/check-point-backup-and-restore-commandreference.
html
QUESTION 526
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?
A. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Alert, None
D. Log, Allow Packets, Email
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
156-215.80 Exam
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/136417
QUESTION 527
Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?
A. Users
B. Networks
C. Time
D. Machines
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 528
Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?
A. Anti-virus
B. IPS
C. Threat Emulation
D. Application Control and URL Filtering
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 529
Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?
A. backup
B. snapshot
C. Database Revision
D. migrate export
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://solvingcenter.wordpress.com/2016/07/07/checkpoint-backup-and-snapshot/
QUESTION 530
Where can I find the file for Gaia backup named backup_fw on a Check Point Appliance?
156-215.80 Exam
A. /var/log/CPbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
B. /var/CPbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
C. /var/log/backups/backup_fw.tgz
D. $CPDIR/backups/backup_fw.tgz
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 531
A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container.
There are ______________ types of Software Containers: ______________.
A. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

B. Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management
C. Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security
D. Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/a8/a81bd8771f3d7bf40a269f64f5b536e7/QuickLicenseGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1591197932_63e138c47656005c0a28456090361659&xtn=.pdf page 11
QUESTION 532
One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT
possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?
A. AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.
B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
C. AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.
D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
In SmartConsole, administrators work with sessions. A session is created each time an administrator logs into
SmartConsole. Changes made in the session are saved automatically. These changes are private and
available only to the administrator. To avoid configuration conflicts, other administrators see a lock icon on
objects and rules that are being edited in other sessions.

156-215.80 Exam
Reference:
QUESTION 533
The default method for destination NAT is _____________, where NAT occurs on the inbound interface
closest to the client.
A. Destination side
B. Source side
C. Server side
D. Client side
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
As of VPN-1 NGX, the default method for Destination NAT is "client side", where NAT occurs on the inbound
interface closest to the client.
QUESTION 534
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?
A. show cluster state

B. show active cluster
C. show clusters
D. show running cluster
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/Topics-
CXLG/Viewing-Cluster-State.htm
QUESTION 535
A(n) __________ rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified
criteria.
A. Inline
156-215.80 Exam
B. Explicit
C. Implicit accept
D. Implicit drop
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2
QUESTION 536
Fill in the blanks. A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster.
A. Standby/standby
B. Active/active
C. Active standby/active
D. Active/standby
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

156-215.80 Exam

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156-215.

Check Point Certified Security

“Best Material, Great Results”. www.certkingdom.com 1 of 227

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A. Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy.

A. Machine Hide NAT

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A. Clientless remote access

A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

A. GaiaUI; command line interface

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A. To satellites through center only

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A. Remove the installed Security Policy.

A. IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

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3DES for encryption

A. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

Directory users and computers?

A. remove database lock

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A. Rule 7 was created by the 'admin' administrator in the current session

A. The Gaia /bin/confd is locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.

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A. The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole

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A. Removed from the Rule Base.

A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

A. Read/Write, Read Only

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A. Publish or discard the session.

and has no dependency of the gateway.

A. The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway

A. Download Center Web site

D. Check Point DVD

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What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

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A. Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.

A. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings

A. set web ssl-port <new port number>

A. Connect to command line on Security Gateway / each Cluster member.

B. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

A. Log server; security management server

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A. BGP, OSPF, RIP

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A. Support for IPv6

A. IPS and Application Control

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A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

A. Translated packet and untranslated packet

To configure the interfaces:

A. User data base corruption

A. Load Sharing and Legacy

A. Block Port Overflow

A. It provides remote access to SmartConsole