ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance International Civil Aviation Organisation | Practice Paper 1. Anaitline requires a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised a) 3rd freedom b) Ist freedom ©) 2nd freedom 2. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes, a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states. ©) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. 3. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the a) Warsaw convention 1929 b) Chicago convention 1944 ©) Geneva convention 1948 4, The International Civil Aviation Organisation was established by the international convention of a) Warsaw b) The Hague ©) Chicago 5. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to a) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies b) develop principles and technique for intemational aviation ©) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft 6. Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption a) the Air Navigation Commission b)_ the Assembly ©) the CouncilInternational Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) The ‘Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considere: fa) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states ©} binding for all member states 8, Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO a) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections ©) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards 9, ‘The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with a) the security system at airports 'b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods ©) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-i-vis passenger and goods ‘transported 10, Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect a) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments b) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments ¢) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed 11, The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a personhas committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense againstpenal law a) may request such person to disembark b)_ may deliver such person to the competent authorities ©) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person 12. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed ' a) the other Contracting States b) Intemational Civil Aviation Organisation ©) United Nations 13 NRATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Pee rg eee eee 13. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is covered under 8) convention of Tokyo b) convention of Paris ©) convention of Rome 14. “Cabotage” refers to: a) a flight above territorial water ) a national air carrier ©) domestic air services 15, The second freedom of the air is, a) right to “cabotage” traffic, (trans-border traffic). b) right to overfly without landing ©) right to land for a technical stop 16. The first freedom of the air is a) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state. b) The right to land for a technical stop ©) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states, The convention which deals with offences against penal law is a) the convention of Rome b) the convention of Warsaw ©) the convention of Tokyo The convention of Tokyo applies to damage 4) caused in the territory of a contracting state aircraft registered there in, by 8° aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state b) caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state - ©) caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration19. 20. ai. 22, 23 24, International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of intemational air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is covered under a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention ©) Warsaw Convention ‘The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods ©) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft a) Warsaw Convention b) Rome Convention ©) Paris Convention ‘Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage ‘was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be ‘entitled to compensation as provided by: a) Warsaw Convention b) Chicago Convention c) Rome Convention When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals b) four letter combinations beginning with Q ©) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals ‘The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with a) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft b) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface ©) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goodsATC, Air Laves & Human Performance 25. ‘The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with a) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods b) operator's license for international scheduled aviation ©) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-4-vis passenger and goods transported An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state, Which freedom of the Air will be exercised a) Ist freedom b) 3rd freedom ©) 2nd freedom Answers:Chapter 2 Important Glossary Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway, if provided. Advisory Route, A designate route along which air traffic advisory service is available. Advisory Service, Advice and information provided by a facility to assist pilots in the safe conduct of flight ad aircraft movement. Aerodrome Traffic, All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. ‘Acronautical Information Publication (AIP). A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation. Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS). An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground- based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders. Aircraft Approach Category (AAC). A grouping of aircraft based on a Ground speed of I 3times the stall speed in the landing configuration i.e. Vat, at maximum gross landing weight. If itis necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of a speed for ‘a category, the minimum for next higher category should be used. Category A- Speed less then 91 Knots Category B- Speed 91 Knots or more but less than 121 Knots Category C- Speed 121 Knots or more but less than 141 Knots Category D- Speed 141 Knots or more but less than 166 Knots Category E- Speed 166 Knots or more 7ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Aircraft Proximity. A situation in which, in the opinion of a pilot or air traffic services personnel, the distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speed have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved may have been compromised, An aircraft proximity is classified as follows: Risk of Collision — The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which serious risk of collision has existed. Safety not Assured — The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which the safety of the aircraft may have been compromised. No Risk of Collision — The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which no risk of collision has existed. Risk not Determined — The risk classification of an aircraft proximity in which insufficient information was available to determine the risk involved, or inconclusive or conflicting evidence precluded such determination. i tification Zone (ADIZ), The area of airspace over and or water, extending upward from the surface, within which the ready identification, the location and the control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security. Airport Reference Point (ARP), A Point on the airport designated as the official airport location. Air Traffic Control Clearance, An authorization by air traffic control, for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace Ait Traffic Control Unit- A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control office or aerodrome control tower. Aitway, A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids, ALEREA. The code word used to designate an alert phase. Alerting Service. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required. Alert Phase, A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its ‘occupantsRe eee cede cere rere rE rE er reer eer Pere Important Glossary e An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing. Alternate aerodromes include the following: ‘Take-Off Alternate — An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure, En Route Alternate — An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route. Destination Alternate — An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become impossible or inadvisable t0 land at the aerodrome of intended landing. NOTE: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight. ‘Altimeter Setting. The barometric pressure reading used to adjust @ pressure altimeter {or variations in existing atmospheric pressure or to the standard altimeter setting (29.92 inches of mercury, 1013.2 hectopascals or 1013.2 millibars). QFE — The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft’s altimeter, ] ‘will cause the altimeter to read zero when at the reference datum of the airfield, QNE — The constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29, 92 || inches of mercury or 1013.25 hectopascals or 1013.25 millibars, used for expressing i flight levels. QNH— The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft's altimeter, ‘will cause the altimeter to read altitudes referenced to mean sea level ‘Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from Mean Sea Level (MSL). ‘Approach Ban. An approach procedure, for which continuation is prohibited beyond 4 specific point, and or specified height, if the reported visibility or RVR is below the minimum specified for that approach. Approach Control Service, Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights.ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Apron, A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance. Area Navigation (RNAV), A Method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of the station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained ids or a combination of these ALS Route, A specified route designated for channeling the low of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services. minal Information Servi. The provision of current routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast throughout the day or specified portion of the day. sutomatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS). A surveillance technique, in which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position fixing systems, including aireraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate. Automatic Depe veillance — BROADCAST (ADS-B). A means by which aircraft, aero- drome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as identification, positionand additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data Link. Automatic Dey lance — CONTRACT . A Means By which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated. and what data would be contained in the reports iking_Acti id. Fair, Poor, Nil). A Report Of Conditions On The Airport movement area providing a pilot with a degree/quality of braking that might be expected Braking action is reported in terms of good, fair, poor, or nil Ceiling, The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6,000 meters (20,000") covering more than half the sky (4 Octa), Circling Approach.An approach during which an aircraft maneuvers, outside of the 30° are of the centerline of the active runway, in order to achieve a suitable position from which it can continue with a visual approach.Important Glossary ., A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the ‘Appropriate Authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aircraft may ‘make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height. Control Area, A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. ‘An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided flights in accordance with airspace classification. Control Zone. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit, Current Flight Plan, The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances. Decision Altitude/Height (DA/DH), The specified altitude, or height in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual references to continue the approach has not been established. - DA is referenced to mea sea level and DH is referenced to threshold elevation. ‘The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. Distress Phase, A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its ‘occupants are threatened y grave and imminent danger or required immediate assistance. DETRESFA. The code word used to designate a distress phase. Displaced Threshold, A threshold that is located at a point on the runway other than designated beginning of the runway. Distress. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance. Distress Phase. A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance. 2eee aan ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Elevation, The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level, Emergency Phase. A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert phase or dis- tress phase. Estimated Elapsed Time. The estimated time required to proceed from one significant point to another. Estimated Off-Block Time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure. Estimated Time of Arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VER flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome, Expected Approach Time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will eave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing, Final Approach, That part of an instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified final approach fix or points or where such a fix or point is not specified, Hlight Information Centre, A unit established to provide flight information service and alerting service. Hight Information Region, An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided. Flight Information service, A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. light Plan, Specified information provided to Air Traffic Service Units, relative to the intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft BAS-LANDING SYS ILS). A system for Approach and Landing operations | utilizing GNSS, augmented by a Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS), as the primary navigational reference. 2Important Glossary avigation Satellite Svst NSS}— An “umbrella” term adopted by the Tnternational Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) to encompass any independent satellite navigation system used by a pilot to perform onboard position determinations from the satellite data. ei D An altitude derived by Jeppesen ‘or provided by State authorities, The grid MORA altitude provides terrain and man made structure clearance within the section outlined by latitude and longitude lines. MORA does not provide for NAV AID signal coverage or communication coverage. ‘Holding Point, A specified location, identified by visual or other means, in the vicinity of which the position of an aircraft in flight is maintained in accordance with air traffic control instruction ILS Categories. ‘a, ILS Category I — An ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 60m (200ft) and a visibility not less than 800m (2400ft) ora runway visual range not less than 550m (1800f1) b, ILS Category II (Special authorization required) — An ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m (100) and a runway visual range not less than 300m (10008) for airoraft categories A, B, C (D with auto landing), and not less than 350m (1200ft) for aircraft category D without auto landing. ©. ILS Category Ill (Special authorization required) — 1. IIA — An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with either a decision height lower than 30m (100ft) or with no decision height and with a runway visual range of not less than 175m (574ft). 2, IIIB — An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with either ‘a decision height lower than 15m (SOft) or with no decision height and with a runway visual range of less than 175m (574ft) but not less than 50m(150f). 3. IIC—An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations. 23ir Laws && Human Performance INCEREA.The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase. Initial Approach, That part of an instrument approach procedure in which the aircraft has departed an initial approach fix or point and is maneuvering to enter the intermediate or final approach. It ends at the intermediate fix or point or, where no intermediate segment is established, at final approach fix or point. Initial Approach Fix (IAF).A fix that marks the beginning of the initial segment and the end of the arrival segment, if applicable. In RNAV applications this fix is normally defined by a fly-by waypoint. Instrument Approach Procedure. A series of predetermined manocuvres by reference to ‘light instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if @ landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or enroute obstacle clearance apply. intermediate approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure between either the intermediate approach fix and the final approach fix or point, or between the end of a reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure and the final approach fix or point, as appropriate. Intermediate Fix (IF). A fix that marks the end of an initial segment and the beginning of the intermediate segment. In RNAV applications this fix is normally defined by a fly-by ‘waypoint, Landing Distance Available (LDA). The length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing. The landing distance available ‘commences at the threshold and in most cases corresponds to the physical length of the runway pavement. Manoeuvring Area— That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons ‘Maximum Authorised Altitude (MAA), A published altitude representing the maximum. usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. ‘Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA), The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes or route segments which ‘meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segments.Important Glossary ‘Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA), This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides known obstruction clearance 10 NM either side of the route centerline including a 10 NM radius beyond the radio fix reporting or mileage break defining the route segment, Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA). The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearances requirements between these fixes and in many countries assures acceptance navigational signal coverage. Minimum Descent Altitude or Height (MDA/DED. A specified altitude or height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual references. Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA). The lowest altitude which may be used under emergency conditions which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 meters (1000) above ail obstacles located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of 25 nautical miles radius centered on a radio aid to navigation. This altitude is for emergency use only and does not necessarily guarantee NAV AID reception. When the MSA is divided into sectors, with each sector a different altitude, the altitudes in these sectors are referred as “minimum sector altitude” ‘Missed approach Point (MAP). That point in an instrument approach at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that minimum, obstacle clearance is not infringed. Movement Area. That part of an acrodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons). Non-Precision Approach. An instrument approach using a procedure which does not employ electronic glide-slope information e.g. VOR, TACAN, ASR etc. ‘Notice to Airmen (NOTAM). A notice containing information concerning the establishment condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely Knowledge of which is essential to personnel concemed with flight operations. Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height (OCA/OCH),The lowest altitude or alternatively the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or above the aerodrome elevation as applicable (OCH) used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria (OCC). Precision Approach. An instrument approach using a facility which provides both azimuth and electronic glide-slope information. 25ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance h Primary radar equipment used to determine the position of an airralt during final approach, in terms of lateral and vertical deviations restive wg nominal approach path and in range relative to touchdown : Procedure turns are designated “ef” or “right” according to the direction of the initial turn - Procedure turns may be desi or while descending, procedure, ignated as being made either in level flight according the circumstances of each individual separation Minimnmy (RY: between FL290 ~ FL410 from 20008 to 1000ft. PI . A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical basic feat tures, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive use by ATS units, |. A reduction in the vertical separation red Navi . A statement of navigation position accuracy necessary for operation within a defined airspace, RNP is performance-based and not ependent on a specifi piece of equipment. RNP includes a descriptive number, the value being an indicator ofthe size ofthe containment area (eg, RNP-0.3, RNP-1, RNP-3, ete.) Restricted Area, An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial aanstioa Sat within which the Aight of aircrafts restricted in accordance with specified conditions. SELCAL, A selective call over radio-telephone chan ‘Signal Area— An area on landing traffic, ‘Side Step Maneuver. A visual maneuver accomplished 6 instrument approach to permit a straight in landing on a 1200 fi to either side of the runway to Which instrument a ‘stem which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft els linking a ground station with the aircraft, an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals for VFR y a pilot at the completion of an Parallel runway, not more than ipproach was conductedImportant Glossary ‘Special VFR Flight. A controlled VFR flight authorized by air traffic control to operate within a control zone under meteorological conditions below the visual meteorological conditions, ‘Special Use Airspace— Airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities. Types of special use airspace are: a. Danger Area — An airspace of defined dimensions within which act dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times. b. Prohibited Area — An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. c. Restricted Area — An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. Standard Instrument Arrival (STAR). A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) arrival route linking a significant point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a published instrument approach procedure can be commenced. Standard Instrument Departure (SID), A designated instrument flight rule (IFR) departure route linking the aerodrome or a specified runway of the aerodrome with a specified point, normally as a designated ATS route, at which the enroute phase of flight commences. ‘Stopway, A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. A stopway should have the same width as the runway with which itis associated. ‘Take-off Distance Available (TODA), The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if clearway is provided), TODA is not to exceed 1.5x TORA. ‘Take-ff Run Available (TORA). The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off. This in most cases, corresponds to the physical length of runway pavement. ‘Terminal Control Area, A control area normally situated at the confluence of ATS routed n the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes. 7ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance ‘Threshold. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing, Threshold Crossing Height (TCH). The theoretical height above the runway threshold at which the aircraft's glide slope antenna (or equivalent position) would be if the aircraft ‘maintains the trajectory of the ILS glide slope, MLS glide path or charted descent angle. ‘Total Estimated Elapsed Time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VER flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination aerodrome. ‘Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE). The highest clevation in the first 3000f of the landing surface. ‘Transition Altitude. The altitude in the vicinity of an aerodrome at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude above mean sea level ‘or height above the aerodrome depending on whether QNH or QFE is set on the altimeter. ‘Transition Layer, The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. The depth of this layer will normally be insignificant and will in any case never exceed 500 ft ‘Transition Level. The lowest flight level above the transition altitude, Tt will vary in accordance with the relationship between the QNH and the standard pressure datum, Uncertainty Phase. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants. Urgency,A condition conceming the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance. ‘Visual Approach. An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain. Wake Turbulence, The term “wake turbulence” is used to describe the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of large jet aircraft, in preference to the term “wake vortex” which describes the nature of the air masses.Stee Important Glossary Wake Turbulence Categorisation of Aircraft. Wake turbulence separation minima shall ibe based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass as follows: Heavy (H). all aircraft types of 136,000 kg or more Medium(M). aircraft types less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg Light (L). aircraft types of 7000 kg or less Way Point. A specified geographical location used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation.ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance ICAO Abbreviations and Decode | Practice Paper 1 “ASDA” (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is 8) The length ofthe take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way Provided), b) The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided). ©) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (ifprovided). Abbreviation DER mean a) Distance end of route. 6) Departure end of route, ©) Departure end of runway. “TODA” take-off distance available is {) The length ofthe take-off run availabe plus the length of clearway available. b) The length of the runway available plus the length of cleanway available, ©) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway. Answers:Classification of Airspace | Prac: Classification of Airspace e Paper What is the speed limit in class E airspace a) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100 b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 ©) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UPTO FL 100 ‘The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 10.000 ft AMSL a) Not applicable b) 250KTIAS ©) 250KT TAS ‘The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 10.000 ft AMSL is a) Not applicable b) 250 KT TAS c) 250KTIAS The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 10.000 ft AMSL is a) 250KT TAS b) 2S0KTIAS ©) Not applicable The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m/10,000 ft AMLS is a) 260 KTIAS b) 250KTIAS ©) not applicable 98ATC, Air Laus & Human Performance 10. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures 8) need not tobe identical with those applicable inthe underlying fight information region ®) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region ©) must be as indicated by ICAO council ‘The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B is 8) 8km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 fi) AMSL and clear of clouds 5) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 £) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300m vertical from clouds ©) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10,000 ff) AMSL, clear of clouds A VER flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B will be following minima 8) 8 km below 3050 m (10,000 ff) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300m vertical from clouds 5) 5 kan below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds ©) 5.km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds A VER flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima 8) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL. 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5b) _Skmat or above 3050m (10.000 ) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds ©) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ff) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds An ATS airspace where IFR and VER flights are permitted, all Aights are subject ‘oair trafic control service and IFR flights are separated from other [FR flights and from VER flights VER flights are separated from IFR fligh's and receine rete information in respect of other VER flights is classified as a) Airspace D ») Airspace C ©) Airspace Ei 12, 13. 14. 15. Classification of Airspace ‘An ATS airspace where IFR and VER flights are permitted, all lights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as a) Airspace D b) Airspace C ©) Airspace B An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, and all fights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: a) Airspace B b) Airspace D ©) Airspace E ‘An ATS airspace where IFR and VER are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air ‘Traffic Control Service and ere separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as a) Airspace E b) Airspace D ©) Airspace B ‘An ATS irspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified a) Airspace D b) Airspace G ©) Airspace F ‘An ATS airspace where IFR and VER are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as a) Airspace G b) Airspace F ©) Airspace C 7I ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 16. Area Control Centers issue clearances for the purpose of a) Providing flight Information Service b) Achieving separation between IFR flights ©) Achieving separation between controlled flights 17. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of a) Providing alerting services b) Providing flight Information Service ©) Achieving separation between controlled flights 18, You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 2230, What does it mean? a) Do not take off before 2230 5) Ifnot airborne until 2230 then a new clearance has to be issued ©) The take-off clearance is expected at 2230 Answers:ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Civil Aviation Organisation and Aeronautical Information Service in India | Practice Paper When are ATIS broadcasts is updated 3) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VER, otherwise hourly ») Upon receipt of any official weather ©) when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active munway or instrument approach in use The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed a) 30seconds b) I minute c) 2 minutes Whenever ATIS is provided the broadcast information shall be updated a) As prescribed by the state 5) At least every half an hour independently of any significant change ©) Immediately a significant change occurs Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS. message shall be the responsibility of? a) The meteorological office b) The air trafic services ©) Both air traffic services and the meteorological office ATIS broadcast a) Shall not be transmitted on the voice ofa VOR b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR ©) Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS10, ul Civil Aviation Organisations and Aeronautical Information Management in India Section of AIP that contains information elements relating to area sand/or routes for which meteorological service is provided a) COM. b) RAC. ©) GEN. ‘The information elements relating to refueling facilities and limitations on refueling services available at an aerodrome is given in .. section of AIP a) SAR. b) FAL, ©) AD, Which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited,restricted and dangerous areas a) ENR. b) MAP. ©) GEN. ‘A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, ‘administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called a) NOTAM. b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). ©) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). ‘Navigation Procedures that are distributed in advance of its effect a) ATS NOTAM. b) NOTAM RAC, ) AIRAC. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory and this shall include the preparation and origination of a) Only NOTAM’s and Circulars. b) Only AIP and NOTAM’s ‘) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package and PIBATC, dir Lans & Human Performance 12, 13, 4, 15. 16. 17. The closure of runway for a year because of maintenance will be published a) Only in NOTAM b) In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. ©) Only in AIP In which part of the AIP one can find a lst with “location indicators” a) GEN b) AGA ©) ENR An integrated acronautical information package consists of the following elements a) AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM tind PIB, AIC and checklist summaries b) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries ¢) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summaries {The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by a) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the arca concemed and associated figures ©) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory followed the letters P. R and D and associated figures ©) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed byP, Rand D In order to avoid confusion the identification numbers are given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of a) Atleast 2 months after cancellation of the area b) Atleast 6 months after cancellation of the area, ©) Atleast one year after cancellation of the area ‘Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration, which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be Published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration if a) Six months or longer b) Three months or longer ©) One year or longerChvil Aviation Organisations and Aeronautical Information Management in India 20, Ali 22; 23, 18. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifiable ‘A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of a) Not more than 28 days b) Not more than three months ¢) Not more than one month A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of a) Not more than 10 days b) No more than 15 days c) Not more than one month ‘The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic cruption in progress or voleano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 260 or is expected to rise above FL 260, the level of alert colour code is a) YELLOW b) RED ©) GREEN Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts a) Visibility minima b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector ©) OCH or OCA, Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts in the AIP a) OCA or OCH b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector ©) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternateATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Bo 24, The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication are a) GEN, ENR (enroute) and AD (aerodromes) b)_ GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. ©) GEN, ENR, RAC, AD 25, The SIGMET service is in the AIP, is given in the following part of AIP a) ENR b) GEN ©) AGA 26. The information concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are in the ............ part of the AIP a) AD b) FAL c) GEN 27. The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the seseesseessseee att of the AIP a) GEN b) ENR ©) AD ‘The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication are a) GEN, ENR and AD b) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. ©) GEN, ENR, RAC, AD A notice containing information concerning flight safety.air navigation, technical, ‘administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is referred as ) Acronautical Information Publication b) NOTAM. ©) Aeronautical Information Circular In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas a) AGA. b) ENR. c) MAP.Civil Aviation Organisations and Aeronautical Information Management in India | 31. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and | information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration if a) Three months or longer b) Six months or longer ©) One year or longer 32. An integrated acronautical information package consists of the following elements | a) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP;NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;checklists and summaries b) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIPNOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries ©) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries 33, The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows a) NOTAM b) Trigger NOTAM | ©) AIP Supplements 34. The closure of a runway for a year because of maintenance shall be published | a) only in NOTAM b) only in AIP | ©) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. | Answers: | T]2 13 sLe]7]*]*]]n[e[ elu [is bfatel[befelele[alfelefe][o}oalie«|r 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 m2 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | © b a © © a © a b © b a © > i 31 | 32,] 33 | 34 | ]ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) and Visual Flight Rules (VFR) | Practice Paper An aircraft flying above the sea between 5 500 feet MSL and 8 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR must ensure a) 2.000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, & km visibility ©) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility. ‘The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “B” above 10 000 feet MSL are: a) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 fect verticaly from clouds, 8 nm visibility b) 1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 NM vi ©) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility ‘The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “G” above 10 000 feet MSL is a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility ©) I nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility , Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying [FR outside controlled airspace ) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometers of the estimated position of the aircraft b) 2.000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometers of course ©) 1.000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course An aircraft is flying under Instrument Plight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is ) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome and then inform Air Traffic Services of landing b) follow a VER flight level and continue flight onto destination ©) continue fight onto destination while complying with last received clearances then with filed flight planVisual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) and Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight a) at least 2000 feet within SKM of the estimated position 'b) at least 1000 feet within SKM of the estimated position ©) at least 2000 feet within 8KM of the estimated position YMC minima for VER flights in Class B airspace; above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL are a) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds b) 5.km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ©) 8km visibility, and clear of clouds During an TFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace if one experiences @ two-way radio communication failure a) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination, b) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC 1c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ‘The MSA is established around a navigation facility, in general is valid within a sector of a) 25NM b) 10NM ©) 1SNM A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should a) Read back should be unsolicited. b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification. ©) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation Change from IFR to VFR will always take place a) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions b) on the initiative of the aircraft commander ©) as instructed by an air traffic control unitATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 12. An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VER, 8) Yes, the plot in command must inform ATC using the phrase “cancelling my IER flight”. ) No, remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan ©) No, only ATC can clear such change. Answers:“Instruments Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and Instruments Flight Rules (IMC) and Special VFR on anti atmnd aecaa Instruments Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and Instruments Flight Rules (IMC) and Special VFR | Practice Paper 1. For controlled traffic separation minima may be reduced in the vieinity of an airport a) Atthe discretion of the controller b) When the PIC in the following aircraft has the preceding aireraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation ©) Ifthe PIC of the involved aircraft requests 2, Ifthe crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will reports “field in sight’, a clearance for ‘visual approach’ may be given under conditions a) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic b) Continued approach will be according to VFR ©) The approach must be passing the FAF 3, tthe commencement of final approach, if the controller passes wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft, The mean cross -wind component significant change is must be at least a) 3KT b) SKT ©) 10KT 4. Atthe commencement of final approach, ifthe controller possesses wind information jn the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft, The mean tail-wind component significant change must be at least a) SKT b) 4KT o) 2KT 253ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance ee Sree Atthe commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant must be at least a) SKT b) 10KT ©) 8KT During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions the traffic avoidance shall be e responsibility of a) the approach controller. ) the pilot in command. ©) the radar controller. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is when independent parallel approaches are being conducted a) 300m (1000 fty b) 200 m (660 f) ©) 150m (500 f) Arminimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum distance, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted a) SNM b) 3NM ©) 1NM Alerting service shall be provided to 2) all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. ) all controlled fight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to al aircraft having filed a fight plan or otherwise known to the ATS. ©) any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.Instruments Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and Instruments Flight Rules (IMC) and Special VFR 10. i 12, 13, 14. 15. Which does ATC Term “Radar contact” means a) ATC is receiving the transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until advised that contact has been lost. b) the aircraft has been identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility ©) the aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. What is meant when departure control instructs ‘resume own navigation’ while vectored to an airway a) aircraft should maintain that airway by using own navigation equipment. b)_ Radar Service is terminated. ©) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC. ‘An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR ‘mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by 2) More than 200 ft. b) 3008 ©) More than 300 ft. ‘The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below a) 3NM b) SNM ©) 2NM ‘The radar controller shall not request to adjust the speed, where the aircraft has passed a) 4NM from the threshold on final approach. b) 2M from the threshold on final approach. ©) 3M from the threshold on final approach. ‘The ..........2ninimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the ‘same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence a) 2NM. b) 3NM. ©) SNM.ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 16. ‘The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course is a) 2.0NM between aircraft on the same localizer course, b) _3.0NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course, ©) 3.0NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be a) 3.0NM, b) 5.0NM. ©) 10.0NM, ‘Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance a) The ATC. ) The air waffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan ©) The pilot in command. Answers. 2Aerodrome Markings, Signs and Lighting Aerodrome Markings, Sign and Lighting | Practice Paper 1, The white dumbbell with black perpendicular bar indicates that a) lider flying is performed outside the landing area ) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ©) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only z Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off provided that they can be again brought into operation a) Atleast one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft b) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft ¢) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft 3, An “Instrument runway” is the runway intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, Il and IL b) Precision approach runways category I, Hand IIL ©) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, I and IIL. 4, The “Code letter D” shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aireraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: a) 18m. b) 1Sm. °) Bm. 5. “TODA” is a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). b). The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided) ©) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance “Clearway” is defined rectangular area established to a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height, b) Reduce the risk of damage to aireraft running off a runway. ©) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations ‘The “code letter” chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheelbase of 15 mis a) Code letter “B”, b) Code letter “C". ©) Code letter “D”, According to the “Aerodrome Reference Code”, the “Code Letter E” shall ides an aircraft wingspan of a) 52 mup to but not including 65 m. b) 36m up to but not including 52 m. ©) 24 mup to but not including 36 m. In the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the code element 2 shall identify a) The length of the aircraft fuselage. ‘b) Only the aircraft wingspan. ©) The aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span, The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as a) SE. b) 6D. °) 2B. According with the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the “Code number 4” shall identify an aircraft reference field length of a) 1600m, b) 1800 mand over. ©) 1500m.12, 13. 14, 15. 16. 1. Aerodrome Markings, Signs and Lighting ‘The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area, where a) Anaircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. b) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. ©) Alanding aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. 4) Anaircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped. “ASDA” (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is a) The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided). 'b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4 a) 35 meters b) 45 meters ©) 50 meters Runway edge lights expected in the case of a displaced threshold shall be a) Flashing white. b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour. ©) Fixed lights showing variable white. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be a) Flashing green, b) Fixed green. ©) Flashing white. ‘The light shown by an “Aerodrome Identification Beacon” at a land aerodrome shall be a) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code. b) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. ©) Green colour identification given by Morse Code. 291ATC, dir Laws & Human Performance 18, 19, 20. 21 22, 23, 24, In the “VASIS”, how many light units are in each wing bar a) 4 2. ) 3. In precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light Sources on the center line have a length of a) 300m, b) 150m, ©) 200m. How many red lights musta pilot see, in final approach during normal glide path defined by a PAPI a) 3 b) 2 o4 Taxiway center line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be a) Fixed lights showing green b) Fixed lights showing biue. ©) Fixed lights showing yellow, {na precision approach category I lighting system, the center line and crossbar lights shall be a) Fixed lights showing variable white. ) Flashing lights showing variable white, ©) Fixed lights showing variable green, The abbreviation PAPI stands for a) Precision Approach Power Indicator. b) Precision Approach Path Index. ©) Precision Approach Path Indicator, ‘The “PAPI” shall consist of @) wing bar of 2 sharp transition mult-lamp equally spaced b) Two wing bars of4 sharp transition muti-lamp or paired units equally spaced. ©) Awing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced 292Aerodrome Markings, Signs and Lighting 25. 26. 21. 28, 29. 30, 31. In the “PAPI” system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when a) Below the approach slope. b) Above the approach slope. ©) Onor close to the approach slope. In the case of parallel ranways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented by a) aletter- for example 2 parallel runways “L” and “R” - for 3 “ b) anumber like “0” and “01” for 2 parallel runways. ) alletter for 2 parallel runways. “crand “R”. Taxiway edge lights shall be a) Flashing showing blue. b) Fixed showing green. ©) Fixed showing blue. Runway end lights shall be a) Fixed lights showing variable white. b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. ) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. Runway threshold lights shall be a) Fixed lights showing green or white colours. b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. ©) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. ‘Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. b) mandatory instruction signs, red background with black inscriptions. ‘c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 (‘Calvert’) type of approach light system a) 5 crossbars, center line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit b) 4 crossbars, center line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit ©) 3.crossbars, center line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit 293ne ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 32. What is the Jeng caTII 1 a) 300m ] b) 150m ©) 900m th of an approach lighting system of a Precision-approach runway 33. What is a “barrette” | a) aCAT I orIIl holding position, 5) ahighest obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway, I ©) three or more grou 34. A precision approach runway CAT. Il is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft, 5) a RVR of 250 meters and DH of not less than 200 fi. ©) @RVR of $50 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft, 35. When a fixed-distance marki ) 600 m from threshold ») 150 m from threshold | ©) 300 m from threshold ing has to be provided this marking shall commence at 36. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist 8) always ofa straight row of lights towards 5) of group of at east three white lights Aashs ©) offiashing lights only, the runway ng in sequence towards the runway , 37. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that speci 4) 1000 meters b) 420 meters ©) 900 meters 38. High intensity obstacle lights should be a) Flashing white. b) Flashing red. ¢) Fixed red,ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 32, 38. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT IL a) 300m b) 150m ©) 900m. What is a “barrette” a) aCAT IT or Ill holding position. ») a highest obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway. ©) three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. A precision approach runway CAT, I] is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. b) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. ©) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. ‘When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at a) 600 m from threshold ») 150m from threshold ¢) 300m from threshold ‘Runway-lead-in lighting should consist 8) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway §) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway , ©) of flashing lights only, Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system a) 1000 meters b) 420 meters ©) 900 meters High intensity obstacle lights should be a) Flashing white. b) Flashing red. ©) Fixed red. 294ae cece cece ere rereec reer eter Aerodrome Markings, Signs and Lighting 39. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be a) Flashing red or preferably yellow. b) Fixed red or preferably orange. ©) Fixed red or preferably blue 40. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be a) Fixed red. b) Flashing red. ©) Flashing yellow. 41, ‘The runway edge lights shall be a) red b) blue ©) white 42. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire-fighting is based on a) The longest aeroplane maximum width only 'b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. ©) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width, 43. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates a) glider flying is performed outside the landing area b) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only ©) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways 44, Taxiway center line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be a) Fixed lights showing blue. b) Fixed lights showing yellow. ©) Fixed lights showing green. 45. “Code letter D” shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer ‘main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be a) 25m. b) 18m. ©) 15m. 295ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 46. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at a) 450:m from threshold ) 600 m from threshold ©) 300 m from threshold 47. Taxiway edge lights shall be a) Fixed showing blue. b) Fixed showing green. ©) Fixed showing yellow. 48. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be a) Fixed red. b) Flashing red. ©) Flashing yellow. 49. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided,should be a) Flashing white. b) Fixed green, ©) Flashing green. Answers: 1T2 3 [sts [6 [7 Ts [9 opr] 2[s[ia[as[ie fz [0 blafs[afafalolalelc[olalelolelelelelalbla 22 | 23 | 24 | 28 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 [35 | 36] 37] 38/39] 40] 41] a2] ajefcTe[alcfefefalalelelalc|blelalalalelec 43 | 44] 45 [46 | 47 | a8 | a9 efe[efelalalaSSS Designators of ATS Routes and its use in Voice Communications Designators of ATS Routes and its use in Voice Communications | Practice Paper 1. The identification of each probibited, restricted and danger area shall be formulated by 2) Thelletters P Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)followed by figures b) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or teritory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures. ©) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restrictedjand D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures 2, RNAV airways are identified with letter a) RN b R oA In India “W” airways are earmarked for a) domestic routes b) high altitude routes c) wide area navigation routes. Answer: / 299ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Altimeter Setting Procedure | Practice Paper The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing a) Transition level b) Transition layer. ©) Transition altitude, The transition altitude of an aerodrome in India should not be below a) 4000 fi. b) 25008. ©) 1500 fi. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported as a) height level b) height. ©) altitude, The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported as a) height. b) flight level. ©) altitude, During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as a) flight level during descent b) altitude above mean sea level during climb ©) altitude above mean sea level during descent ‘Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done a) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. b) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. ©) only at transition altitude,Altimeter Setting Procedures 10. 12, In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used hy the aireraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude b) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude ©) flight level on or below the transition level ‘At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter (QNH) setting be set a) Within the transition layer 'b) When passing the transition altitude ©) When passing the transition level The transition level shall be a) calculated and decided by the commander b) the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established ©) the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established ‘The transition level is a) calculated by ATS }b) published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome ©) calculated by the commander The transition level 2) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established ©) for the aerodrome is published in the ALP ‘The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported as a) height level. b) fight level. ©) altitude, 305ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 13. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical Position of the aircraft shall be expressed i ) flight level on or below the transition level b) flight level on or below the transition altitude ©) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude Answers: 1 a 3 3 7 & 0 u_ |_| a3 [ls © €ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance ICAO Flight Plan | Practice Paper In the ATS flight plan item 7 fora radio equipped aircraf, the identifier must always include 8) the operating agency designator b) the aircraft registration marking ©) the RTF call sign to be used during flight Er the event that SELCAL requirement is prescribed by an appropriate authority the SELCAL code will be entered in the .....ex. Section of the ATS fight plan a) OTHER INFORMATION ) EQUIPMENT ©) ROUTE Foran IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of aval i the estimated time at which the aircraft 4) will leave the initial approach fix to stat the final approach, b) will land ©) will reach overhead destination aerodrome. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is 2) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. }) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. ©) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks, A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the rants, True Air Speed at cruising level varies o is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by a) +10% b) 42% 45%10, ul ICAO Flight Plan The letter “L” is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the ‘maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to a) 20,000 kg. b) 14,000 kg. ©) 7,000 kg, The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible when the expected delay is a) 5 minutes or more. b) 15 minutes or more ©) 10 minutes, A “current flight plan” is a a) filed flight plan. b) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included. ©) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practiced between aeroplane and ATC. When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than a) | hour flying time or 500 km b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km ©) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km (On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point PAPA at 350 kis at flight level 280, you write a) PAPA/K0350 FL280 b) PAPA/NO35O F280 ©) PAPA/N350 FL280 Tn the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to: a) the required fuel for the flight b) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes ©) the total usable fuel on board 32112, ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance If your destination sirport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write a) ZZZZ b) AAAA ©) XXXX Inthe ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing 2) "an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded ») the plan may not be filed until the information is available ©) “TBN” (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box Ia he ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist a) SIDs should be entered but not STARs ) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate ©) STARS should be entered but not SIDs For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is a) heavy “H" ») light“. ©) medium “M" Prior to an IFR fight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: “Total estimated time” is the time elapsed from 4) _taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing. b) take-off until landing. ©) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome, Ii the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as a) TAS b) IAS ©) CAS18, 19. 20. ai. 23, ICAO Flight Plan ‘Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct a) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VER flights. b) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure. ©) In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the time of departure. The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VER flight plan is the estimated time a) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. b) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time) ©) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. ‘When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan then ATC hhas to be informed in case a) ofan emergency. b) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan. ©) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. Ifno ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form a) write XXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/ followed by the name of the airport b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/ followed by the name of the airport ©) write Z2Z2Z in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/ followed by the name of the airport. A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight 2) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific fight plan has to be filed b) The airline’s “Operations * Department has to transmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure. ¢) It is not possible to plan another destination and the flight has to be simply cancelled that day. In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as a) FL320 b) $3200 ©) F320ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 450 knots will be entered as. a) KN4S0 b)No4s0 ©) 0450K An aireraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is a) heavy “H” b) heavy/medium “H/M” ©) medium “Mt When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in a) Local mean time b) local standard time ©) UTC Inthe ATS flight plan item 15, itis necessary to enter any point at which change of ‘cruising speed takes place, For this purpose, a “change of speed” is defined as a) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more b) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more ©) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more On an ATC flight plan, the letter “Y” is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules a) IFR b) VER followed by IFR ©) TER followed by VFR An aeroplane is flying from an aizport to another, In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is 150 kt, true airspeed 200 kt, average ground speed 230 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows: a) K0230 b) NO200 ) K0200ICAO Flight Plan 30. 31. 32, 33 34, 35. ‘When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass a) maximum certified take-off mass b) estimated take-off mass ©) maximum certified landing mass ‘When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VER, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be a) NS ) G oY a x When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as a) HSS ») us ©) 155 In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) a) N b) NS 9 G In the ATS flight plan Item 10, “standard equipment” is considered to be a) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder b) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS ©) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least a) 20 occasions b) 50 occasions ©) occasions 325ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 36, 37, 38 39, 40. 4. In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the a) estimated time over the first point enroute b) estimated take-off time ©) estimated off-block time The planned cruising speed forthe firs leg or al ofthe cruising portion ofthe fight ‘must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the a) true air speed (TAS). b) estimated ground speed (G/S). ©) indicated air speed (IAS). A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled light at least 2) 10 minutes prior to departure b) 60 minutes prior to departure ©) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks, In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks ©) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks, Prior to an TFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: “Time” is @) planned take-off time. b) the time of flight plan filing, ©) estimated off-block time. In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route 8) the letters “DCT” should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route ») itis necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route ©) the words “as cleared” should be entered 326ICAO Flight Plan 42. 43, 44. 45. 46. 41. 48. Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes “NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT” In this case “NUMBER” means a) the registration number of the aireraft b) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan ©) the number of aircraft flying in a group In the ATS fight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment cartied on the flight should be indicated by a) circling the relevant box +) listing the items carried on the “REMARKS” ©) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried Significant point at 42°35) North 041°15> West should be entered as a) N04235W04115 b) 42°35) NO41° 15)W ¢) 4235NO4115E In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to a) go off blocks b) take-off ©) start-up ‘The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is, a) indicated air speed b) true air speed ©) ground speed On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked “speed” the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is a) ‘The equivalent airspeed b) The true airspeed ©) The indicated airspeed In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of a) VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometers, ) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometers ©) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles 327ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance eer ee te eee ee eee eee o 49. When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered a) *Z222” followed by an entry in Item 18 b) “XXXX" followed by an entry in Item 18 ©) the most descriptive abbreviation In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is. a) B ba 0c Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VER? a) I bv oY ‘Which letter is used in a flight planto indicate that the fight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR a) I b) Zz o Vv ‘The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VER flight plan is the estimated time a) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time), b) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. ©) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus a) 5% b) 3% ©) 2%ICAO Flight Plan 55, The letter “L” is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to 1) 5700 kg for airplanes and 2700 kg for helicopters. b) 7000kg, ) 14000 kg 56, In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the ‘old one cancelled, when a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. ©) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 57. Intem number 15 (Route information) of ICAO flight plan (a) SID and STAR both are given (b) only SID is given (6) only STAR is given Answers:ICAO Flight Plan 55, The letter “L” is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the ‘maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to a) 5700 kg for airplanes and 2700 kg for helicopters. b) 7000 ke. ©) 14000 kg. 56, In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. ©) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 57. _ In Item number 15 (Route information) of ICAO fight plan (@) SID and STAR both are given | () only SID is given (c) only STAR is given i | | Answers: | e a ¢ ® © e a ¢ ® | — rope fe pe [os [i [i [is [oe 7 € a € b |e «| € € ® a [| fe | 2s | 2 [| 2 | 2% | | 30 ¢ a e | a © ¢ © > a nf | 3 |e | as | oe | 7 [3 | 9 fo © «| ® € ¢ eee late ¢ aa pe | | | « | #7 | « | # [0 a € € © 2 | > | € a © [2 | | 3 | 3s | se | 37 | ¢ ® ¢ 2 ® a a |Holding Patterns Holding Patterns | Practice Paper 1. Ifa standard holding pattern cannot of complied then the most appropriate action will be... esoesees? a) Anon-standard holding pattern is permitted. ) Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. ¢) _Itis permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot's discretion. 2. Inaholding pattern all turns are to be made at a fa) Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank. b) Rate of 3*per second. ©) Maximum bank angle of 25°. 3, Enteringaholding pattem at FL 120 with anaireraft, which will be the maximum speed a) 240 KtIAS. b) 230 ktTAS, ©) 230 ktIAS. 4, Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all tums after initial entry int the holding pattern shall be made into which direction a) Teardrop to the left and then to the right. b) othe left. ©) Tothe right. 5. The outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140 is a) 1 minute b) 2 minutes ©) 30 seconds 6. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is that all tums to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 064°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 244°. The type of entry will be a) Either “off set” or “parallel”, b) Offset. ©) Parallel 335ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 10. i 12, 13, ‘What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140 a) 2 minutes. b) 1 minute. ©) L minute 30 seconds. Im relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to a) Track. ») Course. ©) Heading, Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattem, there is a zone of flexi either side of the sectors boundaries of a) 15°, b) 10°. 3 8, The buffer area boundary of holding are extend beyond a distance of a) 3KM. b) 3NM. ©) SNM. Ina standard holding pattern turns are made a) Tothe right b) To the left ©) Ina direction depending on the entry Standard airway holding pattern below 14.000 ft a) Right hand tums / 1.5 minutes outbound b) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound ©) Left hand tums / 1 minute outbound Ina standard holding pattern tums are made a) tothe tet ) ima direction depending on the entry ©) tothe rightHolding Patterns 14, What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern 1) follow the radio communication failure procedure. b) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. ©) anon-standard holding pattern is permitted. 15. The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP a) AD b) MAP ©) ENR 16. _ Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of a) 10°. b) 15°. ) &. according to a) Heading. b) Course. ©) Bearing | 17. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be | 18, What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140 a) 2 minutes 30 seconds. b) 1 minute 30 seconds. ©) I minute. 19, Standard airway holding pattern below 14000 ft 1) Right hand tums / I minute outbound b) Right hand tums / 1.5 minutes outbound ©) Left hand tums / 1 minute outbound 20. Entering a holding pattem at FL 100,which will be the maximum speed a) 230 KtIAS. b) 230kt TAS. ©) 240 KLIASATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 71. In an offset entry into an omni-directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to a) 2 minutes. b) 3 minutes. ©) 1 minute 30 seconds, Answers: pete ts Tes Teta pepe pe pads } repttte Te Tee Te Pe. ta te Baas Pier foots fae] asa af @ [ect enl ye‘Separation Minimas and wake turbulence Separation Minimas and wake turbulence | Practice Paper ‘The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is, a) 10 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 15 minutes, 2, The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aireraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more than the succeeding aircraft is .. a) 15 minutes b) 3 minutes ©) S minutes 3, The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or faster than the succeeding aircraft shall be a) Sminutes b) 3minutes ©) 6 minutes, 4. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aireraft is maintaining @ true airspeed of 20 kt or more than the succeeding aircraft shall be a) 2minutes b) 3 minutes ©) Sminutes 353Separation Minimas and wake turbulence Separation Minimas and wake turbulence | Practice Paper 2 3. 4 ‘The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising evel where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is a) 10 minutes b) 5 minutes ©) 15 minutes ‘The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more than the succeeding aircraft is a) 15 minutes b) 3 minutes ©) 5 minutes ‘The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising evel where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed __and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or faster than the succeeding aircraft shall be a) Sminutes b) 3minutes ©) 6 minutes The Iongitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more than the succeeding aircraft shall be a) 2minutes b) 3 minutes ©) SminutesATC, Air Laws & Human Performance The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same acrodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a {tue airspeed of 40 kt or more than the succeeding aircraf shall be a) Sminutes b) 3minutes ©) 10 minutes When an aircraft will passthrough the level of another aireraft on the same track the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. b) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed, ©) S minutes at the time the level is crossed. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aireraft“on track” uses DME stations is... a) SNM. b) 10NM. ©) 20NM. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C, Another aircraft below alFL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. Itis severe turbulence in the area. An earliest clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected when the other aircraft has reported that it has a) descended through FL 130 b) left FL 140 ©) reached FL 70 The shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a ‘Heavy’ aireraft preceding a ‘Light’ aircraft is a) 3NM b) 6NM ©) 2kmSeparation Minimas and wake turbulence 10. An ATIS broadcasts is updated 8) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly ©) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use 11. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed { a) 3 minutes b) I minute ©) 30 seconds Answer:ees Reduced Vertical Separation Minimas (RVSM) and Strategic Lateral Offiet Procedure (SLOP) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimas (RVSM) and Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP) | Important Question 1, Atwhich levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region between a) FL245 and FLA1O. b) L275 and FL400. ©) FL290 and FLALO. 2. All jet aeroplanes are authorized to fly in RVSM airspace if the ceiling is more than FL 290 a) true if certified by manufacturer ' b) true if certified by ICAO. ©) true only if approved for by State regulatory authorities. 3, Minimum vertical separation between two aircrafts flying on same track is a) 1000” 6) 2000" ©) 4000" [ 4, Which of the following equipment is mandatory for RVSM operations a) ACASIL b) EGPWs ©) EFIS 5. Applicability of RVSM is between a) FLIS0 and FL280, b) FL290 and FL4S0. ¢) FL290 and FL410. Answer: 365Search and Rescue Services Search and Rescue | Practice Questions 1, Which of the following is not an international distress frequency a) 121.5 MHz b) 2430 KHz ©) 243.0 MHz 2. Anaireraft is flying over a region in, which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal “X’ on the ground. This means a) “Need medical assistance” b) “Landing impossible”. ©) “All occupants alive” 3, At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must: a) transmit by luminous Morse signal aseries ofthe letter“R” using his navigational lights 'b) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. ©) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. 4, The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. b) The longest aeroplane maximum width only ©) The overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. 5. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty,the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: a) operational air traffic control centres, b) flight information or control organizations ©) it traffic co-ordination services Answers: 1 b a e © a 3amATC, Air Laws & Human Performance Instrument Flight Procedures | Practice Paper 1 1. The responsibility for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance is of the a) ATC. &) air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan ©) pilot in command 2. Inan instrument departure procedure, where the track to be followed! by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected to a) correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace b) request from ATC different heading for wind correction, ©) ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track 3. The main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure a) Airspace restrictions b) ATC requirements. ©) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome. 4 In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals ...............gradient. a) 33% b) of ©) 35 5. Ima straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within: a) 15° b) 30°. ©) 45°, 6. Turning departures provide track guidance within: a) 15Km b) 5Km ©) 10Km 388Instruments Flight Procedures 10. 1. 12, During a straight departure the initial departure track is within a) 25° of the alignment of the runway center-line b) 5° of the alignment of the runway center-line ©) 15° of the alignment of the runway center-line Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track shall intersect the localizer at a) 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length b) 45° and will not be more 10'NM in length ©) 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a) 150m (492 fi). b) 300m (984 ft). ©) 450m (1476 ft). In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: a) Intermediate approach segment. b)_ Initial approach segment. ©) Final approach segment, Ina precision approach, the final approach segment begins at the a) FAR b) FAP. ©) MAP, ‘The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures, b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land, ©) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. 389)ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 13, 14. 15, 16, Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA a) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight ©) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the ‘outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is referred as a) Racetrack b) Procedure turn ©) Base turn Ifa step down fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made 30 as to 8) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. 'b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. ©) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feev/min, which is obligatory. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to a) Relevant runway threshold. b) Aerodrome reference point. ©) Mean sea level. A maneuver in which a tum is made away from a designated track followed by a ‘tum in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and procced along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a) Reversal track b) Base tum ©) Procedure tum, 390Instruments Flight Procedures 19. 20. 21 22, 23. In IMC during a circling approach a descend below the MDA should not be made until 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained, and a landing can be made. ‘The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: a) 1,3 b) 1,2. ©) 1,2,3 During eircling-to-land, the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope is a) 120kt b) 135kt o) 125kt In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30°offset track is restricted to a) 1 minute 30 seconds. b) 1 minute, ©) 2 minutes. ‘Segments in an instrument approach procedure are a) 4. b) 3. Qs. Initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commences at the a) IAF ») ©) FAR. ‘The obstacle clearance requirement in the primary area of the initial approach seginent in an instrument approach procedure is a) Atleast 300m (984 fi). b) 150m (492 fi), ©) 300m (984 ft), 391ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 24, 2s, 26 21. 28, 29, Ina procedure tum (45°/180°), the time on a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of tum for categories A and B aircraft for a) 2 minutes, b) 1 minute 15 seconds ©) IL minute, Ina procedure turn (45°/180°), the time on a 45° turn away ftom the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aireraft is for a) 1 minute 30 seconds. ») I minute, ©) L minute 15 seconds. In an ILS approach, obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track for more than a) One and a half of scale deflection. b) One scale deflection. ©) Halfa scale deflection. Ina precision approach, the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheel sand glide path antenna not exceeding a) 3m, b) 6m, ©) 9m, The phases of a missed approach procedure are a) Arrival, intermediate and final. b) Arrival, inital, intermediate, and final ©) Initial, intermediate and final Missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of a) 25%, b) 0.8%, 0) 3.3%. 39230, 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. Instruments Flight Procedures ‘The initial phase of a missed approach procedure ends at a) Atthe point where the climb is established b) At the missed approach point. ¢) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained, The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway, which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is called a) Aerodrome traffic pattern. b) Visual approach. ©) Circling Procedure. ‘On a non-precision approach a “straight-in-approach” is acceptable when the angle ‘between the final approach track and the runway center line is, a) 40 degrees or less b) 30 degrees or less ©) 20 degrees or less ‘The maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance is a) % b) 5%. ©) 65%, ‘The primary area of an instrument approach segment is a) the first part of the segment. b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully. ©) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least a) 1a76 ft b) 98a ©) 4928 393ATC, Air Laws & Human Performance 36. 37. 38. 39, 40. 41 42. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is a) 150m (492 ft) b) 300 m (984 ft) ©) 210m (690 f) During an instrument approach followed by @ missed approach the minimum obstacle clearance in the initial phase of this missed approach is a) oft b) sof ©) 30f During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is a) 50m (164 ft) b) 30m (98 ft) ©) 90m (295 f) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance in the final phase of this missed approach is a) 120m (384 ft) b) 30mes fr) ©) 50m (164 ft) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF are established for a distance from the IAF of a) 10NM b) 20NM ©) 25NM The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: a) +2.5NM b) +10NM ©) +5NM During a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below a) 2008 b) OCH ©) 3508Instruments Flight Procedures 43. Fora category I precision approach, the decision height (DH) cannot be lower than a) 200% b) 250% ©) 150ft 44, A”precision approach’ is an instrument approach a) using bearing, elevation, and range information providing descent below 200 ft. busing atleast one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or range information. ©) using bearing, elevation, and range information 45, Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of a) 33% b) 2% ) 25% 46. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a) Procedure tur. b) Base turn. ©) Race track. 47, A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS with minima of a) RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. b) RVR of $50 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. ©) RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. Answers: 3] > mp up eps] || 6] 7] 1s] 9] 20] 20] 22 [25 [20 26 [27 [28 | 29 | 30 33 [34 ]35 36 [37 [38 [39 [a0 [ar [a2 [as | aa] as [a6 [a7