SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL NEET GRAND TEST - 2 DATE : 11-01-2020
SUB : BOTANY Max. Marks : 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-
Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. Taxonomic aids that are generally analytical (3) Bioprospecting

in nature are (4) Bioremediation
(1) Herbaria 5. Montreal protocol is a global agreement to

(2) Museum (1) Reduce the emission of greenhouse

gases
(3) Flora
(2) Develop strategies for the conservation
(4) Keys and sustainable use of biological
diversity
2. India has deserts, rain forests, mangroves, (3) Protect the stratospheric ozone layer by
coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine phasing out the production of ozone-
meadows. Which of the following terms will depleting substances
you use to describe such diversity?
(4) Control transboundary movements of
(1) Genetic diversity hazardous wastes and their disposal
(2) Species diversity
6. The relationship between which among the
(3) Alpha diversity following is an example of commensalism?
(4) Ecosystem diversity (1) The Mediterranean orchid and the
pollinator bee
3. Greenhouse gases are
(2) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
(1) Transparent to visible light but opaque (3) Phycobiont and mycobiont
to infrared radiation
(4) Cuscuta and the hedge plant
(2) Transparent to infrared radiation but
opaque to visible light 7. Jhum cultivation in the north-eastern states of
India has contributed to
(3) Transparent to heat radiation but
opaque to light radiation (1) Reforestation
(2) Ozone depletion
(4) Opaque to both heat radiation and light
radiation (3) Deforestation
(4) Soil fertility
4. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species
level diversity for novel products of economic 8. A moneran with oxygenic photosynthesis is
importance is known as (1) Chlorobium
(1) Biopiracy (2) Nostoc
(2) Bioenergetics (3) Chromatium
(4) Rhodospirillum
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 1
9. Which of the following is not a fungus (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Aspergillus 13. Which of the following is a member of
phaeophyceae
(2) Neurospora
(1) Volvox
(3) Acacia
(2) Porphyra
(4) Mucor
(3) Oedogonium
10. Hashish is a drug obtained from (4) Ectocarpus
(1) Cannabis sativa 14. Findout correct statement regarding
(2) Papaver somniferum Bryophytes
(3) Erythroxylum coca (1) They are first terrestrial plants to
(4) Atropa belladonna possess vascular tissues
(2) heterosphorous
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(3) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous,
(1) A virion (virus) contains a protein coat
or anisogamous or oogamous
and core of nucleic acid
(4) Zygotic meiosis is absent
(2) Prions are abnormally folded proteins
15. Free living thalloid gametophyte of Ferns is
(3) Viroid is a double stranded RNA
called
without any protein coat (1) Protonema
(4) A virus is a nucleoprotein and the (2) Protocorm
genetic material is infectious (3) Prothallus

12. Given below are four statements pertaining to (4) Profil

fertilisation in human beings. Identify the 16. Which of the following is not an
correct statements. embryophyte
(a) Fertilisation can occur if the ovum and (1) Riccia
sperms are transported simultaneously
to the ampullary region of the fallopian (2) Pteridium
tube. (3) Cycas
(b) The secretions of the acrosome help the (4) Fucus
sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the
ovum. 17. Which of the following character is not
(c) The completion of meiotic division of related to Pinus
secondary oocyte is induced by the (1) Winged pollen grains
entry of a sperm into it. (2) Branched stem
(d) Hyaluronidase secreted by the acrosome (3) Acicular /Needle like leaves
ensures that only one sperm can fertilise
an ovum. (4) Absence of archegonia
Choose correct answer from the options given 18. Leaf tendrils are found in
below: (1) Peas
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Cacti
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Citrus
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Bougainvillea
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 2
19. In which genetic condition, each nucleated (4) Coleorhiza – sheath around radicle and
somatic cell in the affected person has three
root cap
copies of chromosome 21?
(1) Turner’s Syndrome 24. In which family carpels are obliquely placed
(2) Down’s syndrome (1) Potato family
(3) Klinefelter’s Syndrome (2) Lily family
(4) Edwards’ syndrome (3) Pea family
20. Incorrect statement w.r.t mustard plant (4) Mustard family
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy 25. Which family is represented by the following
(2) Superior ovary floral formula
(3) Stamens are of same length
Br, , , P(3+3) A3+3 G(3)
(4) Tetramerous flowers

21. Which of the following statements is incorrect (1) Fabaceae

about the origin and evolution of man? (2) Liliaceae
(1) Australopithecines probably lived in (3) Solanaceae
East African grasslands about two
million years ago. (4) Asteraceae
(2) Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of 26. Collateral and closed vascular bundles are
about 900 cc present in
(3) Neanderthals used hides to protect their (1) Dicot stem and leaves
body and buried their dead.
(2) Monocot stem and all roots
(4) Homo sapiens arose in Asia and moved
across continents and developed into (3) Monocot stem and all leaves
distinct races (4) Monocot stem and dicot stem
22. Correct statement regarding flowers of rose 27. Statement –I : Vascular cambium in dicot
plant roots is partly primary and partly secondary
Statement-II : In dicot root interfascicular
(1) Epigynous flowers with apocarpous
cambium arises by dedifferentiation of cells
gynoecium of medullary rays
(2) Perigynous flowers with synncarpous (1) Both statements are true
gynoecium (2) Both statements are false
(3) Hypogynous flowers with apocarpous (3) Statement I is true, where as statement
gynoecium II is false
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is
(4) Perigynous flowers with apocarpous
true
gynoecium
28. Inulin is a polymer of
23. Incorrect match regarding grass embryo
(1) Glucose
(1) Coleoptile – sheath around plumule
(2) Fructose
(2) Epiblast – endosperm
(3) Cellobiose
(3) Scutellum – cotyledon
(4) Acetyl galactos amine
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 3
29. Match the following organisms with their (1) Synthesis of lipids
respective characteristics.
(2) Glycogen metabolism
Column I Column II
(3) Sterol metabolism
(a) Canis (i) Operculum
(4) Protein synthesis
(b) Catla (ii) Pneumatic bones
33. Which one of the following processes during
(c) Corvus (iii) Pinna decomposition is not correctly described?

(d) Crocodylus (iv) Scutes (1) Catabolism: Bacterial and fungal

enzymes degrade detritus into simpler
inorganic substances
Select the correct option. (2) Mineralisation: Degradation of humus
(a) (b) (c) (d) by microbes resulting in the release of
inorganic nutrients
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Leaching: Water-soluble organic
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) nutrients go down into the soil horizon
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (4) Humification: Leads to the
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) accumulation of a dark coloured
amorphous substance called humus that
30. What are prosthetic groups
is highly resistant to microbial action
(1) Organic compounds tightly bound to
34. From which face of Golgi apparatus the
the apoenzyme
protein enter in
(2) Metal ion cofactors loosely attached to
(1) Transface
apoenzyme
(2) Cisface
(3) Organic compounds having transient
(3) Lateral vescicule
association with apoenzyme
(4) Terminal vacuoles
(4) Organic compounds or metal ions
35. The axoneme of cilia and flagella possess
tightly bound to the apoenzymes
(1) Microfilaments in 9+2 array
31. Statement-I : RNA with catalytic property is
(2) Microtubules in 9+0 array
called ribozyme
(3) Microtubules 9+2 array
Statement-II : Ribozymes present in
(4) Microfilaments in 9+0 array
eukaryotes only
36. Which of the following is true about T
(1) Both statements are true
lymphocytes?
(2) Both statements are false
(1) They develop in thymus and mature in
(3) Statement I is true, where as statement bone marrow
II is false (2) They produce an army of proteins in
response to pathogens into our blood
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is
(3) They phagocytose and destroy
true pathogenic microbes
32. Which of the following is not a function of (4) They do not secrete antibodies but help
agranular endoplasmic reticulum B cells to produce them

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 4
37. Nucleolus associated with (4) Azospirillum
(1) Centromere 43. Which of the following absent in stroma
(2) Kinetochore lamellae
(3) Telomere (1) PS – I
(4) Secondary constriction (2) Fd
38. Which of the following not happen during (3) PS – II & NADP reductase
prophase – I (4) Cyt b6 – t complex
(1) Synapsis
44. Calvin cycle is the major biosynthetic
(2) Crossing over
pathway in
(3) Chiasmata formation
(1) C3 plants only
(4) Splilting of centromeres
(2) C4 plants only
39. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(3) CAM plants only
(1) Facilitated diffusion is passive process
(4) All photosynthetic plants
(2) Active transport pumps molecules
45. Number of ATP produced per each molecule
against concentration gradient
of actyl CoA
(3) Porins are found in the inner membrane
(1) 38
of certain bacteria
(2) 12
(4) Passive transport is entropy driven
(3) 4
process
(4) 24
40. In an ecosystem, the rate of production of
organic matter during photosynthesis is 46. Select the incorrect statement regarding
termed animal breeding.
(1) Gross primary productivity (1) Outcrossing is the practice of mating of
animals of two different breeds having
(2) Net primary productivity no common ancestors up to 4-6
(3) Gross secondary productivity generations
(4) Net secondary productivity (2) Continued inbreeding, especially close
41. Micronutrient Boron is required for inbreeding, usually reduces fertility and
even productivity
(1) Electron transfer chain
(3) Controlled breeding experiments are
(2) Synthesis of auxins carried out using artificial insemination
(3) Carbohydrate translocation (4) A single outcross often helps to
overcome inbreeding depression
(4) In determining solute concentration
47. Ubiquinone provides it’s electrons to
42. Nitrogen fixing root nodules on the roots of
(1) Complex – I
Alnus are produced by
(2) Complex – II
(1) Rhizobium
(3) Complex – III
(2) Frankia
(4) ATP
(3) Nostoc
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 5
48. Which process prevents precocious (1) Bateson
reproductory development late in the (2) Morgon
growing season
(3) Punnet
(1) Vernalisation
(4) Sutton
(2) Photoperiodism
54. If three children in a family having blood
(3) Photomorphogenesis
groups A,B and O, What could be blood
(4) Quiscence groups of their mother and father
49. Strobilanthus kunthiana produces flower, (1) A and O
once in (2) AB and O
(1) Two years (3) A and B
(2) 12 years (4) 2 and 3
(3) 1.2 years
55. The pattern of natural selection that converts a
(4) 120 years unimodal distribution of phenotypes into a
bimodal one is
50. Development of new organism from the
(1) Normalising selection
female gamete without fertilisation is called
(2) Directional selection
(1) Syngamy
(3) Stabilising selection
(2) Apospory
(4) Disruptive selection
(3) Amphimixis
56. The figure below shows the structure of an
(4) Parthenogenesis endocrine gland with two parts labelled A and
B. Select the option that correctly identifies a
51. Lizards in Caribbean islands mostly eat the part along with its function.
same type of insects. However, different
species of lizards live in different
microhabitats which allows them to coexist in
the larger habitat. This mechanism is referred
to as
(1) Resource partitioning
(2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Interference competition
(4) Exploitative competition (1) A: Adrenal medulla - Brings about
52. Which of the following is not a method of ex- fight or flight
situ conservation of biodiversity? response
(1) Zoological park (2) B: Adrenal cortex - Secretes
(2) Biodiversity hotspot corticosteroids
(3) Botanical garden
(3) A: Adrenal cortex - Secretes
(4) Cryopreservation glucagon
53. Results of Mendels cross are represented by
(4) B: Adrenal medulla - Secretes
“Checker board method”. This method was
catecholamines
given by
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 6
57. Which of the following is most effectively 61. The similarity between the eye of octopus and
controlled by anti-histamine? that of man does not come from their recent
(1) Attack of self-cells by IgG antibodies common ancestor but due to similar selective
pressures which led to the evolution of similar
(2) IgE mediated exaggerated immune organs that enhance visual acuity. This type of
response to allergens
evolution is referred to as
(3) Reduced immunity due to the depletion
of helper T lymphocytes (1) Divergent evolution
(4) Oncogenic transformation of normal (2) Adaptive radiation
cells into neoplastic cells (3) Convergent evolution
58. What is the correct sequence of stages during (4) Retrogressive evolution
spermatogenesis?
62. Match the items of column I and column II.
(1) Spermatogonium
spermatid

primary spermatocyte
secondary Column I Column II
spermatocyte
spermatozoon
(a) X body (i) Alfred
(2) Spermatogonium
secondary Sturtevant
spermatocyte
primary spermatocyte
(b) DNA (ii) Henking

spermatid
spermatozoon
sequencing
(3) Spermatogonium
primary
spermatocyte
secondary (c) Genetic maps (iii) Alec Jeffreys
spermatocyte
spermatid (d) DNA (iv) Fredrick

spermatozoon
fingerprinting sanger
(4) Primary spermatocyte
secondary
spermatocyte
spermatogonium
Select the correct option.
spermatid
spermatozoon
(a) (b) (c) (d)
59. Which of the following hormones enhances
the movement of glucose from blood into (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
hepatocytes and adipocytes?
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(1) Glucagon
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Cortisol
(3) Insulin (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) Aldosterone 63. If gene A & B showing 8% crossing over

then what would be distance between a & B
60. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of
the menstrual cycle because genes
(1) No follicles are left in the ovary after (1) 16 m.u
ovulation (2) 8 m.u
(2) LH levels are high (3) 32 m.u
(3) Oestrogen is not produced (4) 4 m.u
(4) FSH and LH levels are low

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 7
64. Which of the following statements is not (2) Gout
correct? (3) Tetany
(1) In the knee-jerk reflex, the afferent (4) Cretinism
neuron transmits the impulse from a
muscle spindle via the dorsal root of a 67. JG cells are located in the
spinal nerve into the CNS (1) Adrenal cortex
(2) Inhibitory neurotransmitters cause (2) Renal cortex
hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic
membrane (3) Adrenal medulla
(3) Movement of the foot of the stapes (4) Renal medulla
inward against the oval window causes
pressure waves in the scala vestibuli 68. Which of the following is the main stimulus
and scala tympani causing the round for the secretion of thyrocalcitonin?
window to bulge outward
(4) Light induces dissociation of the retinal (1) A rise in blood Ca+2 levels
from opsin resulting in changes in the (2) Low Ca+2 in the diet
structure of the opsin
(3) A fall in blood Ca+2 levels
65. Select the option that correctly identifies the (4) A rise in bone Ca+2 levels
bones labelled X and Y in the following
diagram and the type of joint between them. 69. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement?
(1) Saheli is an oral contraceptive for the
females
(2) Saheli contains a non-steroidal
preparation
(3) Saheli has few side effects and high
contraceptive value
(4) Saheli to be taken daily for 21 days in a
month

Type of Joint Example 70. Which of the following assisted reproductive

technologies involve in vivo fertilisation?
Parietal and
(1) Cartilaginous joint (1) GIFT and ZIFT
frontal
(2) IUI and GIFT
Temporal and
(2) Saddle joint (3) IVF and ICSI
parietal
(4) ICSI and GIFT
Occipital and
(3) Pivot joint 71. Which of the following is not an occupational
parietal
respiratory disorder?
Parietal and (1) Emphysema
(4) Fibrous joint
frontal
(2) Silicosis

66. Inflammation of joints due to the (3) Anthracosis

accumulation of uric acid crystals is termed (4) Siderosis
(1) Uremia

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 8
72. The volume of air that cannot be expelled drugs
from the lungs is
(1) Tidal volume
Select the correct option from the following.
(2) Residual volume
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Anatomic dead space (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
73. If the Purkinje fibres become the pacemaker
of the heart, what is the expected rate of (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
ventricular beat?
(1) 72 beats per minute (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) 80 beats per minute
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) 90 beats per minute
(4) 30 beats per minute
76. Match the items in column I with those in
74. During the cardiac cycle, the ventricular column II.
systole starts about 0.1 sec. after the atrial
systole, allowing the atria to empty their blood Column I Column II
into the ventricles. Which one of the following
is a major reason for this delay? (a) Nephritis (i) Diabetes
mellitus
(1) The rate of depolarisation is the highest
in the SA node
(b) Uremia (ii) Renal calculi
(2) The speed of conduction of action
potentials is the slowest in Purkinje (c) Oxalate (iii) Dialysis
fibres crystals
(3) AV node has specialised muscle fibres
with more gap junctions (d) Ketone bodies (iv) Glomerulus
(4) The speed of conduction of action
potentials is the slowest in the AV node
Select the correct option from the following.
75. Match the items in column I with those in
(a) (b) (c) (d)
column II.
Column I Column II (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(a) Lungs (i) Sterols, (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

hydrocarbons
and waxes (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) Liver (ii) NaCl, urea and (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
lactic acid

(c) Sweat glands (iii) Carbon dioxide 77. The maculae are the receptors for static
and water equilibrium located in the
(1) Utricle and saccule
(d) Sebaceous (iv) Cholesterol, (2) Crista ampullaris
glands steroid
hormones, (3) Organ of Corti
vitamins and (4) Semicircular canals
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 9
78. Which of the following is example of 84. Match the items in column I with those in
column II and select the most appropriate
codominance
option.
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilus Column I Column II
(2) Blood group AB (a) Bile salts (i) Parotid gland
(3) Size of starch grains in Pea
(b) Sphincter of (ii) Active transport
(4) Seed colour in Pea Oddi
79. AUG code for (c) Amylase (iii) Hepatopancreatic
ampulla
(1) Valine
(d) Na+ (iv) Micelles
(2) Methionine
(3) Leucine Options:
(4) Glutamic acid (a) (b) (c) (d)
80. Which of the following is a selectable marker (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Ori (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) rop (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) EcoRI (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) tetR gene 85. Marasmus is due to

81. Stain used for visualising DNA fragments in (1) Protein deficiency unaccompanied by
calorie deficiency
gel electro-phoresis
(2) Carbohydrate deficiency not
(1) X-gal accompanied by protein deficiency
(2) Acetocarmine (3) Simultaneous deficiency of calcium and
(3) Ethidium bromide iodine
(4) Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and
(4) Hematoxylen calories
82. The Roqueefort cheese is ripened by
86. Match the following genera with their
(1) Specific fungus respective taxa.
(2) Bacterium (a) Ichthyophis (i) Reptilia

(3) Virus (b) Calotes (ii) Chondrichthyes

(4) Actinomycetes (c) Pristis (iii) Mammalia
83. Advantage of using Glomus as a biofertilizer
(d) Felis (iv) Amphibia
is
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from soil Select the correct option:
(2) Resistance to root borne pathogens (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Tolerance to salinity and drought (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) All the above (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 10
87. Which of the following is a diploblastic (3) In male cockroach, each vas deferens
animal with tissue level of organisation? opens into the ejaculatory duct through
(1) Physalia a seminal vesicle
(2) Spongilla (4) Two ovaries lie laterally in the 2nd - 6th
abdominal segments of the female
(3) Fasciola cockroach
(4) Pheretima 91. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of
88. Match the following w.r.t variety and the three situations shown in the figure. Their
resistance to disease mutual inductance will be:

List-I List-II
A. Karan rai I. Leaf curl
B. Pusa komal II. White rust
(1) (2)
C. Himgiri III. Bacterial blight
D. Pusa sadabahar IV. Stripe rust

(3)
A B C D (1) maximum in situation (1)
1. IV III II I (2) maximum in situation (2)
2. IV III I II (3) maximum in situation (3)
3. II III IV I (4) the same in all situations
4. II III I IV 92. An artificial satellite orbiting around earth
89. Choose the correctly matched pair. releases a package. If air resistance is
neglected the point where the package will
(1) Areolar - Specialised hit (with respect to the position at the time of
tissue connective tissue release) will be
(1) ahead
(2) Cartilage - Fluid connective
tissue (2) exactly below
(3) Adipose - Loose connective (3) behind
tissue tissue (4) it will never reach the earth
(4) Tendon - Dense irregular 93. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on
tissue
one refracting face of a prism of angle 75o. It
90. Which of the following statements is passes through the prism and is incident on
incorrect? the other face at the critical angle. If the
(1) The haemolymph of cockroach is refractive index of the material of the prism
composed of colourless plasma and is 2 , the angle of incidence on the first face
haemocytes of the prism is
(2) The major excretory organs of (1) 30o
cockroach are Malpighian tubules
(2) 45o
present at the junction of midgut and
foregut (3) 60o
(4) 0o
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 11
94. A body is projected up along the rough
inclined plane from the bottom with some
velocity. It travels up the incline and then
returns back. If the time of ascent is ta and (3)
time of descent is td, then
(1) ta = td
(2) ta > td (4)
(3) ta < td 98. Two different ideal diatomic gases A and B
(4) data insufficient are initially in the same state. A and B are
95. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an then expanded to same final volume through
impedence of 15 ohm. The power factor of adiabatic and isothermal process
the circuit will be : respectively. If PA , PB and TA , TB
(1) 0.8 represents the final pressure and temperatures
(2) 0.4 of A and B respectively then:
(3) 1.25 (1) PA < PB and TA < TB
(4) 0.125 (2) PA > PB and TA > TB
96 Two containers, one is having ice at 0°C and
(3) PA > PB and TA < TB
other containing boiling water at 100°C are
connected by two identical rods. When rods (4) PA < PB and TA > TB
are in parallel the rate of heat transfer is Q1 99. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds
and when rods are in series, the rate of heat
exhibits
transfer is Q2. Then Q2 /Q1 will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (1) wave nature of electron

(2) 1 : 2 (2) particle nature of electron

(3) 4 : 1 (3) both wave and particle nature of

(4) 1 : 4 electron

97. For a fluid which is flowing steadily in the (4) none of these

figure shown, the level in the vertical tubes is 100. Ball 1 collides head on with an another

best represented by identical ball 2 at rest. Velocity of second

ball after collision becomes two times that of
1 after collision. The coefficient of restitution
between the two balls is :
(1)
(1) e = 1/3
(2) e = 1/2
(3) e = 1/4
(2) (4) e = 2/3

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 12
101. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass 104. A gas undergoes a process in which its
m each have acceleration a1, a2 and a3 pressure P and volume V are related as
respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of VPn = constant. The bulk modulus of the gas
magnitudes 2 mg and mg respectively in the process is :
//////////////////////// //////////////////////// ////////////////////////
(1) nP
(2) P1/n
(3) P/n
m m m
A F1=2mg B 2m C F2=mg (4) Pn
(1) a 1 = a 2 = a 3 105. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s

(2) a 1 > a 2 > a 3 modulii of steel and brass wires in the figure
are a, b and c respectively. Then the
(3) a 1 = a 2 , a 2 > a 3
corresponding ratio of increase in their
(4) a 1 > a 2 , a 2 = a 3
lengths would be :
102. The total energy of a particle, executing
simple harmonic motion is related to the
displacement from the mean position x as per
relationship
(1) TE ∝ x
(2) TE ∝ x2
(3) TE ∝ x o
(4) TE ∝ x1/2 2ac
(1)
b2
103. A thin symmetrical double convex lens of
3a
power P is cut into three parts, as shown in (2)
2b 2 c
the figure. Power of A is:
3c
(3)
2ab 2
2a 2 c
(4)
b
106. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus :
(1) 2 P
(1) both the neutron number and the proton
P
(2) number change
2
(2) there is no change in the proton number
P
(3) and the neutron number
3
(4) P (3) only the neutron number changes
(4) only the proton number changes

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 13
107. A block of ice at -10ºC is slowly heated and (2) 7 units
converted to steam at 100ºC. Which of the (3) 8.5 units
following curves represents the phenomena (4) 10 units
qualitatively: 110. The extension in a string, obeying Hooke's
law, is x. The speed of wave in the stretched
string is v. If the extension in the string is
Temp

increased to 1.5 x, the speed of wave will be

(1) 1.22 v
(1) Heat supplied
(2) 0.61 v
(3) 1.50 v
Temp

(4) 0.75 v
111. Charge on the capacitor in the given circuit
in steady state condition is:
(2) Heat supplied
Temp

(1) 12 µ C
(3) Heat supplied
(2) 15 µ C
(3) 18 µ C
Temp

(4) 6 µ C
112. A block of mass 50 kg is projected
(4) Heat supplied
horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The
108. An electric dipole consists of two opposite coefficient of friction between the block and
charges each of magnitude 1.0 µ C, separated the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light
by a distance of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed spring of stiffness k = 100 N/m with a
in an external electric field of 1.0 × 105N/C. velocity 2m/s. The maximum compression of
The maximum torque on the dipole is : the spring is :
(1) 0.2 × 10 –3 N-m
(2) 1.0 × 10 –3 N-m
(3) 2.0 × 10 –3 N-m
(4) 4.0 × 10 –3 N-m
(1) 1 m
109. A particle has an initial velocity of 3iˆ + 4ˆj
(2) 2 m
and an acceleration of 0.4iˆ + 0.3jˆ . Its speed
(3) 3 m
after 10 s is : (4) 4 m
(1) 7 2 units
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 14
113. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts 117. When a particle moves in a circle with a
which have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. uniform speed :
The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be :
(1) Its velocity and acceleration are both
(1) 21/3 : 1
constant
(2) 1 : 31/2
(2) Its velocity is constant but the
(3) 31/2 : 1
acceleration changes
(4) 1 : 21/3
(3) Its acceleration is constant but the
114. In p-n junction solar cell, the value of photo
–electromotive force produced by velocity changes
monochromatic light is proportional to the (4) Its velocity and acceleration both
(1) Voltage applied at the p-n junction
change
(2) Barrier voltage at the p-n junction
118. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to
(3) Intensity of light falling on the cell just hold a block stationary against a wall.
(4) Frequency of light falling on the cell The coefficient of friction between the block
and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is
115. Find work done by the gas in the process
shown in figure :

(1) 20 N
5 (2) 50 N
(1) π atm L
2 (3) 100 N
5
(2) atm L (4) 2N
2
3 119. The potential difference between points A
(3) – π atm L
2 and B in the given uniform electric field is :
5 a
(4) – π atm L C B
4
116. If the first minima in a Young’s slit E
experiment occurs directly in front of one of b
the slits. (distance between slit & screen D =
12 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm) A
E
then the wavelength of the radiation used is :
(1) 2 cm only (1) Ea
(2) 4 cm only
(2) E (a 2 + b 2 )
2 2
(3) 2m ,cm, cm (3) Eb
3 5
4 4 (4) (Eb / 2 )
(4) 4cm, cm, cm
3 5
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 15
120. Two identical short magnetic dipoles of (2) 10 Ω
magnetic moments 1.0 A-m2 each, placed at 85
(3) Ω
a separation of 2 m with their axes 7

perpendicular to each other. The resultant (4) 5 Ω

magnetic field at a point midway between the 124. What is the value of output voltage V0 in the
dipole is: circuit shown in the figure ?

2m

(1) 5 × 10 –7 T

(2) 5 × 10 –7 T
(3) 10 –7 T (1) 6V
(4) 2 × 10 –7 T (2) 14 V
121. What is the voltage again in a common (3) 20 V
emitter amplifier, where input resistance is (4) 26 V

3Ω and load resistance is 24Ω (β = 0.6) ? 125. You are given an arrangement of three point
charges q, 2q and xq separated by equal finite
(1) 8.4 distance from each other, so that electric
(2) 4.8 potential energy of the system is zero. Then
the value of x is :
(3) 2.4
2
(4) 480 (1) −
3
122. A particle moves with a constant velocity
1
(2) −
parallel to the Y-axis. Its angular momentum 3
about the origin 2
(3)
(1) is zero 3
(2) remains constant 3
(4)
(3) goes on increasing 2

(4) goes on decreasing 126. The centre of a disc rolling without slipping

123. The equivalent resistance between the points on a plane surface moves with speed u. A

A and B is particle on the rim of the wheel at the same

level as the centre will be moving at speed
(1) zero
(2) u

(3) 2 u
36 (4) 2u
(1) Ω
7
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 16
127. Spherical wave fronts shown in figure, strike (4) -a sin(kx - wt)
a plane mirror. Reflected wave fronts will be 130. A metal conductor of length 1m rotates
as shown in vertically about one of its ends at angular
velocity 5 radians per second. If the
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
field is 0.2 × 10–4 T, then the emf developed
between the two ends of the conductor is :
(1) 5 µ V
(2) 50 µ V
(3) 5 µ V
(1) (4) 50 µ V
131. A fan is running at 3000 rpm. It is switched
(2) off. It comes to rest by uniformly decreasing
its angular speed in 10 seconds. The total
number of revolutions in this period.
(1) 150
(3)
(2) 250
(3) 350
(4) (4) 300
128. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in 132. If 13.6 eV energy is required to lionize the
water. The water rises upto 8 cm. If the entire hydrogen atom, then the energy required to
arrangement is put in a freely falling remove an electron from n = 2 is :
elevator, the length of water column in the (1) 10.2 eV
capillary tube will be : (2) 0 eV
(1) 8 cm (3) 3.4 eV
(2) 10 cm (4) 6.8 Ev
(3) 4 cm L
133. To estimate ‘g’ (from g = 4 π2 ), error in
(4) 20 cm T2
129. A wave represented by the equation measurement of L is + 2% and error in
y = a cos (kx - wt) is superposed with another measurement of T is + 3%. The error in
wave to form a stationary wave such that the estimated ‘g’ will be –
point x = 0 is a node. The equation for other (1) + 8%
wave is : (2) + 6%
(1) a sin (kx + wt) (3) + 3%
(2) -a cos(kx + wt) (4) + 5%
(3) -a cos(kx - wt)
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 17
134. Two infinitely long, thin, insulated, straight 137. Match the following in view of period
wires lie in the x-y plane along the x and y-
and the orbitals being filled.
axis respectively. Each wire carries a current
I, respectively in the positive x-direction and LIST - I LIST – II
positive y-direction. The magnetic field will A) Second period 1) s, f, d
be zero at all points on the straight line:
(1) y = x B) Fourth period 2) s,f,d,p
(2) y = – x C) Sixth period 3) s,p
(3) y = x – 1 D) First period 4) s
(4) y = – x + 1 5) s,d,p
135. In the fig. the potentiometer wire AB of The correct match is
length L & resistance 9 r is joined to the cell A B C D
D of e.m.f. ε & internal resistance r. The cell (1) 4 1 3 5
C's e.m.f. is ε /2 and its internal resistance is
(2) 2 3 4 5
2 r. The galvanometer G will show no
(3) 3 5 2 4
deflection when the length AJ is:
(4) 1 2 4 3
138. In which of the following compounds the
cation has "pseudo inert gas
configuration"
(1) CaCl2
(1) 4L/9 (2) CuCl2
(2) 5L/9
(3) ZnCl2
(3) 7L/18
(4) NaCl
(4) 11L/18
139. In case of equilibrium state which of the
136. When sodium metal is irradiated with
light of 300 nm wavelength, the kinetic following statement is incorrect
energy of the ejected electrons is (1) the equilibrium is dynamic in nature
1.68x105 J/mol. The minimum energy (2) the equilibrium can be attained from
required to remove an electeron from
either side of the reaction
sodium atom (in Joules) is [N= 6x1023
(3) the values of the measurable
mol–1, h= 6.6x10–34 J.S]
(1) 3.8 x 10–19 properties do not change with time,
once the equilibrium is attained
(2) 4.8 x 10–18
(4) the concentrations of all the
(3) 5.6 x 10–20
substances involved in equilibrium
(4) 2.3 x 10–17
are equal to each other
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 18
140. For a hypothetical reversible reaction, 144. Incorrect statement about water pollution
1/ 2 A2 ( g ) + 3/ 2 B2 ( g ) ⇌ (1) NO3− >50 ppm leads to bluebaby
AB3 ( g ); ∆H = −20 KJ
syndrome
If standard entropies of A2 , B2 and AB3
-1 -1
(2) SO4−2 >550 ppm leads to laxative
are 60, 40, 50 J.k mole respectively.
The above reaction will be in equlibrium effect
at (3) F − <1ppm leads to fluorosis
(1) 400k (4) Pb>50ppb leads to kidney damage
(2) 500k
145. The carbocation having more number of
(3) 250k
hyperconjugation structures is
(4) 200k ⊕
141. Which of the following sets of quantum (1) (CH3 )3 C − C H − CH3
⊕
numbers is correct? (2) CH 3 − CH 2 − C H − CH 2 − CH 3
(1) n = 4, l= 3, m = +4, s = +1/2 ⊕
(3) CH 3 − C H − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3
(2) n = 3, l= 2, m = +3, s = –1/2
⊕
(3) n = 2, l= 2, m = +2, s = +1/2 4) CH − CH − CH
3 2 2
(4) n = 1, l= 0, m = 0, s = –1/2 146. Calculate emf of the cell
142. Man dies in an atmosphere of carbon Zn / Zn +2 ( 0.01M ) / / Ag + ( 0.1M ) / Ag
monoxide, because it
(1) combines with O2 present in the
(E 0
cell = 1.56V )
(1) 1.5 V
body to form CO2
(2) 1.62 V
(2) reduces the organic matter of tissues
(3) 1.56 V
(3) combines with haemoglobin of
(4) 1.68 V
blood, making it incapable of
147. Paramagnetic nature of oxygen molecule
binding O2
is explained on the bassis of its electronic
(4) dries up the blood configuration of
143. The salt of oxoacid of phosphorous which
(1) (π 2p x )1 , (π 2p y )1
is used as water softener is
(1) Epsom salt (2) (π ∗ 2px )1 , (π ∗ 2p y )1

(2) Microcosmic salt (3) (σ ∗ 2s)1 , (π 2p y )1

(3) Calgon
(4) (σ 2s)1 , (π ∗ 2p y )1
(4) Chlorapatite
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 19
148. A solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 151. Which of the following graph represent
zero order reaction
10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes.
What is the mass of copper deposited at x
a ( a − x)
the cathode ? (atomic mass of Cu is 64)
(1) 0.4 g (1) time

(2) 0.3 g
a
(3) 0.5 g log
a−x
(4) 0.6 g time
(2)
149. The correct increasing order of first
ionisation energies of Na, Mg, Al and Si x
is
(3) time
(1) Na < Al < Mg < Si
(2) Na < Si < Al < Mg
x
(3) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(4) Si < Al < Mg < Na
(4) time
CH3CH2Cl
A KMnO4 + KOH B 152. The reagent which is useful in the
AlCl3 H+
150. separation and purification of aldehydes
SOCl2 H2 / Pd is
C D
BaSO4
(1) Na2CO3
The compound “D” is (2) NaOH + I2
CH2OH
(3) NaOCl

(1) (4) NaHSO3

CH3 153. When xenon hexafluoride is completely
hydrolysed a xenon compound “A”
(2)
formed. The number of σ - bonds,
COOH
π -bonds and lone pairs present on Xe in
(3) ‘A’ respectively are
CHO (1) 4, 4, 0
(2) 3, 3, 1
(4)
(3) 4, 1, 1
(4) 4, 2, 0
Sri Chaitanya Page Hyderabad
20
154. 100 ml of 1M HCl solution is added to (4) variable oxidation states
50ml of 1M NaOH solution and then a ) alc. KOH
158. CHCl2 − CHCl2 
NaNH 2
→ A  →
b ) NaNH 2 excess
diluted to 1 litre. The pH of the resulting
C2 H 5 Br
solution is B  → C . the compound C is
excess
(1) 1.8 (1) 2-butyne
(2) 1.3 (2) 3-hexyne
(3) 2.1 (3) 2-pentyne
(4) 3.2 (4) 1-pentyne
155. Which of the following compounds under 159. Regarding glucose correct statement is
goes nucleophillic substitution reaction (1) On oxidation with Conc.HNO3 it
most easily gives gluconic acid
(2) it forms n-heptane on reduction
Cl OCH3
(1) (3) It cannot react with NaHSO3
(4) It is a aldopentose
Cl CH3
160. A closed vessel contains equal number of
(2)
molecules of N2 and O2 at a total pressure
of 650 mm of Hg. If N2 is completely
Cl NO2
removed from the vessel, the pressure in
(3)
the vessel
(1) reduced to 216.7 mm of Hg
Cl
(4) (2) reduced to 325 mm of Hg
156. Aqueous ferric chloride is acidic. This is (3) remains unchanged
due to (4) inceased to 1300 mm of Hg
(1) Cationic hydrolysis 161. NH3 evolved from 0.75 g of an organic
(2) Anionic hydrolysis compound in Kjeldahl’s method
(3) Salt is an acidic salt
neutralized by 30ml of 0.25N H2SO4.
(4) Salt is a basic salt
The percentage of nitrogen in the
157. Which one of the following characterstics
compound is
of the transition metal is associated with
(1) 28
their catalytic activity?
(2) 50
(1) High enthalpy of atomisation
(3) 14
(2) paramagnetic behaviour
(4) 80
(3) due to colour
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 21
 a ) B H +THF 167. Which of the following is an analgesic?
162. CH 3−CH 2−CH =CH 2 
2 6
b) H 2O2 / OH −
→A
(1) Penicillin
(2) Streptomycin
( )
Conc.H SO

2 4 → B maj
∆ (3) Chloromycetin
A, B respectively (4) Novalgin
168. The correct deceasing order in the bond
(1) 2-butanol, 1-butene
angle of the following hydrides is
(2) 1-butanol, 1-butyne
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(3) 1-butanol, 2-butene
(2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(4) 2-butanol, 2-butene
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
163. Which of the following is correct
(4) PH 3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
increasing order of oxidising power?
169. 10ml of H 2O 2 sample gives 250ml of O 2
(1) VO2+< Cr2O72− < MnO4−
at STP. The molarity of this sample is
(2) VO2+< MnO4− < Cr2O72− (1) 1.12
(3) Cr2O72− < VO2+ < MnO4− (2) 2.23

(4) Cr2O72− < MnO4− < VO2+ (3) 3.34

alk . KMnO4 B (4) 4.45
164. CH 2 = CH 2  cold
→ A  → Dacron
170. The correct order of magnetic moments is
B is 2− 2− 4−
(1)  MnCl4  > CoCl4  >  Fe ( CN )6 
(1) Succinic acid
2− 4− 2−
(2) Adipic acid (2)  MnCl4  >  Fe ( CN ) 6  > CoCl4 
4− 2− 2−
(3) Terephthalic acid (3)  Fe ( CN )6  >  MnCl4  >  CoCl4 
4− 2− 2−
(4) Phthalic acid (4)  Fe ( CN )6  > CoCl4  >  MnCl4 
165. Oxidation states of Pb in Pb3O4 are 171. Which of the following has minimum
(1) +2, +2, +4 value of gold number
(2) +3, +2, +2 (1) potato starch
(3) +8, 0, 0 (2) Gumarabic
(4) +4, +4, 0 (3) Gelatin
166. The decreasing order of hydration (4) Albumin
enthalpies of alkaline earth metal ions is 172. Electronegativity is least for
(1) Be2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ > Ba2+ (1) Tl
(2) Be2+ > Ba2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ (2) Al
(3) Ba2+ > Sr2+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (3) Ga
(4) Be2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ > Mg2+ > Ba2+ (4) B
Sri Chaitanya Page Hyderabad
22
173. The most reactive carbonyl compound 177. Methyl – t – butyl ether is formed by
towards cyanohydrin formation (1) (C 2 H 5 )3 CONa + CH 3Cl
(nucleophilic addition) is (2) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH 3Cl
(1) C6 H 5 − CO − CH 3 (3) CH 3ONa + (CH3 )3 CCl
(2) C6 H 5 − CHO (4) C 2 H5Cl + (CH 3 )3 CONa
178. Which of the following amines can be
(3) CH 3 − CO − C2 H 5
prepared by Gabriel phthalimide
(4) CH 3 − CHO reaction?
(1) Triethylamine
174. Chlorine on reaction with hot and
(2) n-butylamine
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution
(3) Aniline
gives
(4) Dimethyl amine
(1) Cl − and ClO3−
179.
−
(2) Cl and ClO2− ( )
alc.KOH excess Zn
A ←
∆
 CH2 − CH2 
∆
→B
(3) Cl − and ClO −
Cl Cl
(4) ClO3− and ClO2−
In the above equation A and B are
175. If van’t Hoff factors of aqueous solutions 1) Ethylene, ethane
X, Y and Z are 1.8, 0.8 and 2.5. If these 2) Ethylene, ethylene
solutions have same molal concentration, 3) Acetylene, ethylene

the correct order of their osmotic pressure 4) ethane, acetylene

is 180. The following are some statements about

(1) X < Y < Z oxides of alkali metals

(2) Y < X < Z i) The basic nature and solubility of

these oxides increase from Li to Cs
(3) X = Y = Z
ii) The stability of superoxides of IA
(4) X < Z < Y group elements increases down the
176. In which of the following pair both the group due to increase in lattice
energy
species are used as antacid?
iii) KO2 is orange red coloured and
(1) NaHCO3 and Mg ( OH ) 2 paramagnetic
(1) Only ii is correct
(2) Na2CO3 and Mg ( OH ) 2
(2) i and iii are correct
(
(3) Ca HCO3 )2 and Mg (OH )2 (3) ii and iii are correct
(4) Ca ( OH )2 and Na2CO3 (4) All are correct

Sri Chaitanya Page Hyderabad

23
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL NEET GRAND TEST – 2 KEY Date : 11-01-2020

BOT : 1, 8, 9, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 20, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, 31, 32, 34, 35,
37, 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 47, 48, 49, 50, 53, 54, 63, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 83, 88
ZOO : 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10, 12, 19, 21, 29, 33, 36, 40, 46, 51, 52, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61,
62, 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 84, 85, 86, 87, 89, 90
BIOLOGY

1) 4 2) 4 3) 1 4) 3 5) 3 6) 2 7) 3 8) 2 9) 3 10) 1
11) 3 12) 1 13) 4 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 1 19) 2 20) 3
21) 4 22) 4 23) 2 24) 1 25) 2 26) 3 27) 2 28) 2 29) 3 30) 4
31) 3 32) 4 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3 36) 4 37) 4 38) 4 39) 3 40) 1
41) 3 42) 2 43) 3 44) 4 45) 2 46) 1 47) 3 48) 1 49) 2 50) 4
51) 1 52) 2 53) 3 54) 3 55) 4 56) 4 57) 2 58) 3 59) 3 60) 4
61) 3 62) 3 63) 2 64) 4 65) 4 66) 2 67) 2 68) 1 69) 4 70) 2
71) 1 72) 2 73) 4 74) 4 75) 4 76) 3 77) 1 78) 2 79) 2 80) 4
81) 3 82) 1 83) 4 84) 1 85) 4 86) 2 87) 1 88) 3 89) 3 90) 2

PHYSICS

91) 1 92) 4 93) 2 94) 3 95) 1 96) 4 97) 1 98) 1 99) 1 100) 1
101) 2 102) 3 103) 4 104) 3 105) 2 106) 2 107) 1 108) 3 109) 1 110) 1
111) 3 112) 1 113) 4 114) 3 115) 4 116) 1 117) 4 118) 4 119) 3 120) 2
121) 2 122) 2 123) 3 124) 1 125) 1 126) 3 127) 3 128) 4 129) 2 130) 2
131) 2 132) 3 133) 1 134) 1 135) 2

CHEMISTRY

136) 1 137) 3 138) 3 139) 4 140) 2 141) 4 142) 3 143) 3 144) 3 145) 3

146) 3 147) 2 148) 2 149) 1 150) 4 151) 3 152) 4 153) 2 154) 2 155) 3

156) 1 157) 4 158) 2 159) 3 160) 2 161) 3 162) 3 163) 1 164) 3 165) 1

166) 1 167) 4 168) 1 169) 2 170) 1 171) 3 172) 2 173) 4 174) 1 175) 2

176) 1 177) 2 178) 2 179) 3 180) 4