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 Re-Test Wrong Questions

1-What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as 'The Chicago
Convention?"
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation

B The Convention on International Civil Aviation

C The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation

D The Convention on International Civil Transportation

2-According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents, amongst others,
are required to be carried in the aircraft on an international flight?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest and a detailed
declaration of the cargo

B Passports for all crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of
Registration (C of R)

C Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable, Radio Station Licence

D Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R) and crew

passports

3-The Certificate of Registration must be:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Signed by the Pilot-in-Command

B Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original

C Heldin safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure

D Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued

4-What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as “The Chicago
Convention” ?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation

B The Convention on International Civil Transportation

C The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation

D The Convention on International Civil Aviation

5-Which air rights are covered by the freedom of flying over the territory without landing
of another Member State?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 4th freedom

B 1th freedom

C 3th freedom

D 2th freedom

6-Can a state search a visiting aircraft from anather contracting state without permission?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Only if it is reasonably suspected that the aircraft is carrying inadmissible passengers

B No

C Yes

D Only if a crime is reasonably suspected

7-The Chicago Convention recognises that:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Every Contracting State has complete but not exclusive sovereignty over the airspace
above its territory

B Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above
its territory

C Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above
its territorial waters

D Every State has sovereignty over airspace above its territory up to FL660

8-Which states can join EASA as full members?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A All ICAO Contracting States.

B All European Union States.

C Selected European States.

D All JAA States.

9-An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring
state. Which freedom of the air will be exercised?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A 3rd freedom

B 1st freedom

C 2nd freedom

D 4th freedom

10-Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fixed; uni-directional; green.

B Fixed; omni-directional; red.

C Fixed; omni-directional; green.

D Fixed; uni-directional; red.

11-All fixed aerodrome signs that are mandatory shall:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Be comprised of a white inscription on a red background.

B Be comprised of a red inscription on a white background.

C Be comprised of a yellow inscription on a black background.

D Be comprised of a red inscription on a black background.

12-Civil aerodrome identification beacons normally comprise:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A A green beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

B A red beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

C A white beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

D A blue beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

13-A taxiway marking comprised of a pair of parallel yellow lines together with a pair of
parallel broken yellow lines painted at 90° across a taxiway delineate:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A A holding position at the end of a taxiway and runway entry point beyond which no part of
an aircraft may project without prior permission from ATC.

B The exit point of an apron to a taxiway.

C The intersection of two taxiways.

D The entry point of a pre-departure run up area.

14-ICAO specify that the element of a paved taxiway surface that should be marked is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Sides.
 B Centre line, sides, entry and exit points.

C Centre line and sides.

D Centre line.

15-A PPL holder may:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A Not operate as either commander or co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.

B Operate as co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.

C Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.

D Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.

16-What are the minimum number of dual instruction hours required to be flown by a
JAA PPL candidate?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A 25 hours.

B 20 hours.

C 22 hours.

D 30 hours.
17-The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a JAR FCL Private Pilot
License (Aero plane) is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A 40.

B 50.

C 35.

D 45.

18-The minimum age at which a student pilot may undertake her/his first solo flight is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A 19 years.

B 18 years.

C 17 years.

D 16 years.

19-The holder of a JAA License must hold a current Medical Certificate in order to
exercise the privileges of that license. The prescribed Medical Certificate must be issued in
accordance with:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A JAR OPS - Part 1.

B JAR FCL- Part 3.

 C JAR FCL - Part 1.

D JAR OPS - Part 2.

20-A JAA pilot license (A) holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero
plane unless she/he is in possession of a valid:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Valid JAA OPS group rating.

B Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the aero plane
to be flown.

C Valid VFR type rating.

D Valid JAA FCL type rating.

21-Flight time entered into a pilot's log book is defined as being:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A The time from when the engine starts before take-off until it is shut down after landing.

B The time from when the aero plane first enters the maneuvering area until it next comes
to rest after landing.

C The time from when the aero plane first moves under its own power until it next comes to
rest after landing.

D The time from when the aero plane takes off until it finally lands with the intention of
shutting down the engine.
22-A license holder having been advised that invasive medical surgery has become
essential:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Should seek the advice of the aviation medical authority as expeditiously as possible.

B Should advise the aviation medical authority only if the treatment involves a general
anesthetic.

C Should seek the advice of her/ his general practitioner as expeditiously as possible.

D Should undertake such treatment without reference to the aviation medical authority as
such action is voluntary.

23-If the visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling are equal to or better than the
specified minima, ICAO defines such conditions as:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A RVR or Runway Visual range.

B CAVOK or Cloud and Visibility OK.

C VMC or Visual Meteorological Conditions.

D IMC or Instrument Meteorological Conditi

24-If, during a daytime flight an aircraft commander noticed that the aircraft's anti-
collision light had failed, the correct course of action would be to:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A Have the light repaired prior to completion of the next day's 'Check A'.

B Land as soon as possible and have the light repaired.

C Complete the flight, at which time the aircraft must not be flown again until the light is
repaired.

D Continue with daytime operations provided the light is repaired at the earliest opportunity.

25-The ICAO definition of radar vectoring is:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Collision and adverse meteorological avoidance derived from specified advisory headings
based on the use of radar.

B Provision of nautical guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the
use of radar.

C The directional control of aircraft for the purpose of nautical navigation and collision
avoidance.

D Provision of headings and altitudes based on the use of radar.

26-If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as equal to or in
excess of the specified minimum weather provisions and the distance from cloud is seen
also to be above specified minima, the prevailing weather conditions are referred to as:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A VFR.

B VMC.
 C IMC.

D SMWP.

27-The vertical extent of a Control Zone is:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A From 1500ft AGL to the base of the TMA.

B From the surface up to 2000ft AGL.

C From the surface to an altitude of 2000ft.

D From the surface up to a specified upper limit.

28-Which of the following can not be used as registration markings?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A 4 letter Q-codes.

B 3 letter combinations used as code of signals (prescribed by ITU).

C Emergency signals in Morse Code.

D All 3-letter repetitive markings like LLL, SSS, YYY.

29-If the edge lights are ……., centerline lights are ……….. and markings are ……….. you
are definitely on a …………..
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0
 A White, red, white, runway.

B White, white, yellow, runway.

C Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.

D White, white, white, taxiway.

30-What do nationality and registration marks consist of?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A It must be a combination of numbers and letters.

B Numbers or letters or a combination.

C Numbers only.

D Letters only.

31-Which of the following nationality and registration markings would be permitted?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A G-YLLL.

B AS2PAN.

C N-YQNH.

D A81TTT.
32-What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require medical
assistance?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A X

B i

C y

D N

33-What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require assistance?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A N

B y

C >

D X

34-You are flying a Turkey registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air must
you obey?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Germany's
 B JAA's

C ICAO's

D Turkey’s

35-When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot-inCommand
must have been approved by the authority of:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A Any contracting ICAO state

B The State of Manifacturer

C The state of aircraft registration

D Any JAA member state

36-Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air traffic into
and out of a foreign state?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A IATA's

B ICAO's

C The foreign state's

D International Rules and Regulations

37-The C of R (Registration) must be:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Signed by the Pilot-in-Command

B Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original

C Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued

D Held in safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure

38-Which sign indicate a runway unfit for he movement of aircraft ?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A yellow ‘’X’’

B White “Y”

C white ‘’X’’

D yellow “Y”

39-Which sign indicate a taxiway unfit for the movement of aircraft ?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A yellow ‘’X’’

B white ‘’X’’
 C yellow “Y”

D White “Y”

40-Which aircrafts are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light ?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A a microlight or airship

B a helicopter or free balloon

C a glider ,free balloon or airship

D a glider or free balloon

41-Which aircrafts are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light ?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A a microlight or airship

B a glider ,free balloon or airship

C a helicopter or free balloon

D a glider or free balloon

42-When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0
 A Taxiway

B Movement area

C Runway

D Parking area

43-The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a EASA FCL PPL(A) is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A 40

B 35

C 45

D 50

44-A EASA pilot license holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero
plane unless she/he is in possession of a valid;
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Valid VFR type rating.

B Valid EASA type rating.

C Valid IFR type rating.

 D Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the aero plane
to be flown.

45-How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 3 years

B 6 months

C 2 years

D 1 year

46-When are navigation lights required to be shown?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Whenever the Pilot-ln-Command thinks it is sensible to switch them on

B At night

C From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority

D When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

47-If two aircraft are approaching head on:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0
 A Both aircraft should turn right regardless of aircraft type

B A powered aircraft must give way to a glider by turning right

C Both aircraft must turn left

D The larger aircraft should give way by turning right

48-You see a red and green light of another aircraft straight ahead of you. What must you
do?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A lmmediately descend

B lmmediately turn right

C lmmediately climb

D lmmediately turn left

49-What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions

B That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR

C That the flight will not take place above FL 180

D That the flight will only take place in Class F or G airspace

50-What are meteorological conditions of VFR flight?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A ceiling is at or above 1.500 ft and the ground visibility is not less than 5 km.

B ceiling is less than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is more than 5 km

C when the; ceiling is less than 2.000 ft or the ground visibility is more than 5 km.

D ceiling is more than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 3 km.

51-The highest priority for landing has:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A an aircraft that is emergency landing.

B a military aircraft.

C an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state),

D an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention,

52-What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Personnal Licensing

B Facilitation
 C Rules of the Air

D Aerodromes

53-Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The State of the Operator

B The State of Registration

C The State of Manufacture

D The State of Design

54-What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Annex 12

B Annex 9

C Annex 14

D Annex 8

55-Where is the validity of a C of A specified?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A In the C of A itself

B In the national AlP

C In the Aircraft Flight Manual

D In the Certificate of Registration (C of R)

56-In which document would you normally find the oil pressure limitations for
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The Flight Manual or Pilot's Operating Handbook

B Certificate of registration

C Operation Manual

D Aircraft Placard

57-What is the standard width of an airway?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 10 NM

B 8 NM

C 3 NM
 D 5 NM

58-The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the;
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Flight information region.

B Terminal control area.

C Control zone.

D Control area.

59-A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the earth is the;
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A Control zone.

B Traffic circuit..

C flight information region

D Control area.

60-What may be the lowest point of the CTA according to ICAO regulations?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A From any specified height above the ground or water

 B There is no such regulation

C At least 1000 feet amsl

D From a specified height above ground or water being not less than 700 feet

61-What is the lowest level of a CTA permitted by international agreement?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Not lower than 500 feet above the surface of the ground or water

B Not lower than 1500 feet above the surface of the ground or water

C Not lower than 1 000 feet above the surface of the ground or water

D Not lower than 700 feet above the surface of the ground or water

62-A service provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit for all controlled flights arriving at
or departing from an aerodrome is called;
NO GIVEN ANSWER
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A A Flight Information Service

B An Approach Control Service

C An Area Control Service

D AnAlerting Service
63-What is the Maximum Take-Off Mass of a medium category aircraft in terms of its
Wake Turbulence Category?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Between 136 000 kgs and 7000 kgs inclusive

B Below 136 000 kgs and above 8000 kgs

C Below 130 000 kgs and above 7000 kgs

D Below 136 000 kgs and above 7000 kgs

64-What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft taking off
behind a heavy aircraft from the same point on the runway?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 5 minutes

B 2 nautical miles

C 2 minutes

D 5 nautical miles

65-In which of the following circumstances is wake turbulence separation applied?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
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0

A When operating below 700 feet, on finals

B Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1000 feet below the
 leading aircraft

C Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 500 feet below the
leading aircraft

D Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1000 feet above the
leading aircraft

66-What are the functions of radar in air traffic management?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A identification, vectoring, seperation

B vectoring, seperation

C identification, vectoring, radar contact

D identification, vectoring

67-What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft in the air?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Cleared for take-off

B Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

C Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

D Cleared to land
68-What is the meaning of steadyred light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft in the air?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Cleared for take-off

B Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing

C Cleared to land

D Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

69-What is the meaning of flashing green light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft in the air?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

B Return for landing.

C Aerodrome unsafe,do not land

D Cleared to land

70-What is the meaning of flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft on the ground?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Cleared to taxi
 B Stop

C Return starting point on the aerodrome

D Taxi clear of landing area in use

71-What is one of the primary functions of an Air Traffic Clearance?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A To acknowledge that ATC is now responsible for the flight

B To agree to allow a flight to proceed

C To ensure separation of aircraft

D To acknowledge that the information of the flight details have been logged by ATC

72-Your take-off is delayed for an uncontrolled flight (VFR). At what point must you
resubmit your Flight Plan?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 60 minutes in excess of EOBT

B 90 minutes in excess of EOBT

C 30 minutes in excess of Estimated Off-Biocks Time (EOBT)

D 45 minutes in excess of EOB

73-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Annex 10

B Annex 14

C Annex 6

D Annex 11

74-o communication has been received from an aircraft within 30 minutes after the time a
communication should have been received. What phase of the Alerting Service must be
declared?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Uncertainty Phase

B Alert Phase

C Distress Phase

D Emergency Phase

75-An aircraft has been declared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the
estimated time of landing, and communications have not been reestablished. What phase of
the Alerting Service should be declared?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Uncertainty Phase
 B Emergency Phase

C Distress Phase

D Alert Phase

76-Which organisation is responsible for the coordination of Search and Rescue efforts
within a State?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Rescue Coordination Centre

B Air Traffic Control Centre

C Flight Information Centre

D Approach Control Centre

77-Safety and survival equipment must be:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A lnspected every week

B Only kept near aircraft emergency exits

C Kept under the passenger seats

D Easily identifiable
78-Who is responsible , under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an
accident investigation ?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered.

B Operators of the same aircraft type.

C The government of the state in which the accident took place.

D The aircraft manufacturer.

79-The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the ;

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Prevention of accidents or incidents

B prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.

C prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court
cases.

D prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data
for the improvement of the design.

80-What does Annex 14 on international civil aviation contain?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Aerodromes
 B none of all

C Facilitation

D Security

81-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum

specifications for the design of aerodromes?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Annex 10

B Annex 11

C Annex 14

D Annex 6

82-What colour are the markings on runways?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Yellow

B Green

C White

D Yellow or white
83-What is the colour of the markings on taxiways?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White

B Yellow or white

C Yellow

D Green

84-A hand-held signalling lamp is to be held in Control Towers. What colours must it be
capable of signalling?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White or red only

B White, red or green

C White, red, green or blue

D Green or red only

85-What colours indicate location signs?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White lettering on a red background

B Black lettering on a yellow background

 C Yellow lettering on a black background

D Red lettering on a white background

86-What colours indicate destination signs?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White lettering on a red background

B Red lettering on a white background

C Yellow lettering on a black background

D Black lettering on a yellow background

87-What colour are taxiway side lights?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Red

B Green

C Blue

D White

88-What colour are taxiway centreline lights?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A Green

B Blue

C Yellow

D Red

89-How isa closed runway indicated?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The woid "CLOSED" in white

B Yellow cross

C With the use of barriers

D White cross

90-An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency will display what colour flashing
light?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White

B Green

C Blue

D Yellow
91-Runway approach lights are:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A White and can be adjusted for brightness

B Red and can be adjusted

C White and cannot be adjusted for brightness

D Red and cannot be adjusted

92-Runway side lights are:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Green

B White

C Red

D Blue

93-Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum

specifications for the design of aerodromes?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Annex 10
 B Annex 6

C Annex 11

D Annex 14

94-What ICAO Annex covers the Security?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Annex 14

B Annex 17

C Annex 11

D Annex 2

95-What does ICAO Annex 11 concern itself with?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Air Traffic Services

B Personnel Licensing

C Aerodromes

D Rules of the Air

96-Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A ICAO

B The JAA

C The operator

D The authority of the state of registration

97-An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A While taxiing, but not when it’s being towed;

B Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period this is not
applicable;

C Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;

D On the ground when the engines are running

98-A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite
at the same altitude. Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right

B The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
 C The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft

D Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left

99-Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air
traffic?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A A balloon.

B An aircraft in distress.

C An aircraft in the final approach for landing.

D An aeroplane towing a glider.

100-If the edge lights are ……………………, centerline lights ………………………. and
markings are …………………. you are definitely on a …………………………
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.

B White, red, white, runway.

C White, white, white, taxiway.

D White, white, yellow, runway.

101-A marshaller will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by following signals:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extend position inwards.

B Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

D Crossing arms extended above his head

102-What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.

B Clear to land.

C Land immediately.

D You have priority to land.

103-In the signals area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell means:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Land on hard surfaces only.

B Do not land.

C Landing direction is parallel with the shaft towards the cross-arm.

 D Land and taxi on hard surfaces only.

104-In the signals area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe
means:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area.

B Gliders are operating.

C Helicopters are operating

D Do not land.

105-Which of the following correctly describes the runway end lights?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fixed; omni-directional; green.

B Fixed; omni-directional; red.

C Fixed; uni-directional; green.

D Fixed ; uni-directional; red.

106-Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign
airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating.

B The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.

C The state in which the aircraft is registered.

D The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.

107-What colour are paved taxiway markings?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Yellow.

B Red.

C Green.

D White.

108-In order to transfer a JAR-FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence Issue to
another JAA member state the licence holder must:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 years per year) or have taken up
full-time employment within that State

B Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.

C Must have become a citizen of the new State

D Have resided in the new State for at least 30 consecutive days.

109-An A/C marshaller with his right arm down and his left arm repeatedly moved
upwards and backwards is indicating to the pilot of an aircraft to:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Increase the RPM of the port engine.

B Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to port.

C Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to stbd.

D Proceed under guidance of another marshaller.

110-When located within an aerodrome signals square, the signal used to indicate that
owing to the bad state of the maneuvering area, or for any other reason, special
precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A A horizontal red square with one yellow diagonal.

B A horizontal yellow square with one red diagonal.

C A horizontal yellow square with two red diagonals.

D A horizontal red square with two yellow diagonals.

111-What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft either in the air or on the ground?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. / Stop.

B Proceed to finals upon completion of the current orbit. / Line up after traffic on finals has
landed.

C Do not land, orbit and await permission to land. / Return to your starting point.

D Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing. / Move clear of the Landing Area.

112-Which of the following combinations offer the correct meaning of white flashes
directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Land at your discretion. / Take-off at your discretion.

B Land immediately. / Clear the runway.

C Return to the aerodrome / Return to the parking bay.

D Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green light. / Return to the starting
point on the aerodrome and then, after green flashes, proceed to apron.

113-A continuous red light directed to an aircraft in flight from an aerodrome means:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

B Do not land, aerodrome unavailable for landing.

C Proceed to finals after completion of current orbit.

 D Do not land, wait for permission.

114-ICAO specifies that the fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights should be
colored:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Red.

B Alternate green and red.

C Green.

D White.

115-The definition of Alerting Service is a:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Branch of the air traffic service under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defense providing
a communication network between all agencies both civil and military providing search
and rescue facilities.

B A land based search and rescue co-ordination unit.

C Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search

and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.

D Unit of the air traffic service specifically for the co-ordination of search and rescue.

116-If a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants (alert phase); responsibility for alerting the necessary search and rescue units
lies with:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The pilot in distress.

B The air traffic unit who received the distress message albeit 121.5MHz.

C The Rescue Co-ordination Centre.

D Any responsible person.

117-Alternate aerodrome is:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to

land at the first diversion.

B A planned en-route aerodrome where an aircraft may land if necessary to uplift fuel but
where passengers may not be embarked or disembarked.

C Any aerodrome that may be used for a landing in an emergency.

D An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to

land at the planned destination.

118-The transition layer is defined as:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The layer between the transition altitude and the transition level.

B The layer between 3000ft altitude and the transition altitude.

 C The layer between the transition altitude and the planned operating flight level.

D The layer between the transition level and the transition altitude.

119-Terminal Control Areas may be defined as:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Airspace at the confluence of airways not available to IFR traffic.

B Airspace for specific use of departing traffic.

C Airspace for specific use of arriving traffic

D Airspace at the confluence of airways and other routes adjacent to one or more major
aerodromes.

120-No aircraft is allowed to fly over a congested area below 1000ft above the highest fixed
obstacle within 600 meters of the aircraft, except:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A During a low level navigation exercise.

B When orbiting to try and establish position.

C When taking off or landing.

D When practicing a forced landing under the direction of a qualified flying instructor.
121-What altimeter sub-scale setting should be used when flying underneath a Terminal
Control Area (TMA)?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA

B The Regional QNH.

C Either the Regional QNH or the QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA,
whichever is the lower.

D The QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA.

122-If a flight plan has been filed and the Pilot in Command lands at an aerodrome other
than the filed destination, she/he must notify the ATCU unit at the planned destination:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Within 30 minutes of the scheduled arrival time at the diversion airfield.

B Within 45 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.

C Within 30 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.

D Within 45 minutes of the landing time at the diversion airfield.

123-For the purpose of submitting a flight plan, if there is not available at the departure
aerodrome an air traffic services unit, the flight plan should be submitted:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A In person to the nearest ATC unit serving or designated to serve the departure
aerodrome.
 B At least 24 hours before the planned departure time to the unit serving or designated to
serve the departure aerodrome using the National Aeronautical Telecommunications
Service.

C In person or by telephone or fax or if these services are not available, by radio to the unit
serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.

D Two days before departure by post to the unit serving or designated to serve the
departure aerodrome.

124-An aircraft commander aware that the fuel state has become critical whilst waiting for
a landing clearance within a busy Control Zone should transmit .......(i)...... in order to alert
ATC that a priority landing is required.
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Land Now, Land Now, Land Now.

B Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel.

C May Day, May Day, May Day or Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.

D Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum.

125-The air traffic control service provided for all controlled arriving and departing flights
is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Precision Approach Radar (PAR).

B Delivery Service

C An Area Control Service.

 D An Approach Control Service.

126-If ATC reports the active runway conditions as “wet wet wet”, it is understood that the
runway:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The runway is wet but there is no standing water.

B Has visible areas contaminated by standing water.

C The runway is covered by patches of standing water at least 2mm in depth.

D The runway is covered by at least 2mm of standing water.

127-When extensive water patches are visible on a runway surface the conditions are
reported as:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Damp, damp, damp.

B Braking action reduced.

C Flooded.

D Wet, wet, wet.

128-Flight Information Service (FIS) provides:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A Safe separation for participating aircraft.

B To all aircraft within controlled airspace such information relevant to to the safe conduct
of all flights.

C Updated information regarding aerodrome runway status, weather and en-route

frequencies within the FIR.

D Advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.

129-A special air report should be made to an air traffic service:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Only if the forecast visibility changes to the extent that an aircraft commander must
change her/ his operating conditions to IMC.

B After encountering and becoming clear of any moderate weather phenomena such as
icing, wind shear and turbulence.

C After encountering and becoming clear of any severe weather phenomena such as icing,
wind shear and turbulence, mountain wave or other phenomena that was not forecast.

D If the forecast weather deviates from the pre-flight forecast.

130-If you overtake another aircraft, you must overtake to the:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Right of the other aircraft in the air, but to its left on the ground.

B Left of the other aircraft in the air, but to its right on the ground.
 C Right of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.

D Left of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.

131-If aero plane 'X' is converging with aero plane 'Y' from the rear and is within 70° of
aero plane 'Y's extended center line, aero plane 'X' is considered to be in an overtaking
position and must pass to:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The furthest side of aero plane 'Y'.

B The closest side of aero plane 'Y'.

C The left of aero plane 'Y'.

D The right of aero plane 'Y'.

132-When two or more aircraft are on final approach, without overriding instruction from
an ATCU or in an emergency, the aircraft having the right of way is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The one that is at the lower altitude.

B The one that is at the greater altitude.

C The one that is closest to the runway threshold, regardless of altitude.

D The one that has the greatest rate of descent.

133-The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Height and speed.

B Heading, height and speed.

C Heading and speed.

D Heading and height.

134-Two aircraft are closing on a constant relative bearing almost head on, both aircraft
should avoid collision by:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Turning right.

B Turning either left or right.

C Turning in the directing that will best facilitate collision avoidance.

D Turning left.

135-The PIC of an aircraft during the course of a night flight notices that a navigation light
has failed. She/he should:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Transmit an Urgency Message on the RTF frequency in use and continue with the plan
flight to the first point of landing.

B Land as soon as is practicably possible unless given permission to continue to the

 planned destination by an appropriate Air Traffic Control Unit.

C Continue to the planned destination, enter the defect in the technical log which must be
repaired before the next flight.

D Establish that an all-round anti-collision light is still functional and if so, select the
navigation lights to 'off' and continue to the planned destination.

136-ICAO recommends that a minimum of.............. shall be applied between a light or

medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft or a light aircraft taking off behind a
medium aircraft when the aircraft are using the same runway if the projected flight path
of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same
altitude or less than 300m (1000ft) below. Select the time that correctly completes this
statement.
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A three minutes.

B four minutes.

C two minutes.

D one minute.

137-The term 'Air Traffic' is defined as:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.

B Airborne aircraft.

C Airborne aircraft and those occupying an active runway.

 D Any aircraft maneuvering under its own power.

138-In the context of Search and Rescue, the term “Distress phase” means:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aero plane and its occupants.

B A 'Pan Pan' call has been transmitted.

C An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and of
requiring immediate assistance.

D A flight requires the assistance of the emergency services.

139-An airspace where flight information and alerting services are given shall be
designated as:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Controlled airspace.

B Flight information regions (FIR).

C Advisory routes and class F airspace.

D Uncontrolled airspace.

140-A report from an aircraft in flight prepared under requirements for position, and
operational and/or meteorological reporting is ___.
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A A NOTAM.

B A PIREP.

C A SIGMET.

D A position report.

141-Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off
or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic
pattern when the
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

B ceiling is less than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

C ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.

D ceiling is less than 2.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km

142-The highest priority for landing has:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention,

B an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state),

C a military aircraft.
 D an aircraft that is emergency landing.

143-What is a STAR
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Standard instrument routes

B Special terminal arrival

C Standard Terminal Arrival Routes

D Supplementary terminal arrival

144-The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around a navigation
aids, is in general valid within a sector of:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 25 NM.

B 30 NM.

C 10 NM.

D 15 NM.

145-The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A airport reference point (ARP)

B navigation aids

C runway

D tower

146-The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 3000 ft

B 2500 ft

C 1000 ft

D 1500 ft

147-What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above
mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Altitude

B Elevation

C Flight level

D Height
148-What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 7700

B 7600

C 7777

D 7000

149-Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio failure?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 7500

B 7700

C 7600

D 7000

150-What are the names of the three parts of an AlP?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A ENR, AD and AGA

B AGA, AD and GEN

 C ENR, AGA and GEN

D GEN, ENR and AD

151-What is the meaning of an area labeled "LT D 21"?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A A low-level flying area was set up till 210 ft AGL

B This area is the Turkish dangerous area no. 21

C A no-fly area was set up from ground up to FL 210

D In this area airspace "D" no. 21 has been established

152-Which of below correctly completes the following statement? A Flight Information

Service and Alerting Service is provided in airspace designated as:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A TMAs

B CTAs

C Flight Information Regions

D Advisory Routes

153-What defines a Control Zone?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A A zone of defined radius centred upon the longest runway of an aerodrome extending up
to 2000 ft.

B A portion of airspace between ground level and a specified altitude or flight level where
an ATC service is provided to IFR and some VFR traffic.

C An area around one or more aerodromes where a common approach control is applied.

D A danger, prohibited or restricted area.

154-Which of the following flight levels should be suitable for an aircraft flying VFR in
accordance with the ICAO Semi-Circular Rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146
degrees?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A FL 50

B FL 85

C FL 295

D FL 75

155-VFR Flights shall NOT take of or land at an aerodrome within a Control Zone (CTR),
or enter the Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) or traffic pattern:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A When the ceiling is less than 300 m (1000 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 8
km.
 B When the ceiling is less than 300 m (1000 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 5
km.

C When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 8
km.

D When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 feet) or when the ground visibility is less than 5
km.

156-You have flight planned to arrive over a Reporting Point at 1500Z. However, due to an
unexpected tailwind, you realize that you will arrive at 1505Z. Do you have to inform the
relevant ATCU?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A No

B Only if you are outside Controlled Air Space

C Only if you are conducting the flight under VFR

D Yes

157-An airborne flight plan must be submitted:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 60 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.

B 30 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.

C 15 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.

D 10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or an airway.

158-During a Controlled Flight, your actual TAS is 150 kts however your flight planned
TAS is 140 kts. Must you inform ATCU?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Only if requested by ATC

B No

C Yes

D Only if you are outside CAS

159-Interception
If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common
language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey instructions and essential
information by using standard phrases and pronunciations, transmitting each phrase
twice.
The standard phrase with the meaning "Descend for landing" for use by
INTERCEPTING aircraft is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A DESCEND DEE-SEND

B DESCEND FOR LAND DEE-SEND FOR LAAND

C YOU LAND YOU-LAAND

D LET DOWN LET-DAUN

160-Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service)

B ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service)

C TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control
service)

D FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical
fixed telecommunication service)

161-Alerting service is provided.

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A only for aircraft flying according to IFR.

B only for aircraft with a MTOM of 20000 kg and more.

C for all aircraft known to ATC.

D only for aircraft flying with a flight plan.

162-What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 406.00 MHz

B 121.50 MHz
 C 123.45 MHz

D 243.00 MHz

163-What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a
VFR flight in VMC?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady
green from the control tower.

B Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.

C Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to
his destination airfield.

D Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await
the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.

164-A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What
period of separation is required?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 5 minutes.

B 4 minutes.

C 2 minutes.

D 3 minutes.
165-Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO
Flight Plan?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Calibrated Air Speed.

B True Air Speed.

C Ground Speed

D Indicated Air Speed.

166-What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Airspace around an airport.

B Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled.

C Airspace immediately above an airport with more than one runway.

D An airspace within which air traffic control services are provided.

167-According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A five years after licence issue

B two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter

 C two years

D one year

168-According to JAR-FCL 3, Medical certificates classes are

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A class 1 only

B 1,2,3

C 1,2

D 1,2,3,4

169-Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A In JAR-OPS 1

B In ICAO Annex 6 part 2

C In JAR-FCL

D On the C of A

170-The period of validity of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A 10 years

B 5 years

C 3 years

D life time

171-The minimum number of dual instructional hours to be completed by a candidate for

a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 45 hours

B 25 hours

C 10 hours

D 30 hours

172-What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A EU

B EASA

C ECAC
 D IATA

173-What is the ICAO code of İstanbul Flight Information Region (FIR) ?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A TCAA

B LTAA

C LTBB

D LTBA

174-How long would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would have to
inform the authorities?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Not less than 20 days.

B More than 12 hours.

C 24 hrs or more.

D 12 days or more.

175-Where would a pilot find details of differences between ICAO Standards and
Recommended Practices and National Regulations of a state?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A IATA Airport Handling Manual

B Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC) of that state.

C General Aviation Safety Sense Publications.

D Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) of that state.

176-A PPL holder may:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Not operate as either commander or co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.

B Operate as co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.

C Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.

D Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.

177-The holder of a PPL (A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum
of 3 take-offs and 3 landings within the preceeding:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 31 days

B 29 days

C 60 days

D 90 days
178-An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 17 years old.

B 15 years old.

C 16 years old.

D 18 years old.

179-While taxiing you notice the sign shown in the annex. It is a/an _____ sign and it
appears with _____.
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Location – Black inscription on yellow background.

B Information – Yellow inscription on black background.

C Direction – Black inscription on yellow background.

D Mandatory – White inscription on red background.

Anex:


180-The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A the Warsaw Convention

 B the Paris Convention

C the Rome Convention

D the Tokyo Convention

181-Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.

B information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.

C information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

D mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

182-Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

B ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to
the convention

D ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of
such licenses
183-When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the
responsibility of:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A air traffic control and flight information centers.

B control centres only.

C air traffic coordination centres.

D search and rescue coordination centres.

184-5. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 15 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

B 20 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

C 10 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.

D 5 nautical miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the
direction from which approaches may be made.

185-The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0
 A as altitude.

B as flight level.

C as height.

D According to pilot's choice.

186-The runway edge lights shall be :

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A white

B green

C blue

D red

187-In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium
aircraft?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

B medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

C medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

D medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

188-Runway threshold lights shall be:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

D Fixed lights green colours.

189-The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

B may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

C may request such person to disembark

D may deliver such person to the competent authorities

190-Taxiway center line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fixed lights showing yellow.

 B Fixed lights showing blue.

C Fixed lights showing green.

D Fixed lights showing yellow.

191-The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the
following part of the AIP:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A GEN

B AD

C ENR

D MAP

192-In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with “location indicators”?
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A AGA

B ENR

C GEN

D AD
193-What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A 6 NM

B 10 km

C 2 km

D 3 NM

194-When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is

impossible, than :
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to
provide for continuation of the flight;

B the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

C you are not allowed to commence the flight

D departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed

195-If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
name of the airport.
 B write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by
the name of the airport

C write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by

the name of the airport.

D write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by

the name of the airport

196-The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A as height.

B as flight level.

C according pilot's choice.

D as altitude.

197-The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.

B Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control
Office and Tower.

C Advisory Centre - Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control
Tower.
 D Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome
Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

198-The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage width.

B The longest aeroplane maximum width only

C The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

D The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.

199-Taxiway edge lights shall be:

NO GIVEN ANSWER
0
0

A Fixed showing blue.

B Flashing showing blue.

C Fixed showing yellow.

D Fixed showing green.

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