Is Jesus God?

The idea that God is multiple persons seriously threatens the monotheism of the bible.
This is really nothing more than lightly veiled polytheism. This self-inflicted wound
has unnecessarily harmed evangelism to Jews and Muslims who both see this as
irreconcilable with monotheism. The idea of God becoming a man has its origins in
Greek mythology and has no place in the bible. The idea that Jesus was both God and
man at the same time is hopelessly contradictory.

God and man have utterly incompatible attributes. The idea that one person can be
simultaneously mortal and immortal, omniscient and ignorant, helpless and
omnipotent, tempt-able and untempt-able, is absurd. This view totally compromises
the fact the bible plainly calls Jesus a man. A godman is not both God and man but
neither God nor man. An eternal, omniscient, omnipotent being adding a human
nature to itself couldn't possibly be referred to as a "man" in any genuine sense.

This also totally compromises Jesus being the Messiah and Son of God. How can
Jesus be "the Son of the living God" in any genuine sense if he is co-equal and co-
eternal with the Father and Holy Spirit? This makes a mockery of the biblical Father
and Son relationship that Jesus and God have. Secondly, a transcendent, immutable
God can't add a human nature to himself in the first place. God cannot cease being
God. Trinitarians often recite their explanations handed down to them by tradition
without ever thinking about what they are saying. Saying Jesus was both God and
man sounds nice, but when it comes to explaining that in any coherent manner they
are unable to do so. All of these interpretations of the scripture are totally
unnecessary.

Jesus is the Christ (Anointed One) because he is not God, because he is a human. The
Christ is a human anointed by God, Christ by definition is not God. Trinitarians will
obliterate everything in their quest to make Jesus into God, including the biblical facts
that Jesus is Christ, Son of God and a human being. Here is a quote from a trinitarian
scholar.

The historic formulation of the Trinity (derived from the Latin word trinitas, meaning
“threeness”) seeks to circumscribe and safeguard this mystery (not explain it; that is
beyond us), and it confronts us with perhaps the most difficult thought that the human
mind has ever been asked to handle. It is not easy; but it is true.

The basic assertion of this doctrine is that the unity of the one God is complex. The
three personal “subsistences” (as they are called) are coequal and coeternal centers of
self-awareness, each being “I” in relation to two who are “you” and each partaking of
the full divine essence (the “stuff” of deity, if we may dare to call it that) along with
the other two.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Packer, J. I. (1995, c1993). Concise theology: A guide to historic Christian beliefs.

Wheaton, Ill.: Tyndale House.

Does that sound like the bible's teaching about God to you? Does the bible really
describe three co-equal persons all sharing the "stuff" of deity? It seems to me the
bible describes a single person God, who alone is almighty and eternal (Isa 44:24),
who begets a Son (Heb 1:5, Luke 1:30-35, Matt 3:17), anoints him with his Spirit
(Acts 10:38, Matt 3:16, Luke 4:18), teaches him what to say (Luke 2:40,52, John
7:16, 12:49), raises him from the dead (Acts 3:15,5:30), exalts him to his right hand
(Acts 2:33, Php 2:9-11), and makes him the judge and lord (Acts 2:36, 10:42, 17:31).
The trinity as Mr. Packer says is "perhaps the most difficult thought that the human
mind has ever been asked to handle". No kidding Mr. Packer, probably because it is
unreasonable, unbiblical and unnecessary! Trinitarians often need to retreat to the
realm of "mystery", and say this whole trinity thing is unexplainable and beyond us.
Has it ever occurred to them that maybe we should simply rethink the whole
trinitarian interpretation? The amount of effort that needs to be put into defending and
explaining the trinity is all a lost cause. All one needs to say is "that council of men in
the 4th century doesn't determine biblical truth".

Outline

This study will begin first with a look at the Old Testament view of God. Then
continue with an examination of Messianic prophecies. It will move into the gospels
and see what Jesus had to say about himself. Then a look at the testimony of others
about Jesus in the gospels. From there an examination of how the Apostles preached
about Jesus in the book of Acts. Then an examination of some creedal statements in
the Epistles and a look at the book of Revelation.
Trinitarian Arguments

Claim 1. Jesus is God because he claimed to be

Well Jesus nowhere made any explicit claim to be God. However Trinitarians
desperately search through scriptures with the sole intent of trying to find a claim
somewhere (begging the question). They often assert that in John 8 Jesus claimed to
be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob by saying in verse 58 "before Abraham was I
am." They assume this is a reference to exodus 3 where God speaks to Moses from the
burning bush. Unfortunately nothing in the context is about Moses and the burning
bush story, rather it is talking about Abraham who lived hundreds of years earlier.
Secondly, John doesn’t even use the same Greek words used in exodus 3 in the
Septuagint. Trinitarians should know better than that, Jesus is plainly distinguished
from the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Act 3:13 The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of
our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom you delivered over and denied in the
presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release him.

Peter explicitly says Jesus is the SERVANT of the God of the fathers. The idea that in
John 8 Jesus tries to underhandedly claim to be that God is absurd in light of the rest
of scripture. Peter made this distinction repeatedly.

Act 5:30 The God of our fathers raised Jesus, whom you killed by hanging him on a
tree.

The idea that Jesus claimed to be the very God of the Fathers in light of these explicit
verses saying he is in fact distinct from the God of the Fathers, shows the depths of
desperation of Trinitarians. Now get this folks, Jesus actually did refer to the story of
the burning bush account explicitly in Mark 12:26,27

Mar 12:26 And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses,
in the passage about the bush, how God spoke to him, saying, 'I am the God of
Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'?
Mar 12:27 He is not God of the dead, but of the living. You are quite wrong."
Jesus here refers back to this event and makes no mention of having been present, or
making any claim to be the very God that spoke to Moses. Jesus mentions how God
spoke to Moses, and then Jesus says of God, "HE is not God of the dead but of the
living." So Jesus refers to God as a singular personal being, someone other than
himself by using the term "HE". Notice he didn't say, "we are not" he said, "he is not"
exposing the false idea that God is multiple persons. Notice also Jesus did not say
"have you not read in the book of Moses in the passage about the bush how I spoke to
him saying". Jesus didn't say "I spoke to him" or "we spoke to him" but HE spoke to
him, showing that he was not present or speaking to Moses then.

Stephen referred to the burning bush story and he, like Jesus, made no mention of
Jesus being present and certainly no mention of Jesus being the God that spoke to
Moses then (Acts 7:30-35). Stephen simply refers to God and later speaks of Jesus as
a righteous man that God exalted to his right hand.

Act 7:56 And he said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of Man
standing at the right hand of God."

So the Trinitarians want us to believe that in John 8, although Moses and the burning
bush story aren't even mentioned, that Jesus is claiming to be the very God that spoke
to Moses, in light of the fact that Peter plainly distinguished Jesus from that God of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, calling Jesus the servant of this God. In light of that and
in light of the FACT that both Jesus and Stephen referred specifically to the burning
bush story and both of them made no mention of Jesus being present, nor making any
claim that he was the God that was speaking then.

Instead Jesus refers to that God as someone other than himself referring to him as HE.
Jesus plainly said his Father is the “only true God” and that he (Jesus) has the same
God we do (John 17:3, 20:17). Clearly the Trinitarian’s claims are desperate and
unfounded. Jesus was saying that Messiah existed from the beginning as part of Gods
purpose and plan and that the patriarchs were aware of this. Jesus was foreknown by
God (1Pet 1:20) and slain before the world began (rev 13:8) in God's pre-existent
plan. However he was not alive as a person prior to his creation in Mary’s womb.

Claim 2. Jesus is God because he is titled Lord

This is confusing because of the way the English word "lord" was added to the Old
Testament in place of the "sacred name". Since lord is used for God in the OT and
applied to Jesus in the NT people mistake them as the same being. The English word
"lord" however used to be a common title back when it was placed in the bible in the
1600's. Lord meant the equivalent of "owner" or "boss" today. Ever heard the term
"drug-lord" or "land-lord", even today in Great Britain there is the "House of Lords".
So the English word "lord" had no direct connection to deity, but over the years in
Christianity it came to be used that way. Today the word is archaic and is hardly used
outside of religious circles, at least in America. Anyways the bible makes clear that
while Jesus is Lord, it is because he was made that by his God and Father

Act 2:36 Let all the house of Israel therefore know for certain that God has made him
both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified."
This was done for God's glory

Phi 2:9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is
above every name,
Phi 2:10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth
and under the earth,
Phi 2:11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the
Father.

Because Jesus was obedient to God and humbly carried out his messianic mission,
God exalted him and gave him the name above all names so that Jesus should be Lord
and Christ, TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER. Jesus wasn't eternally in this
position rather he was appointed this by his God because of his obedience and
faithfulness. So Jesus is Lord and is plainly distinguished from God in the greetings of
the epistles. Christians believe in 1 God and 1 Lord, not a 3 person God.

1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for
whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through
whom we exist.

Claim 3. Jesus is God because he received worship

Well the bible says Jesus received worship but the bible also says King David did. The
word translated as worship can also be translated reverence/honor/adore/homage. Just
as King David received it as God's anointed King, Jesus does more so as the King of
the Kingdom of God and Messiah, Son of the Living God, Son of David. The Greek
word translated "worship" and applied to Jesus is the same Greek word used in the
Septuagint for what was given to King David. Either way it doesn't matter because
Jesus only receives what God has appointed for him to receive. Angels were directed
to worship/honor/revere him (Heb 1:6) and he was appointed judge of the world so he
can be honored as God is, essentially giving him a functional equality with himself
(John 5:22,23, Acts 10:42, 17:31). This was all done by God exalting Jesus not
because Jesus is God. Jesus said he would have men "worship" before his disciples’
feet but that doesn't make them God too!

Rev 3:9 Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews,
and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet,
and to know that I have loved thee.

Claim 4. Jesus is God because he is called "god"

Similar to the "lord" title. The word "god" isn't a precise translation but is generally
used to mean "mighty, mighty one, mighty ruler" and is used primarily for God the
Father but not exclusively. The word can be applied to non-divine beings on occasion
and the word can even be used as an adjective (Gen 23:6, 2Cor 11:2). Moses was
given the title "god" in Exo 4:16, 7:1, also that word is applied to angels and men
(2Cor 4:4. Psa 82:6, John 10:33, Psa 8:5). Since the word "god" being applied to
someone doesn't automatically make him or her the Most High, then pointing to a
verse where Jesus is called "god" doesn't prove anything in light of the evidence
presented. However if angels and men can be called "god" under certain
circumstances then it's not a surprise if Jesus can be also. In Hebrews 1:8,9 Jesus is
called "god" but at the same time it makes clear he has a God above him that is
anointing him above his companions/fellows. This passage is from Psa 45 where it is
originally applied to King David. The writer says to King David

Psa 45:1 To the choirmaster: according to Lilies. A Maskil of the Sons of Korah; a
love song. My heart overflows with a pleasing theme; I address my verses to the king;
my tongue is like the pen of a ready scribe.

Psa 45:2 You are the most handsome of the sons of men; grace is poured upon your
lips; therefore God has blessed you forever.

Psa 45:3 Gird your sword on your thigh, O mighty one, in your splendor and majesty!

Psa 45:4 In your majesty ride out victoriously for the cause of truth and meekness and
righteousness; let your right hand teach you awesome deeds!
Psa 45:5 Your arrows are sharp in the heart of the king's enemies; the peoples fall
under you.

Psa 45:6 Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of your kingdom is a
scepter of uprightness;

Psa 45:7 you have loved righteousness and hated wickedness. Therefore God, your
God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions;

Notice the author is speaking praises upon King David, he says “your throne o god
(King David)”….”you have loved righteousness and hated wickedness. Therefore
god (King David), your God (The Father) has anointed you with the oil of gladness
beyond your companions. Notice this clearly isn’t talking about 2 co-equal, co-
eternal spirit beings. It is talking about a human being rewarded/exalted above his
companions due to his obedience of loving righteousness and hating wickedness. Just
as this passage was originally written of King David, it can also be applied to Jesus
the Son of David, the Messiah. However being called “god” in this passage does not
mean this person is a co-equal, co-eternal spirit being, it means “mighty one” which is
why it is applied primarily to the Father but also to King David, Moses, Judges of
Israel, Satan and others. However if one wants to be stubborn in Heb 1:8,9 and insist
the word “god” there is used to mean “supreme eternal being”, then what you have is
2 gods. The passage doesn’t speak of 2 co-equal, co-eternal persons making up 1 God
but rather it speaks plainly of 2 gods. So this passage cannot be used to support a
trinity or Jesus being co-equal, co-eternal with the Father.

Also some say Thomas called Jesus God in John 20:28, again if the understanding of
the word "god" is considered then Thomas could have been saying "my boss and
mighty one" or "my master and my mighty ruler/judge". The word "god/theos" can be
used in a lesser sense for human judges/rulers as Jesus pointed out earlier in John's
gospel (John 10:34-36). However John says three verses later that everything he wrote
was for the purpose of convincing us that Jesus is Messiah and Son of God, not
written so that we would believe Jesus is God or a member of a 3 person God!

John 20:31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the
Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.

Claim 5. Jesus is God because he forgave sins

The bible says Jesus was ordained judge and as judge he was given authority to
forgive sins. Jesus said this command he received from his Father

Mat 9:6 But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive
sins"--he then said to the paralytic--"Rise, pick up your bed and go home."
Mat 9:7 And he rose and went home.
Mat 9:8 When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had
given such authority to men.

Notice Jesus ability to forgive sins was an authority given to him. He demonstrated
he had this authority by healing the paralytic showing that God was in fact with him
(John 5:22,23,27 Acts 10:42, 17:31). The people watching this glorified God for
giving such authority to a man (the authority to heal and forgive). They didn’t
however think Jesus was God! Also Jesus gave his apostles power to forgive sins, but
that doesn't make them part of a “godhead”.

John 20:22 And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them,
"Receive the Holy Spirit.
John 20:23 If you forgive the sins of anyone, they are forgiven; if you withhold
forgiveness from anyone, it is withheld."

Claim 6. Jesus is God because he was sinless

The bible showed how we needed a lamb without spot or blemish. This was to
foreshadow the idea of a sinless man taking our place and punishment (Isa 53). Jesus
was without sin but that does not make him God. Adam was without sin for a while
too. There are angels in heaven without sin right now; there are also angels that got
kicked out for sinning. Jesus was the 2nd Adam (rom 5, 1Cor 15) and remained
faithfully obedient to God's will unlike the first Adam. Jesus did this by always doing
what pleased the Father (John 8:29), and by loving righteousness and hating iniquity
(Heb 1:8,9). Abraham was asked to offer his Son as a sacrifice to God, God didn't ask
Abraham to offer up himself and lay himself on the altar! God was foreshadowing
how he would offer up his Son. The bible says explicitly God offered up his Son
(John 3:16) and sent forth his Son (1John 4:14,15), it does not say God himself would
become a man and suffer and die. God brought forth his Son (Luke 1:35, Heb 1:5),
anointed him with power (Acts 10:38) and oversaw him throughout his mission to be
the Savior of men by being a sinless sacrifice for his "brethren" (John 8:29, 16:32).
This Lamb of God is plainly distinguished from God in the book of revelation (rev
7:10, 14:4,10, 21:22).

Claim 7. Jesus is God because he supposedly created all things

Well the New Testament explicitly attributes all creation to God the Father himself...

1Ti 6:13 I charge you in the presence of God, who gives life to all things, and of
Christ Jesus, who in his testimony before Pontius Pilate made the good confession,

Rev 4:11 "Worthy are you, our Lord and God, to receive glory and honor and power,
for you created all things, and by your will they existed and were created."

Act 4:24 And when they heard it, they lifted their voices together to God and said,
"Sovereign Lord, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and everything in
them,

Act 14:15 "Men, why are you doing these things? We also are men, of like nature
with you, and we bring you good news, that you should turn from these vain things to
a living God, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and all that is in them.

Act 17:24 The God who made the world and everything in it, being Lord of heaven
and earth, does not live in temples made by man,

Eph 3:9 and to bring to light for everyone what is the plan of the mystery hidden for
ages in God who created all things,

Paul says to Timothy that it is God that gives life to all things, and then distinguishes
God from the Messiah Jesus as he always does. Then Paul speaking to the Greeks in
Acts 17, teaches how God has made the world and he goes on to say this God raised
up a man to judge the world (Acts 17:31). John in revelation plainly attributes all
creation to the one on the throne, the Lord God, who is distinguished from the lamb
that he gives a scroll to in the next chapter. The disciples pray to God in Acts 4 and
pray to God the Father and attribute creation solely to him. The bible says a singular
personal God made all things alone. Each passage in context describes God as creator
and distinguished from Jesus.
Isa 44:24 Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, who formed you from the womb: "I
am the LORD, who made all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread
out the earth by myself,

Notice the lack of plural terms, a singular personal being is speaking saying "I, alone,
myself." Jesus referred to God the creator as someone other than himself…

Mat 19:3 And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful to
divorce one's wife for any cause?"
Mat 19:4 He answered, "Have you not read that he who created them from the
beginning made them male and female,

Now Jesus here refers back to creation saying “he who created them”, he doesn't
include himself as being present then or active in the creating process. Instead simply
refers back to God creating and referring to God as HE, a singular personal being who
is someone other than himself. He did not say “we who created them” or “when I
made them." Jesus said something similar here…

Mar 13:19 For in those days there will be such tribulation as has not been from the
beginning of the creation that God created until now, and never will be.

Here Jesus again refers to creation saying “from the beginning of the creation that
God created until now”. Once again Jesus makes no mention of being present then or
of actually being a participant in the creating. The same God he refers to as doing the
creating he called “the only true God” and said was his God and our God (John 17:3,
20:17).

John 1

Well John 1 refers to the logos being with God, the logos is not a second pre-existent
person but is the utterance/expression and/or reason/motive/purpose of God. God's
word is no more a distinct person from himself than your word is a distinct person
from yourself! Jesus preexisted in the plan and purpose of God (1Pet 1:20) and this
became fulfilled when Jesus was miraculously created in Mary's womb by God (Matt
1:18, Luke 1:35). The HE/IT that created all things in verse 3 is the word of God (the
word HE in verse 3 was translated as IT in the first half dozen translations of the
English bible before the KJV). The Greek language attaches a gender to every noun
and so when translated into English, one has to determine whether the noun is a
person or thing and adjust the pronoun (which is ambiguous) accordingly. The logos
prior to the KJV (in the bishops and Geneva translations among others) was translated
as IT because the translators correctly understood that the logos is a thing and not a
person. The personified attribute of God was used of God's wisdom in the book of
Proverbs; wisdom is described as a female person being with God during creation
(pro 8) and other places like job 12:13. God spoke creation into existence; he didn't
use a second person to do it. His word/plan later became embodied/manifested when
he created his Son. His Son was the manifestation of God's plan through his teachings
that God gave him (John 7:16, 12:49) and through his ministry. God's creative word
is not a person.

Heb 11:3 By faith we understand that the universe was created by the word of God, so
that what is seen was not made out of things that are visible.
Psa 33:6 By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, and by the breath of his
mouth all their host.
Notice God's word is described as actual words, unseen, breath from his mouth, not a
person.

An audio teaching on John 1 can be found here http://focusonthekingdom.org/av.htm

Colossians 1

Colossians 1 is simply a matter of translation.

Col 1:16 for IN him were all things created, in the heavens and upon the earth, things
visible and things invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers;
all things have been created through him, and unto him;

God created all things IN his Son because his Son is firstborn, heir of all things and
the focal point of God's creation. Paul spoke of God choosing believers IN Christ
before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Since God had this foreknown plan
revolving around his Son (1Pet 1:20) it can be said that God created everything IN,
THROUGH and FOR his Son. Jesus spoke of God alone as creator (Matt 19:4) and
the OT says the same, God created alone (Isa 44:24). The Greek word translated
“BY” in verse 16 in most translations, is translated “IN” 1,874 other places! Jesus is
not the creator in this verse. Paul said the same thing in Ephesians.

Eph 1:20 that he (God) worked in Christ when he raised him from the dead and seated
him at his right hand in the heavenly places,
Eph 1:21 far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and above every
name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to come.
Eph 1:22 And he put all things under his feet and gave him as head over all things to
the church,
Eph 1:23 which is his body, the fullness of him who fills all in all.
Paul says God put Jesus at his right hand and God put all these things under his feet.
Peter said the same...
1Pe 3:22 who has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God, with angels,
authorities, and powers having been subjected to him.
God is the creator of all things and has placed them under Jesus' authority, which is
why Jesus is called the HEIR OF ALL THINGS! God predestined Christians IN him
before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4, 2:10).

Hebrews 1

Heb 1:2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the
heir of all things, through (for) whom also he created the ages.

Hebrews 1 makes clear God spoke by Jesus, God appointed him heir of all things,
God made the ages through/for him, the world to come is for his Kingdom, God is the
creative power here not Jesus.

Heb 1:5 For to which of the angels did God ever say, "You are my son! Today I have
fathered you"? And in another place he says, "I will be his father and he will be my
son."
Heb 1:6 But when he again brings his firstborn into the world, he says, "Let all the
angels of God worship him!"
Verse 5 speaks of God creating Jesus in Mary’s womb “today I have
Fathered/Begotten you”. There goes the Trinitarian “eternally begotten” concept.
There is no eternal God the Son person, Jesus was begotten on a specific day, and as
pointed out in the next part, that day was in the future “I will be his Father and he will
be my Son.” How can God say he WILL BE his Father, if they were eternally in a
Father and Son relationship? And how can there be a eternal Father and Son
relationship in the first place? Trinitarians have no answers.

Verse 6 now refers to Jesus being raised from the dead. Jesus is “again” brought into
the world at his resurrection and the following verses are referring to Jesus position
and actions after this point in time. Verses 8-10 therefore are applied to the glorified
and exalted Jesus. Verses 8,9 are about Jesus being rewarded to an exalted state above
his companions because of his obedience. The author then applies a psalm about
David to Jesus. Jesus is called “god” but it is equally clear he has a God above him
that is anointing him to this new position as a reward. Clearly the idea of a multi
person god is absent from this context. In verse 10 the LXX needs to be consulted.
The author of Hebrews has been quoting from the LXX up to this point. If we keep in
mind that verse 6 and after are referring to what happens to Jesus after his resurrection
(after he is again brought into the world) Then we see that this passage is being
applied to the Messiah creating the new heavens and earth in the future age to come of
which the author is speaking.

Heb 2:5 Now it was not to angels that God subjected the world to come, of which we
are speaking.

F.F Bruce says that the LXX indicates that while the suppliant is addressing God in
the first part of the passage, God responds to the suppliant in verse 23 “He (God)
answered him (the suppliant) in the way of his strength”.
An audio teaching on Hebrews 1 can be found here
http://focusonthekingdom.org/av.htm

Claim 8. Jesus is God because he is designated Savior

The Old Testament says besides God there is no savior, the New Testament calls both
God and Jesus savior, therefore Jesus must be God too. Not quite, had God not sent
Jesus, salvation wouldn't have been possible. God is the sole source but Jesus is the
means/vessel by which God carried out the process. God has appointed his Son many
things, like judge and savior. God has appointed Jesus the vessel by which he carries
these out. Jesus said he did not come of his own accord (John 8:42), he was sent by
God to be the savior, his God and Father is the source and Jesus humbly carried out
his God and Father's will.

If the President is told that an American embassy has been raided and hostages have
been taken, and if their rescue is based on his decision, then he is the source of their
salvation. Say the president sends in a hostage rescue team and they are saved from
their captors. In this case the president would be the source of their salvation, but the
rescue team are their "saviors" also in that they physically carried out the rescue. God
simply planned to use his Son to carry out the process, this does not make the Son into
God nor does it contradict the idea that besides or apart from God salvation is not
possible.

1Jo 4:14 And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior
of the world.
1Jo 4:15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he
in God.

Right after saying the Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world, he says we
must confess Jesus is the Son of God, he does not say we are to confess Jesus is God,
the bible doesn't say ANYWHERE to confess Jesus is God! Trinitarians use the
scattershot tactic like a shotgun. When confronted with the contradictions and
inconsistencies in their beliefs, they blast out their little pellet arguments hoping that
the quantity of them will be confusing enough to be convincing. But when each of
these little pellet arguments is given the slightest scrutiny they are found to be weak
and unconvincing in light of the preponderance of evidence to the opposite. When
confronted with the weakness of any of these arguments the Trinitarian doesn't bother
to remove them from their repertoire they simply shuffle around to another weak
argument. So they just retain bad arguments and save them for a later time hoping it
can be later used against someone that doesn't know better and will be impressed by
it. All of these arguments however are at the expense of Jesus own teachings and the
totality of scripture and are done solely to preserve a long standing and highly
regarded tradition of men known as the trinity.
9. Jesus is God because he is described as being in the form of God

Php 2:5 Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with
God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness
of men;
Php 2:8 and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient
even unto death, yea, the death of the cross.
Php 2:9 Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is
above every name;
Php 2:10 that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and
things on earth and things under the earth,
Php 2:11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory
of God the Father.

Paul here is speaking of the Messiah Jesus who was, as Jews understood, an anointed
man. This is the same Paul that explicitly distinguished Jesus from God in ever
epistle greeting, including the beginning of this epistle.

Php 1:2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
The same Paul who as shown earlier, preached around the Mediterranean in the book
of Acts that Jesus is the Son of God. The same Paul that painfully distinguished Jesus
from the one God of the bible (1Tim 2:5, 1Cor 8:6, Eph 4:4-6) Paul tells his
Philippian audience to be like this man, who even though he was in the form/status of
God did not grasp at equality with God. Instead he emptied/humbled himself taking
the form/status of a servant/slave. In other words Jesus as God’s only begotten Son
and King of Israel stood in a functional equality with God. He had a godlike
form/status as God’s anointed represented coming in God’s name (John 5:43).
However instead of calling for people to serve him he humbled himself to serve his
brethren. He became obedient even to death and what happened? GOD HIGHLY
EXALTED HIM! Who exalted him? God did! Jesus, even within this supposed
Trinitarian proof text is plainly distinguished from God. Trinitarians like to ignore
verses 9-11, which show as the rest of the bible, does, that Jesus exaltation was a
reward based on his obedience! People confuse Jesus legal agency with ontological
identity.

10. Jesus is God because he is called equal to God.

John 5:16 And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing
these things on the Sabbath.

John 5:17 But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am
working."
John 5:18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not
only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father,
making himself equal with God.

John 5:19 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of
his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does,
that the Son does likewise.

John 5:20 For the Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing.
And greater works than these will he show him, so that you may marvel.

John 5:21 For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives
life to whom he will.

John 5:22 The Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son,

John 5:23 that all may honor the Son, just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not
honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.

It is not clear whether John is recording the Jewish accusation against Jesus (v18) or
whether John was saying what he himself believed. If this is simply the accusation
then it is meaningless since the Jews also called him a drunkard, demon-possessed,
glutton, crazy, etc. Some people are uncomfortable with the idea that Jesus broke the
Sabbath thus they reason John was simply giving the Jewish accusations.

However elsewhere Jesus seemed to defend his ability to break the Sabbath by calling
himself Lord of the Sabbath and pointing out how David broke it also but his Jewish
accusers wouldn't speak evil of David. Jesus did have a functional equality with God
but it was delegated to him by God. It was one of authority not of inherent attributes.
Jesus says so in verse 19 saying “the Son can do nothing on his own accord...” Jesus
claims no power or authority of his own, both of which Trinitarians impose on Jesus
as a pre-existent god-man. If we let Jesus speak for himself however he says he is the
Messiah (John 4:26) whom can do nothing on his own (5:19,30) but whom God has
empowered and authorized to go about his mission. Jesus said in 5:21 that he has
been given power to give life, in 5:22-23 that he was given judgment thus giving him
an authoritative equality with God. He then says again in verses 26-30 that he has
power to resurrect and judge given to him. Saying he can do nothing on his own
again in verse 30.

John 5:36 But the testimony that I have is greater than that of John. For the works that
the Father has given me to accomplish, the very works that I am doing, bear witness
about me that the Father has sent me.
Jesus gave all glory to his Father, he did nothing by himself all his works were to bear
witness that the Father sent him. Instead Trinitarians say his works are proof that he
is a god-man and member of a three-person god. In order to draw such a conclusion
you need to reject Jesus teachings, which Trinitarians do unusually well.
Other Thoughts

Let's recap some of the information provided.

God speaks and is spoken of with singular pronouns constantly (I, me, my, myself, he,
him, himself)
The messiah was to be a man like Moses, a man anointed with God's spirit. (Isa 42,
53, 61, Deu 18)

The only number ever associated with God is ONE (not three, threeness, trinity,
triune). (1Tim 2:5, 1Cor 8:4-6, Eph 4:4-6)

Jesus affirmed the Jewish unitarian monotheism and said he has the same God
everyone else does. (Mark 12:29, John 17:3, 20:17)

Jesus disciples describe Jesus as the Christ and Son of God and distinguished him
from the God of the bible. (Acts 2:36, 3:13, 5:30)
Nowhere in the bible is there an effort to change the unitarian monotheism of the Jews
or to explain a trinity.
Trinitarians need to create all kinds of nonbiblical terminology to support their
presuppositions (trinity, triune, god the son, eternally begotten, hypostasis,
substance/essence.
Jesus ceases to be a man, the Messiah, and Son of God in any genuine sense when he
is made into a member of a 3 person God.
The trinity is constantly read into the bible by trinitarians because they presume it to
be true. They then make unnatural and unnecessary qualifications on Jesus' plain
statements to get them into some kind of trinitarian compatible fashion.
The trinity is totally unnecessary to explain Jesus life, ministry and exaltation and in
fact only demeans and minimizes Jesus' accomplishments.

Jesus was sent by God (John 3:16, 1John 4:15).

Jesus was anointed with the holy spirit (Acts 10:38).
Jesus was ordained the judge of the world (Acts 10:42, 17:31).
Jesus was given all power in heaven and earth (Matt 28:18).
Jesus was given authority over all flesh, so he can give eternal life to who he wills
(John 17:2).
Jesus was exalted and given a name above all names (Php 2:9-11)
Jesus was given life in himself (John 5:26,27)

The idea that Jesus was a member of a 3 person God that added a human nature to
himself by being turned into an egg in a virgin’s woman is utterly absurd. There is a
good rule of thumb that says that when trying to interpret something, the simplest
explanation that requires the fewest presuppositions is the best.
So when God says, "this day I have begotten you" and "I will be his Father and he
will be my Son", a simple understanding of these passages is that the Son of God
came into existence at a certain point in time.

So when God says "I am the Lord your God, you shall have no other gods before me"
and "I am the LORD, who made all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who
spread out the earth by myself", a simple understanding of these passages is that God
is a single person.

So when Jesus says "And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God,
and Jesus Christ whom you have sent", a simple understanding is Jesus is not God.

So when Peter says to the Jews in the temple "The God of Abraham, the God of
Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom
you delivered over and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to
release him.", a simple understanding is Jesus is not God.

So when Paul says, "For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and
men, the man Christ Jesus," a simple understanding is Jesus not God

So when Paul says "there is no God but one.... to us there is one God, the Father", a
simple understanding is that Jesus is not God.

The trinity says there is one God substance shared by 3 distinct persons, under this
definition, God could have potentially been, 30 persons, 300 persons, even 3,000
persons and still remained one God! Does that sound like Monotheism to you?
Trinitarians can try to define God as "1 what in 3 who's" but the bible certainly
doesn't. Trinitarians have simply created their own god to accommodate multiple
persons. Jews and Muslims rightly see this as polytheism masquerading as
monotheism. This trinity doctrine was developed over centuries and supported by
nothing more than creeds of men. A simple majority rule. Trusting the majority isn't
wise from a biblical standpoint. Many will go down the broad path to destruction
according to Jesus but few walk the narrow path that leads to life. The many called
out "crucify him, crucify him" while the few trusted him as Lord and Savior. Did
churches ordain gay bishops 100 years ago? Nope, things can certainly change over
100 years can't they?

Is it any surprise that when gentiles living in the pagan Roman Empire converted to
Christianity many did not have a very firm grasp of the Hebrew bible? Is it a surprise
if they went from Greek mythology and emperor worship to Christianity, that maybe
after a couple hundred years they could have turned Jesus into a godman? The Greeks
turned Jesus' legal agency into ontological identity because of their backgrounds and
lack of familiarity with the Hebrew bible and Jewish thought. Once they decided
Jesus was the same substance as God they then had to create their own terminology to
go with it. Later they added a Holy Spirit person to the mix and then they had to
explain how exactly Jesus could be both man and God at the same time. All of these
problems were resolved in various institutional church councils, all based on the false
premise that Jesus and God are the same substance, a word never used in the bible.
This is all the result of Greek philosophy and unbiblical terminology all of which is
utterly unnecessary in the first place. God created the first Adam, the first Adam blew
it. So God created a second Adam to fix it. God coming down from heaven and
becoming a man has no business in the equation at all.

If Jesus says he has the same God we do and that his God is the only true God then
that is good enough for me.

John 17:3 And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus
Christ whom you have sent.

John 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the
Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your
Father, to my God and your God.'"